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{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 321, 542 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 96 ] ], "text": "The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 321, 542 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 96 ] ], "text": "The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 321, 542 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 96 ] ], "text": "The excessive secretion of androgens produced by an adrenal tumor would cause a greater amount of hair and an increase in penile size, which our patient does not present. Therefore, the correct option is early adrenarche." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Central precocious puberty.", "2": "Peripheral precocious puberty.", "3": "Early adrenarche.", "4": "Adrenal tumor.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0870_2546", "title": "Boy with central precocious puberty probably due to a peripheral cause.", "score": 0.019246784491533265, "content": "A 6½ years Indian boy was brought by his parents, who were anxious about the excessive increase in the size of the boy's phallus, from the age of 2 years. On physical examination, the child had a penis length greater than the 97th centile for age, a sexual maturity rating of gonads at stage 2 and pubic hair at stage 3, with height in the high normal range (90-97th centile). The bone age was 12 years. Laboratory evaluation showed pubertal levels of testosterone and pubertal gonadotropin response to stimulation, confirming central precocious puberty (CPP). Incidentally, the hormonal profile also suggested congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). This case report depicts a case of CPP probably caused by CAH in boys, which is rare. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_20807", "title": "[Precocious puberty and von Recklinghausen's disease].", "score": 0.019230769230769232, "content": "Von Recklinghausen's disease belongs to a group of neurocutaneous syndromes and is characterised by skin, nerve and bone abnormalities. We present a case of von Recklinghausen's disease and precocious puberty in 7-year-old boy. At the age of three café au lait spots on the skin and an incranial tumour situated near the optic chiasm--qualified as inoperable--were discovered. At the age of 7 first signs of precocious puberty appeared (pubic hair P3 and enlargement of the testes (15 ml) and penis). Laboratory measurements included: LH 7.5 mIU/ml, FSH 1.1 mIU/ml, testosterone 183 ng/ml, assessment of bone age: 9 years. The response to LHRH stimulation was characteristic for true precocious puberty (LH 15.9 mIU/ml and FSH 1.5 mIU/ml after 30 minutes). The MRI of the brain showed a tumour of the suprasellar region with compression of pituitary stalk. True precocious puberty was diagnosed. Treatment with Diphereline was introduced. At present the boy is 9 years old and has been treated with Diphereline for 16 months. The volume of the testicles has decreased to 7 ml and loss of pubic hair was noted. The MRI does not show any progression in tumour growth. The authors would like to underline the need of close observation of children with von Reclinghausen disease with regard to possibility of uncovering true precocious puberty which is critical for rapid diagnosis and introduction of correct treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0732_12597", "title": "Hypothalamic hamartoma with precocious puberty: a case report.", "score": 0.017588325652841783, "content": "Hypothalamic hamartoma (HH) is one of the most important causes of central precocious puberty in male children. Hamartomas are malformations composed of ectopic gonadotropic hormone (GnRH) neurons which secrete pulsatile gonadotropin releasing hormone. They are generally observed in children under 3 years. A case of 11/3 year-old male child presented with premature development of secondary sexual characters i.e., growth of pubic and axillary hair, enlargement of penis and acne over the face for the last 5 months. On physical examination, his height was 1.02 m and his weight 18kg, enlarged penile length of which 58mm; testicles were enlarged in size right one measuring 32X25mm and the left 30X23mm. His hematological and other biochemical investigations revealed no abnormality. Plain radiographic examination revealed radiological bone age of about 8-9 years. Endocrinological findings were as follows: Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH): 1.5mIU/ml, Luteinizing hormone (LH): 9.1mIU/ml, Testosterone: 701ng/dl (Testosterone level less than 30ng/dl in prepubertal age). Thyroid function tests were normal. Patient showed no adrenal pathology on ultrasound and his testicular parenchyma was homogeneous echotexture with the size of 30X22X16mm on the right (volume 5.4ml) and 30X20X15mm on the left (volume 4.6ml). With above physical &amp; endocrinological findings and age of the child, it was suspected as a case of central precocious puberty. Subsequently MR imaging of the brain done &amp; showed an oval non-enhancing pedunculated hypothalamic mass arising from the tubercinereum that was iso to hypointense to brain parenchyma on T1 - and intermediate signal on T2-weighted images, 20X10X10mm in diameter, extending into suprasellar cistern. During follow up after 06 months of starting conservative medication with gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analog (Leuprolide acetate), his progression of puberty has been arrested and the testosterone level 18ng/dl, which is normal for his age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1060_25703", "title": "Precocious Pseudo-Puberty with Testicular Enlargement: Two Cases of Leydig Cell Tumor with Different Histopathological Results.", "score": 0.01588557516737675, "content": "Leydig cell tumors (LCT) are the most common hormone-secreting testicular tumors; it is a rare cause for precocious pseudo-puberty in boys. The tumors secrete high amounts of testosterone. We present two cases of LCT in prepubertal boys presenting with precocious puberty. Case 1. A 6-year-old boy was referred from the pediatric department with a diagnosis of precocious puberty. The patient had reported enlarged and painless swelling of the left testicle from a year ago. The puberty status of the patient was A1P3G4. Ultrasonography examination had found left testicular mass. Elective radical orchiectomy of the left testicle was performed. Histopathological analysis confirmed the diagnosis of benign LCT. Case 2. A 6-year-old boy presented with an enlarged left testicle for the last three months. Features of puberty were noted on the patient (appearance of pubic and facial hair). The puberty status of the patient was A1P3G3. Left testicle US had found homogenous, hypoechoic mass with calcification. Bone age had found increased bone maturation. Increased androgen hormones were detected through a blood test. Radical orchiectomy of the left testicle was performed. The histopathological examination showed malignant LCT. Leydig cell tumors uncommonly occur in children. Prepubertal-aged boys presented with asymmetrical, firm, painless testicular enlargement with signs of puberty should be evaluated for LCT. Histopathological analysis is the mainstay of diagnosis and radical orchiectomy is the treatment of choice of LCT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_16745", "title": "[Clinical thinking and decision making in practice. A 7-year old boy with rapid growth and pubic hair].", "score": 0.01582751744765703, "content": "A 7-year-old boy was tall, with a developing penis and initial growth of pubic hair. Due to the accelerated growth there was no premature adrenarche and due to the increased testicular volume there must have been a central cause for the production of androgens. Further specific investigations revealed an astrocytoma of the hypothalamus. After radiotherapy, the tumour exhibited no growth. The pubertal development was inhibited and the growth later stimulated by means of medication. In the case of pubertas praecox the growth chart and pubertal stages including testicular volume can help to differentiate between central and peripheral precocious puberty, narrow the diagnostic evaluation and reduce the time of the initial therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0203_9994", "title": "Age at first conscious ejaculation: a milestone in male puberty.", "score": 0.014440606409518327, "content": "The age of occurrence of the first conscious ejaculation was registered in 263 boys belonging to two categories: (1) 128 boys (70 normal controls, 22 boys with unilateral cryptorchidism with normal puberty, and 36 boys with delayed puberty) who had been under regular follow-up throughout puberty. All underwent a complete physical examination at intervals of 3 to 6 months, and in most a wrist X-ray was made within three months of the first ejaculation. (2) A group of 135 boys examined and questioned at their school served as additional controls. Eighty of these reported ejaculations. Despite a wide range in the chronological age at occurrence of the first conscious ejaculation, the mean bone age in all groups, including that with delayed puberty, was 13 1/2 +/- 1/2 years (SD), with a range between 12 1/2-15 1/2 years. There was no correlation between the age at first ejaculation and testicular volume, pubic hair or penis length. It is proposed that the age at the first conscious ejaculation be used as an index of maturation in male puberty." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0825_14744", "title": "Premature pubarche before one year of age: distinguishing between mini-puberty variants and precocious puberty.", "score": 0.014245548266166821, "content": "The aim of this study was to facilitate the distinction between the benign \"mini-puberty of early infancy\" and precocious puberty (PP). We compared 59 patients (21 boys and 38 girls) seen for pubic hair development before one year of age diagnosed as mini-puberty to 13 patients (2 boys) in whom pubertal development before one year revealed a PP. The boys with mini-puberty presented with pubic hair development and prepubertal testicular volume, with low plasma testosterone concentrations. Their gonadotropin responses to gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) test showed predominant luteinising hormone increase in 9/13. The girls presented with pubic hair development that was accompanied by breast development in 47% of cases, with low plasma estradiol concentrations. Their gonadotropin responses showed predominant follicle-stimulating hormone increase in the 17 evaluated. The patients with PP had organic central PP (5 hypothalamic hamartoma) or idiopathic central PP (n=6), or peripheral PP (one ovarian tumor and one congenital adrenal hyperplasia). The diagnosis was challenging only in 3 girls with idiopathic central PP presenting with prepubertal plasma estradiol concentrations and responses to GnRH test. The diagnosis of PP was easily determined based on the clinical presentation and the pubertal concentrations of testosterone in boys or of estradiol in girls, as was the diagnosis of central or peripheral origin of PP based on gonadotropin response to the GnRH test. Once PP is excluded, these patients need careful follow-up and physician consultation is needed if clinical pubertal signs progress." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_10133", "title": "Are pubertal changes in girls before age 8 benign?", "score": 0.014162194394752534, "content": "The Lawson Wilkins Pediatric Endocrine Society recently issued new recommendations for the age at which puberty should be considered precocious, lowering the prevailing standards from 8 years to 7 years for white girls and to 6 years for black girls. The new recommendations were based on a single epidemiologic study that focused on the conditions of premature thelarche and premature adrenarche (both characterized by a single sign of puberty). Although the data were available, the authors did not comment on the low incidence of true precocious puberty (characterized by breast and pubic hair development) in their population. The hypothesis for the present study is that the new recommendations lead to underdiagnosis of endocrine pathology Using 29 International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision codes for diagnoses known to be associated with precocious puberty, we identified 1570 patient visits to our outpatient pediatric endocrinology clinic of white girls aged 7 to 8 and black girls aged 6 to 8 during a 5-year period Of the 1570 patient visits, 223 unique patients were identified as having been referred for the sole finding of precocious pubertal development. These 223 patients carried no other endocrine diagnoses. Eleven patients (4.9%) were found to have no true breast buds and no terminally differentiated pubic hair. A total of 105 (47.1%) of 223 patients were found to have 2 signs of puberty, consistent with true precocious puberty according to the conventional guidelines of precocity of 8 years in girls. Overall, 12.3% of patients also had diagnoses of other endocrine conditions that included congenital adrenal hyperplasia, McCune-Albright syndrome, growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, hyperinsulinism, pituitary adenoma, and neurofibromatosis. A total of 35.2% of girls with true precocious puberty exhibited bone ages &gt;3 standard deviations above the mean, indicating markedly diminished growth potential We conclude that signs of puberty in 6- to 8-year-old girls should not be considered normal or benign. Implementation of the new guidelines for the evaluation of puberty will result in failure to identify conditions that respond to early intervention." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_84199", "title": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency", "score": 0.013847209122867188, "content": "The growth problem is even worse in the simple virilizing forms of CAH which are detected when premature pubic hair appears in childhood, because the bone age is often several years advanced at the age of diagnosis. While a boy (or girl) with simple virilizing CAH is taller than peers at that point, he will have far fewer years remaining to grow, and may go from being a very tall 7-year-old to a 62-inch 13-year-old who has completed growth. Even with adrenal suppression, many of these children will have already had central precocious puberty triggered by the prolonged exposure of the hypothalamus to the adrenal androgens and estrogens. If this has begun, it may be advantageous to suppress puberty with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist such as leuprolide to slow continuing bone maturation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0499_2086", "title": "[Leydig cell tumor presenting as precocious pseudopuberty in a 4-year-old boy].", "score": 0.013716854757317185, "content": "To report one case of isosexual precocious pseudopuberty in a 4-year-old boy caused by an interstitial cell testicular tumor. Physical exam, blood tests, hormonal determinations, adrenal suppression tests, bone age, orchiectomy and pathologic study of the specimen were performed. Physical examination showed a boy with muscle development, acne; body, sexual and face hair corresponding to an older boy; with increased volume of the left testicle and infantile contralateral testicle. Urinary 17-ketosteroids were elevated and did not decrease after dexametasone. Bone age corresponded to an 11-year-old standard. Pathologic study showed an interstitial cell tumor. Puberty changes disappeared after orchiectomy. This diagnosis should be taken into consideration in every case of accelerated sexual development in a boy with testicular tumor and without maturation of the contralateral testicle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_10960", "title": "Precocious puberty in a seven-year-old boy due to human chorionic gonadotropin producing pineal tumor detected by nuclear magnetic resonance computed tomographic scanning.", "score": 0.01369047619047619, "content": "We report a 7-year-old boy who developed incomplete sexual precocity due to a human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)-producing tumor in the pineal region. The patient presented enlarged testes (3 x 2 x 2 cm) bilaterally, enlarged penis, pubic hair development of Tanner Stage III, advanced bone age and growth spurt. Initial hormonal studies showed an adult male level of testosterone (13 ng/ml) and a high level of HCG as well as HCG-beta subunit. A high basal level of LH, probably due to immuno-cross-reactivity with HCG, and low basal level of FSH, probably suppressed by testosterone, did not respond to LH-RH infusion. Search for the site of HCG production failed at the initial workup, but calcification without definite signs of tumor in the pineal region was found by conventional brain CT scan. Because of subsequent progression of clinical and laboratory findings of sexual precocity, nuclear magnetic resonance computed tomographic (NMR-CT) scan was performed, which confirmed the presence of a pineal tumor three months later. The patient was treated with 4,500 rad. of radiation therapy, and responded dramatically to this regimen. He has been followed for more than two years without any signs of recurrence. We have reported here a very rare case of incomplete sexual precocity due to an HCG-producing intracranial tumor in the pineal region. An NMR-CT scan is a very useful tool for the diagnosis of some types of pineal tumor, such as germinoma, which are highly radiosensitive." }, { "id": "article-20323_5", "title": "Delayed Puberty -- Etiology -- Delayed Puberty in Males", "score": 0.013549188601599503, "content": "In males, a common cause of pubertal delay is a constitutional delay of puberty and growth (CDPG). CDPG occurs when there is a decrease in the tempo of growth. The patients are generally healthy adolescent males, who appear short for age. At birth, they are an average size. However, their rate of growth slows down around 3 to 6 months of age. When they reach 3 or 4 years of age, the patients will be growing below but parallel to the 3rd percentile line. As their male peers experience puberty and a growth spurt, the patient will continue to have a lower growth velocity (2 to 4 cm/year) and pubertal delay. In normal boys, the growth spurt occurs at a testicular volume of 10 ml, which is between Tanner stage 3 and 4 (usually ages 13 to 15).  In boys with CDPG and delayed puberty, their growth spurt occurs at a later age, generally between 15 to 17 years of age. [4] When the patient finally experiences puberty, his catch-up growth will continue until he reaches his predicted target height, which may not occur until he is older than 17 or 18 years. The patient's bone age will experience delay compared to his chronological age by 2 or more years; the bone age will also correlate with his current height. [3] History will typically reveal a sibling or parent that was a \"late bloomer.\"  For example, the father may not have experienced a growth spurt until 15 or 16 years of age. CDPG is normally a diagnosis of exclusion. However, it is often difficult to differentiate between CDPG and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0499_18570", "title": "Clinical characteristics of 104 children referred for evaluation of precocious puberty.", "score": 0.013421312505610915, "content": "There is controversy over the age of onset of puberty in normal children and the risk of missing pathology if the recently proposed revised age guidelines for referring patients are followed. However, there is little recently published information on the frequency of different diagnoses in children referred for signs of early puberty. The purposes of this study were 1) to analyze the spectrum of diagnoses made in a consecutive group of children referred to a single clinician for signs of early puberty; 2) to see whether certain patient groups were more likely to be obese; and 3) to estimate the incidence of endocrine pathology in this sample. The charts of all children referred to the author for evaluation of signs of early puberty between October 1999 and October 2002 were reviewed. Criteria were developed to assign patients to one of seven diagnostic categories based on age, growth, and clinical findings, and differences from the population mean for height and percentage of ideal body weight in the different groups were determined. Most of the patients referred (87%) were female, and the two most common diagnoses made were premature adrenarche (46%) and premature thelarche (18%). Only 9% (all girls) were thought to have true precocious puberty. Two conditions not well described in the literature, pubic hair of infancy and premature menses, were found in 8 and 5%, respectively. Patients with premature adrenarche were significantly taller and more overweight than the general population; a subgroup had evidence of accelerated growth and bone maturation but no worrisome endocrine findings. Acanthosis nigricans was found in 13% of the girls in this study, but the incidence of true endocrine pathology was very low. The majority of children being referred for precocious puberty have benign normal variants, with a very low incidence of endocrine pathology. Most girls presenting with minimal breast or pubic hair development and normal growth velocity may be managed with observation and without a full endocrine evaluation." }, { "id": "article-27607_43", "title": "Peripheral Precocious Puberty -- Evaluation -- Bone age assessment", "score": 0.013294001966568339, "content": "Radiographs of the hand and wrist should be performed in cases of suspected precocious puberty to assess epiphyseal maturation. An average or slightly delayed bone age  (<2 years of chronological age) suggests benign variants such as premature thelarche or premature adrenarche. On the other hand, significantly advanced bone age (>2 standard deviations above the mean for age) indicates accelerated linear growth and precocious puberty. Rapidly progressive bone age should raise concern for congenital adrenal hyperplasia or tumors originating from the ovaries, adrenal glands, or germ cells. [31]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0382_10196", "title": "Adrenocorticotropin-dependent precocious puberty of testicular origin in a boy with X-linked adrenal hypoplasia congenita due to a novel mutation in the DAX1 gene.", "score": 0.013243006993006994, "content": "Primary adrenal insufficiency is a rare condition in pediatric age, and its association with precocious sexual development is very uncommon. We report a 2-yr-old Brazilian boy with DAX1 gene mutation whose first clinical manifestation was isosexual gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty. He presented with pubic hair, enlarged penis and testes, and advanced bone age. T levels were elevated, whereas basal and GnRH-stimulated LH levels were compatible with a prepubertal pattern. Chronic GnRH agonist therapy did not reduce T levels, supporting the diagnosis of gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty. Testotoxicosis was ruled out after normal sequencing of exon 11 of the LH receptor gene. At age 3 yr he developed clinical and hormonal features of severe primary adrenal insufficiency. The entire coding region of the DAX1 gene was analyzed through direct sequencing. A nucleotide G insertion between nucleotides 430 and 431 in exon 1, resulting in a novel frameshift mutation and a premature stop codon at position 71 of DAX-1, was identified. Surprisingly, steroid replacement therapy induced a clear decrease in testicular size and T levels to the prepubertal range. These findings suggest that chronic excessive ACTH levels resulting from adrenal insufficiency may stimulate Leydig cells and lead to gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty in some boys with DAX1 gene mutations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_84161", "title": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency", "score": 0.013212248377155596, "content": "Appearance of pubic hair in mid-childhood is the most common feature that leads to evaluation and diagnosis. Other accompanying features are likely to be tall stature and accelerated bone age (often 3–5 years ahead). Often present are increased muscle mass, acne, and adult body odor. In boys the penis will be enlarged. Mild clitoral enlargement may occur in girls, and sometimes a degree of prenatal virilization is recognized that may have gone unnoticed in infancy. The principal goals of treatment of nonclassical CAH are to preserve as much growth as possible and to prevent central precocious puberty if it has not already been triggered. These are more difficult challenges than in CAH detected in infancy because moderate levels of androgens will have had several years to advance bone maturation and to trigger central puberty before the disease is detected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0831_3749", "title": "[Age of onset of puberty in Chilean boys according to testicular volume and Tanner stage].", "score": 0.01296793688098036, "content": "A secular trend towards a younger age of puberty onset has been reported in Chilean girls. To evaluate the age of onset of puberty and prevalence of early puberty in Chilean boys. A pediatric endocrinologist examined 319 children attending schools in central Santiago. Pubertal development was assessed by testicular volume (TV) and genital inspection (GI) using Tanner graduation. Precocious and early puberty development was diagnosed if TV ≥ 4 ml or GI &gt; stage 2 occurred in boys younger than 9 years and at 9-10 years of age, respectively. Pubertal onset occurred at 10.2 ± 1.5 years according to TV and at 11.1 ± 1.6 years according to GI (p &lt; 0.01). Before the age of nine, 15.2% of children had a VT ≥ 4 ml, 3% had genital changes in GI and only 3% had both changes simultaneously. Early puberty was observed in 23.8% of children according to TV and 9.5% according to GI. However, no child of less than 11 years old had a TV ≥ 4 ml, genital changes and pubic hair simultaneously. Late pubertal stages occurred at the same age according to both criteria used. Body mass index z score was not associated with the age of pubertal onset. Testicular enlargement occurs one year earlier than changes in genitalia according to inspection. Testicular growth, but not late stages of puberty, are occurring one year earlier than previously reported in Chile 10 years ago." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0824_7367", "title": "Changing Etiological Trends in Male Precocious Puberty: Evaluation of 100 Cases with Central Precocious Puberty over the Last Decade.", "score": 0.012653489068583407, "content": "There are few studies in the literature that have evaluated the etiological factors in boys with central precocious puberty (CPP), and these studies are limited in terms of the sample size. In the present study, we aimed to evaluate the etiological factors in male CPP cases. One hundred male CPP subjects, aged between 9 months and 10.5 years, were included. The medical records were screened, and age at diagnosis, bone age, body weight, height, pubertal stage, imaging findings of the pituitary gland, testosterone, and basal and stimulated gonadotropin levels were recorded. There was no underlying cause in 74% of the cases, and an organic cause was determined in only 26%. Most of the organic cases had been diagnosed before the age of 7 years, whereas most of the idiopathic cases had been diagnosed after the age of 7 years. An organic cause was determined in 26% of the male patients with CPP. This rate is one of the lowest rates in the literature and indicates that the number of idiopathic male CPP cases is increasing over time. When a boy is diagnosed with CPP above the age of 7 years, the odds of detecting an underlying pathology are very low, and these cases are mostly idiopathic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0627_16647", "title": "[Precocious pubarche: experience in 173 cases ].", "score": 0.012543922620621907, "content": "Precocious pubarche (PP), defined as the development of sexual pubic hair before 8 years of age in females and before 9 years in males, is usually a benign condition but it can also be the first sign of an underlying disease. To analyze the etiology and perform a short term follow up in a cohort of patients with PP. A group of 173 patients (158 females) consulted for PP with a mean age of 7.4+/-0.1 years. These patients were followed between 15 to 60 months. Anthropometric measurements, bone age, serum levels of total testosterone, 17 OH progesterone (17 OHP) and dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEAS) were evaluated. Mean birth weight and length was 3024.1+/-50.5 g and 48.5+/-0.3 cm, respectively. Ten percent of children were small for gestational age at birth. Bone age was accelerated by 1.1+/-0.01 years. One hundred and twelve patients were classified as having idiopathic PP (64.7%; 105 females), 29 as central precocious puberty (16.8%; only females), 16 as exaggerated adrenarche (EA 9.2%; 13 females) and 16 as non classical adrenal hyperplasia (9.2%; 11 females). PP represents a common and usually benign sign. However, 26% of cases had a pathologic underlying condition. Therefore, all children with PP should be evaluated by a pediatric endocrinologist. Low birth weight was not frequent in this cohort and these patients did not show EA ." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_107077", "title": "Pubarche", "score": 0.012461966724930407, "content": "Pubarche refers to the first appearance of pubic hair at puberty. Pubarche is one of the physical changes of puberty and can occur independently of complete puberty. Pubarche usually results from rising levels of androgen and not estrogens in females, and androgens in males from the adrenal glands, ovaries, or testes but may also result from exposure to an anabolic steroid. When pubarche occurs prematurely (in early or mid-childhood), it is referred to as premature pubarche or precocious puberty and may warrant an evaluation. Premature adrenarche is the most common cause of premature pubarche. Early occurrences can arise due to congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-producing tumors of the adrenals or gonads. When adrenarche, central puberty, and all pathologic conditions have been excluded, the term isolated premature pubarche is used to describe the unexplained development of pubic hair at an early age without other hormonal or physical changes of puberty. Average age" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_19484", "title": "Ussefulnes of imaging techniques in the diagnostics of precocious puberty in boys.", "score": 0.012418276781474853, "content": "Precocious puberty (PP) is defined as the appearance of symptoms of puberty in girls before 8 years of age and in boys under 9. Statistically, it occurs much more frequently in girls, while it is a rare pathology in boys. Over the period of 10 years, between 1999 and 2009, 39 girls and 17 boys aged 18 months - 9 years were diagnosed with precocious puberty,, and treated at the Endocrinology Clinic. THE FOLLOWING TESTS WERE PERFORMED IN ALL CHILDREN: physical and anthropometric examinations, abdominal ultrasound scan (US) with evaluation of adrenal glands, examination of testes in boys or breasts and pelvic organs in girls, evaluation of skeletal age and, in selected cases, CT scans of the abdomen, MRI of the CNS, and hormonal laboratory tests. In the group of 17 boys the findings included: gonadotropin -dependent central puberty in 6 boys: idiopathic in 5 cases, and 1 case of a brain tumor - astrocytoma. Gonadotropin-independent precocious pseudopuberty was diagnosed in 11 boys: congenital adrenal hyperplasia in 5; in 1case - hyperandrogenism caused by overactivity of 5-α reductase; in 2 subjects - adrenal adenoma; in 2 boys adrenocortical carcinoma was diagnosed and Leydig cell tumor of testis in 1. 1. Precocious puberty occurs less often in boys, but in our population it was found in 17 boys of 56 treated children, which constituted as much as 30%. 2. Precocious pseudopuberty was found in 64% of the boys with PP. 3. Adrenal and testicular tumors were the causes of precocious puberty in the youngest group of boys aged 18 months - 6 years." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en290_36767", "title": "Puberty", "score": 0.011874015748031496, "content": "Testicular size In boys, testicular enlargement is the first physical manifestation of puberty (and is termed gonadarche). Testes in prepubertal boys change little in size from about 1 year of age to the onset of puberty, averaging about 2–3 cm in length and about 1.5–2 cm in width. The size of the testicles is among the parameters of the Tanner scale for male genitals, from stage I which represents a volume of less than 1.5 ml, to stage V which represents a testicular volume of greater than 20 ml. Testicular size reaches maximal adult size about 6 years after the onset of puberty. While 18–20 cm3 is an average adult size, there is wide variation in testicular size in the normal population. After the boy's testicles have enlarged and developed for about one year, the length and then the breadth of the shaft of the penis will increase and the glans penis and corpora cavernosa will also start to enlarge to adult proportions. Male musculature and body shape" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en483_18599", "title": "Pediatric gynaecology", "score": 0.01175925925925926, "content": "Precocious puberty occurs when children younger than 8 experience changes indicative of puberty, including development of breast buds (thelarche), pubic hair, and a growth spurt. Thelarche before 8 is considered abnormal. Though not all precocious puberty has a specific pathological cause, it may indicate a serious medical problem and is thoroughly evaluated. In most cases, the cause of precocious puberty cannot be identified. \"Central precocious puberty\" or \"true precocious puberty\" stems from early activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. It occurs in 1 in 5,000 to 1 in 10,000 people and can be caused by a lesion in the central nervous system or have no apparent cause. \"Peripheral precocious puberty\" or \"GnRH independent precocious puberty\" does not involve the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, instead, it involves other sources of hormones. The causes of peripheral precocious puberty include adrenal or ovarian tumors, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and exogenous" }, { "id": "article-27608_26", "title": "Precocious Puberty -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.01162947937795808, "content": "Precocious puberty requires differentiation from the benign forms of puberty. [8] These include Premature Thelarche: It is the premature unilateral or bilateral development of the breast tissue in girls between the age of 12 to 24 months. There are no other associated pubertal changes. Bone age, growth velocity, and biochemical testing are normal. It is usually a diagnosis of exclusion. Frequent clinical follow up to monitor growth, and pubertal progression is required. Premature Adrenarche: The early production of adrenal androgens characterizes this benign condition. It presents with pubic or axillary hair, body odor, or acne before the age of 8 years.  There is no breast development in females and no testicular enlargement in males. Bone age is usually not advanced. It is essential to rule out exposure to androgen sources such as creams or gels, adrenal tumors, and late-onset CAH." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_802", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.011349730788056778, "content": "Peripheral precocious puberty: Also called pseudo-precocious puberty. Results from nonhypothalamic GnRH production. Signs of estrogen excess (breast development and possibly vaginal bleeding) point to ovarian cysts or tumors. Signs of androgen excess (pubic and/or axillary hair, enlarged clitoris, acne, and/or ↑ body odor) suggest adrenal tumors or congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). First step: Obtain a radiograph of the wrist and hand to determine bone age. If bone age is within one year of chronological age, puberty has not started or has just recently begun. If bone age exceeds chronological age by > 2 years, puberty has been present for at least one year or is progressing rapidly. Next step: Conduct a GnRH agonist (leuprolide) stimulation test. Central precocious puberty: If LH response is , obtain a cranial MRI to look for CNS tumors. In girls 6–8 years of age with signs of precocious puberty, the incidence of CNS tumor is 2% in the absence of other CNS signs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_54414", "title": "Precocious puberty", "score": 0.011208576998050682, "content": "Adrenocortical oncocytomas are rare with mostly benign and nonfunctioning tumors. There have been only three cases of functioning adrenocortical oncocytoma that have been reported up until 2013. Children with adrenocortical oncocytomas will present with \"premature pubarche, clitoromegaly, and increased serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate and testosterone\" which are some of the presentations associated with precocious puberty. Precocious puberty in girls begins before the age of 8. The youngest mother on record is Lina Medina, who gave birth at the age of either 5 years, 7 months and 17 days or 6 years 5 months as mentioned in another report. \"Central precocious puberty (CPP) was reported in some patients with suprasellar arachnoid cysts (SAC), and SCFE (slipped capital femoral epiphysis) occurs in patients with CPP because of rapid growth and changes of growth hormone secretion.\" If no cause can be identified, it is considered idiopathic or constitutional." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en540_15302", "title": "Medical uses of bicalutamide", "score": 0.011208214987983396, "content": "In the trial, growth velocity was decreased, bone age advancement was slowed, aggressiveness was decreased, and masculinization, measured via Tanner staging of pubic hair and genitals, did not appear to further progress. However, the decrease in growth rate was modest and fell just short of reaching statistical significance (p = 0.053). Conversely, although the decrease in rate of bone maturation was described as modest similarly, the ratio of bone age to chronological age was significantly reduced (p < 0.0001). Linear growth and skeletal maturation during normal puberty is mainly due to estradiol and not testosterone in both boys and girls, and hence inhibition of these processes with the combination of bicalutamide and anastrozole in precocious puberty would in theory be mostly dependent on the aromatase inhibitor rather than on bicalutamide. Testicular volume increased mildly over the year that the boys were observed. A New Drug Application of bicalutamide for in the United" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_39246", "title": "Virilization", "score": 0.011066852422345622, "content": "Normal virilization In common as well as medical usage, virilization often refers to the process of normal male puberty. These effects include growth of the penis and testes, accelerated growth, development of pubic hair, and other androgenic hair of face, torso, and limbs, deepening of the voice, increased musculature, thickening of the jaw, prominence of the neck cartilage, and broadening of the shoulders. Abnormal childhood virilization Virilization can occur in childhood in both males and females due to excessive amounts of androgens. Typical effects of virilization in children are pubic hair, accelerated growth and bone maturation, increased muscle strength, acne, and adult body odor. In males, virilization may signal precocious puberty, while congenital adrenal hyperplasia and androgen producing tumors (usually) of the gonads or adrenals are occasional causes in both sexes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_109893", "title": "Thelarche", "score": 0.010925587887898637, "content": "Precocious puberty Precocious puberty is a condition where children undergo puberty before the age of seven or eight years. Precocious puberty differs from premature thelarche in that the individual experiences additional aspects of puberty including menarche, adrenarche, pubarche, vaginal discharge, and bone growth, while premature thelarche is identified by the sole presence of early thelarche. Though premature thelarche and precocious puberty are distinct conditions, there is some overlap; an estimated 14 to 18 percent of females who exhibit premature thelarche will additionally develop precocious puberty. Precocious puberty can be identified using a pelvic ultrasound to assess the size of ovaries and uterus relative to the individual's age. Other methods of diagnosis consist of blood tests to determine hormone levels and simple physician assessments with follow-up appointments to track the progression of development." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en167_38715", "title": "Human penis", "score": 0.010758587786259542, "content": "Growth in puberty On entering puberty, the penis, scrotum and testicles will enlarge toward maturity. During the process, pubic hair grows above and around the penis. A large-scale study assessing penis size in thousands of 17- to 19-year-old males found no difference in average penis size between 17-year-olds and 19-year-olds. From this, it can be concluded that penile growth is typically complete not later than age 17, and possibly earlier. Physiological functions Urination" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_54426", "title": "Precocious puberty", "score": 0.010225777057811077, "content": "Diagnosis Studies indicate that breast development in girls and the appearance of pubic hair in both girls and boys are starting earlier than in previous generations. As a result, \"early puberty\" in children as young as 9 and 10 is no longer considered abnormal, particularly with girls. Although it is not considered as abnormal, it may be upsetting to parents and can be harmful to children who mature physically at a time when they are immature mentally. No age reliably separates normal from abnormal processes in children, but the following age thresholds for evaluation are thought to minimize the risk of missing a significant medical problem: Breast development in boys before appearance of pubic hair or testicular enlargement Pubic hair or genital enlargement (gonadarche) in boys with onset before 9.5 years Pubic hair (pubarche) before 8 or breast development (thelarche) in girls with onset before 7 years Menstruation (menarche) in girls before 10 years" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en290_36760", "title": "Puberty", "score": 0.009957821382725105, "content": "Puberty onset Puberty is preceded by adrenarche, marking an increase of adrenal androgen production between ages 6–10. Adrenarche is sometimes accompanied by the early appearance of axillary and pubic hair. The first androgenic hair resulting from adrenarche can be also transient and disappear before the onset of true puberty. The onset of puberty is associated with high GnRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones, LH and FSH. Exogenous GnRH pulses cause the onset of puberty. Brain tumors which increase GnRH output may also lead to premature puberty." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "A thoracic computed tomography (CT) scan.", "2": "Pleural fluid pH measurement.", "3": "Measurement of adenosine deaminase in pleural fluid.", "4": "Tuberculin test.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0492_372", "title": "[Cuttoff values of biochemical tests on pleural fluid: their usefulness in differential diagnosis of 1,040 patients with pleural effusion].", "score": 0.0196078431372549, "content": "The aim of biochemical pleural fluid testing is to reach an etiological diagnosis of the pleural effusion. We assessed the utility of considering cuttoff points for the wide range of analytes used to investigate pleural fluid. Among 1,040 patients with pleural effusion, we sought the etiologies of those fluids which showed any of the following characteristics: red blood cell count = 10 x 109/L, leukocytes = 10 x 109/L, percentage of neutrophils or lymphocytes &gt;50%, protein = 50 g/L, glucose = 60 mg/dL, pH = 7.2, lactate dehydrogenase = 1,000 U/L, adenosine deaminase = 40 U/L, amylase = 100 U/L or cholesterol = 60 mg/dL. Some of the more prominent findings were: a) a sixth of transudates were blood-tinged or contained predominantly neutrophils; b) a groosly bloody fluid suggests malignant disease, trauma, or pulmonary embolization; c) nearly 90% of fluids containing = 10 x 10(9) leukocytes/L were parapneumonics; d) 73% of tuberculous pleural fluids had protein &gt; or = 50 g/L, e) tuberculosis and parapneumonics explained more than 90% of fluids with high adenosine deaminase content; f) one third of amylase-rich pleural effusions were malignant; g) a low pleural glucose or pH levels indicate that patient probably has a parapneumonic, tuberculous or malignant etiology; y h) the diagnostic yield of pleural fluid cytology in malignant effusions was 57%, a percentage which raised to 94% in those with low glucose fluid level. Cuttof values of biochemical pleural fluid tests may greatly support particular causes of pleural effusions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0424_13856", "title": "Etiology and pleural fluid characteristics of large and massive effusions.", "score": 0.017182890855457225, "content": "To report the etiology of large and massive pleural effusions, and to compare their biochemical fluid characteristics with those of smaller size, and between malignant and nonmalignant conditions. Retrospective chart review of all patients undergoing thoracentesis at an academic medical center in Lleida, Spain, during a 10-year period. Posteroanterior chest radiographs were available in 766 patients during the study period. Large pleural effusions (ie, two thirds or more of the hemithorax without its complete obliteration) were identified in 70 patients (9%), and massive pleural effusions (ie, hemithorax was completely opacified) were identified in 93 patients (12%). A similar etiologic spectrum between large and massive pleural effusions was observed. The most frequent cause of these pleural effusions was malignancy (89 patients; 55%), followed by complicated parapneumonic or empyema (36 patients; 22%), and tuberculosis (19 patients; 12%). Compared with nonmalignant pleural effusions, patients with large or massive malignant pleural effusions were more likely to have pleural fluids with higher RBC counts (18.0 x 10(9) cells/L vs 2.7 x 10(9) cells/L, respectively; p &lt; 0.001) and lower adenosine deaminase (ADA) activity (11.5 vs 31.5 U/L, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), which were the two parameters that were selected by a stepwise logistic-regression model as independent predictors of malignancy. In addition, large/massive malignant pleural effusions showed higher median RBC counts (18.0 x 10(9) cells/L vs 4.3 x 10(9) cells/L, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), higher lactate dehydrogenase levels (641 vs 409 U/L, respectively; p = 0.001), lower pH (7.39 vs 7.42, respectively; p = 0.006) content, but similar cytologic yield (63% vs 53%, respectively; p = 0.171) than smaller malignant pleural effusions. The presence of a large or massive pleural effusion enables the clinician to narrow the differential diagnosis of pleurisy, since most effusions are secondary to malignancy or infections (either bacterial or mycobacterial). Bloody pleural fluid with low ADA content favors a malignant condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_512", "title": "Explosive pleuritis.", "score": 0.01610889110889111, "content": "The objective of the present paper is to describe the clinical and computed tomography features of 'explosive pleuritis', an entity first named by Braman and Donat in 1986, and to propose a case definition. A case report of a previously healthy, 45-year-old man admitted to hospital with acute onset pleuritic chest pain is presented. The patient arrived at the emergency room at 15:00 in mild respiratory distress; the initial chest x-ray revealed a small right lower lobe effusion. The subsequent clinical course in hospital was dramatic. Within 18 h of admission, he developed severe respiratory distress with oxygen desaturation to 83% on room air and dullness of the right lung field. A repeat chest x-ray, taken the morning after admission, revealed complete opacification of the right hemithorax. A computed tomography scan of the thorax demonstrated a massive pleural effusion with compression of pulmonary tissue and mediastinal shift. Pleural fluid biochemical analysis revealed the following concentrations: glucose 3.5 mmol/L, lactate dehydrogenase 1550 U/L, protein 56.98 g/L, amylase 68 U/L and white blood cell count 600 cells/mL. The pleural fluid cultures demonstrated light growth of coagulase-negative staphylococcus and viridans streptococcus, and very light growth of Candida albicans. Cytology was negative for malignant cells. Thoracotomy was performed, which demonstrated a loculated parapneumonic effusion that required decortication. The patient responded favourably to the empirical administration of intravenous levofloxacin and ceftriaxone, and conservative surgical methods in the management of the empyema. This report also discusses the patient's rapidly progressing pleural effusion and offers a potential case definition for explosive pleuritis. Explosive pleuritis is a medical emergency defined by the rapid development of a pleural effusion involving more than 90% of the hemithorax over 24 h, which causes compression of pulmonary tissue and mediastinal shift to the contralateral side." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_15500", "title": "The clinical manifestations of the tuberculous pleural effusion in adult patients.", "score": 0.016083916083916083, "content": "The clinical data of 52 patients with tuberculous pleural effusion were analyzed. Their average age was 48 years old. Thirty two (62%) of them were sick for less than one week. Fever, chest pain and cough were the predominant pictures. Six of the 52 patients had coexisting disease. Intermediate strength protein purified derivative (PPD) test was found to be positive in 14 out of 31 (45%) patients. Their pleural effusions were usually unilateral, right-sided, and nearly half of them occupied more than half of the hemithorax. One third of these patients and concomitant pulmonary tuberculosis and pleural effusion. None of the patients had grossly bloody effusion. All of the effusions were exudative, and the glucose levels in the pleural fluid were invariably above 60 mg/dl. Presence of mesothelial cells in the pleural fluid was found in 28% of them, but none of the patients presented with significant eosinophils in the pleural fluid. Pleural fluid and sputum cultures for Mycobacterium tuberculosis usually reveal a negative study unless a concomitant pulmonary lesion was present. Combined antituberculosis and prednisolone treatment decreased the duration of constitutional symptoms and hastened the resolution of pleural effusion. In conclusion, tuberculous pleural effusion should be considered in elderly patients presenting with massive exudative pleural effusion even with a negative PPD study. Cultures of sputum and pleural fluid are less helpful in patients without parenchymal disease. Prednisolone is recommended in extremely ill patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_988", "title": "Diagnostic principles in pleural disease.", "score": 0.015683962264150943, "content": "When a patient with an undiagnosed pleural effusion is evaluated, the first question to answer is whether the patient has a transudate or an exudate. This is best done using Light's criteria, but these criteria occasionally misidentify a transudate as an exudate. If the patient's pleural fluid meets exudative criteria, but the patient appears clinically to have a transudative effusion, then the serum-pleural fluid albumin gradient should be measured. If this is greater than 1.2 g-dL-1, the patient probably does have a transudative effusion. If the patient has an exudative pleural effusion, additional tests are indicated to determine the aetiology of the effusion. The gross appearance and the odour of the pleural fluid should be noted and samples of all exudates should be sent for bacterial cultures. Laboratory tests that are useful in the differential diagnosis of exudative pleural effusions include: differential white cell count of the pleural fluid; cytology of the pleural fluid; and levels of adenosine deaminase, glucose, amylase and lactate dehydrogenase in the pleural fluid. If pleural tuberculosis is suspected, a needle biopsy of the pleura is indicated. Thoracoscopy is very efficient at diagnosing malignant pleural effusion and tuberculosis pleuritis, but rarely establishes any other diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0582_10405", "title": "Clinical and laboratory parameters in the differential diagnosis of pleural effusion secondary to tuberculosis or cancer.", "score": 0.015517241379310345, "content": "To evaluate the clinical and laboratory characteristics of pleural effusions secondary to tuberculosis (TB) or cancer (CA). A total of 326 patients with pleural effusion due to TB (n=182) or CA (n=144) were studied. The following parameters were analyzed: patient gender, age and pleural effusion characteristics (size, location, macroscopic fluid aspect, protein concentration, lactate dehydrogenase (DHL) and adenosine deaminase activity (ADA) and nucleated cell counts). Young male patients predominated in the tuberculosis group. The effusions were generally moderate in size and unilateral in both groups. Yellow-citrine fluid with higher protein (p &lt; 0.001) levels predominated in effusions from the tuberculosis group (5.3 + 0.8 g/dL) when compared to the CA group (4.2 +/- 1.0 g/dL), whereas DHL levels were more elevated in CA (1,177 +/- 675 x 1,030 +/- 788 IU; p = 0.003) than in TB. As expected, ADA activity was higher in the TB group (107.6 +/- 44.2 x 30.6 +/- 57.5 U/L; p &lt; 0.001). Both types of effusions presented with high nucleated cell counts, which were more pronounced in the malignant group (p &lt; 0.001). TB effusion was characterized by a larger percentage of leukocytes and lymphocytes (p &lt; 0.001) and a smaller number of mesothelial cells (p = 0.005). Lymphocytes and macrophages were the predominant nucleated cell in neoplastic effusions. Our results demonstrate that in lymphocytic pleural exudate obtained from patients with clinical and radiological evidence of tuberculosis, protein and ADA were the parameters that better characterize these effusions. In the same way, when the clinical suspicion is malignancy, serous-hemorrhagic lymphocytic fluid should be submitted to oncotic cytology once this easy and inexpensive exam reaches a high diagnostic performance (approximately equal 80%). In this context, we suggest thoracocentesis with fluid biochemical and cytological examination as the first diagnostic approach for these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_9664", "title": "Responsive treatment of pleural effusion due to probable tuberculosis infection.", "score": 0.015126692878986457, "content": "Early diagnosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis disease is crucial for initiating treatment and interrupting disease transmission. In keeping with the pathophysiology of disease, bacteriological evidence in extra-pulmonary tuberculosis proves to be difficult. Clinical judgment and radiographic findings are important to establish diagnosis and to evaluate treatment response. A case of 27 year-old-male with shortness of breath and associated TB symptoms is reported. The tuberculin test was highly positive and chest X-ray showed massive right-lung pleural effusion. Pleural analysis showed exudates with high mononuclear cells (98%), protein level of 5.0 g/dL, glucose level of 87 mg/dL, and high LDH level (1240 IU/L). The acid-fast bacilli (AFB) tests were negative for pleural fluid and sputum. Cultures of fluid and sputum were also negative. After being treated adequately with non-specific treatment, which showed no improvement and having undergone pleural puncture for his treatment and diagnosis, the patient started to have antituberculosis treatment. His condition was improved significantly as shown by a serial of chest X-ray follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0664_1227", "title": "Pearls and myths in pleural fluid analysis.", "score": 0.014818067065473903, "content": "Virtually all patients with a newly discovered pleural effusion should undergo thoracentesis to aid in diagnosis and management. The routine pleural fluid (PF) evaluation usually includes the following: cell count and differential; tests for protein, LDH, glucose, adenosine deaminase, cytology and, if infection is a concern, pH and bacterial and mycobacterial cultures. Distinguishing transudates from exudates with Light's criteria is a pragmatic first step. If the effusion is an exudate, various PF tests have proven diagnostic utility: adenosine deaminase levels &gt;35 IU/L usually indicate tuberculosis in lymphocyte-predominant PF; pH &lt; 7.2 or glucose less than 60 mg/dL allow the clinician to identify complicated parapneumonic effusions; and conventional cytology may reveal malignant cells in 60% of the patients with malignant effusions. A number of optional PF tests may complement the diagnostic approach to an undiagnosed pleural effusion. For example, natriuretic peptide assays significantly improve the accuracy of a diagnosis of cardiac pleural effusion, whereas PF mesothelin levels greater than 20 nmol/L are highly suggestive of mesothelioma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_9651", "title": "Management of parapneumonic effusions.", "score": 0.014759953776657212, "content": "When a patient with a parapneumonic pleural effusion is first evaluated, a therapeutic thoracentesis should be performed if more than a minimal amount of pleural fluid is present. Fluid obtained at the therapeutic thoracentesis should be gram-stained and cultured and analyzed for glucose, pH, LDH, white blood cells, and differential cell count. If the fluid cannot be drained because of loculations, a chest tube should be inserted and thrombolytic agents administered. If the pleural fluid recurs after the initial therapeutic thoracentesis but the patient is doing well clinically and the initial pleural fluid glucose was greater than 60 mg/dL; the pH, greater than 7.2; the LDH, less than three times the upper normal limit for serum and the cultures are negative; he or she can be observed. If one or more of the aforementioned criteria are not met, a second therapeutic thoracentesis should be performed, with repeat diagnostic evaluations of the pleural fluid. If the fluid recurs a second time, a small chest tube should be placed if the pleural fluid glucose and pH were lower and the LDH higher on the second thoracentesis than on the first thoracentesis. Patients with loculated-parapneumonic effusions should be treated with tube thoracostomy and thrombolytic agents. If drainage is incomplete, thoracoscopy, with breakdown of adhesions and debridement of the pleural space, is indicated. If thoracoscopy is unsuccessful, then thoracotomy, with decortication, is indicated unless the patient is too debilitated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_13335", "title": "[Clinical analysis of lymphoma with chest involvement: report of 25 cases].", "score": 0.014463967405143874, "content": "To study clinical characteristics and diagnostic methods of lymphoma with chest involvement. Twenty-five lymphoma patients with chest involvement were retrospectively analysed, they were all diagnosed in Peking University Third Hospital during 2000 to 2007. The data were collected including clinical manifestations, blood examinations, chest X-ray and CT scan, diagnostic methods and pathologic diagnosis. The median age of the 25 patients was 46 years old. Pyrexia (13 cases), weight loss over 10 percent in 6 months (11 cases), cough (10 cases), shortness of breath (9 cases) and painless enlargement of the peripheral lymph nodes (16 cases) were common manifestations. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level were increased in 72.7% and 81% patients, respectively. The enlargement of mediastinum lymph nodes (16 cases, 64%) was the most common presentation of chest radiography, followed by pulmonary involvement (15 cases, 60%) including infiltration or pulmonary consolidation, mass, multiple nodules, diffuse ground-glass shadow, miliary lesion. There were also presentations of pleural effusion (10 cases, 40%), pericardial effusion (4 cases, 16%), chest wall mass (2 cases, 8%). Eighteen patients (72%) had at least two kinds of these presentations. The appearance of pleural effusion were yellow turbid, bloody or chyliform. Rivalta tests were all positive. The median value of pleural effusion examinations were listed as follows: specific gravity 1.031, total cells 9800 x 10(6)/L, WBC 6.72 x 10(9)/L, lymphocyte 86%, neutrophil 14%, protein 31.4 g/L, LDH 296 U/L, adenosine deaminase (ADA) 67.4 U/L. Most patients (16 cases) were diagnosed by surgical biopsy, especially peripheral lymph nodes biopsy (12 cases). Other patients were diagnosed by ultrasound or CT-guided biopsy (5 cases), video-assisted thoracoscopic pleural biopsy (1 case), video-mediastinoscopic mediastinum lesion biopsy (1 case), bronchial mucosa biopsy through bronchoscope (1 case), bone marrow examination (1 case). All the cases were non-Hodgkin lymphoma except one. There was no specific clinical manifestation for lymphoma with chest involvement, but in almost half of patients there were enlargement of not only peripheral but also mediastinum lymph nodes. And there were some characteristics in serum, pleural effusion, chest X-ray and CT scan. Surgical biopsy of peripheral lymph nodes was a simple and convenient method for diagnosis. Micro-invasive biopsy had good diagnostic value for lymphoma with chest involvement, including ultrasound- or CT-guided biopsy for superficial mass, pleura, lung, liver, spleen and deep lymph nodes, video-assisted thoracoscopic and video-mediastinoscopic biopsy for pleura, lung and mediastinum lesions. But bronchial mucosa and lung biopsy during bronchoscopy had a low diagnostic rate for lymphoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0705_12555", "title": "[A case of tuberculous pleurisy developing contralateral effusion during anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy].", "score": 0.01369798971482001, "content": "A 55-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of chest pain, fever, and right pleural effusion that was exudative and lymphocyte-dominant with a high level of adenosine deaminase (ADA). Since her blood QuantiFERON-TB 3G test (QFT) was positive, she was diagnosed with tuberculous pleurisy. After initiation of anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy with isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide, her symptoms improved. Later, liquid culture of the pleural effusion turned positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. On the 18th day of treatment, her chest X-ray and computed tomography exhibited pleural effusion in a moderate amount in the left thorax, with subsiding pleural effusion in the right thorax. Thoracocentesis demonstrated that the left thorax effusion was also exudative and lymphocyte-dominant, with elevated QFT response and high ADA concentration, suggesting tuberculous pleurisy. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was detected in the culture of a left pleural biopsy specimen obtained by thoracoscopy. We assumed that the left pleural effusion was due to paradoxical worsening because (1) on admission no effusion or lung parenchymal lesion was detected in the left hemithorax, (2) on the 14th day of treatment she was afebrile without pleural effusion on both sides, and (3) the bacilli were sensitive to the drugs she had been taking regularly. We performed drainage of the left effusion and continued the same anti-tuberculosis drugs, which led to the elimination of all her symptoms and of the pleural effusion on both sides. In conclusion, paradoxical worsening should be included in the differential diagnosis when contralateral pleural effusion is detected during the treatment of tuberculosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0345_12571", "title": "Useful tests on the pleural fluid in the management of patients with pleural effusions.", "score": 0.013629215446444173, "content": "Examination of the pleural fluid is useful in establishing the etiology of a pleural effusion. Transudative pleural effusions can be differentiated from exudative pleural effusions by measuring the levels of protein and lactic acid dehydrogenase in the pleural fluid and serum. If a patient clinically appears to have a transudative pleural effusion, but the pleural fluid meets exudative criteria, demonstration that the albumin levels is more than 1.2 gm/dl higher in the serum than in the pleural fluid provides evidence that the effusion is transudative. The gross appearance of the pleural fluid should always be noted. Other tests that routinely should be obtained on exudative pleural fluids are Gram stain and cultures, cell counts and differential, glucose, amylase, lactic acid dehydrogenase, cytology, and a marker for tuberculous pleuritis. The diagnosis of tuberculous pleuritis is strongly suggested by a pleural fluid adenosine deaminase level above 45 IU/L or a gamma interferon level above 3.7 U/ml." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101884", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.013583082528116585, "content": "The sensitivity and specificity of Light's criteria for detection of exudates have been measured in many studies and are usually reported to be around 98% and 80%, respectively. This means that although Light's criteria are relatively accurate, twenty percent of patients that are identified by Light's criteria as having exudative pleural effusions actually have transudative pleural effusions. Therefore, if a patient identified by Light's criteria as having an exudative pleural effusion appears clinically to have a condition that usually produces transudative effusions, additional testing is needed. In such cases, albumin levels in blood and pleural fluid are measured. If the difference between the albumin level in the blood and the pleural fluid is greater than 1.2 g/dL (12 g/L), this suggests that the patient has a transudative pleural effusion. However, pleural fluid testing is not perfect, and the final decision about whether a fluid is a transudate or an exudate is based not on" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0668_12903", "title": "Does pleural fluid appearance really matter? The relationship between fluid appearance and cytology, cell counts, and chemical laboratory measurements in pleural effusions of patients with cancer.", "score": 0.013555555555555557, "content": "Previous reports have suggested that the appearance of pleural effusions (i.e., the presence or absence of blood) might help to establish the etiology of the effusions. This study explores the relationship between pleural fluid appearance and the results of chemical and cytological analyses in a group of patients with recurrent symptomatic pleural effusions and a diagnosis of cancer. Medical records were reviewed from all 390 patients who were diagnosed with cancer, who underwent thoracentesis before placement of an intrapleural catheter (IPC) between April 2000 and January 2006. Adequate information for data analysis was available in 365 patients. The appearance of their pleural fluid was obtained from procedure notes dictated by the pulmonologists who had performed the thoracenteses. The patients were separated into 2 groups based on fluid appearance: non-bloody and bloody. Group differences in cytology interpretation were compared by using the chi square test. Cellular counts, chemical laboratory results, and survival after index procedure were compared by using the student's t test. Pleural fluid cytology was positive on 82.5% of the non-bloody effusions and on 82.4% of the bloody ones. The number of red blood cells (220.5 x 103/microL vs. 12.3 x 103/microL) and LDH values (1914 IU/dl vs. 863 IU/dl) were statistically higher in bloody pleural effusions. The presence or absence of blood in pleural effusions cannot predict their etiology in patients with cancer and recurrent symptomatic pleural effusions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_55701", "title": "Thoracentesis", "score": 0.013290820607484478, "content": "pH Normal pleural fluid pH is approximately 7.60. A pleural fluid pH below 7.30 with normal arterial blood pH has the same differential diagnosis as low pleural fluid glucose. Triglyceride and cholesterol Chylothorax (fluid from lymph vessels leaking into the pleural cavity) may be identified by determining triglyceride and cholesterol levels, which are relatively high in lymph. A triglyceride level over 110 mg/dl and the presence of chylomicrons indicate a chylous effusion. The appearance is generally milky but can be serous. The main cause for chylothorax is rupture of the thoracic duct, most frequently as a result of trauma or malignancy (such as lymphoma). Cell count and differential The number of white blood cells can give an indication of infection. The specific subtypes can also give clues as to the type on infection. The amount of red blood cells are an obvious sign of bleeding." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101869", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.01320613542835765, "content": "When a pleural effusion has been determined to be exudative, additional evaluation is needed to determine its cause, and amylase, glucose, pH and cell counts should be measured. Red blood cell counts are elevated in cases of bloody effusions (for example after heart surgery or hemothorax from incomplete evacuation of blood). Amylase levels are elevated in cases of esophageal rupture, pancreatic pleural effusion, or cancer. Glucose is decreased with cancer, bacterial infections, or rheumatoid pleuritis. pH is low in empyema (<7.2) and maybe low in cancer. If cancer is suspected, the pleural fluid is sent for cytology. If cytology is negative, and cancer is still suspected, either a thoracoscopy, or needle biopsy of the pleura may be performed. Gram staining and culture should also be done." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0287_18501", "title": "Serial pleural fluid analysis in a new experimental model of empyema.", "score": 0.012483549539387103, "content": "Prior attempts to create an animal model of empyema by direct inoculation of bacteria alone into the pleural space have been unsuccessful. The animals either died of overwhelming sepsis or cleared the infection from the pleural space without development of an empyema. We hypothesized that injection of bacteria with a nutrient agar into the pleural space would allow the bacteria to remain in the pleural space for an extended time period, permitting an empyema to develop. The bacterium Pasteurella multocida in brain heart infusion (BHI) agar was injected into the right hemithorax of 12 New Zealand white male rabbits. Our preliminary studies showed that the animals died in less than 7 days if they were not given parenteral antibiotics. For this reason, the rabbits were given penicillin, 200,000 U, IM, every 24 h starting 24 h after bacterial injection. Pleural fluid was sampled by thoracentesis at 12, 24, 48, 72, and 96 h after bacterial injection. Pleural fluid pH, glucose, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), leukocyte count, and Gram's stain and culture (in one half of the animals) were obtained at each time point. Pleural biopsy specimens were obtained at autopsy after 96 h. The mean pleural fluid pH reached a nadir of 7.01 at 24 h and remained less than 7.1 throughout the experiment. The mean pleural fluid glucose level reached a nadir of 10 mg/dL at 24 h. The mean pleural fluid LDH peaked at 21,000 IU/L at 24 h and the mean pleural fluid leukocyte count peaked at 12 h with a value of 67,000 cells per cubic millimeter. Gram's stains revealed organisms and cultures were positive for growth in all animals at 12 and 24 h. Some animals had positive Gram's stains and growth on cultures up to 72 h after bacterial injection. At autopsy, all rabbits injected with bacteria had gross pus in the right pleural space and had developed a thick pleural peel. Microscopic specimens of the pleura revealed large numbers of leukocytes (primarily polymorphonuclear lymphocytes) with invasion of the adjacent lung and chest wall. In conclusion, this model more closely mimics the empyema that occurs in humans, relative to previous animal models. This model appears appropriate for additional randomized studies in which different methods for the treatment of empyema can be evaluated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0362_11326", "title": "Management of pleural effusions.", "score": 0.012281618635209796, "content": "This review summarizes current strategies in the treatment of patients with pleural effusion. To determine whether a patient has a transudative or exudative pleural effusion, Light's criteria should be applied to measure the concentrations of protein and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) in the pleural fluid and serum. If the effusion is transudative, therapy should be directed toward the underlying congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, or nephrosis. Consideration should be given to pleurodesis with a sclerosant if patients with recurrent transudative effusion have severe dyspnea due to their effusion. If the effusion is exudative, attempts should be made to define the etiology. The diagnosis of pleural malignancy is most easily established via pleural fluid cytology. If this is negative and the patient is suspected of having pleural malignancy, thoracoscopy is indicated. The concentrations of adenosine deaminase and gamma-interferon in pleural fluid are useful in the diagnosis of pleural tuberculosis. Patients with pneumonia and pleural effusion should undergo therapeutic thoracentesis; the pleural fluid should be Gram-stained and cultured, and the differential cell count, glucose and LDH concentration, and pH should be determined. Indicators of a poor prognosis include the presence of frank pus, a positive Gram-stain, a pleural glucose concentration of less than 2.2 mmol/L, a pH less than 7.00, the presence of pleural loculations, and an LDH concentration greater than three times the upper limit of normal in serum. If the pleural fluid cannot be completely evacuated because of loculations, intrapleural thrombolytic therapy should be considered. If thrombolytics are ineffective, thoracoscopy or thoracotomy with decortication should be performed. Dyspneic patients with malignant pleural effusions whose dyspnea is relieved with therapeutic thoracentesis should be considered for pleurodesis using a tetracycline derivative. Talc is not recommended because it induces acute respiratory distress syndrome in about 5% of patients, with an overall mortality of 1%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_9136", "title": "Malignant pleural effusion", "score": 0.012264462809917356, "content": "Diagnosis Clinical evaluation Clinical factors predicting the diagnosis of malignant pleural effusions are symptoms lasting more than 1 month and the absence of fever. Imaging This is needed to confirm the presence of a pleural effusion. Chest radiograph is usually performed first and may demonstrate an underlying lung cancer as well as the pleural effusion. Ultrasound has a sensitivity of 73% and specificity of 100% at distinguishing malignant pleural effusions from other causes of pleural effusion, based on the presence of visible pleural metastases, pleural thickening greater than 1 cm, pleural nodularity, diaphragmatic thickening measuring greater than 7mm and an echogenic swirling pattern visible in the pleural fluid. Biochemical analysis Malignant pleural effusions are exudates. A low pleural fluid pH is associated with poorer survival and reduced pleurodesis efficacy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0735_12256", "title": "[Clinical analysis of 20 cases with Streptococcus pneumoniae necrotizing pneumonia in China].", "score": 0.01224737556237949, "content": "Streptococcus pneumoniae necrotizing pneumonia (SPNP) was reported elsewhere but not in China yet. Inappropriate treatment due to poor recognition of this disease could influence its prognosis. This paper presents the clinical characteristics, diagnosis and treatment of SPNP hoping to elevate pediatrician's recognition level for this disease. Clinical manifestations, radiological findings, treatment and prognosis of 20 patients (9 boys, 11 girls) who had been hospitalized with SPNP in Beijing Children's Hospital from 2004-2011 were retrospectively analyzed. The patients included in this study aged from 9 months to 6 years [(27.9 ± 15.8) m] and were healthy before admission. They were febrile for 8 to 50 days [(27.7 ± 13.5) d] and hospital day was 24 - 55 days [(36.5 ± 8.3) d]. The general condition of all subjects was relatively poor and they all had fever and cough. One child had moderate fever and nineteen children had high fever. Dyspnea was found in sixteen children. Fine rales were found on auscultation in 18 children, among whom diffuse wheeze appeared in 4 children, and wheezy phlegm was found in two children. Signs of pleural effusion were discovered in all cases by physical examination and chest X-ray. White blood cell (WBC) count was 16.2 - 60.95×10(9)/L and neutrophil was 70.5% - 80.2% in peripheral blood routine test. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was 44 - 109 mm/h [(69.6 ± 16) mm/h]and C-reactive protein (CRP) was 80 - &gt; 160 mg/L. The pleural effusion biochemistry and routine test revealed a WBC count of 6400×10(6)/L-too much to count, polykaryocyte of 51% - 90%, glucose of 0.02 - 1.8 mmol/L, protein of 32 - 51 g/L and LDH of 5475 IU/L-or higher. Pleural effusion culture in all cases and blood culture in 2 cases was positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. Chest X-ray or CT revealed high density and well-distributed lobar consolidation in one lung or two lungs initially. Single or multiple low density lesions in the area of lobar consolidation were found a week later, accompanied by multiple cystic shadow or cavity at the same time or afterwards. Bulla of lung appeared later. Pleural effusions were found in all patients. Seven cases complicated with hydropneumothorax, two with otitis media, one with heart failure, one with cardiac insufficiency. Seventeen patients were treated with vancomycin or teicoplanin or linezolid two with amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium. Other two patients had been treated with meropenem and cephalosporin antibiotics respectively before admission, and they had been at recovery stage when they were hospitalized. Thoracic close drainage and thoracoscopy were performed respectively in 18 cases and 3 cases, respectively. After a follow up of more than 6 months, chest CT showed that almost all lesions in lungs recovered during 4-6 months. No one received pneumonectomy. SPNP has special manifestations. The incidence in infants is higher. Patients' general condition is poor and febrile course is relatively long. All patients manifested fever and cough, with a presence of dyspnea in most of them. WBC, neutrophil and CRP elevated apparently. The characteristic of pleural effusion indicates empyema. In early stage, the chest X-ray and CT showed high-density lobar lesions, followed by low-density lesions and cyst gradually. Bulla of lung and/or hydropneumothorax may appear at the late stage. But if diagnosed and treated promptly, the prognosis of SPNP was relatively good." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_12328", "title": "Clinical and laboratory parameters of pleural tuberculosis.", "score": 0.012162876784769964, "content": "This prospective observational clinical study was done to find out the clinical and laboratory parameters of pleural tuberculosis patients, to find out a sensitive and specific tool for diagnosis and to see the effectively of a standard anti-TB regime Isoniazide, Rifampicine, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol, (2HRZE/4HR) for treatment of pleural tuberculosis in an adult medicine unit, department of Medicine, Chittagong Medical College Hospital, Chittagong, Bangladesh. A series of total thirty-three consecutive pleural tuberculosis patients admitted in that unit over a period of 6 months were enrolled. All thirty-three pleural tuberculosis patients were observed for their demographic and clinical parameters and undergone some relevant investigations like complete blood count, Mantoux test, pleural fluid study and pleural histopathological study. Later on, they were put on anti-tuberculosis therapy without steroid and followed their response after one month. All patients of pleural tuberculosis presented in this medicine unit had fever and cough associated with chest pain (87.9%), dysnoea (42.4%), haemoptysis (9.1%), weight loss (84.4%), anorexia (90.9%). Age of presentation was 34.1+/-16.2 years and of them, 60.7% patients were below 30. Mean Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) was 97.04 mm in 1st hour and 57.6% cases had ESR more than 100. 63.6% had Mantoux Test (MT) positive (&gt;10 mm). Only 6.1% had hemorrhagic effusion and others had straw colored fluid. Mean pleural fluid protein is 5.9 gram/L and sugar 65.7 mg/dl. No Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) was seen on microscopy in pleural fluid. Pleural biopsy revealed 54.5% granulomatous lesion with or without caseation and another 24.2% shows chronic inflammation. Seventy seven percentage (77%) patients were attended follow-up clinic after 1 month and all patients (100%) were improved with this anti-TB therapy. Of the total patient treated with anti TB drug, 53.5% had no pleural effusion, other had minimum effusion. Only 6.06% require subsequent steroid addition and other measures. Pleural biopsy is the investigations of choice for pleural tuberculosis especially in resource poor countries. Pleural tuberculosis can be treated with a standard anti-TB regime successfully without steroid." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_17235", "title": "Tuberculous pleurisy: a study of 254 patients.", "score": 0.012140320359498441, "content": "To determine the age at which tuberculous pleural effusions occur, the radiological and biochemical characteristics of the effusions, the sensitivities of the various diagnostic tests, and the utility of combining clinical, radiological, and analytic data in diagnosis. We studied the case histories of 254 patients in whom tuberculous pleural effusions were diagnosed with certainty between January 1, 1989, and June 30, 1997, in a Spanish university hospital in a region with a high incidence of tuberculosis. The mean (+/-SD) age of the patients was 34.1+/-18.1 years, and 62.2% were younger than 35 years. The effusion was on the right side in 55.9% of patients, on the left side in 42.5% of patients, and on both sides in 1.6% of patients. In 81.5% of patients, less than two thirds of the hemithorax was affected. Associated pulmonary lesions were detected in 18.9% of patients, of whom 14.6% exhibited cavitation. In 93.3% of the effusions, more than 50% of leukocytes were lymphocytes, and almost all had the biologic characteristics of exudates (98.8% had high total protein contents, 94.9% had high cholesterol levels, and 82.3% had high lactate dehydrogenase levels). All but 1 effusion (99.6%) had an adenosine deaminase (ADA) concentration higher than 47 U/L, 96.8% (123/127) of the effusions had high ADA2 levels, and 89% (73/82) of the effusions had high interferon gamma levels. Adenosine deaminase 2 contributed 72.2%+/-12.5% (mean +/- SD) of total ADA activity. Total ADA activity was significantly correlated with ADA2 (r = 0.83) and with interferon gamma (r = 0.30) levels. Definitive diagnosis was based on the observation of caseous granulomas in pleural biopsy tissue samples in 79.8% of patients, on the results of biopsy cultures in 11.7% of patients, and on pleural effusion cultures in the remaining 8.5% of patients. Results of the tuberculin skin test were positive in only 66.5% of patients. In these patients, lymphocyte-rich exudative pleural effusions occurred, on average, at a young age, with no preference for either the right or the left side; normally affected no more than two thirds of the hemithorax; and were generally unaccompanied by pulmonary infiltrates. High ADA concentration was a highly sensitive diagnostic sign and was caused by a rise in ADA2 concentration. The most sensitive criterion based on pleural biopsy was the observation of caseous granulomas, and culture of biopsy material further increased overall sensitivity. Negative skin test results were no guarantee of the effusion being nontuberculous. This, together with the low mean age of the patients and the low frequency of associated pulmonary lesions, suggests that tuberculous pleural effusion is a primary form of tuberculosis in this region." }, { "id": "article-130747_47", "title": "Malignant Pleural Effusion -- Evaluation -- Histopathological Diagnosis", "score": 0.011741896725922286, "content": "Pleural Fluid Analysis - Normal physicochemical characteristics include pH between 7.60 and 7.64, protein levels of less than 2 percent (2 gm/dl), less than 100 WBC’s per cubic millimeter, Glucose content similar to that of plasma, LDH level less than half of that present within the plasma. The following parameters can be used in making a diagnosis of malignant etiology underlying the accumulation of pleural fluid – pH less than 7.30, LDH levels greater than 1000 U/l, reduced pleural fluid glucose concentration (30 to 50 mg/dl), lymphocyte values greater than 50 to 70%. [109] [115]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_7544", "title": "Pleural fluid pH: diagnostic, therapeutic, and prognostic value.", "score": 0.011731113251685701, "content": "Measurement of pleural fluid pH has diagnostic, therapeutic, and prognostic implications in exudative pleural effusions (Table II). A parapneumonic effusion with a pleural fluid pH below 7.2 indicates an empyema is forming which necessitates chest tube drainage in all patients, whereas a pleural fluid pH over 7.3 does not require drainage. If the pH of a parapneumonic effusion is 7.2 to 7.3, serial pleural fluid pH measurements with clinical observation will help to determine the need for chest tube drainage. A pleural fluid glucose level of below 60 mg/dl and a lactic dehydrogenase level over 1,000 IU/dl in conjunction with a pleural fluid pH of 7.2 to 7.3 indicate an impending empyema. These findings are consistent with our clinical experience in patients with parapneumonic effusion. Tuberculous pleural effusions had a pleural fluid pH below 7.4 in all reported patients. This pH may be of value in distinguishing tuberculous pleural effusions from recent malignant effusions, which tend to have a higher pleural fluid pH, particularly if used in conjunction with other pleural fluid values, cell counts, and other clinical parameters. In patients with malignant pleural effusions, a pH of less than 7.3 is usually seen in those effusions present for several months and is associated with a lower glucose level and a higher white cell count and lactic dehydrogenase level. Results of cytologic study of the pleural fluid and pleural biopsy are often positive, there is poor response to sclerosing agents, and the prognosis is poor. A rheumatoid pleural effusion most often has a pleural fluid pH below 7.3. A pleural fluid pH below 6 is seen almost exclusively in esophageal rupture but rarely with empyemas, whereas a pleural fluid pH below 7 occurs in esophageal rupture, empyema, and rheumatoid pleural effusions. In pleural effusions secondary to congestive heart failure, the pH is almost always greater than 7.4 unless systemic acidemia coexists, in which case the pleural fluid pH is within 0.04 units of the simultaneous arterial pH. The major value of pleural fluid pH is to determine the need for chest tube drainage in parapneumonic effusions and to determine the response to sclerosing agents in patients with malignant pleural effusions. As with all diagnostic tests, the results should be interpreted in the context of other diagnostic tests of the pleural fluid and clinical aspects before diagnostic or therapeutic decisions are made." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_2075", "title": "[Case of tuberculous pleurisy with eosinophilic pleural effusion and hematological eosinophilia].", "score": 0.011497511497511497, "content": "A 30-year-old man suffered from a chest-pain on his left side and was also having a low-grade fever though he actually neglected these symptoms for a while. Later, he was referred to our hospital due to the detection of chest abnormal shadows through the mass examination of chest X-ray taken on 18th October, 2005. His chest X-ray showed bilateral pleural effusion and it was confirmed that the right pleural effusion was encapsulated by his chest CT. The patient's hematological examination performed during his initial visit, showed an increased level of WBC with blood eosinophilia. He also had a puncture of pleural effusion at the time of admission to the center. Moreover, pleural effusion on both sides was exudative and elevations of ADA and eosinophil count as well were traced. In the patient's right pleural effusion, mycobacterium tuberculosis direct (MTD) test was positive. As there were no findings suggesting collagen disease, malignancy, parasite infection, and other complications, he was diagnosed as tuberculous pleurisy with eosinophilic pleural effusion and blood eosinophilia. He was treated with four antitubercular agents, namely, INH, RFP, EB and PZA. As the result, his pleural effusion and blood eosinophil counts were decreased along with an improvement in inflammatory reaction. The most common conditions associated with eosinophilic pleural effusion are described as malignancy, collagen disease, paragonimiasis, drug induced pleurisy, asbestosis, pneumothorax, and trauma, while there are only a few reports about such eosinophilic pleural effusion caused by tuberculous pleurisy. In this case, he also showed blood eosinophilia. Based on these findings, we finally came to the conclusion that the case is a very rare and significantly unique case of eosinophilic pleurisy with blood eosinophilia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13324", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011449176185713533, "content": "The fluid is straw colored and at times hemorrhagic; it is an exudate with a protein concentration >50% of that in serum (usually ~4–6 g/dL), a normal to low glucose concentration, a pH of ~7.3 (occasionally <7.2), and detectable white blood cells (usually 500–6000/μL). Neutrophils may predominate in the early stage, but lymphocyte predominance is the typical finding later. Mesothelial cells are generally rare or absent. AFB are rarely seen on direct smear, and cultures often may be falsely negative for M. tuberculosis; positive cultures are more common among postprimary cases. Determination of the pleural concentration of adenosine deaminase (ADA) may be a useful screening test, and TB may be excluded if the value is very low. Lysozyme is also present in the pleural effusion. Measurement of IFN-γ, either directly or through stimulation of sensitized T cells with mycobacterial antigens, can be helpful. Needle biopsy of the pleura is often required for diagnosis and is recommended over" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en056_29755", "title": "Hemothorax", "score": 0.011407584652625136, "content": "Although imaging techniques can demonstrate that fluid is present within the pleural space, it may be unclear what this fluid represents. To establish the nature of the fluid, a sample can be removed by inserting a needle into the pleural cavity in a procedure known as a thoracentesis or pleural tap. In this context, the most important assessment of the pleural fluid is the percentage by volume that is taken up by red blood cells (the hematocrit) A hemothorax is defined as having a hematocrit of at least 50% of that found in the affected person's blood, although the hematocrit of a chronic hemothorax may be between 25 and 50% if additional fluid has been secreted by the pleura. Pleural fluid can dilute hemothoraces in as low as 3–4 days. The red blood cells in the effusion spontaneously break down. Distinguishing the pleural fluid from blood by colour is impossible when the hematocrit value is over 5%. For these reasons, even if there is a hematocrit value under 50%, further" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_89504", "title": "Pleurisy", "score": 0.011400586882385598, "content": "Sometimes an x-ray is taken while lying on the painful side. This may show fluid, as well as changes in fluid position, that did not appear in the vertical x-ray. Blood test Blood tests can detect bacterial or viral infections, pneumonia, rheumatic fever, a pulmonary embolism, or lupus. ECG Electrocardiography test can determine if a heart condition contributes to the symptoms. Ultrasound Ultrasonography uses sound waves to create an image. It may show where fluid is located in the chest. It also can show some tumors. Although ultrasound may detect fluid around the lungs, also known as a pleural effusion, sound waves are scattered by air. Therefore, an actual picture of the lungs cannot be obtained with ultrasonography. Computed tomography (CT) scan A CT scan provides a computer-generated picture of the lungs that can show pockets of fluid. It also may show signs of pneumonia, a lung abscess, or a tumor." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en427_20595", "title": "Urinothorax", "score": 0.011261662803827182, "content": "Diagnosis Due to the main symptoms typically being urological rather than respiratory, the condition requires exclusion of other conditions and the identification of specific symptoms before diagnosis. Pleural fluid analysis is one way to diagnose the condition. The pleural fluid is most often straw-colored, and it has a distinct smell like ammonia. The fluid usually has a nucleated cell count between 50 and 1500 per cm3. The pH of the fluid is usually between 5 and 7. Primary factors for diagnosing urinothorax by pleural fluid include low protein and high lactate dehydrogenase content. Low glucose levels and acidity are also described, but are not reliable ways to diagnose or rule out urinothorax. The most important chemical diagnostic factor of the fluid is that the ratio of creatinine to serum is more than 1 and usually more than 10." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0948_6192", "title": "Tuberculous Pleural Effusion: Clinical Characteristics of 320 Patients.", "score": 0.011172161172161172, "content": "To analyze the clinical and radiological characteristics and features of pleural fluid (PF) in patients with tuberculous pleural effusion (TPE). Retrospective analysis of TPEs treated in our clinic over the last 23years. We included 320 patients with TPE (70% men; median age 33years). Mycobacterium tuberculosis was identified in the sputum or PF of 36% of the patients by microscopic examination, solid and liquid media cultures, or nucleic acid amplification tests. The greatest percentage of positive microbiological findings were associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) co-infection (OR: 3.27), and with the presence in PF of proteins &lt;4g/dL (OR: 3.53), neutrophils &gt;60% (OR: 3.23), and glucose &lt;40mg/dL (OR: 3.17). Pleural adenosine deaminase &lt;35U/L was associated with TPEs that occupied less than half of the hemithorax (OR: 6.36) and with PF lactate dehydrogenase levels &lt;500U/L (OR: 8.09). Radiological pulmonary opacities (30%) were more common in TPE occupying less than half of the hemithorax (OR: 2.73), in bilateral TPE (OR: 4.48), and in older patients (OR: 1.02). Factors predicting mortality were: HIV co-infection (OR: 24), proteins in PF &lt;5g/dL (OR: 10), and greater age (OR: 1.05). Patients with TPE and HIV co-infection and those with lower concentrations of proteins in PF had higher rates of positive microbiological results and death. Moreover, older patients had more pulmonary opacities and a higher incidence of death." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101881", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.010968341857221352, "content": "Chemical composition including protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), albumin, amylase, pH, and glucose Gram stain and culture to identify possible bacterial infections White and red blood cell counts and differential white blood cell counts Cytopathology to identify cancer cells, but may also identify some infective organisms Other tests as suggested by the clinical situation – lipids, fungal culture, viral culture, tuberculosis cultures, lupus cell prep, specific immunoglobulins Light's criteria Definitions of the terms \"transudate\" and \"exudate\" are the source of much confusion. Briefly, transudate is produced through pressure filtration without capillary injury while exudate is \"inflammatory fluid\" leaking between cells." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_20549", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01077359680470885, "content": "Perform diagnostic thoracentesis Measure pleural fluid protein and LDH Exudate Further diagnostic procedures Transudate Treat CHF, cirrhosis, nephrosis Measure PF glucose Obtain PF cytology Obtain differential cell count Culture, stain PF PF marker for TB Consider:Malignancy Bacterial infections Rheumatoid pleuritis Glucose < 60 mg/dL No diagnosis Consider pulmonary embolus (spiral CT or lung scan) Treat for PE Treat for TB PF marker for TB Observe Consider thoracoscopy or image-guided pleural biopsy Any of following met? PF/serum protein > 0.5 PF/serum LDH > 0.6 PF LDH > 2/3 upper normal serum limit Pleural effusion Yes No Yes Yes Yes No No No SYMPTOMS IMPROVING FIGURE 316-1 Approach to the diagnosis of pleural effusions. CHF, congestive heart failure; CT, computed tomography; LDH, lactate dehydrogenase; PE, pulmonary embolism; PF, pleural fluid; TB, tuberculosis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 75, 122 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 11, 18 ] ], "text": "Coxiella infection is not transmitted by ticks." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 431, 640 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 101 ] ], "text": "The combination of doxycycline plus hicroxychloroquine can be used, but for chronic Q fever (which is where elevation of antibodies against phase I antigens is observed and carries a higher risk of mortality)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "The way of transmission of this entity is by ticks.", "2": "Both doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine are effective in treating acute forms of this disease.", "3": "In its acute form it also presents, generally, elevation of antibodies against phase I antigens.", "4": "Mortality in acute forms is almost nonexistent.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1159_13154", "title": "Importance of clinical history in the diagnosis of psittacosis: A case report.", "score": 0.018521679754182313, "content": "Psittacosis, caused by the bacteria Chlamydia psittaci, is primarily a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans. The clinical manifestations of the disease are wide, ranging from asymptomatic illness to fulminant psittacosis with multi-organ failure. The organism gets attached to the upper respiratory mucosa after inhalation and the majority remain asymptomatic. However, some people may develop symptoms of atypical pneumonia. Psittacosis usually presents with sudden onset fever with chills and rigor, headache, and myalgia. Here we present a case of a 35 years old female with a history of close contact with parrots who presented to the ER with complaints of high-grade fever and headache for 2 weeks which started 2 days after her parrots died. The disease usually manifests as flu-like symptoms or pneumonia and is included in the differential diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia. Investigations reveal neutrophilia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, and elevated liver enzymes which were consistent with the findings of our patient. Chest X-ray showed ill-defined consolidation in the right middle and lower lobes which were inconclusive. Hence, a CT chest was done which revealed patchy ground glass opacities with surrounding consolidation giving a reverse halo sign. Due to her contact with birds and CT findings which were suggestive of psittacosis, she was started on doxycycline and her condition improved thereafter. We highlight the importance of proper history taking and awareness on zoonotic diseases to the general public to prevent, diagnose and treat the disease effectively." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0063_1826", "title": "[Familial outbreak of psittacosis].", "score": 0.017645245800585605, "content": "Three familial cases of psittacosis are reported. The first case was a 46-year-old woman, the second case, her 18-year-old daughter. Both of them often visited the house of the third case, a 49-year-old women, who was the elder sister of case 1 and who took care of the chick of a budgerigar which she kept in the house. Case 1 came to our hospital with abrupt onset of fever, headache, nausea and general malaise. Because she was suspected to have meningitis, she was admitted to the Department of Neurology. On admission, her chest X-ray film showed bilateral ground glass shadows. She also had hypoxemia and liver dysfunction. On learning of her history of contact with the chick, psittacosis was suspected. Case 2 suffered from fever and headache. Her chest X-ray film revealed opaque infiltration in the right lower lung field. Case 3 complained of fever, headache and vomiting. Her chest X-ray film showed fan-shaped faint shadows in the left upper, middle and lower lung fields. We interpreted these findings as showing psittacosis based on anamnesis. The result of the complement fixation (CF) antibody titer against chlamydia was 1:32 in cases 2 and 3, enabling a serological diagnosis of psittacosis. The corresponding result was 1:16 in case 1. Although the CF antibody titer showed no increase, we diagnosed the case clinically as psittacosis. It is difficult to correctly diagnose psittacosis only from the physical findings and chest X-ray films. Detailed anamnesis, in particular taking a history of exposure to birds, is an important clue for diagnosis.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_4739", "title": "Q fever--still a query and underestimated infectious disease.", "score": 0.01642643812491884, "content": "Coxiella burnetii (C.b.) is a strictly intracellular, Gram-negative bacterium. It causes Q fever in humans and animals worldwide. The animal Q fever is sometimes designated \"coxiellosis\". This infection has many different reservoirs including arthropods, birds and mammals. Domestic animals and pets, are the most frequent source of human infections. Q fever may appear basically in two forms, acute and chronic (persistent). The latter form of Q fever in animals is characteristic by shedding C.b. into the environment during parturition or abortion. Human Q fever results usually from inhalation of contaminated aerosols originating mostly from tissue and body fluids of infected animals. Q fever may appear in humans either in an acute form accompanied mainly by fever (pneumonia, flu-like disease, hepatitis) or in a chronic form (mainly endocarditis). Diagnosis of Q fever is based on isolation of the agent in cell culture, its direct detection, namely by PCR, and serology. Detection of high phase II antibodies titers 1-3 weeks after the onset of symptoms and identification of IgM antibodies are indicative to acute infection. High phase I IgG antibody titers &gt;800 as revealed by microimmunofluorescence offer evidence of chronic C.b. infection. For acute Q fever, a two-weeks-treatment with doxycycline is recommended as the first-line therapy. In the case of Q fever endocarditis a long-term combined antibiotic therapy is necessary to prevent relapses. Application of Q fever vaccines containing or prepared from phase I C.b. corpuscles should be considered at least for professionally exposed groups of the population. Infections caused by C.b. are spread worldwide and may pose serious and often underestimated health problems in human but also in veterinary medicine. Though during the last decades substantial progress in investigation of C.b. has been achieved and many data concerning this pathogen has been accumulated, some questions, namely those related to the pathogenesis of the disease, remain open." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0736_2372", "title": "[Two cases of acute hepatitis associated with Q fever].", "score": 0.01610857432775241, "content": "Q fever which is caused by Coxiella burnetii, is a worldwide zoonosis. Many species of wild and domestic mammals, birds, and arthropods, are reservoirs of C.burnetii in nature, however farm animals are the most frequent sources of human infection. The most frequent way of transmission is by inhalation of contaminated aerosols. The clinical presentation of Q fever is polymorphic and nonspecific. Q fever may present as acute or chronic disease. In acute cases, the most common clinical syndromes are selflimited febrile illness, granulomatous hepatitis, and pneumonia, but it can also be asymptomatic. Fever with hepatitis associated with Q fever has rarely been described in the literature. Herein we report two cases of C.burnetii hepatitis presented with jaundice. In May 2011, two male cases, who inhabited in Malkara village of Tekirdag province (located at Trace region of Turkey), were admitted to the hospital with the complaints of persistent high grade fever, chills and sweats, icterus, disseminated myalgia and headache. Physical examination revealed fever, icterus and the patient appeared to be mildly ill but had no localizing signs of infection. Radiological findings of the patients were in normal limits. Laboratory findings revealed leukocytosis, increased hepatic and cholestatic enzyme levels, and moderate hyperbilirubinemia- mainly direct bilirubin, whereas serum C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate were found normal. Blood and urine cultures of the patients yielded no bacterial growth. Serological markers for acute viral hepatitis, citomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus infections, brucellosis, salmonellosis, toxoplasmosis and leptospirosis were found negative. Acute Q fever diagnosis of the cases were based on the positive results obtained by C.burnetii Phase II IgM and IgG ELISA (Vircell SL, Spain) test, and the serological diagnosis were confirmed by Phase I and II immunofluorescence (Vircell SL, Spain) method. Both cases were treated with doxycycline for 14 days and became afebrile within four days. These cases were presented to emphasize that C.burnetii infection should be considered in the differential diagnosis of patients with fever and elevated serum transaminase levels, irrespective of the presence of abdominal pain and exposure to potentially infected animals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1040_6361", "title": "Q Fever (Coxiella Burnetii).", "score": 0.014585414585414586, "content": "Q fever is a zoonotic infectious disease caused by the <iCoxiella burnetii</i bacterium. It is an obligate intracellular pathogen with a high infection capacity that proliferates exclusively in an acidified medium, forming a lysosome-like vacuole. It presents a peculiar phenomenon called \"antigenic phase variation,\" produced by a modification in the complexity of the membrane lipopolysaccharides. Q fever can be found worldwide and presents variable clinical features and geographical distribution. It mostly affects people in rural areas who are in contact with animals. The most common type of transmission to humans is via the inhalation of aerosols containing the pathogen, especially those formed from placental derivatives. Wild animals, domestic animals, and ticks are the principal reservoirs.Diagnosis is mainly made by indirect methods such as serology or by direct methods such as microbiological cultures or tests that detect the specific DNA. Typically, there are two clinical presentations: the acute disease, which is more frequent and often asymptomatic, and a persistent focalized infection in 4 to 5% of patients, generally with a poor evolution. Treatment of the acute form in both children and adults consists of administering doxycycline, while persistent focalized infection should be treated with at least two antibiotics, such as doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine. Several measures should be undertaken to minimize exposure among people working with animals or handling birth products. Different vaccines have been developed to prevent infection, though few data are available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0068_15725", "title": "An outbreak of cat-associated Q fever in the United States.", "score": 0.013594470046082949, "content": "Q fever is usually acquired by contact with aerosols generated during parturition of domestic ungulates (e.g., sheep, cows, goats). In the maritime provinces of Canada, parturient cats have also been implicated in its transmission. A 66-year-old woman from eastern Maine developed high fever, rigors, headache, myalgias, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated hepatocellular enzymes, and the diagnosis of acute Q fever was confirmed serologically. She and 14 other family members had attended a family reunion in Maine 2 weeks earlier, when they were exposed to a parturient cat. All 11 adults and older children attending the reunion developed symptoms consistent with acute Q fever. Serum samples were obtained from 10 who attended the reunion and 8 who did not attend. Titers greater than or equal to 1:64 to Coxiella burnetii were present in all who attended the reunion but in none of those who did not. Cat-associated Q fever should be considered when sporadic cases of the disease occur in the United States." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0744_3336", "title": "Q Fever: an old but still a poorly understood disease.", "score": 0.013544393202875067, "content": "Q fever is a bacterial infection affecting mainly the lungs, liver, and heart. It is found around the world and is caused by the bacteria Coxiella burnetii. The bacteria affects sheep, goats, cattle, dogs, cats, birds, rodents, and ticks. Infected animals shed this bacteria in birth products, feces, milk, and urine. Humans usually get Q fever by breathing in contaminated droplets released by infected animals and drinking raw milk. People at highest risk for this infection are farmers, laboratory workers, sheep and dairy workers, and veterinarians. Chronic Q fever develops in people who have been infected for more than 6 months. It usually takes about 20 days after exposure to the bacteria for symptoms to occur. Most cases are mild, yet some severe cases have been reported. Symptoms of acute Q fever may include: chest pain with breathing, cough, fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pains, and shortness of breath. Symptoms of chronic Q fever may include chills, fatigue, night sweats, prolonged fever, and shortness of breath. Q fever is diagnosed with a blood antibody test. The main treatment for the disease is with antibiotics. For acute Q fever, doxycycline is recommended. For chronic Q fever, a combination of doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine is often used long term. Complications are cirrhosis, hepatitis, encephalitis, endocarditis, pericarditis, myocarditis, interstitial pulmonary fibrosis, meningitis, and pneumonia. People at risk should always: carefully dispose of animal products that may be infected, disinfect any contaminated areas, and thoroughly wash their hands. Pasteurizing milk can also help prevent Q fever." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en200_20677", "title": "Acute chest syndrome", "score": 0.012797619047619047, "content": "Diagnosis The diagnosis of acute chest syndrome is made difficult by its similarity in presentation with pneumonia. Both may present with a new opacification of the lung on chest x-ray. The presence of fevers, low oxygen levels in the blood, increased respiratory rate, chest pain, and cough are also common in acute chest syndrome. Diagnostic workup includes chest x-ray, complete cell count, reticulocyte count, ECG, and blood and sputum cultures. Patients may also require additional blood tests or imaging (e.g. a CT scan) to exclude a heart attack or other pulmonary pathology. Prevention Hydroxyurea is a medication that can help to prevent acute chest syndrome. It may cause a low white blood cell count, which can predispose the person to some types of infection. Treatment Broad spectrum antibiotics to cover common infections such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and mycoplasma, pain control, and blood transfusion. Acute chest syndrome is an indication for exchange transfusion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_20832", "title": "[Successful treatment of a patient with fulminant psittacosis].", "score": 0.012735628602586072, "content": "A previously healthy 40-year-old woman was admitted with severe dyspnea, cough and slight fever. Chest X-ray film revealed bilateral widespread opaque infiltration with ground glass shadows around it. The laboratory examination showed moderate hepatic and muscular injury with disseminated intravascular coagulation. In addition her arterial blood gas showed severe hypoxemia (PaO2: 25 Torr under room air). Moreover, about 1 week prior to admission, 2 baby budgerigars she had been raising for half a year died. Because of this history and multi-organ injuries, this disease was considered to be acute pneumonia owing to fulminant psittacosis causing acute respiratory failure. On the first day of admission, she was intubated and ventilated mechanically with an oxygen concentration (FIO2) of 100%. Subsequently, treatment with intravenous minocycline (400 mg/day), heparin for D.I.C. and corticosteroid were started. Abnormal findings in both chest X-ray and several laboratory parameters improved gradually though fever continued for a week. On the 14th day of her hospital stay, she was weaned from the ventilator successfully and the administration of corticosteroid and heparin tapered. On the 41st day, she was discharged without any symptoms. Results of complement fixation (CF) antibodies against chlamydia on paired sera showed a significant rise from 1:32 to 1:256. Moreover, both IgG and IgM antibodies for Chlamydia psittaci with microplate immunofluorescent antibody technique (MFA) showed an 8 times' rise during 10 days after admission. The definitive diagnosis was made with positive isolation of C. psittaci from both the throat swab of this patient and the spleen and liver of the dead budgerigar by the cell culture method. Psittacosis should always be borne in mind as a possible cause of fulminant pneumonia with acute respiratory failure, and such a situation can be handled successfully if emergency care including mechanical ventilation is available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_3794", "title": "[Subacute extrinsic allergic alveolitis with lesion edema].", "score": 0.01182915765231349, "content": "Extrinsic allergic alveolitis may have a chronic, subacute or acute course. Its fulminant form with interstitial edema is unusual. An 11-year-old girl was referred to our intensive care unit because she suffered from high fever. Chest X-rays showed bilateral alveolitis. History revealed home exposure to several birds for many years, and episodes of dyspnea and fever for a few months. Diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis was confirmed by strongly positive results of precipitins to avian antigens. In addition, a paramyxovirus influenzae was recovered from broncho-alveolar lavage. Treatment, including high dose steroids, hydroxychloroquine, and suppression of antigenic exposure allowed weaning from mechanical ventilation after 50 days. Severe pulmonary restriction was disclosed by lung function testing following weaning and slow improvement occurred 5 months later, despite persistent interstitial lesions on chest X-rays. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis may mimic an acute respiratory distress syndrome. Documenting bird exposure in such a case helps to achieve appropriate diagnosis which requires early administration of steroids in order to improve vital and functional prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_13609", "title": "[A family outbreak of Chlamydia psittaci infection].", "score": 0.01143599740090968, "content": "A family outbreak (3 cases) of Chlamydia psittaci infection was reported. The first case, a 56-year-old man was admitted with fever and general fatigue. Chest X-ray film revealed a consolidation in the right lower lung. One month before admission he had purchased 2 parakeets (chick) and one parakeet died. On learning of his history of contact with the chick, psittacosis was suspected. After administration of fixation (CF) antibody titer against chlamydia rose to 1:128 and IgA titer against Chlamydia psittaci by microimmunofluorescence antibody technique (MAF) rose to 1:128 in 21 days after admission. The second case, the wife of the first, a 53-year-old woman had a fever and a cough about two weeks before the admission of the first case. At the time of her husband was admitted, she attended the outpatient department. The chest CT X-ray film showed a ground glass appearance in both lower lung fields. The third case, the daughter of the first, didn't have any signs. Chest X-ray film was normal. But IgM titer against Chlamydia psittaci by MAF rose to 1:16 and IgA titer against Chlamydia psittaci by MAF rose to 1:128. This case was considered as inapparent infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_25354", "title": "Imported brucellosis and Q-fever coinfection in Croatia: a case report.", "score": 0.011275284205309297, "content": "The brucellosis and Q-fever coinfection is very rarely reported. To our knowledge, this is the first case report of concomitant brucellosis and Q-fever, most likely imported in Croatia. A 30-year-old male agricultural worker was hospitalized on 22 April 2017 after a ten days fever up to 40°C with chills, shivering, excessive sweating, general weakness, loss of appetite and headache. A month and a half prior to the hospitalization he lost 18 kg of body weight. Three weeks before hospitalization the patient returned from Kupres (Bosnia and Herzegovina) where he was working for the past year on a sheep farm and consumed unpasteurized dairy products of sheep origin. At admission, his condition was moderately severe due to pronounced dehydration. Routine laboratory tests showed slightly elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, anemia, thrombocytopenia and elevated liver transaminases. The chest X-ray showed an inhomogeneous infiltrate of the lower right lung. Three sets of blood culture were cultivated. After 48 hours incubation, bacterial growth was detected in aerobic bottles. Gram-stained smear revealed small, gram-negative coccobacilli. Specimens were subcultured on blood and chocolate agar plates. Using a Vitek GN identification card, the isolated organism was identified as Brucella melitensis. 16S rRNA gene sequencing of the isolate confirmed it as a Brucella sp. Rose-Bengal test was positive, while Wright agglutination test showed a significant increase in antibody titer from 80 to 640 in paired sera. Using indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), Coxiella burnetii phase II IgM/IgG titers were 50 and 1024, respectively indicating acute Q-fever. The patient was treated with doxycycline and rifampicin. So far, there has been no relapse or signs of chronic infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en086_48572", "title": "Farmer's lung", "score": 0.010989010989010988, "content": "Signs and symptoms Acute Stage: After four to eight hours symptoms such as headache, irritating cough, and shortness of breath upon physical exertion, appear. Subacute Stage: Symptoms persist without further exposure, and increase in severity. Symptoms include: shortness of breath upon exertion, chronic coughing, physical weakness, occasional fever and sweating, decrease in appetite, aches and pains. Chronic Stage: Debilitating effects are now considered long-term. Symptoms include: severe shortness of breath, chronic coughing, physical weakness, occasional fever and sweating at night, decrease in appetite, and general aches and pains. These symptoms develop between four and eight hours after exposure to the antigens. In acute attacks, the symptoms mimic pneumonia or flu. In chronic attacks, there is a possibility of the victim going into shock and dying from the attack." }, { "id": "article-28128_26", "title": "Q Fever -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.010665575559192581, "content": "Patients with acute viral infections, such as Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, influenza, hepatitis A, B, or C virus, have similar presenting complaints, such as febrile illness, hepatitis, and myalgia. Serological tests and PCR assays are used to identify these infections. Atypical pneumonia caused by Legionella and Mycoplasma needs to be considered. They can be ruled out by detecting urine antigen or serum antibody titers. Tick-borne illnesses such as Lyme disease, relapsing fever, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever manifest with fever and headache with or without a rash. Anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis present with fever, headache, and hepatitis, with a lesser incidence of rash. Tick-borne diseases are detected via PCR and/or serology. Zoonotic diseases such as brucellosis and leptospirosis can manifest as an acute flu-like illness with a history of exposure to animals or animal products." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_13890", "title": "[Diffuse panbronchiolitis with myeloperoxidase-specific antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-related vasculitis].", "score": 0.01041497592382189, "content": "A 46-year-old woman was referred to our department in July 1996 with complaints of fever and myalgia in her calves. She had a 20-year history of purulent sputum; diffuse panbronchiolitis had been diagnosed in 1983. Physical examination revealed low-pithed rhonchi over the lung fieldis and hypesthesia of the right leg. She had a white blood cell count of 16,100/mm3, including 4% eosinophils, and a platelet count of 80.0 x 10(4)/mm3. The serum IgE level was 2,200 U/ml, and the cold hemagglutinin titer was high. Pulmonary-function tests showed mixed ventilatory dysfunction, and arterial blood gas analysis revealed a PaO2 of 55.8 Torr on room air. Pseudomonas aeruginosa was cultured from her sputum. A chest X-ray film and CT scan showed diffuse nodular shadows and bronchiectatic changes with mild hyperinflation. An infiltrative lesion in right S6 area could also be seen. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics did not alleviate her symptoms. The level of myeloperoxidase-specific antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (MPO-ANCA) in serum was 245 EU/ml, and 67Ga scintigraphy showed marked accumulation in the abdomen. Abdominal angiography demonstrated a bead-like appearance and irregularities in the peripheral branches of the hapatic artery, the splenic artery, the cystic artery, and the superior mesenteric artery. Because of the high MPO-ANCA level and the angiographic abnormalities, MPO-ANCA-related vasculitis was diagnosed. She was treated with 1 g of methylprednisolone daily for 3 days, followed by 60 mg of prednisolone and 50 mg of cyclophosphamide daily. Her condition improved dramatically, and the MPO-ANCA level became almost normal. During treatment, her blood pressure rose markedly with a normal serum creatinine level and normal urinalysis. Plasma renin activity was 13.3 ng/ml/hr. Renal angiography showed stenoses and irregularities in the peripheral branches of renal arteries bilaterally. These findings led to a diagnosis of renovascular hypertension due to vasculitis. Her blood pressure was controlled with an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and a calcium antagonist. Vasculitis associated with chronic supportive lung disease has occasionally been reported, which suggests a casual relation between chronic respiratory infection and ANCA-related vasculitis. Systemic vasculitis should be taken into account as a potential complication of chronic suppurative lung disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0569_19775", "title": "[A case of psittacosis with wandering infiltrates developing to acute respiratory distress syndrome].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 52-year-old woman visited a local hospital with a high fever, non-productive cough and general fatigue. Her chest X-ray showed infiltrate in the right middle lung field. Computed tomography scans revealed ground-glass opacity and surrounding ring-shaped air-space consolidation, the \"reversed halo sign\". Cefpirom was administered, but her symptoms persisted and the infiltrate migrated to the left upper lobe. As cryptogenic organizing pneumonia was suspected, she was then treated with intravenously pulsed methylprednisolone followed by prednisolone. Despite these therapies, acute respiratory failure occurred and she was therefore transferred to our hospital. On admission, severe hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest images suggested acute respiratory distress syndrome. As we obtained information that a parakeet had recently died at her home, minocycline was administered, resulting in prompt improvement of the symptoms, respiratory insufficiency and pulmonary infiltrates. Finally, elevated antibody titers against Chlamydophila psittasi confirmed a diagnosis of Psittacosis. Sequential chest computed tomography scans in this case indicate that absorption of marginal air-space consolidation with extended central ground glass attenuation in concordance with a new infiltrate on another lung field appeared to create wandering infiltrate. Wandering infiltrate on chest X-ray in psittacosis may be a sign of disease progression." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_52548", "title": "Blastomycosis", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "a flu-like illness with fever, chills, arthralgia (joint pain), myalgia (muscle pain), headache, and a nonproductive cough which resolves within days. an acute illness resembling bacterial pneumonia, with symptoms of high fever, chills, a productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. a chronic illness that mimics tuberculosis or lung cancer, with symptoms of low-grade fever, a productive cough, night sweats, and weight loss. a fast, progressive, and severe disease that manifests as ARDS, with fever, shortness of breath, tachypnea, hypoxemia, and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates. skin lesions, usually asymptomatic, can be verrucous (wart-like) or ulcerated with small pustules at the margins. bone lytic lesions can cause bone or joint pain. prostatitis may be asymptomatic or may cause pain on urinating. laryngeal involvement causes hoarseness. 40% immunocompromised individuals have CNS involvement and present as brain abscess, epidural abscess or meningitis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en415_31130", "title": "Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome", "score": 0.009719497129569073, "content": "Signs and symptoms Initially, HPS has an incubation phase of 2–4 weeks, in which patients remain asymptomatic. Subsequently, patients can experience 3–5 days of flu-like prodromal phase symptoms, including fever, cough, muscle pain, headache, lethargy, shortness of breath, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. In the following 5–7 day cardiopulmonary phase, the patient's condition rapidly deteriorates into acute respiratory failure, characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath with rapidly evolving pulmonary edema, as well as cardiac failure, with hypotension, tachycardia and shock. In this phase, patients may develop acute respiratory distress syndrome. It is often fatal despite mechanical ventilation and intervention with diuretics. After the cardiopulmonary phase, patients can enter a diuretic phase of 2–3 days characterized by symptom improvement and diuresis. Subsequent convalescence can last months to years. As of 2017, patient mortality in the USA from HPS is 36%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_13531", "title": "Q fever: current concepts.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Persons with Q fever usually present with severe retrobulbar headache, a fever to 104 degrees F or higher with shaking chills, general malaise, myalgia, chest pain, and sometimes pneumonia and hepatitis. Cattle, sheep, goats, and ticks are the primary reservoirs of the etiologic agent, Coxiella burnetii. Humans are usually infected by inhaling infectious aerosols. Because C. burnetii can survive for long periods in the environment, it poses a continuing health hazard once it is disseminated. Q fever usually occurs sporadically, but large outbreaks are frequently observed throughout the world, particularly among abattoir workers and personnel working in research centers. Q fever endocarditis follows a chronic course and is frequently fatal. Tests for antibodies to C. burnetii are required for confirmation of the diagnosis. Tetracyclines remain the mainstay of treatment for acute Q fever, and tetracyclines in combination with other antibiotics have been advocated for patients with Q fever endocarditis. Vaccines for Q fever have been proven effective in clinical trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1051_16743", "title": "SARS-CoV-2 Infection and COVID-19 in 5 Patients in Ecuador After Prior Treatment with Hydroxychloroquine for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "BACKGROUND This case series describes 5 patients with SARS-CoV-2 infection and COVID-19 in Ecuador who had been treated with hydroxychloroquine for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) prior to their COVID-19 illness. CASE REPORT Case #1 reports a 29-year-old woman who had been treated with 200 mg of hydroxychloroquine per day for 1 year and presented with flu-like symptoms, chest pain, fever, odynophagia, asthenia, dry cough, and chills. Case #2 was a 34-year-old woman whose treatment for SLE included 200 mg of hydroxychloroquine per day since 2017. She arrived at the clinic with a dry cough, asthenia, and myalgias. Case #3 was a 24-year-old woman who had been using 200 mg of hydroxychloroquine per day since 2010. She presented with asthenia, myalgias, headaches, hypogeusia, and anosmia. Case #4 was a 39-year-old woman taking 200 mg of hydroxychloroquine every day for SLE who presented with dyspnea, chest pain, odynophagia, hypogeusia, anosmia, diarrhea, and fever. Case #5 was a 46-year-old woman who had been taking 200 mg of hydroxychloroquine since 2019. She came to our hospital complaining of chest pain, fever, and dyspnea. In all 5 patients, SARS-CoV-2 infection was confirmed with a nasopharyngeal SARS-CoV-2 reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) test using the Cepheid/GeneXpert system. CONCLUSIONS All 5 of our patients with SLE who were taking hydroxychloroquine presented with SARS-CoV-2 infection and symptoms of COVID-19. This case series provides support for a lack of prevention of COVID-19 by hydroxychloroquine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0593_9434", "title": "Diagnosis and treatment of Q fever: attempts to clarify current problems in Japan.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "\"Q fever\" is a generic term for infection caused, mostly in the form of pneumonia or bronchitis, by Coxiella burnetii (Q-fever Coxiella), a pathogen closely related to Rickettsia and Legionella. Q fever is an influenza-like, transient febrile infectious disease that is common to humans and animals; it develops after the transmission of the infectious agent from livestock or pet animals, but person-to-person transmission is rare. In Europe and the United States, it is ranked fourth or fifth as an underlying cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Many patients with Q fever have a good prognosis, and their mortality is about 1%-2% when left untreated. However, because some patients may take a long time to be cured or may have a chronic condition with poor prognosis, patients with definitely diagnosed Q fever or those strongly suspected of having Q fever are strongly recommended to receive treatment. The definite diagnosis of Q fever is made based on a significant increase in serum antibody titers, the determination of which often requires considerable time, and therefore patients must be monitored for a certain period. Q-fever Coxiella, an obligate intracellular parasite, is basically not susceptible to beta-lactam antibiotics, which barely permeate into the cells, but the parasite is susceptible to tetracyclines, macrolides, and quinolones, with these agents being sufficiently permeable into the cells. However, there are many cases of spontaneous cure, and it is likely that beta-lactam treatment may have been involved in these cases. Vaccination against Q fever is not common in Japan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1120_5120", "title": "A 15-year-old with chest pain: An unexpected etiology.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 15-year-old female with no significant past medical history presented to the emergency department with 1 day of substernal and pleuritic chest pain, chills, cough, and hematuria. She also had swelling of the face and ankles that resolved by presentation. She was found to have elevated troponin and brain natriuretic peptide during initial workup. Electrocardiogram was normal, but there were significant pleural effusions on chest x-ray. She was strep positive and had blood pressure up to 150/90, prompting admission for cardiac monitoring and cardiology consultation. Blood pressure decreased down to 125/72 without intervention. She was afebrile with unlabored breathing and normal saturations. She was clear to auscultation bilaterally, with no abdominal distension or hepatosplenomegaly, and edema was not evident on exam. There was mild erythema to the bilateral tonsillar pillars. Initial considerations included viral myocarditis, pericarditis, and atypical nephritic syndrome. Workup revealed elevated antistreptolysin antibodies, low C3 complement, negative antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies, and negative flu testing. Renal sonography was unremarkable. Cardiology recommended echocardiography, which confirmed pleural effusions but revealed no cardiac abnormalities. Urinalysis revealed hematuria and mild proteinuria. Diagnosis was found to be post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis complicated by fluid overload and left ventricular strain secondary to hypertensive emergency. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis in children. The mechanism of disease is a proliferation and inflammation of the renal glomeruli secondary to immunologic injury, with deposition of immune complexes, neutrophils, macrophages, and C3 after complement activation. This leads to hematuria, proteinuria, and fluid overload. Edema is present in 65%-90% of patients, progressing to pulmonary involvement in severe cases. Cardiac dysfunction secondary to fluid overload is a potentially fatal outcome in the acute setting. Physicians should consider post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis for patients presenting with hypertension, cardiac/pulmonary pathology, or symptoms of acute heart failure in the context of strep infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_13396", "title": "Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) pneumonia.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pneumonia is one manifestation of acute Q fever following infection with Coxiella burnetii. Fever, headache, and myalgia dominate the clinical picture of Q fever pneumonia. Cough is nonproductive and may be absent despite the presence of pneumonia. While in most instances pneumonia results in an illness of mild-to-moderate severity, on occasion it is rapidly progressive and results in respiratory failure. Infection occurs as a result of inhalation of contaminated aerosols. Infected cattle, sheep, and goats are the usual reservoirs for this zoonosis. In some areas, infected parturient cats serve as the reservoir, and in such instances, rounded opacities are seen on the chest radiograph. The diagnosis of C. burnetii pneumonia is usually confirmed by demonstration of a fourfold or greater rise in antibody titer. Treatment is usually with a tetracycline or rifampin for 7 to 10 days." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1070_21180", "title": "A 47-Year Old Woman With Rapidly Progressive Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 47-year-old Hispanic woman presented to a pulmonology clinic with 2 weeks of cough productive of white sputum and worsening dyspnea on exertion, requiring increasing supplemental oxygen. In addition, she reported fatigue, night sweats, diffuse myalgias, and extremity weakness. She denied hemoptysis, fevers, chills, weight loss, or rash. Her medical history is significant for undifferentiated rapidly progressive hypoxemic respiratory failure 2 years before her current presentation. At that time, she presented to the ED with 3 weeks of progressive shortness of breath and cough. Chest CT imaging showed bilateral infiltrates concerning for infection, and she was treated empirically for community-acquired pneumonia. She developed worsening hypoxemic respiratory failure despite broadening of her antibiotics and subsequently required intubation. Her course was further complicated by pulseless electrical activity arrest with return of spontaneous circulation and development of shock requiring multiple vasopressors. Because of difficulty with oxygenation, she was referred to our center for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation evaluation and was ultimately started on venous-arterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Bronchoscopy with BAL was negative for bacterial, viral, and fungal origins, and initial autoimmune evaluation (antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor) was negative, except an elevated creatine kinase (CK) to 3,000. Her course was complicated by heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and as a result she suffered limb ischemia requiring amputation of her left lower extremity. Elevated CK at that time was attributed to compartment syndrome before amputation. The patient recovered clinically with supportive care and was ultimately discharged on 2 L supplemental oxygen, with a diagnosis of acute respiratory failure of unclear origin. The patient had stability in her clinical symptoms until this current presentation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0756_22380", "title": "[Investigation of Coxiella burnetii and Brucella seropositivities in patients presenting with acute fever].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Tokat province and Kelkit Valley located in the Black Sea region of Turkey are endemic areas for brucellosis and Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever. Since the risk factors are similar, the probability of Coxiella burnetii seroposititivity is assumed to be also high in this area. The aim of this study was to investigate Q fever and brucellosis seropositivity in patients with acute fever. A total of 53 patients (37 male, 16 female; age range: 18-65 years, mean age: 47.13 ± 16.40 years) who were admitted to the emergency room and infection diseases outpatient clinics of Gaziosmanpasa University hospital with acute fever between June 2011-June 2012 were included in the study. Symptoms, physical examination findings and laboratory test results of the patients were recorded. In addition, their place of residence, relationship with rural area, and history of contacts with animals were questioned. The presence of C.burnetii phase II lgM and lgG antibodies were investigated by indirect immunofluorescent antibody assay, and Brucella spp. antibodies by Rose Bengal and standard tube agglutination methods in the serum samples of patients. C.burnetii seropositivity was determined in 19 (36%) of the patients, and 2 (4%) of them were diagnosed as acute Q fever with the positivity of both lgG and lgM antibodies. Among the seropositive and seronegative patients, there was no statistically significant differences in terms of age, gender, animal contact, occupation, place of residence and relationship with rural-life (p&gt; 0.05). Acute fever was attributed to pneumonia in 10 patients and of them five were found positive for phase II lgG antibodies. There was no significant difference between C.burnetii seropositive and seronegative patients in terms of the presence of pneumonia (p= 0.30). In two patients diagnosed as acute Q fever no signs of pneumoniae were detected in the chest X-rays; one of these cases was resided in the city and the other in the rural area while both had contact with animals. The most frequently detected symptoms in patients with acute Q fever were malaise, fatigue, chills, cough, sputum, dyspnea, nausea, abdominal pain and diarrhea. Brucella seropositivity was detected in 6 (11%) patients and four of them were diagnosed as acute brucellosis. Four of the Brucella seropositive patients were also found positive for C.burnetii. Sixteen (84%) of C.burnetii seropositive patients were male and 3 (16%) were female. Eleven of them were living in the village and eight in the city, however six out of eight urban patients had a history of relation with rural-life, resulting a total of 17 (89%) rural-contacts. In addition, 79% (15/19) of seropositive cases had the history of animal contact most commonly with cattle and sheep (11/15; 73%). When the laboratory findings were compared, serum ferritin levels were found to be significantly higher in patients with acute Q fever then those seronegative patients (874 ng/ml mean value vs. 150 ng/mL mean value; p= 0.04), however there was no significant difference between the other laboratory parameters (p&gt; 0.05). Our data indicated that Q fever seropositivity was quite high in Tokat region and the reason may be attributed to entwined life between rural and urban areas. In conclusion in the patients presenting with acute fever, brucellosis and Q fever should be considered in differential diagnosis, since both infections are endemic in that area of Turkey." }, { "id": "article-22910_10", "title": "Histoplasmosis -- History and Physical -- Acute Pulmonary Histoplasmosis", "score": 0.009365754256715715, "content": "Primary infections are frequently asymptomatic, or the patients tend to ignore mild flu-like symptoms. The major determinant of symptoms is the inoculum size. The typical incubation period is seven to 21 days. High fever, headache, nonproductive cough, and chest pain are the main symptoms. This chest pain is not pleuritic and is in the anterior chest and is believed to be due to enlargement of mediastinal or hilar lymph nodes. Most of the symptoms resolve in 10 days. Rheumatologic manifestations can occur such as arthralgias, erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme in a small number of patients (6%, mostly women). This syndrome appears to be less frequent in histoplasmosis when compared to coccidioidomycosis. Imaging shows patchy diffuse pneumonitis and hilar lymphadenopathy. There is no granulomatous inflammation as cellular immunity matures by two weeks in primary infection. During the acute pulmonary infections, a skin test may be positive in more than 90% of cases, antibody to H. capsulatum may be present in 25% to 85% of cases, the urinary antigen may be positive in 20% of cases, and sputum culture from lungs may be positive in less than 25% of cases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_101159", "title": "Nitrofurantoin", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Pulmonary toxicity The pulmonary toxicity caused by nitrofurantoin can be categorized into acute, subacute, and chronic pulmonary reactions. The acute and subacute reactions are thought to be due to a hypersensitivity reaction and often resolve when the drug is discontinued. Acute reactions have been estimated to occur in about one in 5000 women who take the drug. These reactions usually develop 3–8 days after the first dose of nitrofurantoin, but may occur from a few hours to a few weeks after starting the drug. Symptoms include fever, dyspnea, chills, cough, pleuritic chest pain, headache, back pain, and epigastric pain. Chest radiograph will often show unilateral or bilateral infiltrates similar to pulmonary edema. Treatment includes discontinuation of the nitrofurantoin, which should result in symptom improvement within 24 hours." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_5761", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Q fever, unlike the other rickettsioses, is not associated with an exanthem. In the few cases with which we are familiar, the main symptoms were those of a low-grade meningitis. Rare instances of encephalitis, cerebellitis, and myelitis are also reported, possibly as postinfectious complications. There is usually a tracheobronchitis or atypical pneumonia (one in which no organism can be cultured from the sputum) and a severe prodromal headache. In these respects, the pulmonary and neurologic illnesses resemble that of the other main cause of “atypical pneumonia,” M. pneumoniae. The Q fever agent (Coxiella) should be suspected if there are concomitant respiratory and meningoencephalitic illnesses and there has been exposure to parturient animals, to livestock (including abattoir workers, who are also exposed to Brucella and anthrax), or to wild deer or rabbits. The diagnosis can be made by the finding of a severalfold increase in specific immunofixation antibodies. Patients who survive" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1135_7507", "title": "Q-uestioning the Diagnosis: An Educational Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Q fever is a zoonotic infection that may lead to acute or long-term renal injury. Given its rare incidence, Q fever is not often considered on the initial differential diagnosis for glomerular disease which can lead to delays in treatment. This case highlights the importance of avoiding early diagnostic closure and revisiting the differential diagnosis in the setting of an atypical clinical presentation or response to treatment. A 52-year-old female was referred for assessment of possible glomerulonephritis. She described a 3-month history of bilateral lower extremity rash, intermittent knee pain with swelling, and a 2-year history of subjective fevers. Urinalysis showed persistent microscopic hematuria, and her creatinine was elevated at 94 umol/L (baseline 59 umol/L). Her initial investigations included an elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) and rheumatoid factor with a weakly positive anti nuclear antibody (ANA). Kidney biopsy was consistent with an immune complex mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis. Light microscopy showed diffuse global mesangial hypercellularity. Immunofluorescence was positive for trace mesangial IgG and kappa, 1+ IgM, lambda and C1q, and 2+ C3. Electron microscopy showed mesangial electron dense deposits. These findings were felt to be most in keeping with mesangial proliferative lupus nephritis; however, it was acknowledged that clinical and laboratory findings supporting this diagnosis were lacking. Following treatment with oral prednisone her symptoms resolved, and renal function improved. However, she was unable to taper off prednisone completely without her symptoms returning. Additional immunosuppressive therapies were trialed, but she remained steroid dependent with disease flares related to prednisone tapers. Her atypical response to treatment led to consideration of alternative diagnoses, and further investigation revealed positive Q fever serology (phase-I IgG 1:1892, phase II IgG 1:8192, phase-I and -II IgM &lt; 1:16). She was diagnosed with long-term Q fever and was treated with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine. She remained on treatment for 2 years. During this time, her symptoms resolved, hematuria disappeared, and her creatinine returned to baseline. Following cessation of therapy, her Q fever IgM titres rose, and she was restarted on doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine indefinitely. (1) Keeping a broad differential diagnosis in the setting of atypical clinical features or unexpected response to therapy is important for ensuring accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. (2) Clinical improvement in relation to immunosuppressive therapy does not preclude an infectious cause of glomerular disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_20653", "title": "[Acute bronchiolitis due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae and successfully treated with steroids].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A high fever, coughing, stridor, and dyspnea developed in a 52-year-old woman on October 19, 1995. She went to a local clinic and was treated with oral penicillin and intravenous cefpirome. The symptoms worsened, and she was admitted to our hospital on October 26. Coarse crackles and wheezing were heard in both lung fields. The white blood cell count was 9000/mm3 and arterial blood gas analysis revealed a PaO2 of 49.8 Torr on room air. A chest roentgenogram obtained on admission showed a few small bibasilar nodular infiltrates, and a chest CT scan showed thickened bronchial walls along with small nodules having a centrilobular distribution. Of the cells in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid, 88% were neutrophils, but tests for bacteria and mycobacteria were negative. The cold-agglutinin titer was 1:512. The Mycoplasma pneumoniae antibody titer (IIIA) was 1:640 and viral serology tests were negative. Acute bronchiolitis due to M. pneumoniae was diagnosed and treatment with intravenous minocycline was started. The symptoms (coughing, fever, and stridor) resolved and the small nodules on chest CT scan disappeared, but hypoxemia remained. At the same time, an obstructive ventilatory defect (FEV1% 62.8%) and abnormal ventilation/perfusion lung scans were noted. Development into bronchiolitis obliterans was suspected, so administration of methyl prednisolone (1 g/day for 3 days) and prednisolone was started. The response to steroids was good. Pulmonary function improved and the arterial PaO2 at the time of discharge was 86 Torr (room air). Use of steroid therapy in the early phase of bronchiolitis obliterans seemed to be effective." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0362_6235", "title": "[Acute and chronic Q fever; epidemiology, symptoms, diagnosis and therapy of infection caused by Coxiella burnetii].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Q fever is a zoonosis caused by Coxiella burnetii, an obligate intracellular bacterium. Domestic ungulates and parturient cats are the primary reservoirs of infection. The animals excrete the bacterium in urine, faeces, milk and amniotic fluid. After desiccation the micro-organism spreads via aerosols. After inhalation or ingestion and an incubation period of 2-6 weeks acute Q fever may develop with atypical pneumonia and hepatitis as major clinical symptoms. The infection also may present as a flu-like illness or remain asymptomatic. Generally, the prognosis is favourable. However, endocarditis or another chronic form of Q fever occasionally develops with possibly fatal outcome. Diagnosis relies upon serologic testing with an indirect immunofluorescence method. Doxycycline is the antibiotic of choice in the treatment of Q fever. Endocarditis needs therapy for years with the addition of rifampin or hydroxychloroquine. Q fever is poorly recognised due to the variety of clinical presentations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0692_22861", "title": "[Q fever as a cause of acute hepatitis accompanying fever].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Q fever is a zoonotic infection caused by Coxiella burnetti, which has been previously regarded as an uncommon infectious disease in Korea but is sporadically reported recently. Common manifestations of acute Q fever usually present as influenza-like illness, pneumonia and occasionally hepatitis. Herein, we report 4 cases of acute Q fever as a cause of acute hepatitis and fever. All patients had fever and non-specific symptoms, and laboratory test showed acute hepatitis. Antibody surveys for many virus infections and bacterial cultures were negative. Finally, they were diagnosed acute Q fever by an indirect microimmunofluorescence test. Liver biopsy in 3 patients revealed granuloma including one with typical fibrin-ring. All patients had complete resolution of symptoms and signs with doxycycline treatment. Q fever should be considered in the differential diagnosis of patients with fever of unknown origin with acute hepatitis in Korea." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Isoniazid, for nine months.", "2": "Rifampicin, for four months.", "3": "Isoniazid and rifampicin, for three months.", "4": "Isoniazid and rifapentine, for three months.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0972_25773", "title": "Pulmonary vein thrombosis secondary to tuberculosis in a non-HIV infected patient.", "score": 0.01816545290892726, "content": "Our patient is a 67-year-old male with a past medical history significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia came to a hospital with hemoptysis. He was also having cough and shortness of breath for the last 1 month. He said that his hemoptysis was about 1 cup per day mixed with yellowish sputum. He noticed around 20 pounds of weight loss in the last 1 month. He also complained of night sweats but had no fever. He had no history of travel outside the USA. He has never been incarcerated before, but he endorsed that his son has been to Jail before and he visited him twice a year in patient's home. But he also said that his son has never been diagnosed with TB. He smoked 1.5 packs per day for the last 50 years and quit smoking 2 months ago. His medication include hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, gabapentin, aspirin and trazodone. On examination, vital signs were within the normal range except a hearty rate of 106 beats/minute. He had slightly pale conjunctiva, non-icteric sclera and had wet tongue and buccal mucosa. There was decreased air entry with crepitations in the right side of the posterior chest but no wheezes or rales. No peripheral lymphadenopathy, no peripheral edema or sign of fluid collection in the abdomen. Chest x ray showed multiple cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe area. CT scan of the chest with PE protocol showed pulmonary venous partial thrombosis in the right upper lobe. Multiple cavitary lesions with hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. There are also smaller nodular lesions in the left chest too. Small right pleural effusion with multiple calcified granulomata in the left upper lobe. QuantiFERON gold test was found to be positive. Sputum AFB smear was found to be strongly positive and it is sensitive to rifampin. Echocardiography showed no valvular lesions with preserved ejection fraction (&gt;65%) and normal right ventricular size and normal right ventricular systolic pressure. Liver enzymes and renal function tests were found within the normal limit. HIV test was negative. Patient was started with intensive phase anti-tuberculosis treatment with rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide with vitamin B6. He was also started with anticoagulation with heparin and warfarin considering the tuberculosis being the cause of the pulmonary vein thrombosis. Patient was also given supportive treatment and he made a gradual improvement and was discharged with anti-tuberculosis treatment and warfarin. Patient needed to be placed on a higher dose of warfarin as it was difficult to keep him therapeutic with lower doses. He was also advised to follow with infectious disease and anticoagulation clinic. Patient was found to have a significant increase in liver enzymes and bilirubin on follow up and the anti-TB medications were stopped to be restarted one by one with a follow up of his liver enzymes and liver function tests. He was also continued with warfarin." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79780", "title": "Tuberculosis management", "score": 0.016317169069462647, "content": "It is possible to test urine for isoniazid and rifampicin levels to check for compliance. The interpretation of urine analysis is based on the fact that isoniazid has a longer half-life than rifampicin: urine positive for isoniazid and rifampicin patient probably fully compliant urine positive for isoniazid only patient has taken his medication in the last few days preceding the clinic appointment, but had not yet taken a dose that day. urine positive for rifampicin only patient has omitted to take his medication the preceding few days, but did take it just before coming to clinic. urine negative for both isoniazid and rifampicin patient has not taken either medicine for a number of days" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0760_9675", "title": "[Branch retinal vein occlusion in a 20-year-old patient].", "score": 0.014661654135338344, "content": "A 20-year-old patient from India was referred because visual acuity of the left eye had deteriorated four weeks ago. A left branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) had been diagnosed in an external eye clinic. His best corrected visual acuity was 1,0 in the right eye but only 0.3 in the left. Intraocular pressure was normal. Fundoscopy of the left eye confirmed the finding of a left BRVO. Fluorescein angiography showed evidence of a retinal vasculitis resulting in an ischemic BRVO. Full blood count showed leucocytosis. Chest X-ray, thoracic CT and an Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) were suggestive of systemic tuberculosis (TB). Antituberculosis treatment with ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide was administered for 4 months followed by maintenace therapy of isoniazid and ethambutol for 6 months. 6 months after treatment visual acuity of the left eye had improved; the findings of lung TB had regressed. BRVO associated with ocular TB is a rare presentation of retinal vasculitis. This rare manifestation of a BRVO emphasizes the need of thorough systemic evaluation in young patients with BRVO." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_9762", "title": "Tuberculosis in the elderly.", "score": 0.014052540081128067, "content": "Although the cause of the steady increase in tuberculosis (TB) notifications in England and Wales since 1987 is multifactorial, the elderly have made an appreciable contribution. From 1987-1989 the increase was 6% for all ages combined, but 13% in females and 16% in males over the age of 75. Tuberculosis in the elderly therefore remains an appreciable problem. Although the characteristic presentation of chronic cough, malaise and weight loss, with cavitatory changes in the upper lobes still predominates in the elderly, there has been an increased incidence of cryptic miliary disease in which the onset is insidious and chest X-ray often normal. The diagnosis must often be made on suspicion and treatment started before a positive diagnosis is obtained. The elderly are more likely to suffer adverse effects from the anti-tuberculous chemotherapy than the younger population and greater care must be taken. Drug resistance is uncommon in the elderly in the UK. Isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide are appropriate for the initial two months of treatment. Rifampicin and isoniazid should be continued for a further four months for disease at virtually any site, with the exception of TB meningitis, when a further 10 months therapy should be given. In the UK, preventative therapy in the form of isoniazid or rifampicin and isoniazid probably has no place in disease control in an elderly population; tuberculin tests are frequently negative, even in the presence of active disease, as elderly patients are often anergic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_166551", "title": "Tuberculosis", "score": 0.013378052457039493, "content": "Latent TB Latent TB is treated with either isoniazid or rifampin alone, or a combination of isoniazid with either rifampicin or rifapentine. The treatment takes three to nine months depending on the medications used. People with latent infections are treated to prevent them from progressing to active TB disease later in life. Education or counselling may improve the latent tuberculosis treatment completion rates." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_166553", "title": "Tuberculosis", "score": 0.01331908831908832, "content": "The recommended treatment of new-onset pulmonary tuberculosis, , is six months of a combination of antibiotics containing rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the first two months, and only rifampicin and isoniazid for the last four months. Where resistance to isoniazid is high, ethambutol may be added for the last four months as an alternative. Treatment with anti-TB drugs for at least 6 months results in higher success rates when compared with treatment less than 6 months, even though the difference is small. Shorter treatment regimen may be recommended for those with compliance issues. There is also no evidence to support shorter anti-tuberculosis treatment regimens when compared to a 6-month treatment regimen. However recently, results from an international, randomized, controlled clinical trial indicate that a four-month daily treatment regimen containing high-dose, or “optimized,” rifapentine with moxifloxacin (2PHZM/2PHM) is as safe and effective as the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79748", "title": "Tuberculosis management", "score": 0.013168963955219052, "content": "Tuberculosis management refers to the medical treatment of the infectious disease tuberculosis (TB). The standard \"short\" course treatment for TB is isoniazid (along with pyridoxal phosphate to obviate peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid), rifampicin (also known as rifampin in the United States), pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for two months, then isoniazid and rifampicin alone for a further four months. The patient is considered to be free of living bacteria after six months. For latent tuberculosis, the standard treatment is six to nine months of daily isoniazid alone or three months of weekly (12 doses total) of isoniazid/rifapentine combination. If the organism is known to be fully sensitive, then treatment is with isoniazid, rifampicin, and pyrazinamide for two months, followed by isoniazid and rifampicin for four months. Ethambutol need not be used. Drugs" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_20371", "title": "[A cases of isoniazid-induced lupus].", "score": 0.012690763052208835, "content": "A case of isoniazid (INH)-induced lupus occurring in a 62-year-old man is presented. He visited our hospital in May 1986 and a cavitary lesion was found in the right upper lobe on a chest roentgenogram. He had no previous history of treatment with antituberculotic agents. Though acid-fast bacilli were not found in his sputum, pulmonary tuberculosis was strongly suspected and INH, rifampicin and ethanbutol were administered. Four days after starting the treatment, minimal left pleural effusion was seen on chest X-ray film. Three months later he began to complain polyarthralgia in his digital joints. In a pleural effusion many lymphocytes were found; and the antinuclear antibody (ANA), the anti-extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) antibody, and the RNase resistant anti-ENA antibody were positive, and their titres were 20x, 1000x and 1000x, respectively, and the immune complex (IC) was 16.0 micrograms/ml (LT5). In blood serum, the ANA test the anti-ENA antibody and the RNase resistant anti-ENA antibody were positive with titres 40x, 640x and 640x respectively; and the IC was 14.0 micrograms/ml, and the RA test was positive. The improvement of clinical findings and disappearance of auto-antibodies seen after stopping INH confirmed the diagnosis as INH-induced lupus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_38450", "title": "Latent tuberculosis", "score": 0.012684928340268145, "content": "There are several treatment regimens currently in use: 9H — isoniazid for 9 months is the gold standard (93% effective, in patients with positive test results and fibrotic pulmonary lesions compatible with tuberculosis). 6H — Isoniazid for 6 months might be adopted by a local TB program based on cost-effectiveness and patient compliance. This is the regimen currently recommended in the UK for routine use. The U.S. guidance excludes this regimen from use in children or persons with radiographic evidence of prior tuberculosis (old fibrotic lesions) (69% effective). 6 to 9H2 — An intermittent twice-weekly regimen for the above 2 treatment regimens is an alternative if administered under Directly observed therapy (DOT). 4R — rifampicin for 4-months is an alternative for those who are unable to take isoniazid or who have had known exposure to isoniazid-resistant TB. 3HR — Isoniazid and rifampin may be given daily for three months." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en050_39713", "title": "Miliary tuberculosis", "score": 0.012349414159194674, "content": "The tuberculin skin test, commonly used for detection of other forms of tuberculosis, is not useful in the detection of miliary tuberculosis. The tuberculin skin test fails due to the high numbers of false negatives. These false negatives may occur because of higher rates of tuberculin anergy compared to other forms of tuberculosis. A case of miliary tuberculosis in an 82-year-old woman: Treatment The standard treatment recommended by the WHO is with isoniazid and rifampicin for six months, as well as ethambutol and pyrazinamide for the first two months. If there is evidence of meningitis, then treatment is extended to twelve months. The U.S. guidelines recommend nine months' treatment. \"Common medication side effects a patient may have such as inflammation of the liver if a patient is taking pyrazinamide, rifampin, and isoniazid. A patient may also have drug resistance to medication, relapse, respiratory failure, and acute respiratory distress syndrome.\"" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13586", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011861605714894977, "content": "The earliest recorded human case of TB dates back 9000 years. Early treatment modalities, such as bloodletting, were replaced by sanatorium regimens in the late nineteenth century. The discovery of streptomycin in 1943 launched the era of antibiotic treatment for TB. Over subsequent decades, the discovery of additional agents and the use of multiple-drug regimens allowed progressive shortening of the treatment course from years to as little as 6 months with the regimen for drug-susceptible TB. Latent TB infection (LTBI) and active TB disease are diagnosed by history, physical examination, radiographic imaging, tuberculin skin test, interferon γ release assays, acid-fast staining, mycobacterial cultures, and/or new molecular diagnostics. LTBI is treated with isoniazid (optimally given daily or twice weekly for 9 months), rifampin (daily for 4 months), or isoniazid plus rifapentine (weekly for 3 months) (Table 205e-1)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13587", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01177257525083612, "content": "For active or suspected TB disease, clinical factors, including HIV co-infection, symptom duration, radiographic appearance, and public health concerns about TB transmission, drive diagnostic testing and treatment initiation. Multiple-drug regimens are used for the treatment of TB disease (Table 205e-2). Initially, an intensive phase consisting of four drugs—isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol—given for 2 months is followed by a continuation phase of isoniazid and rifampin for 4 months, for a total treatment duration of 6 months. The continuation phase is extended to 7 months (for a total treatment duration of 9 months) if the 2-month course of pyrazinamide is not completed or, for patients with cavitary pulmonary TB, if sputum cultures remain positive beyond 2 months of treatment (delayed culture conversion)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_18292", "title": "Tuberculous meningitis", "score": 0.011408997734383428, "content": "Treatment The treatment of TB meningitis is isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for two months, followed by isoniazid and rifampicin alone for a further ten months. Steroids help reduce the risk of death in those without HIV. Steroids can be used in the first six weeks of treatment, A few people may require immunomodulatory agents such as thalidomide. Hydrocephalus occurs as a complication in about a third of people with TB meningitis. The addition of aspirin may reduce or delay mortality, possibly by reducing complications such as infarcts. References External links Tuberculosis Meningitis" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13600", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011151229337066786, "content": "is inexpensive. In this setting, the drug is taken daily or intermittently (i.e., twice weekly) as DOT for 9 months. The 9-month course is more efficacious than the 6-month course (75–90% vs ≤65%), but extension of treatment to 12 months is not likely to provide further protection. A 6-month course of daily or intermittent isoniazid is considered second-line, but acceptable, therapy. A recent large open-label, multicenter, randomized, controlled trial showed that weekly DOT with isoniazid and rifapentine, administered over 3 months, was not inferior to daily isoniazid given for 9 months and had a higher treatment completion rate than the single-drug regimen." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13416", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011083743842364532, "content": "As stated above, treatment failure should be suspected when a patient’s sputum smears and/or cultures remain positive after 3 months of treatment. In the management of such patients, it is imperative that the current isolate be urgently tested for susceptibility to firstand second-line agents. Initial molecular testing for rifampin resistance should be done if the technology is available. When the results of susceptibility testing are based on molecular methods and are expected to become available within a few days, changes in the regimen can be postponed until that time. However, if the patient’s clinical condition is deteriorating, an earlier change in regimen may be indicated. A cardinal rule in the latter situation is always to add more than one drug at a time to a failing regimen: at least two and preferably three drugs that have never been used and to which the bacilli are likely to be susceptible should be added. The patient may continue to take isoniazid and rifampin along" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13397", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01050830889540567, "content": "should always receive their initial-phase regimen daily (see below). A continuation phase of once-weekly rifapentine and isoniazid has been shown to be equally effective for HIV-seronegative patients with noncavitary pulmonary TB who have negative sputum cultures at 2 months. Patients with cavitary pulmonary TB and delayed sputum-culture conversion (i.e., those who remain culture-positive at 2 months) should be tested immediately for drug-resistant TB, and a change of regimen should be considered. To prevent isoniazid-related neuropathy, pyridoxine (10–25 mg/d) should be added to the regimen given to persons at high risk of vitamin B6 deficiency (e.g., alcoholics; malnourished persons; pregnant and lactating women; and patients with conditions such as chronic renal failure, diabetes, and HIV infection, which are also associated with neuropathy). A full course of therapy (completion of treatment) is defined more accurately by the total number of doses taken than by the duration of" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0088_12575", "title": "[Short-term therapy of lung tuberculosis using a fixed combination of isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide. Results after 2 years].", "score": 0.010081053698074976, "content": "Treatment of tuberculosis should be as short and as simple as possible in order to improve patient compliance; and combinations of at least three drugs should be used in order to kill the different populations of mycobacteria and to avoid development of drug resistance.--In a controlled multicentre study two regimens were compared in 93 patients with newly-diagnosed pulmonary tuberculosis: 1) Six-month therapy (47 cases): Daily rifampicin and isoniazid, supplemented with pyrazinamide for the first 2 months. A tablet with a fixed combination of 120 mg rifampicin, 50 mg isoniazid and 300 mg pyrazinamide (Rifater) was used. 2) Present Swiss standard therapy (46 cases): Daily rifampicin, isoniazid and ethambutol for 2 months followed by rifampicin and isoniazid for 7 months.--The time-course of culture negativation and the frequency of adverse events were similar in the two groups. During a follow-up period of at least two years only one relapse was observed in the six-month regimen, 3 months after completion of treatment. This was one of three patients with pretreatment resistance to isoniazid. Nevertheless, two of them were cured with the six-month regimen containing Rifater.--Patient compliance, assessed during outpatient treatment by detecting isoniazid metabolites in the urine, was very good (93% of tests were positive in each group).--These results with a follow-up of more than 2 years, indicate that short-course therapy of 6 months duration with the fixed combination tablet may be recommended as treatment of choice in pulmonary tuberculosis except in cases of isoniazid resistance and other special situations (i.e. large cavitations, large number of viable bacilli)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79869", "title": "Tuberculosis management", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "There are several treatment regimens available: 9H—Isoniazid for 9 months is the gold standard and is 93% effective. 6H—Isoniazid for 6 months might be adopted by a local TB program based on cost-effectiveness and patient compliance. This is the regimen currently recommended in the UK for routine use. The US guidance exclude this regimen from use in children or persons with radiographic evidence of prior tuberculosis (old fibrotic lesions). (69% effective) 6 to 9H2—A twice-weekly regimen for the above two treatment regimens is an alternative if administered under Directly observed therapy (DOT). 4R—Rifampicin for 4 months is an alternative for those who are unable to take isoniazid or who have had known exposure to isoniazid-resistant TB. 3HR—Isoniazid and rifampicin may be given for 3 months. 2RZ—The 2-month regimen of rifampicin and pyrazinamide is no longer recommended for treatment of LTBI because of the greatly increased risk of drug-induced hepatitis and death." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_16208", "title": "[Pulmonary tuberculosis: effectiveness and tolerance of a 6-month treatment schedule using 4 drugs].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "255 patients diagnosed of pulmonary and/or pleural tuberculosis are prospectively studied. All patients received four drugs: isoniazine (INH), rifampin, pirazinamide and ethambutol during the first two months of treatment. Afterwards they continued for four months with two drugs in order to complete the six month treatment period. This schedule has been effective (0.7% of failures) in 99.3% of the patients. Two relapses were detected in the 229 patients who completed the two years follow up. 72 patients (28.2%) presented clinical secondary effects due to the treatment (40 cases of cutaneous affectation, 23 of gastrointestinal intolerance and 8 arthralgias respectively). Also, hyperuricemia was detected in 83% of the patients and a high transaminases level in 42.3%. In 13 patients treatment was cancelled or modified due to the secondary effects. In summary, this schedule of treatment has proved to be effective without an important frequency of serious secondary effects which can be objectively seen in the classical schedules of 9 months with 3 drugs (INH, RF, ET), nevertheless an increased frequency of minor secondary effects were detected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0836_21844", "title": "[Venous thromboembolism in patients with acute tuberculosis].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Studies have demonstrated a link between tuberculosis and hypercoagulable state, with reported rates of 0,6%-10% venous thromboembolism (VTE) in all adults with tuberculosis. The present study aimed to evaluate the current incidence and characteristics of VTE in a large sample of patients with acute tuberculosis. We report a retrospective study about 26 patients who have confirmed tuberculosis complicated with VTE disease. Sixteen men and ten women were brought together. The mean age was 42.58 years. The thromboembolic complication revealed tuberculosis among 5 patients, appearing during hospitalization of 21 patients among which 16 of them receiving antituberculosis drug. We have listed 10 cases of immediate pulmonary thromboembolism and 16 cases of deep vein thrombosis complicated with pulmonary embolism in 6 cases. Oral anticoagulation drug were associated with heparin after a mean of 4.57 days. Duration average of achievement of an effective dose was of 21.05 days and we prescribe low molecular weight heparin for 6 months on 2 cases. There was favorable evolution among 14 patients, 4 of them have lost sight and the evolution was fatal by cataclysmic haemoptysis in one case, a patient died hepatocellular insufficiency and 6 died by pulmonary embolism. Immunological and hematological abnormalities are incriminated in the genesis of VTE disease during tuberculosis by creating hypercoagulate state. The accumulation of morbidity of these two affections as well as the difficulty of therapeutic care made by medical interaction ifampicin-anticoagulants aggravate the prognostic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79807", "title": "Tuberculosis management", "score": 0.009646930167161382, "content": "documented) – 2 months of Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol and Streptomycin followed by 6 months of Isoniazid and Rifampin • One hepatotoxic drug – 2 months of Isoniazid, Ethambutol & Streptomycin followed by 10 months of Isoniazid and Ethambutol • No hepatotoxic drugs – 18–24 months of Streptomycin, Ethambutol and Quinolones Patients with liver disease should have their liver function tests monitored regularly throughout TB treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0225_3332", "title": "Controlled trial of 4 three-times-weekly regimens and a daily regimen all given for 6 months for pulmonary tuberculosis. Second report: the results up to 24 months. Hong Kong Chest Service/British Medical Research Council.", "score": 0.009623392245766632, "content": "Five 6-month antituberculosis regimens, allocated at random to patients with acid-fast bacilli in their sputum on microscopy, were studied. Four, given 3 times a week throughout, contained isoniazid and rifampicin together with 1. streptomycin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol, 2. streptomycin and pyrazinamide, but no ethambutol, 3. streptomycin and ethambutol, but no pyrazinamide, 4. pyrazinamide and ethambutol, but no streptomycin. The fifth was a daily regimen of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol. All 833 patients with drug-sensitive strains of tubercle bacilli pretreatment had a favourable bacteriological response during chemotherapy, and the bacteriological relapse rate during 18 months after stopping chemotherapy was 1% for the three-times-weekly regimens containing streptomycin and pyrazinamide in addition to isoniazid and rifampicin (regimens 1 and 2, above) and for the daily regimen, 2% for the regimen of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol three times a week (regimen 4), but 8% for the only regimen which did not contain pyrazinamide (regimen 3). The results achieved by the 4 pyrazinamide regimens were practically as good for the 110 patients with bacilli resistant to isoniazid, streptomycin, or both drugs pretreatment as they were for the patients with drug-sensitive strains." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0996_3638", "title": "Thromboembolism in <i>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</i> Infection: Analysis and Literature Review.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Tuberculosis is associated with hypercoagulation; however, there are few reports of cases thromboembolism and tuberculosis at the same time in the real world. The purpose of this study was to report the incidence and clinical course of thromboembolism in patients diagnosed with tuberculosis. We retrospectively analyzed the data of patients who were diagnosed with both tuberculosis and thromboembolism including pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE) or deep vein thrombosis (DVT) at Seoul National University Boramae Medical Center from January 2000 through March 2015. Among the 7905 tuberculosis patients, 49 (0.6%) exhibited PTE, DVT, or both at or after the time of tuberculosis diagnosis. All patients treated for tuberculosis started with isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampicin, and pyrazinamide. Eight patients were switched to treatment with second-line medication because of resistance or adverse events. About half of the patients (n = 21, 44.7%) had thrombosis at the time of tuberculosis diagnosis. Of 48 patients treated for thromboembolism, 36 received warfarin. A total of 20 patients improved symptom caused by thrombosis, and 10 patients were confirmed cure by image study such as computed tomography or doppler ultrasonography. Eight patients who were treated with warfarin had persistent thrombosis. Five patients (10.2%) experienced major bleeding that required hospitalization. All of these bleeding events were associated with warfarin therapy. Careful attention to PTE/DVT is needed at the time of diagnosis of tuberculosis and during anti-tuberculosis therapy. Warfarin therapy administered with anti-tuberculosis medication requires frequent monitoring to prevent major bleeding." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13447", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009598464245720684, "content": "It is estimated that about 2 billion people, or nearly one-third of the human population, have been infected with M. tuberculosis. Although only a small fraction of these infections will progress toward active disease, new active cases will continue to emerge from this pool of “latently” infected individuals. Unfortunately, there is no diagnostic test at present that can predict which individuals with LTBI will develop active TB. Treatment of selected persons with LTBI aims at preventing active disease. This intervention (also called preventive chemotherapy or chemoprophylaxis) is based on the results of a large number of randomized, placebo-controlled clinical trials demonstrating that a 6to 9-month course of isoniazid reduces the risk of active TB in infected people by up to 90%. Analysis of available data indicates that the optimal duration of treatment is ~9 months. In the absence of reinfection, the protective effect is believed to be lifelong. Clinical trials have shown that" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_111617", "title": "Isoniazid", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Isoniazid can be used alone or in combination with Rifampin for treatment of latent tuberculosis, or as part of a four-drug regimen for treatment of active tuberculosis. The drug regimen typically requires daily or weekly oral administration for a period of three to nine months, often under Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) supervision. Non-tuberculous mycobacteria Isoniazid was widely used in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex as part of a regimen including rifampicin and ethambutol. Evidence suggests that isoniazid prevents mycolic acid synthesis in M. avium complex as in M. tuberculosis and although this is not bactericidal to M. avium complex, it greatly potentiates the effect of rifampicin. The introduction of macrolides led to this use greatly decreasing. However, since rifampicin is broadly underdosed in M. avium complex treatment this effect may be worth re-investigating." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0317_14250", "title": "Should we take a history of prior treatment, and check sputum status at 2-3 months when treating patients for tuberculosis?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pinetown, South Africa (1975-1983). To determine the value of previous treatment history and sputum smear examination at 2-3 months in predicting treatment failure and relapse in tuberculosis patients treated with four drugs given twice weekly for six months under direct observation. Four cohort studies among 562 ambulant adults with culture positive pulmonary tuberculosis, designed to test the effectiveness of isoniazid 600-900 mg, rifampicin 600 mg, pyrazinamide 2-3 g, and streptomycin 1-2 g, given twice weekly. The same drug regimen was given to all patients irrespective of previous treatment history. Therapy was not changed if smears remained positive at 2-3 months. Positive predictive values of a history of previous treatment for a positive smear at 2-3 months (18.3%), treatment failure (5.2%), and relapse (9.4%) were poor. Although patients with positive smears at 2-3 months were more likely to fail therapy than patients with negative smears (relative risk=4.5, 95% Confidence Interval [CI]: 1.6-12.8), positive predictive value for treatment failure was only 12.5%. Although relapse was more frequent in patients with positive smears than those with negative smears (9.7% vs 6.2%; P=0.4), most patients who relapsed had been smear negative at 2-3 months (18/21). A four-drug rifampicin-containing regimen can safely be given twice weekly under direct observation to both new and retreatment cases, and the 2-3 month smear examination can safely be omitted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0076_7007", "title": "[The treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis in a special hospital. Its evolution from 1948 to 1986].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Nine hundred and sixty six patients diagnosed of pulmonary and/or pleural tuberculosis and admitted to a specialized hospital from 1948 to 1986, have been retrospectively analyzed, investigating their treatment and evolution. Sixty two percent of patients did not fulfil pharmaceutical treatment as far as number and dose of drugs, evolving through the decades (50, 60, 70, and 80s) with a 100%, 82%, 37% and 3% respectively. A 13% of patients did not receive any chemotherapy, 16% underwent surgery, and 53% received a second treatment. Real or hidden monotherapy was given to 38% of patients. Isoniazide has been the most uniformly used drug. Streptomycin has been the most frequently underdosed used drug. Sputum culture turned negative in 42% and 51% of patients during the first 3 and 6 months respectively, with a 42% of positives persisting after one year and a 30% when discharged. A statistically significant difference is observed when comparing all the variables between admitted patients up to 1969 and from 69 to 86 in favor of the second period." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0227_494", "title": "A controlled trial of individually-adapted short-course chemotherapy versus two-year scheme in original treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis. Report after a five-year follow-up.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Patients with culture-positive pulmonary tuberculosis were allocated at random into two groups for a three-phase regimen in original course chemotherapy. The first group was given rifampicin (RMP) plus isoniazid (INH) plus ethambutol until sensitivity tests were completed, then RMP plus INH until culture conversion, thereafter INH alone for four months. The second group received the same drugs until obtaining culture conversion, thereafter IHN alone for a period lasting two years after onset of chemotherapy. One hundred sixty-eight patients were available for the final assessment after a five-year follow-up after culture conversion. Two bacteriologic relapses occurred among the two-year scheme patients, none in the short-course patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79751", "title": "Tuberculosis management", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Drug regimens are similarly abbreviated in a semistandardised manner. The drugs are listed using their single letter abbreviations (in the order given above, which is roughly the order of introduction into clinical practice). A prefix denotes the number of months the treatment should be given for; a subscript denotes intermittent dosing (so 3 means three times a week) and no subscript means daily dosing. Most regimens have an initial high-intensity phase, followed by a continuation phase (also called a consolidation phase or eradication phase): the high-intensity phase is given first, then the continuation phase, the two phases divided by a slash. So, 2HREZ/4HR3 means isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide daily for two months, followed by four months of isoniazid and rifampicin given three times a week. In the US only, streptomycin is not considered a first line drug by ATS/IDSA/CDC because of high rates of resistance. The WHO have made no such recommendation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0827_10731", "title": "A rare complication of pulmonary tuberculosis: a case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Pulmonary tuberculosis remains an important public health problem globally and one of the most prevalent infectious diseases in Sri Lanka. It can cause a wide variety of complications but hematological manifestations are rare. According to our literature survey, this is the first reported case of the disease associated with deep vein thrombosis in Sri Lanka. A 37 year old Sri Lankan Sinhalese female presented with fever of one month's duration with productive cough and two weeks painless left lower limb swelling. Chest X-ray showed bilateral inflammatory shadows with a cavitatory lesion on the right apical region. A computed tomographic pulmonary angiography scan excluded pulmonary embolism. She had rising mycoplasma antibody titre (four fold). Acute deep vein thrombosis of the left lower limb was confirmed by venous duplex. Pulmonary tuberculosis was confirmed with positive culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. She was treated with clarythromycin, enoxaparin, warfarin and anti tuberculus drugs. It was difficult to maintain her International Normalizing Ratio in the therapeutic range due to drug interactions and poor compliance. At five months of presentation she died of massive pulmonary embolism. Our case emphasizes that patients with severe pulmonary tuberculosis are at risk of developing thromboembolism and superadded infections. It should be noted that even though starting anti tuberculosis drugs improved haemostatic disturbances, achieving the target International Normalizing Ratio was difficult due to drug interactions. Therefore these patients should be closely followed up to prevent complications and death from pulmonary embolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_3455", "title": "Tuberculosis in neonates and infants: epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, and management issues.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Tuberculosis is one of the leading infectious causes of death and as such represents a major global health problem. Infants may develop congenital tuberculosis from an infectious mother or, most commonly, they may acquire postnatal disease by contact with an infectious adult source. Important epidemiologic, pathogenetic, and clinical data regarding the management of infantile disease are reviewed. Diagnostic evaluation includes tuberculin skin tests, chest radiography and other imaging studies, smears and cultures, examination of the cerebrospinal fluid, and polymerase chain reaction, as well as the more recent interferon-gamma assay. Pregnant women with a positive Mantoux skin test but normal chest x-ray should either start chemoprophylaxis during gestation or after delivery depending on the likelihood of being recently infected, their risk of progression to disease, as well as their clinical evidence of disease. Pregnant women with a positive Mantoux skin test and chest x-ray or symptoms indicative of active disease should be treated with non-teratogenic agents during gestation; all household contacts should also be screened. When tuberculosis is suspected around delivery, the mother should be assessed by chest x-ray and sputum smear; separation of mother and offspring is indicated only if the mother is non-adherent to medical treatment, needs to be hospitalized, or when drug-resistant tuberculosis is involved. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, treatment of latent infection is highly effective with isoniazid administration for 9 months. This regimen may be extended to 12 months for immunocompromised patients. When drug resistance is suspected, combination therapies, which usually consist of isoniazid with rifampin (rifampicin), are administered until the results of susceptibility tests become available. Organisms resistant to isoniazid only may be treated with rifampin alone for a total of 6-9 months. All infants with tuberculosis disease should be started on four agents (isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol or streptomycin) until drug susceptibility is assessed. For susceptible intrathoracic tuberculosis, isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are administered for a total of 2 months, at which point pyrazinamide is withdrawn and the other two agents are continued for another 4-10 months depending on the severity of the disease. The same regimen may be applied in extrapulmonary tuberculosis with the exception of skeletal, miliary, and CNS disease, which require daily administration of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin for 1-2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin daily or twice weekly for another 10 months. When drug-resistant tuberculosis is suspected, a regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide plus either streptomycin or ethambutol should be initially prescribed, until the results of susceptibility tests become available. HIV-seropositive infants with pulmonary tuberculosis should receive isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol or an aminoglycoside for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin for a total of at least 12 months. Apart from conventional antimycobacterial agents, novel therapeutic modalities, which stimulate the host immune system such as interleukin-2 (IL-2), IL-12, interferon-gamma, and tumor necrosis factor antagonists have been tested with promising results." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en088_21826", "title": "Rifapentine", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Rifapentine was approved for medical use in the United States in 1998. It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines. In many areas of the world it is not easy to get . Medical uses A systematic review of regimens for prevention of active tuberculosis in HIV-negative individuals with latent TB found that a weekly, directly observed regimen of rifapentine with isoniazid for three months was as effective as a daily, self-administered regimen of isoniazid for nine months. The three-month rifapentine-isoniazid regimen had higher rates of treatment completion and lower rates of hepatotoxicity. However, the rate of treatment-limiting adverse events was higher in the rifapentine-isoniazid regimen compared to the nine-month isoniazid regimen. Pregnancy" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 295, 417 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 44, 60 ] ], "text": "Imaging techniques (arteriography, angioCT or angioMRI) are used when surgical repair of arterial occlusion is considered." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 123, 262 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 39 ] ], "text": "we can objectively assess the severity of the disease with the use of bloodless techniques. The most important is the ankle-brachial index." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Arteriography of lower extremities.", "2": "Ankle-brachial index.", "3": "Computerized axial tomography with vascular reconstruction of lower extremities.", "4": "Tape stress test.", "5": "Magnetic resonance imaging." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en071_59106", "title": "Peripheral vascular examination", "score": 0.014681970349115257, "content": "Special maneuvers Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) assesses peripheral vascular disease. It may however be unreliable in patients with calcified arteries in the calf (often diabetic patients) or those with extensive oedema, in which case toe pressure or Toe-brachial pressure index (TBPI) should be measured to aid in the diagnosis. Venous refill with dependency (should be less than 30 seconds) – the vein should bulge outward within 30 seconds of elevation for one minute. Buerger's test (assessment of arterial sufficiency):With the patient supine, note the colour of the feet soles. They should be pink. Then elevate both legs to 45 degrees for more than 1 minute. Observe the soles. If there is marked pallor (whiteness), ischemia should be suspected. Next check for rubor of dependency. Sit the patient upright and observe the feet. In normal patients, the feet quickly turn pink. If, more slowly, they turn red like a cooked lobster, suspect ischemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0545_13444", "title": "Peripheral vascular disease: diagnosis and treatment.", "score": 0.01422882672882673, "content": "Peripheral vascular disease is a manifestation of systemic atherosclerosis that leads to significant narrowing of arteries distal to the arch of the aorta. The most common symptom of peripheral vascular disease is intermittent claudication. At other times, peripheral vascular disease leads to acute or critical limb ischemia. Intermittent claudication manifests as pain in the muscles of the legs with exercise; it is experienced by 2 percent of persons older than 65 years. Physical findings include abnormal pedal pulses, femoral artery bruit, delayed venous filling time, cool skin, and abnormal skin color. Most patients present with subtle findings and lack classic symptoms, which makes the diagnosis difficult. The standard office-based test to determine the presence of peripheral vascular disease is calculation of the ankle-brachial index. Magnetic resonance arteriography, duplex scanning, and hemodynamic localization are noninvasive methods for lesion localization and may be helpful when symptoms or findings do not correlate with the ankle-brachial index. Contrast arteriography is used for definitive localization before intervention. Treatment is divided into lifestyle, medical, and surgical therapies. Lifestyle therapies focus on exercise, smoking cessation, and dietary modification. Medical therapy is directed at reducing platelet aggregation. In addition, patients with contributing disorders such as hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia need to have these conditions managed as aggressively as possible. Surgical therapies include stents, arterectomies, angioplasty, and bypass surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0947_12433", "title": "Noninvasive Diagnostic Methods for Better Screening of Peripheral Arterial Disease.", "score": 0.013487726602480701, "content": "Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a common circulatory problem in which narrowed arteries reduce blood flow to extremities, usually legs. It does not receive enough blood flow to keep up with demand. This causes symptoms, most notably leg pain while walking which is known as claudication. It is a common manifestation of type-2 Diabetes, but the relationship between other vascular diseases and lower limb peripheral arterial disease (LLPAD) has been poorly understood and investigated. When assessing a patient with clinical LLPAD, 2 methods are used to establish a diagnosis: one is noninvasive testing and other is invasive. Invasive methods are painful and get so bad that some people need to have a leg surgery. People with diabetes are at increased risk for amputation, and it is used only when the damage is very severe. Diagnosis of LLPAD begins with a physical examination, patient history, and certain questionnaire, and noninvasive mode of diagnosis is started for the screening of patients. Clinicians check for weak pulses in the legs and then decide for further diagnosis. This article discusses the prevalence of LLPAD worldwide and in India, along with the clinical effectiveness and limitations of these methods in case of diabetes. The focus of this review is to discuss only those noninvasive methods that are widely used for screening of LLPAD, such as ankle-brachial index (ABI), toe-brachial index (TBI), and use of photoplethysmogram (PPG) especially in case of diabetic patients. Also, this article gives an overview of the work carried out using ABI, TBI, and PPG for detection of LLPAD. These tests are not painful and could be performed in a cost-effective manner to avoid delays in screening/diagnosis and also reduce costs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_27362", "title": "Intermittent claudication", "score": 0.012707880831199145, "content": "Intermittent claudication, also known as vascular claudication, is a symptom that describes muscle pain on mild exertion (ache, cramp, numbness or sense of fatigue), classically in the calf muscle, which occurs during exercise, such as walking, and is relieved by a short period of rest. It is classically associated with early-stage peripheral artery disease, and can progress to critical limb ischemia unless treated or risk factors are modified. Claudication derives from the Latin verb claudicare, \"to limp\". Signs and symptoms One of the hallmarks of arterial claudication is that it occurs intermittently. It disappears after a very brief rest and the patient can start walking again until the pain recurs. The following signs are general signs of atherosclerosis of the lower extremity arteries: cyanosis atrophic changes like loss of hair, shiny skin decreased temperature decreased pulse redness when limb is returned to a \"dependent\" position (part of Buerger's test)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_27363", "title": "Intermittent claudication", "score": 0.012702749840125573, "content": "The six \"P\"s of ischemia Pain Pallor (increased) Pulse (decreased) Perishing cold Paraesthesia Paralysis Causes Most commonly, intermittent (or vascular or arterial) claudication is due to peripheral arterial disease which implies significant atherosclerotic blockages resulting in arterial insufficiency. Other uncommon causes are coarctation of the aorta, Trousseau disease and Beurger's disease (Thromboangiitis obliterans), in which vasculitis occurs. Raynaud's phenomenon functional vasospasm. It is distinct from neurogenic claudication, which is associated with lumbar spinal stenosis. It is strongly associated with smoking, hypertension, and diabetes. Diagnosis Intermittent claudication is a symptom and is by definition diagnosed by a patient reporting a history of leg pain with walking relieved by rest. However, as other conditions such as sciatica can mimic intermittent claudication, testing is often performed to confirm the diagnosis of peripheral artery disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0338_14836", "title": "Leg symptoms, the ankle-brachial index, and walking ability in patients with peripheral arterial disease.", "score": 0.012152777777777776, "content": "To determine how functional status and walking ability are related to both severity of lower extremity peripheral arterial disease (PAD) and PAD-related leg symptoms. Cross-sectional study. Academic medical center. Patients aged 55 years and older diagnosed with PAD in a blood flow laboratory or general medicine practice (n = 147). Randomly selected control patients without PAD were identified in a general medicine practice (n = 67). Severity of PAD was measured with the ankle-brachial index (ABI). All patients were categorized according to whether they had (1) no exertional leg symptoms; (2) classic intermittent claudication; (3) exertional leg symptoms that also begin at rest (pain at rest), or (4) exertional leg symptoms other than intermittent claudication or pain at rest (atypical exertional leg symptoms). Participants completed the 36-Item Short-Form Health Survey (SF-36) and the Walking Impairment Questionnaire (WIQ). The WIQ quantifies patient-reported walking speed, walking distance, and stair-climbing ability, respectively, on a scale of 0 to 100 (100 = best). In multivariate analyses patients with atypical exertional leg symptoms, intermittent claudication, and pain at rest, respectively, had progressively poorer scores for walking distance, walking speed, and stair climbing. The ABI was measurably and independently associated with walking distance (regression coefficient = 2.87/0.1 ABI unit, p =.002) and walking speed (regression coefficient = 2.09/0.1 ABI unit, p =.015) scores. Among PAD patients only, pain at rest was associated independently with all WIQ scores and six SF-36 domains, while ABI was an independent predictor of WIQ distance score. Both PAD-related leg symptoms and ABI predict patient-perceived walking ability in PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0744_4107", "title": "Early diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease can save limbs.", "score": 0.011497584541062802, "content": "Prompt identification and management of patients with peripheral arterial disease can improve quality of life, save limbs and reduce cardiovascular events. The most common initial symptom is leg pain on exertion or intermittent claudication. More severe or critical limb ischaemia can present with pain at rest, ulceration, tissue loss and/or gangrene, In most patients the symptoms remain stable, but approximately 20% will develop limb threatening critical ischaemia. The incidence of peripheral arterial disease increases with age and up to 20% of people aged over 60 are affected to some degree. The incidence is also high in smokers, diabetes patients, and those with coronary disease. A focused history should identify the presence and severity of intermittent claudication and any critical limb ischaemia. Examination should concentrate on the palpation of lower limb arterial pulses and look for signs of critical ischaemia such as ulceration. The key primary care investigation in suspected peripheral arterial disease is measurement of the ankle brachial pressure index. Lifestyle interventions are a key component of management. NICE recommends that a supervised exercise programme is offered to all patients with intermittent claudication. Pharmacological therapy should always include an antiplatelet agent and statin. Vasoactive drugs such as naftidrofuryl oxalate should be considered for symptom control in intermittent claudication when exercise has not led to a satisfactory improvement and the patient prefers not to be referred for revascularisation. Patients with severe and inadequately controlled symptoms should be referred to secondary care with a view to further imaging to assess the appropriateness of revascularisation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en460_13669", "title": "Chronic limb threatening ischemia", "score": 0.010282837967401726, "content": "Signs and symptoms Critical limb ischemia includes rest pain and tissue loss. Rest pain Rest pain is a continuous burning pain of the lower leg or feet. It begins, or is aggravated, after reclining or elevating the limb and is relieved by sitting or standing. It is more severe than intermittent claudication, which is also a pain in the legs from arterial insufficiency. Tissue loss Tissue loss is the development of arterial insufficiency ulcers or gangrene due to peripheral artery disease. Diagnosis Critical limb ischemia is diagnosed by the presence of ischemic rest pain, and an ulcers that will not heal or gangrene due to insufficient blood flow. Insufficient blood flow may be confirmed by ankle-brachial index (ABI), ankle pressure, toe-brachial index (TBI), toe systolic pressure, transcutaneous oxygen measurement (TcPo2 ), or skin perfusion pressure (SPP)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0881_1002", "title": "Ankle brachial index for the diagnosis of lower limb peripheral arterial disease.", "score": 0.010101267760120398, "content": "Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) of the lower limb is common, with prevalence of both symptomatic and asymptomatic disease estimated at 13% in the over 50 age group. Symptomatic PAD affects about 5% of individuals in Western populations between the ages of 55 and 74 years. The most common initial symptom of PAD is muscle pain on exercise that is relieved by rest and is attributed to reduced lower limb blood flow due to atherosclerotic disease (intermittent claudication). The ankle brachial index (ABI) is widely used by a variety of healthcare professionals, including specialist nurses, physicians, surgeons and podiatrists working in primary and secondary care settings, to assess signs and symptoms of PAD. As the ABI test is non-invasive and inexpensive and is in widespread clinical use, a systematic review of its diagnostic accuracy in people presenting with leg pain suggestive of PAD is highly relevant to routine clinical practice. To estimate the diagnostic accuracy of the ankle brachial index (ABI) - also known as the ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) - for the diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease in people who experience leg pain on walking that is alleviated by rest. We carried out searches of the following databases in August 2013: MEDLINE (Ovid SP),Embase (Ovid SP), the Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL) (EBSCO), Latin American and Caribbean Health Sciences (LILACS) (Bireme), Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects and the Health Technology Assessment Database in The Cochrane Library, the Institute for Scientific Information (ISI) Conference Proceedings Citation Index - Science, the British Library Zetoc Conference search and Medion. We included cross-sectional studies of ABI in which duplex ultrasonography or angiography was used as the reference standard. We also included cross-sectional or diagnostic test accuracy (DTA) cohort studies consisting of both prospective and retrospective studies.Participants were adults presenting with leg pain on walking that was relieved by rest, who were tested in primary care settings or secondary care settings (hospital outpatients only) and who did not have signs or symptoms of critical limb ischaemia (rest pain, ischaemic ulcers or gangrene).The index test was ABI, also called the ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) or the Ankle Arm Index (AAI), which was performed with a hand-held doppler or oscillometry device to detect ankle vessels. We included data collected via sphygmomanometers (both manual and aneroid) and digital equipment. Two review authors independently replicated data extraction by using a standard form, which included an assessment of study quality, and resolved disagreements by discussion. Two review authors extracted participant-level data when available to populate 2×2 contingency tables (true positives, true negatives, false positives and false negatives).After a pilot phase involving two review authors working independently, we used the methodological quality assessment tool the Quality Assessment of Diagnostic Accuracy Studies-2 (QUADAS-2), which incorporated our review question - along with a flow diagram to aid reviewers' understanding of the conduct of the study when necessary and an assessment of risk of bias and applicability judgements. We screened 17,055 records identified through searches of databases. We obtained 746 full-text articles and assessed them for relevance. We scrutinised 49 studies to establish their eligibility for inclusion in the review and excluded 48, primarily because participants were not patients presenting solely with exertional leg pain, investigators used no reference standard or investigators used neither angiography nor duplex ultrasonography as the reference standard. We excluded most studies for more than one reason.Only one study met the eligibility criteria and provided limb-level accuracy data from just 85 participants (158 legs). This prospective study compared the manual doppler method of obtaining an ABI (performed by untrained personnel) with the automated oscillometric method. Limb-level data, as reported by the study, indicated that the accuracy of the ABI in detecting significant arterial disease on angiography is superior when stenosis is present in the femoropopliteal vessels, with sensitivity of 97% (95% confidence interval (CI) 93% to 99%) and specificity of 89% (95% CI 67% to 95%) for oscillometric ABI, and sensitivity of 95% (95% CI 89% to 97%) and specificity of 56% (95% CI 33% to 70%) for doppler ABI. The ABI threshold was not reported. Investigators attributed the lower specificity for doppler to the fact that a tibial or dorsalis pedis pulse could not be detected by doppler in 12 of 27 legs with normal vessels or non-significant lesions. The superiority of the oscillometric (automated) method for obtaining an ABI reading over the manual method with a doppler probe used by inexperienced operators may be a clinically important finding. Evidence about the accuracy of the ankle brachial index for the diagnosis of PAD in people with leg pain on exercise that is alleviated by rest is sparse. The single study included in our review provided only limb-level data from a few participants. Well-designed cross-sectional studies are required to evaluate the accuracy of ABI in patients presenting with early symptoms of peripheral arterial disease in all healthcare settings. Another systematic review of existing studies assessing the use of ABI in alternative patient groups, including asymptomatic, high-risk patients, is required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1146_5621", "title": "Seropositive Neuromyelitis Optica in a Case of Undiagnosed Ankylosing Spondylitis: A Neuro-Rheumatological Conundrum.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD) is an autoimmune astrocytopathy against foot processes of aquaporin-4 (AQP4) water channels. Patients with NMOSD tend to have other coexisting autoimmune/connective tissue diseases. However, AQP-4-antibody-positive NMOSD coexisting with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is rare. AS is an immune-mediated disorder, a subset of axial spondyloarthropathies, which commonly manifests as chronic inflammatory back pain in young people, and it has a strong association with HLA-B27. In this study, a 35-year-old Indian man with an undiagnosed progressive axial spondyloarthropathy (i.e., AS) is reported presenting with acute-onset longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis, a clinical subset of NMOSD. Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD), a primary demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system (CNS), is an autoimmune astrocytopathy against foot processes of aquaporin-4 (AQP4) water channels, which manifests with optic neuritis, longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis (LETM), area-postrema syndrome, brainstem syndrome diencephalic syndrome, and cerebral syndrome.<sup1-4</sup Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is an immune-mediated disorder, a subset of axial spondyloarthropathies, which commonly manifests as chronic inflammatory back pain in young people, and it has a strong association with HLA-B27.<sup5,6</sup AS characteristically targets the axial skeleton, peripheral joints, entheses (connective tissues between tendons/ligaments and bones), and gut.<sup5,6</sup Patients with NMOSD tend to have other coexisting autoimmune/connective tissue diseases.<sup7</sup For example, cases with NMOSD and multiple sclerosis, which are other autoimmune primary demyelinating disorders of the CNS, have been reported.<sup8,9</sup However, concurrent existence of AS and NMOSD in the same patient even over years of disease course is rare.<sup10,11</sup In addition, studies describing neurological manifestations of AS are limited,<sup12</sup and they focus on joint inflammation and long-standing bony pathology (ankylosis) related to compressive myelopathy, myelo-radiculopathy, and cauda equina syndromes.<sup12,13</sup The authors present a case of a young Indian man with an undiagnosed progressive AS (misdiagnosed and mismanaged by an indigenous medical practitioner) presenting with acute-onset LETM variant of AQP4-positive NMOSD. A 35-year-old healthy, non-comorbid man from rural India came to the outpatient department with complaints of persistent tingling, numbness, and weakness of both lower limbs (right more than left) for 10 days. The clinical picture showed acute-onset urinary retention, which was relieved by urinary catheterization. An indigenous medical practitioner had prescribed drugs to treat a urinary tract infection. His weakness gradually progressed over the following week, causing him to become bedridden. During the removal of the catheter, he felt urgency, increased frequency of micturition, and overt urinary incontinence. He gave no history suggestive of any girdle-like sensations, root/radicular/tract pain, vertebral pain, trauma, recent vaccination, and diarrheal or febrile illness. For the last 8 months, he had a complaint of an insidious-onset, persistent, bilateral, dull aching pain in the gluteal region accompanied by low-back pain and morning stiffness up to 1 h, which markedly improved with activity and reoccurred following long periods of inactivity. He sometimes had to rise in the middle of the night because of excruciating pain, which could be relieved after moving around the room and corridors for half an hour. He was taking over-the-counter diclofenac tablets for pain relief prescribed by some indigenous medical practitioners who told him that it was due to overwork in agricultural fields, that is, mechanical back pain. He also had a normal X-ray of the lumbosacral spine. He had no addiction liabilities, and none of the family members had ever suffered from a similar kind of illness. He had never consulted any trained medical practitioner, as his previous back-pain-related symptoms responded well to the tablets prescribed by the indigenous medical practitioner(s). During examination, he was found to have recent-onset, asymmetric spastic paraparesis (right more than left) with upper motor neuron-type urinary bladder symptoms. Cognitive assessment (assessed by the Montreal cognitive assessment test) was normal, and posterior column sensations were preserved. Sensory system examination revealed no definite sensory level. Except for the paretic lower limbs, cerebellar functions were normal in other regions. Neuro-ophthalmological examinations were also normal, and no signs of meningeal irritation were observed. The history and course of the disease and clinical examinations were analyzed. Selective tractopathy (early and predominant motor and autonomic tract affection) was suggested for an intramedullary demyelinating pathology affecting the anterior central cord. This case was initially classified as acute-onset non-compressive myelopathy at the lower cervical/upper dorsal region level in a patient with a pre-existing axial spondyloarthropathy. Complete blood cell count; liver, kidney, and thyroid function tests; and plasma glucose and electrolytes were normal, except for an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (66 mm in the first hour). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spinal cord revealed a demyelinating LETM from C5 to D4 level (Figure 1). Meanwhile, an MRI of the sacroiliac joints revealed bilateral sacroiliitis. Brain and orbital MRIs were devoid of any lesions. Anti-aquaporin 4 (AQP-4) antibodies were tested by cell-based assay in serum and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and both were positive. CSF further revealed lymphocytic pleocytosis and increased intrathecal protein production. Visually evoked potential recordings were also normal. In addition, anti-myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibodies were negative. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), ANA-profile, autoimmune vasculitis profile (c-ANCA, p-ANCA), neurovirus panel (i.e., polymerase chain reaction for adenovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2, human herpesviruses 6 and 7, cytomegalovirus, enteroviruses, varicella-zoster virus, Japanese encephalitis, and dengue virus), CSF-polymerase chain reaction for <iMycobacterium tuberculosis</i, angiotensin-converting enzyme, anti-phospholipid, and anti-thyroid antibodies were negative. Anti-CCP-antibody and rheumatoid factor were also negative, including creatine phosphokinase level and serum vitamin B12. Moreover, serologies for hepatitis B, C, human immunodeficiency virus, and scrub typhus were negative. However, HLA-B27 assay was positive. The final diagnosis was AQP4-positive NMOSD associated with AS. He was placed on pulse intravenous methylprednisolone (1 g/day for 5 days). Consequently, his lower limb power improved remarkably. Cyclical rituximab therapy was initiated to prevent relapses. At 3-month follow-up, he had no residual neurological deficit except for persistence of paresthesias. Neuroimaging and visually evoked potential studies revealed no active or new lesions. After 6 months of therapy, a subjective and objective improvement was observed in disease severity based on the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score. Our patient satisfied the new Assessment of SpondyloArthritis International Society diagnostic/classification criteria for AS and the Wingerchuk criteria for NMOSD,<sup4,14</sup an association that has been rarely reported.<sup10,11</sup Amid the extra-articular complications of long-standing AS, neurological manifestations are considered infrequent.<sup15</sup However, subclinical neurological complications may be frequent in AS.<sup12</sup Common neurological manifestations result from bony (vertebral) ankylosis, subluxation of joints, ossification of anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments, secondary spinal canal stenosis, bony (vertebral) fractures, and subsequent compressions over nerve radicles/roots/cauda equina, and inflammation-related (entrapment) peripheral neuropathies.<sup12,16,17</sup Acute transverse myelitis can occur as a subset of several primary demyelinating disorders of the CNS (i.e., multiple sclerosis, NMOSD, myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibody disease, and acute disseminated encephalomyelitis) and various systemic autoimmune connective tissue disorders (i.e., systemic lupus erythematosus, mixed connective tissue disease, Sjögren syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, and neurosarcoidosis).<sup18</sup Acute transverse myelitis (short or long segment) is an infrequent extra-articular complication of AS.<sup18</sup It has been reported to evolve either as a distinct neurological complication of AS, or it may develop secondary to TNF-alpha-inhibitor therapy for the treatment of AS.<sup18,19</sup AS is a heritable inflammatory spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton, which is mediated by T-cells; B-cells only play a minor role.<sup5</sup On the contrary, the key for the pathogenesis of NMOSD is the production of autoantibodies against AQP-4 channels expressed on astrocytes, leading to complement-mediated damage, with ensuing demyelination. Myelitis usually shows high signal intensity on the tbl2-weighted image and contrast enhancement in the spinal cord.<sup1-4</sup Despite the difference in molecular mechanisms, the diagnosis of these diseases in the same individual may not be coincidental. Recent evidence has shown T-cell-mediated inflammatory responses in cases of NMOSD.<sup20</sup In particular, Th17 and Th2-related cytokines are elevated in the CSF of NMO patients.<sup20</sup Environmental factors such as <iEscherichia coli</i have also been proven to aggravate autoimmunity in AS and NMOSD (however, body fluid cultures for <iEscherichia coli</i, performed in our patient, showed similar association, and they were found negative two times).<sup21,22</sup Although large-scale epidemiological studies investigating the underlying pathogenesis related to these diseases are lacking, studies have demonstrated an increased incidence of optic neuritis among patients with AS.<sup23</sup Systemic sclerosis and mixed and undifferentiated connective tissue diseases were excluded after expert opinions (from two board-certified rheumatologists and two dermatologists) because of the lack of suggestive clinical findings (e.g., absence of skin thickening, salt-and-pepper appearance, nail changes, Mauskopf facies, sclerodactyly, calcinosis cutis, Raynaud's phenomenon, other cutaneous manifestations, pulmonary arterial hypertension/interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, muscular pain/weakness renal impairments, absence of ANA, anti-centromere antibodies, anti-Scl-70, PM-Scl antibodies, anti-ds DNA, PCNA, CENP-B, anti-nucleosomes, anti-Smith, anti-U1-RNP, anti-Jo1, anti-Mi2, anti-Ro52, anti-La antibodies, and normal C3 and C4 complement levels) (The European League Against Rheumatism and the American College of Rheumatology classification criteria 2019).<sup24</sup Finally, our patient was treated with intravenous steroids followed by rituximab infusions, a monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody directed against B-cells. In particular, this patient clinically and radiologically responded to immunomodulatory drugs, which might support a possible common pathogenic basis of the two processes. TNF-alpha inhibitors are commonly used as novel therapeutics in AS; however, they can potentially result in serious complications, that is, secondary demyelinating disorders.<sup25</sup However, such inhibitors in this patient were not used. When used in cases of AS, they show satisfactory results.<sup25,26</sup Therefore, it was decided to treat him with rituximab only without adding any second immunomodulatory. Other possible therapeutic options include cyclophosphamide and mycophenolate mofetil, but they were not used because of their low efficacy-safety balance. Moreover, plasmapheresis was not available in our specific setting, despite solid evidence that early treatment with therapeutic strategy (5-7 courses) provides good long-term outcomes in patients with NMOSD.<sup27</sup Therefore, when dealing with a case of acute non-compressive myelopathy, history and clinical examination are important to determine the potential underlying etiology and identify an undermined systemic disorder with apparently unrelated non-specific features. Connective tissue disorders should always be considered as a differential diagnosis and be ruled out in all cases of either seropositive or seronegative NMOSD. A diagnosis of AS should be considered in relevant circumstances when dealing with a case of isolated seronegative LETM. Moreover, early diagnosis and treatment of AS are quintessential to prevent lifelong distressing disabilities. However, whether patients with AS have any extra predilection to develop NMOSD throughout their life requires further studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0971_19514", "title": "[Contribution of the maximal exercise test to diagnosis the vascular origin of leg pain in athletes].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Leg pain is a common debilitating symptom in athletes. Vascular disease is not often proposed as a possible cause. Maximal exercise with measure of the ankle-brachial index after exercise can be an interesting diagnostic test. We report an illustrative case where an athlete presented leg pain revealing arterial disease disclosed by exercise. Interestingly, sub-maximal exercise did not cause pain, causing a delay in diagnosis. The vascular origin of leg pain can be detected with a maximal exercise test that induces the symptomatic pain or at least clinical discomfort." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0317_3297", "title": "The correlation between symptoms and non-invasive test results in patients referred for peripheral arterial disease testing.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The WHO/Rose questionnaire has served as the epidemiologic and clinical standard in the assessment of leg pain in patients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) for over three decades. However, the structure of this questionnaire does not allow assessment of leg-specific (i.e. right versus left) symptoms. We studied 508 patients aged 39-95 years (mean 68 years), initially referred for PAD non-invasive testing. A revised questionnaire, the San Diego Claudication Questionnaire, was administered which allowed determination of leg-specific symptoms and evaluated thigh and buttock as well as calf pain. Leg-specific symptoms were categorized into no pain, pain at rest, non-calf claudication, non-Rose calf claudication, and Rose claudication. At the same visit, the ankle brachial index, the toe brachial index, and peak posterior tibial flow velocity were measured by Doppler ultrasound and five categories of non-invasive results by type and severity of PAD were defined. Legs with previous intervention (Rx), surgery or angioplasty, were evaluated separately. Claudication was reported in 42% of no Rx legs and 50% of Rx legs; 40% of claudication was atypical (not Rose); 64% of no Rx and 81% of Rx legs had PAD by non-invasive testing, and 27% of affected legs had severe PAD. The correlation between the severity of symptoms and the severity of ipsilateral PAD in no Rx legs was r = -0.40, p &lt; 0.001. In Rx legs, this correlation was somewhat less (r = 0.27, p &lt; 0.001) due to more symptomatology at lesser degrees of PAD, suggesting reporting bias and/or more residual disease than evident from non-invasive testing. To our knowledge, these results provide the first comparison between a standardized assessment of leg pain and the severity of ipsilateral PAD by non-invasive testing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0535_11111", "title": "Does the clinical examination predict lower extremity peripheral arterial disease?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Lower extremity peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is common and associated with significant increases in morbidity and mortality. Physicians typically depend on the clinical examination to identify patients who need further diagnostic testing. To systematically review the accuracy and precision of the clinical examination for PAD. MEDLINE (January 1966 to March 2005) and Cochrane databases were searched for articles on the diagnosis of PAD based on physical examination published in the English language. Included studies compared an element of the history or physical examination with a reference standard of ankle-brachial index, duplex sonography, or angiogram. Seventeen of the 51 potential articles identified met inclusion criteria. Two of the authors independently extracted data, performed quality review, and used consensus to resolve any discrepancies. For asymptomatic patients, the most useful clinical findings to diagnose PAD are the presence of claudication (likelihood ratio [LR], 3.30; 95% confidence interval [CI], 2.30-4.80), femoral bruit (LR, 4.80; 95% CI, 2.40-9.50), or any pulse abnormality (LR, 3.10; 95% CI, 1.40-6.60). While none of the clinical examination features help to lower the likelihood of any degree of PAD, the absence of claudication or the presence of normal pulses decreases the likelihood of moderate to severe disease. When considering patients who are symptomatic with leg complaints, the most useful clinical findings are the presence of cool skin (LR, 5.90; 95% CI, 4.10-8.60), the presence of at least 1 bruit (LR, 5.60; 95% CI, 4.70-6.70), or any palpable pulse abnormality (LR, 4.70; 95% CI, 2.20-9.90). The absence of any bruits (iliac, femoral, or popliteal) (LR, 0.39; 95% CI, 0.34-0.45) or pulse abnormality (LR, 0.38; 95% CI, 0.23-0.64) reduces the likelihood of PAD. Combinations of physical examination findings do not increase the likelihood of PAD beyond that of individual clinical findings. However, when combinations of clinical findings are all normal, the likelihood of disease is lower than when individual symptoms or signs are normal. A PAD scoring system, which includes auscultation of arterial components by handheld Doppler, provides greater diagnostic accuracy. Clinical examination findings must be used in the context of the pretest probability because they are not independently sufficient to include or exclude a diagnosis of PAD with certainty. The PAD screening score using the hand-held Doppler has the greatest diagnostic accuracy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0550_19854", "title": "Successful management of critical limb ischemia with intravenous sodium thiosulfate in a chronic hemodialysis patient.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Vascular calcification is common among hemodialysis (HD) patients and contributes to the development of peripheral arterial disease. A 57-year-old Japanese man who had been on HD for 30 years was referred to us for severe pain with multiple ulcers on his toes and fingers. He was an ex-smoker and had no diabetes mellitus. On admission, he had ulcers on his big toes bilaterally and right 2nd - 4th fingers. Peripheral pulses were strong and his ankle-brachial pressure index was above 1.3. Laboratory data were as follows: calcium 9.9 mg/dl, albumin 3.3 g/dl, phosphate 3.0 mg/dl, Ca x P product 30, and parathyroid hormone 98 pg/ml. He had a parathyroidectomy in 1998 and 1999. X-rays of his hands and legs showed diffuse subcutaneous arteriolar calcification. Angiography revealed no local stenotic lesions. Despite intensive therapies including hyperbaric oxygen therapy, painful gangrene developed on his right big toe and the pain was so intense that he could not go to sleep in a supine position. We infused intravenous sodium thiosulfate (20 g) 3 times weekly, based on previous reports. Within 4 - 5 days, he experienced rapid and dramatic symptom relief. The score of the visual analogue pain scale improved from 10/10 - 2/10. The signs of ischemia, measured by transcutaneous partial oxygen pressure and thermography, improved significantly. During the infusion of sodium thiosulfate, the patient complained of nausea, vomiting and hyperosmia. These adverse symptoms were resolved after discontinuation of the infusion. Pain relief was sustained and he could walk after 2 weeks of infusion. Our case supports the use of sodium thiosulfate as a novel therapeutic choice for critical limb ischemia with severe vascular calcification in chronic HD patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0995_9179", "title": "Exercise testing criteria to diagnose lower extremity peripheral artery disease assessed by computed-tomography angiography.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The sensitivity and specificity of exercise testing have never been studied simultaneously against an objective quantification of arterial stenosis. Aims were to define the sensitivity and specificity of several exercise tests to detect peripheral artery disease (PAD), and to assess whether or not defined criteria defined in patients suspected of having a PAD show a difference dependent on the resting ABI. In this prospective study, consecutive patients with exertional limb pain referred to our vascular center were included. All patients had an ABI, a treadmill exercise-oximetry test, a second treadmill test (both 10% slope; 3.2km/h speed) with post-exercise pressures, and a computed-tomography-angiography (CTA). The receiver-operating-characteristic curve was used to define a cut-off point corresponding to the best area under the curve (AUC; [CI95%]) to detect arterial stenosis ≥50% as determined by the CTA. Sixty-three patients (61+/-11 years-old) were included. Similar AUCs from 0.72[0.63-0.79] to 0.83[0.75-0.89] were found for the different tests in the overall population. To detect arterial stenosis ≥50%, cut-off values of ABI, post-exercise ABI, post-exercise ABI decrease, post-exercise ankle pressure decrease, and distal delta from rest oxygen pressure (DROP) index were ≤0.91, ≤0.52, ≥43%, ≥20mmHg and ≤-15mmHg, respectively (p&lt;0.01). In the subset of patients with an ABI &gt;0.91, cut-off values of post-exercise ABI decrease (AUC = 0.67[0.53-0.78]), and DROP (AUC = 0.67[0.53-0.78]) were ≥18.5%, and ≤-15mmHg respectively (p&lt;0.05). Resting ABI is as accurate as exercise testing in patients with exertional limb pain. Specific exercise testing cut-off values should be used in patients with normal ABI to diagnose PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_23782", "title": "Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Caused by Lumbar Herniated Intervertebral Disc Disease.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Most cases of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) occur after some inciting injury. There are a few cases of CRPS after an operation for disc disease. CRPS from a mild herniated intervertebral disc (HIVD) without surgical intervention is even rarer than CRPS after an operation for disc disease.A 22-year-old man was transferred to a pain clinic. He had continuously complained about back and right leg pain. He presented with a skin color change in the right lower leg, intermittent resting tremor, stiffness, and swelling in the right leg. He complained of a pulling sensation and numbness in his right buttock, posterior thigh, lateral calf, and ankle. This symptom was in accordance with L4/5 radiculopathy. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) also showed L4/5 HIVD that was central to the bilateral subarticular protrusion.He was diagnosed as having CRPS, which fits the revised International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) criteria. He fulfilled 4 symptom categories (allodynia, temperature asymmetry and skin color change, sweating changes, decreased range of motion and motor dysfunction) and 3 of 4 sign categories (allodynia, temperature asymmetry and skin color changes, decreased range of motion and motor dysfunction). The bone scan and thermography also revealed CRPS.For the past 2 months, we have performed intensive treatments. But, he never became pain-free and walking for 5 minutes led to persistent leg pain. We decided to perform percutaneous nucleoplasty, which can directly decompress a HIVD. On the next day, he achieved dramatic symptom relief. The visual analog scale (VAS) score improved to 3, compared to the VAS score of 9 at the first visit. The skin color change, allodynia, and tremor in the right leg disappeared, and the temperature asymmetry normalized. Motor weakness of the right leg also recovered.We report an unusual case of CRPS that was caused by L4/5 HIVD without a history of trauma or surgery. It has a clear causal relationship between HIVD and CRPS and definitively fits in the newly revised IASP criteria. In conclusion, mild HIVD can cause CRPS without any trauma. And percutaneous nucleoplasty can be considered as a treatment option." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_3593", "title": "[Early diagnosis of arteriopathy of the legs using measures adapted to general practitioners: the systolic index and pulse perception].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Atherosclerotic lower-limb arteriopathy is a serious disease. Its prevalence often underestimated when relying only on questioning the patient. A simple early detection method is the systolic index, i.e. the ratio of systolic ankle over brachial pressure. This ratio should normally be greater than 0.9. Lower values indicate detectable arterial obstruction as revealed by reduced peripheral perfusion. Under 0.75 patients are considered as suffering from peripheral vascular disease and require further investigations and specialist opinion. With an index between 0.75 and 0.90 patients are classified as stage I or II of the disease. In a survey by 180 General Practitioners, which were trained by angiologists to measure ankle pressure, more than 1,400 patients, between 40 and 75-years old, with at least one vascular risk factor (hypertension, diabetes, lipids, tobacco) were selected. Tobacco was the most prevalent vascular risk factor, then diabetes (particularly in men). 23.8% of patients recorded values between 0.90 and 0.75 and thus suffering from peripheral vascular disease (certainly age dependent). Clinically absent pulses at the posterior tibial and the dorsalis pedis artery were found is 19 and 27% of patients respectively. Most of the patients received a pharmacological substance allowing to check this index sensitivity. Thus systolic index is a simple low cost method for early detection and care and more general utilisation is proposed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en628_11598", "title": "Diabetic foot infection", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "History and physical History should be taken for known recent foot trauma, and the lower extremities should be inspected for signs of recent trauma, including redness, induration, edema, visible ulceration with exudate or pus, or bony deformity. Ulcers do occur in the absence of pathological infection. Diagnosis of an infected wound is classically made with ≥2 signs of inflammation or purulence. Peripheral pulses should also be evaluated (posterior tibial and dorsal pedis), and if not palpable, should be further evaluated using ultrasound. In patients with non-palpable pulses, evaluation of PAD with an ankle-brachial index should also be performed. Ulceration or deeper wounds should be probed to identify the depth of penetration and determine involvement of bone, which would indicate osteomyelitis. Neurologic testing includes testing peripheral sensation to vibratory stimuli, temperature, pain, along with deep tendon reflexes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_9231", "title": "Exercise hyperemia for the study of peripheral circulation.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Blood flow in the calf was measured during postexercise hyperemia in normal subjects and in PAD patients by means of a foot ergometer that gives direct reading of the work performed. In normals, first and peak flow increased with the rise of work load up to 100 KGM. The duration of hyperemia increased with a work load of 30 to 200 KGM. In PAD patients, first flow did not coincide with peak flow. Peak flow was lower and delayed, and the duration of hyperemia was more prolonged than in normal subjects. In patients with intermittent claudication, first flow, peak flow, and work load were higher than in patients with rest pain or impending gangrene. Exercise hyperemia appears as a useful test for screening normal limbs from those with arterial obstruction. Since in PAD patients exercise is interrupted when muscular pain appears, it is evident that the earlier the arrest of work and the appearance of pain, the greater is the involvement in the arterial tree of the leg. Therefore the exercise hyperemia test can be used also as a means of evaluating the different stages of PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1052_1868", "title": "Imaging features of periostitis as a manifestation of IgA vasculitis: A case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Periostitis in systemic vasculitis is very rare with only a few previously reported cases. The reported cases were seen in polyarteritis nodosa or Takayasu arteritis. We report the first case of periostitis associated with IgA vasculitis with demonstration of computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) features, and serial changes of radiographs. A 74-year-old man visited an orthopedic outpatient clinic for pain in both lower legs and left ankle pain. He underwent a total ankle arthroplasty of the left ankle 3 years ago. His medical history disclosed IgA vasculitis/nephropathy caused by cephalosporin antibiotic class 5 months earlier. Plain radiography, MRI of the right lower leg, CT scan of the left ankle showed single lamellar to spiculated periosteal reactions at both tibia, fibula and left calcaneus. There was no evidence of bone or soft tissue mass lesions or cortical destruction. We concluded that this was a case of periosteal reactions associated with IgA vasculitis for the following reasons: (1) periosteal biopsy was negative for tumor. (2) there was no pulmonary lesion on chest radiography and CT, no history of trauma, inflammatory arthritis, metabolic disease, or genetic disease that could cause periostitis at multiple bones, (3) the initial MRI showed predominant signal changes around the tibial and fibular shafts, possibly explaining subsequent periosteal reactions, and (4) symptoms subsided with conservative treatment and follow-up radiographs showed remodeling of periosteal reactions. The patient took conservative management. His calf pain improved, and a radiograph 7 months later showed remodeling to the solid or single lamellar periosteal reaction along the both tibia and left fibula. Awareness of this uncommon manifestation would help differential diagnosis of periostitis and could help decrease the patient's anxiety. It should also be noted that periosteal reactions by benign entities could cause aggressive-looking periosteal reactions in post-operative regions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0626_16334", "title": "Usefulness of stress-loading test for ankle brachial index using an originally developed exercise device to detect peripheral arterial disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In the detection of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), the post-exercise ankle brachial index (ABI) using a treadmill is useful although time consuming. We developed a stress-loading device that induces fatigue in the calf muscles while remaining in the supine position, which is designed to reduce delay between completion of the exercise and measurement and to reduce the potential for cardiac and cerebrovascular accident in at-risk persons. Using our original device, we measured post-stress-loading ABI in 536 patients (1,072 legs) with lower extremity symptoms such as intermittent claudication. ABI was measured at rest and after stress loading by VaSera. The sensitivity and specificity of resting ABI using a cutoff of 0.9 was 74.8% and 99.4%, respectively, and of post-stress-loading ABI was 85.0% and 99.6%, respectively. The absolute and percent decrease of ABI after stress loading was 0.09+/-0.10 and 13.6+/-13.9%, respectively, in the PAD group and 0.04+/-0.05 and 3.2+/-4.0%, respectively, in the non-PAD group, a statistically significant difference (P&lt;0.01). Our originally developed stress-loading device for measurement of ABI under load simplifies the test procedures and increases the testing precision to a level higher than that of resting ABI and to that comparable to the conventional treadmill method." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_5299", "title": "[Pulmonary thromboembolism. A clinical case with unusual presentation].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The authors describe a rare case of pulmonary thromboembolism with unusual clinical findings and emphasized the large difficulty encountered in formuling a correct diagnosis in a reasonable time. A man, 60 years old, was admitted to a Medical Division of our hospital for the appearance of chest pain and epigastric pain during effort in the last year. He smoked 20 cigarettes a day and drank wine (1 or 2 litres a day). He was affected by hypercholesterolemia and in the past reported relapsed thrombophlebitis in the left leg. Four years before admission to our hospital he underwent large and small left saphenectomy. He had no cardiac events in the past. After a non significant exercise stress test the patient was treated with nitrates and asa and was discharged from the hospital. At home the symptoms increased and after 8 months the patient was admitted again to the Cardiologic Division of the hospital. At admission he reported dyspnea and chest pain at rest, not only during effort and the ECG showed negative T waves in anterior and inferior leads. Intravenous heparine, nitrates and calcium antagonists stabilized the clinical picture. The following examinations revealed: reduction of the T wave negativity at the ECG registered during chest pain; mild enlargement of the heart at the chest roentgenogram; normal value of the left ventricle and apical and midseptal by ipokinesia at the transthoracic echocardiogram; normal coronary artery at the coronary arteriography. \"Vasospastic angina\" was diagnosed and the patient was discharged after 20 days, asymptomatic. After 15 days he returned to the hospital again for chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension and syncope despite therapy. At physical examination he showed a painful left tibio-tarsal tumefaction, an increased and splitting second heart sound in the pulmonary area and a systolic murmur in the third and fourth left interspace. The ECG showed a severe anterior ischemia, while a new transthoracic echocardiogram revealed a considerable dilatation of the right atrium, right ventricle and the main pulmonary artery with severe tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension (mean PAP about 50 mmHg). The following pulmonary perfusion scintigraphy confirmed the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism and the selective right and left pulmonary arteriography exhibited multiple thrombi and large intravascular filling defects. The right heart catheterization confirmed a chronic precapillary pulmonary hypertension (mean PAP = 55 mmHg). About 24 hours after these examinations the patient died because of a cardiac arrest with electromechanical dissociation. Pulmonary thromboembolism is a potentially fatal disease characterized by a largely variable clinical presentation. Frequently pulmonary embolism diagnosis is difficult especially when clinical findings are unusual. In the case observed the \"typical\" chest and epigastric pains associated with the electrocardiographic findings directed diagnosis towards myocardial ischemia. Also after the coronary arteriography that showed normal coronary artery, the erroneous diagnosis persisted. Pulmonary embolism was correctly diagnosed too late to begin an effective therapy. These unusual clinical findings and diagnostic mistakes are stressed and critically reviewed in the article." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0286_15366", "title": "Assessment of noninvasive lower extremity arterial testing versus pulse exam.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Palpation of pedal pulses was compared to noninvasive testing in 100 patients referred to a vascular laboratory. Subjects were 65 +/- 13 (mean +/- s.d.) years old. The right dorsalis pedis (DP) artery served as the reference artery for comparison of Doppler studies with physical examination of the pulses. Absolute Doppler pressures in the right DP were 129 +/- 50 mm Hg. The right ankle:brachial index (ABI) was 0.86 +/- 0.32. There were significant differences in ABI in those with (0.68 +/- 0.28) vs without (0.95 +/- 0.31) claudication in either extremity (p &lt; 0.001). Rest pain was also associated with lower ABI (P &lt; 0.04). Diabetics, hypertensives, claudicants and those with ischemic rest pain were less likely to have palpable pulses (P &lt; 0.035). With right DP pressure &gt;/= 118 mm Hg, 63 per cent of subjects had a palpable DP pulse, whereas 68 per cent with ABI &gt; 0.82 had a palpable right DP. Of those (n = 35) with a right DP pressure &lt; 118 mm Hg, only 6 per cent (n = 2) had a palpable pulse, whereas 5 per cent (2/40) with ABI &lt;/= 0.82 had palpable DP pulses. Based on these findings, it was predicted that a pulse would likely not be palpable in the left DP with a pressure &lt; 118 mm Hg or with AB &lt;/= 0.82. The prediction based on systolic ankle pressures was correct, with 66 per cent sensitivity and 91 per cent specificity. The predication that a left DP pulse would not be palpable with AB &lt;/= 0.82 was more accurate (78% sensitive, 97% specific). Presence of a palpable DP pulse suggests the presence of a Doppler pressure &gt;/= 188 mm Hg and ABI &gt; 0.82. The range of ankle pressures with palpable right DP pulses was 64-220 mm Hg, whereas the range with nonpalpable DP was 42-300 mm Hg. Given the frequent disparity of pulse exam and ankle pressures, noninvasive Doppler testing may be necessary for many patients to accurately assess the vascular status of the leg." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_104895", "title": "Peripheral artery disease", "score": 0.009223999323009224, "content": "In individuals with suspected PAD with normal ABIs can undergo exercise testing of ABI. A baseline ABI is obtained prior to exercise. The patient is then asked to exercise (usually patients are made to walk on a treadmill at a constant speed) until claudication pain occurs (for a maximum of 5 minutes), after which the ankle pressure is again measured. A decrease in ABI of 15%–20% would be diagnostic of PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0932_8510", "title": "Exercise transcutaneous oximetry significantly modifies the diagnostic hypotheses and impacts scheduled investigations or treatments of patients with exertional limb pain.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In lower extremity peripheral artery disease (PAD), transcutaneous oximetry at exercise (Ex-TcpO2) has been largely validated in research practice, but evidence of routine practice in various vascular laboratories is missing. We hypothesized that Ex-TcPO2 would change the diagnosis hypotheses, investigations and treatments for patients referred for exertional limb pain. A multicenter prospective trial was conducted in nine different referral centers. Investigators performed Ex-TcpO2 and recorded investigations and treatments already scheduled for the patient. We encoded referral physician's diagnostic hypothesis. Before Ex-TcpO2, vascular physicians were asked to give their diagnosis hypotheses. A minimal decrease from rest of oxygen pressure (DROP)&lt;minus 15mmHg defined the presence of exercise-induced ischemia on the area of interest. After Ex-TcPO2, we recorded post-test diagnostic hypothesis and investigations and treatments to be cancelled or performed. We compared the diagnosis hypotheses, scheduled investigations and treatments, before and after the Ex-TcpO2. We included 603 patients (485 males: 80.4%), aged 64.7±9.8years. The post-test diagnosis hypothesis differed in 266 patients (44.1%; p&lt;0.0001) and in 96 patients (15.9%) from the pre-test hypothesis of referring and vascular physician, respectively. This led to the recommendation to cancel 27 scheduled investigations or treatments of a total cost of ~130,000 euros. Ex-TcPO2 in patients with exertional limb pain is applicable in various vascular institutions, and significantly modifies the diagnostic hypotheses and impacts scheduled investigations or treatments of patients with exertional limb pain." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_6035", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009141408243948821, "content": "arteries (Fig. 23-1). Normal is more than 1. Patients with clau-dication typically have an ABI in the 0.5 to 0.7 range, and those with rest pain are in the 0.3 to 0.5 range. Those with gangrene have an ABI of less than 0.3. These ranges can vary depending on the degree of compressibility of the vessel. The test is less reliable in patients with heavily calcified vessels. Due to non-compressibility, some patients, such as diabetics and those with end-stage renal disease, may have ABI ≥1.40 and require addi-tional noninvasive diagnostic testing to evaluate for peripheral artery disease. Alternative tests include toe-brachial pressures, pulse volume recordings, transcutaneous oxygen measurements, or vascular imaging (duplex ultrasound).Segmental Limb Pressures. By placing serial blood pressure cuffs down the lower extremity and then measuring the pressure with a Doppler probe as flow returns to the artery below the cuff, it is possible to determine segmental pressures down the leg. This" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_509", "title": "Pulmonary artery ablation to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension: a case report.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension is defined as a group of diseases characterized by a progressive increase in pulmonary vascular resistance that results in right heart failure and premature death. Although therapies exist to improve hemodynamic instability and symptoms, there is no cure for pulmonary arterial hypertension and it remains a life-threatening condition. A recent study performed in China reported, for the first time, the effect of pulmonary arterial denervation on functional capacity and hemodynamics in patients with refractory idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension. We report a case of a 60-year-old white Brazilian man, with controlled hypertension and stage 2 obesity who complained of progressive fatigue with moderate to light exertion of approximately 1 year's duration. During this period, he underwent myocardial perfusion scintigraphy without evidence of obstructive ischemic disease. He had no clinical evidence of systolic heart failure. He had undergone biological mitral valve replacement 3 years previously for mitral valve stenosis and ablation of atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia 18 months previously. At the time of valve replacement, he had no reported evidence of pulmonary arterial hypertension. His echocardiogram showed normal function of a mitral prosthesis, normal global left ventricular systolic function (left ventricular ejection fraction 62 % measured using the Teichholz method), stage I diastolic dysfunction, and a mean systolic pulmonary arterial blood pressure of 50 mmHg. In the 6-minute walk test, the patient walked 104 meters. Catheterization of his right heart chambers and pulmonary arteries confirmed the diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension. Electroanatomic reconstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract and pulmonary artery was performed under direct fluoroscopic visualization, and a merger was made with a formatted image of cardiac computed tomography angiography. Then we performed irrigated cardiac catheter ablation of the pulmonary trunk. At the patient's 3-month follow-up, he showed improvement in functional class for fatigue on major exertion, increased distance walked in the 6-minute walk test, and reductions in pressure of both the right cavities and the pulmonary artery. Currently, with 6 months of clinical follow-up, the patient has maintained his functional classification and is pedaling his bicycle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0111_12231", "title": "[Intermittent arterial claudication. Clinical aspects--hemodynamic correlation].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Intermittent arterial claudication is the master symptom in lower limbs arteriopathy. It is used as a reference in invasive or non-invasive arterial explorations. It allows to assess the evolutive degree of the disease and above all helps the therapeutic decision. The seat of claudication is traditionally acknowledged as being located immediately downstream of the significant arterial lesion. The purpose of our work was to verify such a notion and ascertain the relation between spontaneous and tread-mill induced claudication. 60 stage-2 arteritic patients were included in a prospective mode study. They were all taken in hospital for arteriographic check-up and vascular functional explorations: Doppler velocimetry, segment pressures, treadmill tests and pressure measurements after stress. The patients were classified according to age (table I), time of claudication record (table II) and lesions location (table III). All clinical and paraclinical data were recorded with a view to correlations interpretation. The relation between spontaneous claudication and tread-mill induced claudication was studied with respect to lesion sites (table IV). Among 37 patients 46% of the claudications observed appeared at iliac stage in both cases (fig. 1). In 35 cases, femoral claudication was observed in 48% (fig. 2). As for distal claudication among 6 patients, 3 showed calf claudication in both cases, i had foot claudication and 2 showed discrepant claudication types. The relation between claudication and lesion site was not confirmed in all cases. Buttock claudication always appeared in relation with a lesion upstream or an internal iliac lesion.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "article-27004_13", "title": "Peripheral Arterial Disease -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009039141024321636, "content": "Making the diagnosis of PAD should factor in the patient’s history, physical exam, and objective test results. Key points in the history include an accurate assessment of the patient’s walking ability. Many patients do not explicitly report the classic claudication symptoms of cramping calf pain after walking 2 blocks that resolves with rest. Some patients may walk very little because of other physical ailments or limitations. Other patients may not volunteer any information about walking unless specifically asked. Important aspects of the history also include cardiovascular risk factors such as smoking, hypertension, high cholesterol, and diabetes. [7] [8] [9]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0293_2583", "title": "[A 22-year-old man with long-standing weakness and atrophy predominantly in the lower extremities].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We report a right-handed 22-year-old man with muscle atrophy. His prenatal course and the delivery were uneventful, but he walked unsupported at 15 months of the age for the first time. He was apparently well but he was in the slowest group in running in schools. He noted a difficulty in climbing up stairs at 19 years of the age, and he was admitted to our hospital for the work up when he was 22-year-old. His family history and past medical history were unremarkable. On admission, he was a slender and tall guy in no acute distress. General physical examination was unremarkable, but he had high-arched palate and high-arched feet. On neurologic examination, mental status and higher cerebral functions were normal. Cranial nerves appeared intact, however, he had a thin and long face without weakness. The sternocleidomastoid muscles appeared somewhat atrophic and were moderately weak. He was able to walk normally, however, he needed a handrail when he went up stairs. Thigh muscles and triceps surae muscles were atrophic and slightly weak (4/ 5). Muscle tone was hypotonic and no deep tendon reflexes were elicited except for jaw jerk. No ataxia or involuntary movements were seen; sensation was intact. Laboratory examination was unremarkable except for slight increase in serum CK to 145 IU/L. An ischemic forearm exercise test revealed slight elevation of lactate and pyruvate in that base line levels were 5.4 mg/dl and 0.52 mg/dl, respectively, which rose to 11.4 mg/dl and 0.85 mg/dl, respectively, 20 minutes after the initiation of the ischemic exercise. The base line serum ammonia was 102.5 micrograms/dl which decreased to 64.8 micrograms/dl at 20 minutes. A diagnostic biopsy was performed from the left quadriceps femoris muscle. The patient was discussed in a neurologic CPC, and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had nemaline myopathy. Opinions were divided between nemaline myopathy and debranching enzyme deficiency. The results of the ischemic exercise was not typical of glycogen storage disease, but elevations of lactate and pyruvate did not appear to be sufficient to be interpreted as normal. Histologic examination of the biopsied specimen revealed marked type I fiber predominance and abundant nemaline rods. Cytoplasmic bodies were also seen. Histologic characteristics were consistent with the diagnosis of nemaline myopathy. The possibility of concomitant presence of AMP deaminase deficiency was discussed, because serum ammonia did not elevate in the ischemic exercise test." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0014_7488", "title": "[Practical diagnosis of arterial occlusive diseases of the lower extremities (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A peripheral arterial occlusive disease can be diagnosed by a clinical examination. Technical methods serve for documentation, definition of localization and differentiation of doubtful findings and special therapeutic measures. A definite sequence of diagnostic procedures simplifies diagnosis. History (risk factors), individual clinical or biochemical findings, intermittent claudication, pain at rest are important for the assessment of peripheral arterial circulation when considered with the appropriate differential diagnosis of various internal disease conditions, inspection, palpation and especially auscultation at rest and on effort. Ratschow's circulation test provides information on the degree of compensation. Mechanical or electronic oscillography and Doppler echography have proved valuable as technical methods for measuring post-stenotic pressure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0977_17012", "title": "Medial malleolar stress fracture resulting from repetitive stress caused by lateral ankle instability: A case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Stress fractures are most commonly sustained in the lower extremities owing to the repetitive weight-bearing forces. They are overuse injuries that are seen often in athletes, but rare in the general population, so early diagnosis and proper treatment are important to enable athletes to return to activity. This is a rare example of successful treatment of a medial malleolar stress fracture with lateral ankle instability. A 16-year-old athlete presented with acute-onset left ankle pain. He was a baseball pitcher who had previously sprained left ankle while training. Subsequently, the ankle pain worsened, and he had tenderness on the medial aspect of his left ankle. The symptoms were mild at rest, but increased upon walking and training. Three years previously, he had sprained his ankle several times during baseball training. Plain standing radiographs of the left ankle showed a vertical fracture line in the medial malleolus. Computed tomography also showed the vertical fracture in the medial malleolus. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed mild bone marrow edema in the medial malleolar area and total rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament. Surgery was performed under general anesthesia, and we checked the instability of his ankle using a C-arm image intensifier, and the varus talar tilt angle was increased (10.3°). The medial malleolus stress fracture was fixed using tension bend wiring, and an arthroscopic modified Broström procedure was done. Two months postoperatively, the patient started walking, and raised-heel squatting. The medial malleolar fracture was completely united at the 3 months postoperatively on plain radiography, and return to full activity was achieved by 3 months postoperatively. Then the hardware was removed 1-year after operation and both the anterior drawer and external rotation stress tests were negative. Medial malleolar stress fractures are rare, so they can be overlooked. With these fractures, plain radiographs are frequently normal initially because the medial malleolus consists mainly of cancellous bone. Physicians require a high level of suspicion when taking the patient's history and doing the physical examination. Because most occur in athletes, early diagnosis and proper treatment are important for patients' subsequent athletic performance." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 145 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "Given her circumstances and taking into account that she is exclusively breastfeeding, the best thing to do would be to prescribe only gestagens." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Explain to her that, if she is amenorrheic, she does not require another contraceptive method since breastfeeding is sufficient as a contraceptive method.", "2": "He informed her that the levonogestrel IUD is contraindicated because she had a cesarean section less than a year ago.", "3": "He explains that she could use a gestagen-only hormonal method.", "4": "She is offered combined hormonal contraception.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0404_6537", "title": "Norplant contraceptive maker accused of profiteering on drug.", "score": 0.011752946853243261, "content": "Family planning groups and a lawmaker accused a US drug company yesterday of profiteering on Norplant, the implantable, 5-year contraceptive. The company said its $365 product is cheaper than birth-control pills. But Rep. Ron Wyden said Norplant was developed with extensive government support and sells for $23 in some Third World countries. He said its cost to Wyeth-Ayerst laboratories may be as little as $16. About 875,000 US women have had 6 match-sized hormone-dispensing rubber capsules implanted in their upper arms since 1990. Dr. Amy Pollack of the Association of Reproductive Health Professionals said 56% of the 6 million pregnancies in the US each year are unwanted. She said 1.7 million pregnancies occur among women using contraceptives. The failure rate is less than 4 per 10,000 with Norplant compared with 3 per 100 women on the pill, she said. Dr. Marc W. Deitch, Wyeth's medical director, said the company made a risky decision to bring Norplant to market in collaboration with the nonprofit Population Council. The implant costs women 20 cents a day over its 5-year life, said Dr. Deitch. The $365 cost is significantly less than the $1481 they would pay over 5 years for birth-control pills, $762 for a diaphragm and $590 for shots of Depo Provera, he said. Male condoms cost $312 and an IUD $176. Family planning advocates challenged Dr. Deitch's math. Judith DeSarno, president of the National Family Planning and Reproductive Health Association, said federally funded clinics pay only $60 for a 5-year supply of oral contraceptives. Women also must pay doctor fees--usually from $150 to $200--for inserting Norplant and eventually removing it from their upper arms." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_1978", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.01172316384180791, "content": "A patient who is mildly anemic will benefit from hormone therapy. If the patient is not bleeding at the time of evaluation and has no contraindications to the use of estrogen, a combination low-dose oral contraceptive can be prescribed for use in the manner in which it is used for contraception. If the patient is not sexually active, she should be reevaluated after three to six cycles to determine whether she desires to continue this regimen. Parents may sometimes object to the use of oral contraceptives if their daughter is not sexually active (or if they believe her not to be or even if they would like her not to be). These objections are frequently based on misconceptions about the potential risks of the pill and can be overcome by careful explanation of the pill’s role as medical therapy. Objections may be based on concerns that hormonal therapy for medical indications is likely to hasten the onset of coitarche or sexual debut, although no data support this fear. If the medication" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0881_19416", "title": "Doctor Knows Best? Tubal Ligation in Young, Childless Women.", "score": 0.010909378376241799, "content": "When a gynecologist asks a twenty-one-year-old patient about her use of contraception, he is surprised that she would like to have a tubal ligation. The patient says that she would \"never want to bring a child into this screwed up world.\" She has discussed tubal ligation with her boyfriend of one year, and he has told her that he accepts her decision. She asks her doctor if she can schedule the procedure as soon as possible. Her gynecologist mentions that he is concerned that she is very young and may eventually change her mind about having children. She insists that she has thought about it carefully and is certain that she wants the procedure. Her doctor feels very uncomfortable about this request. He consults the hospital ethics committee. Should he do as the patient asks or suggest that she wait at least six months and reconsider?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0499_8821", "title": "[Summary of the practice guideline 'Hormonal contraception' (second revision) from the Dutch College of General Practitioners].", "score": 0.010705855906485331, "content": "When choosing a method of contraception, a woman must consider the pros and cons of various methods together with her family physician. In this process, the doctor provides information on the advantages and disadvantages, while the woman decides. A sub-50 pill of the second-generation preparation is the oral contraceptive of choice. If the woman chooses a newly developed method of contraception, she must be carefully informed about the uncertainties with regard to reliability and safety. Oral contraceptives are absolutely contra-indicated in the following cases: a history of myocardial infarction, stroke (CVA), venous thromboembolism, a known coagulation-factor deficiency, breast or endometrial carcinoma or severe liver-function disorders. Non-hormonal methods of contraception are preferred in such a case. If there are two or more risk factors for cardiovascular disease, the doctor and the patient must consider the pros and cons of hormonal contraception. In this connection, stopping smoking is more effective than not using an oral contraceptive. A prescription for an oral contraceptive can be given without a physical examination, not even a measurement of the blood pressure; follow-up is only necessary in the case of side effects or questions. Progestagen-only contraceptives are absolutely contraindicated in the following cases: current venous thromboembolism, vaginal bleeding of unknown origin, progestagen-dependent tumours such as breast cancer, and severe liver function disorders." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0259_5273", "title": "Contraception in the adolescent patient.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Having presented an overview of the available methods of contraception, the authors present one approach to prescribing contraceptives based on their experience. First, adolescent patients in our practice are discouraged from engaging in sexual intercourse. Abstinence is the only fail-safe method of contraception and provides benefits both emotionally and physically (i.e., prevention from sexually transmitted diseases and unwanted pregnancies). If the adolescent plans to be sexually active, however, she is encouraged to select some form of hormonal contraception, namely Norplant, Depo-Provera, or oral contraceptives, in conjunction with condoms. The authors have had little success recommending barrier methods alone. Condoms are used sporadically and the diaphragm is very awkward for adolescents who are still uncomfortable with their bodies and with touching themselves. Of the three hormonal methods, Depo-Provera seems to be well-accepted by our patients. It offers several advantages that we believe make it attractive. First, it does not require any forethought by the patient other than coming in for the injection every 3 months. There is an effective grace period, so the patient is afforded good contraception even if she is up to a month late for her injection. The frequent visits for injections actually can be looked upon as positive, frequent contacts with the patient and can provide opportunities for counseling. In addition, some patients become amenorrheic, which teens view as an advantage, increasing compliance. If it is not likely that a patient will be compliant with every-3-month injections, Norplant is recommended. Studies have shown good acceptance of Norplant by adolescents and that has been the experience of the authors. With appropriate counseling prior to insertion and a counseling session with patients who request removal, the number of actual Norplant removals has been limited. If Depo-Provera and Norplant are not acceptable to the patient, then oral contraceptives are recommended. Of the three methods, more opportunities for failure exist with oral contraceptives. Pills are missed for a variety of reasons, including going away for the weekend; not having a regular schedule, which can interrupt pill-taking; and even ambivalence about becoming pregnant. One recent study demonstrated certain patient characteristics that were associated with good compliance with oral contraceptives, including white race, higher education level, suburban residence, and older age of both the patient and her mate. Keeping these characteristics in mind may be helpful when prescribing oral contraceptives. Of course, it is the patient's prerogative to choose the type of contraception she feels will be best suited for her.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_143180", "title": "Married Love", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Downton Abbey (Series 5, Episodes 2, 3, and 6): In Episode 2 of the fifth series, Lady Mary (Michelle Dockery) has a copy of the book, which she uses to ensure her week-long dalliance with Lord Gillingham (Tom Cullen) has no \"unwanted epilogue\". In Episode 3 she asks for her lady's maid Anna Bates (Joanne Froggatt) to hide the book and the contraceptive device (most likely a cervical cap, which she had had Anna purchase according to the book's recommendation) in her home to avoid it being discovered in the house. In Episode 6 Anna's husband, John Bates (Brendan Coyle), discovers the device in their home, and is hurt by the prospect that his wife is trying to prevent them having children, which had been a topic of the series between them, but he is unaware that the book and device were being used by Lady Mary and not his wife. Only after a while did he realize that the device was Mary's and not Anna's." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0321_10475", "title": "Postpartum contraception: the lactational amenorrhea method.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Breastfeeding still accounts for a significant proportion of all fertility reduction, the average birth interval being longer among populations that breastfeed. However, per se it is not reliable for individual fertility suppression. The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is a highly efficient tool for the individual woman to utilize physiology to space births. Suckling induces a reduction in gonadotropin releasing hormone, luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone release, resulting in amenorrhea, through an intracerebral opioid pathway: beta-endorphins inhibit gonadotropin releasing hormone and dopamine secretions, which, in turn stimulates prolactin secretion and milk production. Reduced suckling precipitates the return of ovulation. During lactation, menses before 6 months are mostly anovulatory, and fertility remains low. The lactational amenorrhea method is based on three simultaneous conditions: (1) the baby is under 6 months; (2) the mother is still amenorrheic; and (3) she practises exclusive or quasi-exclusive breastfeeding on demand, day and night. Experiments with LAM extended to 9-12 months are ongoing. We use a standardized algorithm to present LAM. The lactational amenorrhea method is a way both to space births and to support breastfeeding, which should be replaced by a contraceptive method in due course. A 'Breastfeeding-LAM-Family Planning' team is very helpful in maternity wards for promoting modern breastfeeding, LAM, and contraception, and for alleviating barriers and misconceptions. The lactational amenorrhea method is at least 98% effective, comparing favorably with other contraceptive methods. Acceptability and continuity are not very well known; as with other 'natural' methods the figures are probably low in a general population but high for motivated couples. The lactational amenorrhea method avoids double protection, and thus saves resources, is especially (but not exclusively) suitable for couples interested in natural family planning and is accepted by religious authorities. The lactational amenorrhea method gives time to decide upon a long-term method of contraception. Unwanted pregnancies, although infrequent, conceived while using LAM result in very short, high-risk birth intervals. Introduction of LAM in family planning programs demands training, attention to be given to working mothers, positive attitudes of health personnel, close links between postpartum and family planning teams, situation analysis, budgets, evaluations, follow-up activities, modifications of record keeping systems and computing programs, and of national family planning guidelines. In conclusion, LAM is an efficient family planning method which should be promoted. The lactational amenorrhea method should always include the shift to another method when its criteria are no longer implemented." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_19555", "title": "[Women's opinion on hormone pills and the main sources of information].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The aim of this paper was to analyze and to evaluate women's opinion on hormone pills and the influence on hormone pill usage and reveal the main sources of information. Women who came for pregnancy termination (Group A) and women who came for consultation on further usage of contraception (Group K) have been interrogated. Interrogation according the special questionnaire has been performed at four consultation centers and three gynecologic clinics of Kaunas city. It was find out that due to the wrong information 25.1% of women in group A and 35% of women in group K thought that hormone pills cause irregular bleeding (p=0.01). Another myth - the possibility to become pregnant when taking pills - was indicated by 17% of women in group A and 32.4% of women in group K (p=0.01). Nine percent in group A and 12% in group K were confident that when taking hormone pills for some period of time one will not be able to become pregnant in the future. Seventy three percent of group A women and 80% of group K women indicated that the use of hormone pills increases the body weight (p=0.01). This research showed that the women that used hormone pills were properly informed about their treatment and side effects. Fifty four percent of group A women and 36% of group K women indicated that hormone pills were not suitable in case of several diseases (p=0.01). Eighty three percent of group A women and 71% of group K knew that hormone pills did not protect from cervical cancer (p=0.01). This information was mainly obtained from medical workers. The main reason why women of fertile age who took part in our research used little of hormone pills was false information received from insufficiently skilled persons and accordingly the negative opinion about hormone pills. Women's opinion on hormone pills is a very important factor for its usage. This opinion depends on sources of information, whether women received correct or false information on hormone pills. The most reliable source of information indicated by investigated women was medical personnel." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0404_6494", "title": "Helping patients handle accusations of infidelity.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "You may have experience with women patients who assume their partners are being unfaithful if they try to use condoms because that behavior could indicate they are trying to prevent potential sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). These same women may believe the same will be assumed of them if they begin to use the new female condom. If women present the device to their partners in the context of a birth control product rather than a device to prevent STDs, men might be more willing to accept it, says sexuality expert Beverly Wipple, PhD, RN, an associate professor at Rutgers State University of New Jersey in Newark and the author of Safe Encounters: How a Woman Can Say Yes to Pleasure and No to Unsafe Sex (Pocketbooks, 1990). Wipple has been a leader in female sexuality research since 1979, having conducted the original research on the \"G-spot\" (Dell Publishers, 1983). Wipple bases her hypothesis on a presentation about the male condom given at the 1992 annual meeting of the International Society for the Scientific Study of Sex, held in San Diego. The presenter showed that if women were using the male condom as their only form of contraception, then the male was more likely to use it. If the woman was taking oral contraceptives or using another form of contraception--and was only relying on the condom or STD protection--then the male was less likely to use the condom. \"I think the same thing might apply to the female condom,\" Wipple suggests. \"If she identifies that this is her method of birth control. I think it is much more likely to be accepted than if she says she is using it to prevent the spread of diseases.\" Wipple says practitioners should tell women to emphasize the birth control angle and downplay the STD angle. \"It may not be the only method they are using, but they don't have to tell him that.\" she says. \"This way, it is not putting an accusation [of infidelity] on him.\" While she acknowledge and dislikes the lack of honesty inherent in this practice, she says the end justifies the means. \"Although it is not addressing the issues that should be addressed, we have to recognize there are people in situations where it is just impossible for them to address the issues,\" Wipple explains. She says this inability to communicate has led to the spread of STDs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en188_24992", "title": "Jonathan Eig", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Eig's first book was Luckiest Man: The Life and Death of Lou Gehrig (2005). Opening Day: The Story of Jackie Robinson's First Season was his second book. For his third book, Get Capone, Eig discovered thousands of pages of never-before-reported government documents on the government's case against Capone. The Birth of the Pill (2014), Eig's fourth book, told the story of the renegades who invented the first oral contraceptive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0827_16330", "title": "Contraception in sea-going service personnel.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The right to make an informed choice about contraception should be afforded to every individual serving within the United Kingdom (UK) Armed Forces. This article looks at the responsibilities and approach that healthcare professionals should take within a Primary Care setting, summarises the common contraceptive options available, discusses the associated advantages and disadvantages of each technique, and considers operational factors in a military environment that combine to influence the final contraceptive choice an individual makes. Case Study. A 19-year old Able Rate joined the Royal Navy (RN) and at her joining medical it was noted that she had been on Microgynon™ combined oral contraceptive pill for approximately three years. During this time, her menstrual periods remained light; she never experienced adverse effects, demonstrated good compliance, and was happy to remain on this contraceptive regimen. Over the course of the next eighteen months, she was reviewed by a number of Medical Officers and Civilian Medical Practitioners on a quarterly basis, with Microgynon™ re-prescribed on each occasion. The appropriate Defence Medical Information Capability Programme (DMICP) template was used, with weight, smoking status, compliance and any issues or comments documented accordingly. In December 2010, a discussion regarding long-acting reversible contraception (LARC) was documented for the first time. The patient agreed to give LARC some thought and a review appointment was made for one month. She was subsequently started on the progestogen-only pill Cerazette™. It was noted by the consulting doctor that both the patient's mother and grandmother had a positive history of cerebrovascular events and the combined oral contraceptive pill was discontinued. Upon review at two months, the patient reported that she was content on Cerazette™ and wished to continue with this medication. She was amenorrhoeic, highly compliant, had given up smoking and her weight and blood pressure were stable. However, due to supply issues, it was explained that Cerazette™ was no longer a viable option for her. She had no plans to start a family, and was keen to investigate other contraceptive options. Furthermore, she expressed a particular desire to remain amenorrhoeic, as she was due to deploy overseas in the coming months, and not only wanted to avoid the inconvenience of having her period, but also felt it preferable not to have to take a daily pill when considering the constantly changing time zones. She subsequently had the etonogestrel-releasing subdermal implant Nexplanon™ fitted without complication. She has remained amenorrhoeic throughout and this form of long-acting reversible contraception has particularly suited her busy working role and active lifestyle." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_101664", "title": "Second-wave feminism", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Some important events laid the groundwork for the second wave. French writer Simone de Beauvoir had in the 1940s examined the notion of women being perceived as \"other\" in the patriarchal society. She went on to conclude in her 1949 treatise The Second Sex that male-centered ideology was being accepted as a norm and enforced by the ongoing development of myths, and that the fact that women are capable of getting pregnant, lactating, and menstruating is in no way a valid cause or explanation to place them as the \"second sex\". This book was translated from French to English (with some of its text excised) and published in America in 1953. In 1960, the Food and Drug Administration approved the combined oral contraceptive pill, which was made available in 1961. This made it easier for women to have careers without having to leave due to unexpectedly becoming pregnant. It also meant young couples would not be routinely forced into unwanted marriages due to accidental pregnancies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1060_952", "title": "Ivermectin to prevent hospitalizations in patients with COVID-19 (IVERCOR-COVID19): a structured summary of a study protocol for a randomized controlled trial.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To assess the efficacy of ivermectin in addition to standard treatment compared to standard treatment alone in reducing hospitalizations in the COVID-19 patient population. IVERCOR-COVID19 will be a single-center, prospective, randomized, double-blind, parallel group (1:1 ratio), placebo-controlled study. Patients who meet the following criteria will be invited to participate: Inclusion criteria: (1) Over 18 years of age who reside in the province of Corrientes at the time of diagnosis. (2) Confirmed diagnosis of COVID-19 by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for detection of SARS-CoV2 in the last 48 h. (3) In the case of women of childbearing age, they must be using a contraceptive method of proven efficacy and safety (barrier, hormonal, or permanent contraceptives) for at least 3 months prior to inclusion in the present study and for the entire period of time for the duration of the study and until at least 30 days after the end of this study. A woman will be considered to have no reproductive capacity if she is postmenopausal (at least 2 years without her menstrual cycles) or if she has undergone surgical sterilization (at least 1 month before the time of inviting her to participate in this study). (4) Weight at the time of inclusion greater than 48 kg. (5) That they sign the informed consent for participation in the study. (1) pregnant or breastfeeding women; (2) known allergy to ivermectin or some of the components of ivermectin tablets or placebo; (3) current use of home oxygen; (4) require hospitalization due to COVID-19 at the time of diagnosis or history of hospitalization for COVID-19; (5) presence of mal-absorptive syndrome; (6) presence of any other concomitant acute infectious disease; (7) known history of severe liver disease, for example liver cirrhosis; (8) need or use of antiviral drugs at the time of admission for another viral pathology other than COVID-19; (9) need or use of hydroxychloroquine or chloroquine; (10) use of ivermectin up to 7 days prior to randomization; (11) patients on dialysis or who have required it in the last 2 months or who plan to do it in the next 2 months; and (12) current participation or in the last 30 days in a research study that has included the administration of a drug (Table 1). Table 1 Ivermectin/placebo dose according to patient weight Patient weight Ivermectin/placebo dose Total dose (mg) Equal to or greater than 48 kg and less than 80 kg 2 tablets of 6 mg each at the time of inclusion and 2 tablets 24 h after the first intake 24 Equal or greater than 80 kg and less than 110 kg 3 tablets of 6 mg each at the time of inclusion and 3 tablets 24 h after the first intake 36 Equal or greater than 110 kg 4 tablets of 6 mg each at the time of inclusion and 4 tablets 24 h after the first intake 48 The study will be carried out by the Ministry of Public Health of the Province of Corrientes (Argentina) in coordination with the Institute of Cardiology of Corrientes in the Province of Corrientes, Argentina. Intervention group: patients who are randomized to ivermectin will receive the dose according to their weight (patients up to 80 kg will receive 2 tablets of 6 mg ivermectin; patients with more than 80 kg and up to 110 kg will receive 3 tablets of 6 mg of ivermectin; patients weighing more than 110 kg will receive 4 tablets of 6 mg ivermectin) the day they enter the study and the same dose 24 h after the first dose. patients who are randomized to placebo will receive the dose according to their weight (patients up to 80 kg will receive 2 tablets of 6 mg placebo; patients with more than 80 kg and up to 110 kg will receive 3 tablets of 6 mg of placebo; patients weighing more than 110 kg will receive 4 tablets of 6 mg placebo) on the day they enter the study and the same dose 24 h after the first dose (Table 2). Table 2 Inclusion and exclusion criteria Inclusion criteria Exclusion criteria 1. Over 18 years of age who reside in the province of Corrientes at the time of diagnosis 1. Pregnant or breastfeeding women 2.Confirmed diagnosis of COVID-19 by polymerase chain reaction test for detection of SARS-CoV2 in the last 48 h 2. Known allergy to ivermectin or some of the components of ivermectin tablets or placebo 3. In case of being women of childbearing age, they must be using a contraceptive method of proven efficacy and safety (barrier, hormonal, or permanent contraceptives) for at least 3 months prior to inclusion in the present study, during the entire period of time for the duration of the study, and until at least 30 days after the end of this study. A woman will be considered to have no reproductive capacity if she is postmenopausal (at least 2 years without her menstrual cycles) or if she has undergone surgical sterilization (at least 1 month before the time of inviting her to participate in this study) 3. Current use of home oxygen 4. Weight at the time of inclusion equal to or greater than 48 kg 4. That require hospitalization due to COVID-19 at the time of diagnosis or history of hospitalization for COVID-19 5. That they sign the informed consent for participation in the study 5. Presence of mal-absorptive syndrome 6. Presence of any other concomitant acute infectious disease 7. Known history of severe liver disease, for example liver cirrhosis 8. Need or use of antiviral drugs at the time of admission for another viral pathology other than COVID-19 9. Need or use of hydroxychloroquine or chloroquine 10. Use of ivermectin up to 7 days prior to randomization 11. Patients on dialysis or who have required it in the last 2 months or who plan to do it in the next 2 months 12. Current participation or in the last 30 days in a research study that has included the administration of a drug MAIN OUTCOMES: Primary outcome will be the percentage of hospitalizations in patients with COVID-19 in the intervention and control groups. time to hospitalization in each of the arms of the study: number of days elapsed from the inclusion in the study until the hospitalization of the patient; percentage of use of invasive mechanical ventilation in each of the study arms: every patient who is connected to invasive mechanical ventilation after signing the informed consent and before the final study visit; time to invasive mechanical ventilation in each of the arms of the study: number of days elapsed from inclusion in the study to connection to invasive mechanical ventilation of the patient; percentage of patients requiring dialysis in each of the study arms: all patients who require renal replacement therapy of any kind, temporary or permanent, and which begins after signing the informed consent and before the final visit; mortality from all causes in each of the two trial groups: death of the patient, from any cause. Negative PCR swab at 3 ± 1 and 12 ± 2 days after entering the study. Ivermectin safety: it will be analyzed according to the incidence of adverse events that patients present in the intervention and control groups. The end of study (EOS) is recorded as the day the patient is discharged or death. Discharge will be granted according to the current recommendations of the Ministry of Public Health of the Province of Corrientes. A follow-up visit (EOF) will be made by phone 30 days after the EOS when vital status will be verified. Randomization will be done through a web system with randomly permuted blocks. Randomization will be carried out by one of the investigators who will not participate in the inclusion of patients or in the delivery of medication (Table 3). Table 3 EOS end of study, EOF end of follow-up Visit Basal and randomization, day 0 Day 3 ± 1 Day 12 ± 2 V#1 V#2 V#3 EOS EOF Informed consent X - - - - Inclusion/exclusion criteria X - - - - Demographic data and medical history X - - - - Concomitant medication X - - - - Vital signs* X X - - - Anthropometric data<sup^</sup X - - - - Basal laboratory X - - - - PCR swab - X X - - Assessment of adverse events - X X X - Final objective evaluation - X X X X Randomization X - - - - Adherence to treatment X X - - - *Includes heart rate, temperature, and oxygen saturation by a digital saturometer ^Includes weight and height BLINDING (MASKING): The participants, investigators, care providers, and outcome assessors will be blinded. We will include a total of 500 patients (250 patients in each group). This is version 1.0, 17 August 2020. The recruitment started on 19 August 2020, and we anticipate the trial will finish recruitment on 31 December 2020. ClinicalTrials.gov NCT04529525 . Registered on 26 August 2020 FULL PROTOCOL: The full protocol is attached as an additional file, accessible from the Trials website (Additional file 1). In the interest of expediting the dissemination of this material, the familiar formatting has been eliminated; this letter serves as a summary of the key elements of the full protocol." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en589_15831", "title": "July 1921", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Professor Anne Louise McIlroy (Professor of Obstetrics and Gynaecology at the Royal Free Hospital for Women) delivered a paper at the Medico-Legal Society London, and described the contraceptives dispensed at Marie Stopes Mothers' Clinic as the \"most harmful method of which I have experience\". Dr Halliday Sutherland would quote her words in his 1922 book \"Birth Control\". When Stopes sued Sutherland for libel, McIlroy testified for the defence. Born: Ezzard Charles, U.S. boxer, World Heavyweight Champion 1951, in Lawrenceville, Georgia (died 1975)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en436_3821", "title": "Katharine Betts", "score": 0.009479628882613958, "content": "as the oral contraceptive pill, IUDs, condoms and diaphragms. Most of these women said they either abandoned the Billings method or miscalculated because the method was either \"too complicated,\" or there were \"too many rules to follow\" or there were \"too many qualifications\" to observe. Betts argues that while all methods of contraception require that individuals adhere to proper use, the Billings method was still less effective than other methods and she questioned the Government's continued support of this as a primary family planning strategy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_24994", "title": "Probable drug interaction between warfarin and hormonal contraceptives.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To report a single patient case that presented with a probable drug interaction between warfarin and 3 methods of hormonal contraceptives, as assessed by the Horn Interaction Probability Scale. A 33-year-old female patient required long-term anticoagulation following an aortic valve replacement. While taking warfarin (38.5 mg weekly), she transitioned from a monophasic combined oral contraceptive (ethinyl estradiol plus norethindrone) to an implantable progestin-only contraceptive (etonogestrel) on the advice of her cardiologist. Nineteen days following etonogestrel implant insertion, her international normalized ratio (INR) decreased to 1.8 and required a 55.8% warfarin dose increase (resulting dose of 60 mg weekly). Within 10 months, the patient elected to have the implant removed due to vaginal bleeding. Nine days following removal of etonogestrel, she experienced a transient INR increase to 6.5. Her INR returned to within goal range after her warfarin dose was decreased to 55.5 mg weekly. After using barrier methods of contraception for 48 days, she initiated an oral progestin-only contraceptive (norethindrone). Further warfarin dose adjustments were made, resulting in a weekly warfarin dose of 53.5 mg. Thirty-nine days after initiation of oral norethindrone, she elected to discontinue use due to vaginal bleeding and no longer uses hormonal contraceptive methods. No further adjustments to her warfarin dose were warranted. The increased warfarin requirement observed in this patient may have been a result of multiple factors. Based on a literature review, we hypothesize that the predominant mechanism of interaction was ethinyl estradiol inhibition of CYP1A2 and 2C19. We recommend that further in vivo studies be completed to definitively identify the mechanism of the interaction. It is necessary to intensify warfarin monitoring upon initiation or alteration of hormonal contraceptives." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0315_18182", "title": "[Natural contraception--a real option?].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In the article, a method developed by John Billings is introduced, based on the presumption that a woman will learn to know her fertile days and the day of ovulation by observing the consistency of the cervical mucus. The method has many uses. The woman gets to know her body and its functions. The woman can avoid becoming pregnant without long periods of continence and she can get pregnant when she wants it herself. The method can also provide help in various problems of childlessness." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_4707", "title": "Comparison of birth control methods", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The fertility awareness-based method is when a woman who has a predictable and consistent menstrual cycle tracks the days that she is fertile. The typical woman has approximately 9 fertile days a month and either avoids intercourse on those days or uses an alternative birth control method for that period of time. The failure rate is between 2-23%. Lactational Amenorrhea method is an option for women who have had a baby within the past 6 months and are breastfeeding . This method is only successful if it has been less than 6 months since the birth of the baby, they must be fully breastfeeding their baby, and not having any periods. The method is almost as effective as an oral contraceptive if the 3 conditions are strictly followed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en544_12909", "title": "Nancy Miriam Hawley", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In 1966, after the birth of Hawley's first son, she paid a visit to her OB/GYN for her six-week check up at the age of 23. During this check up, Hawley's doctor recommended she try a new pill on the market for birth control. When she asked what was in it, her doctor simply told her not to worry about it, and she refused to take the pill. At the time, most OB/GYNs were male, and most of the time husbands were told about their wives' conditions instead of the woman herself. In 2004, when reflecting on the 35th birthday of the first meeting, Hawley said, \"We weren't encouraged to ask questions, but to depend on the so-called experts. Not having a say in our own health care frustrated and angered us. We didn't have the information we needed, so we decided to find it on our own.\" At a conference organized by the Women's, Gender, & Sexuality Studies Program at Boston University, Hawley claimed she had one burning question: \"what's in this birth control pill?\" It was a question her doctor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0988_6809", "title": "Delayed presentation of uterine and bowel perforation following insertion of an intrauterine device.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Insertion of intrauterine methods of contraception (IUC) carries an inherent but small risk of perforation of the uterus, usually quoted at 2 in 1000. If perforation occurs, it is usually discovered either when a patient presents with 'missing threads' or with an unplanned pregnancy. Rarely, if the IUC has perforated bowel, patients can present acutely unwell although this sometimes occurs years after insertion. Asymptomatic perforation of the bowel (with IUC insertion or otherwise) is not common. In January 2018, a 41-year-old woman attended our community sexual and reproductive health service requesting removal of her intrauterine system (IUS). The clinic nurse performed this and during the consultation the patient revealed that several days earlier she had passed a previous 'lost' intrauterine device (IUD) when she opened her bowels. She came to believe this was an IUD inserted in 2006 that had been 'lost' and resulted in a pregnancy with her third child. We counselled her about her options and she had the IUS removed as she was worried this could happen again and opted to use condoms. This case reports an unusual presentation of a delayed and importantly 'silent' perforation of the uterus and bowel on insertion of IUC. The case highlights the importance of cross-specialty communication when an IUD has perforated or expelled resulting in a continuing pregnancy, so that appropriate imaging can be arranged following delivery of the baby." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0594_7227", "title": "[First visit for contraception].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The first visit for contraception essentially aims at listening and providing information and counseling. The choice of the contraceptive methods takes into account the contra-indications of the method as well as the patient personnel history, the type of demand, the needs and the fears. For young women, the most preferred choice is the combined pills, very effective and with minima sides effects but other methods (IUD, barrier methods) should be kept in mind. Observance requires proper information and reassurance on side effects particularly on menstruation disorders (amenorrhea, spotting) to avoid drop out." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_4764", "title": "Awareness of and attitude toward hormonal emergency contraception among married women in Kuwait.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To describe the awareness of and attitudes toward hormonal emergency contraception among women in Kuwait. A cross-sectional survey was conducted among married women at obstetrics/gynecology outpatient clinics at the government Maternity Hospital in Kuwait. A pretested Arabic self-administered questionnaire was distributed to the women in March 2005. The questionnaire provided a short explanation as to what was meant by hormonal emergency contraception and then elicited whether the respondent was aware of it, what concerns she had, and whether she thought it should be made available in Kuwait. One hundred three questionnaires were completed. Respondents were mostly Kuwaiti (78%) and non-Bedouin (78%) with postsecondary school education (74%) and a mean (SD) age of 33.1 (7.8) years and a mean (SD) number of children of 2.8 (1.9) About half of the women were not currently using contraceptive methods; 40% of contraceptive users were taking oral contraceptive pills. Bedouin women were more likely than non-Bedouins to use breastfeeding as a contraceptive measure (p = 0.012). Ten women (9.7%, 95% CI 4.8-17.1) reported having heard of hormonal emergency contraception, mostly from informal sources, 1 had used it, and 7 knew of other women who had used it. Only 8 (7.8%) respondents were willing to use or inform a friend about hormonal emergency contraception, but 89.3% thought it should be available in the health system. Awareness of hormonal emergency contraception is low among women in Kuwait. Despite concerns and apparent negative attitudes, women believe it should be made available in the health system." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en098_11140", "title": "Charity Dingle", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "for a baby, she is still having contraceptive injections. Charity records Jimmy talking about this and her plan to set Charity up. Initially, she simply blackmails Jimmy but then plays the video at a party and Tom throws them out before begging her to give him another chance but she refuses, saying that she no longer loves him and leaves with Noah." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0405_2682", "title": "Breast-feeding alters LH secretion pattern.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The contraceptive effects of breast feeding are probably due to the marked changes which suckling causes in the pattern of luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion, studies conducted in Scotland have shown. In mothers who fully breast feed their babies, these changes are sufficient to offer contraceptive protection of 98% for about 6 months postpartum. Breast feeding mothers should start to use another method of contraception 6 months after giving birth, or after they start supplementing breastfeeds with other food, or after the 1st menses, a plenary session on breast feeding, birth spacing, and child survival heard. The researchers from Scotland also presented striking new evidence of the protective effect of breast feeding on the heaLth of newborn babies. The studies were conducted in Edinburgh and Dundee over a period of more than 10 years and covered a range of different aspects of breast feeding and fertility. Dr. Anna Glasier, who presented findings on the hormonal changes which occur in breast feeding women, showed that suckling postpones the return of ovarian activity after childbirth. The results for 1 mother who bottle fed her baby showed that menstruation returned as early as 6 weeks postpartum, ovulation occurred at 10 weeks, and that by 14 weeks, a normal ovarian cycle had returned. In a group of 27 breast feeding mothers, the onset of ovarian activity was found to coincide with the introduction of solid food and a decline in suckling activity. In many cases, ovulation suppressed for several months after supplementation of breast feeding began and a normal ovarian cycle did not return until well after breast feeding had been stopped completely. Dr. Glasier said all the women studied showed marked disturbances of the pulsatile pattern of LH secretion, which gradually returned to normal as suckling declined. The disturbance is thought to be caused by the effect of suckling on the hypothalamic pulse generator, although the mechanism by which this occurs is not yet understood, she said. The Scottish researchers believe that it is this disturbance which is responsible for the contraceptive effect of breast feeding. Their findings appear to disprove the theory that ovarian suppression is due to the increased levels of prolactin which occur during breast feeding. Dr. Glasier explained that the administration of exogenous GnRH restored normal LH secretion patterns and ovarian activity in women who were fully breast feeding their babies, despite the presence of elevated prolactin concentrations. Her fellow-researcher Prof. Peter Howie presented the findings of a study of 750 Dundee mothers and their babies, aimed at examining the effects of breast feeding on the infants. Because most previous studies have been criticized as methodologically flawed, the Dundee investigation was carefully designed to meet important methodological criteria. Prof. Howie told the meeting that in the babies who were bottle fed or weaned before 13 weeks, gastrointestinal illness was 5-8 times more common than in babies who were breast fed for longer. The rate of illness among the babies breast fed for less than 13 weeks the close to that in some developing countries. The protective effect of breast feeding persisted beyond the period of breast feeding itself up to 1 year of life. These data support the view that breast feeding of offers important health benefits to babies in all environments, she said." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_85333", "title": "Roe v. Wade", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "History of the case Sarah Weddington was persuaded to join Linda Coffee after listening to her give a speech about a new lawsuit she was going to file representing a woman and her husband. The suit would claim that the woman needed to be able to have abortions, because the woman had a neurochemical disorder and should not give birth or raise children, they didn't want to abstain from sex, and contraception might fail. But one lawsuit was not enough, since they wanted to go forum shopping to improve their chances of winning in court. They wanted to have another case so that they would end up with different judges due to the rotating system used for assigning cases to judges. Then, if either received a particular judge who they thought would be sympathetic, they would ask to combine the cases. Weddington later wrote that they \"needed to find a pregnant Texas woman who wanted an abortion and would be willing to be a plaintiff.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1149_885", "title": "Spontaneous Twin Pregnancy: A Challenging and Exceptional Scenario in a Patient on Maintenance Hemodialysis in Sub-Saharan Africa.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Chronic hemodialysis is associated with reduced fertility. Hence, pregnancy remains rare, challenging, and deleterious when unplanned, especially in low-resource countries. Contraception and births are very important in these settings. Though the main modes of contraception have been proposed in the chronic kidney disease (CKD) population, contraception still remains challenging in patients on maintenance hemodialysis. Most doctors, however, overlook contraception because of the low fertility, high rate of amenorrhea, and low libido. Furthermore, patients are less receptive to contraceptive counseling either because of a high desire to give birth or due to amenorrhea and low libido. Management of unplanned pregnancies is therefore very challenging and a multidisciplinary approach is the rule; however, it does not guarantee a good prognosis for both the mother and child. Very few cases of multiple pregnancies without induction of ovulation have been reported in patients with severe renal failure, especially those on maintenance dialysis. A 32-year-old multiparous woman with end-stage kidney failure (ESKF) and a residual diuresis of 700 mL per day who had been on inadequate maintenance hemodialysis for 36 months, presented with abdominal distension, which was confirmed on abdominal ultrasound to be a twin pregnancy at 22 weeks of gestation. Thereafter, we intensified hemodialysis (3 sessions/week), managed hypertension and anemia. The obstetrical course was uneventful until the 25th week of gestation when she developed grade 3 (WHO) hypertension and peripheral fluid overload. At the 29th week, she had a spontaneous vaginal preterm delivery of 2 babies weighing 1,350 g and 1,000 g, with an Apgar score of 8 and 7, respectively. Babies, however, died on day 1 and day 5 postpartum, respectively, from respiratory distress and early neonatal infection. The evolution of the mother was uneventful as she continued with her hemodialysis sessions. Twin pregnancies are a rare and very high-risk condition in end-stage renal disease and require multidisciplinary management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en060_17707", "title": "The Legend of Good Women", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "There is also plenty of foreshadowing. The stories that are told later in the piece are foreshadowed by the nineteen women present in the prologue and the ballad they sing. The Problem with Two Prologues The story itself has two alternate prologues Chaucer authored for the story. The prevailing theory is that the contemporary criticism of the story following its release motivated Chaucer to sanitize or edit his prologue to be more fitting for the audience at hand. With Queen Anne in power, the topic of feminism was very much a hot button issue. Chaucer’s motivation for authoring the work in the first place is understood as a penance of his previous and unflattering depictions of women in his society. This factor could have had a strong influence on Chaucer to edit his original take." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0997_5918", "title": "Cystoscopic removal of a migrated intrauterine device to the bladder; a case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "An intrauterine device (IUD) is a well-accepted means of reversible contraception. Migration of IUD to the bladder through partial or complete perforation has been rarely reported. This phenomenon could be strongly associated with history of prior cesarean sections (C-section) or early insertion of the device in the postpartum period. In this study, a case of copper IUD migration through cesarean scar defect is presented, in such a way that was successfully managed by cystoscopic removal. A 31-year-old female with a history of lower urinary symptoms referred to the clinic for her secondary infertility work-up. A copper IUD outside the uterus in the bladder was found using hysterosalpingraphy. A plain abdominal radiography also confirmed the presence of a T-shaped IUD in the pelvis. According to ultrasound, the copper IUD was partly in the bladder lumen and within the bladder wall. The patient had a history of an intrauterine device insertion eight years ago followingher second cesarean delivery. Three years later, her IUD was expelled, and another copper IUD was inserted. Thesecond copper IUD was alsoremoved while she decided to be pregnant. The patient finally underwent a hysteroscopic cystoscopy. The intrauterine device with its short arms embedded in the bladder wall was successfully extracted through the urethra. IUD insertion seems to be more challenging in women with prior uterine incisions and requires more attention. Cystoscopic removal should be considered as a safe and effective minimally invasive approach tomanage a migrated intrauterine device in the bladder." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0315_18181", "title": "[When there is no suitable contraceptive method].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Despite of the many possibilities there are some situations where no method of contraception seems to be suitable. The reasons for this may be medical and clear such as rise of blood pressure, which is an obstacle to using combination pills. Sometimes a question arises, whether the feelings are really caused by the contraceptive method, or does the woman possibly blame contraception for some other reason." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_3185", "title": "Medical contraindications and issues for consideration in the use of once-a-month injectable contraceptives.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A number of once-a-month injectable contraceptives have been studied over the last 30 years and at least three different formulations are currently in use worldwide. Each of these formulations contains an ester of the natural estrogen, estradiol, and a synthetic progestin. This is in contrast to the combined oral contraceptives which contain synthetic analogs of both estradiol and progesterone. This paper considers medical contraindications or precautions related to the use of once-a-month injectable formulations and suggests some considerations for their programmatic use, particularly in the developing world. Because once-a-month injectables contain both an estrogen and a progestin, the precautions related to their use are similar to those of combined oral contraceptives; however, since the estrogen component is a natural estrogen, administration is parenteral and the circulating levels reach peaks that are in the range of those of the normal preovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, some of these precautions may be very conservative. Absolute contraindications to the use of monthly injectables are current or suspected pregnancy, and estrogen-responsive tumors of the breast or genital tract. Other factors have been termed precautions for use rather than absolute or relative contraindications. Primary precautions are conditions under which a woman should probably not use monthly injectables, but if she does, she should be monitored closely. These include current or individual history of cardiovascular disease, current liver disease or liver tumors, and over age 40 if a smoker. Secondary precautions to use are those which should be considered very carefully and balanced against the risks of not using the particular method. These include suspicion of breast or genital tract cancer until cancer is ruled out, unexplained abnormal vaginal bleeding, use of drugs which might affect metabolism and decrease effective levels of circulating steroids, breastfeeding, and having combinations of several risk factors for cardiovascular disease. These precautions are categorized as proposed, based on the fact that most women in the developing world face a risk from pregnancy that is probably far greater than the risks from any of the present formulations of steroidal contraceptives. A key consideration during programmatic use of monthly injectables is attention to compliance with follow-up schedules to minimize the risk of pregnancy. Because little information on monthly injectables is available that is directly related to these precautions, additional research studies will be required in order to reconsider whether some of the listed precautions are valid or others should be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_5773", "title": "John 21", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Conclusion (verses 24–25) The chapter (and the whole book) is closed by two verses referring to the author of the gospel in the third person (\"We know that his testimony is true\"). Verse 24 This is the disciple who is bearing witness about these things, and who has written these things, and we know that his testimony is true. Verse 25 And there are also many other things that Jesus did, which if they were written one by one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that would be written. Amen.''" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_98953", "title": "Calendar-based contraceptive methods", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Calendar-based methods use records of past menstrual cycles to predict the length of future cycles. However, the length of the pre-ovulatory phase can vary significantly, depending on the woman's typical cycle length, stress factors, medication, illness, menopause, breastfeeding, and whether she is just coming off hormonal contraception. If a woman with previously regular cycles has a delayed ovulation due to one of these factors, she will still be fertile when the method tells her she is in the post-ovulatory infertile phase. If she has an unusually early ovulation, calendar-based methods will indicate she is still in the pre-ovulatory infertile phase when she has actually become fertile. Finally, calendar-based methods assume that all bleeding is true menstruation. However, mid-cycle or anovulatory bleeding can be caused by a number of factors. Incorrectly identifying bleeding as menstruation will cause the method's calculations to be incorrect." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 299, 423 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 68 ] ], "text": "In addition, it is predominantly morning (option 1 is correct) because in the morning intracranial pressure naturally rises." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 135, 298 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 24, 50 ] ], "text": "The headache due to increased intracranial pressure is of positional type (it increases with Valsalva maneuvers and when bending down), so option 2 is not correct." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 424, 561 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 89 ] ], "text": "Migraine-type headaches may be associated with photophobia or sonophobia (answers 3 and 4). But this headache is not a migraine headache." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 424, 561 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 89 ] ], "text": "Migraine-type headaches may be associated with photophobia or sonophobia (answers 3 and 4). But this headache is not a migraine headache." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Morning predominance.", "2": "It does not change with effort.", "3": "Photophobia.", "4": "Sonophobia.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0882_3374", "title": "Chronic Headaches After a Concussion in an Obese 16-Year-Old Girl.", "score": 0.015826564739608216, "content": "Jennifer is a 16-year-old Latina girl who is new to your practice. During her first well visit, she mentions that she has had daily headaches for 2 years. They began after sustaining a concussion in a car accident. Typically, her headaches are bilateral and \"squeezing\"; they occur in the afternoons and last for a few hours. Her concussion also resulted in depressed mood, which has improved over time.When you ask if her headaches have changed recently, she says that they have been worse for the last few days. The quality and severity are unchanged; however, they now occur first thing in the morning, are worse when supine, and no longer remit. In the last 2 days, she has developed new-onset blurry vision, nausea, dizziness, photophobia, and sonophobia. Although she previously experienced sadness with her concussion, she now feels irritable. She has never used tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and she takes no medications.On examination, her body mass index is above the 99th percentile. You note mild papilledema bilaterally. She has no focal neurological deficits. The remainder of her examination is normal.You send her to an emergency department. Her head computed tomography is normal. A lumbar puncture demonstrates an opening pressure of 32 cm H2O; she feels relief after the procedure. She is admitted with a diagnosis of benign intracranial hypertension and is started on acetazolamide. What is the differential diagnosis of chronic headaches in an obese adolescent? How should a busy community pediatrician manage Jennifer acutely? What follow-up care should Jennifer receive?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0743_6115", "title": "Posterior reversible leukoencephalopathy syndrome presenting with global cerebral edema and herniation.", "score": 0.013127976318160367, "content": "We report a case of global cerebral edema and herniation due to Posterior Reversible Leukoencephalopathy Syndrome (PRES). Case report. A 37-year-old healthy female developed persistent severe occipital headache, and after 1 month of persistent headache, developed an episode of loss of consciousness. CT brain showed diffuse cerebral edema and effacement of the sulci and basal cisterns. Her initial neurological examination was nonfocal but with severe headache. Overnight, she acutely became unresponsive with fixed dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension. She was intubated and treated with hypertonic saline and mannitol with improvement in her clinical status. Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitor showed elevated ICPs to 37 mmHg which responded to mannitol. MRI brain showed diffuse vasogenic edema predominantly in the white matter without enhancement. Cerebral angiogram was unremarkable. Cerebrospinal fluid including infectious work-up was negative. With supportive care, her mental status improved. On her 3 month follow-up visit, she was asymptomatic and had returned to work. Repeat MRI brain at 3 months showed persistent white matter changes that subsequently resolved at 9 months. Although PRES is typically considered to have a benign clinical course, clinician should be aware that severe cases can present with global cerebral edema and associated complications including intracranial hypertension and herniation." }, { "id": "article-22610_10", "title": "Acute Headache -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011464438460319974, "content": "What is the patient's medical history? Does the patient take new medications, or have they recently changed them? Does the patient take \"blood thinners\"? Is this the worst headache the patient has ever experienced? Was the pain maximal at the onset? Has the patient had any difficulty moving or speaking normally? Did the patient have nausea or vomiting? Does the patient have a fever? Does the patient have any changes in vision or hearing? Does the patient have eye pain? Does the patient have any neck or facial pain? Did the patient have a seizure? Does the patient have dizziness? Does the patient have any sensitivity to light? Does the patient feel generally weak? Is there a weakness in a specific area of their body? Has the patient traveled recently? Has the patient been around sick contacts? Is the patient less than six weeks postpartum? Does the patient have a history of immunosuppression or take immunosuppressive medication?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_2011", "title": "[Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome in systemic lupus erythematosus: a case report].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "This case report concerns a 22-year-old woman who had been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). She had intermittent fever, butterfly erythema, photosensitivity, oral ulcers, and multiple arthralgia in the past seven years, but she did not adhere to regular treatments. The edema of the lower extremities and face aggravated in the recent two weeks, so she was admitted to our Department of Rheumatology and Clinical Immunology. Meanwhile, we found she had severe hypertension, the maximal blood pressure was 170/120 mmHg. The patient had high SLE disease activity (the disease activity index score was as high as 23) with blood involvement, acute renal insufficiency, multiple serous effusion and rash. After one week treatments of intravenous methylprednisolone 80 mg daily and other drugs, her conditions made some extent improvement. However, she suffered sudden epileptic attacks. No positive neuropathological signs were found, and the blood pressure was up to 190/130 mmHg before the onset of the seizures. Her cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure was 330 mmH<sub2</subO, the CSF protein level was normal value, and the white blood cell count was 0 cell/mm<sup3</sup, with no signs of infection. Cranial MRI showed vasogenic edema at bilateral parietal, occipito-parietal regions, and centrum ovale. We prescribed drugs of decreasing intracranial pressure, intravenous drugs of decreasing blood pressure and midazolam for sedation, without corticosteroid impulse therapy. She recovered consciousness in the next day, without epilepsy recurrence. We eventually diagnosed it as posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES), according to the history, laboratory results, imaging featuresand clinical outcome. PRES is a disorder of reversible subcortical vasogenic brain edema in patients with acute neurological symptoms (eg, seizures, encephalopathy, headache, and visual disturbances). PRES is mainly caused by blood pressure changes or endothelial injury, which lead to breakdown of the blood-brain barrier and subsequent brain edema. Most patients have a favourable prognosis. SLE complicated with PRES is not rare, especially in patients with disease activity, hypertension, lupus nephritis and/or renal insufficiency, and use of cytotoxic drugs, early recognition and appropriate treatment remain important. Brainstem involvement, intracranial hemorrhage, renal insufficiency and high disease activity of lupus are risk factors for poor prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_6517", "title": "Emergent headaches during pregnancy: correlation between neurologic examination and neuroimaging.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Emergent evaluation of the pregnant headache patient requires rational selection of acute neuroimaging studies, yet guidelines do not exist. We investigated the demographic and clinical features that are predictive of intracranial pathologic lesions on neuroimaging studies in pregnant women with emergent headaches. We conducted a retrospective review of demographic factors, clinical features, and radiologic findings in a consecutive case series of 63 pregnant women emergently evaluated with a chief complaint of headache, including those with previous headache histories. Clinical data were abstracted from emergency department records, hospital course, and discharge summaries. Multivariate logistic regression analysis examined predictors of intracranial pathologic lesions on emergent neuroimaging studies. Multiparous African American women constituted 63% of the case subjects. Headaches were frequently accompanied by photophobia (59%), nausea (52%), vomiting (37%), and occasionally with fever (11%), meningismus (9%), or seizures (7%). A total of 43% of case subjects had abnormal neurologic examination findings. Emergent neuroimaging, including noncontrast head CT and MR imaging, revealed an underlying headache etiology in 27%, including cerebral venous thrombosis, reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy, pseudotumor, and intracranial hemorrhage. The odds of having intracranial pathologic lesions on neuroimaging were 2.7 times higher in patients with abnormal results on neurologic examination (P=.085). Emergent neuroimaging studies may reveal an underlying headache etiology in 27% of pregnant women. Further research with a larger sample size is needed to determine what clinical factors are predictive of a pathologic condition on neuroimaging studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_22028", "title": "[A 64-year-old woman with severe headache and progressive disturbance of consciousness].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report a 64-year-old woman who developed nausea, headache, and consciousness disturbance. She was well until four years before the onset of her neurologic illness when (April of 1990 at her 59 years of the age) she was found to have an early cancer in her anterior wall of the lower stomach. Subtotal gastrectomy was performed and the operative result was reported as curative. Four years after the surgery (December of 1994 at her 64 years of the age), she noted suboccipital headache and nausea which had become progressively worse and she was admitted to our service on May 24, 1995. On admission, she appeared chronically ill but general physical examination was unremarkable with normal vital signs. Neurologically she was alert and not demented, and the higher cerebral functions were intact. Cranial nerves were also unremarkable. She was able to walk in tandem and on heels. No motor weakness or ataxia was noted. Deep tendon reflexes were moderately increased, however, no Babinski sign was noted. Although she had headache, no meningeal signs were seen. Slight superficial and vibratory sensory loss was noted in both feet. Routine blood work was again unremarkable except for slight increase in CEA to 8.3 ng/dl (N &lt; 5 ng/dl). The opening pressure of lumbar CSF was 180 mm H2O and the CSF contained 39 cells/microliter, 79 mg of protein, and 10 mg/dl of glucose. Approximately half of the cells were atypical malignant cells. Plain CT was unremarkable, however, tentorial border showed enhancement after contrast infusion. FGS showed no malignant tumors in the stomach. She was treated with intravenous glycerol and whole brain radiation, however, she continued to complain of severe headache, and her sensorium started to be disturbed one month after the admission. Follow-up cranial CT scan revealed enlargement of the lateral and the third ventricles. Her consciousness progressively deteriorated and she became comatose three months after the admission. Repeated cranial CT scan showed enlargement of the ventricles, but no mass lesions were seen within the brain. She developed respiratory arrest on September 25 of the same year. She was discussed in a neurological CPC and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had a gastric cancer with meningeal seeding developing meningeal carcinomatosis. The cause of deep coma was ascribed to damage of cerebral cortical areas secondary to metastatic carcinoma cells and fibrinous materials in the surface of the brain. Postmortem examination revealed thickening and clouding of leptomeninges of the cerebral convexity. On histologic observation, patchy areas of fibrous thickening were seen in the cerebral leptomeninges; in such areas, adenocarcinomatous cells were seen scattered. The basal meninges were free of carcinoma cells, however, leptomeninges of the cerebellum and brain stem tegmentum contained scattered carcinoma cells. The lateral and the third ventricles were enlarged, however, insides of the brain were free of pathologies; the ependymal layer were intact. In the stomach no carcinoma cells were remaining. Pneumonic changes were seen in the right upper and the left lower lobes which appeared to be the direct cause of her death. No evidence of tentorial herniation was noted. The cause of her deep coma was not clearly determined, however, combination of hydrocephalus and cortical malfunction due to leptomeningeal carcinoma cell infiltration and fibrinous material accumulation appeared to have played a role." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0639_7601", "title": "A young man presenting with acute encephalopathy, hemiparesis, and headache.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Familial hemiplegic migraine (FHM) is a rare type of migraine. Correct diagnosis is challenging for emergency physicians (EPs) due to its variable clinical picture, as well as its lack of diagnostic biological markers. To raise awareness among EPs regarding FHM's diverse clinical picture, and to highlight FHM's diagnostic criteria to facilitate an accurate and timely diagnosis of FHM in patients presenting to the emergency department (ED) with indicative symptomatology. A 24-year-old male student presented to the ED complaining of dizziness, general weakness, and blurred vision that had developed the previous night. The initial physical examination revealed drowsiness, slow speech production, and slight weakness with paresthesia in all limbs. Detailed communication with the patient's aunt revealed that he had experienced several similar attacks since the age of 12 years, and that there was also an extensive family history of the same symptoms. In addition, 2 h after arrival, the patient experienced severe throbbing headache, vomiting, severe dysphasia, and the weakness shifted to the right side. A computed tomography scan of the brain showed no anomalies. He was admitted with a tentative diagnosis of FHM. A diagnosis of FHM should be considered if the patient's clinical features include headache and weakness, with a family history of similar symptomatology. However, atypical symptoms of FHM may present as recurrent episodes of unexplained encephalopathy. Crucial elements for making an accurate and timely diagnosis of FHM include a detailed knowledge of weakness-related diseases and an ability to consider FHM in the differential diagnosis, as well as obtaining a thorough family history with repeated neurologic assessments." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1028_26384", "title": "A Rare Case of Cerebral Amyloidoma Mimicking a Hemorrhagic Malignant Central Nervous System Neoplasm.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Cerebral amyloidoma is a rare form of amyloidosis with a localized tumor like an amyloid deposition in the brain composed of insoluble fibrillary protein with cross beta-sheet conformation. Its usual presentation includes vision loss, seizures, behavioral changes, cognitive decline, and recurrent headaches. It has a benign course with a slow progression, and it is not associated with dissemination. We report a case of a 65-year-old Caucasian woman who presented with symptoms of progressively worsening cognitive dysfunction of six months' duration. From CT of the brain, it was found that she had a right frontal and left parietal hemorrhagic mass with a large amount of vasogenic edema and a midline shift. MRI showed heterogeneously enhancing hemorrhagic mass of 5.2 cm x 2.6 cm x 3.6 cm in size, with a satellite lesion. Initially, this was suspected to be a high-grade glioma vs. metastatic hemorrhagic lesions. She underwent stereotactic biopsy of the mass, and histopathology was consistent with cerebral amyloidoma with marked IgA lambda plasma cell differentiation. She did not have any evidence of systemic amyloidosis, and therefore, she is being clinically observed with a regular follow-up and annual CT surveillance. She has remained stable over the past two years, although she has residual cognitive dysfunction. Cerebral amyloidoma can mimic malignant central nervous system (CNS) neoplasms and should be considered as a differential of any single or multiple mass lesions occurring in the white matter region of the brain with a characteristic appearance of \"hyperdense lesions\" on CT. It is a benign disease with no metastatic potential that usually resolves entirely after resection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_12832", "title": "Warning symptoms of sinister headache.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Headache is a common complaint. In most patients, it is usually a problem of migrainous or tension-type headache. It is crucial that a physician is able to differentiate sinister causes of headache from the more benign ones. Six cases are presented to illustrate the fact that there are clues in the history to suggest a sinister cause of headache even though there are minimal or no neurological deficits on physical examination. At some point of time, these cases were examined by a senior physician but they were diagnosed as migrainous or tension-type headaches. The first case is a 41-year-old labourer with cryptococcal meningitis. He presented with severe headaches at a relatively late age. A 20-year-old female complained of the worst headache she ever had and this was due to a subarachnoid haemorrhage. The third case was a young woman with a large parietal meningioma. Her headaches had recently assumed a different character. The fourth case involved an investment manager who developed headaches with transient diplopia and projectile vomiting and investigations revealed an ependymoma. A shipyard worker complained of a constant headache which disturbed his sleep. Two weeks after medical consultation, the character of his headache changed and he developed diplopia in all directions of gaze. He succumbed to pituitary apoplexy. The final case is a 28-year-old woman who had a complicated migraine. CT scan of the brain showed a large arterio-venous malformation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0543_16972", "title": "[Changes of electroencephalographic findings in a case of migraine with various neurological symptoms].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We report here an 1-year-old boy who was diagnosed as sporadic hemiplegic migraine demonstrated transient changes in electroencephalographic (EEG) background activity accompanied with migraine attacks. The attacks were associated with various neurological complications such as impairment of consciousness and hemiplegia and so on, which coincided with the changes of EEG findings. When his first headache developed with fever and impairment of consciousness, diffuse slow waves (1-2 Hz, 250-300 microV) appeared transiently. The slow wave gradually improved thereafter, and disappeared on the 24th day. On the 25th day, when he had the second attack with left hemiplegia and impairment of consciousness and sensation, slow waves, (2-3 Hz, 250-300 microV) appeared on right side of the brain. Constriction of the right middle cerebral artery was found on MR angiography at that time. The EEG change had improved to normal background activity 3 days after the episode. This unique case demonstrated that transient EEG changes seem to be correlated with the existence of unconsciousness and the laterality of the ischemic insult. We may assume that the changes of electroencephalographic findings may represent the cortical dysfunction caused by vascular constriction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0253_17043", "title": "[A 57-year-old woman with gait disturbance, headache, character change, convulsion, and coma].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We report a 57-year-old woman with progressive gait disturbance, headache, character change, convulsion and coma. She was well until 55 years of age, when she noted an onset of unsteady gait. At times she experienced transient weakness in her right hand, which was followed some difficulty in articulation. She was admitted to our service for the work up on April 6, 1992. Neurologic examination at that time revealed an alert Japanese lady in no acute distress. She was oriented to all spheres, however, she was somewhat bradyphrenic and had some disturbance in recent memory. Higher cerebral functions appeared intact. The visual acuity and visual fields were normal as were the optic fundi. Pupils were round and isocoric reacting promptly to light. Ocular movement was full, however, horizontal nystagmus was noted upon right lateral gaze. The sensation of the face was intact. She showed right facial paresis of the central type. Hearing was intact. She showed slurred speech and some difficulty in swallowing. The tongue was deviated to the right. Her gait was wide based and unsteady; tandem gait was difficult, however, walking on toes and on heels were performed well. No cerebellar ataxia was noted, but she showed some clumsiness in her right hand. Deep reflexes were symmetric and normally reactive; plantar response was extensor bilaterally. Sensation was intact; no meningeal sign was elicited. Routine laboratory work up was unremarkable; the CSF was under a borderline pressure (180 mmH2O) and contained 39 mg/dl of protein and 59 mg/dl of sugar. Cranial CT scan revealed diffuse low density areas involving bilateral cerebral white matter as well as the brain stem; MRI revealed high signal intensity lesions in those areas; gadolinium enhancement was negative; cortical sulci were effaced and the anterior part of the left lateral ventricle was compressed without deviation of the midline structure. The patient was treated with steroid pulse therapy without effect. She was discharged for out patient follow up, however, she developed a convulsion which was followed by loss of consciousness, and was admitted again to our service. She had never gained consciousness after this episode, and remained in the state of akinetic mutism. Follow-up CT and MRI did not show much change, although the area of high signal density lesions slightly enlarged on June 1, 1993. Her clinical course was complicated by drug induced bone marrow suppression and nephrotic syndrome. She expired on September 8, 1993 after developing sudden drop of blood pressure and bradycardia.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0776_22280", "title": "Rare clinical findings in a patient with sporadic hemiplegic migraine: FDG-PET provides diminished brain metabolism at 10-year follow-up.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Sporadic hemiplegic migraine (SHM) is defined as migraine attacks associated with some degree of motor weakness during the aura phase and where no first-degree relative has identical attacks. SHM has a wide inter- and intraindividual clinical spectrum and, in case of prolonged aura symptoms and disturbed consciousness, can mimic several other acute neurological diseases. In 1996, during his wedding night, a 28-year-old man developed left face, arm and leg weakness, nausea and a throbbing headache. Neurological examination on presentation revealed stupor, fever, meningism and left hemiplegia. There were no abnormalities on emergency magnetic resonance. Lumbar puncture showed mild lymphocytic pleocytosis and slightly elevated protein. He received symptomatic treatment. Subsequent genetic analysis revealed the T666M mutation in the CACNA1A gene of chromosome 19. He was diagnosed with SHM. In 2005, at the end of another episode of hemiplegic migraine (HM), he for the first time developed an episode of paranoid psychosis with anxiety and visual hallucinations. The psychiatric symptoms resolved within a week. All perfusion SPECT and transcranial Doppler studies performed in the first days of HM attacks were consistent with hyperemia of the hemisphere contralateral to the neurological signs. FDG-PET/CT in January 2013 revealed a diffusely reduced glucose metabolism of the supratentorial cortex and marked asymmetric hypometabolism of the left cerebellum. The finding of progressive cortical metabolic dysfunction over years appears as a new finding. Glucose hypometabolism may indicate primary neuronal dysfunction as the cause of the prolonged deficits." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0704_16810", "title": "Atypical presentation in Rasmussen encephalitis: delayed late-onset periodic epileptic spasms.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A five-and-a-half-year-old girl started experiencing progressive left hemiparesis at age two and a half years. At age five years and four months she started presenting clusters of asymmetric periodic epileptic spasms with no hypsarrhythmia. The ictal EEG showed periodic, constant and stereotyped complexes. Serial brain imaging revealed progressive atrophy of the right hemisphere with increased T2 signal on MRI. She underwent a right hemispherotomy, and histological examination showed signs of inflammation and features of focal cortical dysplasia (FCD). She has been seizure-free for 16 months. This case is unique in the following aspects: the presence of typical Rasmussen encephalitis features of progressive unilateral brain involvement without seizures, a delay of almost three years prior to seizure onset; an atypical seizure type presentation with periodic epileptic spasms and the presence of FCD associated with inflammatory changes. [Published with video sequences]." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1037_5127", "title": "Clinical predictors of significant intracranial computed tomography scan findings in adults experiencing headache disorder.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Radiological assessments for adult headache disorder show significant intracranial findings in 2.5% to 10% of performed computed tomography scans (CT-scans), leading to an overuse consideration for CT-scan requests by physicians in headache-experiencing patients. Therefore, we undertook this study in order to determine predictors of significant intracranial CT-scan findings in adults experiencing headache disorder; in order to help physicians better select patients who need imaging, which would subsequently decrease the costs of headache disorder management and the useless irradiation rates. We carried out a cross-sectional study in the medical imaging departments of Yaounde Central Hospital and Douala Laquintinie Hospital, which are two teaching hospitals in Cameroon, over a period of five months. We consecutively and non-exhaustively included all consenting patients aged eighteen years and above, referred to the radiology department to perform a head CT-scan as aetiological workup of headache disorder, from either a traumatic or non-traumatic mechanism. Patients having a known brain lesion and those with a Glasgow coma scale less than thirteen were excluded. The clinical history of patients was taken and a complete physical examination was performed. Demographic data, clinical characteristics of the headache, results of neurological and physical examinations were collected and correlated to the results of head CT-scan. We enrolled 169 patients in the study, 56.2% were males, with a sex ratio of 1.3; sudden onset of headache increased by two the risk of discovering significant intracranial pathology (p = 0.032). Occipital and cervical location of headache, headache evolving by crisis, and recurrent paroxysmal headache were rather significantly correlated to no structural brain finding. An abnormal neurological examination with specifically abnormal stretch reflexes, aphasia, loss of consciousness, raised intracranial signs, weakness, and meningeal signs were predictive of structural intracranial pathology. Otorrhagia, epistaxis, and periorbital ecchymosis in addition were predictive in post-traumatic headaches. Abnormal results from neurological examination are the best clinical parameters to predict structural intracranial pathology on CT-scan in adult patients experiencing headache disorder. In case of post-traumatic headaches, in addition, otorrhagia, epistaxis, and periorbital ecchymosis are too highly predictive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0319_13843", "title": "[A case of traumatic subacute subdural hematoma presenting symptoms arising from cerebral hemispheric edema].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Traumatic subacute subdural hematoma is a condition in which the major symptoms affecting prognosis most appear in the subacute stage after head trauma, while traumatic acute subdural hematoma is treated conservatively when the symptoms are mild. The cause of the major symptoms occurring in the subacute stage is mostly expansion of the subdural hematoma volume. The authors report a case of traumatic subacute subdural hematoma in which the cause of the major symptoms was cerebral hemispheric edema instead of expansion of the subdural hematoma volume. To our knowledge, only one similar case to the present case has been previously reported. A 44-year-old female fell from the stairs on July 21, 1995 and was suffering from headache. On July 23, she was admitted to our hospital because of generalized convulsion. On admission, she was drowsy but showed no convulsion. Head CT showed an acute subdural hematoma on the right side with a slight midline shift and no other abnormalities. She was treated conservatively because of the mildness of the symptoms and two days later became alert with no symptoms. Thereafter she only complained of occasional headache which was controlled with medicine. On August 3, she suddenly fell into coma. Head CT showed severe cerebral hemispheric edema on the right side without change of the subdural hematoma size. Emergency cerebral angiography showed no definitive abnormalities such as occlusion of the arteries or of the venous sinuses. Craniotomy associated with external decompression was performed. The hematoma was composed of red-brown jelly accompanied with some liquid component and had a thin black-brown outer membrane. While removing the hematoma, bleeding from a vein on the cerebral surface around the sylvian fissure was observed and this location was suspected to be the sources of the bleeding point. Postoperatively, she received steroid and barbiturate therapy associated with moderate hypothermia under hyperventilation. She tolerated this treatment well and left the hospital, on September 26, 1995 with only diplopia during downward gaze. Although the mechanisms of the cerebral hemispheric edema occurring in the subacute stage was unclear, a failure in the cerebral venous circulation arising from compression to the bridging veins, which may be hypoplastic, by the subdural hematoma was suspected to have been the cause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1109_12863", "title": "A Rare Case of Fatal Hemorrhagic Stroke in a Young Female with Early Mixed Connective Tissue Disease.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) often presents as a slow progressive illness with low morbidity and mortality. Serious central nervous system disease is uncommon, and fatal outcomes are rarely seen. Here, we report a rare case of fatal hemorrhagic stroke in a 43-year-old female with a rapidly progressive MCTD. She presented to primary care with a history of headaches, visual disturbances, and unprovoked lower extremity swelling and pain. A rheumatological workup showed positive antinuclear (ANA) and ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibodies. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) found a 12 mm hemorrhage along a cortical sulcus of the right frontal lobe, and a follow-up magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) and ophthalmological exam showed no definitive signs of vasculitis. Over the course of her workup, she developed swollen hands, Raynaud's syndrome, myalgias, and synovitis characteristic of evolving MCTD. The patient then began to experience severe headaches over one month. Repeat MRI was ordered, but never completed, and the patient presented to the emergency department (ED) with a severe, right-sided headache, and left-sided visual disturbance. In the ED, she began to display evidence of delirium and seizure activity and became unresponsive. A computerized tomography scan (CT) of the brain showed a right parietal lobe intraparenchymal hemorrhage approximately 5 × 3 × 5 cm in size with secondary mass effect including mid- and hind-brain herniation. Computerized tomography angiography (CTA) of the brain showed signs of large vessel vasculitis. A craniectomy was performed; however, the patient never regained consciousness and died several days later. Vasculitis, while rare in connective tissue diseases, should be aggressively assessed for and managed in patients with any early signs and symptoms of cerebrovascular involvement to prevent fatal outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0104_2599", "title": "Post-epileptic headache and migraine.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "One hundred epileptic patients were questioned about their headaches. Post-ictal headaches occurred in 51 of these patients and most commonly lasted 6-72 hours. Major seizures were more often associated with post-epileptic headaches than minor attacks. Nine patients in this series of 100 also had migraine: in eight of these nine a typical, albeit a mild, migraine attack was provoked by fits. The post-ictal headache in the 40 epileptics who did not have migraine was accompanied by vomiting in 11 cases, photophobia in 14 cases and vomiting with photophobia in 4 cases. Furthermore, post-epileptic headache was accentuated by coughing, bending and sudden head movements and relieved by sleep. It is, therefore, clear that seizures provoke a syndrome similar to the headache phase of migraine in 50% of epileptics. It is proposed that post-epileptic headache arises intracranially and is related to the vasodilatation known to follow seizures. The relationship of post-epileptic headache to migraine is discussed in the light of current ideas on migraine pathogenesis, in particular the vasodilation which accompanies Leao's spreading cortical depression." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_20027", "title": "[Three Japanese cases of hypnic headache].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We described three cases of hypnic headache with successful treatment by lithium carbonate or caffeine. This is the first detail report of Japanese cases. An endocrinological test and rhythm analyses of ambulatory blood pressure (ABP) and heart rate variability in a case suggested possible association between hypnic headache and hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction. Case 1: A 48-year-old female migraineur complained of new-onset nocturnal headaches. Her headache awakened her from sleep between 1 AM and 2 AM. The headache occurred 3-4 times per week and lasted from 1 hour to 2 hours. The headache were moderate intensity and bilateral dull throbbing pain that located in the forehead to temples. There was no accompanying symptoms such as nausea, phonophobia, photophobia, nor the other autonomic features including conjunctival injection or tearing during the headache attacks. Physical and neurological examinations showed normal results except slight weakness and mild dysesthesia of the left arm due to a vertebral disk herniation at C5/6 level. In the pituitary endocrinological test, the prolactin level remarkably increased in response to the TRH loading. The single cosinor analysis demonstrated significant circadian rhythm of ABP parameters. However, the analysis did not demonstrate any significant circadian rhythm of Holter ECG parameters of time domain analysis and frequency analysis. Receiving 200 mg lithium bicarbonate before sleep, her nocturnal headache completely disappeared. Case 2: A 68-year-old woman had been followed up by her chronic tension-type headache since her forties. At her 66-years, she suffered from a new nocturnal headache. She awoke from sleep by the headache about 3 AM and the headache lasted 30 min. Moderate, dull headache located on her left temple to parietal head, 3-4 times/week. She was able to go back asleep without any medication after spontaneous headache cessation. She first complained the nocturnal headache at the 10 months later of the new headache appearance. She received 200 mg caffeine just before sleep and her headache has been disappeared. Case 3: 70-year-old women had been regularly visited our clinics for her migraine and chronic tension-type headache. She received amitriptyline and her headaches was well controlled. At her 69 years, she complained nocturnal headache. It occured every other day. The headache was moderate pulsative dull pain on the occipital region and lasted 90 minutes without any autonomic symptoms. Headache began between midnight and 1 AM. She told us her new nocturnal headache one year later of the onset. Oral caffeine (200 mg) just before sleep did not improve her headache and caused insomnia. Receiving 100 mg lithium before sleep, her hypnic headache disappeared completely. These three cases are compatible with the diagnostic criteria proposed in ICHD-II. There were some patients with hypnic headache in Japan and neurologists should pay attentions to this form of benign headache, because some beneficial treatments are currently available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1042_3301", "title": "Case 284.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "History A 36-year-old left-handed woman with a history of developmental delay and medical refractory seizures since birth most recently presented with continuous simple partial seizures and occasional breakthrough complex partial seizures with postictal migraines. These were described as the patient \"becoming pale with sinking to the floor and staring for approximately 1 minute with confusion thereafter.\" The patient had years of reported seizure freedom until 2010 when she was evaluated for intractable headaches, and electroencephalography revealed her focal subclinical status. At that time, ambulatory electroencephalography findings showed asymmetric left parietal-occipital high-amplitude spike-and-wave discharges in her best awake and alert state. Since that time, the patient developed and continues to have complex partial seizures every 2-3 months that are persistent despite the implementation of several medical regimens. At the time of recent presentation, the patient initially underwent unenhanced head CT in the emergency department followed by unenhanced MRI of the brain due to increased seizure activity at the patient's group home despite continued compliance with her antiepileptic regimen. Contrast material-enhanced imaging was not available at the time of recent presentation, so comparison was made with gadolinium-enhanced brain MRI performed approximately 9 years earlier (Figs 1-5)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_23808", "title": "Paraneoplastic Encephalopathy in a Patient With Metastatic Lung Cancer: A Case Study.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b RS, a 36-year-old female, presented to the emergency department (ED) of a large academic medical center upon the advice of her primary care provider because of 3 weeks of progressive mental status changes, weakness, and decreased oral intake. According to her husband, RS was diagnosed with stage IIIA large cell lung cancer 8 months earlier and was treated with concurrent chemotherapy (carboplatin, pemetrexed, and bevacizumab) and radiation therapy that was completed 4 months prior to admission. No other specific information about her treatment or outside health records was available. According to her husband, RS had been in her usual state of health until approximately 3 weeks prior, when she began having significant mental status changes. She first exhibited some difficulty finding words and later was noted to be putting food in a coffee maker. This spontaneously resolved after approximately 1 week; however, she rapidly developed slurred speech and began to make nonsensical statements. These manifestations also slowly improved but were followed by worsening speech deficit, difficulty walking, and impaired balance. During one of these episodes, she had an occurrence of incontinence. Her husband also noted an incident where her \"eyes were beating back and forth and the left side of her face was twitching.\" RS also had periods (according to her husband) where she \"did not seem to be interacting with her environment.\" These progressively worsened during the last week, and she completely stopped walking and talking 2 days prior to coming to the ED. According to her husband, RS had rheumatoid arthritis and no surgical history. Her family history was unknown except that RS's mother had \"seizures.\" RS had reportedly not used tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and she was sexually active with her husband. Home medications included transdermal fentanyl 12 μg/hr patch changed every 72 hours; oxycodone-acetaminophen tablets 5-325 mg, two every 4 hours as needed for pain; prednisone 10 mg, one tablet daily; and megestrol 40 mg/mL suspension, 20 mL once daily for appetite stimulation. RS was admitted to an inpatient medical oncology service and evaluated by the oncology advanced practitioner (AP) on her second inpatient day. Upon exam, RS was nonverbal except for moaning in response to painful stimuli and to her sister's voice. Her vital signs were normal. She appeared ill but well-nourished, and she was mildly diaphoretic. Neurologic examination revealed that her pupils were slightly sluggish but equal, round, and reactive to light. Extraocular muscle movements were intact, but she did not move her eyes in response to commands. She tracked the AP and family members around the room with her eyes. Cranial nerve examination was intact with the exception of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, which were difficult to examine given her inability to cooperate and open her mouth. Motor examination revealed increased tone throughout and intermittent, inconsistent resistance to passive movement. She was seen to move all four extremities spontaneously although not in response to commands. Deep tendon reflexes were intact and equal in all extremities. Examination of other body systems was as follows: there was dry, peeling skin on her lips, but her mucous membranes were moist and free of erythema or lesions. Her lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her heart rate and rhythm were regular, there were no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and distal pulses were intact. Her abdomen was nondistended with normally active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Her abdomen was soft, nontender to palpation, and without palpable masses. There was no peripheral discoloration, temperature changes, or edema, and examination of her skin was benign. <bWorkup</b On admission to the emergency department, serum laboratory studies were unrevealing for any potential causes of encephalopathy. Kidney and liver function were normal, making diagnoses of uremic and hepatic encephalopathies less likely. Cultures of the urine and blood were negative. Samples of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were obtained via lumbar puncture and were unrevealing for any abnormalities. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast was negative for any acute intracranial process. Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant revealed a single, nonspecific, hypoechoic hepatic lesion. Computed tomography scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the primary malignancy in the upper lobe of the left lung, as well as possible metastatic disease within the left lung, right lung, and liver, and widespread osseous metastatic disease. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain performed 1 day after admission demonstrated numerous scattered punctate foci of enhancement throughout the supratentorial and infratentorial brain parenchyma, measuring at most 3 to 4 millimeters in diameter. There was no significant mass effect or midline shift. A paraneoplastic panel was sent to an outside laboratory and returned positive for antivoltage-gated potassium channel (VGKC) autoantibodies. <bDifferential Diagnosis</b Clinically, RS was exhibiting signs of encephalopathy, a broad term that indicates general brain dysfunction, the hallmark of which is altered mental status. Diagnosing encephalopathy is challenging, as many differential diagnoses must be considered. The clinician must consider metabolic derangements, toxic and infectious etiologies, psychiatric disorders, and less commonly, prion disorders and progressive dementia. Cultures of RS's blood and urine as well as other specialized endocrine tests were negative, decreasing the likelihood of a metabolic or infectious cause for her presentation. The abnormalities on her brain MRI were reviewed by a neuro-oncology team, who felt that the faint, nondescript nature of the visualized lesions was not suspicious for metastatic disease. Sequelae of seizures was also considered by neuro-oncology but dismissed given a grossly normal prolonged electroencephalogram. Some encephalopathies are caused by autoimmune or inflammatory mechanisms, which are confirmed by the presence of autoantibody markers and/or clear response to immunomodulatory treatment (Vernino, Geschwind, &amp; Boeve, 2007). These types of encephalopathies have been seen in patients with cancer and have thus been termed paraneoplastic. The presence of anti-VGKC antibodies on RS's paraneoplastic panel directed the inpatient medical oncology team toward a paraneoplastic neurologic disorder (PND) as the most likely diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0558_9714", "title": "Incidence and pattern of headache in cerebral venous thrombosis.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Cerebral venous thrombosis (CVT) is a challenging condition because of the variability of clinical presentations. CVT can present at all ages, but is seen more in young and middle-aged women. CVT does not necessarily occur only when there is an obvious underlying etiology. In almost 30% of cases, the etiology cannot be established. CVT can present with an acute thunderclap headache, fever, seizures, focal deficits, impaired sensorium, or papilloedema. Headache is known to be the most frequently associated initial complaint, and is present in more than 80% of patients, but it is not always remembered that headache can be the sole presenting complaint of CVT and even when early papilloedema is absent. Headache can occur in isolation in up to 5% of CVT cases. There is no identifiable, uniform, recognizable pattern of headache in CVT, but this article discusses the \"Headache Profile\" that is seen more commonly in this setting with an illustration of one such case where the innocuous headache turned sinister. Magnetic resonance imaging with venography is the investigation of choice to diagnose CVT; computed tomography alone will miss a significant number of cases. One must keep in mind the possibility of CVT in every patient who presents with new-onset headache of any type, any severity, and in any location, particularly when there is worsening in spite of analgesics. Earlier the diagnosis, earlier the treatment, better is the outcome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1149_14679", "title": "Grade III solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma: An enthralling intracranial tumor-A case report and literature review.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Hemangiopericytomas account for less than 1% of all intracranial tumors. In 2016, World Health Organization (WHO) unified the two terms into a single medical condition known as solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma (SFT/HPC). Our patient is an 80-year-old woman with a past medical history of sick sinus syndrome status post pacemaker placement. She presented to the emergency department with progressive headaches for one month duration. Her headaches worsened at night, waking her up from sleep. They also increased in intensity by bending forward. Review of systems was significant for bilateral lower extremity weakness accompanied by difficulty walking. The motor exam was remarkable for right upper and right lower extremity 3/5 weakness. The gait was ataxic. A Computed tomography scan of the head without contrast revealed a large dural-based right parietal hyperdense mass with surrounding edema, mass effect, and compression of the right lateral ventricle atrium. A right-to-left midline shift was also noted. Given the fact that our patient had a pacemaker, she was not a candidate for a brain MRI. Neurosurgery successfully resected the mass. Histopathological studies confirmed WHO grade III anaplastic solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma. The patient was discharged on adjuvant radiation with imaging surveillance given the grade and the extent of resection. This case highlights a rare type of intracranial mass that resembles meningioma on imaging studies. It also illustrates that solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma should be kept as a differential diagnosis for brain masses, given its aggressive nature, and its potential of metastasis and recurrence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_5188", "title": "Case of the month: April 1997--a 32 year old man with mental status changes and a severe occipital headache.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 32 year old man with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection one week prior presented with mental status changes, diffuse hyperreflexia, and bilateral extensor plantar responses. An MRI scan showed multifocal areas of high signal intensity predominantly in the parietal and occipital white matter, unassociated with mass affect. Despite aggressive treatment, the patient's symptoms rapidly progressed and he was declared brain dead. Post-mortem examination revealed acute hemorrhagic leukoencephalopathy. The clinical and pathologic features of this disorder are reviewed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en320_24291", "title": "Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome", "score": 0.008933022272736336, "content": "Signs and symptoms The key symptom of RCVS is recurrent thunderclap headaches, which over 95% of patients experience. In two-thirds of cases, it is the only symptom. These headaches are typically bilateral, very severe and peak in intensity within a minute. They may last from minutes to days, and may be accompanied by nausea, photophobia, phonophobia or vomiting. Some patients experience only one headache, but on average there are four attacks over a period of one to four weeks. A milder, residual headache persists between severe attacks for half of patients. 1–17% of patients experience seizures. 8–43% of patients show neurologic problems, especially visual disturbances, but also hemiplegia, ataxia, dysarthria, aphasia, and numbness. These neurologic issues typically disappear within minutes or a few hours; more persistent symptoms may indicate a stroke. Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome is present in a small minority of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_24332", "title": "Postpartum trifecta: simultaneous eclamptic intracerebral hemorrhage, PRES, and herniation due to intracranial hypotension.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "In the postpartum patient, sudden depression of consciousness may be caused by a number of etiologies and can result in serious consequences. Rapid, accurate diagnosis allows for specific treatments that optimize outcome, but diagnosis can be challenging in this population. We present a case of postpartum herniation due to intracranial hypotension in a patient with eclampsia, posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES), and intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH). Case report. A 26-year-old woman developed headache on postpartum day (PD) 1 after cesarean section with epidural anesthesia. Over the next 3 days, she developed progressively worsening headache and hypertension. On PD 5, she had a generalized seizure, leading to endotracheal intubation, propofol infusion, and transfer to our institution. By PD 6, she opened her eyes to voice, followed commands, moved all extremities, and had briskly reactive 4 mm pupils. MRI showed L parasagittal ICH with minimal mass effect, edema consistent with PRES, and brain descent with obliteration of the basal cisterns and tonsillar herniation. Later on PD 6, after diuresis for pulmonary edema, she became unresponsive with a dilated and nonreactive left pupil. She was laid flat for transport to CT, with improvement in arousal and pupil reactivity within 5 min. Intravascular volume was repleted with normal saline and albumin, and she was placed in the Trendelenburg position. Over the subsequent 8 h, she developed a dilated and nonreactive left pupil whenever her head was raised to horizontal. Her head position was gradually successfully raised over 48 h without need for a lumbar epidural blood patch. She was discharged home on PD 13 with only mild left arm dysmetria. Intracranial hypotension may coexist with other potential causes of cerebral herniation in the postpartum period. Establishing this diagnosis is crucial because its treatment is opposite that of other causes of herniation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0511_451", "title": "[Headache originating front-orbital area].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Headache originating front-orbital area can be divided to (1) Which has no autonomic symptoms such as lacrimation, rhinorrea, rhinostasis. This include psychogenic headache and epileptic headache. In the case of psychogenic headache, pericranial tenderness is not observed, and headache is medium in intensity. Most often patient complains of a headache originating frontal area. There are more than five various symptoms such as general malaise, numbness, tingling sensation, vertigo, sleeplessness. However, although symptoms are multiple, patients spend a life commonly. In other words, a patient is protected by a headache against his or her stress. No medication is needed in such a case. In epileptic headache, pressing type pain is felt over the forehead for several minutes to a few hours. Tremor or convulsion sometimes follow the headache. EEG shows spike and wave activities. In the case of focal epilepsy, headache occurs contralateral to the focus. Anti-epileptic drugs such as VPA or CBZ is a choice in such case, and headache as well as seizure disappears. (2) Front-orbital headache with autonomic symptoms include various trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias. These include cluster headache, episodic paroxysmal hemicrania, hemicrania continua, among others. Precise history taking is necessary for the treatment, because no drug is 100% effective." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0887_18341", "title": "Severe cerebral edema following nivolumab treatment for pediatric glioblastoma: case report.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Nivolumab is an immune checkpoint inhibitor (ICI) currently undergoing Phase III clinical trials for the treatment of glioblastoma. The authors present the case of a 10-year-old girl with glioblastoma treated with nivolumab under compassionate-use guidelines. After the first dose of nivolumab the patient developed hemiparesis, cerebral edema, and significant midline shift due to severe tumor necrosis. She was managed using intravenous dexamethasone and discharged on a dexamethasone taper. The patient's condition rapidly deteriorated after the second dose of nivolumab, demonstrating hemiplegia, seizures, and eventually unresponsiveness with a fixed and dilated left pupil. Computed tomography of her brain revealed malignant cerebral edema requiring emergency decompressive hemicraniectomy. Repeat imaging demonstrated increased size of the lesion, reflecting immune-mediated inflammation and tumor necrosis. The patient remained densely hemiplegic, but became progressively more interactive and was ultimately extubated. She resumed nivolumab several weeks later, but again her condition deteriorated with headache, vomiting, swelling at the craniectomy site, and limited right-sided facial movement following the sixth dose. MRI demonstrated severe midline shift and uncal herniation despite her craniectomy. Her condition gradually declined, and she died several days later under \"do not resuscitate/do not intubate\" orders. To the authors' knowledge, this represents the first case of malignant cerebral edema requiring operative intervention following nivolumab treatment for glioblastoma in a pediatric patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0649_14004", "title": "Headache in Cerebral Venous Thrombosis: incidence, pattern and location in 200 consecutive patients.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We analyzed the incidence, pattern and location of headache in consecutive 200 patients with proven diagnosis of CVT to identify an association between localization of headache and site of sinus involvement. Headache was present in 136 (68%) patients. The duration of headache (reported in 128 patients) was reported as acute (1-3 days), 81 patients (60%); sub-acute (4-14 days), 33 patients (24%); and chronic (more than 14 days), 14 patients (10%). The quality of headache (reported in 72 patients) was reported as throbbing 12 (9%), band like 27 (20%), thunderclap 7 (5%), and other (pounding, exploding, stabbing, etc.) 26 (20%). The location of headache (reported in 101 patients) was reported as unilateral (one side of head) 48 (37%), localized (frontal, temporal, occipital, and neck) 25 (19%), and diffuse (whole head) 28 (20%). 43 (32%) patients had normal neurological examination (normal mental status, cranial nerves, motor and sensory examination with down going planters). 93 (68%) patients have abnormal findings on neurological examination including papilledema 29 (15%) patients, altered mental status 38 (19%), and focal neurological deficit 45 (22%) patients. There was no association between headache and presence of hemorrhage on CT and MRI (P = 0.1) or hydrocephalus (P = 0.09). There was no association between localization of headache and site of sinus thrombosis except sigmoid sinus thrombosis, where 17 out of 28 patients with involvement of sigmoid sinus alone or in combination with transverse sinus had pain in the occipital and neck region (P &lt; 0.05). There was no association between lateralization of pain and site of thrombosis (P = 0.66)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0901_13201", "title": "Status Epilepticus and Blindness in a Patient with Carfilzomib-Associated Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES) is a neurological condition characterized by headaches, visual disturbances, and seizures. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of an affected brain typically shows symmetrical white matter edema in the posterior cerebral hemispheres. The onset of PRES can constitute a medical emergency, especially when accompanied by status epilepticus. If promptly recognized and treated, the clinical syndrome and associated radiological findings are usually resolved in a matter of weeks or months. Carfilzomib is a proteasome inhibitor that is newly approved for relapsing myeloma in a patient who has received one or more lines of therapy. In this paper, we report on a 52-year-old female on carfilzomib for multiple myeloma who developed PRES following her second dose of treatment. She was admitted for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation, and while she was in the hospital, she developed a severe headache, blindness, and status epilepticus. A brain MRI showed signs consistent with PRES. After carfilzomib was discontinued, her symptoms resolved within three days. Unfortunately, the patient passed away shortly after being discharged, so there was no opportunity to perform a repeat MRI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_1241", "title": "Sudden onset headache: a prospective study of features, incidence and causes.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Sudden onset headache is a common condition that sometimes indicates a life-threatening subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) but is mostly harmless. We have performed a prospective study of 137 consecutive patients with this kind of headache (thunderclap headache=TCH). The examination included a CT scan, CSF examination and follow-up of patients with no SAH during the period between 2 days and 12 months after the headache attack. The incidence was 43 per 100 000 inhabitants &gt;18 years of age per year; 11.3% of the patients with TCH had SAH. Findings in other patients indicated cerebral infarction (five), intracerebral haematoma (three), aseptic meningitis (four), cerebral oedema (one) and sinus thrombosis (one). Thus no specific finding indicating the underlying cause of the TCH attack was found in the majority of the patients. A slightly increased prevalence of migraine was found in the non-SAH patients (28%). The attacks occurred in 11 cases (8%) during sexual activity and two of these had an SAH. Nausea, neck stiffness, occipital location and impaired consciousness were significantly more frequent with SAH but did not occur in all cases. Location in the temporal region and pressing headache quality were the only features that were more common in non-SAH patients. Recurrent attacks of TCH occurred in 24% of the non-SAH patients. No SAH occurred later in this group, nor in any of the other patients. It was concluded that attacks caused by a SAH cannot be distinguished from non-SAH attacks on clinical grounds. It is important that patients with their first TCH attack are investigated with CT and CSF examination to exclude SAH, meningitis or cerebral infarction. The results from this and previous studies indicate that it is not necessary to perform angiography in patients with a TCH attack, provided that no symptoms or signs indicate a possible brain lesion and a CT scan and CSF examination have not indicated SAH." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0897_85", "title": "Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome Causing Vision Loss After Endoscopic Endonasal Resection of Pituitary Adenoma.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES) is characterized by headache, altered mental status, visual changes, and seizure combined with brain imaging consistent with cerebral edema without infarction. To the best of our knowledge, we report the first case of PRES after an endoscopic endonasal resection of a pituitary macroadenoma. A 59-year-old woman was diagnosed with a pituitary macroadenoma, for which she underwent endoscopic endonasal extracapsular resection. After an uneventful initial postoperative recovery, the patient experienced sudden onset of emesis, confusion, vision loss, and severe hypertension. Emergent computed tomography showed normal postoperative changes, with no signs of hematoma or infarction. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed fluid-attenuated inversion recovery changes in the posterior lobes and thalamus, consistent with PRES. Cerebral angiography showed no vascular abnormalities. Blood pressure control was the primary treatment modality. Within 10 days, the patient was neurologically intact except for right homonymous hemianopsia. Follow-up MRI showed resolution of the PRES with an area of infarction in the left occipital lobe. At 5 years follow-up, the patient reported minimal blurred vision. MRI showed encephalomalacia at the old infarct area, and her visual field testing was unremarkable. Although rare in neurosurgical patients, PRES must be considered in patients who develop acute vision loss and mental status changes associated with hypertension after surgery, including endoscopic endonasal surgery. PRES has the potential for significant neurologic morbidity, if not treated in a timely manner. Early recognition and treatment, with blood pressure control mainly, are therefore mandatory after a surgical complication, such as a postoperative hematoma, has been ruled out." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_10672", "title": "[An unusual case of status epilepticus of simple partial seizure with an occipital lobe focus].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "A 45-year-old man developed generalized convulsion and consciousness disturbance at age 43. An X-ray CT revealed hemorrhagic infarction in the left fronto-parieto-temporal area. A conventional angiography disclosed complete occlusion of the left cortical vein. In the chronic stage of the stroke, he had incomplete right quadrantopsia, a mild right hemiparesis and sensory aphasia. The patient has had partial somatosensory seizures since February 1990. Ictal EEG recordings showed epileptogenic discharges in the left parietal region. The seizures were adequately controlled with clonazepam. Since July 27, 1993, he has become aware of blurred vision in both eyes accompanied with headache and dizziness. On August 6, he was admitted to the hospital with right homonymons hemianopsia, sensory aphsia and tonic seizures in the right hand. Ictal EEG recordings demonstrated theta waves of the left parieto-occipital region and epileptogenic discharges in the left occipital region which consisted of spikes, sharp waves and spike-wave complexes. Single photon emission computed tomography (SEPCT) images obtained during seizures showed considerable hyperperfusion in the left occipital temporal lobes, while there was hypoperfusion in the left temporo-parietal area corresponding to the lesion of the old cerebral infarction. A T2-weighted MRI scan showed an abnormal high-intensity area in the left occipital lobe that suggested brain edema. After the admission, the patient was treated with additional anticonvulsant drugs. The tonic seizures in the right hand disappeared and right homonymous hemianopsia and sensory aphasia showed gradual improvement in the next four weeks.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 196, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 47 ] ], "text": "digoxin and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) are contraindicated because they may increase the ventricular rate and cause ventricular fibrillation." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 196, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 47 ] ], "text": "digoxin and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) are contraindicated because they may increase the ventricular rate and cause ventricular fibrillation." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 111, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 24 ] ], "text": "Heart rate slowing drugs, commonly used in atrial fibrillation, are ineffective," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 385, 543 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 70 ] ], "text": "If cardioversion is not possible, drugs that prolong the refractory period of accessory connection should be used. IV procainamide or amiodarone is preferred," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Verapamil.", "2": "Digoxin.", "3": "Adenosine.", "4": "Procainamide.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0090_6111", "title": "Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome: illustrative case and brief review.", "score": 0.01951265943270512, "content": "The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is a pre-excitation syndrome manifested on the 12-lead ECG by a short PR interval (less than .12 sec), a prolonged QRS interval (greater than .10 sec), and an initial slurring of the QRS complex called a delta wave. The anatomical etiology is the presence of accessory atrioventricular conduction fibers called the Kent bundle. Patients with the WPWS may present to the emergency department with a wide spectrum of symptoms, ranging from mild palpitations, to unstable tachydysrhythmias and sudden cardiac death. WPWS should be suspected in any patient presenting with a tachydysrhythmia with a rate exceeding 200/minute. Cardioversion is indicated in the unstable patient. It is impossible to predict the effect of any particular drug without prior electrophysiologic studies in a patient with WPWS. Procainamide is the safest drug for the stable WPWS patient with a tachydysrhythmia, including wide-complex and irregular rhythms. Verapamil is a useful drug in narrow-complex, regular rhythms, although complications have been reported. Atrial fibrillation may be difficult to diagnose in a very rapid tachycardia, and the use of verapamil in WPWS with atrial fibrillation is contraindicated. Electrophysiologic studies are indicated in the WPWS patient to maximize prophylactic therapy. An illustrative case as well as pathophysiology and management of WPWS are discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en227_22992", "title": "Sodium channel blocker", "score": 0.018575851393188854, "content": "Indications for Class Ia agents are supraventricular tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia, symptomatic ventricular premature beats, and prevention of ventricular fibrillation. Procainamide can be used to treat atrial fibrillation in the setting of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, and to treat wide complex hemodynamically stable tachycardias. Oral procainamide is no longer being manufactured in the US, but intravenous formulations are still available. While procainamide and quinidine may be used in the conversion of atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm, they should only be used in conjunction with an AV node blocking agent such as digoxin or verapamil, or a beta blocker), because procainamide and quinidine can increase the conduction through the AV node and may cause 1:1 conduction of atrial fibrillation, causing an increase in the ventricular rate. Class Ia agents include quinidine, procainamide and disopyramide. Class Ib agents" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en016_75990", "title": "Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome", "score": 0.018447998646018447, "content": "People with atrial fibrillation and rapid ventricular response may be treated with amiodarone or procainamide to stabilize their heart rate. Procainamide and cardioversion are accepted treatments for conversion of tachycardia found with WPW. Amiodarone in atrial fibrillation with WPW, is linked to ventricular fibrillation, and thus may be worse than procainamide. AV node blockers should be avoided in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter with WPW or history of it; this includes adenosine, diltiazem, verapamil, other calcium channel blockers, and beta blockers. They can exacerbate the syndrome by blocking the heart's normal electrical pathway (therefore favoring 1:1 atrial to ventricle conduction through the pre-excitation pathway, potentially leading to unstable ventricular arrhythmias)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0119_983", "title": "Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome presenting in atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.017475875693336373, "content": "A case of atrial fibrillation in a patient with Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is presented. In this case, the patient's ECG initially was misread as ventricular tachycardia. The therapy was appropriate for the actual condition, although electrical cardioversion and defibrillation eventually were required. The treatment of WPW with atrial fibrillation in this case consisted of lidocaine and procainamide. Verapamil, propranolol, and digoxin, which normally are indicated for WPW with tachyarrhythmias, are contraindicated for WPW with atrial fibrillation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0569_10895", "title": "Atrial fibrillation in the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome: ECG recognition and treatment in the ED.", "score": 0.01646825396825397, "content": "Estimated to occur in 0.1% to 0.3% of the population, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW) is a condition where atrial impulses bypass the atrioventricular node and activate the ventricular myocardium directly via an accessory pathway. Clinical clues to the diagnosis include a young patient with previous episodes of palpitations, rapid heart rate, or syncope. Although several different rhythm presentations are possible, atrial fibrillation is a not infrequent dysrhythmia seen in the WPW patient. Electrocardiographic features suggestive of WPW atrial fibrillation include irregularity of the rhythm; a very rapid ventricular response; presence of a delta wave; and a wide, bizarre QRS complex. Stable patients suspected of having this condition should not receive agents that predominantly block atrioventricular conduction, but they may be treated with procainamide or ibutilide. If instability is present, electrical cardioversion is required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0132_6872", "title": "Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome and supraventricular tachycardia during infancy: management and follow-up.", "score": 0.015925925925925927, "content": "The records of 90 patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome who presented with supraventricular tachycardia in the first 4 months of life were reviewed. Among these, 63% were male. Structural heart disease was present in 20%, most commonly Ebstein's anomaly. All patients presented with a regular narrow QRS tachycardia, and pre-excitation became evident only when normal sinus rhythm was established. Only one infant had atrial flutter and none had atrial fibrillation. Type A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome was most common (49%), with heart disease occurring in only 5% of these patients. In contrast, heart disease was identified in 45% of those with type B syndrome. Initially, normal sinus rhythm was achieved in 88% of the 66 infants treated with digoxin with no deaths. Normal sinus rhythm resumed after electrical countershock in 87% of the 15 infants so treated. Maintenance digoxin therapy was used in 85 patients. The Wolff-Parkinson-White pattern disappeared in 36% of the patients. Four infants died of cardiac causes during the mean follow-up period of 6.5 years. Two of these four infants had congenital heart disease; the third, with a normal heart initially, developed ventricular fibrillation and died from a cardiomyopathy considered related to resuscitation. The remaining infant, with a normal heart, died suddenly at 1 month of age. All were receiving digoxin. A wide QRS tachycardia later appeared in three patients, all with heart disease, one of whom died.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0588_2096", "title": "Pre-excited atrial fibrillation triggered by intravenous adenosine: a commonly used drug with potentially life-threatening adverse effects.", "score": 0.015568931589304318, "content": "Although serious adverse events following adenosine administration are rare, it should only be administered in an environment where continuous ECG monitoring and emergency resuscitation equipment are available. The case report describes the development of pre-excited atrial fibrillation in a 31-year-old woman with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome following the administration of adenosine. She had previously been fit and well and was admitted to the coronary care unit with a 2 h history of regular palpitations. A 12-lead ECG showed a narrow QRS complex tachycardia. Carotid sinus massage was unsuccessful in terminating the tachycardia and the patient subsequently received rapid boluses of intravenous adenosine. The cardiac rhythm degenerated into atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation following 12 mg adenosine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0077_16392", "title": "Intravenous adenosine triphosphate during wide QRS complex tachycardia: safety, therapeutic efficacy, and diagnostic utility.", "score": 0.015483339220534558, "content": "Inappropriate administration of intravenous verapamil to patients with wide QRS complex tachycardia due to ventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs frequently because of misdiagnosis, and may precipitate a cardiac arrest. We evaluated the safety and the diagnostic and therapeutic utility of adenosine triphosphate administered to a consecutive series of 34 patients during wide QRS complex tachycardia due to a variety of mechanisms. Patients who had a hemodynamically and electrically stable, monomorphic, wide (greater than 120 msec) QRS complex tachycardia induced during an invasive cardiac electrophysiologic test were studied. Hemodynamic stability was defined by a systolic blood pressure greater than 80 mm Hg and no clinical evidence of cerebral or myocardial ischemia. Adenosine triphosphate, 20 mg, was administered as a rapid intravenous bolus via a peripheral vein during wide QRS complex tachycardia. Five surface electrocardiogram leads, at least three intracardiac electrograms, and blood pressure were monitored. Ventricular tachycardia was present in 14 patients (mean age 50.6 +/- 19 years, cycle length 326 +/- 67 msec) and adenosine triphosphate terminated the arrhythmia in one case. Ventricular tachycardia cycle length did not change. Among 10 patients with supraventricular tachycardia with mechanisms not involving the AV node (average ventricular cycle length 346 +/- 82 msec), one case of ectopic atrial tachycardia was terminated. The ventricular rate was transiently increased in patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome and atrial fibrillation (average R-R interval 351 +/- 84 msec in control and 317 +/- 82 msec after adenosine triphosphate, p less than 0.001). Reentrant tachycardias involving the AV node (cycle length 302 +/- 52 msec) terminated in seven of 10 patients. The drug was well tolerated, and no patient developed hemodynamic compromise necessitating cardioversion as a result of adenosine triphosphate. In the setting of electrophysiology testing, adenosine triphosphate is a safe agent, even when administered inappropriately during arrhythmias for which it is relatively ineffective, such as ventricular tachycardia, and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome with atrial fibrillation. It is an effective agent in terminating supraventricular tachycardia involving the AV node. Tachycardia termination following adenosine triphosphate, when used as a diagnostic test to indicate obligatory participation of the AV node, had a sensitivity of 70%, specificity of 92%, and a positive predictive accuracy of 85%. Thus, adenosine triphosphate also has diagnostic utility, but should be used after the appropriate arrhythmia diagnosis has been made based on the clinical history and analysis of the 12-lead electrocardiogram." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0024_3196", "title": "Concealed pre-excitation causing paroxysmal reciprocating atrioventricular tachycardia in infancy.", "score": 0.014928698752228164, "content": "We report 3 infants with Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome who presented with life-threatening paroxysmal reciprocating atrioventricular tachycardia in their first month of life. The diagnosis was confirmed by electrophysiological studies at ages 2--4 years, but the characteristic ECG of pre-excitation has not been shown in one patient and was first recorded at 2 and 3 years in the other two. In 2 patients the tachycardia proved refractory to treatment with digoxin alone but responded to the addition of propranalol or verapamil. One of these infants was converted to sinus rhythm by DC countershock, giving time to reconsider his treatment with drugs. Digoxin is a well-tried treatment acting by slowing AV conduction and interrupting the re-entry circuit. However, it may act more slowly than other agents that act on the AV node--such as intravenous verapamil. Our patients illustrate the value of long follow-up as the diagnosis of WPW syndrome could not be made in infancy. Many infants who present with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia in infancy may have an inapparent bypass and be examples of the WPW syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0848_10029", "title": "Diagnosis and Management of Common Types of Supraventricular Tachycardia.", "score": 0.01441389843451699, "content": "Supraventricular tachycardia refers to rapid rhythms that originate and are sustained in atrial or atrioventricular node tissue above the bundle of His. The condition is caused by reentry phenomena or automaticity at or above the atrioventricular node, and includes atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia, atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia, and atrial tachycardia. Most persons with these tachyarrhythmias have structurally normal hearts. Sudden onset of an accelerated heart rate can cause palpitations, light-headedness, chest discomfort, anxiety, dyspnea, or fatigue. The history is important to elicit episodic symptoms because physical examination and electrocardiography findings may be normal. A Holter monitor or event recorder may be needed to confirm the diagnosis. Vagal maneuvers may terminate the arrhythmia; if this fails, adenosine is effective in the acute setting. Calcium channel blockers (diltiazem or verapamil) or beta blockers (metoprolol) can be used acutely or as long-term therapy. Class Ic antiarrhythmics (flecainide or propafenone) can be used long-term. Class Ia antiarrhythmics (quinidine, procainamide, or disopyramide) are used less often because of their modest effectiveness and adverse effects. Class III antiarrhythmics (amiodarone, sotalol, or dofetilide) are effective, but have potential adverse effects and should be administered in consultation with a cardiologist. Catheter ablation has a success rate of 95% and recurrence rate of less than 5%, and causes inadvertent heart block in less than 1% of patients. It is the preferred treatment for symptomatic patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_13035", "title": "[The natural history of 270 cases of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome in a survey of the general population].", "score": 0.013981675892345866, "content": "Among 226,464 ambulatory subjects who underwent medical check-ups over a 15-year period, 270 were found to have Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (1.2 case in 1,000). The syndrome was more frequent in men (181 cases, 1.4 p. 1,000) than in women (89 cases, 0.9 p. 1,000). 222 subjects were aged from 20 to 49 years (1.4 p. 1,000) and only 48 were between 50 and 80 years of age (0.7 p. 1,000). 197 subjects were re-evaluated: 119 (60.4 p. 100) complained of palpitations and 78 (39.6 p. 100) were asymptomatic. Palpitations began at all ages, even after 50 years, and usually proceeded in short attacks lasting a few seconds or minutes, with a mean recurrence rate of 5 attacks per annum (76.4 p. 100). This constant pattern sometimes was interrupted for months or years. Conversely, in a minority of cases (23.5 p. 100) an unexpected accentuation occurred which lasted for hours or days. As years went by, palpitations tented to decrease and disappear. The pre-excitation area and its degree of fusion with the normal ventricular activation had no influence on the origin and frequency of palpitations. In contrast, sustained tachycardia seemed to be more frequent in cases with lateral and posterior left pre-excitation. Among 270 subjects with pre-excitation syndrome, 7 died including 4 whose death was not due to a cardiac disease, 2 who died suddenly and 1 who succumbed to ventricular tachycardia after a road accident. None of these patients had an associated heart disease. These last 3 cases might contribute to alter the usually favourable prognosis of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_4120", "title": "Broad complex atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.013524861878453039, "content": "The management of broad complex atrial fibrillation is complex and may be a source of morbidity and mortality if not correctly recognized and treated appropriately. We present a case series of 3 patients who were managed in our emergency department after complaints of palpitations. They presented with varying forms of rapid atrial fibrillation that had broad complexes on the 12-lead electrocardiogram. The first 2 patients were treated with calcium channel blockers for rate control, and treatment was complicated by rapid arrhythmia that required cardioversion. The final patient was correctly treated with intravenous procainamide. The diagnosis of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome was eventually made in all these patients. Broad complex atrial fibrillation must be treated with respect. Cases with rapid ventricular rate can decompensate from mismanagement due to poor ability to recognize the possibility of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome in such patients. Procainamide forms the cornerstone of treatment in hemodynamically stable rapid broad complex atrial fibrillation of unknown origin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_2585", "title": "Diagnosis and management of arrhythmias associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.", "score": 0.013376537055500166, "content": "Because of the emergency nature of the arrhythmias associated with WPW syndrome, nurses are often called upon for diagnosis and intervention in critical settings. In such cases the nurse's understanding of mechanisms, ECG recognition, and emergency treatment guarantees the patient the best possible outcome, not only in the critical setting, but in the long term as well. The most common arrhythmias of WPW syndrome are PSVT and atrial fibrillation. In PSVT a differential diagnosis is made on the ECG between (1) CMT using the AV node anterogradely and an accessory pathway retrogradely and (2) AV nodal reentry tachycardia. Helpful clues are location of the P' wave, presence of QRS alternans, the initiating P'R interval, and presence of aberrancy. Atrial fibrillation with an accessory pathway has the morphology of VT but is differentiated because the rhythm is irregular and the rate is more than 200 beats per minute. Emergency treatment consists of blocking the accessory pathway with procainamide. Emergency treatment for both types of PSVT consists of breaking the reentry circuit at the AV node (eg, vagal maneuver, adenosine, or verapamil). Procainamide can also be used to block the retrograde fast pathway in the AV node and to terminate CMT by blocking the accessory pathway. Symptomatic patients with accessory pathways are referred for evaluation and possible radio-frequency ablation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0132_18655", "title": "Usefulness of invasive and non-invasive electrophysiologic studies in the selection of antiarrhythmic drugs for the patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmia.", "score": 0.01332336645853487, "content": "A comparison of the effects of several antiarrhythmic agents was made in a study of 70 patients - 15 with manifest Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome, 17 with concealed WPW syndrome, 18 with AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia, 14 with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and 6 with paroxysmal atrial flutter - employing intracardiac stimulation and esophageal pacing. For the termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, intravenous administration of verapamil or aprindine was more effective than that of disopyramide or procainamide. In AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia, verapamil was the most effective for termination. In the manifest WPW syndrome, disopyramide or aprindine was indicated especially for patients with the accessory pathways of the short antegrade refractory period, because these drugs lengthened the refractory period of the accessory pathways. For the purpose of converting atrial fibrillation or flutter to the sinus rhythm, type IA drugs such as disopyramide were indicated. However, verapamil was effective for slowing down the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation or flutter except in cases of manifest WPW syndrome. A 6-month follow-up study showed that oral administration of verapamil was also useful for putting a stop to the attacks in 24 out of 32 patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, while oral disopyramide prevented the recurrence of atrial fibrillation in only 4 of 10 patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0010_6922", "title": "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome--current views.", "score": 0.012635920509936258, "content": "The Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is an important clinical entity because of frequent recurrences of very rapid tachyarrhythmias. The electrocardiographic finding of the WPW syndrome often mimicks pseudo diaphragmatic (inferior) myocardial infarction which should not be misinterpreted. The most important diagnostic criterion is recognition of a delta wave; the short P-R interval or broad QRS complex may not be present in every case. The mechanism for the tachycardia is considered to be a reentry phenomenon via anomalous and normal atrioventricllar (A-V) pathways. The drug of choice for the treatment of regular supraventricular (reciprocating) tachycardia with narrow QRS complexes, which is the most common arrhythmia in the WPW syndrome, is propranolol. Digitalis is almost equally effective in this case. For tachyarrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation or flutter with anomalous conduction, intravenously-administered lidocaine is considered to be the drug of choice. Procainamide or quinidine is also frequently used under this circumstance with excellent therapeutic result. Many patients with the WPW syndrome require long-term maintenance drug therapy (propranolol, digitalis or quinidine in most cases). In urgent clinical situations, direct current (DC) shock should be applied immediately. In selected patients with refractory tachyarrhythmias, the use of an artificial pacemaker or surgical approach may be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en016_75983", "title": "Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome", "score": 0.0125449575600633, "content": "Diagnosis WPW is commonly diagnosed on the basis of the electrocardiogram in an asymptomatic individual. In this case, it is manifested as a delta wave, which is a slurred upstroke in the QRS complex that is associated with a short PR interval. The short PR interval and slurring of the QRS complex are reflective of the impulse making it to the ventricles early (via the accessory pathway) without the usual delay experienced in the AV node. If a person with WPW experiences episodes of atrial fibrillation, the ECG shows a rapid polymorphic wide-complex tachycardia (without torsades de pointes). This combination of atrial fibrillation and WPW is considered dangerous, and most antiarrhythmic drugs are contraindicated." }, { "id": "article-27093_13", "title": "Pharmacological Cardioversion -- Technique or Treatment -- Irregular Wide Complex or Polymorphic Tachycardia", "score": 0.012283693318176078, "content": "This rhythm either has an irregular rhythm or QRS complexes that are irregular in shape. This may be from atrial fibrillation combined with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, torsades de pointes and ventricular fibrillation. If the rhythm is Wolff-Parkinson-White, this condition can be worsened by the use of nodal blocking agents and a cardiology consult should be obtained for people in this rhythm. Procainamide or amiodarone may be attempted. However, this patient may need electrical cardioversion. If the rhythm is determined to be torsades de pointes, the patient should be treated with an infusion of IV magnesium, 2g to 4 g over 5 to 10 minutes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_5014", "title": "[Dangerous arrhythmias].", "score": 0.01224737556237949, "content": "The usual frequent tachyarrhythmias well known to the specialists in internal medicine, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, are not discussed in this publication; nor are the bradycardias connected with the sick sinus syndrome or with atrioventricular block of higher degrees (with one exception). In the first section a stratification of the risk after myocardial infarction is presented including the therapeutic implications. Severely reduced left ventricular function is of most negative prognostic value. After the poor results of the CAST study, which revealed a threefold greater mortality of patients with myocardial infarction and severely impaired left ventricular function under treatment with some antiarrhythmic agents of class I (Vaughan Williams), compared to patients on placebo, cardiologists have resorted to beta-blocking agents again or, in patients with severely reduced left ventricular function, to amiodarone (Cordarone), based on preliminary results of current amiodarone studies. For selected patients, implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) devices seem to have a promising future. In the second part some rare and persistent arrhythmias are mentioned that may induce heart failure in an otherwise healthy heart, such as ectopic atrial tachycardia, atrioventricular junctional tachycardia with RP &gt; PR, His bundle tachycardia and idiopathic ventricular tachycardia (this arising only in infants). In the third section some infrequent forms of tachycardia are discussed that may be sporadically encountered in a medical office. Ventricular tachycardia of the type \"torsades de pointes\" is associated with on a prolonged QT or QTU time in the ECG and is mainly due to drugs (especially antiarrhythmic agents). The therapy consists in withdrawal of the drug and may include magnesium intravenously and even a temporary pacemaker. The tachycardias associated to the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome have gained more practical importance since it has become possible to localize the accessory pathway involved by mapping with subsequent interruption by surgery or ablation. In atrial fibrillation with an ECG pattern of delta waves at the beginning of QRS complexes, digitalis and verapamil are contraindicated since they may induce ventricular fibrillation. The Mobitz type is one, and the most rare, form of the three atrioventricular blocks of second degree. It is almost always combined with an infra-His-bundle conduction disturbance in the conducted beats, and is an immediate precursor of complete atrioventricular block. Patients with the Mobitz block usually need a pacemaker. Finally, two case reports are presented to show that superficial and incorrect diagnosis of an arrhythmia is followed by incorrect and dangerous therapy.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0311_20812", "title": "[The clinical features and long-term follow-up of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter complicating Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome].", "score": 0.012237278761061947, "content": "Twenty six patients (20 male, 6 female, aged 50 +/- 14) with recurrent episodes of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter (Af/AF) associated with WPW syndrome were retrospectively studied and followed. During Af/AF, 17 patients showed ventricular preexcitation. Of them, 15 patients had hypotention, 8 syncope, 4 precipitating acute heart failure and 4 spontanous degenerated into ventricular fibrillation. Hypotention was found only in 2 of the 9 patients without pre-excited ventricular beats. The mean shortest prexcited R-R intervals of the former were shorter (247 +/- 47 ms) and the average ventricular rates (198 +/- 43 beat/min) were faster than those of the latter (393 +/- 80 ms &amp; 144 +/- 22 beat/min) respectively (P &lt; 0.01). When pre-excited Af/AF occurred, both cardioversion and antiarrhythmic agents of class I and II had marked effect in terminating the Af/AF or slowing pre-exicted ventricular responses. Digitalis and verapamil caused deterioration in the clinical condition of 6 patients (4 with hypotention, one syncope, and one ventricular fibrillation). Management of patients for WPW complicating Af/AF without pre-excited QRS was the same as for the ordinary Af/AF. Over a period of 53 +/- 44 months of follow-up, 5 died (3 of sudden death, one of heart failure, and one of noncardiac cause) in the group with preexcited Af/AF, but all of the patients without preexcited QRS during Af/AF were alive. Conclusion, clinical severity, response to the treatment, and long-term prognosis of patients of WPW with preexcited Af/AF are different from those without." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_922", "title": "Adenosine: a clinical experience and comparison with verapamil for the termination of supraventricular tachycardias.", "score": 0.012120352978700785, "content": "The efficacy and side-effects of adenosine for treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias were compared to verapamil therapy in patients presenting to the emergency room. Clinical variables and the time interval from the initiation of treatment to the termination of the supraventricular tachycardia, as well as the time from the initial effective dose of medication to the termination of supraventricular tachycardia were compared for adenosine and verapamil. Adenosine was given to a total of 44 patients, 16 patients in the electrophysiology laboratory, and 28 patients in the emergency room for evaluation and termination of their tachycardia. In the electrophysiology laboratory, 7 patients had AV node reentry, 5 had Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, 2 of whom had atrial flutter and fibrillation but no bypass tract reentry, 1 had concealed bypass tract reentry, 1 had Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome, 1 had intraatrial reentry, and 1 had an automatic atrial tachycardia. Twenty-five patients received adenosine in the emergency room and 3 patients in the hospital for 31 episodes of supraventricular arrhythmias. In the emergency room, 11 patients had supraventricular tachycardia due to AV node reentry, 3 had Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, 6 had atrial flutter or intra-atrial re-entry, 2 had ventricular tachycardia, and 3 had sinus tachycardia. In the hospital, 2 patients had atrial flutter and one had sinus tachycardia. The group of 14 patients with supraventricular tachycardia due to Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or AV node reentry presenting in the emergency room were compared in a retrospective manner to the patients treated with standard verapamil therapy with respect to time from initiation of therapy to termination of supraventricular tachycardia and time from effective dose of medication to the termination of supraventricular tachycardia, as well as side-effects. There was no significant difference between the two groups with respect to clinical variables. Adenosine converted 18 of 18 episodes of supraventricular tachycardia in 14 patients 24.6 +/- 9.6 seconds from the administration of the effective dose (0.104 +/- 0.024 mg/kg) and a mean of 4.4 +/- 2.0 minutes from the initiation of therapy. Verapamil converted 29 of 32 episodes of supraventricular tachycardia in 20 patients, 10.9 +/- 7 minutes from the administration of the effective dose, and a mean of 16.8 +/- 20 minutes from the initiation of therapy using a mean of 8.4 +/- 3.4 mg of IV verapamil.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0227_15674", "title": "Pre-excitation syndrome in infants and children. Effect of digoxin, verapamil, and amiodarone.", "score": 0.01206080959087134, "content": "Clinical and electrocardiographic findings for 30 patients with the pre-excitation syndrome are described together with details of treatment. Nineteen (63%) were younger than 2 years, 14 of whom were under 2 months. Sixteen infants and 7 children (77%) presented with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, 14 (61%) of whom had the electrocardiographic pattern of type A Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. During paroxysmal bouts the QRS complex was normal in 21 patients and wide in two. Six (20%) patients had congenital heart disease often associated with WPW syndrome type B. Seventeen patients were treated with either digoxin or verapamil intravenously to stop tachyarrhythmias. Verapamil was more effective due to the immediate response and lack of adverse effects. The tachyarrhythmias resolved in all the patients and in some of them the WPW pattern resolved later indicating maturation of the conduction tissue with loss of the accessory pathways. Verapamil provides a rapid and safe form of treatment for conversion of tachyarrhythmias since it has no effect on the accessory pathways. Oral amiodarone prevents recurrent tachyarrhythmias resistant to other treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en056_29499", "title": "Sinus tachycardia", "score": 0.011977373339891784, "content": "Diagnosis Sinus tachycardia is usually apparent on an ECG, but if the heart rate is above 140 bpm the P wave may be difficult to distinguish from the previous T wave and one may confuse it with a paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia or atrial flutter with a 2:1 block. Ways to distinguish the three are: Vagal maneuvers (such as carotid sinus massage or Valsalva's maneuver) to slow the rate and identification of P waves administer AV blockers (e.g., adenosine, verapamil) to identify atrial flutter with 2:1 block Heart sounds should also be listened to. ECG characteristics Rate: Greater than or equal to 100. Rhythm: Regular. P waves: Upright, in leads I, II and aVL, and negative in lead aVR; each P wave is followed by a QRS and T waves Inappropriate sinus tachycardia" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_88704", "title": "AV nodal reentrant tachycardia", "score": 0.011765922249793219, "content": "Diagnosis If the symptoms are present while the person is receiving medical care (e.g., in an emergency department), an ECG may show typical changes that confirm the diagnosis ie, QRS duration <120 ms, unless a heart block is suspected. If the palpitations are recurrent, a doctor may request a Holter monitor (portable, wearable ECG recorder). Again, this will show the diagnosis if the recorder is attached at the time of the symptoms. In rare cases, disabling but infrequent episodes of palpitations may require the insertion of a small device under the skin that continuously record heart activity (an implantable loop recorder). All these ECG-based technologies also enable the distinction between AVNRT and other abnormal fast heart rhythms such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, sinus tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia and tachyarrhythmias related to Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, all of which may have symptoms that are similar to AVNRT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0077_16629", "title": "Anti-arrhythmic surgery for atrioventricular junctional and atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia--a report of six cases.", "score": 0.010990338164251209, "content": "Since 15th March 1989, six patients with recurrent supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) had antiarrhythmic surgery performed. There were 4 males and 2 females, ages ranged from 23 to 62 years (mean 41 years). Two of these patients with the Wolff Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome also had syncope. Five of these patients had atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT) involving the bypass tracts. Two patients with the WPW syndrome had persistent antegrade conduction, two had intermittent conduction and the last patient had no antegrade conduction via the bypass tract. The bypass tracts were localised at the left free wall in all the five patients. Only one patient had atrioventricular junctional re-entrant tachycardia (AVJRT) of the slow-fast type. The indications for surgery for these patients include failed medical therapy, \"dangerous\" arrhythmias and patient's preference. All the patients had surgery performed using the endocardial dissection technique on the cardioplegic heart. There were no perioperative mortality and morbidity. All the patients were discharged within 2 weeks. To date, none of the patients had clinical recurrence of SVT and only one patient remained in atrial fibrillation and is on digoxin. In conclusion, antiarrhythmic surgery should be considered for patients with \"symptomatic\" palpitations as it is curative with a resumption to normal life." }, { "id": "article-31383_22", "title": "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.010975740661227994, "content": "Pharmacological treatment of a hemodynamically stable acute tachyarrhythmia suspected to involve an accessory pathway must be based on the type of arrhythmia and accessory pathway present as certain pharmacological treatments may be detrimental or even fatal. Pathways that are not involved in the initiation and maintenance of an arrhythmia leading to AVRT will conduct an arrhythmia generated elsewhere in the heart. In the setting of an accessory pathway capable of rapid antegrade conduction, rapid atrial arrhythmias can be conducted to the ventricle inducing rapid ventricular rates that may deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest. AV nodal blockade can induce this scenario if given in the setting of a bystander accessory pathway and rapid atrial rhythm, as seen in atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or other atrial tachycardias. These arrhythmias will be wide complex tachycardia and may be regular or irregular, depending on the underlying arrhythmia. Without electrophysiologic study, antidromic AVRT will be difficult to diagnose definitively and should, therefore, be managed similarly with avoidance of nodal blocking agents. The pharmacologic treatment of choice for antidromic AVRT is procainamide. In the setting of preexcitation and atrial fibrillation, AV nodal blockade is contraindicated. Procainamide and ibutilide are agents of choice in atrial fibrillation with preexcitation on ECG. Amiodarone has been used in WPW pattern with atrial fibrillation, but some evidence suggests that it is less effective and has a higher risk of precipitating ventricular fibrillation. If there remains any doubt about the diagnosis of a wide complex tachycardia, it is recommended that it be managed as suspected ventricular tachycardia. [16] [18] [19] [23] [24]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_37472", "title": "Supraventricular tachycardia", "score": 0.010973630831643003, "content": "Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is an umbrella term for fast heart rhythms arising from the upper part of the heart. This is in contrast to the other group of fast heart rhythms - ventricular tachycardia, which start within the lower chambers of the heart. There are four main types of SVT: atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome. The symptoms of SVT include palpitations, feeling of faintness, sweating, shortness of breath, and/or chest pain. These abnormal rhythms start from either the atria or atrioventricular node. They are generally due to one of two mechanisms: re-entry or increased automaticity. Diagnosis is typically by electrocardiogram (ECG), holter monitor, or event monitor. Blood tests may be done to rule out specific underlying causes such as hyperthyroidism or electrolyte abnormalities." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_1180", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.010488505747126436, "content": "If unstable, perform synchronized electrical cardioversion starting at 100 J. If stable, control rate with diltiazem or β-blockers and anticoagulate if duration is > 48 hours. Elective cardioversion may be performed if duration is < 48 hours; otherwise, the clinician must anticoagulate or perform TEE prior to conversion. Do not give nodal blockers if there is evidence of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (δ waves) on ECG. If symptomatic, give atropine and consider dopamine, epinephrine, and glucagon. If Mobitz II or third-degree heart block is present, place transcutaneous pacemaker pads, and have atropine at the bedside. A temporary transvenous pacemaker may be required for hemodynamically unstable patients. a In all cases, disruptions of CPR should be minimized. After a shock or administration of a drug, CPR should be resumed immedi ately, and fve cycles of CPR should be given before checking for a pulse or rhythm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0627_13629", "title": "Rapid and low-cost method to prove the nature of no documented tachycardia in children and teenagers without pre-excitation syndrome.", "score": 0.010464640959258755, "content": "Aims Symptoms in children are often difficult to interpret. The purpose of this study was to report the results of transoesophageal electrophysiological study (EPS) performed in children complaining of sudden onset tachycardia with normal non-invasive studies. Methods and results Eighty-two children and teenagers (mean age 15 +/- 3 years) presented with suspected but no documented paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). ECG was normal. Non-invasive studies were negative; 23 children had syncope with tachycardias. They underwent transoesophageal EPS in our out-patient clinic. The mean duration of transoesophageal EPS was 11 +/- 5 min. Electrophysiological study was negative in 25 children. AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia could be induced in 37 children, 11 of them associated with syncope. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW) was diagnosed in five children in which atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia was inducible. Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia due to a concealed AP was induced in 14 children. Verapamil-sensitive ventricular tachycardia was induced in one patient. Factors associated with tachycardia inducibility were an older age (15.5 +/- 2 vs. 14 +/- 4 years) (P &lt; 0.05) and the absence of syncope (81 vs. 52%) (P &lt; 0.05). During a mean follow-up of 3 +/- 1 year, no patient with negative EPS developed documented tachycardia. In 17 children with inducible SVT, radiofrequency ablation of the re-entrant circuit was subsequently performed. Conclusion Transoesophageal EPS is a fast method for proving the nature of paroxysmal tachycardia in children and teenagers presenting with normal ECG and for demonstrating WPW syndrome not visible on standard ECG. The negative predictive value of transoesophageal EPS for the diagnosis of SVT was 100%." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_20", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.010229885057471265, "content": "seen after a (AVRT) node and the normal QRS. atrium through a bypass tract. Seen in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia Rapid ectopic pacemaker in the atrium (not sinus node). Palpitations, shortness of breath, angina, syncope, lightheadedness. Rate > 100 bpm; P wave with an unusual axis before each normal QRS. Adenosine can be used to unmask underlying atrial activity. T AB LE 2.1 -3. Ventricular Tachyarrhythmias" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_18035", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010186907609177075, "content": "In general, these should be managed as ventricular tachycardia until proven otherwise. If the tachycardia is regular and the patient is stable, a trial of intravenous adenosine is reasonable. Very irregular wide-complex tachycardia should be managed with cardioversion, intravenous procainamide, or ibutilide, which presumes preexcited atrial fibrillation or flutter (see above). If the diagnosis of PSVT with aberrancy is unequivocal, as may be the case in patients with prior episodes, treatment for PSVT is reasonable. In all cases, continuous ECG monitoring should be implemented, and emergency cardioversion and defibrillation should be available." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_54011", "title": "Ebstein's anomaly", "score": 0.010049633888643175, "content": "Risk factors An enlargement of the aorta may occur; an increased risk of abnormality is seen in babies of women taking lithium during the first trimester of pregnancy (though some have questioned this) and in those with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Diagnosis Treatment Medication Ebstein's cardio physiology typically presents as an (antidromic) AV reentrant tachycardia with associated pre-excitation. In this setting, the preferred medication treatment agent is procainamide. Since AV-blockade may promote conduction over the accessory pathway, drugs such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are contraindicated." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en243_24569", "title": "Syncope (medicine)", "score": 0.009937137330754353, "content": "Two major groups of arrhythmias are bradycardia and tachycardia. Bradycardia can be caused by heart blocks. Tachycardias include SVT (supraventricular tachycardia) and VT (ventricular tachycardia). SVT does not cause syncope except in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Ventricular tachycardia originate in the ventricles. VT causes syncope and can result in sudden death. Ventricular tachycardia, which describes a heart rate of over 100 beats per minute with at least three irregular heartbeats as a sequence of consecutive premature beats, can degenerate into ventricular fibrillation, which is rapidly fatal without cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and defibrillation. Long QT syndrome can cause syncope when it sets off ventricular tachycardia or torsades de pointes. The degree of QT prolongation determines the risk of syncope. Brugada syndrome also commonly presents with syncope secondary to arrhythmia." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 256, 409 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 67 ] ], "text": "clearly the indication to perform a sweat chlorine (to rule out FQP) are the HIPOnatremic dehydrations and not the hypernatremic ones as the answer says." } }

{ "1": "Delayed meconium evacuation.", "2": "Salty taste of the skin.", "3": "Isolation of secretions of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "4": "Deterioration/detention of the weight curve.", "5": "Hypernatremic dehydration." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0269_12339", "title": "[Cystic fibrosis revealed by dehydration with hypochloronatremic alkalosis in 3 infants and a neonate].", "score": 0.019704911667637354, "content": "BACKGROUND--Acute dehydration with hypochloronatremic metabolic alkalosis is a classical complication of cystic fibrosis of the pancreas. Its progressive development as a revealing manifestation of the disease is rare as is its appearance in newborns. Case n. 1.--A 13 month-old girl was admitted because of status epilepticus. She was severely dehydrated (20% weight loss) but had normal diuresis. Investigations showed metabolic alkalosis, hypochloronatremia and hypokalemia. All the manifestations disappeared within 5 days with treatment but three sweat tests were abnormal. Case n. 2.--A 7 month-old girl was admitted because she suffered from progressive loss of weight (10%); she was dehydrated and had metabolic alkalosis plus hypochloronatremia, but her diuresis was normal. Two sweat tests were abnormal. Case n. 3.--A 4.5 month-old boy was admitted because he suffered from severe (12%) weight loss. His diuresis was normal despite dehydration; metabolic alkalosis and hypochloronatremia were found. Two subsequent sweat tests were abnormal. Case n. 4.--A 3 day-old girl was admitted suffering from meconium ileus. Two initial mechanism analysis for protein were abnormal. She had a cardiorespiratory arrest on the 13th day of life, when she had lost 14% of her birth weight; investigations showed metabolic alkalosis, hyponatremia (83 mEq/l), hypochloremia (45 mEq/l); kalemia was 5.9 mEq/l. Peritoneal dialysis was needed to correct hydroelectrolytic changes. A sweat test performed on the 26th day of life was also abnormal. Investigations performed during the periods of dehydration, and repeated later, showed transient functional kidney failure. None of the four patients had any respiratory or gastrointestinal clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis. CONCLUSION--Metabolic alkalosis with hypochloronatremia plus progressive, severe dehydration in infants whose diuresis is paradoxically normal must be followed by examination for cystic fibrosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0421_22588", "title": "Clinical profile and frequency of delta f508 mutation in Indian children with cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.01896117900790798, "content": "To document clinical profile of cystic fibrosis (CF) in Indian children and the prevalence of delta F508 mutation in these patients. Observational study. Pediatric chest clinic in an urban tertiary care center in north India. July 1995 to June 2002. Clinical features of 120 children diagnosed as CF by quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis were recorded. A polymerase chain reaction based test for identification of delta F 508 mutation was performed on all children. Out of 3500 new cases registered in Pediatric Chest Clinic during this period 120, (3.5%) children were diagnosed as CF. Origin of parents of patients traced from almost all the States of north India. Family history suggestive of CF was present in 41 (34%) and consanguinity in 19 (61%) patients. Common clinical manifestations at the time of presentation included recurrent or persistent pneumonia in 118 (98%), failure to thrive in 108 (90%), malabsorption in 96 (80%), history of meconium ileus in 10 (8%), and rectal prolapse was present in 16 (13%). History of salt craving, salty taste on kissing and skin rashes was present in 5 patients each. 49(41%) patients were severely malnourished. Nasal polyposis was present in 5 (4%) patients. Examination of chest revealed evidence of hyperinflation in 100 (83%), kyphosis 20 (17%), crepitations 110 (92%), wheezing 40 (25%) and bronchial breathing in 20 (17%) patients. Average clinical CF scores were 51 (95%; CI 20-80). 48 (40%) patients had a CF score of LT40. Pseudomonas spp was cultured from respiratory secretions of 51 (42%), Staphylococcus spp in 18 (15%), Klebsiella spp in 8 (7%) and Hemophilus influenzae in 2 (2%) patients. Delta F508 mutation was positive in 45 chromosomes out of 240 tested. Patients originated from Pakistan had more frequency of delta F508 mutations. Cystic fibrosis does occur in Indian children; clinical features are classical. Diagnosis is often delayed and the disease is advanced in most patients at the time of diagnosis. Frequency of Delta F508 mutation is 19% i.e., less than that seen in Caucasian population. There is need to create awareness about occurrence of CF in Indian children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0831_1371", "title": "Meconium ileus in newborns with cystic fibrosis - results of treatment in the group of patients operated on in the years 2000-2014.", "score": 0.018637309292649097, "content": "Evaluation of diagnostic and treatment procedures in children with cystic fibrosis (CF) operated on because of meconium ileus (MI). The authors retrospectively reviewed the documentation of 10 CF newborn patients operated on in the years 2000-2014 because of MI. In prenatal ultrasound (US) examinations, suspicion of bowel abnormalities was raised in 2 cases, even though all the 10 mothers had a minimum of 3 US examinations during pregnancy. The mean gestational age of the newborns was 39.2 weeks - 36-41 weeks), their mean birth weight 3472g (2560-4550 g). Family history of CF was positive in two patients. Genetic testing was performed in all the children operated on. In all the children operated on, mutations in both alleles of the CFTR gene were found. Five patients were F508del homozygotic, 4 were heterozygotic for this mutation, one had another mutation. Sweat tests were positive in all the children. Abdominal distention was observed in 9 patients, vomiting and retention of gastric contents in 5. In 8 children meconium was not passed at all. 2 children passed a small amount of viscid meconium. Before the operation, rectal saline washouts were done in 5 newborns. Five patients were operated on during the first day of life, four on the second day and one on the third day of life. Intra-operatively a simple form of MI was diagnosed in 8 cases, a complicated form in 2 cases. In patients with the simple form of MI, a Bishop-Koop stoma was created after the evacuation of meconium. Two of these children needed a resection of some centimetres of dilated terminal ileum with doubtful viability. In newborns with the complicated form of MI, the treatment was individualized, always with stoma formation. The time of postoperative meconium evacuation through enterostomy ranged from 6 to 15 days. Enteral feeding was started on average on the 9th day postoperatively. The mean hospital stay was 22.9 days. In 8 children the stoma was taken out at the mean age of 19.4 months, in one patient the stoma closed spontaneously. No disturbances in electrolyte balance or excessive fluid loss, nor any body weight deficits connected with the stoma were observed. There were no complications during stoma closure. All the patients are alive. The time of observation ranges from 7 to 146 months (average 95 months). All the patients currently present respiratory symptoms, have pancreatic insufficiency and need pancreatic enzyme supplementation. Seven do not, however, have body weight and height deficits. All the children with weight and height deficits have abnormal liver function tests. During observation two patients had MI equivalent symptoms, which was resolved by conservative treatment. 1. In every case of intra-operative diagnosis of MI, it is necessary to perform genetic testing and sweat tests to confirm or exclude CF. 2. Mechanical intra-operative decompression of the bowel from inspissated meconium with a temporary stoma, which makes the continuation of bowel decompression possible in the postoperative period, is an effective treatment in children with MI. 3. The Bishop-Koop stoma, permitting the passage through the whole gastrointestinal tract, is a safe option. In our material, no complications of this stoma, such as stoma care problems or dyselectrolithemia were observed. 4. The decision of stoma closure in children with MI and CF should be delayed until the moment of introducing a broadened diet and should be undertaken together with a pediatrician who is a specialist in CF therapy. ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0506_11812", "title": "[Cystic fibrosis at a Brazilian center of excellence: clinical and laboratory characteristics of 104 patients and their association with genotype and disease severity].", "score": 0.016391257995735608, "content": "To identify the clinical, laboratory and radiographic characteristics of the cystic fibrosis patients under care at Universidade Estadual de Campinas (UNICAMP) in the last decade of the twentieth century, and to investigate the association of these characteristics with genotype and severity of the disease as measured by the Shwachman score. Descriptive, retrospective and cross-sectional study of the patients assisted at UNICAMP hospital's Cystic Fibrosis Clinic from July 1990 to July 2000. One hundred and four patients were studied; 53.8% male; 93.3% Caucasian; 89.4% presented with respiratory symptoms; 59.6% presented with digestive symptoms; 5.8% had meconium ileus; 4.8% had diabetes. The mean age at onset of symptoms was 3 months, and the mean age at diagnosis was 2 years and 4 months. At diagnosis, 69.9 and 56.6% of the patients had weight and height below 10th percentile, respectively; in 10.6%, sweat chloride was &lt; 60 mEq/l. Staphylococcus aureus was found in 80.2%, Pseudomonas aeruginosa in 76%, and Burkholderia cepacia in 5.2%. DeltaF508 homozygosis was observed in 18.75%, whereas 62.50% of the patients were DeltaF508 heterozygous. A moderate/severe Shwachman score was found in 15.7%. Eighteen patients died in that period (17.3%). The mean age at death was 7 years and 8 months; median survival after diagnosis was 18 years and 4 months. Patients who have at least one DeltaF508 mutation have more frequent alterations in fecal fat levels when compared to patients who do not have this mutation (p &lt; 0.05). There were no differences in any parameter between DeltaF508 homozygous and heterozygous patients. The clinical and laboratory characteristics of the 104 patients studied were similar to the characteristics described for patients in other countries. Exceptions are the higher age at diagnosis and lower survival. Our results support the recommendation for early diagnosis and the need for more treatment opportunities in the population of cystic fibrosis patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0527_18639", "title": "Complications associated with symptomatic diagnosis in infants with cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.016145371660124096, "content": "To determine the complication and hospitalization rates in children with cystic fibrosis (CF) by mode of diagnosis. Newly diagnosed cases of CF were identified from the Cystic Fibrosis Foundation National Patient Registry for 2000 through 2002. Cases were categorized as symptomatic diagnosis (SYMP; n = 1760), prenatal diagnosis (PRE; n = 66), diagnosis by means of newborn screening (NBS; n = 256), or presentation with meconium ileus (MI; n = 484). Complications were defined for the calendar year of diagnosis as stunting (length &lt;3rd percentile), wasting (weight &lt;3rd percentile), positive Pseudomonas aeruginosa culture results, and hypoelectrolytemia or edema and hypoproteinemia. For infants (age &lt;12 months), 70% of patients with SYMP had at least 1 complication or hospitalization, compared with 29% for patients with NBS diagnosis (P &lt; .0001). Cross-sectional data for 2002 showed that patients with SYMP had significantly more complications compared with patients with NBS diagnosis as old as 20 years. When compared with patients with NBS diagnosis, patients with SYMP had increased mucoid P aeruginosa (P &lt; .05) and decreased pulmonary function as assessed by means of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (P &lt; .01). SYMP of CF is associated with increased complication rates throughout infancy, childhood, and adolescence when compared with NBS diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_125329", "title": "Cystic fibrosis", "score": 0.015756302521008403, "content": "Signs and symptoms Cystic fibrosis typically manifests early in life. Newborns and infants with cystic fibrosis tend to have frequent, large, greasy stools (a result of malabsorption) and are underweight for their age. 15–20% of newborns have their small intestine blocked by meconium, often requiring surgery to correct. Newborns occasionally have neonatal jaundice due to blockage of the bile ducts. Children with cystic fibrosis lose excessive salt in their sweat, and parents often notice salt crystallizing on the skin, or a salty taste when they kiss their child." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0856_8634", "title": "[Cystic fibrosis: A report of 33 pediatric Tunisian cases].", "score": 0.0153276955602537, "content": "The frequency of cystic fibrosis is unknown in Tunisia, regarding the limited number of reported surveys and patients. to determine the clinical characteristics, outcome and genetic data of cystic fibrosis in Tunisian pediatric patients. Cases of cystic fibrosis managed at pediatric departments of Tunis, during 15 years (1997-2012), were reviewed. 33 children (23 males and 10 females) were enrolled. The Onset was within the first year of life in 26 patients. Revealing symptoms were the following: recurrent bronchopneumonia (28 cases), chronic diarrhea (17 cases), hepatomegaly (6 cases), malnutrition (15 cases), pseudo Bartter syndrome (3 cases), edemaanemia- hypoprotidemia (4 cases) and meconium ileus (4 cases). The diagnosis was confirmed by sweat test and genotypic data, the F508 del was the most frequent mutation (17 cases). Several complications had occurred during follow-up: chronic pseudomonas aeruginosa infection (15 cases), chronic respiratory failure (14 cases), recurrent hemoptysis (2 cases), pleural effusion (3 cases) and cirrhosis (2 cases). Ten patients died at a mean age of 7 years. One patient had pulmonary transplantation. Prenatal diagnosis was performed in 9 families. In Tunisia, cystic fibrosis is not exceptional, but its diagnosis is delayed. Our survey is characterized by more severe earliest forms, difficult and insufficient therapeutic management. A Better medical awareness and a national action plan are needed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0621_25037", "title": "[Clinical characteristics and outcome of cystic fibrosis: report of 16 cases].", "score": 0.015274599542334096, "content": "The aim of this report is to determine clinical characteristics and outcome of Cystic Fibrosis (CF). Cases of CF managed at Infantile Medicine A Department in Children's Hospital of Tunis during 13 years (1994-2006) were reviewed. 16 children had CF. They were 8 males and 8 females. 13 patients were consanguineous and four had similar familial cases. The mean age at diagnosis was 19 months (10 days, 13 years). 3/4 of patients were symptomatic within the first trimester of life. Revealing symptoms were: obstructive bronchopathy associated to chronic diarrhea (n=6), edema-anemia-hypotrophy-hypoproteinemia syndrome (n=3), meconium ileus (n=4), bronchiectasis (n=2) and chronic diarrhea (n=1). The diagnosis was confirmed by sweat test and genotypic data. The F508 del was the most frequent mutation (54%). Clinical outcome was characterized by the occurrence of respiratory and nutritional complications: acute respiratory failure (n=6), chronic respiratory failure (n=3), chronic pseudomonas aeruginosa infection (n=6) at a medium age of 3.8 years, recurrent haemoptysis (n=2), pleural effusion (n=2), a malnutrition (n =10) and diabetes associated to puberty delay in one patient. Seven patients died at mean age of 4.4 years (6 months, 17.3 years). Among surviving patients, six had no compromised nutritional status or lung function. Prenatal diagnosis was performed in three families. CF is characterized by earliest onset and severity of symptoms. Therapeutic insufficiency is the main cause of precocious complications and poor prognosis in our series." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0415_23900", "title": "Comparing the clinical evolution of cystic fibrosis screened neonatally to that of cystic fibrosis diagnosed from clinical symptoms: a 10-year retrospective study in a French region (Brittany).", "score": 0.01332492643968054, "content": "Until the year 2000, systematic cystic fibrosis (CF) neonatal screening was only performed in a few regions of France. The Brittany region began in 1989, but not the neighboring region of Loire-Atlantique. The present study compares the clinical evolution of both affected populations 10 years after screening was started. Although the 77 screened and 36 nonscreened children were followed in different CF centers, they were included in similar care protocols. The clinical characteristics at diagnosis and their evolution over a 10-year period of all the children affected with CF and born between January 1, 1989 and December 31, 1998, excluding those with meconium ileus, were compared. There were no significant differences in sex ratio, gestational age, anthropometric data at birth, frequency of deltaF508 homozygotes, proportion of pancreatic-insufficient patients, and mean age between the two populations. Age at diagnosis was lower in the screened group (38 days vs. 472 days, P &lt; 10(-7)), as was the delay in supplementation with pancreatic enzymes (1.7 months vs.15.9 months, P &lt; 10(-7)). The proportion of children who were hospitalized at least once was higher among the nonscreened than the screened patients (86% vs. 49%, P &lt; 10(-4)). Z-scores for weight and height were significantly better in the screened population, not only in the first years of life, but also at 5 years old for height and 8 years old for weight. The Shwachman and Brasfield scores were higher among the screened children during the whole period of follow-up. No significant differences in colonization by Pseudomonas aeruginosa nor in lung function were found. Given the homogeneity in the characteristics and the follow-up of both populations, the benefits in terms of nutrition and clinical well-being of neonatal screening appear to be clear, thus confirming the advantages of its general implementation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0027_9897", "title": "Cystic fibrosis in adolescents and adults.", "score": 0.012704686617730096, "content": "Forty-five patients (25 male and 20 female) over 12 years of age with cystic fibrosis have been studied clinically, radiologically and physiologically. Their mean age at the first visit was 17 years; they were followed for a mean period of 4 years and attended at least every six months. The first symptom which developed before the age of five in 42 of the 45 patients was respiratory. Thirty-two of the 45 patients had severe lung disease (Group III) at the start of the study of the seven patients died during the study. Cough and sputum were almost universal, 23 had haemoptyses and eight pneumothoraces. Staphylococcus pyogenes, Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa were the common pathogens isolated from sputum and the increasing prevalence of the latter was again confirmed. Acquisition of the mucoid strain of pseudomonas signified poor prognosis. Established infection was never eradicated. Forty-three patients had evidence of pancreatic insufficiency; in all but one patient the symptoms were mild and five patients abandoned dietary restriction and pancreatin without ill effect. Seven patients had symptoms of partial bowel obstruction (meconium ileus equivalent) but only one required surgical relief. The liver was enlarged in seven patients and the spleen was felt in three. Three patients had diabetes mellitus. The influence of cystic fibrosis on growth and development is reported--the growth spurt is late in the majority but growth failure is not confined to those with severe lung infection or malabsorption and in these circumstances remains unexplained. Mean weight was low in relation to height and puberty was delayed in both sexes." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_2997", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.012167832167832168, "content": "CF is a chronic progressive disease that can present with protein and fat malabsorption (failure to thrive, hypoalbuminemia, steatorrhea), liver disease (cholestatic jaundice), or chronic respiratory infection (Table 137-1). Many infants currently are diagnosed based on newborn screening, which has been available in all 50 states and the District of Columbia since 2010. Older children commonly present with pulmonary manifestations such as poorly controlled asthma and chronic respiratory infections. The respiratory epithelium of patients with CF exhibits marked impermeability to chloride and an excessive reabsorption of sodium. This leads to a relative dehydration of airway secretions, which results in airway obstruction and impaired mucociliary transport. This, in turn, leads to endobronchial colonization with bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic bronchial infection results in persistent or recurrent cough that is often productive of sputum," }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_125396", "title": "Cystic fibrosis", "score": 0.011772978858542782, "content": "History CF is supposed to have appeared about 3,000 BC because of migration of peoples, gene mutations, and new conditions in nourishment. Although the entire clinical spectrum of CF was not recognized until the 1930s, certain aspects of CF were identified much earlier. Indeed, literature from Germany and Switzerland in the 18th century warned (\"Woe to the child who tastes salty from a kiss on the brow, for he is cursed and soon must die\"), recognizing the association between the salt loss in CF and illness. In the 19th century, Carl von Rokitansky described a case of fetal death with meconium peritonitis, a complication of meconium ileus associated with CF. Meconium ileus was first described in 1905 by Karl Landsteiner. In 1936, Guido Fanconi described a connection between celiac disease, cystic fibrosis of the pancreas, and bronchiectasis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0510_8528", "title": "Clinical presentation of hypernatremic dehydration in exclusively breast-fed neonates.", "score": 0.01040992448759439, "content": "To identify the clinical presentation of dehydration related to failure of lactation in exclusively breast-fed term infants. A prospective study was performed between January 2000 and June 2003 in Al Qassimi Hospital in the Emirate of Sharjah. Enrollment criteria included term neonates whose birth weight of &gt; 2000 g with no underlying organic illness causing poor feeding admitted for clinical manifestations of dehydration with weight loss of &gt; 10% during the first 2 weeks of life. The control group, a non-randomized sample included healthy full term neonates, seen in Sharjah maternal and child health care center at 4-7 days old for their routine Guthrie screening test. For each dehydrated neonate we took two neonates as controls. Mother's age, parity, length of pregnancy, any pathologic conditions, breastfeeding history and her level of knowledge of lactation was recorded. Neonatal information included mode of delivery, percentage of weight loss, clinical examination, and stool and urine output the previous day. Data was analyzed with Student 't' test and chi-square test. Out of 17208 live births, 29 neonates between the ages of 2-13 days were admitted with weight loss of between 12 and 29% (dehydrated group). 27 patients had hypernatremic dehydration with serum sodium level ranging from 150 to 195 mmol/l. Mean age of admission was 4.9 days. Reasons for admission were: signs of dehydration (55%); hyperthermia (55%); hypoglycemia (27%) and jaundice (59%). The control group included 58 healthy neonates. Their birth weight and age were comparable to those in the dehydrated group. In comparison with the control group, delivery by cesarean section (P&lt; 0.0001), lower level of maternal breastfeeding knowledge (P=0.03), transient inadequate breast milk quantity (P=0.005) and nipple anomalies (P=0.001) was significantly more common in the dehydrated group. Fewer voidings of urine (&lt; 6 times /day) and stool (&lt; 3 times/day) in the previous 24 hours before admission was more frequently observed in the dehydrated group (P &lt; 0.0001). Low level of maternal knowledge in lactation, cesarean section and failure of early postnatal follow up was associated with the neonatal dehydration. Decreased urine and stool frequency might be considered as a warning for failure of lactation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_2430", "title": "Hyponatremic dehydration as a presentation of cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The purpose of this study is to present a case report of a child with hyponatremic dehydration diagnosed after CF and to review the cases of 13 patients with CF who had the same initial presentation in our hospital. This report reviewed the clinical records of children diagnosed with CF to ascertain the prevalence of metabolic alkalosis with electrolyte depletion as the presentation of CF. It also used sweat tests to diagnose a child with CF. The laboratory tests of a 12-month-old girl presented 3 times to the ;pediatric emergency department with vomiting and weight loss showed hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis. The patient was subsequently diagnosed with CF by means of 2 positive sweat tests. Meanwhile, the review of the clinical records of all children diagnosed with CF from 1985 to 2004 (N = 77) showed that the prevalence of metabolic alkalosis with electrolyte depletion as the presentation of CF was 16.8%. The age of the infants ranged from 3 to 14 months. All episodes took place during summer. There are not many causes of metabolic alkalosis with hyponatremic dehydration, and one of them is CF. This report emphasizes sodium depletion as a common sign of CF presentation. This is most important in countries where the neonatal screening test for CF is not available because the disease may be asymptomatic or oligosymptomatic for several months or even years. Cystic fibrosis should be considered in differential diagnosis of any child presenting with unexplained hyponatremic dehydration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0616_5473", "title": "[Dehydration and metabolic alkalosis: an unusual presentation of cystic fibrosis in an infant].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Cystic fibrosis (CF) may present during neonatal period with classic clinic symptoms related to the disease. The severity of the disease is multifactorial, one of the factors depends on the level of activity of the CFTR protein, which is related with the mutation type that affects the patient. An infant is presented who developed recurrent episodes of vomiting, anorexia, weight loss, dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities, such as metabolic alkalosis, hyponatremia, hypokalemia and hypochloremia. CF was diagnosed after the third episode showing an unusual and not very publicized presentation of the disease. Mutations !F 508 and 2789+5G-A were found. CF should be considered in patients of any age, but particularly in infants, presenting with anorexia, vomiting, failure to thrive, that are associated with recurrent episodes of hyponatremic hypochloremic, dehydration with metabolic alkalosis unexplained by other causes, even in the absence of respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms or failure to thrive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0218_2629", "title": "The use of sweat osmolality in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Sweat osmolality determination with 7-10 microliter of sweat for the establishment of the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) was evaluated in 297 probands. In 12 out of 26 infants below 2 months of age and in 3 out of 271 older probands not enough sweat could be collected at the first attempt. A final diagnosis was established before the age of 2 months in 21 out of 26 infants. In 27 CF patients sweat osmolality was 285.86 +/- 41.25 mmol/kg (mean +/- SD), the mean value - 2 SD being 203.36 mmol/kg. In 266 control subjects sweat osmolality was 107.38 +/- 29.49 mmol/kg (mean +/- SD), the mean value + 2 SD being 166.36 mmol/kg. There was no overlap between CF patients and controls in each age group. The method is simple, rapid and reliable, and improves diagnostic possibilities especially in young infants. Sweat osmolality values above 180 mmol/kg should be repeated and checked for final confirmation or exclusion of the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_3006", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.00959523320320526, "content": "Prolonged, direct-reacting neonatal jaundice MISCELLANEOUS Digital clubbing Failure to thrive Family history of cystic fibrosis (e.g., in sibling or cousin) Salty taste of skin (typically noted by parent on kissing affected child—from salt crystals formed after evaporation of sweat) Hyponatremic hypochloremic alkalosis in infants Nasal polyps Recurrent sinusitis Aspermia Absent vas deferens presence of known disease-causing DNA mutations are the only criteria required for diagnosis, as clinical symptoms may not be manifested early in life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_17273", "title": "Essential fatty acid deficiency and predisposition to lung disease in cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Essential fatty acid (EFA) deficiency is a predisposing factor for pulmonary infection with Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the two major pathogenic microorganisms in cystic fibrosis (CF). The goal of this study was to investigate the essential fatty acid status of CF patients from infancy to 20 years old. Plasma fatty acid profiles for phospholipid (PL) were determined for cord (n = 6), 4 months (n = 40), 16 months (n = 25), 3 y (n = 8), 5-10 y (n = 10), and 10-20 y (n = 10) aged CF patients and compared to their respective control; cord (n = 22), 1-36 months (n = 38) and adult (n = 100). Significance was established by Student's t-test (p &lt; 0.05). The plasma PL fatty acid profile for all CF patients, except cord, revealed consistent deficiency in omega 3 and omega 6 EFAs. These deficiencies were most marked at infancy and more pronounced for patients with meconium ileus. EFA deficiency may contribute to the predisposition of CF infants to develop respiratory disease and to the excess cytotoxic activity found in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid at 2 months of age in the majority of screened infants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_16576", "title": "Cystic fibrosis in two Chinese infants in Taiwan.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Cystic fibrosis was diagnosed in two female infants, respectively nine months old (Case 1) and six months old (Case 2). Clinical presentation of these two infants showed frequent episodes of pneumonia, dehydration and poor weight gain, despite fair intake of food since birth. Hyponatremic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis had been found during their previous hospitalizations. In Case 1, stool fat was positive with negative trypsin test. Both cases had abnormal findings on chest X-ray films, but the pancreas showed no remarkable cystic changes from sonography. Plastic-bag method of sweat test showed Na/Cl: 155/185 nmol/L in Case 1, Na/Cl: 127/135 nmol/L in Case 2. A family history was suggested, since each one had an elder brother who had died in early infancy with similar clinical presentations. Both patients were put on special diet therapy as well as chest physical therapy. Case 1 died suddenly at 16 months of age. Autopsy revealed mucusplugged dilated ducts with atrophy of the exocrine portion of the pancreas. DNA analysis in Case 2 showed abnormal mutation point at 1898+5 G--&gt;T on chromosome 7." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0749_5244", "title": "Methods to obtain referral criteria in growth monitoring.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "An important goal of growth monitoring is to identify genetic disorders, diseases or other conditions that manifest themselves through an abnormal growth. The two main conditions that can be detected by height monitoring are Turner's syndrome and growth hormone deficiency. Conditions or risk factors that can be detected by monitoring weight or body mass index include hypernatremic dehydration, celiac disease, cystic fibrosis and obesity. Monitoring infant head growth can be used to detect macrocephaly, developmental disorder and ill health in childhood. This paper describes statistical methods to obtain evidence-based referral criteria in growth monitoring. The referral criteria that we discuss are based on either anthropometric measurement(s) at a fixed age using (1) a Centile or a Standard Deviation Score, (2) a Standard Deviation corrected for parental height, (3) a Likelihood Ratio Statistic and (4) an ellipse, or on multiple measurements over time using (5) a growth rate and (6) a growth curve model. We review the potential uses of these methods, and outline their strengths and limitations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en572_22116", "title": "Jane Davies", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Davies leads the Strategic Research Centre for Pseudomonas Infection in Cystic Fibrosis at Imperial College London, one of few centres supported by the Cystic Fibrosis Trust. The centre looks to identify new ways to detect pseudomonas aeruginosa. Davies is part of the European CF Society Clinical Trials Network. She was involved in the design of the clinical trial, as well as validation of outcome measures. She works on the use of nasal potential difference to diagnose atypical cystic fibrosis. She was awarded a £2.8 million research grant from the Wellcome Trust to optimise the lentiviral vector for gene therapy. In 2020 she won the Senior Investigator award from the National Institute for Health Research (NIHR). Publications Davies publications include: 2011 An Atlas of Investigation and Management. Paediatric Respiratory Disease: Vol 1 Airways & Infection 2011 An Atlas of Investigation and Management. Paediatric Respiratory Disease: Vol 2 Parenchymal Disease References" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0367_1664", "title": "Early detection of lung disease and its association with the nutritional status, genetic background and life events in patients with cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Progression of lung disease is the most prominent cause of morbidity and death in patients with cystic fibrosis (CF), but the severity of lung disease and the rate of lung function decline are highly variable. An attempt was made to define accurate estimates of disease progression in these patients early diagnosed and prospectively evaluated until 10 years of age. The primary question to ask was whether functional abnormalities detected already in infancy are associated with functional derangements later on in life, and may be useful as parameters of prognostic value. Early diagnosis of CF can best be achieved by screening of mutation by new techniques (buccal cell brushing) in infants, even when the sweat test or accurate blood sampling is not available. Moreover, in infants lung function can be assessed by infant whole-body plethysmography enabling the study of the interrelationship with delayed weight gain and growth retardation, as well as the associations with the most common disease-causing mutations. Out of a cohort of 80 infants (39 males, 41 females) with CF a follow-up study was started with 50 CF infants diagnosed during infancy (mean age 4.6 +/- 4.0 months; range 0.1-12.7 months) and prospectively evaluated at 6-month intervals during the first 2 years of life. Moreover, in 32 CF children out of this cohort, follow-up was continued until 10 years of age. Differences were encountered with respect to the different events occurring during the first years of life, especially the onset of chronic colonization with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The association between infant lung function and specific mutations (DeltaF508 homozygotes, frameshift DeltaF508/3905insT compound heterozygotes and nonsense DeltaF508/R553X compound heterozygotes) furthermore revealed that differences in lung function within the genetic groups are mainly related to the degree of pulmonary hyperinflation. Pulmonary hyperinflation was also associated with the degree of impaired nutritional status. An association between impaired gas exchange characteristics at 10 years of age and the degree of pulmonary hyperinflation during infancy finally demonstrates that by early mutation screening, lung function testing and assessment of the nutritional status predictors of disease progression later on in life can be defined. Therefore, preventive therapeutic measures should primarily be based on such prognostic factors." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en062_55974", "title": "Tobramycin", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Spectrum of susceptibility Tobramycin has a narrow spectrum of activity and is active against Gram-positive Staphylococcus aureus and various Gram-negative bacteria. Clinically, tobramycin is frequently used to eliminate Pseudomonas aeruginosa in cystic fibrosis patients. The following represents the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) susceptibility data for a few strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Pseudomonas aeruginosa - <0.25 µg/mL – 92 µg/mL [ref?] Pseudomonas aeruginosa (non-mucoid) – 0.5 µg/mL - >512 µg/mL [ref?] Pseudomonas aeruginosa (ATCC 27853) – 0.5 µg/mL – 2 µg/mL The MIC for Klebsiella pneumoniae, KP-1, is 2.3±0.2 µg/mL at 25 °C [unpublished]. Contraindications Tobramycin is contraindicated in people with hypersensitivity against aminoglycoside antibiotics. The Infusion is also contraindicated in people with myasthenia gravis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0315_5678", "title": "[Cystic fibrosis in adults--clinical aspects].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Nineteen patients with cystic fibrosis were seen in the I Department of Tuberculosis and Lung Diseases during 3.5 years. There were 12 (63%) female, and 7 male, aged from 16 to 35 years (mean 23.2). Most patients were diagnosed in childhood, but 4 were diagnosed in their early adulthood. The diagnosis was confirmed by positive chloride sweat test in all cases. Molecular DNA analyses were performed in 16 cases. In 9 (56%) cases two mutations in the CFTR gene were identified. In 5 cases one mutation was identified. All patients had bronchiectases confirmed by CT. Spirometry showed lung function impairment with predominantly obstructive pattern. Mean VC was 2.57l, mean FEVI was 1.66l. In 7 (37%) cases FEVI was lower then 30% of predictive value. Hypoxemia was found in 11 (58%) cases and hypercapnia in 3 (16%) cases. Sputum cultures were positive for mucoid P. aeruginosa in 12 (63%) cases, for Staph. aureus in 16 (84%) cases. Persistent colonisation with nontuberculous mycobacteria was found in 2 (10.5%) cases. Aspergillus fumigatus was identified in sputum cultures in 2 subjects who had also positive precipitation test. Diabetes mellitus was diagnosed in 2 cases. Meconium ileus equivalent was seen in 1 case. Pneumothorax was seen in 1 case. One patient died in the endstage of the illness." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_757", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.009140173410404625, "content": "Figure 35-2 Differential diagnosis of hypernatremia by mechanism. GI, Gastrointestinal; NG, nasogastric. Most children with hypernatremia are dehydrated and have the typical signs and symptoms of dehydration (see Chapter 33). Children with hypernatremic dehydration tend to have better preservation of intravascular volume owing to the shiftof water from the intracellular space to the extracellular space. Hypernatremic infants potentially become more dehydrated before seeking medical attention. Probably because of intracellular water loss, the pinched abdominal skin of a dehydrated, hypernatremic infant has a doughy feel." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0398_6499", "title": "Respiratory infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa in children with cystic fibrosis: early detection by serology and assessment of risk factors.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) are susceptible to lower respiratory tract infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and typically acquire this organism in early childhood. Once P aeruginosa infection is established, eradication may be impossible, and progressive lung disease often aggravates morbidity and mortality risks. The ability to diagnose CF by genetic testing at birth makes it possible to determine the temporal sequence of events that result in P aeruginosa-associated pulmonary infections. To evaluate the longitudinal relationship between the production of an antibody response against P aeruginosa and clinical factors associated with P aeruginosa pulmonary infections in patients with CF diagnosed in early life. Serum samples and oropharyngeal cultures (protocol cultures) were obtained at 6-month intervals from April 15, 1985, to April 15, 2000 (or for up to 180 months depending on their enrollment date) from 68 patients at 2 centers in Madison and Milwaukee, Wis, diagnosed through the Wisconsin CF Neonatal Screening Project, a longitudinal cohort study. Additional cultures were obtained at examining physicians' discretion (all cultures). Time to serum IgG, IgA, and IgM antibody titer of at least 1:256 against P aeruginosa, assessed by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay using cell lysate, exotoxin A, and elastase as antigens; time to organism isolation from respiratory samples; time to Wisconsin Cystic Fibrosis Radiograph (WCXR) score of 5 or more. The median time to an antibody titer of at least 1:256 was 17.8, 24.2, and 70.9 months for cell lysate, exotoxin A, and elastase, respectively. The rise of anti-cell lysate and anti-exotoxin A titers to 1:256 or more occurred a mean of 11.9 (P&lt;.001) and 5.6 (P =.04) months, respectively, before the isolation of P aeruginosa for all cultures and 18.2 (P&lt;.001) and 11.9 (P =.006) months, respectively, before protocol cultures. There was no significant difference between the rise of anti-cell lysate and anti-exotoxin A titer and a WCXR score of 5 or more (P =.24 and.32, respectively). Treatment with long-term, non-Pseudomonas oral antibiotics and integration of CF infants with older, chronically infected patients were associated with a significantly increased risk of P aeruginosa pulmonary infection. In CF patients diagnosed through neonatal screening, P aeruginosa pulmonary infections occurred 6 to 12 months before the organism was isolated from respiratory secretions. The longitudinal monitoring of P aeruginosa antibody titers, in concert with WCXR score, should facilitate diagnosis and treatment of P aeruginosa pulmonary infections in young children with CF." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0819_14450", "title": "From lip to lab: salty tasting skin is the main clue that raises clinical suspicion of cystic fibrosis in young infants.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "This study developed a clinical decision rule (CDR) to rule in or rule out cystic fibrosis (CF) in the first weeks of life. We combined a two-step nonconcurrent birth cohort and a cross-sectional controlled study in which observers and mothers were blinded to confirmatory sweat test results. Neonates from uncomplicated pregnancies and deliveries, with two subsequent tests for immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) higher than 70 ng/mL, were eligible to take part. We included 49 CF-affected and 177 CF-unaffected infants with an average age of 34 days. CF-affected infants demonstrated statistically significant differences in weight gain, stool frequency and salty tasting skin from birth. Multivariate analysis showed that the main predictors of CF were salty tasting skin (odds ratio 17.2) and weight gain of &lt;10.5 g per day (odds ratio 4.6). Depending on the CDR score, we obtained the following results: sensitivity (42.9-61.2%), specificity (89.6-96.5%), positive (62.5-77.8%) and negative (85.6-89.1%) predictive value and positive (5.8-12.3) and negative (0.4-0.6) likelihood ratio. The CDR could provide a reliable index of clinical suspicion and timely referral for sweat testing in settings without newborn screening programmes and may also be applied to false-negative individuals where such programmes already exist." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0860_13375", "title": "Pseudo-Bartter's Syndrome in Patients with Cystic Fibrosis: A Case Series and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Pseudo-Bartter syndrome (PBS) is characterized by hyponatremic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis that mimics Bartter syndrome but with no pathology in the renal tubules. We present five patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) and PBS. Four children aged between three and five-and-one-half months with previously diagnosed CF and one aged 17 months with previously undiagnosed disease, were hospitalized during the summer season, with severe dehydration, oliguria, apathy and adynamia. Additionally, one of them had an ileostomy due to meconium ileus after birth. All children were on a diet without additional salt intake. Laboratory analysis on admission showed hyponatremia (115-133 mmol/L, mean 122.4 mmol/L), high plasma renin activity (229-500 pg/ml, mean 324 pg/ml) and metabolic alkalosis (pH 7.5-7.6, mean 7.56) in all the patients, and in four of them high blood level of aldosterone (74-560 pg/ml, mean 295.9 pg/ml), hypokalemia (2.3-2.8 mmol/L, mean 2.6 mmol/L), hypochloremia (59-71 mmol/L, mean 66 mmol/L) and low urinary sodium (5-12 mmol/L, mean 9 mmol/L). After intravenous rehydration followed by additional use of sodium and chloride in mean dosis of 1.78 mmol/kg per day, all the patients made a complete recovery. With advice for additional use of salt in the mentioned amount, the patients were discharged from the hospital. PBS is one of CF complications, especially in infants and young children in situations accompanied by increased sweating and/or other causes of additional loss of sodium and chlorine. Sometimes, as was the case with one of our patients, PBS may be the initial presentation form of the disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_9461", "title": "Seliciclib", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Seliciclib (roscovitine or CYC202) is an experimental drug candidate in the family of pharmacological cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitors that preferentially inhibit multiple enzyme targets including CDK2, CDK7 and CDK9, which alter the growth phase or state within the cell cycle of treated cells. Seliciclib is being developed by Cyclacel.This is a phase II, dose ranging, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study. The aim of this study is to assess the safety of increasing doses of roscovitine administered orally for 4 cycles of 4 consecutive days (treatment \"on\") separated by a 3 days treatment free period (treatment \"off\") in adult CF subjects with Cystic Fibrosis carrying 2 Cystic Fibrosis causing mutations with at least one F508del-CFTR mutation and chronically infected with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This study involved 36 Cystic Fibrosis patients: 24 treated and 12 controls." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_15610", "title": "Recovery of birth weight z score within 2 years of diagnosis is positively associated with pulmonary status at 6 years of age in children with cystic fibrosis.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We recently reported that 60% of children newly diagnosed with cystic fibrosis who had pancreatic insufficiency responded to treatment initiation and achieved catch-up weight gain to a level comparable with their birth weight z score within 2 years of diagnosis (\"responders\"), whereas the remaining 40% failed to do so (\"nonresponders\"). The present study examined the impact of this early weight recovery on subsequent growth pattern and pulmonary status at 6 years of age. Sixty-three children with cystic fibrosis who had pancreatic insufficiency but no meconium ileus, and were enrolled in the Wisconsin Cystic Fibrosis Neonatal Screening Project, were studied. Responders were defined by a recovery of weight z score comparable with that at birth within 2 years of diagnosis. From ages 2 to 6, growth was measured by both height and BMI. Pulmonary status was evaluated by symptoms, spirometry, quantitative chest radiography, and respiratory microbiology. The majority (71%) of the responders maintained their early weight recovery through 6 years of age, whereas only 32% of the nonresponders achieved substantial growth improvement from 2 to 6 years of age. Proportionately fewer responders reported cough symptoms (10% daytime cough; 22% nighttime cough) compared with nonresponders (41% daytime cough; 45% nighttime cough) at age 6. The percentage of predicted forced expiratory volume in 1 second at age 6 was 11% higher in responders (99.5% +/- 13.9%) compared with nonresponders (88.3% +/- 18.5%). Responders had significantly better Brasfield (20.1 +/- 1.4) and Wisconsin chest radiograph (8.3 +/- 3.3) scores compared with nonresponders (Brasfield: 18.9 +/- 1.8; Wisconsin: 12.3 +/- 8.3). Respiratory microbiology results were not significantly different. Multiple regression analyses indicated that the positive association between responder and percent predicted forced expiratory volume in 1 second at 6 years of age remained statistically significant after controlling for infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus and chest radiograph scores. Growth patterns from 2 to 6 years of age were not associated with pulmonary measures at age 6. Patients with cystic fibrosis with pancreatic insufficiency who achieved early growth recovery within 2 years of diagnosis had fewer cough symptoms, higher lung function, and better chest radiograph scores at 6 years of age." }, { "id": "article-20211_2", "title": "Cystic Fibrosis -- Introduction", "score": 0.008836120156598733, "content": "Since ancient times, children around the world have been afflicted with cystic fibrosis that leads to shortened lifespans. In medieval Europe, these children were believed to be cursed by witches and doomed to die. The curse that became folklore pronounced, “Woe to the child who tastes salty from a kiss on the brow, for he is cursed and soon will die.” Salty skin was a sign of an impending illness without cause or cure.  Until relatively modern times, cystic fibrosis was poorly understood. In 1949, Lowe et al. postulated that cystic fibrosis must be caused by a genetic defect from the autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance of the disease. High levels of salt in the sweat of patients with cystic fibrosis suggested an abnormality in electrolyte transport from the sweat gland. Quinton postulated that sweat ducts in these patients were impermeable to chloride. Further studies led to the hypothesis that the faulty chloride channel must be situated in the apical membranes of the lung surface or glandular epithelium to explain the respiratory and systemic organ failure associated with cystic fibrosis.  Researchers now know that cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of exocrine gland function most commonly affecting persons of Northern European descent at a rate of 1 in 3500.  It is a chronic disease that frequently leads to chronic sinopulmonary infections and pancreatic insufficiency. The most common cause of death is end-stage lung disease. [1] [2] [3] [4]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_27662", "title": "Phage therapy", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "In 2007 Phase 1 and 2 clinical trials were completed at the Royal National Throat, Nose and Ear Hospital, London, for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections (otitis). Phase 1 clinical trials were conducted at the Southwest Regional Wound Care Center of Lubbock, Texas, for a cocktail of phages against P. aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli developed by Intralytix. PhagoBurn, a Phase 1 and 2 trial of phage therapy against P. aeruginosa wound infection in France and Belgium in 2015–17, was terminated early due to lack of effectiveness. In July 2020, the FDA approved the first clinical trial of nebulized phage therapy in the United States. This double-blind, placebo-controlled study at Yale University will be focused on treating P. aeruginosa infections in patients with cystic fibrosis. Locus Biosciences created a cocktail of three CRISPR-modified phages. A 2019 study examined its effectiveness against E. coli in the urinary tract." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 325 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 48 ] ], "text": "In severe cases of Plasmodium infection, the greatest risk of mortality occurs in the first 24 hours of clinical presentation, so treatment should be started immediately. Treatment with parenteral or intramuscular artesunate is more indicated in severe Plasmodium infection, both in adults and children and in pregnant women." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Mefloquine orally.", "2": "Intravenous artesunate.", "3": "Doxycycline orally.", "4": "Oral quinine sulfate.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0559_8892", "title": "UK malaria treatment guidelines.", "score": 0.01818331413526411, "content": "Malaria is the tropical disease most commonly imported into the UK, with 1500-2000 cases reported each year, and 10-20 deaths. Approximately three-quarters of reported malaria cases in the UK are caused by Plasmodium falciparum, which is capable of invading a high proportion of red blood cells and rapidly leading to severe or life-threatening multi-organ disease. Most non-falciparum malaria cases are caused by Plasmodium vivax; a few cases are caused by the other two species of Plasmodium: Plasmodium ovale or Plasmodium malariae. Mixed infections with more than 1 species of parasite can occur; they commonly involve P. falciparum with the attendant risks of severe malaria. Management of malaria depends on awareness of the diagnosis and on performing the correct diagnostic tests: the diagnosis cannot be excluded until 3 blood specimens have been examined by an experienced microscopist. There are no typical clinical features of malaria, even fever is not invariably present. The optimum diagnostic procedure is examination of thick and thin blood films by an expert to detect and speciate the malarial parasites; P. falciparum malaria can be diagnosed almost as accurately using rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) which detect plasmodial antigens or enzymes, although RDTs for other Plasmodium species are not as reliable. The treatment of choice for non-falciparum malaria is a 3-day course of oral chloroquine, to which only a limited proportion of P. vivax strains have gained resistance. Dormant parasites (hypnozoites) persist in the liver after treatment of P. vivax or P. ovale infection: the only currently effective drug for eradication of hypnozoites is primaquine. This must be avoided or given with caution under expert supervision in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD), in whom it may cause severe haemolysis. Uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria can be treated orally with quinine, atovaquone plus proguanil (Malarone) or co-artemether (Riamet); quinine is highly effective but poorly tolerated in prolonged dosage and is always supplemented by additional treatment, usually with oral doxycycline. ALL patients treated for P. falciparum malaria should be admitted to hospital for at least 24 h, since patients can deteriorate suddenly, especially early in the course of treatment. Severe falciparum malaria, or infections complicated by a relatively high parasite count (more than 2% of red blood cells parasitized), should be treated with intravenous therapy until the patient is well enough to continue with oral treatment. In the UK, the treatment of choice for severe or complicated malaria is currently an infusion of intravenous quinine. This may exacerbate hypoglycaemia that can occur in malaria; patients treated with intravenous quinine therefore require careful monitoring. Intravenous artesunate reduces high parasite loads more rapidly than quinine and is more effective in treating severe malaria in selected situations. It can also be used in patients with contra-indications to quinine. Intravenous artesunate is unlicensed in the EU. Assistance in obtaining artesunate may be sought from specialist tropical medicine centres, on consultation, for named patients. Patients with severe or complicated malaria should be managed in a high dependency or intensive care environment. They may require haemodynamic support and management of acute respiratory distress syndrome, disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal impairment/failure, seizures, and severe intercurrent infections including gram-negative bacteraemia/septicaemia. Falciparum malaria in pregnancy is more likely to be severe and complicated: the placenta contains high levels of parasites. Stillbirth or early delivery may occur and diagnosis can be difficult if parasites are concentrated in the placenta and scanty in the blood. The treatment of choice for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is quinine; doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy but clindamycin can be substituted for it, and is equally effective. Primaquine (for eradication of P. vivax or P. ovale hypnozoites) is contraindicated in pregnancy; after treatment for these infections a pregnant woman should take weekly chloroquine prophylaxis until after delivery when hypnozoite eradication can be considered. Children are over-represented in the incidence of malaria in the UK, probably because completely susceptible UK-born children accompany their overseas-born parents on visits to family and friends in endemic areas. Malaria in children (and sometimes in adults) may present with misleading symptoms such as gastrointestinal features, sore throat or lower respiratory complaints; the diagnosis must always be sought in a feverish or very sick child who has visited malaria-endemic areas. Children can be treated with most of the antimalarial regimens which are effective in adults, with appropriate dosage adjustment. Doxycycline plus quinine should not be given to children under 12 years as doxycycline is contraindicated in this age group, but clindamycin can be substituted for doxycycline, and pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine (Fansidar) may also be an effective substitute. An acute attack of malaria does not confer protection from future attacks: individuals who have had malaria should take effective anti-mosquito precautions and chemoprophylaxis during future visits to endemic areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_11428", "title": "Development of Delayed Hemolytic Anemia After Treatment with Oral Artemether-Lumefantrine in Two Patients with Severe Falciparum Malaria.", "score": 0.017862838915470493, "content": "AbstractRecently, reports of delayed hemolytic anemia after treatment with artemisinin and its derivatives have emerged. Here we report two cases of delayed hemolytic anemia in a patient with severe falciparum malaria after treatment with oral artemether-lumefantrine (AL). The first patient, a 20-year-old Japanese male student, was diagnosed with falciparum malaria and was administered AL. As having a high parasitemia rate (20.6%) was the only severe malaria criterion met in this case and his general condition was stable, we continued with AL treatment. Despite disappearance of malarial parasites after 4 days of AL administration, a persistent fever remained. On days 13 and 16, a diagnosis of hemolytic anemia was made (lactate dehydrogenase [LDH]: 1,466 U/L, hemoglobin [Hb]: 7.2 g/dL). A blood smear at that time revealed no parasites. He recovered naturally from delayed hemolysis. The second patient, a 27-year-old Japanese female student, was diagnosed with falciparum malaria (parasitemia: 4.5%) and treated initially with oral quinine hydrochloride and doxycycline. The following day, parasitemia increased to 7.9% and oral AL was initiated. She was discharged on day 4 after achieving parasite clearance and afebrility. However, on day 5, fever (body temperature &gt; 38°C) recurred, and on day 11, a diagnosis of hemolytic anemia was made (LDH: 712 U/L, Hb: 8.8 g/dL). A follow-up confirmed that her condition improved gradually. AL treatment of severe malaria can cause delayed hemolytic anemia. Patients should be followed up for up to 4 weeks to detect signs of hemolysis and provide appropriate symptomatic treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0736_2374", "title": "[A severe falciparum malaria case successfully treated by exchange transfusion as an adjunct therapy].", "score": 0.01725925925925926, "content": "Plasmodium falciparum malaria is a type of malaria with high fatality rate despite optimal antimalarial treatment. Exchange transfusion (ET) is successfully used as a means of supportive therapy in severe P. falciparum malaria cases with hyperparasitemia. Herein, we present a case with hyperparasitemia, who received erythrocyte ET therapy due to lack of clinical response to antimalarial treatment. A 24-year-old male patient was admitted to our emergency clinic with the complaints of fever that persisted for 10 days, headache, nausea-vomiting, and impaired consciousness. Medical history revealed that he had been working in Sudan, Africa and returned back 12 days ago. On physical examination; he had fever, hypotension, tachycardia, subicterus and impaired cooperation. Laboratory examination revealed pancytopenia, elevated C-reactive protein, hyperbilirubinemia, hyponatremia, elevated creatinine level and hematuria. On thick blood smear and thin blood smear examinations, multiple (&gt; 5%) trophozoites and gametocytes indicating P.falciparum species were observed. The case was diagnosed as P.falciparum malaria and parenteral fluid support, dopamine infusion, meropenem (IV), doxycycline (PO) and quinine sulphate (PO) were initiated in the intensive care unit. On reevaluation of the patient on the third day of hospitalization, it was observed that arterial hypotension and fever were persistent, anemia and trombocytopenia deteriorated and on thick blood smear parasitemiea was not decreased. It was decided to apply automated erythrocyte ET. After ET, patient's medical status was quickly improved and patient was discharged on the 7th day of hospitalization. In conclusion, it was noted that in addition to antimalarial treatment, erythrocyte ET may provide dramatic improvement in severe cases of P.falciparum malaria with hyperparasitemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0249_10692", "title": "Oral artesunate in the treatment of uncomplicated hyperparasitemic falciparum malaria.", "score": 0.017248972401644157, "content": "Patients with uncomplicated hyperparasitemic falciparum malaria are usually given parenteral antimalarial treatment to prevent a progression to vital organ dysfunction and death. Since the oral artemisinin derivatives are more rapidly effective than other antimalarial drugs, we compared oral artesunate (4 mg/kg/day for three days with mefloquine 25 mg/kg on the second day) with an intravenous quinine loading dose (20 mg of salt/kg initially then 10 mg/kg every 8 hr, followed by mefloquine 25 mg/kg) in an open paired randomized trial in 60 patients with acute falciparum malaria and greater than 4% parasitemia, but no evidence of vital organ dysfunction. There were no deaths and none of the patients progressed to develop severe malaria. Oral artesunate treatment resulted in shorter median [range] times to fever clearance (19 hr [4-45] versus 47 hr [4-107]) (P &lt; 0.0001), parasite clearance (36 hr [18-61] versus 82 hr [36-104]) (P &lt; 0.0001), and discharge from the hospital (25 hr [12-44] versus 58 hr [24-115]) (P &lt; 0.0001). There was no toxicity attributable to artesunate. The cure rates by day 28 were 70% (19 of 27) and 39% (11 of 27) in the artesunate and quinine groups, respectively (relative risk = 1.7; 95% confidence interval = 1.0-3.0). Oral artesunate was simpler, cheaper, safer, and more effective than intravenous quinine for the treatment of uncomplicated hyperparasitemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0564_4841", "title": "Management of malaria: recent trends.", "score": 0.01675099138520443, "content": "In the present day scenario of resurgence of infectious diseases, malaria compounded with problems of multi drug resistance, assumes paramount importance. A combination of artemisinine derivatives with other effective anti-malarial drug remains the most effective form of treatment against the falciparum malaria which is most lethal form of disease. Oral chloroquin in the dose of 25 mg base/kg over 48 hours is effective in infections due to P. vivax, P. ovale P. malariae and chloroquine sensitive P. Falciparum. For chloroquine resistant P. vivax and multidrug resistant falciparum malaria, a combination of Quinine with doxycycline or clindamycin for 5-7 days, Quinine with singlt dose sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination. Mefloquine with artemeter or artesunate for 3 days, artesunate with doxycycline or clindamycin for 7 days and Otovaquin with proguanil for 3 days have been found to be effective. Primiquin as a hypnozoticide for 5-10 days is mandatory for preventing relapse in cases of P. vivax, P. Ovale and P. malariae. Death due to complicated malaria can be as high as 75% if case diagnosis is delayed or the patient arrives late. The artemisinine based rectal suppositories can be very effective in home/village setting in patients who can not be given oral anti malarial, though not yet approved for use in our country. In ICU settings, properly administered loading dose of quinine has proved to be effective and safe in almost all therapeutic trials including our study on Indian patients. Frequent blood glucose monitoring is mandatory. Parentral artemisinine with oral mefloquine is an effective alternative to quinine based therapy. The cerebral malaria management in the ICU setting includes monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance so as to maintain a CVP of 5 cm of water and pulmonary arterial occlusive pressure at less than 15 mm of mercury. In renal failure haemofiltration is ideal. Mefloquine is safe in second and third trimester of pregnancy. Exchange transfusion, haemopheresis and plasmapheresis are new techniques in the treatment of gravely ill patients with PF malaria especially when parasitemia exceeds 10%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0846_8972", "title": "[13-year old girl with fever 6 months after returning from sub-Saharan Africa].", "score": 0.01660465757199945, "content": "A 13-year-old girl presented with regular fevers, 6 months after a prolonged trip through Africa. The patient reported relapsing fevers at 48 hour intervals. Each febrile episode was followed by pronounced fatigue and a subsequent recovery back to her usual state of health. She reported having taken weekly mefloquine during and after the trip to Africa. Labortory evaluation revealed a hemoltytic anemia (hemoglobin: 10.8 g / dl, normal range: 12.3-16.0; haptoglobin: &lt; 13 mg / dl, normal range 38-205). An abdominal ultrasound showed a marked splenomegaly (diameter: &gt; 13.1 cm). A peripheral blood film showed Plasmodium parasites with marked stippling. PCR and sequenicing of the ribosomal RNA gene identified Plasmodium ovale. The patient responded well to oral chloroquine therapy and laboratory parameters normalized within 8 days. After determination of a normal glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase activity a 2-week-long therapy with primaquine was initiated (0,3 mg / kg per kg bodyweight of primaquine base daily for 14 days) to eliminate the hyponozoite stage of the parasite. Currently used prophylacic agents against Malaria (mefloquine, atovaquone / proguanil hydrochloride, doxyxycline) do not prevent chronic liver stage infection (hypnozoite stage) with Plasmodium ovale or Plasmodium vivax. After chemoprophylaxis tertian malaria due Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium ovale can occur. Therefore, tertian malaria should always be considered in febrile individuals who returned from a trip to the tropics even if chemoprophylaxis was taken." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0784_7923", "title": "[Plasmodium falciparum and Salmonella Typhi co-infection: a case report].", "score": 0.016271409749670618, "content": "Malaria and salmonella infections are endemic especially in developing countries, however malaria and salmonella co-infection is a rare entity with high mortality. The basic mechanism in developing salmonella co-infection is the impaired mobilization of granulocytes through heme and heme oxygenase which are released from haemoglobin due to the breakdown of erythrocytes during malaria infection. Thus, a malaria infected person becomes more susceptible to develop infection with Salmonella spp. In this report a case with Plasmodium falciparum and Salmonella Typhi co-infection was presented. A 23-year-old male patient was admitted to hospital with the complaints of diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue and fever. Laboratory findings yielded decreased number of platelets and increased ALT, AST and CRP levels. Since he had a history of working in Pakistan, malaria infection was considered in differential diagnosis, and the diagnosis was confirmed by the detection of P.falciparum trophozoites in the thick and thin blood smears. As he came from a region with chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium, quinine (3 x 650 mg) and doxycycline (2 x 100 mg/day) were started for the treatment. No erythrocytes, parasite eggs or fungal elements were seen at the stool microscopy of the patient who had diarrhoea during admission. No pathogenic microorganism growth was detected in his stool culture. The patient's blood cultures were also taken in febrile periods starting from the time of his hospitalization. A bacterial growth was observed in his blood cultures, and the isolate was identified as S. Typhi. Thus, the patient was diagnosed with P.falciparum and Salmonella Typhi coinfection. Ceftriaxone (1 x 2 g/day, 14 days) was added to the therapy according to the results of antibiotic susceptibility test. With the combined therapy (quinine, doxycycline, ceftriaxone) the fever was taken under control, his general condition improved and laboratory findings turned to normal values. However, on the fifth day of his anti-malaria therapy sudden bilateral hearing loss developed due to quinine use. Thus, the treatment was replaced with an artemisinin-based (arthemeter/lumefantrine) combination therapy. No adverse effects were detected due to artemisinin-based therapy, and the patient completely recovered. In conclusion, if a patient is diagnosed with malaria, he/she should be closely monitored in terms of having co-infections and appropriate diagnostic methods including blood cultures taken in febrile episodes should be performed. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_1022", "title": "Management of malaria in Thailand.", "score": 0.016070737059506908, "content": "The purpose of treatment for uncomplicated malaria is to produce a radical cure using the combination of: artesunate (4 mg/kg/day) plus mefloquine (8 mg/kg day) for 3 days: a fixed dose of artemether and lumefantrine (20/120 mg tablet) named Coartem (4 tablets twice a day for three days for adults weighing more than 35 kg): quinine 10 mg/kg 8-hourly plus tetracycline 250 mg 6-hourly for 7 days (or doxycycline 200 mg as an alternative to tetracycline once a day for 7 days) in patients aged 8 years and over: Malarone (in adult 4 tablets daily for 3 days). In treating severe malaria, early diagnosis and treatment with a potent antimalarial drug is recommended to save the patient's life. The antimalarial drugs of choice are: intravenous quinine or a parenteral form of an artemisinin derivative (artesunate i.v./i.m. for 2.4 mg/kg followed by 1.2 mg/kg injection at 12 and 24 hr and then daily for 5 dayss; artemether i.m. 3.2 mg/kg injection followed by 1.6 mg/kg at 12 and 24 hrs and then daily for 5 days; artemether i.m. (Artemotil) with the same dose of artemether or artesunate suppository (5 mg/kg) given rectally 12 hourly for 3 days. Oral artemisinin derivatives (artesunate, artemether, and dihydroartemisinin with 4 mg/kg/day) could replace parenteral forms when patients can tolerate oral medication. Oral mefloquine (25 mg/kg divided into two doses 8 hrs apart) should be given at the end of the artemisinin treatment course to reduce recrudescence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1063_14723", "title": "A Case of Plasmodium falciparum Malaria Treated with Artesunate in a 55-Year-Old Woman on Return to Florida from a Visit to Ghana.", "score": 0.01579601990049751, "content": "BACKGROUND Malaria is the infection caused by inoculation with the mostly obligate intraerythrocytic protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. Severe malaria manifests as multiple organ dysfunction with high parasitemia counts characterized by coma, stupor, and severe metabolic acidosis. Physicians in the United States do not frequently encounter patients with malaria, and the drugs are only available through the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which makes the management of this disease somewhat complicated. In 2019, the marketing of quinine for malaria was discontinued. In May 2020, the US Food and Drug Administration approved the use of intravenous artesunate for the treatment of adults and children with severe malaria. This case report describes a case of Plasmodium falciparum malaria in a 55-year-old woman who returned home to Florida from a visit to Ghana. CASE REPORT A previously healthy 55-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presented to the Emergency Department (ED) of a hospital in south Florida due to cyclic fever for 7 days. The patient's family reported mental status changes since symptom onset. The patient had returned from a 10-day trip to Ghana 18 days prior to admission. On arrival to the ED, the patient appeared lethargic and within hours was in respiratory distress. She was intubated and mechanically ventilated in the ED for acute hypoxemic respiratory failure. A malaria smear was positive with 25% parasitemia, and a diagnosis of severe malaria was made, consistent with P. falciparum infection complicated by multi-organ failure. Infectious disease consultation was obtained and an infusion of intravenous (IV) quinidine and IV doxycycline was emergently started due to the anticipated delay in obtaining artesunate. During the second day of admission, the patient had QTc prolongation, so quinidine was switched to IV artesunate. The parasitemia and acidosis started improving by the third day of therapy. CONCLUSIONS Given that artesunate is more effective, easier to dose, and more tolerable than quinidine, it is now the treatment of choice for severe malaria in the United States." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_36979", "title": "Antimalarial medication", "score": 0.014731907973406035, "content": "In severe falciparum malaria, it is recommended that rapid clinical assessment and confirmation of the diagnosis is made, followed by administration of full doses of parenteral antimalarial treatment without delay with whichever effective antimalarial is first available. For adults, intravenous (IV) or intramuscular (IM) artesunate is recommended. Quinine is an acceptable alternative if parenteral artesunate is not available. Parenteral antimalarials should be administered for a minimum of 24 h in the treatment of severe malaria, irrespective of the patient's ability to tolerate oral medication earlier. Thereafter, it is recommended to complete treatment by giving a complete course of any of the following: an ACT artesunate plus clindamycin or doxycycline; quinine plus clindamycin or doxycycline. Vivax malaria" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0775_21370", "title": "[Evaluation of imported Plasmodium falciparum malaria cases: the use of polymerase chain reaction in diagnosis].", "score": 0.01460761460761461, "content": "Malaria affecting almost half of the world population continues to be an important health problem. Although domestic malaria cases have been decreasing in Turkey recently, cases caused by Plasmodium falciparum have increased due to the frequent travelling to Africa. The aims of this study were to evaluate demographic characteristics, clinical and laboratory findings in cases with falciparum malaria who attended to our clinic in 2012-2013 period, and the impact of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for diagnosis. Nine patients evaluated were all male with a mean age of 34.3 (age range: 18-48) years, with the history of travel to Africa. Six cases did not take prophylaxis against malaria and other three cases used insufficient time. Mean duration of symptoms after return was 18.4 (range: 1-75) days, and the patients were admitted to the clinic within a mean of 5.2 (range: 1-15) days. Two patients had leucopenia, two patients had anemia, and eight patients had thrombocytopenia on admission. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in four cases and total bilirubin levels of six cases were over upper normal limits. Definitive diagnosis of cases was performed with the detection of ring and/or gametocytes forms of the parasite in Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smears. Furthermore, samples from seven patients were studied by nested PCR by using genus (Plasmodium rPLU 1 and 5) and species (rFAL 1 and 2, rVIV 1 and 2, rMAL 1 and 2, rOVA 1 and 2) specific primers. All of these seven samples yielded positive results with primers specific for P.falciparum ssrRNA. In the treatment, arthemeter/lumefantrin and doxycycline combination was used in seven patients, while intravenous artesunate and doxycycline combination was given to two patients, resulting with complete cure. Mean duration for the resolving of fever was 3.3 days, and mean duration for clearing the parasitemia from peripheral blood was 4.9 days. Initial ALT values and the duration of fever resolution (-796; p= 0.010), as well as the duration of parasitemia and initial thrombocyte counts (-797; p= 0.010) were negatively- correlated. It was concluded that, providing sufficient information on malaria and prophylaxis to people travelling to the endemic areas are crutial for protection. Moreover, in endemic areas for Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever, patients with fever and thrombocytopenia should be questioned in detail about the travel history, and peripheral blood smears should be examined in terms of malaria, since their clinical features are similar. Plasmodium PCR should be considered as one of the alternative diagnostic method in malaria, especially in cases with inconclusive microscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0423_9829", "title": "Clinical review: Severe malaria.", "score": 0.014445139758030872, "content": "Malaria represents a medical emergency because it may rapidly progress to complications and death without prompt and appropriate treatment. Severe malaria is almost exclusively caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The incidence of imported malaria is increasing and the case fatality rate remains high despite progress in intensive care and antimalarial treatment. Clinical deterioration usually appears 3-7 days after onset of fever. Complications involve the nervous, respiratory, renal, and/or hematopoietic systems. Metabolic acidosis and hypoglycemia are common systemic complications. Intravenous quinine and quinidine are the most widely used drugs in the initial treatment of severe falciparum malaria, whereas artemisinin derivatives are currently recommended for quinine-resistant cases. As soon as the patient is clinically stable and able to swallow, oral treatment should be given. The intravascular volume should be maintained at the lowest level sufficient for adequate systemic perfusion to prevent development of acute respiratory distress syndrome. Renal replacement therapy should be initiated early. Exchange blood transfusion has been suggested for the treatment of patients with severe malaria and high parasitemia. For early diagnosis, it is paramount to consider malaria in every febrile patient with a history of travel in an area endemic for malaria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0858_10527", "title": "UK malaria treatment guidelines 2016.", "score": 0.014370920020664067, "content": "1.Malaria is the tropical disease most commonly imported into the UK, with 1300-1800 cases reported each year, and 2-11 deaths. 2. Approximately three quarters of reported malaria cases in the UK are caused by Plasmodium falciparum, which is capable of invading a high proportion of red blood cells and rapidly leading to severe or life-threatening multi-organ disease. 3. Most non-falciparum malaria cases are caused by Plasmodium vivax; a few cases are caused by the other species of plasmodium: Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae or Plasmodium knowlesi. 4. Mixed infections with more than one species of parasite can occur; they commonly involve P. falciparum with the attendant risks of severe malaria. 5. There are no typical clinical features of malaria; even fever is not invariably present. Malaria in children (and sometimes in adults) may present with misleading symptoms such as gastrointestinal features, sore throat or lower respiratory complaints. 6. A diagnosis of malaria must always be sought in a feverish or sick child or adult who has visited malaria-endemic areas. Specific country information on malaria can be found at http://travelhealthpro.org.uk/. P. falciparum infection rarely presents more than six months after exposure but presentation of other species can occur more than a year after exposure. 7. Management of malaria depends on awareness of the diagnosis and on performing the correct diagnostic tests: the diagnosis cannot be excluded until more than one blood specimen has been examined. Other travel related infections, especially viral haemorrhagic fevers, should also be considered. 8. The optimum diagnostic procedure is examination of thick and thin blood films by an expert to detect and speciate the malarial parasites. P. falciparum and P. vivax (depending upon the product) malaria can be diagnosed almost as accurately using rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) which detect plasmodial antigens. RDTs for other Plasmodium species are not as reliable. 9. Most patients treated for P. falciparum malaria should be admitted to hospital for at least 24 h as patients can deteriorate suddenly, especially early in the course of treatment. In specialised units seeing large numbers of patients, outpatient treatment may be considered if specific protocols for patient selection and follow up are in place. 10. Uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria should be treated with an artemisinin combination therapy (Grade 1A). Artemether-lumefantrine (Riamet(®)) is the drug of choice (Grade 2C) and dihydroartemisinin-piperaquine (Eurartesim(®)) is an alternative. Quinine or atovaquone-proguanil (Malarone(®)) can be used if an ACT is not available. Quinine is highly effective but poorly-tolerated in prolonged treatment and should be used in combination with an additional drug, usually oral doxycycline. 11. Severe falciparum malaria, or infections complicated by a relatively high parasite count (more than 2% of red blood cells parasitized) should be treated with intravenous therapy until the patient is well enough to continue with oral treatment. Severe malaria is a rare complication of P. vivax or P. knowlesi infection and also requires parenteral therapy. 12. The treatment of choice for severe or complicated malaria in adults and children is intravenous artesunate (Grade 1A). Intravenous artesunate is unlicensed in the EU but is available in many centres. The alternative is intravenous quinine, which should be started immediately if artesunate is not available (Grade 1A). Patients treated with intravenous quinine require careful monitoring for hypoglycemia. 13. Patients with severe or complicated malaria should be managed in a high-dependency or intensive care environment. They may require haemodynamic support and management of: acute respiratory distress syndrome, disseminated intravascular coagulation, acute kidney injury, seizures, and severe intercurrent infections including Gram-negative bacteraemia/septicaemia. 14. Children with severe malaria should also be treated with empirical broad spectrum antibiotics until bacterial infection can be excluded (Grade 1B). 15. Haemolysis occurs in approximately 10-15% patients following intravenous artesunate treatment. Haemoglobin concentrations should be checked approximately 14 days following treatment in those treated with IV artemisinins (Grade 2C). 16. Falciparum malaria in pregnancy is more likely to be complicated: the placenta contains high levels of parasites, stillbirth or early delivery may occur and diagnosis can be difficult if parasites are concentrated in the placenta and scanty in the blood. 17. Uncomplicated falciparum malaria in the second and third trimester of pregnancy should be treated with artemether-lumefantrine (Grade 2B). Uncomplicated falciparum malaria in the first trimester of pregnancy should usually be treated with quinine and clindamycin but specialist advice should be sought. Severe malaria in any trimester of pregnancy should be treated as for any other patient with artesunate preferred over quinine (Grade 1C). 18. Children with uncomplicated malaria should be treated with an ACT (artemether-lumefantrine or dihydroartemisinin-piperaquine) as first line treatment (Grade 1A). Quinine with doxycycline or clindamycin, or atovaquone-proguanil at appropriate doses for weight can also be used. Doxycycline should not be given to children under 12 years. 19. Either an oral ACT or chloroquine can be used for the treatment of non-falciparum malaria. An oral ACT is preferred for a mixed infection, if there is uncertainty about the infecting species, or for P. vivax infection from areas where chloroquine resistance is common (Grade 1B). 20. Dormant parasites (hypnozoites) persist in the liver after treatment of P. vivax or P. ovale infection: the only currently effective drug for eradication of hypnozoites is primaquine (1A). Primaquine is more effective at preventing relapse if taken at the same time as chloroquine (Grade 1C). 21. Primaquine should be avoided or given with caution under expert supervision in patients with Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD), in whom it may cause severe haemolysis. 22. Primaquine (for eradication of P. vivax or P. ovale hypnozoites) is contraindicated in pregnancy and when breastfeeding (until the G6PD status of child is known); after initial treatment for these infections a pregnant woman should take weekly chloroquine prophylaxis until after delivery or cessation of breastfeeding when hypnozoite eradication can be considered. 23. An acute attack of malaria does not confer protection from future attacks: individuals who have had malaria should take effective anti-mosquito precautions and chemoprophylaxis during future visits to endemic areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_3667", "title": "[Artesunate in interrupting the transmission of Plasmodium falciparum].", "score": 0.014241654571843251, "content": "To observe the effect of artesunate (ATS) on the infectivity of Plasmodium falciparum gametocytes (PFG). 31 volunteers with falciparum malaria and gametocytaemia were randomly divided into 3 groups: artesunate (ATS) group (15 cases), quinine (QN) group (10 cases) and placebo group (6 cases). Each case in ATS group received 6-day course of oral artesunate (200 mg at 0, 6 and 24 hours then 100 mg daily for 4 days). Cases in QN group each received 21-dose course of quinine sulfate (500 mg/time) over seven days. Cases in placebo group took 2 tablets of vitamin B composites, three times per day for seven days. Peripheral PFG were counted daily in all cases until the clearance of PFG. Mosquitoes (Anopheles dirus) were fed with venous blood of patients on the 1st, 7th, 14th, 21st and 28th day, respectively. All cases in placebo group were PFG positive at the whole course by blood smear examinations. The PFG relative density in ATS group were (12.5+/-3.3)%, (1.2+/-0.4)%, (0.3+/-0.1)% on 7th, 14th, 21st day respectively, and the mean PFG clearance time was (22.0+/-1.4) d. The PFG relative density in QN group were (173.9+/-47.0)%, (112.5+/-45.4)%, (32.5+/-17.8)% at 7th, 14th, 21st day respectively, and the mean clearance time of PFG was (32.5+/-2.1) d (t=4.731, P&lt;0.01). PFG remained positive on the 28th day in placebo group. The infectivity test to mosquitoes showed on 14th day the positive rate in ATS group, QN group and placebo group were 0, 35.0% and 48.7% respectively. In ATS group, the sporozoite rate of anopheline mosquitoes were 14.8% and 0 at 7th, 14th day, while in QN group, 142.0%, 98.6% and 20.3% at 7th, 14th, 21st day respectively. In placebo group, the infection rate of sporozoites remained stable. Oral administration of artesunate with a total dosage of 1000 mg in 6 days inhibits the infectivity of PFG." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_8776", "title": "Randomized trial of artesunate and mefloquine in comparison with quinine sulfate to treat P. falciparum malaria pregnant women.", "score": 0.014224816977110557, "content": "To compare the effectiveness and safety of quinine sulfate and artesunate with mefloquine for treating second trimester pregnancy in women who suffered from Plasmodium falciparum malaria. The prospective study was done in Srisangwal Hospital, Mae Hong Son, Thailand. Sixty, second to third trimester pregnant patients with P. falciparum infection, were recruited at random. They received either quinine sulfate 10 mg/kg/day for at least 7 days, 29 women (group I), or oral artesunate 2 mg/kg as the first dose, 1 mg/kg every 12 hours orally for at least 5 days together with split doses of mefloquine, 15 mg/kg and 6 hours later 10 mg/kg orally 1 day after artesunate was stopped, 28 women (group II). Three cases (5%) were lost to follow-up before delivery, one case in group I and two cases in group II. After treatment, the mean hematocrit of group I was significantly less than group II (p = 0.000). The PCT (parasite clearance time) and FCT (fever clearance time) of group II were significantly shorter than group I (p = 0.000). None of the patients in both groups had recrudescences within 28 days. Group I had more adverse effects than group II. No adverse neurological effects in pregnancy were found in both groups. The calcification of placenta and IUGR (Intrauterine growth retard) were not different between the two groups (p = 0.964, 0.363 respectively). The PCT was not different between the calcified placenta group and normal placenta group (p = 0.058), but the TTPP (Total time of parasite presentation) was (p = 0.000). TTPP related to low birth weight and low apgar score at 1 minute might be the cause (p = 0.000, 0.000 F = 5.261, 21.627 respectively). TTPP and PCT related to neonatal blood pH and caused low neonatal blood pH (p = 0.000, 0.001 F = 24.351, 11.162 respectively). The physical and neurological development of the babies at 2, 4, 6 and 12 months follow-up, were normal and there were no congenital abnormalities in either group. TTPP relating to fetal outcome, the longer the TTPP, the worse the fetal outcome, so we should diagnose early and treat P. falciparum malaria in pregnancy to prevent fetal jeopardy. Artesunate with mefloquine could shorten the PCT more than quinine sulfate in pregnancy, so the fetal outcome was better than that of quinine sulfate. In cases of prolonged infection before treatment, artesunate might be the alternative treatment of P. falciparum malaria in pregnancy. However, its safety should be carefully studied further with a larger sample size." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_53678", "title": "Plasmodium falciparum", "score": 0.014150943396226415, "content": "Severe malaria For adults, intravenous (IV) or intramuscular (IM) artesunate is recommended. Quinine is an acceptable alternative if parenteral artesunate is not available. For children, especially in the malaria-endemic areas of Africa, artesunate IV or IM, quinine (IV infusion or divided IM injection), and artemether IM are recommended. Parenteral antimalarials should be administered for a minimum of 24 hours, irrespective of the patient's ability to tolerate oral medication earlier. Thereafter, complete treatment is recommended including complete course of ACT or quinine plus clindamycin or doxycycline. Vaccination RTS,S is the only candidate as malaria vaccine to have gone through clinical trials. Analysis of the results of the phase III trial (conducted between 2011 and 2016) revealed a rather low efficacy (20-39% depending on age, with up to 50% in 5–17-month aged babies), indicating that the vaccine will not lead to full protection and eradication." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0721_24961", "title": "Haemolytic anaemia in an HIV-infected patient with severe falciparum malaria after treatment with oral artemether-lumefantrine.", "score": 0.014085179526355997, "content": "Intravenous (i.v.) artesunate is now the recommended first-line treatment of severe falciparum malaria in adults and children by WHO guidelines. Nevertheless, several cases of haemolytic anaemia due to i.v. artesunate treatment have been reported. This paper describes the case of an HIV-infected patient with severe falciparum malaria who was diagnosed with haemolytic anaemia after treatment with oral artemether-lumefantrine.The patient presented with fever, headache, and arthromyalgia after returning from Central African Republic where he had been working. The blood examination revealed acute renal failure, thrombocytopaenia and hypoxia. Blood for malaria parasites indicated hyperparasitaemia (6%) and Plasmodium falciparum infection was confirmed by nested-PCR. Severe malaria according to the laboratory WHO criteria was diagnosed. A treatment with quinine and doxycycline for the first 12 hours was initially administered, followed by arthemeter/lumefantrine (Riamet(®)) for a further three days. At day 10, a diagnosis of severe haemolytic anaemia was made (Hb 6.9 g/dl, LDH 2071 U/l). Hereditary and autoimmune disorders and other infections were excluded through bone marrow aspiration, total body TC scan and a wide panel of molecular and serologic assays. The patient was treated by transfusion of six units of packed blood red cell. He was discharged after complete remission at day 25. At present, the patient is in a good clinical condition and there is no evidence of haemolytic anaemia recurrence.This is the first report of haemolytic anaemia probably associated with oral artemether/lumefantrine. Further research is warranted to better define the adverse events occurring during combination therapy with artemisinin derivatives." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_6678", "title": "[Diagnosis, treatment and prophylaxis of malaria in the Czech Republic].", "score": 0.01407147726166131, "content": "Malaria represents the most important parasitic infection imported from the tropics causing death in 1-2 % of travelers with this diagnosis. Around 30 cases of malaria are diagnosed in the Czech Republic every year. Fever is the most common clinical presentation. The most severe forms of malaria are caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The diagnosis of malaria is based on examination of stained thick and thin blood smears. This method enables determination of Plasmodium species and parasite count. The treatment of ma-laria has to be initiated immediately after the laboratory confirmation. In the Czech Republic, uncomplicated falciparum malaria is treated by oral administration of artemether/lumefantrine or atovaquone/proguanil. Complicated falciparum malaria is treated by parenteral administration of quinine in combination with clindamycin. For the chemoprophylaxis of malaria in travelers to the highly endemic regions, atovaquone/proguanil, doxycycline or mefloquine are recommended." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0649_6668", "title": "[Case report: two imported Plasmodium falciparum cases].", "score": 0.014043245756800743, "content": "A 23 year-old Pakistani man presented at the emergency clinic of Tepecik Research and Training Hospital with the symptoms such as fever (39.3 degrees C), blurred consciousness, subicteric sclera and splenomegalia. In the laboratory examination, a slightly increase of the liver enzymes and anemia were detected. The gametocytes and trophozoites of Plasmodium falciparum were seen in a bone marrow aspiration and treatment was started with quinine and doxycycline but since resistance was detected to these medicines, mefloquine was chosen as alternative therapy. He was cured and discharged. The second case was also a Pakistani 20-year old man and he was a friend of first case. He presented at our hospital with the symptoms such as fever (39.4 degrees C), closed consciousness, icteric sclera and systolic soufflé in all cardiac foci. During the laboratory examination, severe anemia and trombocytopenia, and an increase in the liver enzymes were found. P. falciparum gametocytes and young trophozoites were seen in a blood smear stained with Giemsa. For treatment, mefloquine was used but unfortunately the patient died due to an adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) complication. In this study, two cases with different clinical manifestations were presented to emphasize the importance of timing in starting the correct treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0414_7513", "title": "Safety and therapeutic efficacy of artesunate suppositories for treatment of malaria in children in Papua New Guinea.", "score": 0.013844367015098724, "content": "Although suppositories of artemisinin derivatives may be a valuable option for treatment of malaria in children when circumstances prevent oral and parenteral therapy, few confirmatory data have been published. We assessed the safety and efficacy of rectal artesunate in 47 children ages 5 to 10 years with uncomplicated malaria acquired in a hyperendemic area of Papua New Guinea. Thirty were symptomatic and had Plasmodium falciparum parasitemia &gt;2000/microl (Group 1), 12 had and either a parasitemia &lt;2000/microl or minimal/no symptoms (Group 2) and 5 had Plasmodium vivax (Group 3). Each child received rectal artesunate 10 to 15 mg/kg at 0 and 12 h. After monitoring for 24 h, chloroquine plus sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine was given, and the patient discharged. Artesunate suppositories were well-tolerated. After 24 h only one child (from Group 1) had persistent parasitemia, and only one (from Group 3) had not defervesced. These two children received intramuscular quinine and recovered uneventfully. Three Group 2 children redeveloped fever and tachycardia at 24 h, but each responded to simple supportive measures and remained aparasitemic. Intrarectal artesunate is safe, effective initial treatment for uncomplicated malaria in children. A transient fever spike can sometimes occur after parasite clearance. We recommend that children with uncomplicated malaria receive two doses of &gt; or =10 mg/kg rectal artesunate within the first 24 h." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_36923", "title": "Antimalarial medication", "score": 0.013699204021784667, "content": "The treatment regimen of quinine is complex and is determined largely by the parasite's level of resistance and the reason for drug therapy (i.e. acute treatment or prophylaxis). The World Health Organization recommendation for quinine is 20 mg/kg first times and 10 mg/kg every eight hours for five days where parasites are sensitive to quinine, combined with doxycycline, tetracycline or clindamycin. Doses can be given by oral, intravenous or intramuscular routes. The recommended method depends on the urgency of treatment and the available resources (i.e. sterilised needles for IV or IM injections)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0847_10157", "title": "A randomized trial of the efficacy of artesunate and three quinine regimens in the treatment of severe malaria in children at the Ebolowa Regional Hospital, Cameroon.", "score": 0.013337670787247884, "content": "Severe malaria is a medical emergency with high mortality in children below 5 years of age especially in sub-Saharan Africa. Recently, quinine has been replaced by artesunate as the first-line drug in the treatment of severe malaria in Cameroon. No local data are yet available on the efficacy of artesunate with respect to the different quinine regimens used in this setting. This study was undertaken at the Ebolowa Regional Hospital (ERH), which is located in a region of perennial transmission of malaria. This was a randomized, open-label trial in children aged 3 months to 15 years, admitted in the hospital with severe malaria due to Plasmodium falciparum confirmed on microscopy after informed parental consent. Patients were randomized into four groups. Group 1 (ARTES) received parenteral artesunate at 2.4 mg/kg at H0, H12, H24 and then once daily; Group 2 (QLD) received a loading dose of quinine base at 16.6 mg/kg followed 8 hours later by an eight-hourly maintenance dose of 8.3 mg/kg quinine base; Group 3 (QNLD3) received 8.3 mg/kg quinine base every 8 hours; and, Group 4 (QNLD2) received 12.5 mg/kg quinine base every 12 h. All patients invariably received a minimum of 24 h parenteral treatment, then, oral drugs were prescribed. The endpoints were fever clearance time, time to sit unsupported, time to eat, parasite clearance time, and parasitaemia reduction rate at H24. Survival analysis was used to compare the outcomes. One-hundred and sixteen patients completed the study: 29 in ARTES arm, 28 in QLD arm, 30 in QNLD3 arm, and 29 in QNLD2 arm. There was no major differences in baseline characteristics in the treatment groups. On analysis of endpoints, fever clearance time and parasite clearance time were significantly shorter for artesunate-treated patients than for quinine-treated patients. Parasitaemia reduction rate at H24 was also significantly higher for artesunate. Time to sit unsupported and time to eat were shorter with artesunate, but the difference was not statistically significant. Artesunate is more effective than quinine in the treatment of severe malaria in Cameroonian children." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_53677", "title": "Plasmodium falciparum", "score": 0.01298750188224665, "content": "The choice of ACT is based on the level of resistance to the constituents in the combination. Artemisinin and its derivatives are not appropriate for monotherapy. As second-line antimalarial treatment, when initial treatment does not work, an alternative ACT known to be effective in the region is recommended, such as artesunate plus tetracycline or doxycycline or clindamycin, and quinine plus tetracycline or doxycycline or clindamycin. Any of these combinations is to be given for 7 days. For pregnant women, the recommended first-line treatment during the first trimester is quinine plus clindamycin for 7 days. Artesunate plus clindamycin for 7 days is indicated if this treatment fails. For travellers returning to nonendemic countries, atovaquone/proguanil, artemether/lumefantrineany and quinine plus doxycycline or clindamycin are recommended." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_1618", "title": "[A plasmodium alciparum malaria case originated from Mozambique: clues for the diagnosis and therapy].", "score": 0.012327582966888413, "content": "The aim of this report was the presentation of a falciparum malaria case originated from Mozambique and the evaluation of diagnostic and therapeutic approaches. Sixty years old Canadian male patient who has been working in Mozambique for 13 years was admitted to hospital with the complaints of high fever (39.6 degrees C), weakness, nausea and vomiting, when returned to Turkey. The patient was sleepiness and has undulating confusions with the laboratory findings of thrombocytopenia, hypoglycemia, hyperlactatemia, increased BUN/creatinine levels, increased LDH levels and hypocholesterolemia. The diagnosis was based on the detection of multiple ring formed trophozoites in the thick blood film and the presence of multiple ring forms inside the erythrocytes and the absence of trophozoite and shizont forms in the thin blood film. His medical history revealed that he experienced another falciparum malaria infection one year ago, although he has been using mefloquine prophylaxis during his stay in Mozambique. Since chloroquine resistance was thought to be high in this region, the patient was treated with quinine sulphate and doxycycline. Six days after the onset of therapy, the biochemical markers turned to normal and 14 days later the blood films were free of the parasite. The patient was given doxycycline prophylaxis since he would return to Mozambique. In conclusion, the followings should be taken into consideration for the diagnosis and therapy: (i) cyclic type of fever which is characteristic for malaria, might not be detected in falciparum malaria; (ii) some of the clinical symptoms might be blocked by partial immune response in case of recurrent infections; (iii) thrombocytopenia and hypocholesterolemia might indicate the presence of falciparum malaria; and when falciparum malaria is confirmed by parasitological examinations the patient should be treated as if he/she is accepted as resistant to chloroquine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0768_2956", "title": "[Plasmodium malariae malaria with more than a 4-month incubation period: difficult to distinguish from a relapse of Plasmodium vivax malaria].", "score": 0.01205519244734931, "content": "We report herein on a case of Plasmodium malariae malaria with more than a 4-month incubation period. A 35-year-old Japanese man who first presented to our clinic with fever and history of travel to Papua New Guinea was suspected of having Plasmodium vivax malaria based on peripheral smear results. We admitted him and initiated treatment with mefloquine. After two days of therapy, he became afebrile. We discharged him, and P. vivax was later confirmed with PCR. We started mefloquine prophylaxis for a planned trip to Papua New Guinea. After his return, a standard dose of primaquine (15 mg x 14 days) was prescribed for a radical cure of P. vivax. About 4 months after his last visit to Papua New Guinea, he returned to our clinic with fever. We suspected a relapse of P. vivax malaria and admitted him for a second time. After two days of mefloquine therapy, his symptoms improved. We discharged him and restarted a higher dose of primaquine (30 mg x 14 days) therapy for a radical cure of P. vivax. Subsequently, the PCR test revealed the parasite was P. malariae and not P. vivax. Only 13 cases of Plasmodium malariae malaria have been reported in Japan during the past 10 years. Blood-stage schizonticides such as mefloquine is not active against the liver stage. Therefore, the use of these drugs for prophylaxis will not be effective for prevention of malaria if its liver stage is longer than the duration of effective chemoprophylaxis. Although the incubation period of P. malariae is typically 13 to 28 days, it occasionally lasts for months or even years. Careful attention should be given to the possibility that P. malariae occasionally has a long incubation period even in the absence of the hypnozoite stage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_3565", "title": "Non-falciparum malaria in Dakar: a confirmed case of Plasmodium ovale wallikeri infection.", "score": 0.011957671957671959, "content": "Plasmodium ovale is rarely described in Senegal. A case of clinical malaria due to P. ovale wallikeri in West Central of Senegal is reported. A 34-year-old male baker in Dakar, with no significant previous medical history, was admitted to a health clinic with fever and vomiting. Fever had been lasting for 4 days with peaks every 48 h. As monospecific Plasmodium falciparum HRP-2 RDT was negative, he was treated with antibiotics. However, owing to persisting symptoms, he was referred to the emergency unit of the Youssou Mbargane Diop Hospital, Dakar, Senegal. Clinical examination found impaired general condition. All other physical examinations were normal. Laboratory tests showed anaemia (haemoglobin 11.4 g/dl), severe thrombocytopaenia (platelets 30 × 10(9)/mm(3)), leukopenia (3650/mm(3)), lymphocytopenia (650/mm(3)). Renal function was normal as indicated by creatininaemia and uraemia (11 mg/l and 0.25 g/l, respectively) and liver enzymes were slightly elevated (aspartate aminotransferase 77 UI/l and alanine aminotransferase 82 UI/l). Blood smear evaluations in Parasitology Laboratory of Aristide Le Dantec Hospital showed malaria parasites of the species P. ovale with a 0.08 % parasitaemia. Molecular confirmation was done by real time PCR targeting the 18S rRNA gene. The P. ovale infection was further analysed to species level targeting the potra gene and was identified as P. ovale wallikeri. According to the hospital's malaria treatment guidelines for severe malaria, treatment consisted of intravenous quinine at hour 0 (start of treatment) and 24 h after initial treatment, followed by artemether-lumefantrine 24 h later. A negative microscopy was noted on day 3 post-treatment and the patient reported no further symptoms. Malaria due to non-falciparum species is probably underestimated in Senegal. RDTs specific to non-falciparum species and/or pan specific RDTs should be included as tools of diagnosis to fight against malaria in Senegal. In addition, a field-deployable molecular tool such as the loop-mediated isothermal amplification can be considered as an additional useful tool to detect low malaria parasite infections and for speciation. In addition, national malaria control policies should consider other non-falciparum species in treatment guidelines, including the provision of primaquine for the treatment of relapsing parasites." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_4546", "title": "Artesunate: investigational drug for the treatment of severe falciparum malaria in Hawai'i.", "score": 0.011648145668764227, "content": "There are hundreds of millions of cases of malaria each year worldwide resulting in a million deaths. These deaths are mostly due to Plasmodium falciparum. The only Federal Drug Administration approved treatment for severe malaria is intravenous quinidine gluconate. Intravenous quinidine is increasingly unavailable in the United States. In 2007, the Center for Disease Control and Prevention implemented an investigational new drug protocol to allow the use of intravenous artesunate for cases of severe malaria in the United States. The authors present such a case treated under this protocol at Tripler Army Medical Center, Hawai'i. A 49-year-old man presented to Tripler Army Medical Center, Hawai'i in February 2009 with a one-month history of fever, chills, and weight loss. He recently travelled to multiple malaria endemic areas. Physical examination was significant for fever and prostration. Laboratory studies revealed anemia, thrombocytopenia, and a high parasite load of Plasmodium falciparum. A strategic network was activated to obtain and administer intravenous artesunate. His condition rapidly improved as his parasitemia cleared. He was discharged after six days with no adverse medication effects and full recovery upon six-month follow-up. Our patient met the criteria for severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria. He was immediately treated with intravenous artesunate and manifested a quick and durable response to therapy. At present, intravenous artesunate is awaiting Federal Drug Administration approval but available via a strategic network controlled by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. This case highlights a common delay in diagnosis, importance of optimal prophylaxis, and attention to travel history as they relate to the development of severe malaria." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_324332", "title": "Malaria", "score": 0.011008481468572091, "content": "Recommended treatment for severe malaria is the intravenous use of antimalarial drugs. For severe malaria, parenteral artesunate was superior to quinine in both children and adults. In another systematic review, artemisinin derivatives (artemether and arteether) were as efficacious as quinine in the treatment of cerebral malaria in children. Treatment of severe malaria involves supportive measures that are best done in a critical care unit. This includes the management of high fevers and the seizures that may result from it. It also includes monitoring for poor breathing effort, low blood sugar, and low blood potassium. Artemisinin derivatives have the same or better efficacy than quinolones in preventing deaths in severe or complicated malaria. Quinine loading dose helps to shorten the duration of fever and increases parasite clearance from the body. There is no difference in effectiveness when using intrarectal quinine compared to intravenous or intramuscular quinine in treating" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_22844", "title": "Efficacy of Quinine versus Artemether in the treatment of severe malaria.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "For centuries Quinine has been used as very effective antimalarial drug and with advent of Artemisinin and its derivative Artemether there stands a concern about the superiority among these drugs especially in case of severe malaria in paediatric population. This study compares these drugs to explore their effectiveness. A randomized prospective study was conducted with a view to compare efficacy regarding fever clearance, parasitaemia clearance and coma resolution between Quinine (10 milligrams per kilogram per dose diluted in 100 ml of 10 % dextrose solution T.D.S for seven days) and Artemether (3.2 milligrams per kilogram per day I.M on the first day and 1.6 milligrams per kilogram per day from second to fifth day of treatment) among 138 children with severe malaria in Bolan Medical College, Quetta, Pakistan. Study was conducted from December 2009 to December 2011. Ethical clearance was taken from Ethical clearance committee, Bolan Medical College, Quetta, Pakistan. Parasitaemia clearance was better with Artemether than Quinine. Parasitaemia clearance was 68 (98.55%) and 69 (100%) on third and fifth day respectively in Artemether group while Quinine group had 64 (92.75%) and 67 (97.1%) on third and fifth day respectively [third day [RR=0.9412 (95%CI, 0.8759-1.0113) P=0.2084 and fifth day respectively [RR=0.9571 (95%CI 0.9109-1.0058) P=0.2446]. Between 24-72 hours the coma recovery rate for Quinine and Artemether were 49 (98%) and 41 (85.41%) respectively [RR=1.1473 (95%CI 1.0141-1.298) P=0.029203 but after 72 hours of treatment the coma recovery remained 49 (98%) for quinine while it was 42 (87.5%) for artemether; RR=1.12 (95%CI 0.9993-1.2553) P=0.0568. The rapid resolution of coma with Quinine within 24 to 72 hours and after 72 hours were statistically significant than Artemether. In severe paediatric malaria intravenous Quinine or intramuscular Artemether therapy does not have any statistically significant difference in terms of fever clearance but Quinine has statistically significant shorter duration of coma resolution than with Artemether therapy after 24 hours of treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_36940", "title": "Antimalarial medication", "score": 0.009829634364049104, "content": "Mefloquine can only be taken for a period up to six months due to side effects. After this, other drugs (such as those based on paludrine/nivaquine) again need to be taken.[Mefloquine]] was developed during the Vietnam War and is chemically related to quinine. It was developed to protect American troops against multi-drug resistant P. falciparum. It is a very potent blood schizonticide with a long half-life. It is thought to act by forming toxic heme complexes that damage parasitic food vacuoles. Mefloquine is effective in prophylaxis and for acute therapy. It is now used solely for the prevention of resistant strains of P. falciparum (usually combined with Artesunate) despite being effective against P. vivax, P. ovale and P. marlariae. Chloroquine/proguanil or sulfa drug-pyrimethamine combinations should be used in all other plasmodia infections.[Mefloquine]] was developed during the Vietnam War and is chemically related to quinine. It was developed to protect American troops against" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_18347", "title": "Quinine toxicity when given with doxycycline and mefloquine.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The pharmacokinetic and dynamic interactions among 3 antimalarials, ie quinine, doxycycline and mefloquine was observed in a 26-year-old Thai male patient with falciparum malaria. During the acute episode of the infection, the patient was treated with an intravenous dose of quinine hydrochloride at 600 mg qid, together with an oral dose of doxycycline 100 mg bid. Due to nausea, tinnitus and the persistence of parasitemia in peripheral blood smears, the dose of quinine was reduced 2 days after the first treatment to 300 mg; concurrently oral mefloquine 750 mg was given as 2 divided doses at 24 hours apart. During the course of treatment, the patient developed hearing loss; deafness of the right ear lasted for one week after stopping quinine administration. Higher plasma quinine and lower whole blood mefloquine concentrations than would be expected from the simulation profiles were detected 4 days after the first treatment. However, the concentration of mefloquine was increased upon the cessation of quinine treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_21885", "title": "[Parenteral combined quinine-artesunate therapy in life-threatening malaria].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 31-year old French woman of congolese origin was referred to the intensive care unit of our University Hospital after a visit to the Democratic Republic of Congo in a highly febrile and semi-conscious status. Microscopy of stained thin and thick blood films revealed Plasmodium falciparum trophzoites with a high parasitaemia of 50 % and confirmed the clinical suspicion of a life-threatening malaria. Immediate intravenous quinine with a loading dose of 20 mg/kg body weight was initiated followed by 10 mg/kg every 8 hrs. Since the patient lost consciousness, artesunate was added six hours later in the recommended dose of 2.4 mg/kg immediately, repeated after 12 and 24 hrs, followed by a daily dose of 2.4 mg/kg. Furthermore, clindamycin at a dose of 20 mg/kg body weight / d i. v. was given. Anaemia was corrected by 4 erythrocyte concentrates until a haemoglobina concentration of 9.6 g/dl was reached. Now the patient rapidly recovered, and parasitaemia dropped to 0.1 % within 24 hrs. Already the following day blood films cleared completely from malaria parasites. The case illustrates the rapid efficacy of a combined parenteral quinine-artesunate therapy in life-threatening falciparum malaria with an unusually high parasitaemia." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Alport syndrome.", "2": "IgA nephropathy.", "3": "Fabry disease.", "4": "Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1164_2297", "title": "Polycystic kidney disease complicates renal pathology in a family with Fabry disease.", "score": 0.01763791763791764, "content": "Fabry disease is a rare lysosomal storage disorder that primarily affects the heart and kidneys, often presenting with reduced renal function. Polycystic kidney disease is a renal condition in which cysts are found, which have a different presentation than the cysts associated with Fabry disease. We report a 60-year-old male patient who was diagnosed with Fabry disease with the classic c.730G &gt; A (p.Asp244Asn) variant of the <iGLA</i gene at 34 years of age. Fabry symptoms in this patient include hypohidrosis, hearing loss, corneal whorling, and edema. He also presented with polycystic kidney disease with multiple simple and mildly complex cysts on abdominal ultrasound. Family history of note included Fabry disease in his mother and maternal uncle as well as polycystic kidneys in his mother. Molecular analysis for polycystic kidney disease revealed a variant of uncertain significance (VUS) in the <iPKD1</i gene. Although the in silico studies of this VUS have inconclusive results, the patient fills clinical criteria of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, therefore, Fabry disease and polycystic kidney disease are considered two co-existing manifestations in this family. This case demonstrates the possibility of two renal comorbidities in the same individual and the risk of one diagnosis being overlooked by the other." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_19000", "title": "Autosomal dominant Alport's syndrome: study of a large Tunisian family.", "score": 0.017379679144385027, "content": "Alport's syndrome is a hereditary nephritis that may lead to end-stage renal disease (ESRD) in early adult life. It is a clinically and genetically heterogeneous nephropathy. Alport's syndrome is often associated with sensorineural deafness and/or ocular abnormalities. In contrast with the well-known X-linked phenotype, very little is known about the autosomal dominant form caused by mutations in COL4A3 and COL4A4 in the chromosome region 2q35-q37. We describe a Tunisian family with autosomal dominant Alport's syndrome in which males and females were equally affected. Two members reached ESRD at age 40 and 53 years, respectively. Three members experienced isolated microhematuria and one member experienced sensorineural deafness. No eye abnormalities were observed. Immunohistochemical studies showed a normal distribution of the alpha5 (type IV collagen) chain in the epidermal basement membrane. Genetic analysis demonstrated that a common haplotype co-segregated with the disease in the heterozygous state in all affected patients, thereby, confirming an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance. The same haplotype was observed in two asymptomatic children. We conclude that autosomal dominant Alport's syndrome, follows a rare mode of inheritance and exhibits a milder phenotype than usually observed in classic X-linked Alport's syndrome. The frequency of this mode of inheritance should be confirmed by a larger study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0906_6857", "title": "A case report on the exceptional coincidence of two inherited renal disorders: ADPKD and Alport syndrome
.", "score": 0.017095234703326447, "content": "Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is the most common genetic cause of dialysis-requiring end-stage renal disease in adults and is characterized by the slowly progressing replacement of renal tissue by focal macrocysts. Alport syndrome (AS; hereditary nephritis) is a rare, inherited disorder of the basement membrane associated with hematuria, proteinuria, and loss of kidney function as well as sensorineural hearing loss and ocular abnormalities. Here, we report on a family in which both ADPKD and AS are present. In a male patient, both -ADPKD and AS coincided. This patient shows the very rare coexistence of two severe, inherited renal disorders and illustrates the importance of considering additional diagnoses in the setting of positive family history for a common hereditary disorder.
." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_11100", "title": "[From Alport syndrome to benign familial hematuria: clinical and genetic aspect].", "score": 0.01670843776106934, "content": "Alport syndrome (AS) is a hereditary glomerulonephritis variably associated with neural hearing loss and ocular abnormalities. The prevalence of the disease is estimated at approximately 1 in 50,000 live births. AS arises from mutations in genes encoding alpha chains constituting type IV collagen. In 85% of patients, the disease results from mutations in the COL4A5 gene located on X chromosome. In the hemizygous male, persistent microhematuria is present from early life, then proteinuria and renal insufficiency occur with time, leading to end-stage renal failure before age 40. In the heterozygous female, clinical manifestations vary from completely healthy state to end-stage renal failure, most often reached after the age of 40. In 15% of patients, the disease results from mutations in either the COL4A3 or the COL4A4 gene, both located on chromosome 2. When both alleles are mutated (autosomal recessive form), the phenotype is constantly severe, resembling that of the hemizygous male in the X-linked form. In the heterozygous individual, the clinical spectrum vary from the absence of any manifestation to the development of proteinuria - the so-called autosomal-dominant AS -, and even renal insufficiency, sometimes reaching end-stage (after the age of 40) through the most frequently encountered phenotype, i.e. a persistently isolated microhematuria, accounting for the so-called benign familial hematuria (or healthy carrier state). The determinants of the phenotype remain largely unknown, so that it may be risky to predict renal prognosis in the individual with a single COL4A3/A4 mutation and an isolated microhematuria at the time of examination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_14599", "title": "A familial case of mitochondrial disease resembling Alport syndrome.", "score": 0.015024766097963677, "content": "A 38-year-old man with mild sensorineural hearing loss, diabetes mellitus, proteinuria, and slight renal dysfunction was admitted to our hospital for a renal biopsy to determine the cause of kidney disease. His elder sister and mother also had sensorineural hearing loss and renal failure, suggesting the existence of a common genetic disease in this family. Although the clinical features of the patient were similar to features of Alport syndrome, renal biopsy revealed no sign of Alport syndrome. We next considered a possibility of a mitochondrial kidney disease described by Jansen in 1997. Indeed, genetic analysis of mitochondrial DNA clarified the existence of A3243G mutation in the patient and his sister. This syndrome should be recognized by nephrologists as a differential diagnosis of Alport syndrome, diabetic nephropathy, and primary glomerular diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0673_13722", "title": "Living donor kidney transplantation in patients with hereditary nephropathies.", "score": 0.014850986709625454, "content": "Patients with some hereditary nephropathies-including autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), Fabry disease and Alport syndrome-can progress to end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and are candidates for kidney transplantation. When considering whether a potential living donor is appropriate for a particular patient, clinicians should be aware of the increased risk of adverse outcomes for the donor and the recipient. Renal transplantation from a living related donor is not contraindicated in most nephropathies that have an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance (for example, autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease and cystinosis). Renal transplant recipients with ADPKD, however, should only receive a kidney from a related donor if the disease has been excluded in the donor by imaging and/or genetic testing. Potential living related donors for patients with Alport syndrome should be evaluated carefully for the presence of microhematuria and microalbuminuria before a decision is made to perform transplantation, and mothers or heterozygous sisters of affected male recipients with X-linked Alport syndrome should be informed about the possible long-term increased risk of renal dysfunction associated with donation. Most patients with atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome should not receive a kidney transplant from a living donor because there is a high risk of disease recurrence and graft loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1101_24747", "title": "Family History is Important to Identify Patients with Monogenic Causes of Adult-Onset Chronic Kidney Disease.", "score": 0.014638792800922444, "content": "Monogenic causes of chronic kidney disease (CKD) are more prevalent in adults than previously thought, as causative gene variants are found in almost 10% of unselected patients with CKD. Even so, genetic testing in patients with adult-onset CKD is uncommon in clinical practice and the optimal criteria for patient selection remain unclear. A family history of kidney disease emerges as one marker associated with a high diagnostic yield of genetic testing. We present 3 cases of adult-onset CKD with underlying monogenic causes exemplifying different modes of inheritance. Case 1 is a 60-year-old male with slowly progressive CKD initially ascribed to hypertension and diabetes despite a family history with several affected first-degree relatives. A pathogenic MUC1 variant was found, and thus we identified the first Danish family of MUC1-associated autosomal dominant tubulointerstitial kidney disease. Case 2 is a 40-year-old female with nephrocalcinosis, nephrolithiasis, and unexplainable hypercalcemia consistent with vitamin D intoxication. The family history indicated autosomal recessive inheritance, and genetic testing revealed 2 pathogenic CYP24A1 variants in compound heterozygous form associated with idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia. Case 3 is a 50-year-old male with microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and hearing loss. Electron microscopy of renal biopsy showed thin basal membrane syndrome, and the family history indicated X-linked inheritance. A novel missense variant in COL4A5 was identified, suggesting an atypical late-onset form of X-linked Alport syndrome. This case series illustrates the heterogeneous presentations of monogenic kidney disease in adults and emphasizes the importance of family history for initiating genetic testing to identify underlying monogenic causation. Moreover, we discuss the potential impact of genetic diagnostics on patient management and genetic family counseling." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1015_866", "title": "The Hypomorphic Variant p.(Gly624Asp) in <i>COL4A5</i> as a Possible Cause for an Unexpected Severe Phenotype in a Family With X-Linked Alport Syndrome.", "score": 0.014162077104642014, "content": "<bBackground:</b Alport syndrome (AS) is a progressive kidney disorder leading to end stage renal disease (ESRD). Extrarenal symptoms like hearing loss and ocular changes can be observed. Approximately 85% of the patients carry pathogenic variants in <iCOL4A5</i (X-linked inheritance). The variant c.1871G&gt;A, p.(Gly624Asp) in <iCOL4A5</i is described in the literature as a hypomorphic variant associated with thin basement membrane nephropathy (TBMN). ESRD was only seen rarely at a median age of 50 years and extrarenal manifestations have only been described in single cases. <bCase report and Methods:</b This is a report on a family with X-linked AS. In the female index patient, microscopic hematuria, and proteinuria were observed beginning at the age of 20 years and 41 years, respectively. Microscopic hematuria was also present in the daughter (from 6th month of life), the son (from 22nd month of life), the mother and the maternal grandniece. Proteinuria was observed in the maternal aunt and paternal grandmother. The father of the index patient, a paternal uncle and a second cousin presented with ESRD at the age of 49, 34, and 70 years of life, respectively. Extrarenal manifestations were absent in the whole family. In the index patient, her children and her mother molecular diagnostics were performed using Sanger and exome sequencing. <bResults:</b In all examined family members the variant c.1871G&gt;A, p.(Gly624Asp) in <iCOL4A5</i was identified. With the exception of the index patient, who was homozygous for this variant, all family members carried the variant heterozygously, or hemizygously. A different or additional monogenic hereditary nephropathy could not be detected by exome sequencing of the index patient. <bDiscussion:</b This is the first report of a patient with the variant p.(Gly624Asp) in <iCOL4A5</i in a homozygous state. The variant was previously reported as a mild variant requiring dialysis in less than 10%. The family presented, however, with a more severe clinical course. We therefore suggest to question the term \"hypomorphic\" in the context of the variant p.(Gly624Asp) although molecular diagnostics could not be done in all affected family members." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1152_8863", "title": "Novel mutation in the <i>SALL1</i> gene in a four-generation Chinese family with uraemia: A case report.", "score": 0.013428381962864722, "content": "Approximately 10% of adults and nearly all children who receive renal replacement therapy have inherited risk factors or are related to genetic factors. In the past, due to the limitations of detection technology and the nonspecific manifestations of uraemia, the etiological diagnosis is unclear. In addition to common monogenic diseases and complex disorders, advanced testing techniques have led to the recognition of more hereditary renal diseases. Here, we report a four-generation Chinese family in which four individuals had a novel <iSALL1</i mutation and presented with uraemia or abnormal urine tests. A 32-year-old man presented with end-stage renal disease with a 4-year history of dialysis. His father and paternal aunt both had a history of unexplained renal failure with haemodialysis, and his 10-year-old daughter presented with proteinuria. The patient had multiple congenital abnormalities, including bilateral overlapping toes, unilateral dysplastic external ears, and sensorineural hearing loss. His family members also presented with similar defects. Genetic testing revealed that the proband carried a novel heterozygous shift mutation in <iSALL1_</iexon 2 (c.3437delG), and Sanger sequencing confirmed the same mutation in all affected family members. We report a novel <iSALL1</i exon 2 (c.3437delG) mutation and clinical syndrome with kidney disease, bilateral overlapping toes, unilateral dysplastic external ears, and sensorineural hearing loss in a four-generation Chinese family." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en422_14318", "title": "Mesoamerican nephropathy", "score": 0.012925170068027212, "content": "Suspected disease: Estimated GFR (eGFR) < 60 ml/min/1.73m2 Absence of diabetes, hypertension, autoimmune disease, glomerular disease, congenital kidney disease, obstructive kidney disease as a clear cause of kidney disease (these comorbidities may be present but cannot account for disease development) Residing in a hotspot region Proteinuria < 2g/24h or 2g/g urine creatinine Likely disease: All of the above, plus eGFR < 60 ml/min/1.73m2 on 3 month or longer repeat measurement Relative hypokalemia and/or hyperuricemia Kidney ultrasound with loss of corticomedullary differentiation or bilateral small kidney size, without cystic disease or large stone burden Kidney biopsy showing primary tubulointerstitial disease without alternative cause of kidney disease in evidence" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en068_32090", "title": "Thin basement membrane disease", "score": 0.011887651215714458, "content": "Some individuals with TBMD are thought to be carriers for genes that cause Alport syndrome. Diagnosis Thin basement membrane disease must be differentiated from the other two common causes of glomerular hematuria, IgA nephropathy and Alport syndrome. The history and presentation are helpful in this regard: In Alport syndrome, there is often a family history of kidney failure, which may be associated with hearing impairment. Also, males tend to be more affected as Alport syndrome is X-linked in most cases. In IgA nephropathy, episodes of frank hematuria are more common, and a family history is less common." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5657", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C12)", "score": 0.011781739722916193, "content": "– kidney diseases – aids-associated nephropathy – anuria – diabetes insipidus – diabetes insipidus, nephrogenic – diabetes insipidus, neurogenic – wolfram syndrome – diabetic nephropathies – fanconi syndrome – hepatorenal syndrome – hydronephrosis – hyperoxaluria, primary – hypertension, renal – hypertension, renovascular – kidney calculi – kidney cortex necrosis – kidney diseases, cystic – medullary sponge kidney – multicystic dysplastic kidney – polycystic kidney diseases – polycystic kidney, autosomal dominant – polycystic kidney, autosomal recessive – kidney neoplasms – carcinoma, renal cell – wilms tumor – denys-drash syndrome – wagr syndrome – nephroma, mesoblastic – kidney papillary necrosis – nephritis – glomerulonephritis – anti-glomerular basement membrane disease – goodpasture syndrome – glomerulonephritis, iga – glomerulonephritis, membranoproliferative – glomerulonephritis, membranous" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25243", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.011736190840668452, "content": "will show red blood cells, usually as red cell urinary casts. Proteinuria, usually less than 2 grams per day, also may be present. Other renal causes of isolated hematuria include thin basement membrane disease and Alport syndrome, the latter being a hereditary disease associated with hearing impairment and eye problems." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1053_24414", "title": "Long-term outcome among females with Alport syndrome from a single pediatric center.", "score": 0.011575381140598532, "content": "Alport syndrome (AS) is a multisystem condition which can result in progressive kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular changes. X-linked inheritance is observed in 85% of affected individuals. As a result, most prior studies have focused on males. Girls with AS can also be symptomatic although historically thought to have few clinical manifestations in childhood. The objective of the study was to describe the clinical presentation and course of females with AS. A single-center retrospective study of all young females with AS between January 1, 1987, and May 20, 2019. Subjects were identified using ICD-9/10 diagnosis codes for AS, familial hematuria, or nephritis. Clinical data were extracted by retrospective chart review. Thirty-six female patients were included in the analysis. Mean age at presentation was 5.58 ± 3.0 years, and mean follow-up was 5.9 ± 3.9 years. Twenty-nine patients (80%) had a family history of AS. At end of the follow-up period, gross hematuria was observed in 15 patients (42%), 20 (56%) developed proteinuria, and 2 (6.7%) had an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) &lt; 90 ml/min/1.73m<sup2</sup with one patient developing stage 5 chronic kidney disease. Four of the twenty-seven (14.8%) who underwent audiologic testing had an abnormal exam. Known family histories of AS or gross hematuria were the most common reasons for the initial presentation in our cohort. Development of proteinuria, eGFR &lt; 90 ml/min/1.73m<sup2</sup, and abnormal audiology exam are not exceptional findings, suggesting that close monitoring of young females into adulthood is warranted." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en081_30925", "title": "Barakat syndrome", "score": 0.011554738835059584, "content": "Barakat syndrome, is a rare disease characterized by hypoparathyroidism, sensorineural deafness and renal disease, and hence also known as HDR syndrome. It was first described by Amin J. Barakat et al. in 1977. Presentation It is a genetic developmental disorder with clinical diversity characterized by hypoparathyroidism, sensorineural deafness and renal disease. Affected people usually present with hypocalcaemia, tetany, or afebrile convulsions at any age. Hearing loss is usually bilateral and may range from mild to profound impairment. Renal disease includes nephrotic syndrome, cystic kidney, renal dysplasia, hypoplasia or aplasia, pelvicalyceal deformity, vesicoureteral reflux, chronic kidney disease, hematuria, proteinuria and renal scarring. Other reported features include: intellectual disability, polycystic ovaries, particular distinct facial characteristics, ischaemic stroke and retinitis pigmentosa." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_19029", "title": "Phenotypic heterogeneity in females with X-linked Alport syndrome.", "score": 0.01043053103354611, "content": "X-linked Alport syndrome (AS) is a monogenic inherited disorder of type IV collagen, a structural protein in the kidney and cochlea. Males typically exhibit a severe phenotype with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and/or deafness by early adulthood. Because of the presence of two X chromosomes, females often have a less severe phenotype and hence the diagnosis of AS is often not considered. Herein, we present a case of an adolescent girl with proteinuria and hematuria in the setting of a strong family history of AL. The mother and maternal aunt of the proband had both presented with dipstick positive hematuria and proteinuria at age 8 years. These girls were not evaluated by nephrology until mid-adolescence when they had worsening creatinine levels. Kidney biopsy in the younger sister demonstrated segmental glomerulosclerosis with segmental thinning and lamination of the glomerular basement membrane, consistent with AS. Kidney biopsy in the older sister was performed just prior to the need for renal replacement therapy and showed only global glomerulosclerosis. Both sisters were transplanted by the age of 20 years. Their mother subsequently developed ESRD at age 53 years. With the advent of genetic testing, the proband and her family were brought in for evaluation. It had been assumed this family of AS had autosomal dominant transmission, however, genetic testing of the proband was positive for a splice site mutation of COL4A5 located on the X-chromosome. Sequencing of genes COL4A3, COL4A4, and COL4A6 were negative for mutation. The current case report demonstrates the importance of considering skewed X-inactivation in females who exhibit signs or symptoms of Xlinked disorders." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_42143", "title": "Alport syndrome", "score": 0.010134022446859719, "content": "Gene therapy has been frequently discussed, but delivering it to the podocytes in the glomerulus that normally produce the type IV collagen in the glomerular basement membrane is challenging. Hearing loss It is not known whether ACE inhibitors or other treatments affect hearing loss. For those with classic Alport syndrome, hearing aids are often required in teenage or young adult years. Prognosis Studies of the life expectancy of patients with Alport syndrome are rare, but one 2012 study found that Alport patients receiving renal replacement therapy (dialysis or kidney transplantation) exhibited, on average, better survival compared with matched controls who had other renal diseases (and who also received renal replacement therapy). See also AMMECR1 Samoyed hereditary glomerulopathy, a disease shown to be a model for Alport syndrome. Fechtner syndrome Thin basement membrane disease References External links GeneReview/NIH/UW entry on Alport syndrome" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_76154", "title": "Assessment of kidney function", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The severity of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is described by six stages; the most severe three are defined by the MDRD-eGFR value, and first three also depend on whether there is other evidence of kidney disease (e.g., proteinuria): 0) Normal kidney function – GFR above 90 (mL/min)/(1.73 m2) and no proteinuria 1) CKD1 – GFR above 90 (mL/min)/(1.73 m2) with evidence of kidney damage 2) CKD2 (mild) – GFR of 60 to 89 (mL/min)/(1.73 m2) with evidence of kidney damage 3) CKD3 (moderate) – GFR of 30 to 59 (mL/min)/(1.73 m2) 4) CKD4 (severe) – GFR of 15 to 29 (mL/min)/(1.73 m2) 5) CKD5 kidney failure – GFR less than 15 (mL/min)/(1.73 m2) Some people add CKD5D for those stage 5 patients requiring dialysis; many patients in CKD5 are not yet on dialysis. Note: others add a \"T\" to patients who have had a transplant regardless of stage." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_111576", "title": "Glomerular filtration rate", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The severity of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is described by six stages; the most severe three are defined by the MDRD-eGFR value, and first three also depend on whether there is other evidence of kidney disease (e.g., proteinuria): 0) Normal kidney function – GFR above 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 and no proteinuria 1) CKD1 – GFR above 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 with evidence of kidney damage 2) CKD2 (mild) – GFR of 60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m2 with evidence of kidney damage 3) CKD3 (moderate) – GFR of 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m2 4) CKD4 (severe) – GFR of 15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m2 5) CKD5 kidney failure – GFR less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 Some people add CKD5D for those stage 5 patients requiring dialysis; many patients in CKD5 are not yet on dialysis. Note: others add a \"T\" to patients who have had a transplant regardless of stage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_18999", "title": "The renal allograft donor with isolated microhematuria.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Recently, there has been extensive debate about extending the criteria for accepting living donors to include the presence of mild renal abnormalities such as isolated microhematuria. Hematuria defined as the detection of greater than five red blood cells per high power field can be associated with abnormalities throughout the urinary tract. Detection of casts or dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment with or without proteinuria could indicate underlying intrinsic renal disease. Anatomic causes, such as stones and tumors, should be excluded; cystoscopy may be indicated to exclude bladder pathology. Obviously, urinary tract infection, uncontrolled hypertension and latent diabetes mellitus must be excluded. Microscopic hematuria could be associated with mesangial IgA deposits; as 10% of first-degree relatives of patients with IgA glomerulonephritis suffer from microhematuria and/or proteinuria that may require consideration of renal biopsy. Microhematuria could also be associated with other known hereditary renal diseases such as C3 deposits disease, IgM nephropathy, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, Alport's syndrome or thin basement membrane disease. In conclusion, careful assessment of isolated microhematuria, in the context of living kidney donation, is mandatory as results may reveal occult renal disease that may contraindicate kidney donation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0088_17129", "title": "[Familial hematuria and Alport's syndrome].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In their review the authors discuss the history of Alport's syndrome, its nomenclature, incidence, genetics, clinical diagnosis. The authors emphasize electron microscopic findings and criteria of the diagnosis (haematuria or renal failure in the family, progressive nervous deafness, typical changes of the basal glomerular membrane (GBM) and ophtalmological findings of lenticonus or perimacular spots. Familial haematuria (FH) is according to the authors defined as haematuria in several members of the family. Based on data in the literature and the authors' experience, the authors discuss the differential diagnosis of FH where Alport's syndrome is relatively rare. A far more frequent unit is benign familial haematuria characterized morphologically as isolated thinning of the GBM. In some cases these patients are threatened by iatrogenic damage from unnecessary and invasive diagnostic method. The finding of thinned GBM and normal renal function in the parents and grandparents suggest a favourable prognosis also in child patients. Cases of familial glomerulonephritis or idiopathic syndrome with glomerulosclerosis or familial IgA nephropathies are relatively rare. Familial haematuria is are relatively rare. Familial haematuria is relatively frequent (according to the authors 20% of all obscure haematurias) and their diagnosis is based on systematic examination of the urine in other members of the patient's family who also suffer from haematuria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0091_10593", "title": "Familial thin basement membrane nephropathy in children with asymptomatic microhematuria.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A review of 130 children with persistent microhematuria showed that the most common abnormality was a form of hereditary nephritis for wich we propose the term 'familial thin basement membrane nephropathy' (FTBMN). This lesion is not as severe as that of Alport's syndrome but carries a guarded prognosis. Family histories, urinalyses and audiograms systematically done on parents and other relatives show that FTBMN may be present in as many as 39% of children with persistent microhematuria and that careful family studies identify children likely to have this lesion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0936_590", "title": "[Prevalence of kidney disease in asymptomatic children with family history of renal replacement therapy].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Having a first- or second-degree relative with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been reported as a risk factor for CKD development. The aim of the study was to determine the prevalence of CKD in children with a first- or second-degree relative undergoing renal replacement therapy (hemodialysis or renal transplant). A screening study was performed in asymptomatic children with a family history of CKD in a first- or second-degree relative undergoing renal replacement therapy. Informed consent was obtained in all cases. A clinical examination was performed. Blood and urine samples were obtained for serum creatinine, serum electrolytes, urinalysis, and microalbumin/creatinine ratio. There were 45 subjects included with a median age of 9.6 years; 24 (53%) were male. Urinary abnormality/CKD was observed in 11 subjects (24.4%). The most common urinary abnormalities were hematuria (6/11) and microalbuminuria (4/11). Stage 2 CKD was found in seven subjects and four subjects with stage 1 CKD. The study of families of patients undergoing renal replacement therapy is useful to identify children in early stages of kidney disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en346_29976", "title": "Samoyed hereditary glomerulopathy", "score": 0.009434703986162434, "content": "Description SHG is caused by a nonsense mutation in codon 1027 of the COL4A5 gene on the X chromosome (glycine to stop codon), which is similar to Alport syndrome in humans. The disease is simply inherited, X-linked dominant, with males generally having more severe symptoms than females. Clinically, from the age of three to four months, proteinuria in both sexes is seen. In dogs older than this, kidney failure in combination with more or less pronounced hearing loss occurs swiftly, and death at the age of 8 to 15 months is expected. In heterozygous females, whereby only one of the two X chromosomes carry the mutation, the disease develops slowly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0497_11156", "title": "[Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome in IgA nephropathy].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 46-year-old male, smoker of half a packet a day and an alcohol intake of 80 grams a day, with an unremarkable medical history, was referred to our service in the year 1988 for a study of nephrotic syndrome. He presented normal renal function, without either microhematuria nor hypertension. In blood analysis an albuminemia of 10 g/l and proteinuria of 22 g/d was observed. A first renal biopsy was carried out which indicated minimal change disease. Steroid treatment was started, as a result the nephrotic syndrome disappeared and the blood analysis normalized. Later he had 4 new outbreaks, all of them steroid-responsive. In 1992 a second renal biopsy was performed after the fourth outbreak and the presence of mild renal failure, that this time indicated a IgA nephropathy. Steroid treatment was tried again, and this time cyclophosphamide was added to try to reduce steroid doses. This result in normalization of renal function and decrease of proteinuria to 2 g/d. The patient remained stable until 1996 when the fifth outbreak occurred, again with mild renal failure and proteinuria in nephrotic range. Therefore a third renal biopsy was performed, that confirmed the presence of IgA nephropathy, but now with signs of histological progression of the disease. Following this, he presented five outbreaks in 3 years, all of them steroid-responsive, with decrease of proteinuria although without renal function normalization. In the year 2000, at his tenth outbreak of nephrotic syndrome it was decided to add cyclosporine to the steroid treatment, achieving the stability of the patient, without further outbreaks until now, with proteinuria of 1.6 g/d and C. creat. 59 ml/min." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0243_11533", "title": "[Epidemiological study in 4 family units with Alport's syndrome].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "At the Nephrology Department of the Hospital Infantil de Mexico, four cases of Alport's syndrome. with no relation among themselves, were studied between, June 1978 and November 1979. The diagnosis was based on the presence in the patients, of proteinuria and/or hematuria and in some of the relatives, a history of renal disease, deafness and a variable degree of renal failure; at the renal biopsy examined with electronic microscopy, there were findings compatible with Alport's disease in all four cases. Field studied were carried in the largest possible number of relatives for each family group the clinical viewpoint including measurement of blood pressure, examination of urine with reactive stripes to detect proteinuria and hematuria and audiologic examination. In the group, 130 subjects were studied out of a total of 237; 37% were found affected; 21% complaining of deafness; four female cases (19%) had not reach an uremic condition. From the second group 36 subjects were studied out of 109 members. Fifty per cent were found affected. Three cases had reached an uremic state (15%). Out of the third group with a total of 74 members, 34 cases were studied and 62% were found affected. Two female cases (12%) were complaining of uremia. The third group comprised 60 members and 19 of them were studied finding 13% affected with 2 cases of uremia. There were cases exclusively with renal or auditive involvement or both, at the same time. In our casuistics, most of the cases affected of the kidney or of the auditive apparatus were female patients; likewise, the most severely ill were females. Out of the 106 patients affected of the kidney, there were 11 with uremia and 8 were females. It was noticed that both males and females who were affected, had children of either sex with the same degree of affection, the same as other children with no changes at all; therefore, it is concluded that transmission is by dominant autosomal heredity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0906_12783", "title": "Nephrotic-range proteinuria in an infant with thin basement membrane nephropathy.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Thin basement membrane nephropathy (TBMN) with heterozygous COL4A3/COL4A4 mutations is considered to be a cause of benign familial hematuria. The disease has been believed to have excellent prognosis and TBMN in early childhood is rarely associated with nephrotic-range proteinuria. Furthermore, the presence of proteinuria in patients with TBMN is associated with autosomal-dominant Alport syndrome, which has poorer prognosis in later life. We present an infant case of nephrotic-range proteinuria associated with TBMN caused by heterozygous COL4A4 mutation. A previously healthy 3-year-old boy developed microhematuria and nephrotic-range proteinuria. Renal pathology simply revealed thinning of the glomerular basement membrane (GBM) and mutational analysis revealed a novel heterozygous mutation in COL4A4. He was treated with lisinopril for 1.5 years, which resolved his proteinuria and hematuria. At the most recent follow-up at 6.5 years of age, urinalysis and kidney function were completely normal, without requiring medication. However, transient but repeated moderate to nephrotic-range proteinuria and microscopic hematuria occurred in association with other illnesses. This case highlights the spectrum of phenotypes that may be apparent in an infant with TBMN. Thinning of the GBM can cause transient nephrotic-range proteinuria, particularly in the early stages of TBMN." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0420_5185", "title": "Living related kidney transplantation in a patient with autosomal-recessive Alport syndrome.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We discuss a patient with Alport syndrome who received a renal transplant from a donor with thin basement membrane disease. A 30-year-old woman, diagnosed with Alport syndrome on the basis of sensorineural hearing loss, characteristic renal biopsy findings and a family history of microhaematuria, entered chronic haemodialysis therapy. She then received a renal transplant donated from her father, who had sensorineural hearing loss and persistent microhaematuria. On the day of renal transplantation, a 1-h graft biopsy after reperfusion showed thin basement membrane disease. We re-tested the patient's native kidney biopsy specimen by immunohistochemical staining using alpha-chain-specific collagen type IV monoclonal antibodies. There was no expression of collagen type IV alpha3-, alpha4- and alpha5-chain on glomerular basement membrane, but positive staining of alpha5-chain on Bowman's capsular basement membrane was noted. A diagnosis of autosomal-recessive Alport syndrome was made. We concluded that this family might display different phenotypic expressions of the same genotype: one suffered end-stage renal disease and the other thin basement membrane disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_72953", "title": "Proteinuria", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Proteinuria may be a feature of the following conditions: Nephrotic syndromes (i.e. intrinsic kidney failure) Pre-eclampsia Eclampsia Toxic lesions of kidneys Amyloidosis Collagen vascular diseases (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus) Dehydration Glomerular diseases, such as membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis) Strenuous exercise Stress Benign orthostatic (postural) proteinuria Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) IgA nephropathy (i.e. Berger's disease) IgM nephropathy Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Membranous nephropathy Minimal change disease Sarcoidosis Alport syndrome Diabetes mellitus (diabetic nephropathy) Drugs (e.g. NSAIDs, nicotine, penicillamine, lithium carbonate, gold and other heavy metals, ACE inhibitors, antibiotics, or opiates (especially heroin) Fabry disease Infections (e.g. HIV, syphilis, hepatitis, poststreptococcal infection, urinary schistosomiasis)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0033_427", "title": "Two families with Alport's syndrome.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Alport's syndrome is a hereditary disease striking cochlea, eye and kidney. The diseased women usually have a nonlethal degree of the kidney disease, but the prognosis for the men is worse. They often die from renal failure before the age of 35. Most cases of hearing loss occurs in men. The hearing loss is progressive after the age of 10. Audiological tests are characteristic for a cochlear lesion. The debut of the disease usually appears in the post natal period giving microscopic haematuria. It can, however, occur later with haematuria and proteinuria. The hearing loss may be the first symptom, which is an observandum to otologists. Two families with Alport's syndrome are described. The patients have been examined concerning kidney disease, audiological and vestibular pathology. The hereditary pattern is described." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0998_8102", "title": "An overlap of Alport syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis in a patient and literature review.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Alport syndrome is a rare genetic kidney disease, and rheumatoid arthritis as a common autoimmune disease also causes renal lesions in addition to arthritis. The overlap of them has rarely been reported. A 44-year-old man had a history of multi-joint swelling and pain for more than half a year. His laboratory data with double positive for rheumatoid factor and anticitrullinated protein antibodies further supported the diagnosis of early rheumatoid arthritis. His previous medical history including progressive hearing loss for several years and microhematuria for one year attracted our attention. Renal biopsy showed thin basement membrane nephropathy and lymphocytes infiltration of interstitium. To make a precise diagnosis, targeted Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) of an inherited renal disease panel including Alport syndrome genes was performed, which revealed the missense mutation in COL4A5 (c.1351 T &gt; C, p.Cys451Arg). Further in silico analyses predicted that the p. Cys451Arg mutation is functionally \"damaging\", so the diagnosis of Alport syndrome was finally proved. The patient has been receiving the treatment of total glucosides of paeony and leflunomide for rheumatoid arthritis, and Cozaar 50 mg for the protection of kidney so far. During the 10-months follow-up, swelling and tenderness of the joints in this patient had been generally relieved, with no obvious improvement in microhematuria and a slight increase in proteinuria. we reported an adult man with the coexistence of rheumatoid arthritis and Alport syndrome with the missense mutation in COL4A5 (c.1351 T &gt; C, p.Cys451Arg). Whether the overlap of them is occasional or has a common pathophysiological mechanism is still unclear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0041_10719", "title": "Alport's syndrome. A report of three Swedish families.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Three families with hereditary nephritis of Alport's type have been studied with particular emphasis on the occurrence of symptoms and signs in different sexes and age groups. Part of the material was tested for impaired hearing or eye anomalies which may be the sole manifestation of Alport's yndrome. The youngest patients were 3-4 years of age, and the proportion of diseases individuals increased with age. In two of the families about half of the investigated males or females were affected whereas in the third family all but one of 16 investigated individuals were affected. In this last family the kidney disease was exceptionally severe, but no differences in the histopathology of the kidney lesions were seen between the families. In all the families renal symptoms progressed more rapidly in males than in females. Affected as well as unaffected sons and daughters were born to healthy as well as to diseased mothers. In contrast, healthy fathers produced only unaffected children. Diseased fathers produced only daughters, two-thirds of whom were affected. It is concluded that Alport's syndrome in these three families most probably is transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance with variations in expression and penetrance." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Calcium gluconate has no effect on blood potassium levels (therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are ruled out)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 104, 233 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 37 ] ], "text": "Its function is to decrease the excitability of cardiac myocytes to decrease the likelihood of developing heart rhythm disorders." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Encourage the displacement of potassium from the plasma space to the intracellular space.", "2": "Chelate circulating potassium to favor its hepatic elimination.", "3": "Chelate circulating potassium to favor its renal elimination.", "4": "Antagonize the action of potassium on the myocardial cell membrane.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0496_7258", "title": "[Life threatening hyperkalemia: the value of the electrocardiogram].", "score": 0.018304351443547716, "content": "In two men, aged 19 and 64, with chronic renal insufficiency and subacute symptoms of malaise and weakness of the leg muscles, broad QRS complexes were seen in the ECG. The younger patient developed an asystole and resuscitation was unsuccessful. His blood potassium level was found to be 8.3 mmol/l. The older patient recovered after administration of calcium gluconate. His blood potassium level was found to be 8.5 mmol/l. An 80-year-old woman who was taking various drugs because of heart failure also complained of muscle weakness. Her blood potassium level was 7.2 mmol/l and her ECG showed narrow complexes. She recovered without calcium gluconate after a change in medication. Hyperkalemia is a potentially life-threatening electrolyte disorder that may require immediate treatment. The changes in the ECG, especially widening of the QRS complexes, are the most important clues to the severity of the hyperkalemia. A treatment protocol based on ECG changes may reduce the mortality in these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_6268", "title": "[Atrial arrest and intraventricular conduction disorders due to accidental hyperkalemia during kidney transplantation].", "score": 0.015968310948814755, "content": "Besides anemia, coagulopathies, and hypertension, electrolyte disturbances are among the most significant features of end-stage renal disease. Although plasma potassium represents only 1.5%-2% of the whole-body content, hyperkalemia has definite effects on cardiac pacemaker cells and myocardial conduction. The typical ECG findings and therapeutic management will be discussed. Case report. A 64-year-old man with chronic renal failure due to phenacetin abuse was scheduled for transplantation of a 41-h-old cadaver kidney. The preoperative laboratory check revealed BUN 51 mg% and creatinine 11.5 mg%; serum sodium and potassium were within normal limits (sodium 141 mmol/l, potassium 5.11 mmol/l). A central-venous blood gas sample after induction of anesthesia and intubation revealed pH of 7.32, pCO2 43 mmHg, HCO3 22.1 mmol/l, base excess - 3.4 mmol/l, and venous oxygen saturation 84%. Plasma potassium (5.22 mmol/l) was within the normal range. As an endarterectomy of the left common and external iliac arteries had to be performed, the arterial cross-clamping time was longer than normal (73 min). After declamping an ECG pattern (modified V5 lead) typical of hyperkalemia (atrial arrest, idioventricular rhythm, right bundle-branch block-like QRS, AV dissociation, AV block I) was observed. Plasma potassium had increased to 6.77 mmol/l (+1.55 mmol/l). Immediate treatment was started with a bolus injection of 20 ml 10% calcium gluconate, rapid infusion of 200 ml 8.4% sodium bicarbonate, and glucose-insulin infusion (glucose 33 1/3%, 15 U regular insulin). After 25 min sinus rhythm was restored and potassium levels decreased to normal. Despite the observed ECG changes the cardiovascular status remained stable.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_5990", "title": "[Safe treatment of acute hyperkalemia : The 1:4 and other principles].", "score": 0.0158033890157433, "content": "Acute hyperkalemia is a dangerous electrolyte disorder, which must be treated immediately. It can lead to cardiac arrhythmia and death due to alterations in cell membrane potentials. The resulting alterations in the electrocardiogram (ECG) are multifarious and need to be rapidly recognized. Treatment consists of various stages. In addition to membrane stabilization, which is always necessary, potassium must be displaced into the intracellular space and then eliminated from the body. A commonly applied method for displacement of potassium into the intracellular space involves the administration of insulin-glucose mixtures, which is associated with many complications. In the clinical routine many prescription variations are applied, which do not always appear to be ideal with respect to the individual risk-benefit ratio. A practically useful and easily memorized insulin-glucose mixture has a relationship of 1IU insulin to 4g glucose. The therapeutic elimination from the body is carried out using an enhanced diuresis or the utilization of renal replacement procedures. Special attention must be paid to the continous monitoring of potassium and blood sugar levels. After overcoming the acute situation, attention must be paid to treatment of the underlying disorder and if necessary to readjustment of the long-term medication of the patient." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en247_12756", "title": "Potassium binder", "score": 0.015371762740183793, "content": "Potassium, the most abundant intracellular cation, is essential for life. An adequate gradient of potassium across the cell membrane is necessary in order to enable excitability of cell membranes. This is particularly important for nerve and muscle function. In humans, mainly the kidneys are responsible for the regulation of serum potassium levels by excreting excess potassium via the urine. As kidney failure progresses, with a consequent decline of excretory function, potassium is likely to accumulate with probable harmful effects on the cellular membrane potential and cardiac arrhythmias as the primary symptom. If the physiological potassium blood level of between 3.8 mmol/L and 5.2 mmol/L is exceeded, hyperkalaemia is diagnosed. The mainstay of the treatment for chronic kidney disease patients is potassium removal through the dialysis procedure. However, dietary restrictions and pharmaceutical therapy with potassium binders are important complementary treatment options." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_42943", "title": "Potassium", "score": 0.015164147993746744, "content": "Homeostasis Potassium homeostasis denotes the maintenance of the total body potassium content, plasma potassium level, and the ratio of the intracellular to extracellular potassium concentrations within narrow limits, in the face of pulsatile intake (meals), obligatory renal excretion, and shifts between intracellular and extracellular compartments. Plasma levels Plasma potassium is normally kept at 3.5 to 5.5 millimoles (mmol) [or milliequivalents (mEq)] per liter by multiple mechanisms. Levels outside this range are associated with an increasing rate of death from multiple causes, and some cardiac, kidney, and lung diseases progress more rapidly if serum potassium levels are not maintained within the normal range. An average meal of 40–50mmol presents the body with more potassium than is present in all plasma (20–25mmol). However, this surge causes the plasma potassium to rise only 10% at most as a result of prompt and efficient clearance by both renal and extra-renal mechanisms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en292_25370", "title": "Hs and Ts", "score": 0.014040163376446563, "content": "A common presentation of hyperkalemia is in the patient with end-stage renal disease who has missed a dialysis appointment and presents with weakness, nausea, and broad QRS complexes on the electrocardiogram. (Note however that patients with chronic kidney disease are often more tolerant of high potassium levels as their body often adapts to it.) Several medications, for example the antibiotic trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or an ACE inhibitor, can also lead to the development of significant hyperkalemia. The electrocardiogram will show tall, peaked T waves (often larger than the R wave) or can degenerate into a sine wave as the QRS complex widens. Immediate initial therapy is the administration of calcium, either as calcium gluconate or calcium chloride. This stabilizes the electrochemical potential of cardiac myocytes, thereby preventing the development of fatal arrhythmias. This is, however, only a temporizing measure. Other temporizing measures may include nebulized salbutamol," }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_8775", "title": "Electrolyte imbalance", "score": 0.013800774491225179, "content": "Hypokalemia The most common electrolyte disturbance, hypokalemia means that the concentration of potassium is <3.5 mEq/L. It often occurs concurrently with low magnesium levels. Causes Low potassium is caused by increased excretion of potassium, decreased consumption of potassium rich foods, movement of potassium into the cells, or certain endocrine diseases. Excretion is the most common cause of hypokalemia and can be caused by diuretic use, metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperaldosteronism, and renal tubular acidosis. Potassium can also be lost through vomiting and diarrhea. Symptoms Hypokalemia is often asymptomatic, and symptoms may not appear until potassium concentration is <2.5 mEq/L. Typical symptoms consist of muscle weakness and cramping. Low potassium can also cause cardiac arrythmias." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0503_31", "title": "Clinical potassium problems.", "score": 0.013254843865736228, "content": "Alterations in serum potassium are common in many diseases. In a series of 390 determinations of serum potassium, the levels found were low in 24 per cent and high in 2.6 per cent. The major causes of low serum potassium are (1) decreased potassium intake due to intravenous feedings which do not contain potassium; (2) increased loss of potassium in the urine due to accelerated tissue breakdown, or renal lesions; (3) loss from the gastrointestinal tract due to diarrhea, or fistulae, and (4) shift between serum and cells, due to metabolic causes, drugs or changes in pH. The major cause of high serum potassium is uremia with renal retention.Clinical symptoms and signs of low body potassium include muscle weakness and paralysis, which may lead to death in respiratory failure if not corrected, tachycardia, gallop rhythm, dilatation of the heart. The electrocardiogram shows inverted, low amplitude, or isoelectric T waves and a prolonged QT interval. Potassium chloride orally, subcutaneously or intravenously is recommended for use in the treatment of potassium deficits. It should not be used in the presence of oliguria or anuria or dehydration. The amounts of potassium necessary to correct deficits vary widely and cannot be predicted from the serum level. Special reference is made to the prevention and therapy of potassium deficits in diabetic acidosis. High serum potassium levels are difficult to correct. Suggested measures are administration of glucose, insulin or calcium, gastric or peritoneal lavage or use of the artificial kidney." }, { "id": "article-31674_13", "title": "EMS Confined Space Care -- Issues of Concern -- Crush Injury and Crush Syndrome", "score": 0.013161483906164758, "content": "Several electrolyte abnormalities may be present. Hypocalcemia should only be treated if the patient is symptomatic since the patient may later develop hypercalcemia. Start with 10 mL of intravenous calcium gluconate 10% or 5 mL of intravenous calcium chloride 10% over 2 minutes.  Hyperkalemia should be monitored and treated based on the potassium level and electrocardiographic changes.   The ECG may not change in some situations where the potassium level is dangerously elevated.  If there are severe or life-threatening electrocardiographic changes or arrhythmias such as the widening of the QRS to third-degree heart block or pulseless electrical activity, the intravenous calcium gluconate or chloride should be given immediately. It may be necessary to give several doses every 10 minutes to achieve the cardioprotective effects of calcium. If the patient is acidotic then sodium bicarbonate 1 meq/kg should be given immediately IV over several minutes.  To drive the potassium into the cells, 10 units of intravenous insulin, together with 1 to 2 ampules of D50, should be given.   The Beta agonist effect of albuterol inhalation treatments can also help transiently decrease potassium levels.  Kaexylate with sorbitol can be given orally at 25 to 50 gm, or it may be given as a retention enema.  Patients with life-threatening hyperkalemia need the potassium removed from their system.  The medications and treatments are temporizing measures to provide time for excretion of removal of potassium from the body.  The patient may require emergent dialysis.  Critiques of recent disaster responses were that there was an insufficient number of dialysis machines to treat those with renal failure secondary to crush injuries.  Blood products should be given as necessary and when indicated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0764_22713", "title": "Treatment and pathogenesis of acute hyperkalemia.", "score": 0.013147473467448122, "content": "This article focuses on the pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, and various treatment modalities for acute hyperkalemia and presents a systematic approach to selecting a treatment strategy. Hyperkalemia, a life-threatening condition caused by extracellular potassium shift or decreased renal potassium excretion, usually presents with non-specific symptoms. Early recognition of moderate to severe hyperkalemia is vital in preventing fatal cardiac arrhythmias and muscle paralysis. Management of hyperkalemia includes the elimination of reversible causes (diet, medications), rapidly acting therapies that shift potassium into cells and block the cardiac membrane effects of hyperkalemia, and measures to facilitate removal of potassium from the body (saline diuresis, oral binding resins, and hemodialysis). Hyperkalemia with potassium level more than 6.5 mEq/L or EKG changes is a medical emergency and should be treated accordingly. Treatment should be started with calcium gluconate to stabilize cardiomyocyte membranes, followed by insulin injection, and b-agonists administration. Hemodialysis remains the most reliable method to remove potassium from the body and should be used in cases refractory to medical treatment. Prompt detection and proper treatment are crucial in preventing lethal outcomes. " }, { "id": "article-91960_25", "title": "Prerenal Kidney Failure -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.013082610093217616, "content": "Due to the risk of life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, severe hyperkalemia (plasma potassium of more than 6.5 mmol/l) is considered a medical emergency. If the serum potassium is more than 6.5 mmol/l or if any ECG changes (tall peaked T waves, shortened QT interval, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS complex) are present, the treatment of hyperkalemia should be promptly started. By stabilizing the myocardium within a few minutes of infusion, calcium counters the effects of hyperkalemia and produces a more normal ECG trace without affecting serum potassium. If P wave or QRS changes are present, its administration should not be delayed. 10 to 20 ml of 10% calcium gluconate or calcium chloride is given in bolus form intravenously over two to five minutes. [16] Insulin increases intracellular potassium uptake. To prevent hypoglycemia, glucose is added to insulin bolus. Ten units of fast-acting soluble insulin are added to 50 ml of 50% dextrose and given in infusion form intravenously over 10 to 20 minutes. A reduction in potassium level is seen after 20 to 30 minutes. [17]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_3523", "title": "Sustained-release potassium chloride overdose.", "score": 0.012839325018341893, "content": "Although ingestion of sustained-release potassium supplements can cause life-threatening hyperkalemia in patients with abnormal renal function, only a few previous reports suggest that this may occur in patients with normal renal function. We report 2 cases of hyperkalemia in patients with normal renal function who developed hyperkalemia after ingesting sustained-release potassium preparations and describe the use of radiography and whole-bowel irrigation in their care. The first patient is a 50-year-old woman who ingested 100 K-Dur tablets (each tablet containing 750 mg KCl or 10 mEq potassium) in a suicide attempt 1 hour prior to presenting to the emergency department. She developed a peak serum potassium level of 9.7 mEq/L and had transient, potentially life-threatening electrocardiographic changes. The second patient was a 17-year-old man who ingested 20 to 30 Klor-Con tablets (each tablet containing 750 mg KCl or 10 mEq potassium) in a suicide attempt 10 hours prior to presentation. Although he developed a peak serum potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L, he had a persistently normal electrocardiogram. In both patients, the tablets were visualized on abdominal radiographs and the gastrointestinal tracts of both were successfully decontaminated using whole-bowel irrigation. Although the sensitivity and specificity are unknown, the abdominal radiograph appears to be useful in detecting sustained-release potassium tablets. Whole-bowel irrigation as a primary method of gastrointestinal decontamination also appears to be effective although its use is not previously reported for sustained-release potassium overdoses." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en113_9402", "title": "Calcium gluconate", "score": 0.012745098039215686, "content": "Calcium gluconate came into medical use in the 1920s. It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines. Calcium gluconate is available as a generic medication. Medical uses Low blood calcium 10% calcium gluconate solution (given intravenously) is the form of calcium most widely used in the treatment of low blood calcium. This form of calcium is not as well absorbed as calcium lactate, and it only contains 0.93% (930 mg/dl) calcium ion (defined by 1 g weight solute in 100 ml of solution to make 1% solution w/v). Therefore, if the hypocalcemia is acute and severe, calcium chloride is given instead. High blood potassium Calcium gluconate is used as a cardioprotective agent in people with high blood potassium levels, with one alternative being the use of calcium chloride. It is recommended when the potassium levels are high (>6.5 mmol/l) or when the electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes due to high blood potassium." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_74327", "title": "Hyperkalemia", "score": 0.012548821061767683, "content": "Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium (K+) in the blood. Normal potassium levels are between 3.5 and 5.0mmol/L (3.5 and 5.0mEq/L) with levels above 5.5mmol/L defined as hyperkalemia. Typically hyperkalemia does not cause symptoms. Occasionally when severe it can cause palpitations, muscle pain, muscle weakness, or numbness. Hyperkalemia can cause an abnormal heart rhythm which can result in cardiac arrest and death. Common causes of hyperkalemia include kidney failure, hypoaldosteronism, and rhabdomyolysis. A number of medications can also cause high blood potassium including spironolactone, NSAIDs, and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. The severity is divided into mild (5.5–5.9mmol/L), moderate (6.0–6.4mmol/L), and severe (>6.5mmol/L). High levels can be detected on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Pseudohyperkalemia, due to breakdown of cells during or after taking the blood sample, should be ruled out." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_8774", "title": "Electrolyte imbalance", "score": 0.01249127447738712, "content": "Treatment There are three mainstays of treatment of hyperkalemia. These are stabilization of cardiac cells, shift of potassium into the cells, and removal of potassium from the body. Stabilization of cardiac muscle cells is done by administering calcium intravenously. Shift of potassium into the cells is done using both insulin and albuterol inhalers. Excretion of potassium from the body is done using either hemodialysis, loop diuretics, or a resin that causes potassium to be excreted in the fecal matter. Hypokalemia The most common electrolyte disturbance, hypokalemia means that the concentration of potassium is <3.5 mEq/L. It often occurs concurrently with low magnesium levels." }, { "id": "article-18778_6", "title": "Calcium Gluconate -- Mechanism of Action -- Hyperkalemia", "score": 0.012474693342860544, "content": "Elevations of extracellular potassium can cause cardiac arrhythmias, which can progress to cardiac arrest and death. The role of calcium gluconate in treating hyperkalemia is to stabilize cardiac cell membranes. Calcium should promptly be administered to any patient presenting with hyperkalemia with EKG changes, indicating a hyperkalemic emergency. Elevated potassium levels destabilize cardiac membranes by increasing the threshold potential of cardiac myocytes. Calcium supplementation decreases the threshold to restore the transmembrane voltage gradient. However, though calcium protects myocytes from potassium, it does not resolve the issue of hyperkalemia, for which other medications are typically administered, such as insulin and dextrose or sodium bicarbonate, which shifts potassium into cells; and sodium polystyrene sulfate, which increases potassium excretion through stool. However, dialysis is the most efficacious means of potassium excretion, particularly in patients with renal disease. [2] [9]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_8772", "title": "Electrolyte imbalance", "score": 0.012333333333333333, "content": "Potassium Potassium resides mainly inside the cells of the body, so its concentration in the blood can range anywhere from 3.5 mEq/L to 5 mEq/L. The kidneys are responsible for excreting the majority of potassium from the body. This means their function is crucial for maintaining a proper balance of potassium in the blood stream. Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia means the concentration of potassium in the blood is too high. This occurs when the concentration of potassium is >5 mEq/L. It can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and even death. As such it is considered to be the most dangerous electrolyte disturbance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_8773", "title": "Electrolyte imbalance", "score": 0.012217786343612334, "content": "Causes Hyperkalemia is typically caused by decreased excretion by the kidneys, shift of potassium to the extracellular space, or increased consumption of potassium rich foods in patients with kidney failure. The most common cause of hyperkalemia is lab error due to potassium released as blood cells from the sample break down. Other common causes are kidney disease, cell death, acidosis, and drugs that affect kidney function. Symptoms Part of the danger of hyperkalemia is that it is often asymptomatic, and only detected during normal lab work done by primary care physicians. As potassium levels get higher, individuals may begin to experience nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Patients with severe hyperkalemia, defined by levels above 7 mEq/L, may experience muscle cramps, numbness, tingling, absence of reflexes, and paralysis. Patients may experience arrhythmias that can result in death." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en031_67321", "title": "Hypokalemia", "score": 0.011810279667422523, "content": "In order to correct the pH during alkalosis, these cells will use these mechanisms to reabsorb great amounts of H+, which will concomitantly increase their intracellular concentrations of potassium. This concentration gradient drives potassium to be secreted across the apical surface of the cell into the tubular lumen through potassium channels (this facilitated diffusion occurs in both Type B intercalated cells and Principal cells in the collecting duct).2) Metabolic alkalosis is often present in states of volume depletion, such as vomiting, so potassium is also lost via aldosterone-mediated mechanisms.3) During metabolic alkalosis, the acute rise of plasma HCO3− concentration (caused by vomiting, for example) will exceed the capacity of the renal proximal tubule to reabsorb this anion, and potassium will be excreted as an obligate cation partner to the bicarbonate." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_74328", "title": "Hyperkalemia", "score": 0.011490269261530258, "content": "Initial treatment in those with ECG changes is salts, such as calcium gluconate or calcium chloride. Other medications used to rapidly reduce blood potassium levels include insulin with dextrose, salbutamol, and sodium bicarbonate. Medications that might worsen the condition should be stopped and a low potassium diet should be started. Measures to remove potassium from the body include diuretics such as furosemide, potassium-binders such as polystyrene sulfonate and sodium zirconium cyclosilicate, and hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is the most effective method. Hyperkalemia is rare among those who are otherwise healthy. Among those who are hospitalized, rates are between 1% and 2.5%. It is associated with an increased mortality, whether due to hyperkalaemia itself or as a marker of severe illness, especially in those without chronic kidney disease. The word hyperkalemia comes from hyper- 'high' + kalium 'potassium' + -emia 'blood condition'." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_42949", "title": "Potassium", "score": 0.011489321128909229, "content": "Renal filtration, reabsorption, and excretion Renal handling of potassium is closely connected to sodium handling. Potassium is the major cation (positive ion) inside animal cells [150mmol/L, (4.8g)], while sodium is the major cation of extracellular fluid [150mmol/L, (3.345g)]. In the kidneys, about 180liters of plasma is filtered through the glomeruli and into the renal tubules per day. This filtering involves about 600g of sodium and 33g of potassium. Since only 1–10g of sodium and 1–4g of potassium are likely to be replaced by diet, renal filtering must efficiently reabsorb the remainder from the plasma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1058_5511", "title": "Severe Persistent Hyperkalemia with Electrocardiogram Changes in a Patient with Hyperaldosteronism.", "score": 0.011149068322981365, "content": "A 62-year-old female presented to the emergency department (ED) with fatigue and generalized body weakness for the last three days. Upon arrival, initial ECG showed wide complex tachycardia with sine waves and a heart rate (HR) ranging between 100-170 bpm. She was otherwise vitally stable. The patient had a past medical history of hyperaldosteronism, type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), chronic kidney disease (CKD) with microalbuminuria, and hypertension. She also had a history of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and residual left-sided weakness more pronounced in the upper limb. Initial venous blood gas (VBG) analysis showed a potassium level of more than 10 mmol/L, chloride 114 mmol/L, bicarbonate 9 mmol/L, sodium 135 mmol/L, and pH of 7.1. Treatment for hyperkalemia was started immediately with calcium gluconate 1 gm that effectively narrowed her QRS complex and normalized her ECG. Salbutamol nebulization, glucose/insulin infusion, and calcium polystyrene syrup were given. Later, she was started on 100 mg sodium bicarbonate infusion, and Foley's catheter was inserted to follow urine output (UOP) strictly. However, she did not show a decrease in serum potassium levels. Then the patient underwent hemodialysis for two hours. Her first potassium reading after hemodialysis was 5.2 mmol/L. The purpose of this case report is to emphasize the importance of hemodialysis in patients with persistent severe life-threatening hyperkalemia." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_1106", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.011060078133248864, "content": "FIGURE 2.16-1. Hyperkalemia on ECG. Hypokalemia is usually due to renal or GI losses Hypokalemia sensitizes the heart to digitalis toxicity because K+ and digitalis compete for the same sites on the Na+/K+ pump, so if a patient is on digitalis, potassium levels must be carefully monitored. Electrocardiographic manifestations include peaked T waves, PR prolongation, and a widened QRS complex. (Reproduced, with permission, from Cogan MG. Fluid and Electrolytes, 1st ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1991: 170.) Values of > 6.5 mEq/L or ECG changes (especially PR prolongation or wide QRS) require emergent treatment. The mnemonic C BIG K summarizes the treatment of hyperkalemia. First give calcium gluconate for cardiac cell membrane stabilization. Give bicarbonate and/or insulin and glucose to temporarily shift potassium into cells. β-agonists (e.g., albuterol) promote cellular reuptake of potassium. Eliminate potassium from diet and IV fl uids." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en031_67327", "title": "Hypokalemia", "score": 0.010909019174623214, "content": "In the heart, hypokalemia causes arrhythmias because of less-than-complete recovery from sodium-channel inactivation, making the triggering of an action potential less likely. In addition, the reduced extracellular potassium (paradoxically) inhibits the activity of the IKr potassium current and delays ventricular repolarization. This delayed repolarization may promote reentrant arrhythmias. Diagnosis Blood Normal potassium levels are between 3.5 and 5.0 mmol/L with levels below 3.5 mmol/L (less than 3.5 mEq/L) defined as hypokalemia. Electrocardiogram Hypokalemia leads to characteristic ECG changes (PR prolongation, ST-segment and T-wave depression, U-wave formation)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0792_7380", "title": "Acute and chronic cardiovascular effects of hyperkalemia: new insights into prevention and clinical management.", "score": 0.010786001147446931, "content": "The plasma pool of potassium is a partial reflection of the overall body, transient cellular shifts, and potassium elimination regulated by the kidneys. Potassium concentrations elevating above the upper limit of normal (&gt; 5.0 mEq/L) have become more common in cardiovascular practice due to the growing population of patients with chronic kidney disease and the broad applications of drugs that modulate potassium excretion by either reducing production of angiotensin II (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, direct renin inhibitors, beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists), blocking angiotensin II receptors (angiotensin receptor blockers), or antagonizing the action of aldosterone on mineralocorticoid receptors (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists). In addition, acute kidney injury, critical illness, crush injuries, and massive red blood cell transfusions can result in hyperkalemia. Progressively more severe elevations in potassium are responsible for abnormalities in cardiac depolarization and repolarization and contractility. Untreated severe hyperkalemia results in sudden cardiac death. Traditional management steps have included reducing dietary potassium and discontinuing potassium supplements; withdrawal of exacerbating drugs; acute treatment with intravenous calcium gluconate, insulin, and glucose; nebulized albuterol; correction of acidosis with sodium bicarbonate for short-term shifts out of the plasma pool; and, finally, gastrointestinal ion exchange with oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate in sorbitol, which is mainly used in the hospital and is poorly tolerated due to gastrointestinal adverse effects. This review explores hyperkalemia as a complication in cardiovascular patients and highlights new acute, chronic, and preventative oral therapies (patiromer calcium, cross-linked polyelectrolyte, ZS-9) that could potentially create a greater margin of safety for vulnerable patients with combined heart and kidney disease. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en031_67314", "title": "Hypokalemia", "score": 0.010754266068508659, "content": "Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium (K+) in the blood serum. Mild low potassium does not typically cause symptoms. Symptoms may include feeling tired, leg cramps, weakness, and constipation. Low potassium also increases the risk of an abnormal heart rhythm, which is often too slow and can cause cardiac arrest. Causes of hypokalemia include vomiting, diarrhea, medications like furosemide and steroids, dialysis, diabetes insipidus, hyperaldosteronism, hypomagnesemia, and not enough intake in the diet. Normal potassium levels are between 3.5 and 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L) with levels below 3.5 mmol/L defined as hypokalemia. It is classified as severe when levels are less than 2.5 mmol/L. Low levels may also be suspected based on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Hyperkalemia is a high level of potassium in the blood serum." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_74336", "title": "Hyperkalemia", "score": 0.010741047358254263, "content": "Exercise can cause a release of potassium into bloodstream by increasing the number of potassium channels in the cell membrane. The degree of potassium elevation varies with the degree of exercise, which range from 0.3 meq/L in light exercise to 2 meq/L in heavy exercise, with or without accompanying ECG changes or lactic acidosis. However, peak potassium levels can be reduced by prior physical conditioning and potassium levels are usually reversed several minutes after exercise. High levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline have a protective effect on the cardiac electrophysiology because they bind to beta 2 adrenergic receptors, which, when activated, extracellularly decrease potassium concentration." }, { "id": "article-27573_10", "title": "Potassium -- Mechanism of Action", "score": 0.010408970402885827, "content": "As a major intracellular cation, potassium acts to preserve acid-base balance and maintain isotonicity and electrodynamic cellular function. It activates many enzymatic reactions within our body. It plays an essential role in the transmission of nerve impulses, contraction of cardiac muscles, skeletal and smooth muscles, tissue synthesis, gastric secretion, and renal function. Potassium reduces mean systolic and diastolic blood pressure. [1] Normal serum potassium values are between 3.5 and 5.0 millimoles/L (mmol/L). Levels outside this range correlate with increased rates of death from several causes. [7] [8]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_42945", "title": "Potassium", "score": 0.010320185614849188, "content": "Control mechanisms Potassium content in the plasma is tightly controlled by four basic mechanisms, which have various names and classifications. The four are 1) a reactive negative-feedback system, 2) a reactive feed-forward system, 3) a predictive or circadian system, and 4) an internal or cell membrane transport system. Collectively, the first three are sometimes termed the \"external potassium homeostasis system\"; and the first two, the \"reactive potassium homeostasis system\". The reactive negative-feedback system refers to the system that induces renal secretion of potassium in response to a rise in the plasma potassium (potassium ingestion, shift out of cells, or intravenous infusion.)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0687_7613", "title": "Diagnosis and clinical approach in Gitelman's syndrome.", "score": 0.009860108303249099, "content": "Hypokalemia, defined as a plasma potassium concentration &lt;3.5 mmol/l, is the most common electrolyte abnormality encountered in our clinical practice. Unfortunately, in many cases, the etiologies were unclear and resulted in a wrong treatment. Indeed, the true etiology could be such a 'rare' one and could be found by doing a comprehensive work up. One of this is Gitelman's syndrome, a rare genetic disorder characterized by hypokalemic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, hypocalciuria, and secondary aldosteronism without hypertension. Since this disorder is found in 1% Caucasian populations, this is one of the most frequently inherited renal tubular disorders. A 27 year old man came to emergency room with weakness and generalised muscle cramps. He was investigated three months before for a similar electrolyte disturbance which was found to be inconclusive. The routine laboratory data in emergency room revealed a potassium concentration of 2.3 mmol/l. He had never used diuretics or hormonal therapy nor had history of vomiting or diarrhea. He had normal blood pressure and the blood gas analysis revealed metabolic alkalosis. On his ECG (electrocardiography), we found the prominent U wave. Despite his low concentration of serum potassium and cloride, the concentration of these electrolytes in urine were extremely high. We also found hipomagnesemia. The calcium concentration in serum was normal with slightly hypocalciuria. Even with aggressive oral and intravenous potassium suplementation, the patient remained hypokalemic. In cases when the etiology of hypokalemia is unclear, we should perform some investigations to confirm the diagnosis and give the proper treatment. In Gitelman's syndrome, where the defect in the distal tubule cannot be corrected, the treatment must be a life-long. Most patients require oral potassium and magnesium supplementation, since drug therapy is usually incompletely effective." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_148335", "title": "Rhabdomyolysis", "score": 0.009852441444112483, "content": "Electrolytes In the initial stages, electrolyte levels are often abnormal and require correction. High potassium levels can be life-threatening, and respond to increased urine production and renal replacement therapy (see below). Temporary measures include the administration of calcium to protect against cardiac complications, insulin or salbutamol to redistribute potassium into cells, and infusions of bicarbonate solution. Calcium levels initially tend to be low, but as the situation improves calcium is released from where it has precipitated with phosphate, and vitamin D production resumes, leading to hypercalcemia (abnormally high calcium levels). This \"overshoot\" occurs in 20–30% of those people who have developed kidney failure. Acute kidney impairment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1122_8601", "title": "Case report: MRI findings of acute uremic encephalopathy in a 1-year-old boy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We present a 1-year-old boy who presented to the emergency department with a 7-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. The initial renal function profile demonstrated a urea of 55 mmol l<sup-1</sup (normal range between 5 and 20 mmol l<sup-1</sup), creatinine 695 micromol/L (normal range between 62-106 micromol/L) and potassium 9.1 mmol l<sup-1</sup (normal range between 3.5-5.0 mmol l<sup-1</sup), with a profound metabolic acidosis. Upon examination, there were no significant findings, specifically no neurological abnormality. He was prescribed back-to-back Salbutamol nebulisers, to increase the shift of extracellular potassium into the intracellular space, followed by i.v. calcium gluconate, with some improvement in potassium levels. A further 5 mmol of sodium bicarbonate was given, as well as a stat dose of 1 mg/kg furosemide, and per rectal calcium resonium. He was then commenced on an infusion with 10% dextrose with insulin. He was subsequently found to be in urinary retention and a catheter was inserted, which drained 1700 ml. A subsequent renal function profile, 24 hours after admission, demonstrated improvement with urea 39 mmol l<sup-1</sup, creatinine 300 micromol/L and potassium 3.0 mEq/L." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 999, 1228 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 162, 199 ] ], "text": "If the dosage had not been adequate and the presence of drug resistance was possible, one option could have been to treat with ceftriaxone at high doses, since we should remember that streptococcus does not produce beta-lactamase" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1357, 1491 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 215, 241 ] ], "text": "With quinolone we do not increase the spectrum and it is evident that the poor evolution of the patient is not only a problem of time." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1233, 1356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 200, 215 ] ], "text": "beta-lactam resistance is produced by another mechanism (using amoxicillin-clavulanate would not provide us with anything)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 756, 998 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 123, 162 ] ], "text": "although the antibiotic is the right one, it is not reaching the infectious focus adequately because an empyema has probably occurred. We should rule out the existence of an empyema and drain it while continuing with the antibiotic treatment." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "I would change the treatment to ceftriaxone because of its greater efficacy.", "2": "I would add a quinolone to the treatment.", "3": "I would switch to amoxicillin/clavulanic acid.", "4": "It would rule out the presence of pleural empyema.", "5": "I would continue with the same treatment, assuming it is simply a timing issue." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0325_5708", "title": "[Would ampicillin alone again be enough for treating community-acquired pneumonias?].", "score": 0.018779756656674307, "content": "MORE THAN SEMANTICS: The complexity of the problem raised by this apparently simple question becomes apparent if one examines the meanings behind the words. Globally, the frequency of pathogens known to cause community-acquired pneumonia has changed little over time: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella pneumoniae. The real question is the emergence of S. Pneumoniae resistant strains. Currently, the frequency of penicillin or ampicillin resistant strains (less then 10%) is not associated with an increased rate of treatment failure or mortality. \"High\" doses (150-200 MU/kg/d for penicillin or 2 g t.i.d. for ampicillin) can still be expected to control suspected or certain resistant pneumococcal pneumonia. Would other antimicrobials be more effective? In France, \"consensual\" use of amoxicillin (1 g t.i.d.) \"covers\" 98% of the situations as resistant strains are found in only 2% of the adult cases. Thus, the lower frequency of pneumococcal resistance to cefotaxime or ceftriaxone (less than 0.5%) would not warrant their use in most cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia. Inversely, combination regimens with ampicillin or amoxicillin and cefotaxime or ceftriaxone or the amoxicillin-clavulanic acid association at standard doses provide good therapeutic alternatives for empirical prescriptions in cases with a high risk of infection other than pneumococcal infection (H.influenzae, methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus). The remarkable anti-pneumococcal activity of imipenem, vancomycin and teicoplanin should, for the time being, be reserved for selected patients with cross allergic reactions to penicillins and cephalosporins. In case of severe community-acquired pneumonia, a combination regimen should be the rule in order to \"cover\" as many bacteria as possible. In the \"healthy\" adult under 60 years of age, amoxicillin combined with a macrolide or a fluoroquinolone can be recommended. Bacteriological efficacy is not synonymous with cure. Secondary inflammatory processes and subsequent septic shock remain a major challenge." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0345_21175", "title": "A randomised, multicentre study of ceftriaxone versus standard therapy in the treatment of lower respiratory tract infections.", "score": 0.017653890824622535, "content": "In this study the efficacy and cost-effectiveness of i.v. ceftriaxone 1 g once daily (CTX) was compared with standard i.v. antibiotic treatment (STD) for lower respiratory tract infections (LRTI). STD was given according to the guidelines of the American Thoracic Society and consisted of either cefuroxime 1500 mg three times daily (q8h), amoxicillin/clavulanic acid 1200 mg q8h or ceftriaxone 2 g once daily; each with or without a macrolide. After a minimum of 5 days i.v. therapy, patients could be switched to oral therapy. One hundred patients were enrolled in the study; 52 patients received CTX and 48 STD. Groups were comparable with respect to demographic and baseline characteristics. Seventy patients had a confirmed diagnosis of pneumonia. Twenty-nine patients had a severe type I exacerbation of chronic bronchitis. In one patient the diagnosis of LRTI could not be confirmed. In approximately 50% of the patients a microbiological diagnosis could be made. The most important isolated pathogens from sputum and blood were (positive blood cultures in brackets): Streptococcus pneumoniae 14 (9) and Haemophilus influenzae 16. Mean duration of i.v. therapy was 7.4 days in both groups. Average duration of hospitalisation was 15.0 days for CTX patients and 15.9 days for STD patients. Overall cure and improvement rate at the end of treatment was 47 (90%) for patients receiving ceftriaxone 1 g compared to 37 (77%) for patients receiving standard therapy. Pathogens were eradicated or presumed to be eradicated in 84% of the CTX patients and in 76% of the STD patients. Mean total costs per treatment were lower for CTX than for STD treatment: NLG 169 versus 458. These results show, that i.v. ceftriaxone 1 g once daily is as effective as standard therapy in the treatment of LRTI and that its use reduces treatment costs, in view of the multiple daily dosing regimens of most standard therapies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en266_12812", "title": "Acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease", "score": 0.017133275007290755, "content": "More complicated bronchitis may be when the patient is more than 65 years old, has four or more exacerbations per year, has an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 50% on spirometry, has failed to respond to previous antibiotic treatment, and/or has comorbidity. In these cases, treatment should be aimed at Gram-negative bacteria and the possibility of high antibiotic resistance should be considered. Sputum culture results are of great value in determining antibiotic resistance. First-line treatment is cefuroxime or co-amoxiclav. Third-line treatment, as well as treatment in penicillin-allergic patients, is a fluoroquinolone such as ciprofloxacin. An agent active against Streptococcus pneumoniae may have to be added." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0518_17855", "title": "[Failure of levofloxacin therapy in two cases of community-acquired pneumonia caused by fluoroquinolone-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae and complicated with empyema].", "score": 0.017073525138041265, "content": "Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) due to Streptococcus pneumoniae is a frequent cause of morbidity and mortality. We communicate two cases of CAP with complications. In both cases levofloxacin-resistant S. pneumoniae was isolated in pleural effusion. Patient 1: A 51-year-old man who had not received previous treatment with quinolones was admitted to the hospital for CAP and initially treated with levofloxacin (500 mg/24h iv). Four days later pleural effusion developed and fluid culture isolated levofloxacin-resistant S. pneumoniae (MIC &gt; 32 .g/ml). The outcome was favorable following chest tube placement and treatment with beta-lactam antibiotics. Patient 2: A 73-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was admitted due to CAP and was initially treated with levofloxacin (500 mg/24 h iv). He was transferred to our hospital after 10 days of treatment with this antibiotic, following the development of pleural effusion with isolation of levofloxacin-resistant S. pneumoniae (MIC = 12 .g/ml). The patient was treated with chest tube placement and beta-lactam antibiotics with a favorable outcome. Patients with CAP treated empirically must be closely followed, both clinically and radiologically, to facilitate early detection of complications due to bacterial resistance to the prescribed antibiotic. Patients with CAP who have received quinolones in the weeks before the development of pneumonia should not been treated empirically with these antibiotics because of the risk of resistance development." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0526_13714", "title": "[Treatment of community-acquired pneumonia in adults].", "score": 0.014181926751592357, "content": "Appropriate antibiotic treatment reduces the duration of symptoms associated to pneumonia, the risk of complications and mortality. In most cases, it is not possible to identify the etiologic agent so antibiotic treatment is empirically prescribed. In Chile, one third of Streptococcus pneumoniae strain isolates has diminished susceptibility to penicillin; in-vitro erythromycin resistance is about 10-15% and cefotaxime resistance 2-10%. It is recommended to classify patients with community acquired pneumonia in four risk categories: Group 1: patients under 65 years without co-morbidities, in ambulatory attendance. oral amoxicillin 1 g TID, 7 days. Group 2: patients over 65 years and / or co-morbidities, in ambulatory attendance. oral amoxicillin/clavulanate 500/125 mg TID or 875/125 mg BID, or cefuroxime 500 mg BID, 7 days. Group 3: patients admitted to general wards with criteria of moderate severity. ceftriaxone 1-2 g once a day or cefotaxime 1 g TID, IV, 7-10 days. Group 4: patients with severe CAP that must be interned into ICU. ceftriaxone 2 g once a day or cefotaxime 1 g TID, IV, associated to erythromycin 500 QID, levofloxacin 500-1.000 mg once a day, or moxifloxacin 400 mg/once a day, IV, 10-14 days. In the presence of allergy to or treatment failure with betalactam drugs and/or positive serology for Mycoplasma, Chlamydia or Legionella sp it is recommended to add: erythromycin 500 mg QID, IV or oral, oral clarithromycin 500 mg BID, or oral azythromycin 500 mg once a day." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0130_16184", "title": "Aztreonam in patients with acute purulent exacerbations of chronic bronchitis: failure to prevent emergence of pneumococcal infections.", "score": 0.013303378705783886, "content": "A group of 36 patients, all requiring hospital admission because of acute purulent exacerbations of chronic bronchitis, were treated with 1 or 2 g intramuscular injections of aztreonam for ten days. Patients with Streptococcus pneumoniae infections were excluded from the study. Sputum cultures before treatment revealed the other usual respiratory pathogens but repeat cultures on days 3, 10 and 17 sometimes yielded Str. pneumoniae, occasionally combined with Haemophilus influenzae or Branhamella catarrhalis. Ten patients had to be given other antimicrobial agents for Str. pneumoniae infections which developed during the study or follow-up periods. Pseudomonas aeruginosa failed to respond well to aztreonam. All the H. influenzae strains were sensitive to aztreonam (MIC 0.25 mg/l, or less) but all strains of Str. pneumoniae were resistant (MIC greater than 32 mg/l). Ps. aeruginosa strains were moderately resistant (MIC generally 4-16 mg/l) and Bran. catarrhalis strains only moderately sensitive (MICs generally 0.5-4 mg/l). Peak serum concentrations averaging approximately 37 mg/l were observed after the 1 g injections (55 mg/l after 2 g) and the corresponding mean peak concentrations in the sputum were 1.3 mg/l and 2.5 mg/l, respectively. The penetration from blood to sputum was thus approximately 3.5% and 4.6% after the 1 g and 2 g doses. No unwanted local or general reactions were observed. The disappointing clinical results (only 23 out of 36 patients with excellent or good clinical results) one week after the end of the treatment were mainly due to the emergence of pneumococcal infections during (and immediately after) therapy. Considering that Str. pneumoniae is still one of the most important organisms associated with acute purulent exacerbations of chronic bronchitis, and that conventional sputum cultures may not always reveal its presence, there is considerable doubt if aztreonam has any place in the treatment, especially as the results in Ps. aeruginosa infections have also been much poorer than expected." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_11649", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011499893321954342, "content": "For outpatient management, amoxicillin (1 g every 8 h) provides effective treatment for virtually all cases of pneumococcal pneumonia. Neither cephalosporins nor quinolones, which are far more expensive, offer any advantage over amoxicillin. Levofloxacin (500–750 mg/d as a single dose) and moxifloxacin (400 mg/d as a single dose) also are highly likely to be effective in the United States except in patients who come from closed populations where these drugs are used widely or who have themselves been treated recently with a quinolone. Clindamycin (600–1200 mg/d every 6 h) is effective in 90% of cases and azithromycin (500 mg on day 1 followed by 250–500 mg/d) or clarithromycin (500–750 mg/d as a single dose) in 80% of cases. Treatment failure resulting in bacteremic disease due to macrolide-resistant isolates has been amply documented in patients given azithromycin empirically. As noted above, rates of resistance to all these antibiotics are relatively low in some countries and much" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en069_40744", "title": "Community-acquired pneumonia", "score": 0.01068280292843269, "content": "Children Treatment of CAP in children depends on the child's age and the severity of illness. Children under five are not usually treated for atypical bacteria. If hospitalization is not required, a seven-day course of amoxicillin is often prescribed, with co-trimaxazole as an alternative when there is allergy to penicillins. Further studies are needed to confirm the efficacy of newer antibiotics. With the increase in drug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae, antibiotics such as cefpodoxime may become more popular. Hospitalized children receive intravenous ampicillin, ceftriaxone or cefotaxime, and a recent study found that a three-day course of antibiotics seems sufficient for most mild-to-moderate CAP in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0345_9942", "title": "Clinical effectiveness of levofloxacin in patients with acute purulent exacerbations of chronic bronchitis: the relationship with in-vitro activity.", "score": 0.009925619427614402, "content": "The objective of this randomized, double-blind study was to compare the clinical efficacy of levofloxacin at two different dosages with that of cefuroxime axetil in patients with acute purulent exacerbations of chronic bronchitis and, in particular, to assess the impact of the susceptibility to levofloxacin on the clinical findings. In total, 124 evaluable patients were treated for 7 days with oral levofloxacin 250 mg or 500 mg od, or cefuroxime axetil 250 mg bd. Sputum cultures were monitored pre-treatment, and at 1 and 7 days after the end of treatment. The susceptibility of Streptococcus pneumoniae isolates was tested by agar dilution in Columbia blood agar and by disc diffusion, but all other isolates were tested solely by the disc diffusion method. A greater number of infections were eradicated by levofloxacin than by cefuroxime axetil: infections were eradicated in 68% of patients receiving the 500 mg dosage and in 63% of those taking 250 mg levofloxacin, whereas the eradication rate with the comparator drug was much lower (48%). Against all pre-treatment S. pneumoniae isolates (n = 39), the MICs of levofloxacin were between 0.25 and 2 mg/L (geometric mean 0.95 mg/L), similar to those of the post-treatment strains (n = 32; mean 1.11 mg/L). All except one of the S. pneumoniae isolates were susceptible to penicillin G (MIC &lt; or = 0.06 mg/L), and the remaining isolate was inhibited by 0.5 mg/L of penicillin G, but was fully susceptible to levofloxacin. Some pretreatment strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa were resistant to levofloxacin, but many more resistant strains were encountered afterwards. All strains of Moraxella catarrhalis and Haemophilus influenzae were highly susceptible to levofloxacin in the disc diffusion tests. All the antimicrobial agents used in the study were well tolerated: only two patients discontinued treatment because of adverse drug effects. The results of this study indicated that, although there were some failures in patients with S. pneumoniae and P. aeruginosa infections, resistance to levofloxacin did not emerge rapidly among strains of S. pneumoniae during therapy with levofloxacin, and that natural resistance among pneumococci, H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis was rare." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_55564", "title": "Scarlet fever", "score": 0.009919106317411403, "content": "The antibiotic of choice is Penicillin V which is taken by mouth in pill form. Children who are not able to take pills can be given amoxicillin which comes in a liquid form and is equally effective. Duration of treatment is 10 days. Benzathine penicillin G can be given as a one time intramuscular injection as another alternative if swallowing pills is not possible. If the person is allergic to the family of antibiotics which both penicillin and amoxicillin are a part of (beta-lactam antibiotics), a first generation cephalosporin is used. Cephalosporin antibiotics, however, can still cause adverse reactions in people whose allergic reaction to penicillin is a Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction. In those cases it is appropriate to choose clindamycin or erythromycin instead. Tonsillectomy, although once a reasonable treatment for recurrent streptococcal pharyngitis, is not indicated, as a person can still be infected with group A streptococcus without their tonsils." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0367_13773", "title": "[Pharmacodynamic basis for the use of amoxicillin-clavulanic acid in respiratory infections due to Streptococcus pneumoniae: In vitro studies in an experimental model].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid is a first choice treatment for respiratory tract infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. In a previous study we observed its high efficacy against penicillin-susceptible and intermediate-resistant strains of S. pneumoniae. We aimed to study the efficacy of this antibiotic against three strains of S. pneumoniae (susceptible, intermediate and resistant to penicillin) in a mouse model of pneumonia, and to determine the influence of the time of starting treatment and the in vitro postantibiotic effect. We also determined the serum levels of the antimicrobial agent in the mice, and correlated the pharmacodynamic parameters (Cmax/MIC, AUC/MIC and T&gt;MIC) with the survival rate to establish the best predictor of efficacy. MICs with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid were 0. 03 mg/l, 0.25 mg/l and 2 mg/l for the penicillin-susceptible, -intermediate and -resistant strains, respectively. The ED90 were approximately 5 mg/kg for susceptible strains, 25 mg/kg for the intermediate and 50 mg/kg for the resistant strains. We observed a lower survival rate (approximately 55%) when the treatment began 31 h after infection than when it began 5 h (100%) and 19 h (approximately 90-100%) afterwards. Serum levels were dose dependent and the correlation with the pharmacodynamic parameters showed a significant association between survival and the T&gt;MIC (r = 0.946). In vitro postantibiotic effects with 1, 4 and 10 times the MIC were 0.96 to 1.69 h for susceptible strains, 0.38 to 1.23 h for intermediate, and 1.52 to 2. 20 h for resistant strains. These results show the high efficacy of this antibiotic combination against strains with variable susceptibility to penicillin, with this activity being related mainly to the T&gt;MIC of the microorganism. The postantibiotic effect would prolong the effect of the antibiotic in the dosing interval. These parameters and antimicrobial effects are important in terms of the clinical application of this antimicrobial agent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0249_7395", "title": "[Diagnostic and therapeutic strategies in exacerbations of chronic bronchitis in city practice].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The consensus conference convened by the French Language Society for Infectious Disease at Lille in 1991 stressed the fact that two germs were most often the cause of exacerbation in chronic bronchitis (Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae) and that antibiotic therapy was the \"safe solution\" and that the first intention treatment should be either penicillin A, a first generation cephalosporin or a macrolide for the first 8-10 days. A chest x-ray was recommended if there was the slightest doubt about co-existing parenchymal disease with a reevaluation around the 7th day and a prescription of penicillin A plus a beta-lactamase inhibitor or a second or third generation cephalosporin in case of failure. The aim of this study was to assess the diagnostic and therapeutic attitudes of general practitioners when faced with exacerbation in chronic bronchitis in an adult of 60 without severe signs and to find out the antibiotic of first choice and also the antibiotic to be used if the first treatment failed. One hundred doctors were drawn at random from a list of general practitioners in Bordeaux. They were requested to reply to a questionnaire on the strategy of first choice antibiotic and the means of reassessment of the treatment after it had been instituted and the strategy used when faced with a patient who did not improve after the initial treatment.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0260_17481", "title": "[Resistance of Streptococcus pneumoniae to penicillin. \"Bacteriological\" resistance/\"clinical\" resistance].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "From January 1988 to December 1992, 143 Streptococcus pneumoniae strains have been isolated at a significant level from 136 patients hospitalized in the pulmonary care unit of CHI Créteil. The clinical presentations were: 83 pneumonia (P), 48 acute bronchitis (B) and 12 colonizations (C). Fourteen strains were found to be penicillin resistant (MIC &gt; 0.125 mg. l-1): 11 P, 2 B, 1 C. Two patients were lost of view after the beginning of the treatment: a pneumonia (Serotype 23F, MIC = 2 mg. l-1) and a bronchitis (Serotype 23F, MIC = 2 mg. l-1). Treatment was pristinamycine for one and amoxicilline alone or associated to clavulanic acid for the other 13. We observed the failure of the treatment in two. A pneumonia (Serotype 23, MIC = 2 mg. l-1) was treated before hospitalization by josamycine (3 days), then cefpodoxime (4 days) and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (1.5 gr/d during 7 days). Healing was obtained with the increase to 3 gr/d. The other failure was a pneumonia without improvement after 11 days with 3 gr/d of amoxicilline. The treatment was stopped during 5 days and a protected brushing was performed. A Streptococcus Pneumoniae (Serotype 23F, MIC = 8 mg. l-1) was isolated. The clinical status rapidly improved with erythromycine (3 gr/d) to which the strain was susceptible. \"Bacteriological\" Resistance to penicillin is demonstrated (10 percent in our sample, 17 percent in France during 1991). However amoxicillin to a sufficient dosage is still enough (\"Clinical\" Resistance &lt; 1 percent in our sample) for the treatment of respiratory infections except when the MIC is at a high level." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0275_4353", "title": "[An analysis of 99 consecutive shifts in the selection of antibiotics used in therapy in a medical department].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "During 208 days 2836 patients were admitted to Sundby Hospital, medical ward. A total of 734 antibiotic cures were initiated. About 632 (22-23%) of the patients had antibiotic treatment. Penicillin, ampicillin and sulfamethizole were the most frequently used antibiotics. The use of erythromycin was 42-50% and 64-78% of that of penicillin and ampicillin respectively. Antibiotic treatment was changed in 99 cures in 73 patients. Fifty-seven of ninety-nine (43-71%) shifts were based on culture or serology and 42/99 (29-57%) shifts were based on clinical evaluation including microscopy and urinary stix. In 26 of the latter 42 cases positive culture or serology was obtained after the antibiotic was changed. Thirteen of the 26 shifts improved treatment, six were unlucky and seven indifferent, thus giving a net advantage of 13-6 = 7 of 26 shifts. This net advantage was due to shifts from penicillin. In ten cases the antibiotic was shifted to erythromycin due to suspected atypical pneumonia, but only one case was verified. In ten antibiotic shifts in pneumonia patients the etiologic agents were not identified. In 4/99 shifts in 4/73 patients relevant specimens were not obtained. The antibiotic most often changed compared with its total use was ampicillin (32/152 congruent to 1/5 of initiated cures) and shifts from ampicillin were more often (21/32) based on culture than shifts from penicillin (16/36) (p &lt; 0.1). Initial supplementation of ampicillin with aminoglycosides was retrospectively relevant in 13/28 cases. Cephalosporines (p &lt; 0.001) and dicloxacillin (p &lt; 0.02) were significantly more often used as second drug, whereas penicillin was most often used as first drug (p &lt; 0.001).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_4993", "title": "Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid: a review of its use in the management of paediatric patients with acute otitis media.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin), Augmentin ES-600 is a well established, orally administered combination of amoxicillin (a semisynthetic antibacterial agent) and clavulanic acid (a beta-lactamase inhibitor). Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid shows good activity against the main pathogens associated with acute otitis media (AOM), including penicillin-susceptible and -intermediate strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, and beta-lactamase producing strains of Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. It has moderate activity against penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae; a high-dose formulation has been developed with the aim of providing better coverage for penicillin-resistant strains. Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (conventional formulations, mostly 40/10 mg/kg/day in three divided doses) produced clinical response rates similar to those of oral cephalosporin comparators and similar to or significantly greater than those for intramuscular ceftriaxone in randomised trials in paediatric patients with AOM (mean age approximately 2 to 5 years). Clinical response rates were generally similar for amoxicillin/clavulanic acid and macrolide comparators (mean patient age approximately 1 to 6 years), although significantly better clinical and bacteriological responses were seen versus azithromycin in one randomised trial (mean patient age approximately 1 year). The high-dose formulation of amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (90/6.4 mg/kg/day in two divided doses) eradicated a high proportion of penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae (penicillin MICs 2 or 4 mg/L) in a large noncomparative trial in children with AOM (upper limit of the US indication for S. pneumoniae is 2 mg/L). Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid is generally well tolerated. A low total incidence of adverse events (3.6%) and no serious events were reported from a large paediatric postmarketing study. The most frequently reported adverse events in children are mild gastrointestinal disturbances. Diarrhoea is generally less frequent with twice-daily than with three-times-daily treatment. The new high-dose formulation showed similar tolerability to a conventional twice-daily formulation (45/6.4 mg/kg/day) in a well controlled trial. Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid is a well established broad-spectrum antibacterial treatment which is effective and well tolerated in the treatment of AOM in paediatric patients. The high-dose combination should prove valuable in treating AOM caused by penicillin-intermediate and -resistant S. pneumoniae (approved in the US for penicillin MIC &lt; or =2 mg/L). Based on recent recommendations and the available data, high-dose amoxicillin/clavulanic acid can be considered a treatment of choice for recurrent or persistent paediatric AOM (after failure of amoxicillin alone) where involvement of resistant pathogens is suspected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_20620", "title": "[Objectives for antibiotic therapy in acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "ANTIBIOTIC EFFICACY: According to early studies, antibiotics have moderate efficacy in acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis. The lack of efficacy is particularly clear for patent exacerbation with marked alteration of respiratory function. Recent studies have shown that newer compounds exhibit an efficacy similar (no proven superiority) to comparison compounds (75 to 95% favorable outcome with treatment). The recommendations of the IVth Consensus Conference on Anti-infectious Therapy thus propose first line antibiotic therapy for patients with a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) between 80 and 35% and broader spectrum and new antibiotics in case of failure of the first line treatment for patients with severe obstruction or frequently recurrent exacerbation. Using exacerbation-free interval, reduction in the number of exacerbations, duration of treatment and/or hospital stay as evaluation criteria, interesting results are obtained with amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, azithromycin, and ciprofloxacin. Independent factors predictive of therapeutic failure are, according to one study, FEV1 less than 35%, ambulatory administration of oxygen, more than 4 acute exacerbations within 24 months, history of pneumonia or sinusitis, and requirement for long-term corticosteroid therapy. Factors predictive of recurrence are, according to another study, dependence on oxygen therapy, prolonged corticosteroid therapy, smoking, and/or heart disease. Cost effectiveness is particularly interesting with ciprofloxacin, especially in more severe patients. It is important to target antibiotic therapy for acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis specifically for patients who will truly benefit, adapting the prescribed compound to the bacterial target." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_13423", "title": "E test for studying in vitro activity of seven antimicrobial agents against penicillin-susceptible and penicillin-resistant pneumococci.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To evaluate the comparative activity of seven oral antimicrobial agents against 100 strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae (S. pneumoniae). Total 100 strains of S. pneumoniae were collected from general hospitals in Beijing from June 1996 to June 1997. E test method was used to detect the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) values of the following seven drugs against S. pneumoniae: penicillin, amoxicillin/clavulanate, cefaclor, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone, azithromycin and ofloxacin. The breakpoint of susceptibility categories was defined according to NCCLS. 74% of isolates were susceptible (S, MIC 0.06 mg/L) to penicillin, and 5% were penicillin resistant (R, MIC 2 mg/L). The intermediately resistant (I, MIC 0.1-1 mg/L) rate to penicillin was 21%. The total rates of R or I were 26% for penicillin, 6% for both amoxicillin/clavulanate and ceftriaxone, 9% for cefuroxime, 66% and 68% for azithromycin and ofloxacin respectively. Overall 94%, 94% and 91% of the pneumococcal isolates were susceptible to amoxicillin/clavulanate, ceftriaxone and cefuroxime respectively. S. pneumoniae was highly resistant to azithromycin tested as a representative of macrolides (MIC50 and MIC90 both &gt; 256 mg/L, R rate 66%), and had a highly intermediately resistant rate to ofloxacin (I rate 62%). Our data suggest that in vitro activity of oral amoxicillin/clavulanate was as good as ceftriaxone and cefuroxime. It can be considered as an alternative compound in the treatment of community acquired pneumoniae and other respiratory tract infections caused by multiresistant S. pneumoniae." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_5970", "title": "Challenging questions in treating bronchitis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Whatever facts we gather and no matter how many we have, you and I must eventually put the journal down and pick up our stethoscope, pen, and prescription pad and go to work. Hopefully we can do better than, \"Therapy is not uniform and specific antibiotic regimens are usually selected based on local tribal custom.\" We can discard an old paradigm, \"The absence of data bears no relation to the strength of opinion.\" Personally, I have used these new scientific data before I reached my conclusion. I have developed 10 points to structure my new approach. I invite you to compare my conclusions to yours. 1. In acute bronchitis, in otherwise healthy adults, my preference is to not prescribe an antibiotic. If I do, it is not over the phone. You should want to see and examine the patient. If there are no helpful hints to etiology, I choose a newer macrolide for those under age 50 and use a short course, five-seven days. For patients over age 50, especially if they are \"healthy smokers,\" consider a short course of cefuroxime. (You can see, even in these acute bronchitis patients, you want an antibiotic effective against today's pathogens.) 2. In all chronic bronchitis patients, prevention of further damage to the airways should be attempted by instituting a program of smoking cessation and appropriate immunizations against influenza and pneumococcus. 3. Treatment outcomes will also improve if we recognize that in some patients the progressing SOB, cough, and increasing sputum production are due to congestive heart failure and not due to infection. I try to think about congestive heart failure in all of my patients, but especially in those with known heart disease and cardiomegaly on their chest x-ray. 4. Routine pulmonary function testing is important in smoking patients. Physicians underestimate the degree of obstruction present when they rely on physical exam alone. Hopefully long before the patient's acute illness you have established whether or not obstruction is present. This information helps identify the high risk patient for not only recurrent bouts of infection but also those at increased risk for lung cancer. 5. We will have more success in treating AECB when we elect to use an antibiotic only for patients with at least two of the following three cardinal symptoms: increased dyspnea, increased sputum production, and increased purulent sputum. COPD patients have many days when they feel more SOB. To use this or any one sign as the sole indication for starting an antibiotic has been proven not to make a statistically significant difference in outcome in most patients. Also, the value of prophylactic antibiotic therapy has not been established. 6. When airflow obstruction is moderately severe or more pronounced, AECB should usually be treated with oral steroids. Other measures such as chronic bronchodilator therapy, supplemental and home oxygen use, and pulmonary rehabilitation have been extensively reviewed elsewhere." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_9144", "title": "In vivo activities of amoxicillin and amoxicillin-clavulanate against Streptococcus pneumoniae: application to breakpoint determinations.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The in vivo activities of amoxicillin and amoxicillin-clavulanate against 17 strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae with penicillin MICs of 0.12-8.0 mg/liter were assessed in a cyclophosphamide-induced neutropenic murine thigh infection model. Renal impairment was produced by administration of uranyl nitrate to prolong the amoxicillin half-life in the mice from 21 to 65 min, simulating human pharmacokinetics. Two hours after thigh infection with 10(5) to 10(6) CFU, groups of mice were treated with 7 mg of amoxicillin per kg of body weight alone or combined with clavulanate (ratio, 4:1) every 8 h for 1 and 4 days. There was an excellent correlation between the MIC of amoxicillin (0.03 to 5.6 mg/liter) and (i) the change in log10 CFU/thigh at 24 h and (ii) survival after 4 days of therapy. Organisms for which MICs were 2 mg/liter or less were killed at 1.4 to 4.2 and 1.6 to 4.1 log10 CFU/thigh at 24 h by amoxicillin and amoxicillin-clavulanate, respectively. The four strains for which MICs were &gt;4 mg/liter grew 0.2 to 2.6 and 0.6 to 2. 3 logs at 24 h despite therapy with amoxicillin and amoxicillin-clavulanate, respectively. Infection was uniformly fatal by 72 h in untreated mice. Amoxicillin therapy resulted in no mortality with organisms for which MICs were 1 mg/liter or less, 20 to 40% mortality with organisms for which MICs were 2 mg/liter, and 80 to 100% mortality with organisms for which MICs were 4.0-5.6 mg/liter. Lower and higher doses (0.5, 2, and 20 mg/kg) of amoxicillin were studied against organisms for which MICs were near the breakpoint. These studies demonstrate that a reduction of 1 log10 or greater in CFU/thigh at 24 h is consistently observed when amoxicillin levels exceed the MIC for 25 to 30% of the dosing interval. These studies would support amoxicillin (and amoxicillin-clavulanate) MIC breakpoints of 1 mg/liter for susceptible, 2 mg/liter for intermediate, and 4 mg/liter for resistant strains of S. pneumoniae." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_22976", "title": "[Amoxicillin as a 1st choice: 275 acute focal pneumopathies treated on an outpatient basis].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "From December 1986 to January 1988, 100 General Practitioners and Pneumologists working outside hospital included in open unmatched series 275 patients who were diagnosed as having pneumonia at home. The study consisted of 53.2% men with an average age of 49.3 plus or minus 19.3. Their temperature on the first day (J1) was in 72.7% of cases greater than 38.5 degrees Centigrade. The doctors felt that the general state was good in 66.5% of the cases. Cough was present in 83.5% of cases but was dry in one out of every two. The patients received Amoxycillin in a dose of 2 grams per day orally (66.9%), or by injection (33.1%). On the third day (J3) 90% of the patients had a temperature below 38.5 degrees Centigrade. Their general state was improved in 94.6% of cases. The diagnosis of pneumonia at home was confirmed radiologically on 219 of the films available, confirming the good specificity of the clinical diagnosis of pneumonia at home. Ten patients were hospitalised. The apparent treatment of Amoxycillin was given in 247 cases (89.8% of cases). In 28 cases (10.2%) the treatment was changed by the addition or substitution of a Macrolide (15), or another antibiotic (5), and in 80 cases a change of treatment was not specified. 25 of these 28 cases were reviewed on the 14th day (J14) and no failures were observed after the change of treatment. In 247 patients in whom the treatment with Amoxycillin was followed 336 were reviewed on the 15th day and there had been four failures. Three were intolerant to the drug and there was one relapse.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0479_22636", "title": "Levofloxacin: a review of its use in the treatment of bacterial infections in the United States.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is a fluoroquinolone antibacterial agent with a broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria and atypical respiratory pathogens. It is active against both penicillin-susceptible and penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae. The prevalence of S. pneumoniae resistance to levofloxacin is &lt;1% overall in the US.A number of randomised comparative trials in the US have demonstrated the efficacy of levofloxacin in the treatment of infections of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, skin and skin structures. Sequential intravenous to oral levofloxacin 750mg once daily for 7-14 days was as effective in the treatment of nosocomial pneumonia as intravenous imipenem/cilastatin 500-1000mg every 6-8 hours followed by oral ciprofloxacin 750mg twice daily in one study. In patients with mild to severe community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), intravenous and/or oral levofloxacin 500mg once daily for 7-14 days achieved clinical and bacteriological response rates similar to those with comparator agents, including amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, clarithromycin, azithromycin, ceftriaxone and/or cefuroxime axetil and gatifloxacin. A recent study indicates that intravenous or oral levofloxacin 750mg once daily for 5 days is as effective as 500mg once daily for 10 days, in the treatment of mild to severe CAP. Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis and acute maxillary sinusitis respond well to treatment with oral levofloxacin 500mg once daily for 7 and 10-14 days, respectively. Oral levofloxacin was as effective as ofloxacin in uncomplicated urinary tract infections and ciprofloxacin or lomefloxacin in complicated urinary tract infections. In men with chronic bacterial prostatitis treated for 28 days, oral levofloxacin 500mg once daily achieved similar clinical and bacteriological response rates to oral ciprofloxacin 500mg twice daily. Uncomplicated skin infections responded well to oral levofloxacin 500mg once daily for 7-10 days, while in complicated skin infections intravenous and/or oral levofloxacin 750mg for 7-14 days was at least as effective as intravenous ticarcillin/clavulanic acid (+/- switch to oral amoxicillin/clavulanic acid) administered for the same duration. Levofloxacin is generally well tolerated, with the most frequently reported adverse events being nausea and diarrhoea; in comparison with some other quinolones it has a low photosensitising potential and clinically significant cardiac and hepatic adverse events are rare. Levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibacterial agent with activity against a range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria and atypical organisms. It provides clinical and bacteriological efficacy in a range of infections, including those caused by both penicillin-susceptible and -resistant strains of S. pneumoniae. Levofloxacin is well tolerated, and is associated with few of the phototoxic, cardiac or hepatic adverse events seen with some other quinolones. It also has a pharmacokinetic profile that is compatible with once-daily administration and allows for sequential intravenous to oral therapy. The recent approvals in the US for use in the treatment of nosocomial pneumonia and chronic bacterial prostatitis, and the introduction of a short-course, high-dose regimen for use in CAP, further extend the role of levofloxacin in treating bacterial infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_18895", "title": "Performance in practice: bacteriological efficacy in patients with drug-resistant S. pneumoniae.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Using pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic principles, pharmacokinetically enhanced amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg twice daily was designed to provide adequate levels of amoxicillin over the 12-h dosing interval to eradicate penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (PRSP, penicillin MICs &gt; or = 2 mg/L) with amoxicillin MICs of at least 4 mg/L. The clinical efficacy of amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg was evaluated in patients with respiratory tract infections caused by S. pneumoniae, including isolates with elevated penicillin (2-8 mg/L) MICs. Data from 10 clinical studies were combined: seven randomised (1:1), double-blind, controlled trials (efficacy intent-to-treat [ITT]N = 3376): amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg twice daily vs. levofloxacin 500 mg once daily in acute bacterial sinusitis (ABS); levofloxacin 500 mg once daily in acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (AECB); clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily in AECB; amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg twice daily/three times daily and 1000/125 mg three times daily in community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and three noncomparative studies (efficacy ITT N = 3024): two in ABS, one in CAP. The bacteriological per-protocol (PP) population at follow up (days 14-39) comprised 1295 patients for amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg and 241 for comparators. With amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg at follow-up, outcome was successful (clinical success and eradication/presumed eradication) in 85/90 (94.4%) patients with S. pneumoniae in comparative studies and 421/445 (94.6%) in noncomparative studies, and with comparators 58/70 (82.9%) were successes. In the amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg group at follow up, 52/552 S. pneumoniae isolates were resistant to penicillin. At follow up, 50/52 (96.2%) patients with PRSP were successes, including 6/7 with amoxicillin MICs of 4 mg/L and 7/8 with amoxicillin MICs of 8 mg/L. Success rates for amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg against PRSP were similar for CAP (96.0%[24/25]), AECB (100%[3/3]) and ABS (95.8%[23/24]). There were six PRSP isolates in the comparator group (two isolates were from one patient), and three of five patients in this group were successes. In conclusion, amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg demonstrated combined clinical/bacteriological success against 50/52 patients with PRSP, including 13/15 strains with amoxicillin MICs of 4-8 mg/L. These results for the pharmacokinetic-enhanced formulation of amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg are in line with the high efficacy against PRSP predicted using pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic parameters." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en266_12811", "title": "Acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease", "score": 0.009229133439659755, "content": "\"Simple\" COPD is generally where a person 65 years or less, has fewer than four exacerbations per year, has minimal or moderate impairment in respiratory function and no comorbid disease. In patients with \"simple\" COPD, therapy should be targeted towards Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and possibly pathogens of atypical pneumonia. The first-line treatment is a beta-lactam antibiotic such as amoxicillin. The choice will depend on resistance patterns. In patients with penicillin allergy, doxycycline or trimethoprim are preferred." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0327_22955", "title": "Bacteriologic efficacy of a three-day intramuscular ceftriaxone regimen in nonresponsive acute otitis media.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To determine the bacteriologic efficacy of ceftriaxone in nonresponsive acute otitis media in children. In a prospective study 92 patients ages 3 to 36 months (median, 11 months) with culture-proved nonresponsive acute otitis media were studied from January, 1995, through August, 1997. The patients were treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone (50 mg/kg/l/day) for 3 days. Middle ear fluid was aspirated for culture by tympanocentesis on day of enrollment (Day 1); a second tap was performed on Days 4 to 10. Additional middle ear fluid cultures were obtained if clinical relapse occurred. Bacteriologic failure was defined by positive culture on Days 4 to 10. Patients were followed until Day 17+/-2. Susceptibility was measured by E test. The main drugs administered before enrollment were amoxicillin (38%), amoxicillinclavulanate (25%) and cefaclor (20%). Organisms recovered (n=105) were: Haemophilus influenzae, 54; Streptococcus pneumoniae, 47; Moraxella catarrhalis, 2; and Streptococcus pyogenes, 2. Thirty-four (72%) of the 47 S. pneumoniae isolates were intermediately resistant to penicillin (MIC 0.1 to 1.0 microg/ml), but all were susceptible to ceftriaxone (MIC &lt; 0.5 microg/ml). Bacteriologic eradication was achieved in 100 of 105 (95%) cases: 54 of 54 (10O%) H. influenzae, 43 of 47 (92%) S. pneumoniae, 1 of 2 (50%) M. catarrhalis and 2 of 2 (100%) S. pyogenes. Bacteriologic success (with no relapse) occurred in 13 of 13 (100%) penicillin-susceptible S. pneumoniae vs. 28 of 34 (82%) S. pneumoniae intermediately resistant to penicillin (4 cases of bacteriologic failure and 2 cases of relapse). A 3-day intramuscular ceftriaxone regimen is efficacious for the treatment of nonresponsive acute otitis media. The optimal duration of treatment in cases of nonresponsive acute otitis media and whether ceftriaxone is efficacious for the treatment of nonresponsive otitis media caused by S. pneumoniae highly resistant to penicillin is yet to be determined." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0535_8526", "title": "Efficacy and safety of twice-daily pharmacokinetically enhanced amoxicillin/clavulanate (2000/125 mg) in the treatment of adults with community-acquired pneumonia in a country with a high prevalence of penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "This randomized, double-blind, non-inferiority trial evaluated the efficacy and safety of pharmacokinetically enhanced amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg twice daily versus amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg three times daily, both given orally for 7 or 10 days, in the treatment of adults with community-acquired pneumonia in Spain, a country with a high prevalence of penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae. Following 2:1 randomization, 566 patients (intent-to-treat population) received either amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg (n = 374) or amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg (n = 192). Among the patients who did not deviate from the protocol (clinical per-protocol population), clinical success at day 21-28 post-therapy (test of cure; primary efficacy endpoint) was 92.4% (266/288) for amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg and 91.2% (135/148) for amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg (treatment difference, 1.1; 95% confidence interval, -4.4, 6.6). Bacteriological success at test of cure in the bacteriology per-protocol population was 90.8% (79/87) with amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg and 86.0% (43/50) with amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg (treatment difference 4.8; 95% confidence interval, -6.6, 16.2). At test of cure, amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg was clinically and bacteriologically effective against 7/7 penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (MIC &gt; or = 2 mg/L) isolates (including three amoxicillin non-susceptible strains) and amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg against 5/5 isolates (including one amoxicillin non-susceptible strain). Both treatment regimens were well tolerated. Amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg was at least as effective clinically and as safe as amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg in the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia in adults in a country with a high prevalence of penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae and has a more convenient twice daily posology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0001_1508", "title": "[Proceedings: Long-term therapy with antibiotics in chronic bronchitis].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Longterm therapy of chronic bacterial bronchitis assumes two forms: (a) therapy of acute exacerbations, and (b) continuous longterm prophylaxis, chiefly during the 4-7 winter months. Longterm prophylaxis should be confined exclusively to patients with two or more severe annual exacerbations. The commonest pathogens, Haemophilus influenzae and pneumococci, are usually sensitive to ampicillin and amoxycillin, cotrimoxazole (Bactrim or Eusaprim) and tetracyclines." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_3735", "title": "Therapeutic options for pneumococcal pneumonia in Turkey.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide. Streptococcus pneumoniae continues to be the most important causative agent in CAP. This article reviews options for the empiric treatment of pneumococcal pneumonia in Turkey based on local epidemiologic data. This was a retrospective review of studies evaluating antimicrobial susceptibility patterns among clinical isolates of S pneumoniae in Turkey from 2000 onward. Relevant studies were identified through literature searches of both Turkish (Ulakbim and Pleksus) and international (MEDLINE) databases using the search terms S pneumoniae and Turkey. Only antibiotics likely to be used in pneumococcal pneumonia were evaluated. The minimum concentration required to inhibit 90% of isolates (MIC(90)) for each antibiotic was obtained by averaging all reported values to arrive at a single value for the entire country. The MIC(90) for penicillin was 1 g/mL; among all isolates of S pneumoniae, 6.4% were penicillin resistant and 30.9% showed intermediate susceptibility. The MIC(90)s and overall rates of resistance (combined intermediate susceptibility and resistance) for the other antibiotics studied were as follows: cefaclor, 4 microg/mL (26.3%); cefuroxime, 2 microg/mL (15.4%); ceftriaxone, 0.25 microg/mL (0.75%); imipenem, 0.06 microg/mL (0%); erythromycin, 2 microg/mL (13.9%); clarithromycin, 2 microg/mL (13.7%); azithromycin, 2 microg/mL (13.8%); telithromycin, 0.06 microg/mL (no published breakpoints); trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, 4 microg/mL (63.8%); tetracycline, 16 microg/mL (24.6%); ciprofloxacin, 2 microg/mL (no published breakpoints); ofloxacin, 2 microg/mL (4%); levofloxacin, 1 microg/mL (0%); gemifloxacin, 0.06 microg/mL (no published breakpoints); and moxifloxacin, 0.06 microg/mL (0%). Penicillin G, at standard parenteral doses, has been shown to achieve concentrations above the MIC for &gt;40% to 100% of the dosing interval, depending on the MIC of the isolate. Based on pharmacodynamic studies, the MIC(90) for penicillin in Turkey should easily be exceeded with the use of penicillin G 3 mU QID. In vitro, susceptibility is generally greater to amoxicillin than to penicillin, with average amoxicillin MIC values approximately 1 dilution lower than those for penicillin. Amoxicillin's better pharmacodynamic/pharmacokinetic properties relative to penicillin make it a reasonable option for the treatment of CAP. In pharmacodynamic studies, amoxicillin 1 g TID achieved and maintained serum concentrations of 2 to 4 microg/mL for at least 40% of the dosing interval. A new formulation of amoxicillin/clavulanate given 2000/125 mg BID is expected to eradicate isolates of S pneumoniae at an amoxicillin MIC &lt; or = 4 microg/mL. Based on data from Turkish surveillance studies performed from 2000 onward, high-dose parenteral penicillin G and parenteral/oral amoxicillin may be initial choices for the empiric treatment of uncomplicated pneumococcal pneumonia in Turkey. If these agents cannot be used for any reason, other options include parenteral cefuroxime, ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, newer quinolones, macrolides, and telithromycin. Due to elevated rates of resistance in Turkey, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and tetracyclines are not recommended for empiric use in these infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_17237", "title": "[Treatment and prevention of pneumococcal pneumonia].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most commonly identified pathogen in patients with community-acquired pneumonia. 40% of isolated strains in France are of decreased sensibility to penicillin, two third being multiresistant to antibiotics. However, high doses of some beta-lactams are effective in vivo against the majority of circulating strains (MIC &gt; 2 mg/L). For this reason according to French guidelines amoxicillin (3 g/day) is the first line recommended treatment. Telithromycin is an alternative, or ceftriaxone (1 g/day) in more severe cases. If the level of resistance increases (MIC &gt; 4 mg/L) guidelines would be revisited. Effectiveness of pneumococcal vaccination has been confirmed in cases of bacteriemic pneumococcal pneumonia (elderly patients included). Vaccine is recommended among persons with comorbiditie(s) and 65 years old population." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0060_8179", "title": "[Pneumococcal pneumonia resistant to penicillin].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The authors report a case of community-acquired pneumonia in a patient with chronic obstructive lung disease. The initial antibiotic therapy consisted of an amoxicillin-clavulanic acid combination and intravenous macrolides. Twenty-four hours after admission, blood cultures were positive for pneumococcus. Pending the results of disc sensitivity tests, the antibiotic therapy was modified and amoxicillin alone was prescribed. Clinical deterioration then developed rapidly, as the pathogen was amoxicillin-resistant. Subsequently, the patient recovered under erythromycin therapy. As illustrated by this case, the emergence of pneumococci resistant, or showing low sensitivity to penicillins raises the problem of the antibiotic therapy to be used against community-acquired lung diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_19275", "title": "Development of a new experimental model of penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia and amoxicillin treatment by reproducing human pharmacokinetics.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The increase of penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (PRSP) pneumonia results in a greater risk of antibiotic treatment failure. In vitro data are not sufficient predictors of clinical efficacy, and animal models may be insufficiently contributive, since they often use immunocompromised animals and do not always respect the human pharmacokinetics of antibiotics. We developed an experimental PRSP pneumonia model in immunocompetent rabbits, by using intrabronchial instillation of PRSP (MIC = 4 mg/liter), without any adjuvant. This reproducible model was used to assess amoxicillin efficacy by reproducing human serum pharmacokinetics following 1-g oral or intravenous administrations of amoxicillin every 8 h. Evaluation was performed by using clinical, CT scan, macroscopic, histopathologic, and microbiological criteria. Experimental pneumonia in untreated rabbits was similar to untreated severe human bacteremic untreated pneumonia; in both rabbits and humans, (i) cumulative survival was close to 50%, (ii) red or gray lung congestion and pleuritis were observed, and (iii) lung and spleen concentrations reached 5 and 4 log(10) CFU/g. A 48-h treatment resulted in a significant bacterial clearance in the lungs (1.53 versus 5.07 log(10) CFU/ml, P &lt; 0.001) and spleen (1.00 versus 4.40 log(10) CFU/ml, P &lt; 10(-6)) and a significant decrease in mortality (0% versus 50%, P = 0.02) in treated versus untreated rabbits. No difference was observed on macroscopic and histopathologic lesions between treated and untreated rabbits (P = 0.36 and 0.78, respectively). Similar results were obtained by using a fully penicillin-susceptible S. pneumoniae strain (MIC = 0.01 mg/liter). Our findings suggest that (i) this new model can be contributive in the evaluation of antibacterial agents and (ii) 1 g of amoxicillin three times a day may be sufficient to treat PRSP pneumonia in immunocompetent humans." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0756_290", "title": "Efficacy of high doses of oral penicillin versus amoxicillin in the treatment of adults with non-severe pneumonia attended in the community: study protocol for a randomised controlled trial.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Streptococcus pneumoniae is the bacterial agent which most frequently causes pneumonia. In some Scandinavian countries, this infection is treated with penicillin V since the resistances of pneumococci to this antibiotic are low. Four reasons justify the undertaking of this study; firstly, the cut-off points which determine whether a pneumococcus is susceptible or resistant to penicillin have changed in 2008 and according to some studies published recently the pneumococcal resistances to penicillin in Spain have fallen drastically, with only 0.9% of the strains being resistant to oral penicillin (minimum inhibitory concentration&gt;2 μg/ml); secondly, there is no correlation between pneumococcal infection by a strain resistant to penicillin and therapeutic failure in pneumonia; thirdly, the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics is urgently needed because of the dearth of new antimicrobials and the link observed between consumption of broad-spectrum antibiotics and emergence and spread of antibacterial resistance; and fourthly, no clinical study comparing amoxicillin and penicillin V in pneumonia in adults has been published. Our aim is to determine whether high-dose penicillin V is as effective as high-dose amoxicillin for the treatment of uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia. We will perform a parallel group, randomised, double-blind, trial in primary healthcare centres in Spain. Patients aged 18 to 65 without significant associated comorbidity attending the physician with signs and symptoms of lower respiratory tract infection and radiological confirmation of the diagnosis of pneumonia will be randomly assigned to either penicillin V 1.6 million units thrice-daily during 10 days or amoxicillin 1,000 mg thrice-daily during 10 days. The main outcome will be clinical cure at 14 days, defined as absence of fever, resolution or improvement of cough, improvement of general wellbeing and resolution or reduction of crackles indicating that no other antimicrobial treatment will be necessary. Any clinical result other than the anterior will be considered as treatment failure. A total of 210 patients will be recruited to detect a non-inferiority margin of 15% between the two treatments with a minimum power of 80% considering an alpha error of 2.5% for a unilateral hypothesis and maximum possible losses of 15%. This pragmatic trial addresses the long-standing hypothesis that the administration of high doses of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic (penicillin V) in patients with non-severe pneumonia attended in the community is not less effective than high doses of amoxicillin (treatment currently recommended) in patients under the age of 65 years. EudraCT number 2012-003511-63." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0374_20209", "title": "Usefulness of betalactam therapy for community-acquired pneumonia in the era of drug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae: a randomized study of amoxicillin-clavulanate and ceftriaxone.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Empirical antibiotic therapy of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) has been complicated by the worldwide emergence of penicillin resistance among Streptococcus pneumoniae. The impact of this resistance on the outcome of patients hospitalized for CAP, empirically treated with betalactams, has not been evaluated in a randomized study. We conducted a prospective, randomized trial to assess the efficacy of amoxicillin-clavulanate (2 g/200 mg/8 hr) and ceftriaxone (1 g/24 hr) in a cohort of patients hospitalized for moderate-to-severe CAP. Three-hundred seventy-eight patients were randomized to receive amoxicillin-clavulanate (184 patients) or ceftriaxone (194 patients). Efficacy was assessed on Day 2, after completion of therapy and at long term follow-up. There were no significant differences in outcomes between treatment groups, both in intention-to-treat and per-protocol analysis. Overall mortality was 10.3% for amoxicillin-clavulanate and 8.8% for ceftriaxone (NS). There were 116 evaluable patients with proven pneumococcal pneumonia. Rates of high-level penicillin resistance (MIC of penicillin &gt; or = 2 microg/mL) were similar in the two groups (8.2 and 10.2%). Clinical efficacy at the end of therapy was 90.6% for amoxicillin-clavulanate and 88.9% for ceftriaxone (95% C.I. of the difference: -9.3 to +12.7%). No differences in outcomes were attributable to differences in penicillin susceptibility of pneumococcal strains. Sequential i.v./oral amoxicillin-clavulanate and parenteral ceftriaxone were equally safe and effective for the empirical treatment of acute bacterial pneumonia, including penicillin and cephalosporin-resistant pneumococcal pneumonia. The use of appropriate betalactams in patients with penumococcal pneumonia and in the overall CAP population, is reliable at the current level of resistance." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 150, 535 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 81 ] ], "text": "Triplet expansion diseases, such as this one, can have the anticipation phenomenon whereby females with premutations (between 55-200 repeats) can have children with full mutations (more than 200 repeats of the triplet) and more obvious, more severe and/or earlier clinical, in both males and females (Fragile X syndrome, early ovarian failure, tremor/ataxia associated with Fragile X)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "All her male children will be carriers and, therefore, will manifest the disease.", "2": "There is a phenomenon of genetic anticipation, so their offspring will present more severe and earlier symptoms.", "3": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis for sex selection of embryos by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is the best option for healthy offspring.", "4": "50% of her daughters will be carriers, but will not present clinical manifestations of the disease.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104757", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.015489084684886918, "content": "In the case of families at risk for X-linked diseases, patients are provided with a single PGD assay of gender identification. Gender selection offers a solution to individuals with X-linked diseases who are in the process of getting pregnant. The selection of a female embryo offspring is used in order to prevent the transmission of X-linked Mendelian recessive diseases. Such X-linked Mendelian diseases include Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), and hemophilia A and B, which are rarely seen in females because the offspring is unlikely to inherit two copies of the recessive allele. Since two copies of the mutant X allele are required for the disease to be passed on to the female offspring, females will at worst be carriers for the disease but may not necessarily have a dominant gene for the disease. Males on the other hand only require one copy of the mutant X allele for the disease to occur in one's phenotype and therefore, the male offspring of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104811", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.015243206211463804, "content": "Another problematic case is the cases of desired non-disclosure of PGD results for some genetic disorders that may not yet be apparent in a parent, such as Huntington disease. It is applied when patients do not wish to know their carrier status but want to ensure that they have offspring free of the disease. This procedure can place practitioners in questionable ethical situations, e.g. when no healthy, unaffected embryos are available for transfer and a mock transfer has to be carried out so that the patient does not suspect that he/she is a carrier. The ESHRE ethics task force currently recommends using exclusion testing instead. Exclusion testing is based on a linkage analysis with polymorphic markers, in which the parental and grandparental origin of the chromosomes can be established. This way, only embryos are replaced that do not contain the chromosome derived from the affected grandparent, avoiding the need to detect the mutation itself." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0678_13403", "title": "Enacting genetic responsibility: experiences of mothers who carry the fragile X gene.", "score": 0.014284340130819546, "content": "A woman who carries the gene for fragile X syndrome (FXS) has a 50 per cent chance per pregnancy of passing the gene to her sons and daughters. In this paper we analyse interview data from mothers who are carriers of the FX gene, and who have at least one child with FXS, to examine how their understandings and enactments of reproductive options, obligations, and responsibilities support an expanded notion of genetic responsibility. Accounts of 108 women from across the United States show that the majority of mothers chose not to have another biological child once they learned their carrier status. They discussed genetic responsibility and reproductive agency in terms of an obligation not to risk having another child who carried the gene, although their accounts reflected the tensions that arose from managing oneself as a genetically at-risk actor. Another 22 mothers either purposely became pregnant or continued an unplanned pregnancy after finding out their carrier status. These mothers' accounts reflect an expanded version of genetic responsibility that incorporates ideas and values beyond managing risk in what it means to act responsibly in light of genetic knowledge." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104758", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.014192835592572133, "content": "the disease. Males on the other hand only require one copy of the mutant X allele for the disease to occur in one's phenotype and therefore, the male offspring of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of having the disease. Reasons may include the rarity of the condition or because affected males are reproductively disadvantaged. Therefore, medical uses of PGD for selection of a female offspring to prevent the transmission of X-linked Mendelian recessive disorders are often applied. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis applied for gender selection can be used for non-Mendelian disorders that are significantly more prevalent in one sex. Three assessments are made prior to the initiation of the PGD process for the prevention of these inherited disorders. In order to validate the use of PGD, gender selection is based on the seriousness of the inherited condition, the risk ratio in either sex, or the options for disease treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0424_13707", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis by fluorescence in situ hybridization: clinical possibilities and pitfalls.", "score": 0.01214752002153577, "content": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis using the fluorescence in situ hybridization technique (FISH) is being used widely to prevent the transmission of sex-linked diseases, to screen for translocations, and for aneuploidy screening in specific in vitro fertilization (IVF) patient groups, along with FISH analysis of spermatozoa in infertile men. In this study, we aim to critically analyze our clinical results in patients at risk of transmitting sex-linked diseases (n = 55), in carriers of translocations (n = 43), in women who have recurrent miscarriage (two or more miscarriages) (n = 128), recurrent IVF failure (three or more failed IVF attempts) (n = 47), and patients of advanced maternal age (37 years old or older) (n = 79). The use of the FISH technique in carriers of sex-linked diseases and translocation patients prevents transmission of these conditions and provides good IVF outcome. In patients with recurrent miscarriage, implantation failure, and advanced maternal age, a high incidence of embryos with abnormal chromosomes 13,16,18,21,22, X, and Y was observed (range 69-75%), as expected. In those three groups of patients, the selection of euploid embryos for transfer resulted in good pregnancy rates with a low incidence of miscarriage. Limitations and pitfalls of this technique are also discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en433_8031", "title": "Carrier testing", "score": 0.01154120291682658, "content": "The physical risks for getting this kind of genetic testing done are very minimal. The most common requirement is a blood sample. The emotional risks on the other hand are great. When a person finds out they are a carrier for a specific genetic disorder, dealing with that can be very difficult. In many cases, people who find out they are carries can become angered or even enraged that they carry a genetic defect that could be passed on to their child. These results can play a role in determining if a couple will have a child together. If both parents are carriers for the same genetic disorder, there is a twenty-five percent chance that any child they have could be affected. When a person finds out they are a carrier, they are always encouraged to talk to a genetic counselor. If both partners are carriers for the same genetic disease, the choice to have a child together can become much more difficult. IVF with preimplantation genetic diagnosis may be considered, to remove the risk of" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0630_15107", "title": "A proposal for reproductive counselling in carriers of Robertsonian translocations: 10 years of experience with preimplantation genetic diagnosis.", "score": 0.010531516538381526, "content": "Carriers of Robertsonian translocations are at increased risk for infertility, repeated miscarriage and aneuploid offspring. In the present study, 10 years of experience with preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) for Robertsonian translocations is reviewed and these data are used to improve the reproductive counselling in the carriers. A retrospective analysis was performed of all requests and cycles for PGD for Robertsonian translocations at our centre between January 1997 and December 2006. Data on the characteristics of the couples and on the PGD cycles were retrieved from the medical records. These data were recorded for the whole group and according to the sex of the carrier. A total of 111 couples made a request for PGD in our centre, of which 76 had at least one PGD cycle. In the PGD cycles embryo transfer could take place in 66.1% of the cycles with oocyte pick-up and positive hCG was found in 42.7% of the cycles with embryo transfer. The live born delivery rate was 20.2% per cycle with oocyte retrieval and 30.5% per cycle with embryo transfer. With a live birth delivery rate of 32.9% per couple, PGD is considered a good option for these couples, especially when there is a coexisting fertility problem. PGD reduces the risk of miscarriage and allows couples to have a healthy child within a relatively short time span compared with spontaneous pregnancies. However, for young, fertile couples, the chances of having a healthy child after a number of spontaneous pregnancies, should not be ignored." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0391_22902", "title": "Parental decisions of prenatally detected sex chromosome abnormality.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Because of the widespread use of amniocentesis, the prenatal recognition of sex chromosome abnormality (SCA) has become increasingly common. Recent literature provided an insight into the understanding of the natural history and prognosis for individuals with SCA. Our study was designed to review the parental decision on pregnancy with SCA. Over the last 10 yr, we diagnosed 38 cases (0.50%) with SCA out of 7,498 prenatal cases. We reviewed the records and the results of the pregnancies. We included the cases (n=25) of apparently normal anatomic fetus to analyze the factors influencing parental decision. We excluded 13 cases with obvious anomaly or presumably bad outcome. Fifteen (60%) couples continued their pregnancies and ten (40%) terminated theirs. Nine couples (64%) out of fourteen mosaicism cases continued their pregnancies. All five pregnancies assisted by reproductive technique continued their pregnancies. More pregnancies were continued when counseling was done by an MD geneticist rather than by an obstetrician. A significant trend was observed with a higher rate of pregnancy continuation in recent years. The genetic counseling is important to give appropriate information to the parents. Establishing guidelines and protocols will help both obstetricians and parents to make a decision." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en297_31201", "title": "Mohr–Tranebjærg syndrome", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Genetic Counseling Since the pattern of inheritance for Mohr-Tranebjærg is known to be X-linked recessive, genetic counseling is considered beneficial to families with known carriers. In the case that a female is a carrier, the statistical risk of male offspring inheriting the disease is 50%, while the probability that a female offspring will be a carrier is 50%. However, when a male is the carrier, the probability of having a female carrier offspring is 100%, and male offspring will not have any chance of inheriting the syndrome. Because of the statistical probabilities that each sex inherits the syndrome, males are affected by Mohr-Tranebjærg more frequently than females are. Females who carry one copy of the TIMM8A gene (described in Genetics) are usually unaffected, however, may develop mild hearing loss and dystonia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1003_296", "title": "Contacting gamete donors to facilitate diagnostic genetic testing for the donor-conceived child: what are the rights and obligations of gamete donors in these cases? A response to Horton <i>et al</i>.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In their paper Horton <iet al</i argue that it is acceptable to contact an anonymous egg-donor to facilitate diagnostic genetic testing for the donor conceived child, despite the donor, 'indicating on a historical consent form that she did not wish to take part in future research, and that she did not wish to be informed if she was found to be a carrier of a \"harmful inherited condition\"'. There are a number of claims embedded in Horton <iet al</i's position that it is acceptable to contact the donor and request that she at least think about participating in genetic testing. In this response. I will go through their main claims and argue that the area of genomic medicine does not justify exceptions to general consent conditions as the authors suppose and conclude that the donor should not be contacted. I will then go on to suggest a policy change that would address Horton <iet al</i's concerns but would not involve over-riding any previously expressed wishes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0516_7281", "title": "Scientific aspects of preconception gender selection.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Although numerous methods have been promoted as having an influence on the gender of offspring, most lack credible scientific evidence of effectiveness. Preconception gender selection has an important application in reducing the risk of having children with X-linked disease. A preconception, flow cytometric sperm sorting method of gender selection (MicroSort) is based upon the detection of differential fluorescence emitted by fluorescently stained X and Y chromosome-bearing spermatozoa. Ongoing clinical trial results illustrate the safety and efficacy of the method. Fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) analysis of specimens pre- and post-sort show the 50:50 X:Y ratio in unsorted spermatozoa can be shifted to 90% X or 75% Y after sorting. Embryo gender and fetal/baby gender are consistent with post-sort FISH results. Intrauterine insemination (IUI) and IVF/ICSI (intracytoplasmic sperm injection) pregnancy rates are consistent with those reported in the assisted reproduction literature. Clinical loss rates are similar to those in the general population. The observed major congenital abnormality rate of 2.05% for babies born after using this sperm sorting method coincides with that occurring spontaneously. Current results indicate that the method is a safe and effective process and is a valuable tool for families wishing to balance the gender distribution of their children or to reduce the likelihood of having children with X-linked disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0661_14021", "title": "Prenatal carrier testing for fragile X: counseling issues and challenges.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Healthy women who carry a ''premutation'' in the FMR1 gene (or fragile X mental retardation protein) can pass on a further mutated copy of FMR1 to either male or female offspring, leading to fragile X syndrome (FXS). Premutation carriers do not have manifestations of FXS in cognitive deficits, behavioral abnormalities, or classic physical features, but are at increased risk for development of the ''fragile X-associated disorders'': premature ovarian insufficiency and fragile X-associated tremor and ataxia syndrome. When considering widespread prenatal carrier screening programs for fragile X, significant resources must be available for at-risk individuals, including counseling, accurate diagnostic options for fetal testing, and choice regarding continuation of a pregnancy. Further attention is needed to develop and utilize inexpensive screening tests with adequate sensitivity and specificity to reduce barriers to screening for the population. Recently newer methodologies for high-throughput and inexpensive screening assays, which correctly detect expanded alleles in premutation and full mutation patients with a high degree of sensitivity, show significant promise for reduction in cost with rapid turn around times. With the introduction of widespread screening, individuals will be made aware not only of their risk for offspring with FXS, but will also have knowledge of the potential risk to develop the adult-onset conditions- FXPOI and FXTAS. This introduces more complex counseling challenges. All individuals identified as carriers of intermediate or premutation alleles should be referred for genetic counseling to properly convey risks for allele expansion and to discuss possible future risks of fragile X-associated disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0107_7933", "title": "[X maternal mosaicism and genetic counseling].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Among number of women having consulted for repeated miscarriages about sixty have a gonosomic mosaicism involving chromosome X for which abnormal clones (monosomy and/or excess) are always the minority. A retrospective study of the obstetrical follow up these patients have shown that 23% of them will give birth to a child with a chromosomic abnormality (21 trisomy, 13 trisomy, 45,X, 45,X/46,X iso X (q), 48,XXXX, 49 XXXXXY, del 5 p-). The hypothesis of a tendency toward non-disjunction is pushing for an prenatal diagnosis for patients with X mosaicism. However one can question about the real meaning of this abnormality regarding to the fact that the patients referred are not representative of the general population. Should interchromosomic interaction be taken for responsible? Is the risk for having a child chromosomic abnormality, especially X aneuploidy the same than for the overall population. It certainly would be rewarding to look after these different hypothesis in a multicentric collaborative study." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_158032", "title": "Fragile X syndrome", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "This disorder and finding of Fragile X syndrome has an X-linked dominant inheritance. It is typically caused by an expansion of the CGG triplet repeat within the FMR1 (fragile X mental retardation 1) gene on the X chromosome. This results in silencing (methylation) of this part of the gene and a deficiency of the resultant protein (FMRP), which is required for the normal development of connections between neurons. Diagnosis requires genetic testing to determine the number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene. Normally, there are between 5 and 40 repeats; fragile X syndrome occurs with more than 200. A premutation is said to be present when the gene has between 40 and 200 repeats; women with a premutation have an increased risk of having an affected child. Testing for premutation carriers may allow for genetic counseling." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0951_11475", "title": "'Designer babies' almost thirty years on.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The first pregnancies and live births following <iin vitro</i fertilisation (IVF) and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT), formerly known as preimplantation genetic diagnosis, were reported in 1990, almost 30 years ago, in several couples at risk of X-linked inherited conditions, which typically only affect boys inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene from their carrier mothers. At that time, it was only possible to identify the sex of the embryo by amplifying a Y-linked repeat sequence in single cells biopsied at cleavage stages and avoid the transfer of males, half of which would be affected. The extensive publicity surrounding these cases and the perceived risk of using IVF and PGT for desirable characteristics not related to health, such as sex selection, led to the epithet of 'designer babies' which continues to resonate to this day. Here, I briefly reflect on how the technology of PGT has evolved over the decades and whether it deserves this reputation. With efficient methods for whole genome amplification and the genomic revolution, we now have highly accurate universal tests that combine marker-based diagnosis of almost any monogenic disorder with the detection of aneuploidy. PGT is now clinically well established and is likely to remain a valuable alternative for couples at risk of having affected children." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en052_62674", "title": "Norrie disease", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Genetics Norrie disease is a rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the NDP gene, located on Xp11.4 (GeneID: 4693). It is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. This means that almost only males are affected. Sons of affected men will not have the mutation, while all of their daughters will be genetic carriers of the mutation. Female carriers usually show no clinical symptoms, but will pass the mutation to 50% of their offspring. Daughters with the mutated gene will also be, like their mother, asymptomatic carriers, but 50% of their sons will express clinical symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0300_7516", "title": "[Methods of sex selection. A new method for preventing genetic diseases].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Determining sex of offspring has been a subject of intense interest for the public and professional community. Although methods of selecting sex before concepts are not entirely reliable, couples could satisfy their wishes for the size and composition of their family and the children might benefit by being wanted. On the other hand, the ability to selectively separate X from Y chromosome-bearing spermatozoa and use the X spermatozoa to preferentially produce female offspring; could be reduce, or may even eliminate, the probability of conceiving affected males of X-linked diseases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en475_18284", "title": "Nagwa Abdel Meguid", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Meguid developed a simple molecular screening method to detect premutation carriers of fragile X syndrome. A premutation carrier is an individual who has between 55-200 CGG repeats in the Fragile X (FMR1) gene. The full mutation has over 200 CGG repeats. The procedure included a rapid modified polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based screening tool for expanded Fragile X Mental Retardation 1 (FMR1) alleles. The results showed that 16 males out of 53 males had the CGG abnormal repeats characteristic of Fragile X gene. 10 of their mothers and 4 of their sisters also had the FMR1 premutation. 66.6% consanguineous marriages were present in the families studied. It was concluded that fragile X syndrome was ruled out of families with consanguineous parents. Instead, fragile X syndrome could be contributed to earlier carrier detection, which may reduce the number of affected children. By isolating the mutation early, the effects of the disease could be reduced in children and in their" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_7828", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis: the ethics of intermediate cases.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "According to the current guiding principle regarding preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD), the technique should focus on the diagnosis of genetic defects which (may) affect the health of this particular potential child--the so-called 'medical model'. I argue in favour of a more permissive view, also allowing PGD of characteristics which may be relevant for the health of 'third parties'. Two cases are analysed: PGD/HLA typing in order to save a sib, and PGD/sex selection in order to prevent the birth of healthy female carriers of X-linked recessive disorders, who are at high risk of conceiving affected sons. While these cases are at odds with the medical model stricto sensu, they do have a link with health problems. In the first case, the health benefit hoped for is intrafamilial, in the second case the health benefit is transgenerational. These cases illustrate that the traditional dichotomy between the medical model on the one hand and the 'designer' or autonomy model on the other hand is simplistic--they represent an intermediate category." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0558_12384", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis for monogenic diseases: overview and emerging issues.", "score": 0.009268707482993197, "content": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is an established reproductive option for couples at risk of conceiving a pregnancy affected with a known genetic disease, who wish to avoid an (additional) affected child, termination of pregnancy or recurrent miscarriages. Early technologies concentrated on different approaches to direct mutation testing for monogenic diseases using single cell PCR protocols, or sex selection by fluorescent in situ hybridization for X-linked monogenic disease. Development of multiplex fluorescent PCR allowed simultaneously testing of linked markers alongside the mutation test, increasing the accuracy by controlling for contamination and identifying allele drop-out. The advent of highly effective whole genome amplification methods has opened the way for new technologies such as preimplantation genetic haplotyping and microarrays, thus increasing the number of genetic defects that can be detected in preimplantation embryos; the number of cases carried out and the new indications tested increases each year. Different countries have taken very different approaches to legislating and regulating PGD, giving rise to the phenomenon of reproductive tourism. PGD is now being performed for scenarios previously not undertaken using prenatal diagnosis, some of which raise significant ethical concerns. While PGD has benefited many couples aiming to have healthy children, ethical concerns remain over inappropriate use of this technology." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_31526", "title": "Wilhelm Weinberg", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "By the same token, he recognized that ascertainment was responsible for a phenomenon known as anticipation, the tendency for a genetic disease to manifest earlier in life and with increased severity in later generations. Weinberg recognized that this was because those later generations were the offspring of that selected group of earlier carriers that had successfully reproduced. Subsequent researchers have reasoned that such carriers who reproduce might be expected to carry favorable compensatory mutations that allowed them to reproduce successfully in spite of their disease. In a class of autosomal and X-linked dominant diseases known as trinucleotide repeat disorders (for example, Huntington's disease), a molecular mechanism for anticipation has also been demonstrated. It is caused by the instability of repeating nucleotide sequences that tend to undergo expansion, causing disease at an earlier and earlier age as trinucleotide repeats accumulate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0978_17523", "title": "The aims of expanded universal carrier screening: Autonomy, prevention, and responsible parenthood.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Expanded universal carrier screening (EUCS) entails a population-wide screening offer for multiple disease-causing mutations simultaneously. Although there is much debate about the conditions under which EUCS can responsibly be introduced, there seems to be little discussion about its aim: providing carrier couples with options for autonomous reproductive choice. While this links in with current accounts of the aim of foetal anomaly screening, it is different from how the aim of ancestry-based carrier screening has traditionally been understood: reducing the disease burden in the population. The reasons why the aim of EUCS is presented in terms of 'autonomy' rather than 'prevention' have not been spelled out in the literature. This paper seeks to fill this gap by considering the morally relevant similarities and dissimilarities between foetal anomaly screening, ancestry-based carrier screening and EUCS. When carrier screening is performed in the prenatal period, enhancing autonomy appears the most appropriate aim of EUCS, as the alternative of 'prevention through selective abortion' would urge women to terminate wanted pregnancies. However, when screening is conducted in the preconception period, carrier couples can avoid the birth of affected children by other means than selective abortion, for instance preimplantation genetic diagnosis. To the extent that this increased control over passing on a genetic disorder raises questions of parental responsibility, it seems necessary that the account of the aims of EUCS is wider than only in terms of enhancing reproductive autonomy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en290_27387", "title": "Smith–Fineman–Myers syndrome", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Genetics SFMS is an X-linked disease by chromosome Xq13. X-linked diseases map to the human X chromosome because this syndrome is an X chromosome linked females who have two chromosomes are not affected but because males only have one X chromosome, they are more likely to be affected and show the full clinical symptoms. This disease only requires one copy of the abnormal X-linked gene to display the syndrome. Since females have two X chromosomes, the effect of one X chromosome is recessive and the second chromosome masks the affected chromosome. Affected fathers can never pass this X-linked disease to their sons but affected fathers can pass the X-linked gene to their daughters who has a 50% chance to pass this disease-causing gene to each of her children. Since females who inherit this gene do not show symptoms, they are called carriers. Each of the female's carrier's son has a 50% chance to display the symptoms but none of the female carrier's daughters would display any symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0936_22854", "title": "Ethical quandaries around expanded carrier screening in third-party reproduction.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Although current screening methods of gamete donors are capable of reducing the incidence of genetic anomalies in donor offspring below general population levels, targeted screening for a large number of conditions (expanded carrier screening or ECS) could be considered as part of the routine selection procedure for gamete donors. There are, however, important drawbacks to its practical implementation. Excluding all carriers of severe recessive monogenic pediatric disorders would disqualify virtually all donors, and other approaches negatively affect cost (and therefore access), present dilemmas in regard to disclosure of genetic findings, and/or overburden the intended parents. In all of the scenarios considered, adequate genetic counseling will be of central importance. Besides looking at benefits and drawbacks of possible ways of implementing ECS, we also examine whether a moral obligation exists to adopt ECS at all and on whose shoulders such an alleged obligation would rest: policymakers, medical staff at fertility clinics, sperm and egg banks, the intended parents? We argue that given the small risk reduction brought about by ECS, the possible negative effects of its implementation, and the absence of widespread preconception carrier screening in the general population, it is inconsistent to argue that there is a moral obligation to perform ECS in the context of donor conception. Finally, implications for the donors are discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en297_31198", "title": "Mohr–Tranebjærg syndrome", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Genetics This condition is caused by mutations in the TIMM8A gene. This gene is located on the long arm of X chromosome (Xq22). The protein encoded by this gene localizes to the intermembrane space in mitochondria where it functions in the import of nuclear encoded proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. How this produces the clinical picture is not yet clear. The pattern of inheritance is X-linked recessive. Where the female is a carrier, male offspring have a 50 percent chance of inheriting the disease and female offspring have a 50 percent chance of being a carrier. Where the male is affected, male offspring do not inherit the pathogenic mutation and females are obligate carriers. TIMM8A is also referred to as DDP. Koehler determined the function of the DDP gene and concluded that the Mohr-Tranebjaerg syndrome is a novel type of mitochondrial disease that is most likely caused by a defective mitochondrial protein-import system. Diagnosis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0118_14897", "title": "[Value of chromosome tests in genetic counseling of infertile couples].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A cytogenetic analysis of more than 7000 subjects has been performed in the aetiological screening of infertile couples. This study revealed that infertile couples can be divided into three groups: those with one or more spontaneous abortions before 13 weeks of gestations, those with primary sterility (no gestation for at least 24 months) or those with secondary sterility (after one or more children, no further gestation for at least 24 months). The frequency of chromosomal abnormalities observed in this population is 2,9%, i.e. 1/17 couple. The results, according to sex of subjects bearing the chromosomal abnormality, were then analysed in each of the three groups. From this study, the authors insist on the advantage of systematically performing a chromosome analysis in the case of infertile couples for two main reasons: frequency of chromosomal abnormalities is relatively high in this population, detection of such abnormalities enables some couple to be rapidly directed to other solutions (Artificial Insemination), and others, due to prenatal chromosomal diagnosis, to have offspring in safety." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0561_21065", "title": "Attitudes toward fragile X mutation carrier testing from women identified in a general population survey.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Fragile X syndrome is primarily due to a CGG repeat expansion found in the FMR1 X-linked gene. In a previous study, we conducted focus groups with women to assess their attitudes towards fragile X carrier screening. In this follow-up study, we conducted in-depth interviews of general population reproductive-age women who were identified as carriers. We explored their attitudes toward testing for carrier status of the fragile X mutation. These women underwent screening primarily to participate in a research project rather than in search of a diagnosis for specific symptoms. As such, these women were wholly unprepared for positive carrier results. Their responses about their results and carrier screening, in many cases, were being worked out over the course of the interview itself. The most salient finding of this work is the apparent lack of relevance of carrier status to these women. Many expressed that although the information could be relevant in the future, it is not relevant at this stage of their lives in terms of family planning (either with respect to having unaffected offspring or to premature ovarian failure) and personal relationships. Although issues of abortion seemed prominent in the focus groups, we found that carrier status did not have an apparent effect on women's attitudes about termination. We hypothesize this may be related to the fact that women had not processed their new carrier status and had not related it to previously-formed personal opinions. The findings of this work have significant implications for genetic counseling and population screening. Genetic counselors should be mindful that general population women may not recognize the immediate importance of their carrier status even when literature is provided and discussed prior to providing a sample. As part of comprehensive genetic counseling, counselors should identify the reproductive life stage of the woman receiving the new information and help her identify when this information would be more meaningful in her life. Counselors can assist in setting up a personalized road map with specific types of services that will be more applicable to the woman as her carrier status becomes more relevant." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_18544", "title": "Successful pregnancy after preimplantation genetic diagnosis for carrier of t(2;7)(p11.2;q22) with high rates of unbalanced sperm and embryos: a case report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Regarding the literature on the results of preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) in reciprocal chromosomal translocation carriers seems to prevail a view that this method reduces the frequency of miscarriages, and the pregnancy rate is directly proportional to the number of normal spermatozoa. Therefore, we compared the results of sperm karyotype analysis of a carrier of familial t(2;7)(p11.2;q22) with PGD results. The carrier was ascertained as his wife had had two miscarriages. Empirical data from a pedigree of t(2;7)(p11.2;q22) carrier was collected. A tri-color fluorescence in situ hybridization method (FISH) was used to show the meiotic segregation pattern in sperm of the proband. PGD of blastomeres from a single ICSI cycle and standard prenatal diagnosis procedures to confirm the PGD results was performed. Meiotic segregation pattern showed only 34.2% of normal/balanced spermatozoa. The high rate (42%) of miscarriages was observed in this family, which could be explained by chromosomal unbalanced karyotypes as a product of fertilization by unbalanced spermatozoa found with a frequency of approximately 66%. The lack of unbalanced progeny at birth suggests a natural selection of unbalanced fetuses. The 37.5% of normal/balanced embryos received after a single ICSI cycle and PGD was similar to the percentage of normal/balanced spermatozoa (34.2%). After 38 weeks a healthy girl with normal karyotype was born. The presented study is an optimistic message for translocation carriers showing that even in case with more than 60% of genetically unbalanced sperm there is a reasonable chance for reproductive success." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1103_18600", "title": "What is the threshold of mature oocytes to obtain at least one healthy transferable cleavage-stage embryo after preimplantation genetic testing for fragile X syndrome?", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "What are the chances of obtaining a healthy transferable cleavage-stage embryo according to the number of mature oocytes in fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1)-mutated or premutated females undergoing preimplantation genetic testing (PGT)? In our population, a cycle with seven or more mature oocytes has an 83% chance of obtaining one or more healthy embryos. PGT may be an option to achieve a pregnancy with a healthy baby for FMR1 mutation carriers. In addition, FMR1 premutation is associated with a higher risk of diminished ovarian reserve and premature ovarian failure. The number of metaphase II (MII) oocytes needed to allow the transfer of a healthy embryo following PGT has never been investigated. The study is a monocentric retrospective observational study carried out from January 2006 to January 2020 that is associated with a case-control study and that analyzes 38 FMR1 mutation female carriers who are candidates for PGT; 16 carried the FMR1 premutation and 22 had the full FMR1 mutation. A total of 95 controlled ovarian stimulation (COS) cycles for PGT for fragile X syndrome were analyzed, 49 in premutated patients and 46 in fully mutated women. Only patients aged ≤38 years with anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) &gt;1 ng/ml and antral follicle count (AFC) &gt;10 follicles were eligible for the PGT procedure. Each COS cycle of the FMR1-PGT group was matched with the COS cycles of partners of males carrying any type of translocation (ratio 1:3). Conditional logistic regression was performed to compare the COS outcomes. We then estimated the number of mature oocytes needed to obtain at least one healthy embryo after PGT using receiver operating characteristic curve analysis. Overall, in the FMR1-PGT group, the median number of retrieved and mature oocytes per cycle was 11 (interquartile range 7-15) and 9 (6-12), respectively. The COS outcomes of FMR1 premutation or full mutation female carriers were not altered compared with the matched COS cycles in partners of males carrying a balanced translocation in their karyotype. Among the 6 (4-10) Day 3 embryos obtained in the FMR1-PGT group, a median number of 3 (1-6) embryos were morphologically eligible for biopsy, leading to 1 (1-3) healthy embryo. A cutoff value of seven MII oocytes yielded a sensitivity of 82% and a specificity of 61% of having at least one healthy embryo, whereas a cutoff value of 10 MII oocytes led to a specificity of 85% and improved positive predictive value. This study is retrospective, analyzing a limited number of cycles. Moreover, the patients who were included in a fresh PGT cycle were selected on ovarian reserve parameters and show high values in ovarian reserve tests. This information could influence our conclusion. The results relate only to the target population of this study, with a correct ovarian reserve of AMH &gt;1 and AFC &gt;10. However, the information provided herein extends knowledge about the current state of COS for FMR1 mutation carriers in order to provide patients with proper counseling regarding the optimal number of oocytes needed to have a chance of transferring an unaffected embryo following PGT. None. N/A." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0041_5600", "title": "[Genetic counseling in cases of chromosome insertions].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The principles of the estimation of the risk of repeated birth of malformed child and spontaneous abortion in families of balanced carriers of insertions are presented. A risk for a carrier is formed from two parts: a risk for a carrier of reciprocal translocation and a risk for a carrier of insertion of the came length as inseried segment. The first component of the risk is a constant, the latter one is a variable. It depends on the length of the inserted segment, the type of its inclusion (direct or inverted) and sites of break points. An estimation of the risk in hypothetical insertion 46, XX, inv ins (4; 2) (q24; q22q34) is described as a model. The same method of counselling may be used for the families with triple translocations t(a-, b-, c+) with \"insertion\" of fragment of chromosome \"a\" between the parts of \"b\" and \"c\" chromosomes. A tentative empirical mean value of repeated birth of malformed child and spontaneous abortion in families with insertions is 29% and 45% for the female carrier, and about 37% and 25% for the male carrier." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0959_3759", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis versus prenatal diagnosis-decision-making among pregnant FMR1 premutation carriers.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To detect which factors influence decision-making among pregnant FMR1 premutation carriers regarding the preferred mode of genetic diagnosis: IVF-PGT-M (in vitro fertilization with preimplantation genetic testing for monogenic gene diseases), or CVS (chorionic villus sampling), or AC (amniocentesis) after spontaneous conception. In Israel FMR1 premutation preconception genetic screening is offered, free of charge, to every woman in her reproductive years. FMR1 premutation carriers with ≥ 70 CGG repeats, or a history of FXS offspring, are offered IVF-PGT-M. This is a historical cohort study including all pregnant FMR1 premutation carriers who underwent prenatal diagnosis between the years 2011 and 2016 at a tertiary medical center. Data were collected from electronic charts and through phone interviews. One hundred seventy-five women with high-risk pregnancies who were offered IVF-PGT-M were evaluated. In 37 pregnancies (21%), the women decided to undergo IVF-PGT-M. Using the generalized estimating equations (GEE) statistical method including seven parameters, we found that previous termination of pregnancy due to FXS and advanced woman's age were significantly associated with making the decision to undergo IVF-PGT-M. Previously failed IVF was the most significant parameter in a woman's decision not to undergo IVF-PGT-M. The most dominant factor affecting the decision of FMR1 premutation carriers to choose spontaneous conception with prenatal diagnosis versus IVF-PGT-M is a previous experience of failed IVF treatments. Women whose IVF treatments failed in the past tended to try to conceive naturally and later, during the course of the pregnancy, perform CVS or AC. Conversely, women who previously experienced a termination of pregnancy (TOP) due to an affected fetus, and older women, preferred to undergo IVF-PGT-M procedures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1009_8839", "title": "Lowe syndrome identified in the offspring of an oocyte donor who was an unknown carrier of a de novo mutation: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Oculocerebrorenal syndrome of Lowe is an X-linked disorder with very low prevalence in the general population. The OCRL gene encodes the protein phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate-5-phosphatase, a lipid phosphatase, located in the trans-Golgi network. Point mutations in the OCRL gene cause Lowe syndrome and Dent disease, which are characterized as a multisystemic disorder. The symptoms of Lowe syndrome are expressed primarily as dysfunction of the eyes, kidneys, and the central nervous system. This report describes a case of a 31-year-old Georgian woman with a de novo pathogenic mutation causing oculocerebrorenal syndrome of Lowe, who was a volunteer in an oocyte donation program for in vitro fertilization purposes, and the outcome of the treatments of this particular donor's oocyte receivers, describing the implications of the mutation for the children born as a result of the treatments. It raises important medical and ethical issues about the necessity of genetic testing of oocyte donors and the possibility of rare genetic disorders being inherited by the offspring of donors. This particular case indicates the legal, medical, and emotional risks of utilizing donor oocytes from phenotypically healthy women, whose genetic constitution is unknown in terms of being silent carriers of rare diseases. In addition, all the necessary actions were followed; the further examinations that are required are mentioned. The donor and the offspring should be further tested. The remaining cryopreserved embryos should be destroyed or preimplantation genetic testing should be performed before they are utilized. Finally, all the people involved, the treated couples and the donor, alongside her family, should follow genetic and psychological counselling." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 225 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 35 ] ], "text": "There may be debate about whether to start Rituximab with another cytostatic drug or in monotherapy, but given the lack of survival benefit with early initiation of treatment, the NCCN guidelines recommend waiting and seeing," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Rituximab-CHOP (Cyclophosphamide, Adriamycin, Vincristine, Prednisone).", "2": "Rituximab-CVP (Cyclophosphamide, Vincristine, Prednisone).", "3": "Do not treat and monitor (wait and see).", "4": "Rituxirnab-Bendamustine.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0771_21251", "title": "[Chronic lymphocytic leukemia].", "score": 0.012909921129099212, "content": "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is a lymphoproliferative disorder that accounts for approximately 30 % of adult leukemias and 25 % of Non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL). It is the most common form of leukemia in the western world (incidence 3-5/100 000). Elderly people are mainly affected, median age at diagnosis is around 70 years and there is a slight predominance in men. The etiology of the disease is unknown. The initial symptoms are nonspecific. Cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly followed by general fatigue are seen most commonly. Other possible symptoms include night sweats, fever, loss of weight (so-called B symptoms) and frequent infections. Several patients develop autoimmune complications as autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) or immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). To confirm the diagnosis more than 5000 B-lymphocytes/µl need to be present. The expression of the typical surface markers CD5, CD19, and CD23 has to be confirmed by flow cytometry. Imaging studies as X-ray of the chest, ultrasound of the abdomen, or CT scan are used to assess the degree of lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. A bone marrow biopsy is not mandatory for the diagnosis. According to the European Binet staging system, CLL is divided into 3 stages (A, B and C). Patients in Binet stage A have 0 to 2 areas of node or organ enlargement with normal levels of hemoglobin and platelets. Binet stage B patients have 3 to 5 areas of node or organ enlargement and normal or slightly decreased levels of hemoglobin and platelets. Binet stage C patients have anemia (hemoglobin &lt; 10 g/dl) and/or thrombocytopenia (platelet counts &lt; 100 000/µl), with or without lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. As there is no survival benefit associated with early intervention, asymptomatic patients with early stage CLL (Binet stage A and B) are usually not treated but are followed on a \"watch and wait\" principle. Treatment indications include stage Binet C or signs of an active disease as rapidly progressive lymphadenopathy or organomegaly together with physical limitation, B symptoms that cannot be tolerated, rapidly deteriorating blood values, or rapidly increasing leukocyte counts. The patient's physical condition has major impact on the treatment decision. Currently immunochemotherapy with fludarabine, cyclophosphamide and the CD20-antibody rituximab (FCR) is the standard of care in previously untreated and physically fit CLL-patients. An alternative regimen is the combination of bendamustine and rituximab (BR). Physically compromised patients can be treated with the oral drug chlorambucil or with bendamustine with or without rituximab. Due to high morbidity and mortality, allogeneic stem cell transplantation is limited to a small group of patients and should be discussed in a high-risk situation, such as 17p deletion, lack of response to standard therapy or early relapse." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_8708", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012880844645550529, "content": "Patients with follicular lymphoma have a high rate of histologic transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (5–7% per year). This is recognized ~40% of the time during the course of the illness by repeat biopsy and is present in almost all patients at autopsy. This transformation is usually heralded by rapid growth of lymph nodes—often localized—and the development of systemic symptoms such as fevers, sweats, and weight loss. Although these patients have a poor prognosis, aggressive combination chemotherapy regimens can sometimes cause a complete remission in the diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, at times leaving the patient with persisting follicular lymphoma. With more frequent use of R-CHOP to treat follicular lymphoma at diagnosis, it appears that the rate of histologic progression is decreasing. R-CHOP or bendamustine plus rituximab with intermittent rituximab maintenance for 2 years are the most commonly used treatment approaches." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en106_15922", "title": "Intravascular lymphomas", "score": 0.012474641959608805, "content": "At diagnosis, IVBCL must be regarded as an aggressive and disseminated malignancy requiring systemic chemotherapy. In the absence of long- or short-term, controlled clinical trials on treating this lymphoma, individuals with IVBCL have been treated with the standard regimen used to treat diffuse large B-cell lymphomas viz., the CHOP chemotherapy regimen which consists of cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin (also termed doxorubicin or adriamycin), oncovin (also termed vincristine), and a corticosteroid (i.e. either prednisone or prednisolone) plus the monoclonal antibody immunotherapy agent, Rituximab. This immunochemotherapeutic regimen has achieved an overall survival rate at 3 years of 81%; this overall survival rate using CHOP before Retuximab was added to the regimen was only 33%. However, highly toxic reactions to Rituximab such as pulmonary failure may occur and require delay or interrupting the use of this drug. High dose chemotherapy regimens followed by autologous stem-cell" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_8671", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012138188608776843, "content": "Five clinical risk factors: Age ≥60 years Serum lactate dehydrogenase levels elevated Performance status ≥2 (ECOG) or ≤70 (Karnofsky) Ann Arbor stage III or IV >1 site of extranodal involvement Patients are assigned a number for each risk factor they have Patients are grouped differently based on the type of lymphoma For diffuse large B-cell lymphoma: 0, 1 factor = low risk: 35% of cases; 5-year survival, 73% 2 factors = low-intermediate risk: 27% of cases; 5-year survival, 51% 3 factors = high-intermediate risk: 22% of cases; 5-year survival, 43% 4, 5 factors = high risk: 16% of cases; 5-year survival, 26% For diffuse large B-cell lymphoma treated with R-CHOP: 0 factor = very good: 10% of cases; 5-year survival, 94% 1, 2 factors = good: 45% of cases; 5-year survival, 79% 3, 4, 5 factors = poor: 45% of cases; 5-year survival, 55% Abbreviations: ECOG, Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group; R-CHOP, rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_41398", "title": "CHOP (chemotherapy)", "score": 0.011435378201310305, "content": "In most other non-Hodgkin lymphomas (excluding some aggressive forms), standard-dose [R]-CHOP is generally used as first-line therapy. Uses and indications Normal cells are more able than cancer cells to repair damage from chemotherapy drugs. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP. Typically, courses are administered at an interval of two or three weeks (CHOP-14 and CHOP-21 respectively). A staging CT scan is generally performed after three cycles to assess whether the disease is responding to treatment. In patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, doxorubicin (which is cardiotoxic) is often deemed to be too great a risk and is omitted from the regimen. The combination is then referred to as COP (cyclophosphamide, Oncovin, and prednisone or prednisolone) or CVP (cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone or prednisolone)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_42288", "title": "Follicular lymphoma", "score": 0.011152515304764441, "content": "latter regimens, the regimens have shown similar results when analyzed based on poor treatment responses (~10-20% poor responses). Bendamustine with rituximab may be preferable to R-CHOP or R-CVP for treating low-grade (i.e. Grades 1, 2, and possibly 3A) FL; R-CHOP may be preferred in FL that has high-risk characteristics (e.g. high levels of Beta-2 macroglobulin or bone marrow involvement). The combination of lenalidomide with rituximab has shown good potential in treating indolent cases of FL." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_410", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009908599916909015, "content": "■Treatment is based on histopathologic classification rather than on stage. Symptomatic patients are treated with radiation and chemotherapy T AB LE 2.7 -8. Presentation of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma Painless peripheral adenopathy. Cytopenia from bone marrow involvement. Fatigue and weakness. Peripheral adenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly. Adenopathy. Extranodal disease (GI, GU, skin, thyroid, CNS). B symptoms (temperature > 38.5°C, night sweats, weight loss). Mass formation (e.g., abdominal mass with bowel obstruction in Burkitt’s lymphoma; mediastinal mass and SVC syndrome in lymphoblastic lymphoma). Bulky adenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly. Masses (abdominal, testicular, mediastinal). Skin f ndings. Low Intermediate to high (CHOP: cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan], Adriamycin, Oncovin [vincristine], and prednisone)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en253_6122", "title": "Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Current treatment recommendations for patients with symptomatic or rapidly progressive SMZL rely on drugs. Rituximab, a commercial preparation of a monoclonal antibody directed at the CD20 protein on B-cells, is significantly active in SMZL, with short-term treatments (e.g. ~4 weeks) achieving overall response rates of 90-100%, complete remission rates of >50%, and a 7-year progression-free survival rate of 69%. Long-term maintenance therapy with rituximab appears to improve these results and patients who relapse after rituximab therapy commonly respond to a second course of the drug. Prior to rituximab availability, single drug chemotherapy (e.g. chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, fludarabine, pentostatin, 2CDA, or bendamustine) and multiple drug regimens (i.e. the CVP regimen of cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone, or the CHOP regimen of CVP plus doxorubicin) were used to treat the disease. However, current studies indicate that these chemotherapeutic agents are not superior" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0024_10360", "title": "[Evolution of patients with rheumatoid arthritis treated with immunosuppressive agents between 1965 and 1973].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The authors report the results of a study of 139 of their patients with severe rheumatoid arthritis, treated with chlorambucil of cyclophosphamide between 1965 and December 1973, with an observation period of 4 to 12 years. 8 patients were lost to follow-up, 38 died and 93 were reexamined. In this series 7 deaths were attributed to hemolymphoreticulopathy of various cytological types; 6 deaths were due to visceral cancer and 2 others to cancer of the tonsils. They confirm that such treatments increase the risk of hemopathy but apparently not the risk of visceral cancer. The risk was not a function of the total dose of the drug administered since no neoplasia was observed in the 25 subjects who received the highest doses. The addition of chlorambucil to cyclophosphamide seems to increase the risk of hemopathy. It was noticed that the 7 cases of hemolymphoreticulopathy occured after 60 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1013_3992", "title": "First-line R-CVP versus R-CHOP induction immunochemotherapy for indolent lymphoma with rituximab maintenance. A multicentre, phase III randomized study by the Polish Lymphoma Research Group PLRG4.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "R-CVP (cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisone) and R-CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone + rituximab) are immunochemotherapy regimens frequently used for remission induction of indolent non-Hodgkin lymphomas (iNHLs). Rituximab maintenance (RM) significantly improves progression-free survival (PFS) in patients with complete/partial remission (CR/PR). Here we report the final results of a randomized study comparing R-CVP to R-CHOP both followed by RM. Untreated patients in need of systemic therapy with symptomatic and progressive iNHLs including follicular (FL) and marginal zone lymphoma (MZL), mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), small lymphocytic (SLL), and lymphoplasmacytic (LPL) lymphoma were eligible. Patients were randomized to receive R-CVP or R-CHOP for eight cycles or until complete response (CR). All patients with CR/PR (partial response) received RM 375 mg/m<sup2</sup q 2 months for 12 cycles. Primary endpoint was event-free survival (EFS). Two-hundred and fifty patients [FL 42%, MZL/MALT 38%, LPL/ Waldenström Macroglobulinaemia (WM) 11%, SLL 9%] were enrolled and randomized (R-CHOP: 127, R-CVP: 123). Median age was 56 years (21-85), 44% were male, 90% were in stage III-IV, 43% of FL patients had a Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI) score ≥3, and 33·4% of all patients had an IPI score ≥3. At the end of induction treatment, the CR/PR rate was 43·6/50·9% and 36·3/60·8% in the R-CHOP and R-CVP groups (P = 0·218) respectively. After a median follow-up of 67, 66, and 70 months, five-year EFS was 61% vs. 56% (not significant), progression-free survival (PFS) was 71% vs. 69% (not significant) and overall survival (OS) was 84% vs. 89% in the R-CHOP vs. the R-CVP arm respectively. Grade III/IV adverse events (65 vs. 22) occurred in 40 (33·1%) and 18 (15·3%) patients, P = 0·001; neutropenia in 16 (11·6%) and 4 (3·4%) patients, P = 0·017; infection in 14 (10·7%) and 3 (2·5%) patients,; P = 0·011; and a second neoplasm in three versus seven patients., in the R-CHOP and the R-CVP groups respectively. This multicentre randomized study with &gt;five-year follow-up shows similar outcome in patients with indolent lymphoma in need of systemic therapy treated with R-CVP or R-CHOP immunochemotherapy and rituximab maintenance in both arms. The minor toxicity of the R-CVP regimen makes it a reasonable choice for induction treatment, leaving other active agents like doxorubicin or bendamustin for second-line therapy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en583_3940", "title": "Pediatric-type follicular lymphoma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Virtually all cases of PTFL, even if treated with minimal interventions such as surgical removal or a watch-and-wait approach, have had a relatively benign and sometimes remitting and relapsing course. Thus, past recommendations that these patients need to be evaluated by bone marrow biopsy, lumbar puncture, or other invasive and/or expensive procedures requires revaluation. The evaluation of therapeutic regimens used to treat PTFL is complicated by their purely retrospective nature and inclusion of cases which in retrospect were likely cases of large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement. In any event, many of these cases were treated with chemotherapeutic regimens, principally, CHOP (i.e. cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, prednisone) or R-CHOP (i.e. CHOP plus rituximab) while others, which likely excluded large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement, were treated with surgical removal, localized radiation therapy, and/or watch-and-wait strategies. All of these" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_23552", "title": "[International prognostic index in diffuse B large cell lymphosarcoma].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To evaluate efficacy of the International Prognostic Index (IPI) in relation to diffuse B-large cell lymphosarcoma (BLCLS), to identify significant prognostic factors. The trial enrolled 121 patients (67 males and 54 females, mean age 54 years) suffering from BLCLS with involvement of the lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils. The diagnosis was made according to WHO criteria. 83 patients (29 with local lesion of lymph nodes, 10 with primary lesion of the tonsils, 9 with primary lesion of the spleen and 35 with generalized lesion) received polychemotherapy (PCT): CHOP-21, R-CHOP-21. Patients with primary splenic lesion have undergone splenectomy followed by CHOP-21 PCT, radiotherapy on the splenic region and that of regional lymph nodes. Radiation therapy was also given to patients with stage I-II, 38 patients received NHL-BFM-90 PCT. In distribution of patients into prognosis groups according to IPI 5-year event-free survival on CHOP-21 and R-CHOP-21 therapy was 83% in the group of low risk, 79% in the group of low/intermediate risk, 52% in the group of high/intermediate risk, 34% in the group of a high risk. However, there were poor outcomes in the group of low risk (recurrence, resistance) and long-term persistent remissions in high risk groups. Frequency and duration of complete remissions depended on location of the primary lesion. Five-year event-free survival in patients with solitary lesion of the peripheral lymph nodes on CHOP-21, R-CHOP-21 in spite of their size (bulky) and high concentration of lactate dehydrogenase) was 97% while in tonsillar lesion (according to IPI all the patients entered groups of low and low/intermediate risk) - 50%. All the patients with primary splenic lesion according to IPI had high risk but after splenectomy and PCT (CHOP-21, R-CHOP-21) followed by radiotherapy they demonstrated 100% 5-year event-free survival (follow-up since 1998). Determination of prognosis groups in BLCLS is not valid as such distribution gives no grounds for choice of adequate therapy. A decisive prognostic factor is now site of the lesion." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en106_25528", "title": "Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "First-line therapy for patients with the GBC variant of DLBCL, NOS is R-CHOP. R-CHOP consists of rituximab, three chemotherapy drugs (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and vincristine) and a glucocorticoid (either prednisone or prednisolone). The regimen achieves cure, relapse following remission, and unresponsive rates of 60–70%, 30–40% and <10%, respectively, in GBC variant cases. Relapses generally occur within the first 3 years of diagnosis with few cases doing so after 5 years. Patients who are refractory to, relapse within 1 year of diagnosis before starting, relapse within 6 months after completing, or progress within 2 years of starting R-CHOP have poorer prognoses. R-CHOP is less effective and not recommended for patients who have MYC, BL2, and/or BL6 rearrangements regardless of their GBC, ABC, or non-GBC type. One recommendation for treating these DH/THL cases is the DA-R-EPOCH regimen (dose-adjusted rituximab, etoposide, prednisolone, oncovin, cyclophosphamide, and" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0861_3825", "title": "[Changes in the prognosis and treatment of Waldenström macroglobulinemia. Literature overview and own experience].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Waldenström macroglobulinemia is defined by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin IgM type (M-IgM) and evidence of lymphoplasmacytic bone marrow infiltration. The disease has an indolent course, the treatment is only initiated when the disease has begun to damage its carrier. The following symptoms are regarded as proven indications for initiating therapy: B symptoms, symptomatic lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, anemia with hemoglobin below 100 g / l or thrombocytopenia &lt; 100 × 10(9)/l, caused by lymphoplasmacytic bone marrow infiltration. Frequent indications for initiating treatment include clinical evidence of hyperviscosity or cryoglobulinemia. M-IgM tends to have a character of autoantibody reaching up to 50 %, which may harm the organism, and therefore any proven damage to the organism by an autoimmune activity of M-IgM is also an indication for treatment. The text includes an overview of rare and very rare types of damage to the organism by M-IgM autoimmune activity. A combination of rituximab, cyclophosphamide and dexamethasone (RCD) is recommended for the initial treatment, possibly extended to R-CHOP regimen (rituximab, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, doxorubicin and prednisone). In our cohort of 43 patients the therapy involving a combination of R-CHOP achieved 3 (8.1 %) complete remissions and 31 (83.8 %) partial remissions. The remission in 75 % of the patients lasted more than 3 years. In case of recurrence after &gt; 2 years, the same therapy can be used, in case of a relapse within a shorter period of time different treatment schedules are recommended. High-dose chemotherapy with an autologous transplant of stem cells obtained from peripheral blood is only recommended after the first recurrence for people under 65 years of age without contraindications. The text analyses the benefits of the new drugs for the treatment of Waldenström macroglobulinemia (bendamustine, thalidomide, lenalidomide, ibrutinib and high-dose chemotherapy)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en566_648", "title": "Epstein–Barr virus-associated lymphoproliferative diseases", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "No controlled studies on the treatment of the disease have been reported. Stage I and II localized FTCL has been treated with surgery, X-ray therapy, PUVA therapy, topical steroids, chlormethine, and/or carmustine. More extensive stage III and IV disease has been treated with single chemotherapy drugs (e.g. methotrexate); multiple chemotherapy drug regimens (e.g. CHOP, R-CVP (i.e. rituximab, cytoxin, vincristine, prednisone); with Rituximab, bortezomib, thalidomide, interferon-alpha, interferon-gamma, bexarotene, gemcitabine; and with hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Responses to these treatments were variable and often disappointing. Most recently, however, bendamustine combined with rituximab or rituximab combined with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone have achieved partial response rates of >90% even in patients with advanced stage disease. While complete remission rates are substantially lower than 90% and treated patients have inevitably relapsed," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_20628", "title": "[Complete remission of relapsed mixed cellularity Hodgkin's disease treated with rituximab].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Cure rates of Hodgkin's disease (HD) with chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy are high. However, a few patients are refractory to treatment or relapse. We describe a patient with mixed cellularity (MC)-type HD with frequent relapses. As all Hodgkin's or Hogan-Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cells expressed CD20, treatment with the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody rituximab was given. A 55-year-old man presented with cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy revealed HD of MC type in stage IVA (Ann Arbor classification). Complete remission (CR) was achieved after six cycles of doxorubicin-bleomycin-vinblastin-dacarbazine (ABVD) and cyclophosphamid-vincristine-procarbazine-prednison (COPP) regimens. The first relapse occurred 12 months later and was treated with DEXA-BEAM and autologous peripheral blood stem cell transplantation. 7 years later, the patient relapsed again. Histology confirmed the initial diagnosis. Staging revealed a stage IVA. A partial remission was induced with two further DEXA-BEAM cycles (dexamethasone, BCNU [1,3-bis(2-chloroethyl)-1-nitrosourea], ectoposide, ara-C, melphalan). 4 months later, the disease progressed. Despite treatment with gemcitabine there was no response. As all Hogan-Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cells were CD20 positive, rituximab (monoclonal antibodies) was given at a dose of 375 mg/m2 once a week for 4 weeks in an outpatient setting. Treatment was well tolerated. A complete remission was achieved 2 months later. No infectious episodes occurred. After 30 months, the patient relapsed again. A second treatment with rituximab yielded another complete remission which was maintained for 20 months. HRS cells are derived from germinal center B-cells in more than 90% of cases, B-cell markers being present in 80% of classical HD. CD20 expressions vary from 21-80%. A few patients with HD treated with rituximab have been reported. Most of these cases had lymphocyte-predominant HD. In our patient the safety and efficacy of rituximab in relapsed CD20-positive classical HD of an MC type was demonstrated to achieve long-lasting remission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1064_1701", "title": "Lenalidomide maintenance after autologous haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation in mantle cell lymphoma: results of a Fondazione Italiana Linfomi (FIL) multicentre, randomised, phase 3 trial.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Fit patients with mantle cell lymphoma aged 18-65 years are usually given cytarabine and rituximab-based induction regimens followed by autologous haematopoetic stem-cell transplantation (HSCT). We investigated whether post-autologous HSCT maintenance with lenalidomide improves progression-free survival in this population. This open-label, randomised, multicentre, phase 3 trial was done at 49 haematology and oncology units in Italy and Portugal. Eligible patients had Ann Arbor stage III or IV treatment-naive mantle cell lymphoma (or stage II plus bulky disease [≥5 cm] or B symptoms), and had evidence of cyclin D1 overexpression or the translocation t(11;14)(q13;q32). Patients were aged 18-59 years with Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-3, or aged 60-65 years with ECOG 0-2. After an optional prephase with vincristine and steroids (intravenous vincristine 1·4 mg/m<sup2</sup on day 1, oral prednisone 100 mg [total dose] on days 1-5), patients were given three courses of R-CHOP (21-day cycle, intravenous rituximab 375 mg/m<sup2</sup on day 1; intravenous doxorubicin 50 mg/m<sup2</sup, vincristine 1·4 mg/m<sup2</sup, and cyclophosphamide 750 mg/m<sup2</sup on day 2; oral prednisone 100 mg/m<sup2</sup on day 2-6). Patients then received one cycle of high-dose CTX (intravenous cyclophosphamide 4 g/m<sup2</sup on day 1, intravenous rituximab 375 mg/m<sup2</sup on day 4). After restaging, patients received two cycles of R-HD-cytarabine (high-dose intravenous cytarabine 2 g/m<sup2</sup every 12 h on days 1-3, intravenous rituximab 375 mg/m<sup2</sup on days 4 and 10). Patients with complete remission or partial remission proceeded to autologous HSCT and responding patients (complete remission or partial remission) with haematological recovery were randomly assigned (1:1) to receive 24 courses of oral lenalidomide maintenance (15 mg per day for patients with platelets &gt;100 × 10<sup9</sup cells per L or 10 mg per day for platelets 60-100 × 10<sup9</sup cells per L, days 1-21 every 28 days) for 24 months, or observation. The primary endpoint was progression-free survival, measured in the randomised population. This study is registered with EudraCT (2009-012807-25) and ClinicalTrials.gov (NCT02354313). Between May 4, 2010, and Aug 24, 2015, 303 patients were screened for inclusion and 300 patients were enrolled (median age 57 years, IQR 51-62; 235 [78%] male). 95 patients were excluded before randomisation, mostly due to disease progression, adverse events, and inadequate recovery. 104 patients were randomly assigned to the lenalidomide maintenance group and 101 patients to the observation group. 11 (11%) of 104 patients assigned to lenalidomide did not start treatment (3 withdrew, 6 adverse events or protocol breach, 2 lost to follow-up). At a median follow-up of 38 months after randomisation (IQR 24-50), 3-year progression-free survival was 80% (95% CI 70-87) in the lenalidomide group versus 64% (53-73) in the observation group (log-rank test p=0·012; hazard ratio 0·51, 95% CI 0·30-0·87). 41 (39%) of 104 patients discontinued lenalidomide for reasons including death or progression. Treatment-related deaths were recorded in two (2%) of 93 patients in the lenalidomide group (1 pneumonia, 1 thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura), and one (1%) of 101 in the observation group (pneumonia). 59 (63%) of 93 patients in the lenalidomide group had grade 3-4 haematological adverse events versus 12 (12%) of 101 patients in the observation group (p&lt;0·0001). 29 (31%) of 93 patients in the lenalidomide group and eight (8%) of 101 patients in the observation group had grade 3-4 non-haematological adverse events (p&lt;0·0001), of which infections were the most common.Serious adverse events were reported in 22 (24%) of 93 patients in the lenalidomide group and five (5%) of 101 patients in the observation group. Pneumonia and other infections were the most common serious adverse events. Despite non-negligibile toxicity, lenalidomide after autologous HSCT improved progression-free survival in patients with mantle cell lymphoma, highlighting the role of maintenance in mantle cell lymphoma. Fondazione Italiana Linfomi and Celgene." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_13613", "title": "[Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of the Waldeyer's ring: the treatment results of the past 22 years and the significance of CHOP].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "From 1966 through 1988, 124 patients with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of the Waldeyer's ring were treated. Seventy patients were male, and 54 were female. Age ranged from 5 to 81 years with a median value of 53 years. Pathological slides were reviewed and reclassified according to the Working Formulation. Diffuse large cell type was most common (53%). Since 1981, CHOP has been incorporated into the treatment including stage I and II patients. During these 22 years, new imaging modalities have developed, and an upstage rate by using those modalities has increased from 5% to 9%. In order to make the comparison meaningful, we used clinical stage determined at the day of the first visit. Fifty-one patients were clinical stage I, 64 were stage II, seven were stage III, and two were stage IV. B symptom was seen in 8 patients. Relapse developed in 45 patients (41%) out of 111 who achieved complete remission, and distant relapse was most frequent (89%). Salvage therapy was successful in only three patients of the 45 relapsed patients. Overall 5-year freedom from relapse (FFR) were 38% for the patients treated until 1980, and 69% for the patients treated thereafter (p less than 0.01). Addition of CHOP to radiotherapy has increased 5-year FFR of the stage II patients from 31% to 81% (p less than 0.01). In stage I, 5-year FFR was 71% in the patients treated with CHOP and radiotherapy, and it was 27% treated without CHOP. But the difference has no statistical significance, and we can not rule out the presence of selection bias.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_42295", "title": "Follicular lymphoma", "score": 0.009363929289872359, "content": "Patients who relapse after initial therapy for FL may be followed closely without therapy if asymptomatic. When treatment is required, patients may be treated with the initial treatment regimen when such treatment led to a remission that lasted for at least one year; otherwise an alternative regimen is used. The regimens commonly used in relapsed lymphoma include R-CHOP, R-CVP, RFM (i.e. rituximab, fludarabine, and mitoxantrone), and RB (Bendamustine plus rituximab). Patients who suffer early treatment failure (e.g. within 1–2 years of initial treatment) or multiple relapses have also been treated with either autologous (i.e. stem cells taken from patient) or allogeneic (i.e. stem cells taken from a donor) stem cell bone marrow transplantation. While studies are inconclusive, autologous stem cell bone marrow transplantation appears to prolong survival in early treatment failure patients who are healthy enough to withstand this therapy. Unfit patients may benefit from initial" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0950_1710", "title": "Immunochemotherapy With Obinutuzumab or Rituximab for Previously Untreated Follicular Lymphoma in the GALLIUM Study: Influence of Chemotherapy on Efficacy and Safety.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Purpose The GALLIUM study ( ClinicalTrials.gov identifier: NCT01332968) showed that obinutuzumab (GA101; G) significantly prolonged progression-free survival (PFS) in previously untreated patients with follicular lymphoma relative to rituximab (R) when combined with cyclophosphamide (C), doxorubicin, vincristine (V), and prednisone (P; CHOP); CVP; or bendamustine. This report focuses on the impact of chemotherapy backbone on efficacy and safety. Patients and Methods A total of 1,202 patients with previously untreated follicular lymphoma (grades 1 to 3a), advanced disease (stage III or IV, or stage II with tumor diameter ≥ 7 cm), Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status 0 to 2, and requiring treatment were randomly assigned 1:1 to G 1,000 mg on days 1, 8, and 15 of cycle 1 and day 1 of subsequent cycles or R 375 mg/m<sup2</sup on day 1 of each cycle, for six to eight cycles, depending on chemotherapy (allocated nonrandomly by center). Responding patients received G or R for 2 years or until disease progression. Results Baseline Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index risk, bulky disease, and comorbidities differed by chemotherapy. After 41.1 months median follow-up, PFS (primary end point) was superior for G plus chemotherapy (overall hazard ratio [HR], 0.68; 95% CI, 0.54 to 0.87; P = .0016), with consistent results across chemotherapy backbones (bendamustine: HR, 0.63; 95% CI, 0.46 to 0.88; CHOP: HR, 0.72; 95% CI, 0.48 to 1.10; CVP: HR, 0.79; 95% CI, 0.42 to 1.47). Grade 3 to 5 adverse events, notably cytopenias, were most frequent with CHOP. Grade 3 to 5 infections and second neoplasms were most frequent with bendamustine, which was associated with marked and prolonged reductions in T-cell counts. Fatal events were more frequent in patients treated with bendamustine, possibly reflecting differences in patient risk profiles. Conclusion Improved PFS was observed for G plus chemotherapy for all three chemotherapy backbones. Safety profiles differed, although comparisons are confounded by nonrandom chemotherapy allocation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0856_13477", "title": "[Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma: Principles of diagnosis and treatment].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To describe the clinical and morphological features of the rare Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) subtype--nodular lymphocyte-predominant HL (NLPHL). Forty-two patients were diagnosed with NLPHL in 2010 to 2014. The male to female ratio was 2.2:1; the median age was 37 years (range 17-68 years). NLPHL was diagnosed on the basis of the histological and immunohistochemical examinations of tumor biopsy specimens; disease stages were determined by standard HL studies. Before NLPHL was detected, 23 (55%) patients were diagnosed as having HL in 13 cases, follicular lymphoma in 2, lymphofollicular hyperplasia in 3, angioimmunoblastic lymphoma in 1, diffuse large B-cell lymphoma in 3, and B-cell lymphoma (non-HL) in 1. Long-term (3-21-year; median 8 years) persistent lymphadenopathy was observed in 16 (38%) patients. Seventeen (40.5%) patients had early (I-II) stages of the disease and 25 (59.5%) had advanced stages. B symptoms were noted in 24% of cases. There was involvement of extranodal sites (salivary gland, tonsil) in 2 patients, spleen in 14 (33%), bone marrow in 8, and bulky disease in 2. Cycles of ABVD ± rituximab ± radiotherapy (RT) were used in early-stage NLPHL; those of R-BEACOPP-14 ± RT were performed in the advanced stages of the disease or its transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma with excessive T cells. When patients have a history of long-term asymptomatic lymphadenopathy, it is necessary to rule out NLPHL, for which purpose an immunohistochemical examination of a biopsy specimen and its reexamination in a laboratory having experience in diagnosing NLPHL must necessarily be done. Lower RT doses and rituximab incorporated into the cycle of treatment are indicated to reduce its toxicity and to preserve therapeutic efficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0905_10857", "title": "Efficacy and safety of subcutaneous rituximab versus intravenous rituximab for first-line treatment of follicular lymphoma (SABRINA): a randomised, open-label, phase 3 trial.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Intravenous rituximab is the standard of care in B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and is administered over 1·5-6 h. A subcutaneous formulation could reduce patients' treatment burden and improve resource utilisation in health care. We aimed to show the pharmacokinetic non-inferiority of subcutaneous rituximab to intravenous rituximab in follicular lymphoma and to provide efficacy and safety data. SABRINA is a two-stage, randomised, open-label phase 3 study at 113 centres in 30 countries. Eligible patients were aged 18 years or older and had histologically confirmed, previously untreated, CD20-positive grade 1, 2, or 3a follicular lymphoma; Eastern Co-operative Oncology Group performance statuses of 0-2; bidimensionally measurable disease (by CT or MRI); life expectancy of 6 months or more; adequate haematological function for 28 days or more; and one or more symptoms requiring treatment according to the Groupe d'Etudes des Lymphomes Folliculaires criteria. Patients were randomly assigned (1:1) by investigators or members of the research team via a dynamic randomisation algorithm to 375 mg/m<sup2</sup intravenous rituximab or 1400 mg subcutaneous rituximab, plus chemotherapy (six-to-eight cycles of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone [CHOP] or eight cycles of cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone [CVP]), every 3 weeks during induction, then rituximab maintenance every 8 weeks. Randomisation was stratified by selected chemotherapy, Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index, and region. The primary endpoint for stage 2 was overall response (ie, confirmed complete response, unconfirmed complete response, and partial response) at the end of induction. Efficacy analyses were done in the intention-to-treat population. Pooled data from stages 1 and 2 are reported on the basis of the clinical cutoff date of the last patient completing the maintenance phase of the study. This trial is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01200758; new patients are no longer being recruited, but some patients are still being followed up. Between Feb 15, 2011, and May 15, 2013, 410 patients were randomly assigned, 205 to intravenous rituximab and 205 to subcutaneous rituximab. Investigator-assessed overall response at the end of induction was 84·9% (95% CI 79·2-89·5) in the intravenous group and 84·4% (78·7-89·1) in the subcutaneous group. The frequency of adverse events was similar in both groups (199 [95%] of 210 in the intravenous group vs 189 [96%] of 197 in the subcutaneous group); the frequency of adverse events of grade 3 or higher was also similar (116 [55%] vs 111 [56%]). The most common grade 3 or higher adverse event was neutropenia, which occurred in 44 patients (21%) in the intravenous group and 52 (26%) in the subcutaneous group. Serious adverse events occurred in 72 patients (34%) in the intravenous group and 73 (37%) in the subcutaneous group. Administration-related reactions occurred in 73 patients (35%) in the intravenous group and 95 (48%) patients in the subcutaneous group (mainly grade 1 or 2 local injection-site reactions). Intravenous and subcutaneous rituximab had similar efficacy and safety profiles, and no new safety concerns were noted. Subcutaneous administration does not compromise the anti-lymphoma activity of rituximab when given with chemotherapy. F Hoffmann-La Roche." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0535_9488", "title": "[Clinical course of 8 patients with intravascular large B-cell lymphoma diagnosed while alive].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We retrospectively evaluated the diagnosis and clinical courses of 8 patients with intravascular large B-cell lymphoma (IVL) diagnosed while they were alive. The median age was 67 years old (range 54 to 82). Most complaints at diagnosis were fever or dyspnea. All patients were in clinical stage IV with B symptoms and 4 patients showed performance status 4. The diagnosis of IVL was confirmed by biopsy specimens from the bone marrow in 4, lung in 2, muscle, adrenal gland, and lymph node in 1 case, respectively. Initial bone marrow involvement was found in 6 patients. Chemotherapy was performed in 7 patients. Rituximab was added to chemotherapy in 5 patients. Though 5 patients are alive at the median follow up of 12.3 months, only 1 patient is in remission. Four of 5 patients treated with Rituximab relapsed. In suspicious cases, it is important to bear IVL in mind and examine bone marrow biopsies for an early diagnosis. In addition, it is suggested that Rituximab may play only a temporary role in the treatment of IVL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0284_8144", "title": "[Clinical analysis of elderly patients with malignant lymphoma].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "An epidemiological study on 173 consecutive elderly malignant lymphoma patients age 65 years or over was performed and the clinical outcome of chemotherapy is reported. Of there, 131 patients (75.7%) had non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) and 21 patients had Hodgkin's disease (HD). As for clinical staging, 58.9% of patients were in stage 3 or 4. The initial sites were nodal in 61.8% of the patients the most common sites of involvement in superficial lymph nodes being cervical, inguinal and axillar. The most frequent site of extranodal involvement was the gastrointestinal tract. The cases were treated with CHOP/COPP, BACOP or COP-BLAM combination chemotherapy. The clinical efficacy of these modalities was similar, with complete remission rates being about 50%. However, the total response rate (CR+partial remission) by the COP-BLAM regimen were 88.1%. The median survival time of cases achieving CR, was longer than 47 months. The most frequent cause of death was infection, especially pneumonia and septicemia. Many elderly ML patients were found and diagnosed when the disease developed to an advanced stage. Therefore it is necessary to make efforts to find early ML patients by screening apparently healthy elderly people. Improvement of the complete remission rate should be obtained if vigorous and intensive chemotherapy is carried out with careful supportive therapy concerning the general condition and complications in patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_42282", "title": "Follicular lymphoma", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "strongly support its use in localized disease. The use of an immunotherapeutic agent such as Rituximab alone or in combination with a chemotherapeutic regimen such as CVP (i.e. cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisone and rituximab) in cases of localized, early-stage disease may be appropriate choices for some of these early-stage patients. However, the latter approach is recommended for cases of localized disease in which the disease extends beyond a single field: 56% of patients treated in this manner had progression-free survival at 10 years while patients treated with other regimens had progression free survivals of 41%. Nonetheless, overall survival did not differ between the two groups." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0057_15290", "title": "[The treatment of large-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomas with the MACOP-B protocol].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To investigate the results of the treatment of large-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (LCNHL) with the MACOP-B chemotherapy protocol. 20 patients with the following inclusion criteria were treated: LCNHL with a definite majority of large lymphoid cells and absence of previous therapy, HIV infection or severe underlying diseases. Three patients died during therapy and 15 (75%) achieved a complete remission. Actuarial survival after 36 months (0.66) was significantly better (p = 0.05) than that of a comparable historical series of LCNHL treated with CHOP (0.28). Age, stages III-IV, B symptoms, large lymphatic mass (LLM) and bone marrow infiltration did not negatively affect survival. The toxicity of the MACOP-B protocol was high: mucositis (65%), cytopenia (55%), neuropathy (40%), complications of steroid therapy (15%), and mortality directly related with therapy in 15%. Residual masses were found after therapy in 7% (70%) with BD, which were localized in lymphoid areas or in parenchyma (spleen and kidney). Surgical exploration showed that the residual masses were not tumoral in three cases, and in another three magnetic resonance suggested inactive disease. The MACOP-B protocol is highly effective for the treatment of LCNHL. The essential prognostic factor for survival in these NHL appears to be the cell composition with a great majority of large cells." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0510_10066", "title": "Rituximab plus short-duration chemotherapy as first-line treatment for follicular non-Hodgkin's lymphoma: a phase II trial of the minnie pearl cancer research network.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To evaluate the feasibility and efficacy of rituximab with short-duration chemotherapy in the first-line treatment of patients with follicular non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). Patients with previously untreated stage II-IV follicular NHL, grade 1 or 2, were eligible for this multicenter phase II trial. All patients received four weekly doses of rituximab (375 mg/m(2) intravenous), followed by three courses of combination chemotherapy (either cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone [CHOP], or cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone [CVP]) plus rituximab. Patients were evaluated for response after completing treatment, and were then followed up at 3-month intervals. Between January 2000 and July 2001, 86 patients were treated. Eight-two patients (95%) completed treatment; no patient was withdrawn due to toxicity. The overall response rate was 93%, with 55% complete responses. After a median follow-up of 42 months, the 3- and 4-year actuarial progression-free survivals were 71% and 62%, respectively. Five patients (6%) died from lymphoma; the overall actuarial survival at 3 years was 95%. Grade 3/4 leukopenia occurred in 53% of patients, but only six patients (7%) had neutropenia or fever. Grade 3/4 nonhematologic toxicities were uncommon. Rituximab plus short-course chemotherapy is well tolerated as first-line treatment for patients with follicular NHL. The overall and complete response rates are similar to those reported with chemotherapy/rituximab combinations of longer duration. The actuarial progression-free survival of 62% at 4 years is encouraging, but further follow-up is necessary. Rituximab plus short-course chemotherapy may prove to be as effective as longer-duration chemotherapy and currently provides an attractive option for first-line treatment of elderly patients and others who tolerate chemotherapy poorly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0958_18292", "title": "[Diagnosis and treatment of 41 cases of head and neck Castleman's disease].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "<bObjective:</b To explore the diagnosis and treatment of head and neck Castleman's disease (CD), and to improve the understanding of the disease. <bMethods:</b The clinical data of 41 patients with head and neck CD treated from January 2007 to July 2017 in the First Affiliated Hospital of Zhengzhou University were analyzed retrospectively. The patients were divided into two groups: localized CD (LCD, <in</i=27) and multicentric CD (MCD, <in</i=14). The clinical manifestations, laboratory examinations, operations, pathological findings and follow-up data were analyzed. <bResults:</b LCD was characterized by asymptomatic enlargement of the single lymph node with mild clinical symptoms. The main pathological type was hyaline vascular type, which can be cured by surgical treatment. MCD accompanied by fever 9 cases(64.3%), anemia 8 cases (57.1%), splenomegaly 7 cases (50.0%), respiratory symptoms 6 cases (42.9%), with multiple enlarged superficial and deep lymph nodes with pain, pleural effusion, and edema of lower extremity, C-reaction protein increased in 8 cases (57.1%), hypoproteinemia 8 cases(57.1%), globulin increased 7 cases (50.0%) and neutropenia 6 cases(42.9%). The main pathological type was plasma cell type in 7 cases (50.0%), and also there were 4 cases of hyaline vascular type and 2 cases of mixed type. Chemotherapy with or without rituximab was the main treatment. Most patients received complete or partial remission except for 2 patients who died of lung infection due to chemotherapy. <bConclusions:</b The diagnosis of head and neck CD depends on pathological examination. LCD shows mild symptoms and good prognosis after surgery. However, clinical manifestations of MCD are complex, with relatively poor prognosis after comprehensive treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0908_16692", "title": "Transformation of Follicular Lymphoma to a High-Grade B-Cell Lymphoma With MYC and BCL2 Translocations and Overlapping Features of Burkitt Lymphoma and Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia: A Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Most commonly, histologic transformation (HT) from follicular lymphoma (FL) manifests as a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified (DLBCL, NOS). Less frequently, HT may result in a high-grade B-cell lymphoma (HGBL) with MYC and B-cell lymphoma protein 2 (BCL2) and/or BCL6 gene rearrangements, also known as \"double-hit\" or \"triple-hit\" lymphomas. In the 2016 revision of the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of lymphoid neoplasms, the category B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable was eliminated due to its vague criteria and limiting diagnostic benefit. Instead, the WHO introduced the HGBL category, characterized by MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 rearrangements. Cases that present as an intermediate phenotype of DLBCL and Burkitt lymphoma (BL) will fall within this HGBL category. Very rarely, HT results in both the intermediate DLBCL and BL phenotypes and exhibits lymphoblastic features, in which case the WHO recommends that this morphologic appearance should be noted. In comparison with de novo patients with DLBCL, NOS, those with MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 gene rearrangements have a worse prognosis. A 63-year-old woman presented with left neck adenopathy. Laboratory assessments, including complete blood count, complete metabolic panel, serum lactate dehydrogenase, and β<sub2</sub-microglobulin, were all normal. A whole-body computerized tomographic (CT) scan revealed diffuse adenopathy above and below the diaphragm. An excisional node biopsy showed grade 3A nodular FL. The Ki67 labeling index was 40% to 50%. A bone marrow biopsy showed a small focus of paratrabecular CD20+ lymphoid aggregates. She received 6 cycles of bendamustine (90 mg/m2 on days +1 and +2) and rituximab (375 mg/m2 on day +2), with each cycle delivered every 4 weeks. A follow-up CT scan at completion of therapy showed a partial response with resolution of axillary adenopathy and a dramatic shrinkage of the large retroperitoneal nodes. After 18 months, she had crampy abdominal pain in the absence of B symptoms. Positron emission tomography with 2-deoxy-2-[fluorine-18] fluoro-d-glucose integrated with CT (18F-FDG PET/CT) scan showed widespread adenopathy, diffuse splenic involvement, and substantial marrow involvement. Biopsy of a 2.4-cm right axillary node (SUVmax of 16.1) showed involvement by grade 3A FL with a predominant nodular pattern of growth. A bone marrow biopsy once again showed only a small focus of FL. She received idelalisib (150 mg twice daily) and rituximab (375 mg/m2, monthly) beginning May 2015. After 4 cycles, a repeat CT scan showed a complete radiographic response. Idelalisib was subsequently held while she received corticosteroids for immune-mediated colitis. A month later, she restarted idelalisib with a 50% dose reduction. After 2 weeks, she returned to clinic complaining of bilateral hip and low lumbar discomfort but no B symptoms. A restaging 18F-FDG PET/CT in January 2016 showed dramatic marrow uptake. A bone marrow aspirate showed sheets of tumor cells representing a spectrum from intermediate-sized cells with lymphoblastic features to very large atypical cells with multiple nucleoli. Two distinct histologies were present; one remained consistent with the patient's known FL with a predominant nodular pattern and the other consistent with HT (the large atypical cells expressed PAX5, CD10, BCL2, and c-MYC and were negative for CD20, MPO, CD34, CD30, and BCL6). Focal areas showed faint, heterogeneous expression of terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase best seen on the clot section. Ki67 proliferation index was high (4+/4). Fluorescence in situ hybridization analysis showed 2 populations with MYC amplification and/or rearrangement and no evidence of BCL6 rearrangement; a karyotype analysis showed a complex abnormal female karyotype with t(14;18) and multiple structural and numerical abnormalities. She started dose-adjusted rituximab, etoposide, prednisone, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, and doxorubicin with concomitant prophylactic intrathecal methotrexate and cytarabine. She had but a short-lived response before dying in hospice from progressive lymphoma. Whether idelalisib could provide a microenvironment for selection of more aggressive clones needs to be addressed. Our patient's clinical course is confounded by the incorporation of idelalisib while being further complicated by the complexity of HT and the mechanisms in which first-line chemotherapy regimens affect double-hit lymphoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0050_14588", "title": "[Low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphomas. Study of 73 cases].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To analyse the clinico-biologic features at diagnosis and the response to therapy and survival of a group of patients with low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). The study comprises 73 NHL patients diagnosed between 1974 and 1989 in the Covadonga Hospital and classified as low-grade in accordance with the international Working Formulation. The first-line treatment regimens used were cyclophosphamide-vincristine-prednisone (CVP), chlorambucil-prednisone (CBL-PRED), radiotherapy, and other combinations. The statistical study was performed by comparative statistics (Student's tests, chi-square), univariate analysis (Cox Mantel method) and multivariate analysis (Cox proportional risks); the BMDP pack was used for the study. The median age of the group was 63 years. Stages III and IV were seen at first in 75% of the patients, and 22% of the series had extranodal involvement. CVP was used in 69% of the cases, 7.6 received CBL-PRED, 11% were given radiotherapy, and other combinations were given to 11% of the patients. As a whole, responses were seen in 46 cases (73%), of whom complete remission (CR) was achieved in 49% and partial remission (PR) or minor responses (MR) were attained in 24% of instances. The factors influencing upon CR were: stage (p less than 0.0005), B-symptoms (p 0.004), splenomegaly (p less than 0.801), platelet count and haemoglobin rate (p less than 0.01). The total survival at 10 years was 53%, and the disease-free survival for those attaining CR was 48%, with disease-free median of 81 months. The univariate analysis was influenced in a negative fashion by the following: peripheral blood lymphocyte count below 2 x 10(9)/L, B-symptoms (p less than 0.002), bulky tumoural mass (p less than 0.007), advanced stage (p less than 0.003) and, chiefly, response to treatment (p less than 0.0001). The 10-year survival of the patients achieving CR was 86%, that of both types of response (PR and MR) was 20%, and it was 0% for the failures. 1) Patients in low stages have high possibilities of curation with radiotherapy. 2) CVP for advanced stages provides moderate percentage of response, with CR rate lower than 50%. It is necessary to select those patients with unfavourable prognostic factors in order to use aggressive treatment to achieve CR. 3) Patients attaining CR have better prognosis in spite of the frequent relapses (63% at 10 years)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0415_4637", "title": "Rituximab: a review of its use in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that has demonstrated efficacy in patients with various lymphoid malignancies, including indolent and aggressive forms of B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) and B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). While the optimal use of the drug in many clinical settings has yet to be clarified, two pivotal trials have established rituximab as a viable treatment option in patients with relapsed or refractory indolent NHL, and as a standard first-line treatment option when combined with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone (CHOP) chemotherapy in elderly patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (the most common type of aggressive NHL). The former was a noncomparative trial in relapsed indolent NHL (follicular and small lymphocytic subtypes) with clinical responses achieved in about half of patients treated with rituximab 375 mg/m(2) intravenously once weekly for 4 weeks, which was similar to some of the most encouraging results reported with traditional chemotherapeutic agents. The latter was a randomised comparison of eight cycles of CHOP plus rituximab 375 mg/m(2) intravenously (one dose per cycle) versus CHOP alone in previously untreated elderly patients (60 to 80 years of age) with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. In this pivotal trial, 2-year event-free and overall survival were significantly higher with rituximab plus CHOP, and there was no increase in clinically significant adverse effects compared with CHOP alone. Treatment with rituximab is generally well tolerated, particularly in terms of adverse haematological effects and serious or opportunistic infections relative to standard chemotherapy. Infusion-related reactions occur in the majority of patients treated with rituximab; these are usually mild to moderate flu-like symptoms that decrease in frequency with subsequent infusions. In approximately 10% of patients, however, severe infusion-related reactions develop (e.g. bronchospasm, hypotension). These reactions are usually reversible with appropriate interventions and supportive care but there have been rare reports of fatalities. Clinical trials with rituximab indicate that the drug has broad application to B-cell malignancies, although further clarification is needed to determine its optimal use in many of these clinical settings. Importantly, rituximab in combination with CHOP chemotherapy has emerged as a new treatment standard for previously untreated diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, at least in elderly patients. Compared with conventional chemotherapy, rituximab is associated with markedly reduced haematological events such as severe neutropenia, as well as associated infections. Rituximab may be particularly suitable for elderly patients or those with poor performance status, and its tolerability profile facilitates its use in combination with cytotoxic drugs. Rituximab is a mouse/human chimaeric IgG(1)-kappa monoclonal antibody that targets the CD20 antigen found on the surface of malignant and normal B lymphocytes. Although treatment with rituximab induces lymphopenia in most patients, typically lasting about 6 months, a full recovery of B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood is usually seen 9-12 months after therapy, as CD20 is not expressed on haematopoietic stem cells. CD20 is, however, expressed on &gt;90% of B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (NHL) and to a lesser degree on B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) cells. Although not fully elucidated, the cytotoxic effects of rituximab on CD20-positive malignant B cells appears to involve complement-dependent cytotoxicity, complement-dependent cellular cytotoxicity, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity and induction of apoptosis. In addition, in vitro data indicate that rituximab sensitises tumour cells to the effects of conventional chemotherapeutic drugs. Serum rituximab concentrations increased in proportion to dose across a wide range of single- and multiple-dose intravenous regimens in patients with B-cell NHL. When administll NHL. When administered at a dose of 375 mg/m(2) once weekly for 4 weeks in a pivotal trial in patients with relapsed or refractory indolent B-cell NHL (follicular or small lymphocytic subtypes), peak serum concentrations essentially doubled from the first (239.1 mg/L) to the fourth (460.7 mg/L) infusion, while elimination half-life (t(1/2)) increased from 76.3 to 205.8 hours (3.2 to 8.6 days). The concomitant increase in serum rituximab concentrations and t(1/2) with each successive infusion may be due, at least in part, to the elimination of circulating CD20-positive B cells and reduction or saturation of CD20-binding sites after the initial infusions of rituximab. The pharmacokinetic properties of rituximab are also characterised by wide inter-individual variability, and serum drug concentrations that are correlated with clinical response. Although pharmacokinetic data are limited in patients with aggressive forms of NHL, such as diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, rituximab appears to have a similar pharmacokinetic profile in these patients to that in patients with indolent B-cell NHL. The pharmacokinetics of rituximab are also reported to be similar whether the drug is administered with or without cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone (CHOP) chemotherapy. A number of studies have demonstrated efficacy of intravenous rituximab in patients with various lymphoid malignancies of B-cell origin, including indolent (e.g. follicular lymphoma) and aggressive (e.g. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma) forms of NHL, and CLL, but the drug has not yet been approved for use in CLL, and approved indications in NHL vary between countries. In the US, for example, rituximab is available for the treatment of patients with low-grade or follicular, relapsed or refractory, CD20-positive B-cell NHL. In Europe, the drug has similar approval for relapsed or refractory follicular NHL as in the US, but has also been approved for use in combination with CHOP chemotherapy for the most common aggressive form of NHL (CD20-positive, diffuse large B-cell lymphoma). Rituximab was approved for these indications primarily on the basis of results from two pivotal trials. In Japan, rituximab has been approved for indolent B-cell NHL and mantle cell lymphoma (an aggressive form of B-cell NHL), primarily on the basis of results of a Japanese phase II trial. Indolent NHL: Results of several studies evaluating rituximab 375 mg/m(2) once weekly for 4 weeks in patients with indolent forms of B-cell NHL (primarily follicular and small lymphocytic lymphomas) showed objective response (OR) rates ranging from approximately 40-60% in those receiving the drug for relapsed or refractory indolent B-cell NHL, and slightly higher (50-70%) for those receiving rituximab as first-line therapy. In a pivotal trial in 166 patients with relapsed or refractory low-grade or follicular B-cell NHL, intent-to-treat (ITT) analysis showed an OR rate of 48%, and a projected median time to progression of 13 months. Encouraging data are also emerging on the use of rituximab in combination with chemotherapeutic agents (e.g. CHOP, fludarabine-containing regimens) or other drugs (e.g. interferon-alpha2a) in previously untreated patients with indolent forms of B-cell NHL (primarily follicular and small lymphocytic subtypes). Rates for OR were consistently around 95%, with the majority being complete responses (CRs). Follow-up data from a study in 40 patients with low-grade or follicular B-cell NHL treated with rituximab plus CHOP as first-line therapy showed that responses were durable with a progression-free survival and median duration of response &gt;5 years.Bcl-2 gene rearrangement (t14;18) occurs in malignant cells in up to 85% of patients with follicular lymphoma, and minimal residual disease in peripheral blood and bone marrow can be monitored using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). In several studies assessing blood and/or bone marrow, rituximab has achieved molecular response (conversion from PCR-positive to PCR-negative bcl-2 status) in at least half of the patients. Aggressive NHL: Studies with rituximab as monotherapy in aggressive B-cell NHL, a potentially curable disorder, have generally been restricted to patients with relapsed or recurrent disease, since CHOP has traditionally been the standard first-line treatment regimen. However, promising results from phase II monotherapy studies prompted further clinical investigation of rituximab in conjunction with chemotherapy. Thus, most studies with rituximab in patients with aggressive forms of B-cell NHL have involved combination therapy, including a pivotal randomised trial comparing eight cycles of standard CHOP therapy plus rituximab 375 mg/m(2) (one dose per cycle) versus CHOP alone in 399 previously untreated elderly patients (60-80 years of age) with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Results of the pivotal trial showed a clear advantage for rituximab plus CHOP versus CHOP in terms of event-free survival (primary endpoint) at 2 years (57% vs 38%, p &lt; 0.001). Overall survival at 2 years (70% vs 57%, p &lt; 0.01) and CR rate (76% vs 63%, p &lt; 0.01) were also higher with the rituximab-CHOP combination. Other, smaller trials with rituximab in combination with CHOP or other chemotherapeutic regimens, either as first-line therapy or for patients with relapsed or refractory aggressive B-cell NHL, have also shown promising results in terms of clinical response rates.CLL: In relatively small trials (n &lt; 40) conducted primarily in patients with relapsed or refractory B-cell CLL, rituximab monotherapy (various regimens) achieved OR rates of 23-45%, with median duration of response ranging from approximately 3-10 months. (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0843_5950", "title": "[Late cardiotoxicity of high-dose chemotherapy according to the modified NHL-BFM-90 program in adult patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To evaluate the late cardiotoxicity (CT) of high-dose chemotherapy (CT) according to the modified NHL-BFM-90 (mNHL-BFM-90) protocol in adult patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL). The results of electrocardiography (ECG) and echocardiography (echoCG) were analyzed in 40 DLBCL patients treated according to the mNHL-BFM-90 program in the Hematology Research Center (HRC), Russian Academy of Medical Sciences (RAMS), in 2002 to 2009. A study group consisted of 20 men and 20 women whose age was 31 to 76 years; median age was 56.5 years at the time of their examination and the median follow-up time after therapy was 6 years. The individual cumulative dose of doxorubicin was 150-300 mg/M2. A comparison group included 19 patients receiving CHOP/R-CHOP CT in HRC, RAMS, in 2002 to 2009. Out of them, there were 8 men and 11 women whose age was 39 to 78 years median age was 70 years at the time of their examination. The individual cumulative dose of doxorubicin was 200-400 mg/M2. ECG and echoCG were carried out before and 5 years or more after CT. Out of the 40 patients with DLBCL, the signs of subclinical cardiomyopathy (CMP) were detected in 24 (60%) patients; no clinical manifestations of congestive heart failure (CHF) were found in any patient. In the comparison group of 19 patients receiving CHOP/R-CHOP CT, 14 (74%) patients were found to have signs of subclinical CMP and no clinical signs of CHF. The summary toxicity index significantly depended on age (p=0.03) and a history of heart disease (p=0.3); it was significantly higher after CHOP/R-CHOP CT (p=0.05). There was a statistically significant relationship of the risk of subclinical CMP to the history of heart diseases (p=0.05). Late cardiotoxicity of the mNHL-BFM-90 program does not exceed the toxicity of standard CHOP/R-CHOP therapy. Post-CT Echo-CG and ECG findings showed that the patients with the most marked subclinical signs of CMP in both groups had cardiotoxicity risk factors, such as coronary heart disease, hypertensive disease, or diabetes in their history. No clinically significant CHF was identified in any patient." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 131, 228 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 19, 35 ] ], "text": "The age and right location data lead us to answer 4: total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Right hemicolectomy.", "2": "Extended right hemicolectomy.", "3": "Subtotal colectomy.", "4": "Total colectomy with ileorectal anatomosis.", "5": "Total colectomy with ileoanal anatomy." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en051_6125", "title": "Colectomy", "score": 0.017009009009009007, "content": "Laparoscopic surgery As of 2012, more than 40% of colon resections in United States are performed via laparoscopic approach. To begin laparoscopic surgery for a colectomy typically 4 ports are placed in the abdomen to gain access to the peritoneal cavity. The next step is to mobilize the portion of the bowel that is to be resected. This is done by ligation of the mesentery and other peritoneal attachments. A stapler is used to resect the bowel and an anastomosis between the remaining bowel is created. History Sir William Arbuthnot-Lane was one of the early proponents of the usefulness of total colectomies, although his overuse of the procedure called the wisdom of the surgery into question. See also List of surgeries by type References External links Lotti M. Anatomy in relation to left colectomy Large intestine Surgical oncology Surgical removal procedures Digestive system surgery" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en051_6123", "title": "Colectomy", "score": 0.01694324362013666, "content": "Types Right hemicolectomy and left hemicolectomy refer to the resection of the ascending colon (right) and the descending colon (left), respectively. When part of the transverse colon is also resected, it may be referred to as an extended hemicolectomy. Transverse colectomy is also possible, though uncommon. Sigmoidectomy is a resection of the sigmoid colon, sometimes including part or all of the rectum (proctosigmoidectomy). When a sigmoidectomy is followed by terminal colostomy and closure of the rectal stump, it is called a Hartmann operation; this is usually done out of impossibility to perform a \"double-barrel\" or Mikulicz colostomy, which is preferred because it makes \"takedown\" (reoperation to restore normal intestinal continuity by means of an anastomosis) considerably easier. When the entire colon is removed, this is called a total colectomy, also known as Lane's Operation. If the rectum is also removed, it is a total proctocolectomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0302_1946", "title": "Using genetic information to make surgical decisions: report of a case of a 13-year-old boy with colon cancer.", "score": 0.016893997092016895, "content": "We report the case of a boy aged 13 years who was diagnosed with a Dukes B obstructing cancer of the sigmoid colon. At the time of diagnosis, he underwent a Hartmann's procedure with end colostomy. Because of his unusually young age, he was referred to the Familial GI Cancer Registry at Mount Sinai Hospital for genetic assessment. A detailed pedigree revealed no significant history other than lung cancer in his maternal grandfather. We obtained his tumor specimen and performed molecular analysis of both normal colonic and tumor DNA. Specifically, we identified replication errors (RER) in the patient's tumor DNA when compared with normal colonic DNA. RER has been found in more than 90 percent of tumors from patients with Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC) and is, thus, considered to be one of the hallmarks of this disease. Because HNPCC patients have a 40 percent risk of synchronous or metachronous tumors, the recommended surgery for HNPCC should be at least a subtotal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis. Based on molecular results, we were able to recommend that the patient have a subtotal colectomy performed instead of merely colostomy closure, to reduce his lifetime risk of developing further colon tumors and to make surveillance of the remaining rectum relatively easy. In this patient, we subsequently identified a germline mutation of the mismatch repair gene hMSH2 that is implicated in HNPCC. The possibility of HNPCC should be considered in adolescents who are diagnosed with colorectal cancer, so appropriate surgical decisions can be made." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0818_25130", "title": "[Outcomes evaluation of laparoscopic radical coloproctectomy and hepatectomy for resectable colorectal cancer with liver metastases].", "score": 0.0152089072543618, "content": "To explore the feasibility and safety of laparoscopic radical coloproctectomy and hepatectomy for resectalble colorectal cancer with liver metastases (CRCLM), and evaluate the survival outcomes of short-middle term for these patients. Totally 36 cases of CRCLM which were evaluated to undergo laparoscopic coloproctectomy and hepatectomy preoperatively, were enrolled from January 2009 to January 2014, including 28 synchronous and 8 metachronous CLM respectively. Laparoscopic colorectal resection and hepatectomies were performed in 35 cases, including 24 male and 11 female patients, with a mean age of (64 ± 12) years and a median age of 67 years (ranging from 35 to 80 years). Management strategies were made by a board of multi-disciplinary team. Intra-operative ultrasonography was used to detect the metastases in all cases. Overall survival and disease free survival were calculated by Kaplan-Meier curve. Radical total colectomy, right hemicolectomy, left hemicolectomy, sigmoidectomy, and proctectomy and were performed in 1 case of familial adenomatous polyposis with transverse colon cancer, 5 cases of cecal or asending colon cancer, 1 case of descending colon cancer, 14 cases of sigmoid colon cancer, and 14 cases of rectal cancer respectively. Metastasectomy only, anatomic hepatectomy only, and metastasectomy plus anatomic hepatectomy were done in 21, 10 and 4 cases respectively. Totally 35 colorectal tumors and 62 liver lesions were removed. The mean blood loss of colorectal and liver surgery were (80 ± 32) and (212 ± 153) ml, the median blood loss was 70 ml and 150 ml respectively. Colorectal and hepatic specific complications were not observed in all cases except a case of biliary leakage following right hemihepatectomy. Relapses were observed in 15 cases during a mean follow-up of (26 ± 16) months (median follow-up of 22 months). Four cases died of late-stage cachexia. The 1- and 3-year cumulative overall survival rates were 92.9% and 79.4% respectively. The 1- and 3-year cumulative disease free survival rates were 61.1% and 49.4% respectively. Laparoscopic coloproctectomy and hepatectomy for resectable CRCLM in carefully selected cases is safe and feasible, which makes simultaneous surgery possible. The oncologic outcome of short-middle term is acceptable, and long-term survival is expected." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_8388", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.012787994081589515, "content": "removed.Right Colectomy A right colectomy is used to remove lesions or disease in the right colon and is oncologically the most appro-priate operation for curative intent resection of proximal colon carcinoma. The ileocolic vessels, right colic vessels, and right branches of the middle colic vessels are ligated and divided. Approximately 10 cm of terminal ileum are usually included in the resection. A primary ileal-transverse colon anastomosis is almost always possible.Extended Right Colectomy An extended right colectomy may be used for curative intent resection of lesions located at the hepatic flexure or proximal transverse colon. A standard right colectomy is extended to include ligation of the middle colic vessels at their base. The right colon and proximal trans-verse colon are resected, and a primary anastomosis is created between the distal ileum and distal transverse colon. Such an anastomosis relies on the marginal artery of Drummond. If the blood supply to the distal" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0706_23922", "title": "Laparoscopic right hemicolectomy with D3 lymph node dissection for a patient with situs inversus totalis: report of a case.", "score": 0.012265566391597899, "content": "Situs inversus totalis (SIT) is a rare congenital anomaly characterized by an inversion of the thoracic and abdominal viscera that creates a mirror image. The transposition of the organs imposes special demands on the diagnostic and technical skills of the surgeon, especially when performing laparoscopic surgery. We herein report the case of a 63-year-old man with colon cancer of the hepatic flexure who received a laparoscopic right hemicolectomy. Careful recognition by the surgeon of the mirror image anatomy and skillful use of his left hand resulted in a successful outcome. The surgery was not otherwise different from ordinary cases. Therefore, laparoscopic colectomy is considered to be a safe and feasible option for patients with colorectal cancer and SIT." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en051_6124", "title": "Colectomy", "score": 0.01208030460366909, "content": "When the entire colon is removed, this is called a total colectomy, also known as Lane's Operation. If the rectum is also removed, it is a total proctocolectomy. Subtotal colectomy is resection of part of the colon or a resection of all of the colon without complete resection of the colon." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en064_20639", "title": "Megacolon", "score": 0.01194093339815265, "content": "There are several surgical approaches to treat megacolon, such as a colectomy (removal of the entire colon) with ileorectal anastomosis (ligation of the remaining ileum and rectum segments), or a total proctocolectomy (removal of colon, sigmoid and rectum) followed by ileostomy or followed by ileoanal anastomosis. See also Dolichocolon References External links Gastrointestinal tract disorders Large intestine" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0339_15293", "title": "[The single-stage surgery of colorectal neoplastic occlusion. The experience of 133 cases].", "score": 0.011899820118998202, "content": "133 cases of occluded colorectal neoplasms (14% of the entire series): 30 (23%) of the right colon, 103 (77%) of the left colon-rectum; 69 males (52%) and 64 females (48%); mean age 67.5 years old, range 33-91 years. pTNM: stage II, 28 cases (21%); stage III: 43 cases (32%); stage IV, 62 cases (47%). The aim of this study was to resolve the occlusive symptoms and to treat the neoplasm in a single operation. In the 62 cases at stage IV, surgery was solely palliative: 49 (79%) derivations, 13 (21%) entero-enterostomies and 36 (58%) preternatural anus; 11 (18%) standard hemicolectomies, extended in two cases to hepatic resection, and 2 (3%) Hartmann's operations. In the 71 cases at stages II and III, surgery took the form of standard colic exeresis with primary ligature of the colonic vessels at source and at the outlet; 15 (21%) right colectomies, 50 (70%) left colectomies, extended in 6 cases (8%) to abdomino-perineal amputation; 6 segmentary colectomies, 3 (4%) of the transverse colon and 3 (4%) Hartmann's operations. The following aspects are essential in this single-stage surgery: urgency; massive dose antibiotic treatment limited to the pre- and perioperative stages; peritoneal cleansing using accurate, methodical, repeated and abundant lavage; perioperative colonic preparation using direct colotomic perioperative lavage or using a trans-buccoenteric access (using Grosz-Dennis tube); the peritonisation of the retroperitoneum with the omentum and the protection of the anastomosis using omental wrapping and active lavage and, for colorectal anastomosis, even using the 3-way tube, lavage and active aspiration, in a transanal trans- or sub-anastomotic position. Total parenteral feeding is useful for 6-7 days. In the 62 cases at stage IV, postoperative morbidity was 3 cases (6%): 3 suppurations of laparotomy, and mortality occurred in 10 cases (16%): one case of anastomotic disunion (pre-Gullino's tube), 3 cases of septic shock and 6 cardiorespiratory failures. Mean postoperative hospitalisation was 14 days. All these patients died owing to the spread of neoplasms within 1-40 months, mean 13 months. The worst results were obtained in entero-enterostomies: 1-9 months, mean 5 months. In the 71 cases at stages II and III, postoperative morbidity was 3 cases (4%): a small anastomotic filtration after right colectomy and 2 suppurations of the laparotomic incision; mortality amounted to 10 cases (14%): one case of septic shock, one of acute hepatitis, one intestinal infarction and one cardiac infarction, 3 pulmonary embolisms and 3 cardiorespiratory failures. Mean postoperative hospitalisation was 13 days, only 10 in cases of left colectomy with anastomosis protected by Gullino's tube. The long-term results were very good in these 71 patients: over 5-year survival of 50% (Kaplan-Meier). Using this courageous single-stage surgery, the results are optimal even at a distance, together with reduced surgical trauma and a shorter hospital stay." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_59678", "title": "Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer", "score": 0.011382113821138212, "content": "5. Person with colorectal cancer and two or more first- or second-degree relatives with colorectal cancer or Lynch syndrome associated cancer diagnosed at any age. It is important to note that these clinical criteria can be difficult to use in practice and clinical criteria used alone misses between 12 and 68 percent of Lynch syndrome cases. Surgery Prophylactic hysterectomy and salpingo-oophorectomy (removal of the uterus, Fallopian tubes, and ovaries to prevent cancer from developing) can be performed before ovarian or endometrial cancer develops. Treatment Surgery remains the front-line therapy for HNPCC. Patients with Lynch syndrome who develop colorectal cancer may be treated with either a partial colectomy or total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis. Due to increased risk of colorectal cancer following partial colectomy and similar quality of life after both surgeries, a total colectomy may be a preferred treatment for HNPCC, especially in younger patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0510_13775", "title": "Laparoscopic versus open right hemicolectomy with curative intent for colon carcinoma.", "score": 0.01108058608058608, "content": "Laparoscopic surgery, especially laparoscopic rectal surgery, for colorectal cancer has been developed considerably. However, due to relatively complicated anatomy and high requirements for surgery techniques, laparoscopic right colectomy develops relatively slowly. This study was designed to compare the outcomes of laparoscopic right hemicolectomy (LRH) with open right hemicolectomy (ORH) in the treatment of colon carcinoma. Between September 2000 and February 2003, 30 patients with colon cancer who underwent LRH were compared with 34 controls treated by ORH in the same period. All patients were evaluated with respect to surgery-related complications, postoperative recovery, recurrence and metastasis rate, cost-effectiveness and survival. Among 30 LRH, 2 (6.7%) were converted to open procedure. No significant differences were observed in terms of mean operation time, blood loss, post-operative complications, and hospital cost between LRH and ORH groups. Mean time for bowel movement, hospital stay, and time to resume early activity in the LRH group were significantly shorter than those in the ORH group (2.24+/-0.56 vs 3.25+/-1.29 d, 13.94+/-6.5 vs 18.25+/-5.96 d, 3.94+/-1.64 vs 5.45+/-1.82 d respectively, P&lt;0.05). As to the lymph node yield, the specimen length and total cost for operation and drugs, there was no significant difference between the two groups. Local recurrence rate and metachronous metastasis rate had no marked difference between the two groups. Cumulative survival probability at 40 mo in LRH group (76.50%) was not obviously different compared to the ORH group (74.04%). LRH in patients with colon cancer has statistically and clinically significant advantages over ORH. Thus, LRH can be regarded as a safe and effective procedure." }, { "id": "article-22717_25", "title": "Hemicolectomy -- Technique or Treatment -- Right Hemicolectomy", "score": 0.011014368636406889, "content": "The right colon is retracted laterally, and the proximal transverse colon is elevated, revealing the mesocolon. The mesocolon is dissected initially at the hepatic flexure between the right colic and middle colic pedicles. The mesocolon overlying the ileocolic and right colic pedicles is dissected, and these arteries are then clipped and divided close to their source. Step 4: Anastomosis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_7448", "title": "[Carcinoma of transverse colon (author's transl)].", "score": 0.010568472577594839, "content": "A personal series of 83 cases of carcinoma of transverse colon has been analysed, as the recent works of international literature. The low percentage of success of these cancers is justified by the anatomical conditions and the pathological findings. Particularly, this prognosis is made worse by the high percentage of multivisceral cancers, hepatic metastases and emergency cases. The operative technics are very different. Beside the typical resections (right or left hemicolectomy), there remains one more important place for segmental colectomy. At least the subtotal colectomy gets some more indications, especially in the high risk patients. Only 28% of the resected cases shows a 5 years survival rate. This percentage is nearly the same as most of the recents statistics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_1252", "title": "[Risk factors of postoperative surgical site infection in colon cancer based on a single center database].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "<bObjective:</b To explore the incidence and risk factors of postoperative surgical site infection (SSI) after colon cancer surgery. <bMethods:</b A retrospective case-control study was performed. Patients diagnosed with colon cancer who underwent radical surgery between January 2016 and May 2021 were included, and demographic characteristics, comorbidities, laboratory tests, surgical data and postoperative complications were extracted from the specialized prospective database at Department of General Surgery, Peking Union Medical College Hospital. Case exclusion criteria: (1) simultaneously multiple primary colon cancer; (2) segmental resection, subtotal colectomy, or total colectomy; (3) patients undergoing colostomy/ileostomy during the operation or in the state of colostomy/ileostomy before the operation; (4) patients receiving natural orifice specimen extraction surgery or transvaginal colon surgery; (5) patients with the history of colectomy; (6) emergency operation due to intestinal obstruction, perforation and acute bleeding; (7) intestinal diversion operation; (8) benign lesions confirmed by postoperative pathology; (9) patients not following the colorectal clinical pathway of our department for intestinal preparation and antibiotic application. Univariate analysis and multivariate analysis were used to determine the risk factors of SSI after colon cancer surgery. <bResults:</b A total of 1291 patients were enrolled in the study. 94.3% (1217/1291) of cases received laparoscopic surgery. The incidence of overall SSI was 5.3% (69/1291). According to tumor location, the incidence of SSI in the right colon, transverse colon, left colon and sigmoid colon was 8.6% (40/465), 5.2% (11/213), 7.1% (7/98) and 2.1% (11/515) respectively. According to resection range, the incidence of SSI after right hemicolectomy, transverse colectomy, left hemicolectomy and sigmoid colectomy was 8.2% (48/588), 4.5% (2/44), 4.8% (8 /167) and 2.2% (11/492) respectively. Univariate analysis showed that preoperative BUN≥7.14 mmol/L, tumor site, resection range, intestinal anastomotic approach, postoperative diarrhea, anastomotic leakage, postoperative pneumonia, and anastomotic technique were related to SSI (all <iP</i&lt;0.05). Multivariate analysis revealed that anastomotic leakage (OR=22.074, 95%CI: 6.172-78.953, <iP</i&lt;0.001), pneumonia (OR=4.100, 95%CI: 1.546-10.869, <iP</i=0.005), intracorporeal anastomosis (OR=5.288, 95%CI: 2.919-9.577,<iP</i&lt;0.001) were independent risk factors of SSI. Subgroup analysis showed that in right hemicolectomy, the incidence of SSI in intracorporeal anastomosis was 19.8% (32/162), which was significantly higher than that in extracorporeal anastomosis (3.8%, 16/426, χ(2)=40.064, <iP</i&lt;0.001). In transverse colectomy [5.0% (2/40) vs. 0, χ(2)=0.210, <iP</i=1.000], left hemicolectomy [5.4% (8/148) vs. 0, χ(2)=1.079, <iP</i=0.599] and sigmoid colectomy [2.1% (10/482) vs. 10.0% (1/10), χ(2)=2.815, <iP</i=0.204], no significant differences of SSI incidence were found between intracorporeal anastomosis and extracorporeal anastomosis (all <iP</i&gt;0.05). <bConclusions:</b The incidence of SSI increases with the resection range from sigmoid colectomy to right hemicolectomy. Intracorporeal anastomosis and postoperative anastomotic leakage are independent risk factors of SSI. Attentions should be paid to the possibility of postoperative pneumonia and actively effective treatment measures should be carried out." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0095_8312", "title": "[Treatment of familial rectocolonic polyposis with total colectomy using ileorectal anastomosis in 6 members of a family: the value of early diagnosis].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report on the observation of six cases in a family of eight, all under 30, in whom the diagnosis was obtained at first hand by rectosigmoidoscopy. This procedure appears sufficient as the number of polyps tends to decrease with increasing distance from the anal margin. The recent finding of abnormalities of chromosome 5 (long arm) permits the identification of carriers of this genotype by simple blood examination (DNA probe), thus greatly enhancing the possibilities of screening for the disease. Each of our cases was managed with subtotal colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis. Preservation of the rectum was preferred to other techniques as all subjects were young, mildly affected and with good motivation for twice-yearly endoscopic follow-up. The surgical technique appears simple and quite safe with satisfactory functional results and easy feasibility of endoscopic surveillance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_24326", "title": "Elective surgery for tumours of the splenic flexure: a French inter-group (AFC, SFCD, FRENCH, GRECCAR) survey.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In an elective setting, there is no consensus regarding the type of colectomy that is best for patients with tumors of the splenic flexure: segmental left colectomy (or splenic flexure colectomy), left hemicolectomy or subtotal colectomy (or extended right hemicolectomy). In the United Kingdom, extended right hemicolectomy is preferred by surgeons. The aim of the present survey was to report on the practices in France for this particular tumor location. Between 15/07/17 and 15/10/17, members of two French surgical societies [the French Association of Surgery (AFC) and the French Society of Digestive Surgery (SFCD)] and two French surgical cooperative groups [the French Federation of Surgical Research (FRENCH) and the French Research Group of Rectal Cancer Surgery (GRECCAR)] were solicited by email to answer an online anonymous questionnaire. A total of 190 out of 420 surgeons participated in this study (response rate 45%). The preferred procedure was splenic flexure colectomy (70%), followed by left hemicolectomy (17%) and subtotal colectomy (13%). The most used surgical approach was laparoscopy (63%), followed by laparotomy (31%) and hand-assisted laparoscopy (6%). Lymph node dissection was extended to the middle colic artery in 29% of splenic flexure colectomies and in 33% of left hemicolectomies. Twenty-nine percent of responders thought that tumors of the splenic flexure had a worse prognosis in comparison with other colonic sites, because of insufficient lymph node dissection (73%) or a more advanced stage (50%) at diagnosis. However, this opinion did not change the type of colectomy performed. There is a strong consensus in France to operate tumors of the splenic flexure with a splenic flexure colectomy and lymph node dissection limited to the left colic artery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0571_4241", "title": "Rectal carcinoma in a nine-year-old Nigerian male child: case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Carcinoma of the colon and rectum are rare in children and under the age of 40 years. A case of coro-rectal carcinoma in a nine-year-old Nigerian male child is reported. Family history was significant in the patient, it revealed that his father died three years earlier because of chronic diarrhoea and mucoid stool with associated on and off constipation and one of his elder brothers died eight years ago of colonic cancer at the age of twenty years. Exploratory laparotomy was done for the patient which revealed fixed rectosigmoid tumour with metastases to the liver, omentum and small intestine and ascites was also found. Hartmann's procedure with sigmoid colostomy was performed and the tumour was resected. Histological report of the biopsy specimen was consistent with poorly differentiated adeno-carcinoma. To the best of our knowledge, the youngest patient recorded in the literature is seven years old, which is younger than our patient, but this is still the youngest in our records." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0894_2703", "title": "Simultaneous robotic subtotal gastrectomy and right hemicolectomy for synchronous adenocarcinoma of stomach and colon.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Simultaneous laparoscopy-assisted resection for synchronous stomach and colon cancers has been reported frequently; however, robot-assisted gastrectomy and colectomy for these conditions are rarely reported. We report the successful use of robotic surgery for synchronous cancers of the stomach and colon. A 71-year-old woman with no specific medical history was diagnosed with early gastric cancer at the gastric angle and right colon cancer after undergoing esophagogastroduodenoscopy and colonofiberoscopy. Abdomino-pelvic computed tomography revealed that the stomach and colon lesions were limited to the mucosa without any lymph nodes or distant metastasis, which suggested the clinical stage for both cancers as T1N0M0. We performed robot-assisted radical subtotal gastrectomy and simultaneous right hemicolectomy through six ports. All procedures were successful without any perioperative complications. A 36-month postoperative follow-up of the patient at the outpatient department revealed no evidence of recurrence. We consider that concurrent robot-assisted subtotal gastrectomy and colectomy are technically feasible and safe." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0827_785", "title": "Right hemicolectomy and multivisceral resection of right colon cancer: A report of 21 cases.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The long- and short-term outcomes in 21 patients with right colon cancer after right hemicolectomy and multivisceral resection surgery were investigated. Short-term therapeutic effects and long-term survival rate were retrospectively analyzed in patients with right colon cancer. These individuals underwent right hemicolectomy in combination with multivisceral resections including pancreatic head, duodenum, kidney, liver, gallbladder, and abdominal wall at the Department of General Surgery in the Henan Tumor Hospital between January 2003 and August 2014. The patients had an average age of 58.9 years (range: 39-78). Three patients had metastatic invasion only to the duodenum; meanwhile 18 patients had invasion to the duodenum and other adjacent organs. The median survival time was 41 months (95% CI: 6.972-75.028) with one death in the perioperative period. No patients lost follow-up. One-, 3-, and 5-year survival rate was 75%, 56%, and 43%, respectively. It was concluded that indications for surgery should be tightly controlled. Favorable clinical outcomes of right hemicolectomy and multivisceral resection surgery were demonstrated for patients with right colon cancer at the T4 stage. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1137_15317", "title": "Surgical outcomes of various surgical approaches for transverse colon cancer.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The transverse colon has anatomical peculiarities in the middle position between the foregut and the midgut. Because the transverse colon harbors a flexure at both ends, mobilization of the transverse colon can be especially challenging compared with other colons. Although transverse colon cancer is relatively uncommon, an optimal surgical management for transverse colon cancer must be established. In transverse colon cancer, proximity to the pancreas and variation in arterial and venous anatomy make radical resection more difficult. Dissection of lymph nodes around the middle colic vessels is a critical step in transverse colon cancer resection. The proximity of the middle colic vessels to the superior mesenteric vessels contributes to the complexity of this step, making it challenging for less-trained surgeons. For these reasons, patients with transverse colon cancer were not included in most landmark studies that compared laparoscopic surgery with open surgery. More radical operations, such as subtotal colectomy or extended right or left hemicolectomy, can be performed for transverse colon cancer to secure an adequate lymphadenectomy. Such cancers have also been treated with limited segmental colectomies, such as right, transverse, or left colectomy. Currently, there is still a lack of standardized definitions and procedures. Therefore, it is time to discuss and establish optimal surgical treatments for transverse colon cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0120_3886", "title": "[A resected case of recurrent carcinoma of the right colon ten years after the initial operation].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 59 year-old female complained of right lower abdominal mass. She underwent radical operation 10 years ago for the right colonic cancer staged Dukes C. She had passed 10 years without any sign or symptom of recurrence. She noticed a egg-sized tumor in the right lower abdomen unexpectedly one month ago when she got a bruise on that region, and then the tumor grew rapidly. Preoperative examinations, including barium enema, abdominal computerized tomography and so on, suggested a extraluminal tumor with infiltration to the colon. Laparotomy revealed that the tumor originated from the right paracolic gutter. The tumor sized 18 X 11 X 8 cm was resected and histological diagnosis was adenocarcinoma with the similar structural pattern to the initial specimen. On the basis of both operations and histological findings, we concluded that free tumor cells might be implanted in the large raw surface of the right dorsolateral abdominal wall, which was created by surgical incision at the initial operation, and subsequently appeared as a local recurrence after 10 years interval." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1127_12217", "title": "Laparoscopic segmental colectomy with extensive D3 lymph node dissection: a good choice for right transverse colon cancer.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Previous research was yet to establish a definite operation for transverse colon cancer (TCC); surgical procedure was often dictated by the surgeon's preference in clinical practice. The main surgical methods could be summarized in two main points: segmental colectomy (transverse colectomy) and right hemicolectomy. The first patient was a 78-year-old woman, who was diagnosed with right TCC. Computed tomography revealed a right TCC and a very long transverse colon; laparoscopic exploration revealed an enlarged apical lymph node surrounding the ileocolic vessels. We performed a segmental colectomy with extensive apical lymph node dissection along the superior mesenteric vessels and its main branches for her. To distinguish it from the previous radical operations for TCC, we called this operation a segmental colectomy with extensive D3 lymph node dissection. Then, this surgical intervention was performed on 8 other TCC patients. The total operating time was 158 min. Pathological examination confirmed 2 apical lymph node metastases; among them, one apical lymph node metastasis was in group No.203. For all 9 patients, the median operative time was 160 min (range, 140-185 min), the average number of lymph node retrieval was 30 (range, 25-39), and the average number of apical lymph node (No.203, No.213, and No.223) retrieval was 5.9 (range, 0-11). Because of the preservation of the ileocecal junction and part of the ascending colon, all patients recovered uneventfully after surgery, and long-term diarrhea, water-electrolyte imbalance, and other Clavien-Dindo grade III or greater postoperative complications did not occur. Our procedure combined the advantages of segmental colectomy and right hemicolectomy and gave consideration to oncological and functional outcomes. It may be an optimal choice for TCC patients with a very long transverse colon and preoperative diagnosis of lymph node metastasis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_1191", "title": "Colorectal carcinoma in patients 30 years of age and younger.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Thirty-seven cases of colorectal cancer in patients aged 30 years or younger have been treated at the University of Virginia Health Sciences Center from 1957 through 1992. The present series, comprising patients treated from 1978 through 1992, updates a series presented from our institution comprising patients treated from 1957 through 1977. For the 36-year series, 24 patients (65%) were female, and 13 (35%) were male. Sixteen patients (43%) were black, and 21 patients (57%) were white. Sites of tumor and their frequency were rectosigmoid, 14 (38%), left colon, five (14%), splenic flexure, two (5%), transverse colon, three (9%), hepatic flexure, two (5%), right colon, two (5%), and cecum, six (16%). Twenty-two patients (59%) presented with abdominal pain, whereas 15 (41%) presented with hematochezia or hemoccult positive stools. The average time of onset of symptoms to diagnosis was 2.3 months. Thirty-four of 37 patients (92%) presented with advanced stage disease. Only four patients had precancerous conditions: one each with Gardner's Syndrome, Turcot's Syndrome, ulcerative colitis, and villous adenoma. Twenty-five patients (68%) underwent surgery for cure, and ten (27%) received palliative procedures. Nothing could be done for two patients (5%). Twenty-one patients (57%) had mucinous histology, 13 (35%) had typical adenocarcinoma, one (3%) had small cell carcinoma, and histology was unavailable in two (6%). Nodes were negative in only 10 (27%) patients, of which only three had mucinous histology. There have been five 5-year survivors and three patients alive and disease free at last follow up, ranging from 30 months to 48 months.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_8395", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.00939484827099506, "content": "29-10. Terminology of types of colorectal resections: A→C Ileocecectomy; + A + B→D Ascending colectomy; + A + B→F Right hemicolectomy; + A + B→G Extended right hemi-colectomy; + E + F→G + H Transverse colectomy; G→I Left hemicolectomy; F→I Extended left hemicolectomy; J + K Sigmoid colectomy; + A + B→J Subtotal colectomy; + A + B→K Total col-ectomy; + A + B→L Total proctocolectomy. (Reproduced with per-mission from Fielding LP, Goldberg SM: Rob & Smith’s Operative: Surgery of the Colon, Rectum, and Anus. London: Elsevier; 1993.)BCAFigure 29-11. After a total colectomy and resection of the rec-tum (A), the anal canal with a short cuff of transitional mucosa and sphincter muscles is preserved (B). An ileal J-pouch has been constructed and is anastomosed to the anal canal using a double-staple technique (C). (Reproduced with permission from Bell RH, Rikkers LF, Mulholland M: Digestive Tract Surgery: A Text and Atlas. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0942_446", "title": "Optimal Surgery for Mid-Transverse Colon Cancer: Laparoscopic Extended Right Hemicolectomy Versus Laparoscopic Transverse Colectomy.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Although the feasibility and safety of laparoscopic surgery for transverse colon cancer have been shown by the recent studies, the optimal laparoscopic approach for mid-transverse colon cancer is controversial. We retrospectively analyzed the data of patients with the mid-transverse colon cancer at our institutions between January 2007 and April 2017. Thirty-eight and 34 patients who received extended right hemicolectomy and transverse colectomy, respectively, were enrolled. There were no significant differences in operating time, blood loss, and hospital stay between the two groups. Postoperative complications developed in 10 of 34 patients (29.4%; wound infection: 2 cases, anastomotic leakage: 2 cases, bowel obstruction: 1 case, incisional hernia: 2 cases, others: 3 cases) for the transverse colectomy group and in 4 of 38 patients (10.5%; wound infection: 1 case, anastomotic leakage: 0 case, bowel obstruction: 2 cases, incisional hernia: 0 case, others: 1 case) for the extended right hemicolectomy group (P = 0.014). Although the median number of harvested #221 and #222 LNs was similar between the two groups (6 vs. 8, P = 0.710, and 3 vs. 2, P = 0.256, respectively), that of #223 was significantly larger in extended right hemicolectomy than in transverse colectomy (3 vs. 1, P = 0.038). The 5-year disease-free and overall survival rates were 92.4 and 90.3% for the extended right hemicolectomy group, and 95.7 and 79.6% for the transverse colectomy group (P = 0.593 and P = 0.638, respectively). Laparoscopic extended right hemicolectomy and laparoscopic transverse colectomy offer similar oncological outcomes for mid-transverse colon cancer. Laparoscopic extended right hemicolectomy might be associated with fewer postoperative complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0618_21064", "title": "[Subtotal or total colectomy as surgical treatment of left-sided occlusive colon cancer].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The treatment of acutely obstructed carcinoma of the left colon and sigmoid still represents a matter of controversy. The aim of this study was to assess retrospectively the results of its management by emergency subtotal or total colectomy with primary anastomosis. Sixty-seven patients were reviewed. There were 42 males and 25 females. The mean age was 70.5 years (range: 26-87 years). Mean operative time was 210 minutes. There were five synchronous colon carcinomas (7.5%) and 23 (343%) synchronous tubulous and tubulo-villous adenomas. No death was noted in the series. Ten postoperative complications (15%) occurred in nine patients including one postoperative peritonitis without evidence of anastomotic leak, one alithiasic cholecystitis, one evisceration and two intra-abdominal abscesses. The mean hospital stay was 11.4 days. Fifty-eight patients were assessed at three and twelve months for functional results. No fecal incontinence was encountered. The mean number of bowel movements per 24 hours was 3.2 at three months and 2 at twelve months. All patients were satisfied with their quality of life. Twelve patients (20.7%) occasionally needed anti-diarrheic medications. Urgent subtotal or total colectomy with primary anastomosis is a safe and efficient procedure in the management of acutely obstructed neoplasm of the left colon. It allows to treat in one stage the cancer and the obstruction, bearing no mortality, acceptable morbidity and satisfactory postoperative functional results." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_8390", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.00932891325598198, "content": "with an equivalent functional result.Left Colectomy For lesions or disease states confined to the distal transverse colon, splenic flexure, or descending colon, a left colectomy is performed. The left branches of the middle colic vessels, the left colic vessels, and the first branches of the sigmoid vessels are ligated. A colocolonic anastomosis can usually be performed.Extended Left Colectomy An extended left colectomy is an option for removing lesions in the distal transverse colon. In this operation, the left colectomy is extended proximally to include the right branches of the middle colic vessels.Sigmoid Colectomy Lesions in the sigmoid colon require ligation and division of the sigmoid branches of the inferior mesenteric artery. In general, the entire sigmoid colon should be resected to the level of the peritoneal reflection and an BADCFEFigure 29-9. Extent of resection for carcinoma of the colon. A. Cecal cancer. B. Hepatic flexure cancer. C. Transverse colon cancer. D." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en051_6117", "title": "Colectomy", "score": 0.009273934461340758, "content": "Colectomy (col- + -ectomy) is bowel resection of the large bowel (colon). It consists of the surgical removal of any extent of the colon, usually segmental resection (partial colectomy). In extreme cases where the entire large intestine is removed, it is called total colectomy, and proctocolectomy (procto- + colectomy) denotes that the rectum is included." }, { "id": "article-19739_21", "title": "Colon Cancer -- Treatment / Management -- Surgical Resection", "score": 0.009261045726413274, "content": "Tumors of the appendix, cecum, ascending colon, and hepatic flexure requires right colectomy with ligation of the right colic artery at its origin. The right branch of the middle colic artery and ileocolic artery are also ligated. This procedure is completed with ill -mid-transverse colon anastomosis. Transverse colon cancers require extended right colectomy due to the ease of the procedure when compared to extended left colectomy.  Extended right colectomy also involves the ligation of the middle colic artery at its origin in addition to steps involving right colectomy. This procedure is completed with ileac-descending colon anastomosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0132_15360", "title": "Management of obstructing carcinoma of the left colon by extended right hemicolectomy.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In obstructing carcinomas of the left colon, primary resection with immediate colocolonic anastomosis is associated with a high risk of anastomotic dehiscence, and therefore, it has become traditional to manage such patients with staged resection. In obstructing carcinomas of the right colon, immediate resection of the lesion with ileocolonic anastomosis is acceptable. The scope of right hemicolectomy can be extended to encompass obstructing carcinomas of the left colon by performing subtotal or total colectomy with ileosigmoid or ileorectal anastomosis. Herein, we have reported the outcome in 16 patients treated in this manner. The operative mortality was 12.5 percent, which compared favorably the mortality of other methods of surgical management. Extended right hemicolectomy achieves in one operation relief of intestinal obstruction, tumor resection, restoration of gut continuity, elimination of the risks of synchronous or metachronous colonic tumors, and a possible increase in the 5 year survival rate. In our experience, the frequent passage of liquid stools is not a problem. This approach justifies further study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_1990", "title": "[Subtotal colectomy in the treatment of obstructive tumors in the left half of the colon].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The authors give an account of 14 patients during a two-year period where on account of an occluding tumour of the left half of the colon they performed subtotal colectomy with ileodescendent--in 2, ileosigmoideal--in 10 and ileorectal anastomosis in two patients. After operation and by the time when the material was processed, none of the patients died. Based on data in the literature and the authors' own material, the authors discuss the advantages of subtotal colectomy, as compared with hitherto used multistage procedures. The advantages include in particular a lower operative mortality (0-14%), a higher five-year survival (46%) a markedly lower morbidity, time economy, a shorter period of hospitalization and in particular, the patients are spared colostomy, even temporary one. The authors recommend subtotal colectomy as the method of choice on account of ileus caused by tumourous occlusion of the left half of the colon." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_8548", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009230443527045624, "content": "ultrasound or endometrial aspiration biopsy is also recommended annually after age 25 to 35 years. Because there is a 40% risk of developing a second colon cancer, total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis is recommended once adenomas or a colon carcinoma is diagnosed. Annual proctos-copy is necessary because the risk of developing rectal cancer remains high. Similarly, prophylactic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy should be considered in women who have completed childbearing.93-95Familial Colorectal Cancer. Nonsyndromic familial colorec-tal cancer accounts for 10% to 15% of patients with colorec-tal cancer. The lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer increases with a family history of the disease. The lifetime risk of colorectal cancer in a patient with no family history of this disease (average-risk population) is approximately 6%, but rises to 12% if one first-degree relative is affected and to 35% if two first-degree relatives are affected. Age of onset" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 223 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 39 ] ], "text": "It is not secondary HT because no study has been done to confirm it (option 1 incorrect)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 133 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "The patient described is the definition of masked HT, normal figures in consultation and elevated on AMPA or ABPM (option 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 224, 329 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 39, 56 ] ], "text": "It is not isolated HT because the elevated figures are maintained for several weeks (option 3 incorrect)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 330, 411 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 56, 71 ] ], "text": "It is not refractory HT because it has not yet been treated (option 4 incorrect)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "She has secondary hypertension.", "2": "Presents masked arterial hypertension.", "3": "Presents isolated clinical hypertension.", "4": "Presents refractory arterial hypertension.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0728_7280", "title": "[Influence of blood pressure variability during office visit on the estimation of blood pressure control in treated hypertensive patients].", "score": 0.014926168772322619, "content": "To evaluate the variability in blood pressure observed during office visit in treated hypertensive patients and its consequences on the diagnosis of controlled hypertension. The medical records of 144 subjects seen consecutively in a hypertension excellence center were extracted from a computerized medical database including hypertension subjects treated and followed-up for at least one year. BP measured with an automatic device (four consecutives measurements at 2min intervals) where compared to BP values of home BP performed in the previous week's visit. Thresholds were 140/90mmHg for office BP and 135/85mmHg for HBP. The population has the following characteristics: age 62 years with 26% over 70 years, treated with a monotherapy (33%), bitherapy (35%), triple therapy (17%), quadri-therapy or more (8%). A white coat effect SBP above 20mmHg was noted in 32% of patients when BP at 2min is taken and in 2% when BP at 8min is taken (P&lt;0.01). After 8min, a masked effect is noted in 16% for SBP above 20mmHg and in 44% for DBP above 10mmHg. White coat hypertension or masked hypertension was noted in 40% or 16% respectively (BP 2min) and in 5% or 29% (BP 8min) in treated hypertensive. In treated hypertensive, office BP measured by an automatic device shows significant variability. When the BP is taken with an automatic device, measures taken after 8minutes of rest avoid the misleading effects of white coat effect, but the masked hypertension is present in nearly one third of the subjects. The use of AMT for monitoring hypertensive patients is the best way to monitor treatment efficacy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_3212", "title": "[The effects of different settings on outcome when screening for high blood pressure.].", "score": 0.014499275036248187, "content": "It has become increasingly popular to offer blood pressure measurements under circumstances that differ from the usual setting, for example measurements in supermarkets, pharmacies, at exhibitions etc. It is well known that environmental factors as well as doctor and patient relationship can affect blood pressure measurement. This must be considered in the diagnosis and treatment of hypertension. The aim of this study was to evaluate some of these phenomena. Subjects attending local supermarket in a rural community were offered blood pressure measurement two Friday afternoons. All measurements were done in a sitting position with a fully automatic blood pressure recorder, AND UA-767. Hypertension was diagnosed if blood pres notsure exceeded 140 mm Hg systolic and/or 90 mmHg diastolic (according to WHO standards). Those who had hypertension were followed by two office and six home measurements. For the statistical analysis, a t-test for paired data was used. RESULTS are reported as means. Total of 125 subjects had their blood pressure measured. By the WHO criteria 64 (51.2%) of the subjects had hypertension. Mean blood pressure was significantly higher in the supermarket compared to office both for systolic, 17.1 (C.I:12.8-21.4)mmHg, and diastolic, 5.2 (0.1:2.7-7.7) mmHg, blood pressure. Eighty per cent of the subjects had normal blood pressure at home. Compared to supermarket the mean blood pressure reduction was 29.3 (0.1:24.7-33.9) mmHg for systolic and 10.1 (0.1:7.2-13.0) mmHg for diastolic. A \"white coat effect\" (office vs. home BP) was present. Mean blood pressure reduction 12.9 mmHg (0.1:10.1-15.7) mmHg for systolic and 5.0 mmHg (0.1:3.4-6.6) for diastolic. This unconventional approach to blood pressure screening seems to be both cheap and acceptable for the public. Blood pressure measurements under these circumstances on the other hand are not directly comparable to the standard values given by WHO and should be looked on as reflecting the blood pressure each given time. Environmental factors therefore influence the blood pressure measurement greatly. The interaction between the physician and the patient seems to be a major factor in the office vs. home blood pressure difference, the so called white coat effect. On the other hand there must be another explanation for the difference between blood pressure measurement in supermarket \"and at home. Different circumstances and their effect on reference values when offering blood pressure measurements must be taken into consideration. This should be kept in mind when diagnosing hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en272_15660", "title": "World Hypertension Day", "score": 0.01407627271091923, "content": "In 2005, as the inaugural effort, the theme was simply \"Awareness of high blood pressure\". The 2006 theme was \"Treat to goal\", with a focus on keeping blood pressure under control. The recommended blood pressures are less than 140/90 mmHg for the general population and for the hypertensive population without any other complications, and less than 130/80 mmHg for those with diabetes mellitus or chronic kidney disease. These are the cut-off values recommended by international and Canadian guidelines. The 2007 WHD theme was \"Healthy diet, healthy blood pressure\". Through such specific themes, the WHL intends to raise awareness not only of hypertension, but also of factors contributing to an increase in the incidence of hypertension and on ways to prevent it. In an effort to empower the public, the theme for 2008 was \"Measure your blood pressure…at home\". Recent reports confirm the ease, accuracy and safety of blood pressure measurements using home monitors." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en463_30859", "title": "Blood pressure measurement", "score": 0.013725990141084481, "content": "White-coat hypertension For some patients, blood pressure measurements taken in a doctor's office may not correctly characterize their typical blood pressure. In up to 25% of patients, the office measurement is higher than their typical blood pressure. This type of error is called white-coat hypertension (WCH) and can result from anxiety related to an examination by a health care professional. White coat hypertension can also occur because, in a clinical setting, patients are seldom given the opportunity to rest for five minutes before blood pressure readings are taken. The misdiagnosis of hypertension for these patients can result in needless and possibly harmful medication. WCH can be reduced (but not eliminated) with automated blood pressure measurements over 15 to 20 minutes in a quiet part of the office or clinic. In some cases a lower blood pressure reading occurs at the doctor's - this has been termed 'masked hypertension'." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_36906", "title": "Essential hypertension", "score": 0.01369803819894564, "content": "Diagnosis For most patients, health care providers diagnose high blood pressure when blood pressure readings are consistently 140/90 mmHg or above. A blood pressure test can be done in a health care provider's office or clinic. To track blood pressure readings over a period of time, the health care provider may ask the patient to come into the office on different days and at different times. The health care provider also may ask the patient to check readings at home or at other locations that have blood pressure equipment and to keep a written log of results. The health care provider usually takes 2–3 readings at several medical appointments to diagnose high blood pressure. Using the results of the blood pressure test, the health care provider will diagnose prehypertension or high blood pressure if: For an adult, systolic or diastolic readings are consistently higher than 120/80 mmHg." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0528_7808", "title": "[Is masked hypertension an artefact due to the blood pressure measurement method and threshold effects?].", "score": 0.013670776552022496, "content": "From results of office and home measurements of blood pressure (BP), patients can be classified as \"hypertensive (HT)\", \"normotensive (NT)\", \"office hypertensive (OH)\" or \"masked hypertensive (MH)\" by crossing the classifications obtained from each method. It seems that 9 to 20% of patients could be MH with a prognosis close to HT (SHEAF study). To test the hypothesis that at least one part of the prevalence of MH would be an artefact due to the difference between the methods of measurements (shygmomanometer vs semi-automatic device) and/or due to different definitions of office hypertension (OHT). To determine the impact of different definitions of OHT on the prevalence of MH. During the course of a phase IV study, BP was measured with the same semi-automatic device (OMRON 705CP) both at doctor's office (3 measurements at 1-minute intervals) and at home, by the patient himself (3 measurements in the morning and in the evening at 1-minute intervals over the 7 days before the visit). Following definitions were used: Office HT: SBP &gt; or =140 mmHg, DBP &gt; or =90 mmHg, SBP &gt; or =140 mmHg or DBP &gt; or =90 mmHg; Home HT: SBP &gt; or =135 mmHg, DBP&gt; or =85 mmHg, SBP &gt; or =135 mmHg or DBP &gt; or =85 mmHg. Another definition of office HT was used SBP &gt; or =135 mmHg, DBP &gt; or =85 mmHg SBP &gt; or =135 mmHg or DBP &gt; or =85 mmHg. 575 patients were analysed. Results from the two methods of measurements are closed but significantly different (difference for SBP: 3.2 +/- 16.5 mmHg; p &lt; 0.0001; difference for DBP: 1.4 +/- 10.3 mmHg; p = 0.002)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_24836", "title": "Management of hypertension", "score": 0.013514578408195428, "content": "Regular monitoring of blood pressure The regular measurement of blood pressure is critical in the management of hypertension. The American Heart Association recommends home monitoring for people with elevated readings. Readings taken at predetermined regular intervals are considered by healthcare providers in determining whether a treatment is working and in suggesting alternative treatments. A study published in December 2018 by Clinical Cardiology showed that a home-based program involving a Bluetooth-enabled blood pressure monitoring device reduced hypertension in seven weeks. In the study, patients with hypertension (blood pressure above 140/90 mm Hg) measured their blood pressure twice a day, the blood pressure device transmitted the readings to an electronic medical record, and that data was used to adjust participants' medication at biweekly intervals." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155223", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.013250756157280713, "content": "Blood pressure is classified by two measurements, the systolic and diastolic pressures, which are the maximum and minimum pressures, respectively. For most adults, normal blood pressure at rest is within the range of 100–130 millimeters mercury (mmHg) systolic and 60–80 mmHg diastolic. For most adults, high blood pressure is present if the resting blood pressure is persistently at or above 130/80 or 140/90 mmHg. Different numbers apply to children. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring over a 24-hour period appears more accurate than office-based blood pressure measurement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_36893", "title": "Essential hypertension", "score": 0.012977913175932977, "content": "Classification A recent classification recommends blood pressure criteria for defining normal blood pressure, prehypertension, hypertension (stages I and II), and isolated systolic hypertension, which is a common occurrence among the elderly. These readings are based on the average of seated blood pressure readings that were properly measured during 2 or more office visits. In individuals older than 50 years, hypertension is considered to be present when a person's blood pressure is consistently at least 140 mmHg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic. Patients with blood pressures over 130/80 mmHg along with Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes, or kidney disease require further treatment. Resistant hypertension is defined as the failure to reduce blood pressure to the appropriate level after taking a three-drug regimen. Guidelines for treating resistant hypertension have been published in the UK, and US." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_983", "title": "[Prevalence, treatment and control of hypertension in family practice patients in France during 1994].", "score": 0.012896825396825396, "content": "The aim of this study was to measure the percentage of patients with hypertension, treated hypertension and controlled hypertension, using data collected over one week by 235 general practitioners well representative of the French medical population and selected by SOFRES Médical. Practitioners had to carry out their own survey over a period of one week on all patients above 18 years of age who visited their office. They were initially instructed to use the same type of mercury sphygmomanometer, equiped with the same pneumatic cuffs of different sizes. Three consecutive blood pressure measurements were effected, the last two were recorded. Patients were considered as hypertensive if the mean of the two recorded BP measurements was &gt; or = 140-90 mmHg, or &lt; 140-90 mmHg under pharmacological treatment. Hypertensive patients were considered as controlled when their blood pressure levels were overall &lt; 140-90 mmHg under treatment. According to age, two other control levels were analysed: blood pressure &lt; 160-95 mmHg before 65 years and blood pressure &lt; 160-90 mmHg at 65 years or more. Among 12,351 patients, 5,020 are hypertensive (4%), 2,985 under pharmacological treatment (59%) and 2,035 without treatment (4%). Among untreated patients, 9% had an hypertension above the borderline values. Before 65 years, 28% had an under treatment blood pressure &lt; 140-90 mmHg and 71% &lt; 160-95 mmHg. Among 65 years or more hypertensive patients, 21% had an under treatment blood pressure &lt; 140-90 mmHg and 60% &lt; 160-90 mmHg. Before 65 years, 25% among patients with a monotherapy remained with a blood pressure &gt; 160-95 mmHg and 34% with a blood pressure &gt; 160-90 mmHg among those of 65 years or more; 230 patients (5%) remained in high risk with a blood pressure &gt; 180-105 mmHg. 176 untreated and 54 despite their treatment. This study carried out in French medical practice yield two main conclusions regarding the management of hypertension: as the prevalence of hypertensive patients is 41%: one patient out of two, high blood pressure has to be a main aim for the medical teaching. Even if a reasonable control of the blood pressure is achieved in most cases, blood pressure got a normal level for 24% only of treated hypertensive patients and too many patients were keeping high risk because they have been not or not enough treated. This study, as a real audit, gives some useful informations to general practitioners in order to improve their scores." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155249", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.012518587681986375, "content": "In people aged 18 years or older hypertension is defined as either a systolic or a diastolic blood pressure measurement consistently higher than an accepted normal value (this is above 129 or 139 mmHg systolic, 89 mmHg diastolic depending on the guideline). Other thresholds are used (135 mmHg systolic or 85 mmHg diastolic) if measurements are derived from 24-hour ambulatory or home monitoring. Recent international hypertension guidelines have also created categories below the hypertensive range to indicate a continuum of risk with higher blood pressures in the normal range. The Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation and Treatment of High Blood Pressure (JNC7) published in 2003 uses the term prehypertension for blood pressure in the range 120–139 mmHg systolic or 80–89 mmHg diastolic, while European Society of Hypertension Guidelines (2007) and British Hypertension Society (BHS) IV (2004) use optimal, normal and high normal categories to" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_76823", "title": "Cardiology", "score": 0.01237461565603105, "content": "Lifestyle factors can increase the risk of hypertension. These include excess salt in the diet, excess body weight, smoking, and alcohol. Hypertension can also be caused by other diseases, or as a side-effect of drugs. Blood pressure is expressed by two measurements, the systolic and diastolic pressures, which are the maximum and minimum pressures, respectively. Normal blood pressure at rest is within the range of 100–140 millimeters mercury (mmHg) systolic and 60–90 mmHg diastolic. High blood pressure is present if the resting blood pressure is persistently at or above 140/90 mmHg for most adults. Different numbers apply to children. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring over a 24-hour period appears more accurate than office best blood pressure measurement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0627_23509", "title": "Comparison between continuous ambulatory arterial blood pressure monitoring and standard blood pressure measurements among patients of younger and older age group.", "score": 0.012217811957330687, "content": "The purpose of the study was to evaluate whether there is a difference between blood pressure measured in a physician's office and the average 24 hr continuous blood pressure monitored by hypertensive patients at home. If there is a difference between these two situations then is it possibly the result of a blood pressure response by the patient to the physician which is known as \"white coat effect\" or \"white coat hypertension\". We studied 80 hypertensive outpatients which were divided into two groups of 40 patients each--a younger patient group, with a mean age of 22.8 +/- 1.8 years, and an older patient group with a mean age of 50.3 +/- 5.7 years. They were selected because they had been diagnosed as essentially hypertension grade 1, according to 2007 ESH/ESC Guidelines, or the USA Joint National Committee Guidelines (JNC 7) (i.e., arterial blood pressure &gt; 140/90 mm Hg and &lt; 160/100 mmHg) and 35 were not having any antihypertensive treatment. All participants in the study went through a two-week \"wash-out\" period without medication. At the beginning of the study blood pressure was measured using the Riva-Rocci-Korotkoff method (mercury sphygmomanometer) after 5 minutes of rest and with the patient in the sitting position. The average of the two last measurements by sphygmomanometer was used in the analysis. The subsequent measurement was made by continuous ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (SpaceLabs 90207 device). Continuous ambulatory blood pressure monitoring revealed that 17 patients of the younger age group (42.5%) who were diagnosed hypertonic, according to mercury sphygmomanometeric measurement, were in fact normotonic. In the older age group only 7 (17.5%) of participants were normotonic during 24 hr blood pressure monitoring. The proportion of miss-diagnosed normotonic younger patients was directly related to elevated clinic blood pressure, which could be referred to as office hypertension or isolated clinic hypertension (white coat hypertension). This was statistically significant (chi2 = 5.95; p = 0.015). Hypertension diagnosed in younger patients based only on occasional doctor's office mesurements, using a mercury sphygmomanometer, could be miss-interpreted and treated as the start of arterial hypertension. This could sometimes have unwanted results due to the side effects of precipitate antihypertensive medication as well as the unnecessary cost of testing, cost of treatment, prevalence of white-coat hypertension at baseline, and the varying incidence of new hypertension after the initial screening. The results indicate a potential savings of 3-14% in the cost of care for hypertension, and a 10-23% reduction in treatment days when ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is incorporated into the diagnostic process. Therefore CABPM should be used as a legitimate method in the diagnosing of \"white coat hypertension\", particularly in young patients. The identification of white coat hypertensive\"' patients should be followed by a search for metabolic risk or organ damage using the latest guidelines, and medication should start after an organ damage or cardiovascular risk assesement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155251", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.012205262220110471, "content": "blood pressure to normal levels. In November 2017, the American Heart Association and American College of Cardiology published a joint guideline which updates the recommendations of the JNC7 report. The 2020 International Society of Hypertension guidelines define hypertension based on office blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg or home monitoring blood pressure ≥135/85 mmHg, or 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure average ≥130/80 mmHg (daytime average ≥135/85 mmHg or nighttime average BP ≥120/70 mmHg)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155244", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.011927546138072453, "content": "With the availability of 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitors and home blood pressure machines, the importance of not wrongly diagnosing those who have white coat hypertension has led to a change in protocols. In the United Kingdom, current best practice is to follow up a single raised clinic reading with ambulatory measurement, or less ideally with home blood pressure monitoring over the course of 7 days. The United States Preventive Services Task Force also recommends getting measurements outside of the healthcare environment. Pseudohypertension in the elderly or noncompressibility artery syndrome may also require consideration. This condition is believed to be due to calcification of the arteries resulting in abnormally high blood pressure readings with a blood pressure cuff while intra arterial measurements of blood pressure are normal. Orthostatic hypertension is when blood pressure increases upon standing. Other investigations" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19610", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01162280701754386, "content": "The term resistant hypertension refers to patients with blood pressures persistently >140/90 mmHg despite taking three or more antihypertensive agents, including a diuretic. Resistant or difficultto-control hypertension is more common in patients >60 years than in younger patients. Resistant hypertension may be related to “pseudoresistance” (high office blood pressures and lower home blood pressures), nonadherence to therapy, identifiable causes of hypertension (including obesity and excessive alcohol intake), and the use of any of a number of nonprescription and prescription drugs (Table 298-3). Rarely, in older patients, pseudohypertension may be related to the inability to measure blood pressure accurately in severely sclerotic arteries. This condition is suggested if the radial pulse remains palpable despite occlusion of the brachial artery by the cuff (Osler maneuver). The actual blood pressure can be determined by direct intra-arterial measurement. Evaluation of patients with" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155243", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.011465936739659368, "content": "during this process. The arm being measured should be supported on a flat surface at the level of the heart. Blood pressure measurement should be done in a quiet room so the medical professional checking the blood pressure can hear the Korotkoff sounds while listening to the brachial artery with a stethoscope for accurate blood pressure measurements. The blood pressure cuff should be deflated slowly (2-3 mmHg per second) while listening for the Korotkoff sounds. The bladder should be emptied before a person's blood pressure is measured since this can increase blood pressure by up to 15/10 mmHg. Multiple blood pressure readings (at least two) spaced 1–2 minutes apart should be obtained to ensure accuracy. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring over 12 to 24 hours is the most accurate method to confirm the diagnosis. An exception to this is those with very high blood pressure readings especially when there is poor organ function." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_85268", "title": "White coat hypertension", "score": 0.01138425519461516, "content": "White coat hypertension (WHT), more commonly known as white coat syndrome, is a form of labile hypertension in which people exhibit a blood pressure level above the normal range, in a clinical setting, although they do not exhibit it in other settings. It is believed that the phenomenon is due to anxiety experienced during a clinic visit. The patient's daytime ambulatory blood pressure is used as a reference as it takes into account ordinary levels of daily stress. Many problems have been incurred in the diagnosis and treatment of white coat hypertension. Masked hypertension (MH) is the contrasting phenomenon, whereby a patient's blood pressure is above the normal range during daily living but not in a clinic setting. Diagnosis In studies, white coat hypertension can be defined as the presence of a defined hypertensive average blood pressure in a clinic setting, although it isn't present when the patient is at home." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0550_1645", "title": "Characteristics of resistant hypertension determined by self-measured blood pressure at home and office blood pressure measurements: the J-HOME study.", "score": 0.011197141155449671, "content": "To diagnose resistant hypertension using self-measured blood pressure (BP) at home and office BP, and to evaluate the characteristics of resistant hypertensive patients. The subjects were 528 hypertensive patients taking at least three or more different antihypertensive drugs. Subjects were classified into four groups (controlled hypertension, isolated office resistant hypertension, isolated home resistant hypertension and sustained resistant hypertension) on the basis of the cut-off values of home BP (135/85 mmHg) and office BP (140/90 mmHg). The relationship between each resistant hypertension group and various factors was analysed using univariate and multivariate analyses. Of the 528 patients, 17.8% were classified with controlled hypertension, 16.1% with isolated office resistant hypertension, 23.5% with isolated home resistant hypertension and 42.6% with sustained resistant hypertension. The presence of hypercholesterolemia was found to have a significant and independent association with isolated office resistant hypertension. Higher office systolic blood pressure (SBP), a past history of ischaemic heart disease, and a lower prescription rate of potassium-sparing diuretics were found to have a significant and independent association with isolated home resistant hypertension. Patients with sustained resistant hypertension had a significantly lower prescription rate of potassium-sparing diuretics than those with controlled hypertension. The present study demonstrated that resistant hypertension is mediated at least partly by the white-coat effect. Home BP measurements and other relevant factors associated with resistant hypertension, such as relatively higher office SBP, type of drugs prescribed, and cardiovascular complications, should be taken into account for the diagnosis and treatment of resistant hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en189_41664", "title": "Prehypertension", "score": 0.010700757575757575, "content": "Prehypertension, also known as high normal blood pressure and borderline hypertensive (BH), is an American medical classification for cases where a person's blood pressure is elevated above normal, but not to the level considered hypertension (high blood pressure). Prehypertension is blood pressure readings with a systolic pressure from 120 to 139 mm Hg or a diastolic pressure from 80 to 89 mm Hg. Readings greater than or equal to 140/90 mm Hg are considered hypertension. Classification of blood pressure is based upon two or more readings at two or more separate occasions separated by at least one week. The seventh report of the Joint National Committee (JNC 7) proposed the new labeling for elevated blood pressure values below 140/90 to more accurately communicate the tendency of blood pressure to rise with age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0265_9989", "title": "Home blood pressure: variability, comparison with office readings and proposal for reference values. Groupe de la Mesure, French Society of Hypertension.", "score": 0.01063945875163684, "content": "A multicentre study was performed on 390 healthy subjects (210 male, 180 female) to evaluate home blood pressure versus office blood pressure. The patients, aged 20-59 years, not on antihypertensive treatment, were not preselected by blood pressure levels. Blood pressure was measured in the doctor's office, using a mercury manometer at the fifth, sixth and seventh minute of rest, and at home by self-measurement using a validated electronic oscillometric device at the fifth, sixth and seventh minute of rest, in the morning and evening, on three consecutive days. The analysis of office and home measurements at the fifth, sixth and seventh minute of rest showed a significant decrease in blood pressure, mostly between the fifth and sixth minute. There was no significant variation in home pressure over the three consecutive days of measurement. Blood pressures were significantly higher in the evening than in the morning; the mean differences were 3 mmHg for systolic and 1.5 mmHg for diastolic blood pressure. Compared with office blood pressure measurement, home measurement provided significantly lower systolic and diastolic blood pressure means. Of the subjects, 78% showed a higher systolic and 69.9% a higher diastolic blood pressure with office measurement than with home measurement. Systolic and diastolic blood pressure differences were non-significantly higher for females than for males and did not differ with age. The comparison of the office and home measurement distributions allowed us to propose reference values for home blood pressure measurement. These were established by choosing blood pressure at the identical percentile for home measurement as we found for office measurement using the World Health Organization criteria (140/90 and 160/95 mmHg). Using this approach, the upper limit for normotension by home measurement would be 127/83 mmHg and for hypertension 147/86 mmHg. Although this approach has no prognostic value, it could be useful for the interpretation of home blood pressure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_13890", "title": "[Accuracy and precision in blood pressure measurement. Comparative study of home self-measurement with measurement in the clinic and out-patient monitoring].", "score": 0.010212537779077702, "content": "To compare accuracy and precision of self-measurement blood pressure (SMBP) at home, as a diagnosis method of hypertension, with mercury measurement in office and ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). A comparison study of diagnosis methods.Setting.Hypertension Unit in the Hospital General de Albacete. By means of a non-probabilistic sample, selected from consecutive cases that went to the unit, a 64 pharmacologically untreated hypertensive sample older than 18 has been selected. All subjects were taken 3 measurements with mercury from a validated nurse in office, and were also taught to make 20 self-measurements of blood pressure in the morning at the office and 20 self-measurements in the evening at home with an automatic device Omron 705-CP, during the same day they were set a Takeda TM-2420 device programmed to measure their blood pressure for 24 hours. All proceedings were repeated 4 weeks later. Mean blood pressure values have been compared with every diagnosis method and sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive value have been studied in every method reproducibility in every method has been analyzed. Subjects were 29 men and 35 women with a mean of 53 years old. The mean values of office blood pressure (OBP) have been higher than SMBP and ABPM in the two periods of the study. SMBP has had a higher specificity and predictive value than OBP. Reproducibility of repeated SMBP in standardized conditions is similar to ABPM. With a minimum program self-measurements at home, in standardized conditions, they can be considered as an accurate technique in the diagnosis of hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en463_30853", "title": "Blood pressure measurement", "score": 0.010155857214680744, "content": "Ambulatory blood pressure devices take readings regularly (e.g. every half-hour throughout the day and night). They have been used to exclude measurement problems like white-coat hypertension and provide more reliable estimates of usual blood pressure and cardiovascular risk. Blood pressure readings outside of a clinical setting are usually slightly lower in the majority of people; however studies that quantified the risks from hypertension and the benefits of lowering blood pressure have mostly been based on readings in a clinical environment. Use of ambulatory measurements is not widespread but guidelines developed by the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence and the British Hypertension Society recommended that 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring should be used for diagnosis of hypertension. Health economic analysis suggested that this approach would be cost effective compared with repeated clinic measurements. Not all home blood pressure machines are" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155242", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.009947655350665711, "content": "For an accurate diagnosis of hypertension to be made, it is essential for proper blood pressure measurement technique to be used. Improper measurement of blood pressure is common and can change the blood pressure reading by up to 10 mmHg, which can lead to misdiagnosis and misclassification of hypertension. Correct blood pressure measurement technique involves several steps. Proper blood pressure measurement requires the person whose blood pressure is being measured to sit quietly for at least five minutes which is then followed by application of a properly fitted blood pressure cuff to a bare upper arm. The person should be seated with their back supported, feet flat on the floor, and with their legs uncrossed. The person whose blood pressure is being measured should avoid talking or moving during this process. The arm being measured should be supported on a flat surface at the level of the heart. Blood pressure measurement should be done in a quiet room so the medical professional" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0558_1592", "title": "[Different uses of home blood pressure measurement in the diagnosis and monitoring of hypertension].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "To find differences between measurements of clinical blood pressure and self-monitored home blood pressure measurement (HBPM). Descriptive study developed in a general population census. Primary care. A total of 1411 subjects &gt; or =18 years old were selected by stratified randomized sampling. A skilled nurse made 3 clinical blood pressure (CBP) measurements, and trained patients or their relatives in HBPM, doing 12 in one day. CBP and HBPM employed an electronic device (OMRON 705CP). A total of 12 HBPM from 1184 subjects (52% women) were completed, with a mean age of 47.6 (SD, 17.2); 195 subjects were known to have hypertension. White-coat effect was diagnosed in 14.9% of subjects with normal pressure, 22.3% of hypertense patients treated and 57.6% of subjects with suspicion of isolated clinical hypertension. Possible isolated clinical hypertension was diagnosed in 10% of subjects without hypertension. White Coat normal pressure was found in 2.3% of untreated subjects and 4.7% of subjects with treated hypertension. 20.7% of subjects with hypertension poorly controlled in the clinic were considered pseudo-refractory (11.4% at the end of dosage interval). 77% of subjects conducted HBPM on their own and 89% thought it easy to do so. Incorporation of HBPM into daily medical practice could avoid 20%-30% of possible mistakes in diagnosis and monitoring of hypertense patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0554_13764", "title": "[Home blood pressure monitoring in addition to office blood pressure determination is useful in patients with systolic hypertension before their inclusion into a drug trial].", "score": 0.009829367940398941, "content": "In patients with uncontrolled systolic hypertension, to estimate the value of home blood pressure monitoring in addition to office blood pressure for inclusion in a trial. 80 patients with systolic hypertension, defined as SBP &gt; or =140 mmHg and pulse pressure &gt; or =60 mmHg, were treated for 4 weeks with a thiazide diuretic at usual dose (25 mg HCTZ or 1.5 mg indapamide or methyclothiazide 5 mg). Blood pressure was measured using an automatic monitor (Omron M6) at office and at home in the 3 days prior the visit. Subjects with an uncontrolled hypertension were included in the second part of the trial only if there fulfilled inclusion criteria: office SBP &gt; or =140 mmHg and home SBP &gt; or =135 mmHg (mean of 18 measurements obtained on 3 consecutive days) and office pulse pressure &gt; or =60 mmHg. After 4 weeks with diuretic treatment, 62% of patients fulfilled 3 criteria and were included in the second part of the trial. It was observed 76% of patients with office SBP &gt; or =140 mmHg, 72% with office pulse pressure &gt; or =60 mmHg and 70% with both office SBP and PP criteria. However, only 67% of patients had home SBP &gt; or =135 mmHg. Discrepancy between office and home SBP was observed and subjects with a white coat hypertension was noticed in 14% and masked hypertension in 5%. If patients with systolic hypertension have to be included into a drug trial because there are uncontrolled, home blood pressure monitoring in addition to office blood pressure is a very useful criteria for inclusion because misclassifications due to white coat or masked hypertension is frequent in these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_4812", "title": "Value of patient-recorded home blood pressure series in distinguishing sustained from office hypertension: effects on diagnosis and treatment of mild hypertension. Bath District Hypertension Study Group.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To identify the incidence and magnitude of office hypertension and determine its effect on diagnosis and treatment, 104 patients with a systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 160 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 95 mmHg on three consecutive office visits recorded a home BP series with an electronic sphygmomanometer. At the fourth office visit the blood pressure was measured independently by the patient and doctor using electronic and mercury sphygmomanometers, respectively, and compared with the mean blood pressure of the home series. In 80% of patients, the fourth office blood pressure was higher than the mean blood pressure of the home series. An office rise greater than or equal to 10/5 mmHg occurred in some 60% of patients, greater than or equal to 20/10 mmHg in 36% and 30/15 mmHg in 19% of patients. Office falls in blood pressure occurred in 20% of patients but averaged 3/2 mmHg. Treatment decisions based on the mean blood pressure of the home series resulted in treatment not being started in 25 patients (24%) who would have received treatment on their fourth office blood pressures. A patient-recorded home series provides a representative sample of blood pressure distinguishing patients with sustained hypertension from those with office hypertension and reducing the over diagnosis and over treatment of mild hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_76824", "title": "Cardiology", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Lifestyle changes and medications can lower blood pressure and decrease the risk of health complications. Lifestyle changes include weight loss, decreased salt intake, physical exercise, and a healthy diet. If lifestyle changes are not sufficient then blood pressure medications are used. Up to three medications can control blood pressure in 90% of people. The treatment of moderate to severe high arterial blood pressure (defined as >160/100 mmHg) with medications is associated with an improved life expectancy and reduced morbidity. The effect of treatment of blood pressure between 140/90 mmHg and 160/100 mmHg is less clear, with some reviews finding benefit and others finding a lack of evidence for benefit. High blood pressure affects between 16 and 37% of the population globally. In 2010 hypertension was believed to have been a factor in 18% (9.4 million) deaths. Essential vs Secondary hypertension" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_18761", "title": "[Frequency of improper diagnosis of hypertension].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The aim of this work is to estimate the real prevalence of hypertension in a population declared hypertensive by general practitioners. This prospective study has lasted 30 months from October 1994 to March 1997). It has concerned 2,151 patients that had been declared hypertensive by general practitioners. Each patient had 2 visits at 15 days interval. During each visit the blood pressure (BP) is measured 4 times at 5 min interval with a mercury tensiometer. The patient remains supine for 20 min. Patients declared normotensive on these 8 measurements are controlled once every 6 months. Those that are declared hypertensive are distributed in 2 groups: the patients that have a systolic blood pressure (SBP) superior to 160 mm of mercury (mmHg) and/or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) superior to 95 mmHg are treated with the habitual follow-up. Those that have a SBP and DBP between 140-160 mmHg and 90-95 mmHg have a control visit at the end of the first and the third month. After this period patients whose BP remains between 140-160 mmHg and 90-95 mmHg have an ambulatory blood pressure measurement (ABPM). This study included 1,635 women and 516 men. Average age was 54 +/- 11 years. The average of 8 measurements of SBP/DBP was 148.3 +/- 22.5/93 +/- 13 mmHg. After 8 measurements, out of 2,151 patients, 37.8% (841 patients) were declared normotensive and 62.2% (1,337 patients) had a SBP and/or DBP &gt; 140/90 mmHg. This group was controlled after one month and 3 months. A subgroup (254 patients) was declared normotensive, and the 588 patients whose BP remained between 140-160 mmHg and 90-95 mmHg had an ABPM : 481 (48%) were then declared normotensive and 307 (52%) were declared normotensive patients. After repeated controls, with the use of ABPM, only 37.3% were truly hypertensive. This study confirms that a long follow-up is necessary before labelling a patients as hypertensive. BP can remain abnormal for weeks and months. A large group of \"hypertensive\" patients are normotensive people with a white coat effect or so labelled because of errors in technique or the absence of a sufficient delay so that BP returns to normal." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_85272", "title": "White coat hypertension", "score": 0.009666560524041305, "content": "Recent studies showed that home blood pressure monitoring is as accurate as a 24-hour ambulatory monitoring in determining blood pressure levels. Researchers at the University of Turku, Finland studied 98 patients with untreated hypertension. They compared patients using a home blood pressure device and those wearing a 24-hour ambulatory monitor. Researcher Dr. Niiranen said that \"home blood pressure measurement can be used effectively for guiding anti-hypertensive treatment\". Dr. Stergiou added that home tracking of blood pressure \"is more convenient and also less costly than ambulatory monitoring.\" Use of breathing patterns has been proposed as a technique for identifying white coat hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en575_14311", "title": "Labile hypertension", "score": 0.009637188208616781, "content": "Labile hypertension occurs when there are unexpected changes in blood pressure. The term can be used to describe when people have blood pressure measurements that abruptly fluctuates from being abnormally high, approximately 130/80mm Hg or over and returns to its normal range. Patients who have labile hypertension may have higher cardiac output and lower total peripheral resistance than others. Behavioural and lifestyle factors are the two main factors that causes labile hypertension to occur. Extrinsic factors such as physical activities, insomnia and intake of sodium are likely to increase the occurrence of labile hypertension. Reduced arterial compliance and baroreflex failure may contribute to trigger a response as well. Diagnosis is typically by 24 hours ambulatory blood pressure monitoring to which measurements can be taken at home without having to visit to the physician’s office." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_24824", "title": "Management of hypertension", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Hypertension is managed using lifestyle modification and antihypertensive medications. Hypertension is usually treated to achieve a blood pressure of below 140/90 mmHg to 160/100 mmHg. According to one 2003 review, reduction of the blood pressure by 5 mmHg can decrease the risk of stroke by 34% and of ischaemic heart disease by 21% and reduce the likelihood of dementia, heart failure, and mortality from cardiovascular disease. Blood pressure target For most people, recommendations are to reduce blood pressure to less than or equal to somewhere between 140/90 mmHg and 160/100 mmHg. In general, for people with elevated blood pressure, attempting to achieve lower levels of blood pressure than the recommended 140/90 mmHg will create more harm than benefits, in particular for older people. In those with diabetes or kidney disease, some recommend levels below 120/80 mmHg; however, evidence does not support these lower levels." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 202 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 31 ] ], "text": "The hormonal profile we are told is in menopausal range (FSH >20; estradiol <5) and the patient has systemic vasomotor symptoms. Therefore, it would be more appropriate to administer systemic estrogens." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Benzodiazepines.", "2": "Vaginal estrogens.", "3": "Oral estrogens and progestogens in continuous regimen.", "4": "Transdermal estrogens in a continuous regimen.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0673_22461", "title": "A 60-month non-comparative study on bleeding profiles with the levonorgestrel intrauterine system from the late transition period to estrogen supplemented menopause.", "score": 0.015151515151515152, "content": "The primary aim of this study was to assess the transition from using the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG IUS, 20 μg LNG/24 h) for reproductive-age contraception to using it as menopausal-age endometrial protection during estrogen replacement therapy (ERT). The transfer process was evaluated by assessment of the vaginal bleeding pattern. Continuation rates were also recorded. Open, multicentre, non-comparative study was conducted in 11 menopausal centres in Finland (3), The Netherlands (4), Belgium (2) and UK (2). Three hundred and ninety-four healthy women aged 46-51 years at entry with regular menstrual cycles, but without any climacteric symptoms, and who were willing to start oral or transdermal estrogen treatment for climacteric symptoms. If by 48 months a woman was not menopausal, she was not eligible for the ERT phase. Bleeding patterns were recorded in 90-day reference periods. One hundred and sixty-eight women were eligible for the ERT phase. The mean ± SD number of bleeding/spotting days was highest (49 ± 19 days) in the first 90-day reference period in the contraceptive phase. For subjects who switched to ERT this number was 10 ± 13 days in the last contraceptive reference period and decreased to 9 ± 12 days in the first and 6 ± 10 days in the last 90-day reference period of the ERT phase. For both spotting and bleeding days there was no statistically significant difference between the last contraceptive and the first reference period of the ERT phase. In general, the results indicate that continuing with the LNG IUS from contraception to ERT has no adverse effects on the vaginal bleeding profile, and show a positive effect of the combined estrogen and LNG IUS treatment on the quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0519_7254", "title": "Continuous combined parenteral estrogen substitution and intrauterine progestogen delivery: the ideal HST combination?", "score": 0.014174972314507199, "content": "To evaluate ease of insertion, acceptability and endometrial safety of a novel, miniature intrauterine, T-shaped, levonorgestrel (LNG)-releasing intrauterine system (IUS), Femilis Slim LNG-IUS (Contrel Research, Belgium), combined with parenteral estrogen substitution therapy (EST) in postmenopausal women. A prospective, non-comparative, study in postmenopausal women. A 3.0 cm long and 2.0 mm wide coaxial fibrous delivery system, delivering approximately 20 microg/day of levonorgestrel (LNG) was used. The drug compartment is provided with crossarms fixed to the upper part of the drug delivery rod. The calculated duration of release of the system is at least 5 years. The majority of women received percutaneous 17beta estradiol (Oestrogel, Besins Int., Belgium), 1.5 mg daily on a continuous basis, which provides sufficient blood levels of estrogen in most women to suppress climacteric symptoms and protection against bone loss. ease of insertion, retention and side effects of the T-LNG Slim IUS. endometrial safety assessed by transvaginal ultrasound examination and by endometrial biopsy in a subset of women. One hundred and seventy insertions were performed in postmenopausal women with median age of age 56.6 (range 43.5-80.3). Insertion was easy in 161 (94.2%) and difficult in 9 (5.3%) women. Pain at insertion was rated as none in 57 women (33.5%), mild in 105 (61.7%), moderate in 7 (4.1%) and severe in 1 (0.5%) woman. The system was well retained in the uterus as no expulsions occurred. At the time of study analysis, the total number of women-months was 1797.5. Ninety-five women had the T-LNG-IUS in place for periods in excess of 1 year. The study was well followed-up with lost-to-follow-up rate (defined as no follow-up during 12 months) of zero at the time of study analysis. The number of women continuing the method was 160 (94.1%) including four women which were released from follow-up for various non-medical related reasons. The histological examinations conducted in 105 women showed predominantly inactive endometrium characterized by a pseudo-decidual reaction of the endometrial stroma with endometrial atrophy. The mean thickness (double-layer) of the endometrium was 3.3 mm (range 2-5 mm) which correlated well with the histology results. The results suggest that the small T-LNG-IUS is easy to insert in most postmenopausal women without anaesthesia and dilatation of the cervix. It is well tolerated, well accepted and effective in suppressing the endometrium during EST. The lack of expulsions of the device in this study is attributed to the optimal design characteristics of the IUS, the absence of uterine bleeding and absent or reduced contractility of the uterus. The study confirms earlier studies conducted with other LNG-releasing systems used for endometrial suppression during EST. The ease of insertion of the small LNG-IUS could be an important incentive to expand the use of the continuous combined regimen with local delivery of the progestogen. It could be a method of choice for endometrial suppression in women using EST with fundamental advantages to systemically applied progestogens which have been the subject of considerable debate as reported in the recent literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0044_20079", "title": "Long-term treatment with transcutaneous estradiol and oral medroxyprogesterone acetate.", "score": 0.012643417874396136, "content": "In an open prospective study with therapeutic monitoring, 34 women with climacteric symptoms, FSH &gt; 40 IU/L and LH &gt; 25 IU/L were treated for 12 months with an estradiol-depot-patch (Estraderm TTS) 50 micrograms twice a week and medroxyprogesterone acetate 10 mg tablets from 12th to 25th day of cycle. During the first months a significant improvement was seen in hot flushes and other climacteric inconveniences in terms of Kupperman's menopause index. During the study period FSH and LH were suppressed and the estrogen values were normalized. The fraction of free estradiol compared to protein bound estradiol remained unchanged during the whole treatment. The serum-lipids and serum-SHBG at inclusion were within normal limits and did not change during 12 months of treatment. Thus from these parameters no sign of any liver induction was seen. Ten patients had short term skin symptoms while four withdrew from the study because of persistent skin symptoms. Nine patients withdrew from the study, in five cases this was related to the therapy while in the other four it was due to other causes. Twenty-five (74%) women wished to continue the treatment after 12 months." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_6486", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.012565237122759247, "content": "Table 34.1 Hormone Therapy Options Table 34.1 Continued 17β-estradiol (E) + levonorgestrel (P) Climara Pro 0.045 mg E + 0.0015 mg P once weekly E, estrogen; P, progestin. Products available in the United States. Table modified and used with permission; North American Menopause Society; www.menopause.org. also effectively treats hot flashes for many women. Low-dose oral esterified and conjugated estrogens (CE) (0.3 mg daily), oral estradiol (0.5 mg daily), and transdermal estradiol (0.025 and 0.014 mg weekly) often are effective and associated with minimal side effects and endometrial stimulation (15–17). Progestin therapy must be given concurrently if a woman has not had a hysterectomy, although with low-dose estrogen therapy, intermittent progestin treatment may be an option." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_18159", "title": "Endometrial safety after 5 years of continuous combined transdermal estrogen and intrauterine levonorgestrel delivery for postmenopausal hormone substitution.", "score": 0.011313600782778864, "content": "To investigate endometrial histology and thickness of the endometrium after long-term use of continuous transdermal estrogen substitution combined with intrauterine release of levonorgestrel (LNG) in postmenopausal women. A 5-year non-comparative prospective clinical trial. Out of 182 symptomatic postmenopausal women using estrogen substitution therapy (EST) combined with a novel T-shaped LNG-releasing intrauterine system (Femilis Slim LNG-IUS), to prevent endometrial proliferation and bleeding, only those women (n=102) who used two consecutive LNG-IUSs, were isolated with the aim to study the long-term effects on the endometrium. The mean age of the women was 57 years (range 47-71). The majority of women received percutaneous 17beta estradiol, 1.5mg daily, or an equivalent dose by patch or orally, on a continuous basis. Endometrial histology and ultrasonographic evidence of endometrial suppression, after a period of approximately 5 years of use. The mean duration of use of the regimen was 70 months (range 25-98). The dominant endometrial histologic picture was that of inactive endometrium characterized by glandular atrophy and stroma decidualization (Kurman classification 5b). No cases of endometrial hyperplasia were found. On transvaginal ultrasound, this corresponds with a thin endometrium (&lt; or = 5 mm). The results of this 5-year study in 102 postmenopausal women using EST demonstrates that the LNG-IUS effectively opposes the estrogenic effect on the endometrium resulting in strong suppression during the entire period of EST. Due to its high efficacy and absence of systemic effects on organ tissues (e.g., breasts), target delivery in the uterine cavity could be a preferred route to administer a progestagen in women using EST." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en511_8966", "title": "List of estrogens available in the United States", "score": 0.010712915776206915, "content": "Estradiol/progesterone (TX-001HR), a combination of estradiol and progesterone in oil-filled capsules, is currently pending approval. Transdermal patches Estradiol and levonorgestrel (Climara Pro) – 45 μg/24 hours / 15 μg/24 hours Estradiol and norethisterone acetate (Combipatch) – 50 μg/24 hours / 0.14 mg/24 hours; 50 μg/24 hours / 0.25 mg/24 hours Combined with other medications Oral pills Conjugated estrogens and bazedoxifene acetate (Duavee) – 20 mg / 0.45 mg See also List of sex-hormonal medications available in the United States List of estrogens List of estrogen esters Oral contraceptive formulations Estradiol-containing oral contraceptive Notes References External links For Women: Menopause—Medicines to Help You – U.S. Food and Drug Administration Estrogens Hormonal contraception" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_6485", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010706835760831443, "content": "Systemic estrogen therapy is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms and the only therapy currently approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for this indication (see Table 34.1 for available hormone therapy formulations). Although standard doses are usually effective, younger women and those with recent oophorectomy may require higher doses. Healthy, nonsmoking women in the perimenopausal transition who are experiencing bothersome hot flashes but still menstruating may benefit from oral contraceptives. The supraphysiologic doses of estrogens and progestins in oral contraceptives effectively treat vasomotor symptoms and provide cycle control. Low-dose estrogen therapy Table 34.1 Hormone Therapy Options Table 34.1 Continued 17β-estradiol (E) + levonorgestrel (P) Climara Pro 0.045 mg E + 0.0015 mg P once weekly" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_18136", "title": "Adult-onset hypogonadotropic hypogonadism caused by aberrant expression of aromatase in an adrenocortical adenocarcinoma.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Estrogen-secreting adrenal cancers are extremely rare, with feminizing symptoms attributed to aromatase expression in the adrenal tumor. We describe a case of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism as a consequence of aberrant aromatase expression in a patient with adrenocortical adenocarcinoma. A 54 year-old man presented with a two month history of gynecomastia and reduced libido. Endocrine biochemistry at presentation showed hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (LH 2.4 U/L, FSH &lt;1.0 IU/L, testosterone 2.8 nmol/L) with increased serum estrone (E(1), 821 pmol/L) and estradiol (E(2), 797 pmol/L) and subclinical ACTH-independent hypercortisolism (serum cortisol post 1mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, 291 nmol/L). A right adrenal mass was identified on CT scanning and the patient underwent an open adrenalectomy. Post-operative evaluation showed normalization of serum levels of E(1) (95 pmol/L), E(2 )(109 pmol/L), testosterone (11.4 nmol/L), LH (4.1 U/L) and FSH (5.9 IU/L), and of cortisol dynamics. Immunohistochemistry of the adrenal cancer confirmed aberrant expression of aromatase in most, although not all, carcinoma cells. Transcripts associated with utilization of promoters II, I.1 and I.3 were prominently represented in the tumor aromatase mRNA. This case highlights that clinical features of feminizing adrenocortical carcinomas can be secondary to estrogen production by aberrantly transcribed and translated aromatase within the tumor. Even in males, gonadotropin secretion is subject to predominantly estrogen-mediated feedback-inhibition. The diagnosis of adrenocortical adenocarcinoma should be considered in men presenting with low testosterone and gonadotropins, particularly in the presence of feminizing features." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0053_1510", "title": "[Effects of various contraceptives on laboratory parameters in diagnosis of thyroid gland function with special reference to the free hormones FT4 and FT3].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The effect of different oral contraceptives with an estrogen content of 30-50 micrograms ethinyloestradiol on thyroid hormones and the binding protein TBG was investigated and quantified for 200 women. The sera of 220 normal persons were analysed to get normal values for T3, T4, FT4, Ft3, TBG and TSH. Under the influence of antiovulatory hormone treatment the thyroxin binding globulin increased to values above 32 mg/l in 65% of all euthyroid women. The median for T4 changed from 97 to 120 nmol/l, respectively from 2.3 to 2.8 nmol/l for T3. We think the combination of TSH, FT4 and T3 to be the best analytical tool for differential diagnosis of hyperthyreose. The FT4 level was nearly independent of variations in TBG concentration, so we can accept the normal range from 10-28 pmol/l for patients with contraceptives as well. In 16% of these euthyroid women the T3 level proved to be in the hyperthyroid range with values above 3.6 nmol/l. The FT3 determination is stronger influenced by protein changes caused by oestrogens than FT4 and should not be accepted as a favourite parameter for patients with oral contraceptives." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_11896", "title": "Progestogen (medication)", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In contrast to progestogen-only birth control, the addition of progestins to oral estrogen therapy, including in combined birth control pills and menopausal hormone therapy, is associated with a higher risk of VTE than with oral estrogen therapy alone. The risk of VTE is increased by about 2-fold or less with such regimens in menopausal hormone therapy and by 2- to 4-fold with combined birth control pills containing ethinylestradiol, both relative to non-use. In contrast to oral estrogen therapy, parenteral estradiol, such as with transdermal estradiol, is not associated with a higher risk of VTE. This is likely due to its lack of first-pass effect in the liver. Research is mixed on whether addition of progestins to transdermal estradiol is associated with a greater risk of VTE, with some studies finding no increase in risk and others finding higher risk. Unlike the case of transdermal estradiol, VTE risk is not lower with ethinylestradiol-containing contraceptive vaginal rings and" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0506_18897", "title": "Effect of hormonal replacement therapy on autonomic regulation of the heart.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Increased incidence of cardiovascular diseases frequently reported in postmenopausal women may follow disturbed activity of cardiac autonomic nervous system (cANS). Our purpose was to evaluate the influence of continuous combined hormonal replacement therapy (ccHRT) on cANS reflected by parameters of heart rate variability (HRV). Thirty four healthy postmenopausal women aged 56+/-6 years (7+/-4 years after last menorrhoea) were divided into 2 equal groups--women receiving ccHRT (serum estradiol--81+/-75 ng/l, FSH--45+/-27 IU/l) and control group (serum estradiol--31+/-45 ng/l, FSH--74+/-32 IU/l). The ccHRT women have been receiving daily 50 mg of 17beta-estradiol (Oesclim 50, Fournier) in transcutaneous depot and 5 mg of oral progesterone (Duphaston, Solway Pharma) for recent 1.4+/-0.6 years. All recordings began at 8.00 a.m. and were carried out in supine position and resting conditions (room temperature 24 degrees C). The protocol applied consisted of 5 min. of resting ECG recording, 5 min. of deep breathing (DB) test, 6 min of sham feeding (SF) and 5 min. of ECG recording after SF. Analysis of the resting HRV didn't reveal any significant differences between the compared groups. In the control group during DB increases of mean LF (455+/-500 vs. 1381+/-1540; p&lt;0.001) and LF/HF (1.5+/-1.1 vs. 5.4+/-4.3; p=0.002) ratio were observed. No influence of SF on HRV was noticed in this group. In the ccHRT women significant increases of mean LF (189+/-125 vs. 728+/-929; p=0.02) and LF/HF ratio (3.1+/-4.8 vs. 9+/-7.3; p=0.002) were observed during DB. SF revealed significant increases of mean RR (841+/-92 vs. 918+/-82; p&lt;0.001), SDNN (35+/-14 vs. 43+/-20; p=0.02), LF (189+/-125 vs. 372+/-434; p=0.03) and HF (150+/-133 vs. 300+/-332; p=0.01). Our results revealed increased reactivity of the HRV parameters to vagal stimulation by DB and SF in the postmenopausal women receiving ccHRT that suggests increased activity of cANS in the analysed group. Application of ccHRT restores the premenopausal reactivity of cANS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_5293", "title": "The pattern of gonadotropin and estradiol secretion in exaggerated thelarche.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To assess the dynamics of the pituitary-ovarian axis in exaggerated thelarche, defined as premature thelarche associated with signs of systemic estrogen effects (advanced bone age and/or growth acceleration) without progression to complete puberty. Seven girls (age &lt; 2.5 years) with exaggerated thelarche, 6 girls with inactive pituitary-ovarian axis (premature adrenarche) and 21 girls with activated axis (central precocious puberty) had serum FSH, LH and E2 measured serially before and 1 to 24 h after gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist (GnRHa) administration (leuprolide, 20 micrograms/kg sc), used as a test of combined pituitary-ovarian stimulation. Although girls in the exaggerated thelarche and adrenarche group had similar [mean (SEM)] baseline FSH [3.2 (0.9) vs 1.4 (0.3) IU/l], LH [0.36 (0.1) vs 0.27 (0.02) IU/l] and E2 [20 (1.2) vs 21 (2) pmol/l] concentrations, and similar peak post-GnRHa LH concentrations [5.5 (1.1) vs 2.4 (0.5) IU/l], girls with exaggerated thelarche achieved higher peak FSH [41 (9) vs 14 (3) IU/l, p &lt; 0.01] and E2 [243 (40) vs 37 (6) pmol/l, p &lt; 0.001] concentrations after GnRHa. In comparison to patients with exaggerated thelarche, girls with precocious puberty had higher (p &lt; 0.01-0.001) baseline LH [3.6 (0.8) IU/l], baseline E2 [69(11) pmol/l], GnRHa-stimulated peak LH [68 (17) IU/l] and peak E2 [648 (58) pmol/l] concentrations, but similar FSH parameters. Girls with exaggerated thelarche exhibit substantial E2 secretory potential that can be demonstrated by GnRHa stimulation, is predominantly FSH-driven, and probably accounts for the manifestations of estrogen effect seen in these girls." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0394_9877", "title": "[Evaluation of selected X syndrome factors during hormonal replacement therapy].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Estrogen deficiency after menopause leads to characteristics changes in the hormonal profile, which may influence lipid carbohydrate and calcium-phosphate metabolism and some elements of homeostasis. To evaluate the influence of hormone replacement therapy with 2 mg estradiol valerate and 0,15 mg levonorgestrel on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism in women after menopause during 12 months of follow-up. We examined 101 women, mean age 52.9 +/- 4.6 years (range from 44 to 65). HRT was applied in 67 women whereas 34 women were without treatment. All of them had no carbohydrate disturbances. All women underwent clinical examination, and body mass index (BMI), fasting blood glucose, insulin, total cholesterol and triglycerides levels were obtained. At 1 and 2 hours after 75 g glucose challenge (75OGTT) glucose and insulin levels were obtained. During hormone replacement therapy all women noted release or significant decrease of climacteric symptoms. Total cholesterol level was decreased, whereas triglycerides did not change. After 12 months of treatment there was also a significant decrease of all factors relating to carbohydrate metabolism--fasting glucose and insulin, insulin/glucose ratio and area under glucose and insulin curves. In our study--after 6 months of follow-up fasting insulin level, area under glucose and insulin curves were increased whereas fasting blood glucose level remained unchanged. Among women without HRT there were no significant changes in selected lipid parameters and BMI. Triglyceride levels decreased (albeit insignificantly) but, total cholesterol levels did not change. After 12 months glucose level did not change, although other carbohydrate parameters were increased. 1) In the study group there was a statistically significant decrease in total cholesterol levels whereas triglycerides remained unchanged. 2) HRT we significantly decreased of insulin resistance and fasting blood glucose levels as compared with non-group HRT. 3) The present results indicate HRT-induced improvement of lipid and carbohydrate metabolism. 4) Long-term HRT is necessary to improve carbohydrate metabolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0053_6920", "title": "Human recombinant follicle-stimulating hormone induces growth of preovulatory follicles without concomitant increase in androgen and estrogen biosynthesis in a woman with isolated gonadotropin deficiency.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To evaluate the importance of luteinizing hormone (LH) for normal estrogen production and subsequent development of ovarian follicles, a woman with isolated gonadotropin deficiency (LH; 0.37 IU/L, FSH 1.2 IU/L) was monitored during recombinant human follicle-stimulating hormone (hFSHrec) administration with respect to ovarian follicular growth and steroid production. During the first week (75 IU/day hFSHrec im) a significant rise in serum FSH (4.9 IU/L) was observed in the absence of changes in serum estradiol (E2) concentrations (36-76 pmol/L). During the following five days 150 IU/day hFSHrec was administered resulting in a further increase of serum FSH levels (maximum 8.5 IU/L). Development of multiple follicles--maximum diameter 22 mm as observed by transvaginal sonography--emerged together with a minor rise in E2 levels (from 76 to 236 pmol/L) and with a minimal increase in endometrial thickness (below 6 mm). Six days following the last injection of hFSHrec, aspiration of 3 follicles (13, 15 and 18 mm) was performed and low intrafollicular androstenedione (AD) (less than 675 nmol/L) and E2 (less than 9400 pmol/L) concentrations as compared to normal follicles were found. These first data on hFSHrec administration in the human suggest that; a) FSH alone can induce growth of preovulatory follicles, b) follicle growth does occur in the presence of subnormal E2 levels, c) LH is needed for adequate AD biosynthesis as substrate for aromatase activity. This indicates that growth and steroidogenic granulosa cell activity may be differentially regulated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0098_12007", "title": "[Rational hormonal diagnosis of secondary amenorrhea].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The usefulness of the guideline recommended in 1976 by the World Health Organization (WHO) for the differential diagnosis of ovarian sterility needs critical reevaluation, since it does not take into account new aspects such as the pulsatility of GnRH secretion, androgen excess, or thyroid disorders and other phenomena related to ovarian dysfunction. In order to demonstrate the relative frequency of such phenomena, the authors examined 183 women with secondary amenorrhea of more than three months' duration (mean +/- SD = 12.7 +/- 18.4 months). The endocrine status of these women was examined under standardized conditions in two clinical endocrinology units in the cities of Hamburg and Berlin. The percentages of abnormal hormonal data (greater than mean +/- SD + gray zone) were as follows: testosterone (T) 39.9%; DHEA sulfate (DS) 29.5%; prolactin (PRL) 18.0%; TSH 11.5%; FSH or LH 26.8%; estradiol (E2) 30.1%. Among 96 patients with increased T and/or DS (52.5% of all patients), 53 patients (55.2%) did not show any clinical signs of androgenization (hirsutism, acne). Retrospective evaluation of all data revealed that a stepwise diagnostic procedure would have resulted in the following cumulative percentages of hormonal abnormalities: (1) T = 39.9%; (2) +DS = 52.5%; (3) +PRL = 60.2%; (4) +LH/FSH = 82.0%; (5) +E2 = 91.2%; (6) +TSH = 92.3%. Only in 7.7% of all patients were all hormonal parameters within normal ranges. Individual case analysis showed that 52.5% of all patients had hyperandrogenemia, while 18% had hypothalamic amenorrhea without any other pathologic condition; 17.5% had hyperprolactinemia and 3.3% primary ovarian insufficiency. Another 4.9% had hypothyroidism only, while 1.1% had exclusively hyperthyroidism. Combined hormonal deviations were found in 24% of all patients. Considering the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhea from an economic point of view, one comes to the conclusion that direct and indirect expenditures are similar in magnitude, no matter whether one prefers a conventional stepwise procedure or a one-step hormonal analysis encompassing all potentially relevant hormones (DM 859.00 + 10 weeks waiting time vs. DM 827.50 + 1 week waiting time). Androgen excess is much more frequent than was believed; hirsutism and/or acne by no means necessarily occur in cases of androgen excess. Hyperprolactinemia is less frequent than hyperandrogenemia. Thyroid status should be evaluated in all women with functional amenorrhea. The stepwise diagnostic procedure as recommended by the WHO is time-consuming, complicated, and sometimes incomplete in the diagnostic work-up, with obvious potential disadvantages for therapy.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_9134", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.0094970722707949, "content": "Phosphate (mg/dL) 2.5-4.3 3.1r-4.6 2.5-4.6 2.8-4.6 3,r26,r33,r39,r42 Potassium (mEq/L) 3.5-5.0 3.6-5.0 3.3-5.0 3.3-5.1 20,r26,r29,r39,r42,r63,r66 Protein, total (g/dL) 6.7-8.6 6.2-7.6 5.7-6.9 5.6-6.7 26,r29,r42 Sodium (mEq/L) 136-146 133-148 129-148 130-148 17,26,29,39,42,63,66 Urea nitrogen (mg/dL) 7-20 7-1r2 3-1r3 3-1r1 20,r39,r42 Uric acid (mg/dL) 2.5-5.6d 2.0-4.2 2.4-4.9 3.1r-6.3 17,r39,r42 Aldosterone (ng/dL) 2-9 6-104 9-104 15-101 21,r34,69 Angiotensin-converting 9-67 1-38 1-36 1-39 20, 54 Cortisol (19/dL) 0-25 7-1r9 10-42 12-50 42,r69 4-6 4-7 48,r49,r59 Thyroxine, total (T 4) 5.4-1r1.7 6.5-10.r1 7.5-1r0.3 6.3-9.7 29,r42 C-reactive protein (CRP) 0.2-3.0 Not reported 0.4-20.3 0.4-8.1 28 Dehydroepiandrosterone 1.3-6.8e 2.0-16.5 0.9-7.8 0.8-6.5 52 sulfate (DHEAS) Estradiol (pg/mU <20-443dJ 188--2497 1278-7192 6137-3460 1.3,52 Progesterone (ng/mL) <1-20d 8-48 99-342 13,n52 Prolactin (ng/mL) 0-20d 36-2n13 11n0-330 137-372 3,n13,n38,n49" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0860_107", "title": "Why perimenopausal women should consider to use a levonorgestrel intrauterine system.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The use of a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is useful in preventing pregnancy and for the treatment of menstrual disturbances. A smooth or symptom-free transition to and through menopause is possible when LNG-IUS is combined with estrogen therapy. Unfortunately the majority of physicians are generally unaware of this usefulness combined hormonal therapy in the pre-, peri- and postmenopausal women. Based on long-term clinical experience with LNG-IUS in the form of Femilis®, 104 women where followed from the premenopause through the menopausal transition into the postmenopause. These perimenopausal women received supplemental 17 β-estradiol by gel or patch, or orally as estradiol valerate. Patients received one or two separate Femilis insertions at 5 year intervals. Main outcome measures included acceptability and continued use of the combined regimen for the treatment of climacteric symptoms and for prevention of cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis and other adverse effects caused by estrogen deprivation. The average age at insertion was 48 years (range 28-58) and the total duration of use was 137 months (range 80-161). The Femilis LNG-IUS was well tolerated as the number of removals for LNG-IUS-related reasons was low. The LNG-IUS was well retained in the uterine cavity as no expulsions were observed. Seven women were lost to follow-up. Eighty-six women (82%) opted for replacement of an LNG-IUS at expiry after 5 years and continued with the estrogen therapy. Intrauterine progestogen delivery for endometrial suppression in combination with estrogen therapy in the symptomatic perimenopausal women is highly practical as it combines the benefits of prevention of endometrial proliferation and treatment of menorrhagia and hyperplasia, if present. In addition, the contraceptive effect of locally administered LNG is highly desirable as many perimenopausal women run considerable risk of unintended pregnancy. For these reasons, the author views this regimen as one of the most effective, safest and best accepted route resulting in high patient compliance. It is important to convey this message to general practitioners as well as women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_20808", "title": "[Effect of transdermal administration of 17-beta estradiol on the release of growth hormone by growth hormone liberating hormone (GH-RH-1-29) in climacteric women before and after treatment].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Great interest has sparked recently the role that plays the changes that the growth hormone undergoes in the menopausal woman, specially its involvement in the central nervous, cardiovascular, genitourinary, digestive and osteomuscular systems. To evaluate the influence of transdermal administration of 17-beta estradiol on growth hormone secretion in menopausal women before and after treatment under the stimulus of growth-hormonereleasing hormone (GH-RH). We studied 5 patients with a mean age of 51 +/- 4.1 yr. with clinical and biochemical evidence of menopause. Evolution time 5.4 +/- 4.61 (range: 1-13 yr.). We monitored the pulsatility of GH during the first 120 minutes and 3 hours after the administration of the GHRH-1-29-NH2, i.v. bolus (50 micrograms). There were obtained every 15 minutes for the determination of GH levels before and after the stimulus. Immediately thereafter hormone replacement therapy was initiated with transdermal beta-estradiol with 50 micrograms patches twice a week. Clinical evaluations and hormone dynamics with OHRH-1-29 were performed at baseline and at 1,3 and 6 months from the start of therapy as described previously. GH pulsatility before estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) in these 5 patients was: X: 0.48 +/- 0.22, 0.38 +/- 0.17, 0.45 +/- 0.25 and 0.29 (at baseline, 1, 3 and 6 months respectively) and 2.74 +/- o 1.21; 3.48 +/- 1.32 (p &gt; 0.05) 4.91 +/- 1.57 (p &lt; 0.05) and 6.04 +/- 1.69 (p &lt; 0.05) (p in relation to baseline) post stimulus with GH-RH-1-29 at baseline 1, 3 and 6 months respectively after transdermal estrogen therapy. Gonadotrophins basal serum levels fall from X: 54.68 +/- 27 to 33.20 +/- 11.23 and 40.48 +/- 12 to 28.30 +/- 6.70 (FSH and LH respectively). Estradiol serum level were from 1.82 +/- 4.06 to 25.95 +/- 5.96 before and after treatment, respectively. These results demonstrate that transdermal estrogen therapy does not modify the pulsatility of growth hormone but it does increase the magnitude of response to the stimulus with GH-RH-1-29 proportional to the time of treatment. We consider that this tendency to increase the production of growth hormone could be explained by an endogenous deficit of growth hormone releasing hormone due to a number of factors including the lack of adequate estrogen serum levels in menopausal women. More investigations will be needed to support this hypothesis and to bring forth a new understanding of menopause and its treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0938_24858", "title": "Combination immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy nivolumab and ipilimumab associated with multiple endocrinopathies.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Immune checkpoint inhibitors are the mainstay of treatment for advanced melanoma, and their use is being increasingly implicated in the development of autoimmune endocrinopathies. We present a case of a 52-year-old man with metastatic melanoma on combination nivolumab and ipilumimab therapy who developed concurrent hypophysitis, type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and diabetes insipidus. He presented prior to third cycle of combination treatment with a headache, myalgias and fatigue. Biochemistry and MRI pituitary confirmed anterior pituitary dysfunction with a TSH: 0.02 mU/L (0.5-5.5 mU/L), fT4: 5.2 pmol/L (11-22 pmol/L), fT3: 4.0 pmol/L (3.2-6.4 pmol/L), cortisol (12:00 h): &lt;9 nmol/L (74-286 nmol/L), FSH: 0.7 IU/L (1.5-9.7 IU/L), LH: &lt;0.1 IU/L (1.8-9.2 IU/L), PRL: 1 mIU/L (90-400 mIU/L), SHBG: 34 nmol/L (19-764 nmol/L) and total testosterone: &lt;0.4 nmol/L (9.9-27.8 nmol/L). High-dose dexamethasone (8 mg) was administered followed by hydrocortisone, thyroxine and topical testosterone replacement. Two weeks post administration of the third cycle, he became unwell with lethargy, weight loss and nocturia. Central diabetes insipidus was diagnosed on the basis of symptoms and sodium of 149 mmol/L (135-145 mmol/L). Desmopressin nasal spray was instituted with symptom resolution and normalization of serum sodium. Three weeks later, he presented again polyuric and polydipsic. His capillary glucose was 20.8 mmol/L (ketones of 2.4 mmol), low C-peptide 0.05 nmol/L (0.4-1.5 nmol/L) and HbA1c of 7.7%. T1DM was suspected, and he was commenced on an insulin infusion with rapid symptom resolution. Insulin antibodies glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD), insulin antibody-2 (IA-2) and zinc transporter-8 (ZnT8) were negative. A follow-up MRI pituitary revealed findings consistent with recovering autoimmune hypophysitis. Immunotherapy was discontinued based on the extent of these autoimmune endocrinopathies. The most effective regime for treatment of metastatic melanoma is combination immunotherapy with nivolumab and ipilumimab, and this therapy is associated with a high incidence of autoimmune endocrinopathies.Given the high prevalence of immune-related adverse events, the threshold for functional testing should be low.Traditional antibody testing may not be reliable to identify early-onset endocrinopathy.Routine screening pathways have yet to be adequately validated through clinical trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_15933", "title": "Laboratory criteria for menopause in women using oral contraceptives.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To evaluate laboratory criteria for menopause in women talking oral contraceptives (OC). Prospective, uncontrolled pilot study. San Francisco General Hospital, San Francisco, California, and Magee-Womens Hospital, Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania. Twenty-eight menopausal women. Fourteen menopausal women received triphasic 35 micrograms ethinyl E2 and 180-215-250 micrograms norgestimate, and 14 menopausal women received monophasic 30 micrograms ethinyl E2-150 micrograms desogestrel. Serum FSH, LH, and E2 levels were evaluated on days 14 and 28 (day 7 of the pill-free interval) of the third cycle of pills. Twelve women in each group completed the study. Fifteen (62.5%) subjects still had a serum FSH &lt; 30 mIU/mL (30 IU/L) on the 7th day of the pill-free interval of the third pill package. All subjects had a serum FSH:LH ratio &gt; 1 and 20 of 21 (95%) subjects had E2 &lt; 20 pg/mL (73 pmol/L) at the end of the pill-free interval of the third cycle. Measuring FSH on the 7th day of the pill-free interval is not a sensitive test for menopause. Serum FSH:LH ratio &gt; 1 or E2 &lt; 20 pg/mL (73 pmol/L) on the 7th day of the pill-free interval may be a more appropriate marker of menopause in women using OC in the later reproductive years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0368_7799", "title": "Alterations in sex steroids and gonadotropins in post-menopausal women subsequent to long-term mifepristone administration.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Long-term administration of progesterone antagonists (PAs) and progesterone receptor modulators (PRMs) has been proposed as a novel hormonal therapy for various hormone dependent maladies. We studied the long-term endocrine effects of mifepristone on the kinetics of estradiol (E(2)) and its precursors, and on gonadotropin levels in five postmenopausal women treated for unresectable meningioma with mifepristone [200 mg/day] for at least 15 months. Serum samples were analyzed for LH, FSH and SHBG with fluoroimmunoassay; androstenedione (A), testosterone (T), estrone (E(1)) and E(2) were measured with radioimmunoassay (RIA). Serum levels of mifepristone were measured using both RIA and high performance-liquid chromatography (HPLC). Serum levels (mean +/- SD) of LH and FSH were suppressed from pretreatment values of 32 +/- 16 and 65 +/- 30 IU/l to 13 +/- 7 and 33 +/- 16 IU/l at 6 months (P &lt; 0.05), respectively. Serum (mean +/- SD) A, T, E(1), and E(2) were increased from initial values of 6.9 +/- 0.9 nmol/l, 1.2 +/- 0.3 nmol/l, 77 +/- 25 pmol/l, and 29 +/- 14 pmol/l to 6 month values of 13.1 +/- 5.6 nmol/l, 1.8 +/- 0.6 nmol/l, 178 +/- 60 pmol/l, and 45 +/- 22 pmol/l (n.s.). The correlation coefficients between the levels of A, T, E(1), and E(2) were statistically significant, whereas the ratios of T/A, E(1)/A, E(2)/E(1), and E(2)/T remained unchanged. The levels of SHBG remained stable, and ranged from 48 +/- 10 to 65 +/- 9 nmol/l (mean +/- SD). Thus, prolonged mifepristone treatment marginally increased the serum levels of A, T, E(1) and E(2). These effects of mifepristone are likely due to its antiglucocorticoid effect and thus increased secretion of adrenal A. Serum levels of LH and FSH declined. The serum levels of gonadotropins and those of T, E(1) and E(2) were inversely, yet significantly, correlated. Therefore the decrease in LH and FSH might reflect the slightly increased levels of T, E(1) and E(2). However, the lack of change in SHBG and the low E(2) levels suggest that enhanced systemic estrogen effects are unlikely during long-term mifepristone treatment." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27623", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "no medication during which menstrual bleeding generally occurs. Two extended oral contraceptives are approved for use in the United States; Seasonale is a 3-month preparation with 84 days of active drug and 7 days of placebo, whereas Lybrel is a continuous preparation. Current doses of ethinyl estradiol range from 10 to 50 μg. However, indications for the 50-μg dose are rare, and the majority of formulations contain 30–35 μg of ethinyl estradiol. The reduced estrogen and progestin content in the secondand third-generation pills has decreased both side effects and risks associated with oral contraceptive use (Table 414-2). At the currently used doses, patients must be cautioned not to miss pills due to the potential for ovulation. Side effects, including breakthrough bleeding, amenorrhea, breast tenderness, and weight gain, often respond to a change in formulation. Even the lower dose oral contraceptives have been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease (myocardial" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0267_12650", "title": "Recombinant human follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates multiple follicular growth, but minimal estrogen production in gonadotropin-releasing hormone antagonist-treated monkeys: examining the role of luteinizing hormone in follicular development and steroidogenesis.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The two-cell theory predicts that follicular steroidogenesis requires the coordinate actions of both FSH and LH; however, the role of LH in follicular growth is less clear. The present study was designed to investigate the relative importance of LH and FSH in follicular growth and steroidogenesis. Cynomolgus monkeys were treated with a GnRH antagonist (antide; 3 mg/kg.day) for 20 days beginning in the midluteal phase of the menstrual cycle. After 10 days of antide administration, monkeys were injected with recombinant human FSH (rhFSH; 10 IU; n = 3), human menopausal gonadotropin (hMG; 10 IU; n = 3), or FSH plus 0.5 IU LH (n = 3) twice daily for 10 days. rhFSH stimulated multiple follicular development; however, peak serum estradiol levels were only 943 +/- 195 pmol/L. In contrast, monkeys treated with the same dose of hMG had significantly higher (P &lt; 0.05) peak estradiol levels (6013 +/- 1322 pmol/L). The addition of 0.5 IU LH to the rhFSH treatment resulted in serum estradiol levels similar to those in monkeys treated with rhFSH only. Importantly, no differences in follicle number or size were evident among these treatment groups. Follicular fluid estradiol levels were consistent with serum levels (rhFSH, 187 +/- 11 nmol/L; hMG, 1531 +/- 173 nmol/L). Even larger proportional differences in follicular fluid androstenedione (rhFSH 13.6 +/- 1.4 nmol/L; hMG, 307 +/- 97.7 nmol/L) levels were found. The results in this LH-deficient primate model suggest that FSH alone is capable of stimulating ovarian follicular growth; however, the resulting follicles manifest minimal estradiol production, probably due to deficiencies in the LH-induced precursors to estradiol." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0205_11482", "title": "[Determination of serum free thyroxine: normal range, relation to the free thyroxine ratio and total thyroxine (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The validity of a commercially available f-T4 radioimmunoassay was investigated in 122 patients with different thyroid status. The normal range of f-T4 was 0.60-2.20 ng/dl in euthyroid patients from an endemic goiter area. No significant difference was found between normals and a group taking oral contraceptives (mean = 1.37 ng/dl vs. 1.45 nd/dl). In patients on thyroid hormone or antithyroid drug therapy, f-T4-values showed a better correlation with the results of an oral TRH-test than total T4 or the free thyroxine ratio (ETR). Specificity of ETR was better than that of f-T4. Sensitivity of f-T4 was higher in the group with negative TRH-test, but lower in hypothyroidism as compared to ETR. Determination of f-T4 by radioimmunoassay is a simple diagnostic procedure. Since f-T4 RIA is not influenced by changes in TBG-levels its use is particularly recommended in cases where such changes are to be expected such as estrogen application or gravidity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0073_1187", "title": "[Hormone therapy in the 40-year-old woman].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Hormone replacement therapy is frequently prescribed in 40-year old women because of the hormonal changes which start to occur at this age. A progestogen-only treatment is often prescribed to restore the oestrogen/progestogen balance. This treatment alone can be sufficient on the therapeutic level as well as on the contraceptive level. However, in order to minimize the risks of such a treatment, a non-androgenic derivative must be chosen. There are no contra-indications for oral contraceptives in women who are over 40 years old on condition that the risk factors are not cumulated. Here also, it is advisable to use the lowest possible dose of steroids which has an adequate contraceptive action and enables a good cycle control. As for oestrogens, the minimum ethinyloestradiol dose must be sought. For the progesterone dose, a non-androgenic derivative should be chosen. The GnRH agonists may have some indications, but their exact place is yet to be defined." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_2076", "title": "Hormonal replacement regimens and bleeding.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Hormone replacement therapy may increase the quality of life of postmenopausal women. Any regimen need to offer long-term endometrial safety. It is a standard to consider the co-administration of a sequential progestogen when estrogen replacement should be initiated in non-hysterectomized women. It is almost impossible to decide which combination of an estrogen and a progestogen seems to be optimal as individual tolerance of HRT may very well limit acceptability despite metabolic benefits and proven endometrial safety of a given combination. Several combinations of oral and transdermal estradiol or conjugated equine estrogens, oral progestogens, transdermal norethisterone acetate and levonorgestrel, and intrauterine levonorgestrel may achieve endometrial safety. It is noteworthy that there is no uniform correlation between the timing of onset of bleeding induced by any sequential estrogen and progestogen replacement and a certain pattern of histology. Therefore, although it is likely, there is no absolute reassurance that regular bleeding on or after day 11 of progestogen administration rules out abnormal histopathology. Transvaginal sonography seems not to be of pivotal importance to screen asymptomatic women on replacement therapy for detection of serious abnormal endometrial findings such as hyperplasia and endometrial cancer. Continuous combined hormone replacement therapy or the use of tibolone may be an alternative in postmenopausal women, who do not want any uterine bleedings after menopause. However, spottings or bleedings most often occur at the beginning of treatment. Vaginal administration of estriol and estradiol for urogenital symptoms of estrogen deficiency may stimulate the endometrium unintentionally. Available data suggest that use of oral estriol may be associated with endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma relatively more often compared to sequential HRT. Raloxifene, a benzothiophene derivative acting as a selective estrogen receptor modulator approved for prevention of vertebral osteoporosis, rarely causes uterine bleeding. There is no ideal therapy available to suit women looking for a permanently bleed-free hormonal replacement therapy today." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0054_14872", "title": "[Endometrial growth in continuous, estrogen substitution monotherapy with Estraderm TTS (0.05 mg/die) in 31 postmenopausal females].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To prevent hyperplasia and carcinoma of the endometrium during Estrogen Replacement Therapy (ERT), addition of progestogens once a month is considered mandatory. There is, however, no good scientific basis for this assumption. Since the addition of progestogens has several disadvantages, it is important to minimise the frequency of progestogen addition. Vaginosonography is a rather new technique, which has not yet been used for monitoring ERT. This study uses the growth of the endometrium, as it was measured by vaginosonography, as a parameter for stimulation of the endometrium by estrogens. ERT with Estraderm 50 twice a week was started in postmenopausal women. The endometrial thickness at the beginning was less than 3 millimeters. During estrogen treatment the endometrial thickness was determined every 6 to 10 weeks. As long as there was little or no increase during the estrogen treatment, no progestogen was added. Where there was a considerable growth, progestogen was added. With the use of vaginosonography, it is possible, to distinguish \"fast growers\" (women whose endometrium responded fast) from \"slow growers\"." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_14241", "title": "Idiopathic primary ovarian insufficiency: a study of serial hormonal profiles to assess ovarian follicular activity.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Ovarian follicular activity in serial hormone profiles has been reported in up to 86% of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency (POI). In most of these studies, patients had a short duration of amenorrhea or irregular menstrual cycles which could influence the occurrence of spontaneous follicular activity. The aim was to study the incidence of follicular activity in serial hormonal profiles of women with spontaneous POI and amenorrhea of 1 year duration. This observational study involved 20 patients with spontaneous POI, amenorrhea of &gt;1 year duration and normal karyotype. Serum measurements of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol (E2), progesterone, free T3, free T4, thyroid-stimulating hormone and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies, taken in the absence of estrogen replacement, were followed by weekly measurements of serum E2, FSH, LH and progesterone for 1 month then monthly measurements for 2 months. Increases in serum E2 &gt;184 pmol/l and serum progesterone &gt;10 nmol/l were taken as evidence of follicular activity and ovulation, respectively. A rise in serum E2 &gt;184 pmol/l was noted in 2/18 subjects [11.1%; 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.4-34.7%]. Though the corresponding serum FSH levels showed a decline, the values remained &gt;40 IU/l. None of the subjects had serum progesterone levels &gt;10 nmol/l, return of menses or pregnancy. Endogenous ovarian follicular function is intermittently present in only 11.1% of Asian Indian women with POI. However, the 95% CI (1.4-34.7%) was large due to a small sample size." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0859_5077", "title": "Effect of hypothyroidism on female reproductive hormones.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Objective was to evaluate reproductive hormones levels in hypothyroid women and impact of treatment on their levels. A total of 59 women with untreated primary hypothyroidism were included in this prospective study. Venous blood was taken at baseline and after euthyroidism was achieved for measuring serum free thyroxine, free triiodothyronine (FT3), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), prolactin (PRL), follicular stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol (E2), testosterone (T), and thyroid peroxidase antibody. Thirty-nine healthy women with regular menstrual cycles without any hormonal disturbances served as controls. The statistical analysis was performed using the Statistical Package for the Social Sciences Version 20 ([SPSS] IBM Corporation, Armonk, NY, USA). P &lt; 0.05 was considered statistically significant. On an average at diagnosis cases have more serum TSH (mean [M] = 77.85; standard error [SE] = 11.72), PRL (M = 39.65; SE = 4.13) and less serum E2 (M = 50.00; SE = 2.25) and T (M = 35.40; SE = 2.31) than after achieving euthyroidism (M = 1.74; SE = 0.73), (M = 16.04; SE = 0.84), (M = 76.25; SE = 2.60), and (M = 40.29; SE = 2.27), respectively. This difference was statistically significant t (58) = 6.48, P &lt;0.05; t (58) = 6.49, P &lt; 0.05; t (58) = 12.47; P &lt; 0.05; and t (58) = 2.04, P &lt; 0.05; respectively. Although average serum FSH (M = 12.14; SE = 0.40) and LH (M = 5.89; SE = 0.27) were lower in cases at diagnosis than after achieving euthyroidism (M = 12.70; SE = 0.40), (M = 6.22; SE = 0.25), respectively, but these differences were statistically insignificant t (58) = 1.61, P = 0.11; t (58) = 1.11, P = 0.27, respectively. The study has demonstrated low E2 and T levels in hypothyroid women which were increased after achieving euthyroidism. Although average serum FSH and LH were increased in hypothyroid women after achieving euthyroidism but this difference was statistically insignificant." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0634_21267", "title": "Effect of long-term, high-dose estrogen treatment on prolactin levels: a retrospective analysis.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Exogenous estrogen administration causes prolactinoma formation in rats and there are anecdotal reports of estrogen treatment and prolactinoma formation in human transsexuals with male-to-female gender reassignment. It remains unclear whether chronic exposure to high-dose estrogen in women is linked with hyperprolactinemia. Aim The aim of this study was to determine whether high-dose, long-term subcutaneous estrogen treatment affected prolactin and gonadotropin levels. This was a retrospective, observational and descriptive analysis of 101 women treated for up to 15 years following a combined hysterectomy and oophorectomy. A total of 101 women who were receiving estradiol implants 50-100 mg 4-6 monthly, on demand for 5-15 years following abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salphingo-oophorectomy were studied. The main outcome measures were levels of serum prolactin, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Results The 101 patients received an average cumulative estrogen dose of (mean +/- SEM) 1239 +/- 12 mg per person, 18.96 +/- 1.2 mg/kg body weight, over a period of 5-15 years. The trough estradiol levels after withholding implants for 6 months were high (1047.9 +/- 52 pmol/l). Their average prolactin level of 88.88 +/- 9.2 mU/l was normal and their FSH (1.96 +/- 0.42 IU/l) and LH (2.97 +/- 0.88 IU/l) levels were relatively suppressed. These data are reassuring that, even in women exposed to very high doses of estrogen for a prolonged period of time, hyperprolactinemia is unlikely to occur." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0264_179", "title": "[Estrogen-progestin contraception. Advantages of estrogen reduction].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Among the low dose oral contraceptives that is to say less than 50 mcg of ethinylestradiol per pill one must single out the pills made of a third generation progestagen (desogestrel, gestodene, norgestimate) from the others. The contraceptive efficacy (tested on the Pearl index) according to the files of government authorities visa (AMM) is equivalent for all the oral contraceptives whatever their composition (between 0 to 0.07 women year). The clinical tolerance of the low dose pills of the 3rd generation is comparable to that of the other low dose pills. Is there any advantage then in prescribing them? The most important advantage is the decrease of metabolic and vascular effects. The use of so-called third generation progestive, besides the beneficial effects an lipidic and glucidic metabolisms, has mainly enabled the decrease of the estrogen doses of progestagens. The ethinylestradiol is directly implicated in the risk of venous thrombosis: hemostasis the modifications are less important with 30 mcg than with 50, 20 than 30 mcg. Relying on theoretical arguments one could have estimated that minipills would lead to an insufficient ovarian slow down. These hypothesis are contradicted by recent studies from Falsetti and Benagiano who studied the rates of FSH and LH under minipills. This does not include the variability and the individual sensitiveness of the patients and as well the reason following which minipills would favor functional ovarian cysts, lies on the confusion made between a cyst and a 20 mm diameter follicule.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_7340", "title": "Sex-hormone binding globulin as an indicator of the hepatic impacts of continuous combined hormone replacement regimens.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Nonoral administration of hormone replacement therapy avoids the first pass metabolism of steroids in the liver. We wanted to determine to what extent it has an effect on the serum concentrations of sex-hormone binding globulin and the free testosterone index. Postmenopausal women received 50 microg per day transdermal estradiol associated with the use of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (20 women) or a daily oral dose of 2 mg of estradiol and 1 mg of norethisterone acetate (20 women) for 1 year. Eight women, five in the nonoral and three in the oral therapy group discontinued the study. Although serum sex-hormone binding globulin concentrations decreased in women receiving transdermal estradiol in combination with a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device, the free testosterone index did not change significantly. In the continuous oral regimen, no significant changes in serum sex-hormone binding globulin or free testosterone index were observed. The free testosterone index, however, was significantly higher in the nonoral therapy group after 6 and 12 months of treatment than in the oral therapy group. Continuous progestin combined with continuous estrogen in oral and nonoral replacement therapy does not lead to a substantial androgenic excess in postmenopausal women. The intrauterine administration of levonorgestrel appears to have some hepatic effect." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 167, 288 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "The first thing is INTRAMUSCULAR adrenaline NOW! The venous route, corticosteroids, antihistamines, etc. will come later." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 166 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "She is describing egg anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal condition. The treatment of choice is intramuscular adrenaline, and effectively, without wasting too much time." } }

{ "1": "The priority is to cannulate a venous line.", "2": "Intramuscular methylprednisolone is the treatment of choice.", "3": "It is a picture of urticaria associated with asthma, and should be treated with antihistamines and inhaled bronchodilators.", "4": "Parents should be advised to transfer to a hospital emergency department.", "5": "Intramuscular adrenaline should be administered without further delay." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0521_21402", "title": "[Emergency due to allergy: the therapy--adrenaline for physicians and patients].", "score": 0.014523909395973155, "content": "Emergency due to allergy may proceed within minutes to life-threatening respiratory and circulatory problems. Therefore, after diagnosis prompt and correct therapy might be vital. Because of its effect on alpha-, beta1-, and beta2-receptors, adrenaline is the treatment of choice in emergency due to allergy. For fear of cardiovascular side effects, often adrenaline is withheld even in case of anaphylaxis. If given properly such as an intramuscular injection the danger of undesirable side effects, however, is small. After a systemic, allergic reaction each patient needs to be equipped with rescue medications. If an adrenaline-containing device is prescribed--nowadays with EpiPen and the metered-dose inhaler Primatene Mist 2 systems are available--, the patient must get a correct instruction in its use. In case of a severe allergic reaction, antihistamines and corticosteroids are given in second line. Following any systemic allergy, an allergological work-up should be required. Only through exact diagnosis and profound patient's education, recurrences can be avoided, and in some cases, specific immunotherapy is indicated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0393_4609", "title": "Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of intravenous salbutamol and nebulized ipratropium bromide in early management of severe acute asthma in children presenting to an emergency department.", "score": 0.014455693560171172, "content": "In acute severe asthma, treatment must be initiated early to reverse the pathophysiology that may render airways less responsive to bronchodilation. The addition of nebulized ipratropium bromide to initial emergency department therapy improves pulmonary function, but it is unclear whether this approach results in earlier hospital discharge. The early use of bolus intravenous salbutamol has also been shown to improve outcome, including earlier discharge. We therefore assessed the relative benefits of intravenous salbutamol and nebulized ipratropium bromide in the early management of acute severe asthma in children by a double-blind, randomized, controlled trial. This study was undertaken at a tertiary children's hospital, The Children's Hospital at Westmead, The Royal Alexandra Hospital for Children, Westmead, Sydney, Australia. Only children with severe acute asthma as determined by the National Asthma Campaign guidelines criteria and pulmonary index were included. All children received initial nebulized salbutamol therapy (2.5-5 mg salbutamol in 4 mL of normal saline depending on age) at initial emergency department presentation. If asthma remained severe 20 mins later, an intravenous cannula was inserted and intravenous methylprednisolone (1 mg/kg) was administered to all children receiving nebulized salbutamol every 20 mins. Children were then randomized to one of three groups: intravenous salbutamol (15 microg/kg as a single bolus over 10 mins), ipratropium bromide (250 microg), or intravenous salbutamol plus ipratropium bromide. All observers were blinded to treatment groups. Children were randomly assigned to receive a single-dose intravenous bolus of either saline or salbutamol and either nebulized saline or ipratropium bromide determined by a number generated randomly in the hospital pharmacy. The primary outcomes were recovery time and discharge time of each group. Respiratory and hemodynamic monitoring were continuous during the first 2 hrs of the study and then children were monitored clinically for 24 hrs. A total of 55 children with acute severe asthma were entered into the study over an 18-month period. The three groups were similar demographically, with a mean age of 5.9 yrs, and mean duration of attack of 19.6 hrs. No side effects or treatment intolerance were reported. Children in the groups that received intravenous salbutamol had a significant reduction in recovery time to achieving second hourly inhaled salbutamol (p =.008) compared with those administered inhaled bronchodilator alone. The addition of ipratropium bromide to intravenous salbutamol provided no significant further benefit in terms of nebulizer therapy (intravenous salbutamol compared with intravenous salbutamol plus ipratropium bromide). Children administered intravenous salbutamol ceased supplemental oxygen therapy earlier than those administered ipratropium alone at 12 hrs post-randomization (p =.0003). Children administered intravenous salbutamol could be discharged from the hospital 28 hrs earlier than those administered ipratropium bromide (p =.013). Children administered intravenous salbutamol for severe acute asthma showed a more rapid recovery time, which resulted in earlier discharge from the hospital than those administered inhaled ipratropium bromide. There was no additional benefit obtained by combining ipratropium bromide and intravenous salbutamol administration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_8840", "title": "[Medical treatment of respiratory emergencies].", "score": 0.01443355119825708, "content": "Of the four treatments that can be used to treat respiratory insufficiency due to laryngitis, two, nebulized adrenaline and O2 therapy, are undoubtedly effective. The inhalation of water vapour appears to be increasingly useless and may be also harmful. The use of steroids is still under debate. In recent literature, however, the utility of steroids seems to be confirmed, especially if administered per Os, and even at a relatively low single oral dose (1-2 mg/kg of prednisone). According to the official organs (see Red Book) and according to the Evidence Based Medicine (see Cochrane Library) the treatment of bronchiolitis should be limited to an eventual support therapy, i.e. O2 therapy and rehydration. However, the approach adopted by North American Hospitals and European specialists in infectious diseases is in contrast and consists in the use of beta 2 agonists and steroids in 90-100% and 40-80% of patients, respectively. This contrast could be due to a deficiency in the researches of the Evidenced Based Medicine which is obliged to retrieve studies done over 10-15 years in order to obtain a sufficient number of data for a statistically valid investigation. These studies unfortunately are not updated with regard to the dose of individual drugs and the immediate association of drugs. In particular, with regard to nebulized beta 2 agonists, the absence of a positive effect could be due to an excessively low dose in relation to the age of the patient. According to the most recent knowledge, in fact, reduced doses are no longer required for babies in consideration of age and weight. In reality an equal and even higher dose than that used in adults would be best. The other reason for a lack of response could be the absence of the association of a steroid with a beta 2 agonists at the right moment. The lack of timing in associating these two drugs could also account for the absent response to the steroid. On the basis of these considerations it would be a mistake to give up the use of beta 2 agonists and steroids. Considering also the severity and frequency of a disease as bronchiolitis. To follow the \"fashion\" of the Evidence Based Medicine. Recently, magnesium sulphate, ketamine and the association elium-O2 have been suggested as marginal and not revolutionary medical interventions for the treatment of asthma. Among bronchodilators, the subordinate role of anticholinergics (for ex. ipratropium bromide), and of adrenaline has been defined with respect to beta 2 agonists, in particular salbutamol. The optimisation of the administration by nebulizers of the latter has been fundamental as it has a key role in the treatment of acute severe asthma. In detail, traditional nebulizers tend to be substituted by Metered Dose Inhaler + spacer with a ratio in the dose of 5/1. The venous route is used only in very severe cases and is used late and in intensive care although a single initial intravenous administration could determine a more rapid reduction of bronchoconstriction and reduce the number of nebulized bronchodilatators that can become extremely frequent in most severe cases. For steroids, instead, the only safe therapeutic route is by PO, i.v., i.m.: nebulized steroids although used with a definitely higher dose than that used for chronic asthma, can be used only in the milder forms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_15446", "title": "[Round Table: Severe asthma in pediatrics: treatment of acute crises].", "score": 0.013611111111111112, "content": "Morbidity and mortality derived from asthma continue to be a main public health problem in many countries, in spite of the advances in the knowledge on the disease and its treatment. There are several risk factors for asthma attack which have to be considered in the management of patients in order to prevent exacerbations and mortality. Smooth bronchial muscle constriction and inflammation with oedema of the bronchial wall are the facts that cause airway flow and resistance disturbances, with hyperinflation, leading to a bigger respiratory work. On the other hand, the bronchial obstruction leads to a ventilation-perfusion disequilibrium and hypoxia. At the beginning of the process there is hypocarbia, but when the attack progresses muscle fatigue happens, and retention of CO2, being a sing of alarm (predictive of respiratory failure) a normal and rising PaCO2. The evaluation of an acute asthmatic patient should accomplish a clinical and objective assessment (peak flow rate and saturation of O2), in order to classify the crisis in: mild, moderate or severe. Managing acute asthmatic patient includes: oxygen, bronchodilator ss2 agonists at high and even continuous doses and systemic corticosteroids to prevent the progression and to control inflammation. These procedures should be promptly instituted. Although there is less evidence on their beneficial effects other measures as intravenous aminophylline, nebulized anticholynergics, magnesium sulphate and intravenous ss2 agonists may be used when the conventional therapy is not quickly successful and the patient is in a critical situation, at a real risk of respiratory failure, and in order to avoid mechanical ventilation. If this is finally instituted, controlled hypoventilation with permissive hypercarbia is now recommended, to avoid barotrauma, which used to be a frequent complication when more aggressive attitude was the rule. Interaction between paralytic agents and corticosteroids may produce a miopathy, so the recommendation now is to try not to use paralytic agents, even with profound sedation of needed. Sixty four patients were treated on 77 occasions in the Pediatric Intensive Care Unit of our hospital. They were 0,5 to 13,9 years old, being 50% less than 5 years old. It was the first attack in 9 (14%) patients. The standard management consisted of oxygen, frequently or continuously nebulized salbutamol and intravenous methylprednisolone (1 to 6 mg/kg/day). Furthermore nebulized ipratropium bromide was administered 58 times (75%), as well as intravenous aminophylline 69 (89%), intravenous salbutamol 23 (30%), magnesium sulphate 16 (21%) and ketamine 10 (13%). Antibiotics were given 22 times (29%). Two 15 month old infants received mechanical ventilation in three occasions, and relevant complications happened (pneumothorax and myopathy, and pneumomediastinum and bronchiolitis obliterans respectively). Fifty six patients have been followed for a period of 3 to 110 months (median 48 months), and 16 (29%) have needed high doses (equal to or move than 800 mcg of budesonide or equivalent). There are data on lung function in 36 of them, FEV1 is normal (&gt; 85% of predicted, between 86 and 127) in 26 (78%) and &lt; 85% (65 to 84%) of predicted in 8 (22%) FEV1 rises more than 15% (16 to 23%) in four patients after the inhalation of a ss2 agonist. Inhaled anesthetic agents and heliox have been used in some pediatric cases. After a severe asthma attack the strategy of management should be reviewed, as well as the possible risk factors." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_120229", "title": "Shortness of breath", "score": 0.012023314775608354, "content": "Asthma Asthma is the most common reason for presenting to the emergency room with shortness of breath. It is the most common lung disease in both developing and developed countries affecting about 5% of the population. Other symptoms include wheezing, tightness in the chest, and a non productive cough. Inhaled corticosteroids are the preferred treatment for children, however these drugs can reduce the growth rate. Acute symptoms are treated with short-acting bronchodilators. Pneumothorax Pneumothorax presents typically with pleuritic chest pain of acute onset and shortness of breath not improved with oxygen. Physical findings may include absent breath sounds on one side of the chest, jugular venous distension, and tracheal deviation." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_1872", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.011830448412157558, "content": "Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency; prompt recognition and immediate treatment are crucial (Fig. 81-2). Early administration of intramuscular epinephrine is the mainstay of therapy and should be given at the same time that basic measures of cardiopulmonary resuscitation are being performed. If the child is not in a medical setting, emergency medical services should be called. Supplemental oxygen and intravenous fluid should be administered with the child lying in supine position. An airway must be secured; intubation or tracheotomy may be required. Additional pharmacologic therapies, such as corticosteroids, antihistamines, H2-receptor antagonists, and bronchodilators, may be given to improve symptoms. Up to 20% of people with anaphylaxis have biphasic or protracted anaphylaxis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en049_68060", "title": "Methylprednisolone", "score": 0.011496503496503496, "content": "In 2001–2002, 11.4% of patients diagnosed with asthma and seen at an outpatient visit were prescribed oral corticosteroids as a long-term control therapy. The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) indicates systemic methylprednisolone in both short and long term therapies to quickly control and to suppress persistent asthma, respectively. For exacerbations that result in a visit to the Emergency Department (ED), oral methylprednisolone is preferred over intravenous administration, unless there are issues with adherence or vomiting. Oral methylprednisolone is less invasive and studies have shown that equivalent efficacy compared to intravenous methylprednisolone. Dosage above 60–80 mg/day or 2 mg/kg/day is not recommended as it has not been shown to alter pulmonary function, rate of admission, or length of stay in the hospital compared to lower doses. Following ED discharge, it is advised to prescribed a five-day course of methylprednisolone to decrease the" }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_1792", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.011479896893518641, "content": "First-line management of asthma exacerbations includes supplemental oxygen, repetitive, or continuous administration of short-acting bronchodilators. Early administration of oral or intravenous corticosteroids (Fig. 78-4) is important in treating the underlying inflammation. Administration of anticholinergic agents (ipratropium) with bronchodilators decreases rates of hospitalization and duration of time in the emergency department. Intravenous magnesium sulfate is given in the emergency department if there is clinical deterioration, despite treatment with β2-agonists, ipratropium, and systemic glucocorticoids. The typical dose is 25 to 75 mg/kg (maximum 2.0 g) intravenously administered over 20 minutes. Epinephrine (intramuscular) or terbutaline (subcutaneous) is rarely used except when severe asthma is associated with anaphylaxis or unresponsive to continuous administration of short-acting bronchodilators." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_132080", "title": "Anaphylaxis", "score": 0.010177049759371275, "content": "Epinephrine Epinephrine (adrenaline) (1 in 1,000) is the primary treatment for anaphylaxis with no absolute contraindication to its use. It is recommended that an epinephrine solution be given intramuscularly into the mid anterolateral thigh as soon as the diagnosis is suspected. The injection may be repeated every 5 to 15 minutes if there is insufficient response. A second dose is needed in 16–35% of episodes with more than two doses rarely required. The intramuscular route is preferred over subcutaneous administration because the latter may have delayed absorption. It is recommended that after diagnosis and treatment of anaphylaxis, the patient should be kept under observation in an appropriate clinical setting until symptoms have fully resolved. Minor adverse effects from epinephrine include tremors, anxiety, headaches, and palpitations." }, { "id": "article-18658_23", "title": "Pediatric Bronchospasm -- Treatment / Management -- Anaphylaxis", "score": 0.010046620046620047, "content": "First assess the airway, breathing, and circulation of the patient. Place the child on a cardiorespiratory monitor, provide supplemental oxygen, and acquire intravenous or intraosseous access for aggressive volume resuscitation. Epinephrine is the most important treatment. As readily as possible, administer intramuscular epinephrine to the anterolateral surface of the child’s mid-thigh. [16] Intramuscular epinephrine is preferred over intravenous because it is typically faster to administer, has fewer cardiovascular complications (arrhythmias, myocardial ischemia, hypertension), and has less dosing errors. [17] Avoid subcutaneous epinephrine administration, as it is slower to absorb than intramuscular, has inconsistent pharmacodynamics, and the response is unreliable. [16] Epinephrine dosing is repeatable every five to 15 minutes. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable and not responding to repeated doses of intramuscular epinephrine and fluid resuscitation, then an intravenous epinephrine infusion can be initiated. If stridor, other signs of airway involvement, or severe respiratory compromise are present, the child should undergo immediate intubation. If the healthcare provider is unable to secure an airway, an emergent cricothyroidotomy or tracheostomy should be performed. Additional therapies used in conjunction with epinephrine are H1 antihistamines (i.e., diphenhydramine), H2 antihistamines (i.e., ranitidine), bronchodilators, and glucocorticoids. If bronchospasm is present and unresponsive to epinephrine, inhaled bronchodilators use is necessary." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_14697", "title": "Meningococcal disease", "score": 0.010031036623215394, "content": "Treatment When meningococcal disease is suspected, treatment must be started immediately and should not be delayed while waiting for investigations. Treatment in primary care usually involves prompt intramuscular administration of benzylpenicillin, and then an urgent transfer to hospital (hopefully, an academic level I medical center, or at least a hospital with round the clock neurological care, ideally with neurological intensive and critical care units) for further care. Once in the hospital, the antibiotics of choice are usually IV broad spectrum 3rd generation cephalosporins, e.g., cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. Benzylpenicillin and chloramphenicol are also effective. Supportive measures include IV fluids, oxygen, inotropic support, e.g., dopamine or dobutamine and management of raised intracranial pressure. Steroid therapy may help in some adult patients, but is unlikely to affect long term outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0335_1994", "title": "Early use of inhaled nedocromil sodium in children following an acute episode of asthma.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Current guidelines on the treatment of childhood asthma recommend the introduction of an anti-inflammatory drug in children who have persistent symptoms and require regular treatment with a bronchodilator. The efficacy and safety of inhaled nedocromil sodium (Tilade Mint aerosol) administered using a Fisonair spacer at a dose of 4 mg three times daily was compared with placebo in the treatment of asthmatic children aged 6-12 years who are symptomatic and recovering from an acute exacerbation of asthma. A group comparative, double blind, placebo controlled trial was performed in children who were recovering from an acute episode of asthma following treatment in the emergency department of the hospital or in children referred from their general practitioner following a wheezing episode and documented evidence of at least two previous episodes of wheezing. A two week baseline period on existing bronchodilator treatment was followed by a 12 week treatment period on either nedocromil sodium (2 mg/puff) or placebo. Both treatments were administered using a Fisonair spacer at a dose of two puffs three times daily. Changes from baseline values in daytime asthma and night time asthma symptom scores, usage of rescue bronchodilators, mean peak expiratory flow (PEF) recorded twice daily on diary cards, patients' opinion of treatment, and withdrawals due to treatment failure were measured during the primary treatment period (last six weeks of treatment). One hundred and forty two children aged 6-12 years entered the baseline period. Sixty three were withdrawn due to failure to meet the entry criteria (18) or the criteria for asthma symptom severity (15) or reversibility (9), because they developed uncontrolled asthma (2), because they took disallowed treatment (2), or for other non-trial related reasons (17). Seventy nine patients (46 boys) of mean age 8. 8 years entered the treatment period. There were significant differences in the changes from baseline values during the last six weeks of treatment in favour of nedocromil sodium compared with placebo in the primary variables of daytime asthma and night time asthma, morning and evening PEF, and the usage of rescue inhaled bronchodilators; 53% of patients reported nedocromil sodium to be very or moderately effective compared with 44% placebo. Improvement in asthma symptoms, PEF, and reduction in use of rescue bronchodilators did not reach statistical significance until after six weeks of treatment. Twenty two patients were withdrawn or dropped out during the treatment phase, 12 due to uncontrolled asthma or persistence of asthma symptoms, four due to suspected adverse drug reactions (nedocromil sodium 3 (headaches 2, angio-oedema/urticaria 1), placebo 1(persistent cough)), and six due to non-treatment related reasons. Seventy one adverse events were reported by 27 patients in the nedocromil group and 75 by 30 patients in the placebo group. Asthma symptoms, use of bronchodilators, and lung function can be improved significantly in children recovering from an acute exacerbation of asthma or wheeze and currently receiving treatment with bronchodilators alone by the addition of inhaled nedocromil sodium at a dose of 4 mg three times daily administered using a Fisonair holding chamber." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_21587", "title": "[A notice for use for patients who benifit from an adrenaline pen. \"Having an emergency kit is a good thing but knowing how to use it is better\"].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We realized that it is essential that the patient who has an auto injector also has the direction sheet in its emergency bag. Patients, families but also young medical doctors' remarks and reflexions led us to create an explanatory didactic, precise, illustrated and practical direction sheet. The goals are to gather succinct information about the patient (personal contact information, medical history); remind emergency numbers (15 or 112) and the emergency treatment (antihistamine, broncholitor if necessary, epinephrine shots). It also indicates step by step how to use the auto injector (Anapen) and emphasizes the need for a medical supervision if the shot has been used. We present this direction sheet and the way to use it." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en613_8523", "title": "Diffuse capillary malformation with overgrowth", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Small CMs are typically benign and require no treatment. Large CMs should be treated due to aesthetic reasons and societal exclusion, as they have a higher tendency to hypertrophy. Pulse-dye laser photocoagulation should be used for large CM. Therapy should be initiated before the age of 6 months. Laser treatments typically have greater efficacy for CMs on face than non-facial areas such as distal extremities. Potential explanations for reduced efficacy in extremities include greater lesion size and deeper location of vessels due to thicker epidermis. Patients may be less inclined to pursue treatments for non-facial lesions due to lesser visibility and financial burden of multiple laser treatment sessions necessary for visible improvement. As DCMO frequently involves trunk and lower extremities, more studies are needed to improve laser treatment in non-facial areas and identify barriers to treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_101826", "title": "Cough", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Asthma is a common cause of chronic cough in adults and children. Coughing may be the only symptom the person has from their asthma, or asthma symptoms may also include wheezing, shortness of breath, and a tight feeling in their chest. Depending on how severe the asthma is, it can be treated with bronchodilators (medicine which causes the airways to open up) or inhaled steroids. Treatment of the asthma should make the cough go away. Chronic bronchitis is defined clinically as a persistent cough that produces sputum (phlegm) and mucus, for at least three months in two consecutive years. Chronic bronchitis is often the cause of \"smoker's cough\". The tobacco smoke causes inflammation, secretion of mucus into the airway, and difficulty clearing that mucus out of the airways. Coughing helps clear those secretions out. May be treated by quitting smoking. May also be caused by pneumoconiosis and long-term fume inhalation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_5148", "title": "Acute upper airway obstruction.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Upper airway obstruction is defined as blockage of any portion of the airway above the thoracic inlet. Stridor, suprasternal retractions, and change of voice are the sentinel signs of upper airway obstruction. Most of the common causes among children presenting to emergency department are of acute infectious etiology. Among these, croup is the commonest while diphteria remains the most serious life-threatening cause. Recent reports indicate that bacterial tracheitis has become increasingly common. In ER evaluation the key clinical data in determining the cause and the site of obstruction are the onset, presence of fever, character of the stridor, retractions, the voice and the ability to handle secretions. After assessment of the severity of respiratory distress and resuscitative or supportive therapy including oxygen and emergent airway, specific treatment is directed at underlying etiology. All patients with audible stridor require early endotracheal intubation/tracheostomy. In croup the mainstay of treatment are cold humidified oxygen, budesonide nebulization ( in mild cases), Dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg iv or im (in moderate and severe cases), and Adrenaline 5 ml 1:1000 (5 mg) solution as nebulization ( in severe cases). In diphtheria, early tracheostomy, anti-diphtheric serum and injectable penicillin are critical. Bacterial Tracheitis and Retropharyngeal abscess need early administration of injectable Cloxacillin, Amikacin and Clindamycin. ENT consultation should be obtained for early surgical drainage of retropharyngeal abscess. Angioneurotic edema is treated with subcutaneous adrenaline (1:1000, 0.01 ml/kg); hydrocortisone 10 mg/kg IV and antihistamines. Patients with severe obstruction and those with endotracheal tube/ trachesotomy should be transferred to PICU." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_3422", "title": "Atypical antipsychotic medication poisoning: an evidence-based consensus guideline for out-of-hospital management.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The objective of this guideline is to assist poison center personnel in the appropriate out-of-hospital triage and out-of-hospital management of patients with suspected acute ingestions of atypical antipsychotic medications by 1) describing the process by which an ingestion of an atypical antipsychotic medication might be evaluated, 2) identifying the key decision elements in managing cases of atypical antipsychotic medication ingestion, 3) providing clear and practical recommendations that reflect the current state of knowledge, and 4) identifying needs for research. This guideline applies to ingestion of atypical antipsychotic medications alone. Co-ingestion of additional substances could require different referral and management recommendations depending on the combined toxicities of the substances. This guideline is based on an assessment of current scientific and clinical information. The expert consensus panel recognizes that specific patient care decisions might be at variance with this guideline and are the prerogative of the patient and the health professionals providing care, considering all of the circumstances involved. This guideline does not substitute for clinical judgment. The grade of recommendation is in parentheses. 1) Patients with stated or suspected self-harm or the recipient of a potentially malicious administration of an atypical antipsychotic medication should be referred to an emergency department immediately. This activity should be guided by local poison center procedures. In general, this should occur regardless of the dose reported (Grade D). 2) Patients without evidence of self-harm should have further evaluation, including determination of the precise dose ingested, presence of signs or symptoms of toxicity, history of other medical conditions, and the presence of co-ingestants (Grade C). 3) Asymptomatic patients without evidence of attempted self-harm are unlikely to develop symptoms if the interval between the ingestion and the call is greater than 6 hours. These patients do not need referral and should receive follow-up based on local poison center protocols (Grade C). 4) All patients less than 12 years of age who are naïve to atypical antipsychotic medications and are experiencing no more than mild drowsiness (lightly sedated and can be aroused with speaking voice or light touch) can be observed at home unless they have ingested more than four times the initial adult dose for the implicated antipsychotic medication or a dose that is equal to or more than the lowest reported acute dose that resulted in at least moderate toxicity, whichever dose is smaller (i.e., aripiprazole 15 mg, clozapine 50 mg, olanzapine 10 mg, quetiapine 100 mg, risperidone 1 mg, ziprasidone 80 mg) (Grade D). 5) All patients 12 years of age or older who are naïve to atypical antipsychotic medications and are experiencing no more than mild drowsiness can be observed at home unless they have ingested more than five times the initial adult dose for the implicated antipsychotic medication (i.e., aripiprazole 50 mg, clozapine 62.5 mg, olanzapine 25 mg, quetiapine 125 mg, risperidone 5 mg, ziprasidone 100 mg) (Grade D). 6) Patients who use atypical antipsychotic medications on a chronic basis can be observed at home unless they have acutely ingested more than 5 times their current single dose (not daily dose) of the implicated antipsychotic medication (Grade C). 7) Patients who have ingested less than a threshold dose (see Recommendations 4-6) and are exhibiting no more than mild drowsiness can be observed at home with instructions to call the poison center if symptoms develop or worsen. If mild drowsiness is present at the time of the initial call, the poison center should make follow-up calls until at least 6 hours after ingestion. Consideration should be given to the time of day that home observation will take place. Observation during normal sleep hours might not be reliable. Depending on local poison center policy, patients could be referred to an emergency department if the observation would take place during normal sleeping hours of the patient or caretaker (Grade D). 8) Any patient already experiencing any signs or symptoms, other than mild drowsiness, thought to be related to atypical antipsychotic medication toxicity should be transported to an emergency department. Transportation via ambulance should be considered based on the condition of the patient and the length of time it will take the patient to arrive at the emergency department (Grade D). 9) Do not induce emesis (Grade D). 10) There are no specific data to suggest benefit from out-of-hospital administration of activated charcoal in patients exposed to atypical antipsychotic medications. Poison centers should follow local protocols and experience with the out-of-hospital use of activated charcoal in this context. Do not delay transportation in order to administer charcoal (Grade D). 11) For patients who merit evaluation in an emergency department, transportation via ambulance should be considered based on the condition of the patient and the length of time it will take the patient to arrive at the emergency department. Continuous cardiac monitoring should be implemented given reports of conduction disturbances associated with this class of medications. Provide usual supportive care en route to the hospital, including airway management and intravenous fluids for hypotension (Grade D). 12) Depending on the specific circumstances, follow-up calls should be made to determine outcome at appropriate intervals based on the clinical judgment of the poison center staff (Grade D)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0346_5794", "title": "[Childhood croup].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Hoarseness, whooping cough and stridor are elements of a syndrome of upper airway obstruction. In childhood, acute laryngotracheobronchitis is by far the commonest cause of this syndrome. Yet, the differential diagnosis includes a number of rare and severe entities. In many cases, the traditional distinction between viral and spasmodic types is not possible. The value of humidifying therapy has not been established. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline is of benefit but should be reserved for hospital. The effect lasts only two hours and at times a rebound effect is observed. It is now realized that some patients treated with adrenaline can safely be discharged after a two to three hours observation. There is a large body of evidence that all children arriving at the emergency department with croup should receive steroids without delay. This policy results in a much better outcome, with important reduction in hospitalizations, intensive care unit admissions and incubations. Oral dexamethasone is the drug of choice: it is as effective, easier to administer and cheaper than nebulised budesonide. In most studies, dexamethasone has been used at a dose of 0.6 mg/kg but there is some evidence that 0.15 mg/kg may be just as effective." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_202456", "title": "Hypoglycemia", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "If the person is unconscious, a glucagon kit may be used to treat severe hypoglycemia, which delivers glucagon either by injection into a muscle or through nasal inhalation. In the United States, glucacon kits are available by prescription for diabetic patients to carry in case of an episode of severe hypoglycemia. Emergency services should be called for further assitance. Treatment by medical professionals In a healthcare setting, treatment depends on the severity of symptoms and intravenous access. If a patient is conscious and able to swallow safely, food or drink may be administered, as well as glucose tabs or gel. In those with intravenous access, 25 grams of 50% dextrose is commonly administered. When there is no intravenous access, intramuscular or intra-nasal glucagon may be administered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_11485", "title": "Early administration of hydrocortisone in the emergency room treatment of acute asthma: a controlled clinical trial.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To determine whether early administration of a single dose of intravenous hydrocortisone (500 mg) modified the need for hospitalization and duration of treatment, and improve pulmonary function assessed by subjective and objective criteria of acute asthma patients. Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. The emergency room (ER) of a large, urban hospital with primary and referral care responsibilities. Ninety-eight patients from 18 to 50 years of age with acute bronchial asthma, with a PEFR and FEV1 in the first second below 50% of predicted value (FEV1 mean % of predicted = 27.8 +/- 10.0) and without history of chronic cough or other medical disease. The corticosteroid group received 500 mg of intravenous hydrocortisone whereas the control group received intravenous normal saline immediately after arrival to the ER. Additional treatment included salbutamol delivered with metered-dose inhaler into a spacer device (Volumatic), in four puffs actuated in rapid succession (100 micrograms per actuation), at 10-min intervals. The final mean dose was 5.7 mg for the steroid group and 5.6 mg for the control one (P = 0.86). Hospitalization was mandatory if total treatment time was greater than 6 h. Age, sex, PEFR, FEV1, FVC, symptom index, and corticosteroids use were similar in both groups. FEV1 expressed as mean % of predicted was 54.6 +/- 17.3% in the control group and 54.6 +/- 17.4% in the steroid group (P = 0.75). Duration of ER treatment was 2.22 +/- 1.75 h in the corticosteroid group and 2.24 +/- 1.70 h in the control group (P = 0.81). The hospital admission rate was 10.2% for the corticosteroid group and 8.16% for the control group. There were no differences between the groups when patients admitted or discharged were examined separately. Early administration of corticosteroids does not modify outcome of ER treatment of asthma, and does not improve pulmonary function in the first 6 h of treatment. In accord with this, administration of corticosteroids to these patients could be delayed by several hours without modifying clinical outcome. When an aggressive beta-agonist bronchodilator regimen is used, it obviates the need for steroids in this early stage of treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0997_9734", "title": "Single Intramuscular Methylprednisolone dose in Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Patients on Discharge.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In this pilot study we aimed to evaluate the safety of a single intramuscular methylprednisolone (IM) injection at the time of discharge as a replacement for oral steroid therapy for patients in our population with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This proof-of-concept, open label clinical trial without randomisation was conducted at the Pulmonary Department of Ziauddin Hospital and University, Karachi from January 2018 to March 2018. Patients discharged after in-hospital treatment for exacerbations of either asthma or COPD were recruited for this study. Intramuscular injection of methylprednisolone was administered to these patients who were then followed-up after one week and one month. During that period, information was collected of the patients' self-report of any unscheduled emergency room visit, blood sugar and blood pressure control, symptoms suggestive of thrush, increase gastric acidity and weight gain. For the data analysis, frequency and percentages were calculated with SPSS version 21. A total of 30 patients aged 52.83 ± 14.27 years were recruited for this pilot study. At one month follow-up, no unscheduled emergency room visits were observed in all of the study patients. Symptoms suggestive of oral thrush were recorded in only 2 (6.7%) patients and weight gain was reported by only 5 (16.7%). Controlled blood sugar and blood pressure was reported by all the patients. No incidence of nocturnal symptoms, awakening and dyspepsia were reported. A single dose of methylprednisolone injection without any obvious side effects over one month among patients with asthma and COPD demonstrated a safe strategy for them." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_944", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Mild cases: Outpatient management with cool mist therapy and fl uids. Moderate cases: May require supplemental O2, oral and IM corticosteroids, and nebulized racemic epinephrine. Severe cases (e.g., respiratory distress at rest, inspiratory stridor): Hospitalize and give nebulized racemic epinephrine. A serious and rapidly progressive infection of supraglottic structures (e.g., the epiglottis and aryepiglottic folds). Prior to immunization, H. infl uenzae type b was the 1° pathogen. Common causes now include Streptococcus species, Epiglottitis can lead to nontypable H. infl uenzae, and viral agents. obstruction. Presents with acute-onset high fever (39–40°C), dysphagia, drooling, a muffled voice, inspiratory retractions, cyanosis, and soft stridor. Patients sit with the neck hyperextended and the chin protruding (“sniffing dog” position) and lean forward in a “tripod” position to maximize air entry." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0782_22117", "title": "[Serious systemic adverse events associated with allergen-specific immunotherapy in children with asthma].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To retrospectively assess serious systemic adverse effects of standardized dust-mite vaccine in children with asthma. Medical records of 704 children (5-17 years in age) with asthma between January, 2005 and December, 2011 were reviewed. Serious systemic adverse events following treatment with a standardized dust-mite vaccine in these children were analyzed. A total of 336 systemic adverse reactions were observed in 17.0% (120/704) of the patients analyzed of these adverse reactions, 18 (5.4%) were serious (level 3), 318 (94.6%) were not serious (below level 3), and no single case of anaphylactic shock (level 4) was recorded. Systemic adverse events occurred most frequently in the 5 to 11-year age group and in the summer season (from June to August). In the 18 severe cases, the peak expiratory flow (PEF) dropped by 20% immediately after the vaccine injection, and other major clinical symptoms included cough, wheezing and urticaria. All children with serious systemic adverse effects were given inhaled hormone and atomized short-acting beta agonists, oral antihistamines, intravenous dexamethasone and/or intramuscular adrenaline. After these treatments, the clinical symptoms were significantly relieved. The rate of serious systemic adverse events following allergen-specific immunotherapy is relatively low in children with allergic asthma. Conventional medications are effective in managing these immunotherapy-associated adverse events." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_6267", "title": "[Drug administration via the endobronchial route. Possibilities of drug administration in emergency medicine].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "For cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the endobronchial route represents a good means of administering drugs with a systemic effect, such as adrenaline and atropine, even without a venous line. Via this route, however, higher doses are needed (2.5 times as much as those normally given intravenously). In order to produce a larger surface area within the bronchio-alveolar space and thus speed up absorption, the drugs are diluted in 5-10 ml solvent (isotonic saline solution or distilled water). For endobronchial administration of a drug, various techniques are employed, for example, simply injecting it into the upper end of the (endotracheal) tube, puncture of the tube the use of an application probe introduced into the endobronchial tube, aspiration or venacaval catheter, or the EDGAR tube with an injection needle incorporated within the tube wall. After injection, the diluted medication is distributed into the tiny branches of the bronchial tree by repeated hyperventilation. Despite the need for an adequate alternative to the venous route in the field of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, we still have very few reliable facts about the endobronchial application technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0912_15811", "title": "THE CASE OF A 14-YEAR-OLD BOY WHO EXPERIENCED ANAPHYLAXIS DUE TO JELLYFISH (MASTIGIAS PAPUA) INGESTION.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We report a case of jellyfish allergy diagnosed via an oral food challenge. A 14-year-old boy had no history of jellyfish stings and had been eating commercially available jellyfish products twice yearly for the past 5-6 years. Five minutes after eating a commercially available boiled jellyfish product (100g), he experienced nausea, wheezing, and erythema and had visited our hospital. We suspected an anaphylactic reaction and treated him with intramuscular adrenaline injection, corticosteroid and antihistamine infusions, volume resuscitation, and salbutamol sulfate inhalation, which resulted in an improvement of the symptoms. One-month later in our hospital, we administered an oral food challenge of the same boiled jellyfish product bought at the same grocery store to the patient. After ingesting 14g of boiled jellyfish, he experienced erythema, wheezing, nausea, and abdominal pain. Several reports have described anaphylaxis caused by the ingestion of jellyfish, but the allergens in jellyfish have not been analyzed. A skin prick test for poly-gamma-glutamic acid (PGA) which is a component of jellyfish stings was negative. This suggests that he was sensitized to some allergen other than PGA via a route different from that of jellyfish sting. Our skin prick test for several kinds of edible jellyfish suggests that allergenicity may be different for different jellyfish." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_20404", "title": "[Suffocation attack].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "An acute attack of suffocation is a life threatening event which may be fatal within minutes. Since the oxygen stores of the body are small, any interruption of oxygen uptake by the lungs results in immediate anoxia of tissue and in particular in perilous cerebral anoxia. The primary aims in the management of this emergency situation are: (1.) opening of the airways, clearing any obstruction, and keeping airways open; (2.) administration of oxygen and, if possible, assisted ventilation. This \"reflex management\" will gain time for diagnostic evaluation, for the decision about further management and, in most cases, for safe transport to the nearest emergency hospital. Further emergency measures are required in the case of upper airway obstruction due either to a foreign body or to laryngeal edema caused by local insect stings or anaphylaxis. Occasionally a foreign body obstructing the upper airways can be cleared using the Heimlich maneuver, i.e. rapid inward and upward pressure on the victim's epigastrium. Mild forms of laryngeal edema can be relieved by inhalation of epinephrine. If these methods fail, cricothyroidotomy or transtracheal ventilation must be performed. Patients with acute severe asthma must be immediately treated with inhalations of a beta-agonist, parenteral prednisolone and administration of oxygen, while emergency transport to the nearest hospital must be organized. To ensure first aid the emergency physician must be equipped with the necessary instruments such as a small oxygen cylinder, appropriate cannula with connectors and tubings for transtracheal ventilation, and a suitable bag-valve-mask device." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0910_12519", "title": "[It is all about the form - adrenaline in anaphylaxis: intravenous or intramuscular administration?]", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Medication errors are a frequent problem in the accident and emergency (A&amp;E) department. A 17-year-old boy was referred to our A&amp;E department with an anaphylactic reaction to peanuts. Because of various shortcomings in the care process in A&amp;E, adrenaline was administered intravenously instead of intramuscularly, resulting in a broad complex tachycardia. We analysed these shortcomings using the 'Prevention and recovery information system for monitoring and analysis' (PRISMA) method. Medication errors are usually a result of shortcomings in non-technical skills, such as communication and situational awareness. Training these skills by applying the concept 'Crew resource management' may reduce medication errors and improve patient safety." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_14106", "title": "Special problems in the management of chronic asthma in children.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Children with asthma may be misdiagnosed when they present with chronic cough or wheezing following an upper respiratory infection. Such children are more appropriately treated with bronchodilators than with antibiotics and cough medicine. Failure to recognise these presentations of childhood asthma often lead to its increased morbidity. Inappropriate bronchodilator therapy and the failure to consider prophylactic drugs are common causes of poor control of childhood asthma. Wherever possible, the beta 2-sympathomimetics should be prescribed in the inhaled form. The inhalation methods and devices employed should be appropriate for the age of the child. Steroids are often necessary for good control in children with chronic asthma. Fear of their systemic side-effects may delay their use. These side-effects can be avoided if the inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate is used. The majority of chronic asthmatic children will improve with beclomethasone dipropionate without the need for additional oral steroids. It is important to note that successful management of childhood asthma does not only depend on the appropriate use of drugs but also the education of the child and parents on asthma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_13891", "title": "[Clinical management of upper airway obstruction: epiglottitis and laryngotracheobronchitis]", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "OBJECTIVE: To present current concepts on diagnosis and treatment of upper airway obstruction, mainly related to differential diagnosis between acute viral laryngotracheobronchitis and epiglottitis.METHODS: Bibliographic review covering the last ten years, using both Medline system and direct research. The most relevant articles published about the subject were selected.RESULTS: Viral laryngotracheobronchitis is an acute self-limited disease of the upper airway in a child, clinically characterized by barking cough, stridor, hoarse voice, and upper respiratory symptoms. The disease is diagnosed by clinical signs and symptoms. Rarely, if no immediate airway management is needed, radiography of the neck may help to exclude other entities that cause laryngeal obstruction. In contrast to viral laryngotracheobronchitis, epiglottitis is characterized by inflammation of the supraglottic tissues and is caused mainly by Haemophilus influenzae type b. A previously healthy child suddenly develops a sore throat and fever. Within hours after the onset of symptoms the patient looks toxic, swallowing is painful and breathing is difficult. Drooling and cervical hyperextension are frequently present. Lateral neck radiograph is rarely required to the diagnosis and may delay appropriate management of the airway. Moderate viral laryngotracheobronchitis with stridor at rest and retractions should be treated with steroids (systemic or nebulized) and nebulized epinephrine. Severe viral laryngotracheobronchitis should be treated aggressively while arregements are made for endotracheal intubation. The diagnosis of epiglottitis requires immediate endotracheal intubation in the appropriate unit (emergency department, intensive care unit or surgical unit) and antimicrobial therapy. Alternatively at some medical centers children with severe upper airway obstruction have been treated with a mixture of helium and oxygen (70 to 80% concentration of helium) instead of room air or pure oxygen to avoid intubation.CONCLUSIONS: There are different levels of care for patients with upper airway obstruction, depending on their clinical presentation. The clinical manifestations of viral laryngotracheobronchitis may be confused with the presentation of epiglottitis. Despite this observation we believe that differential diagnosis between viral laryngotracheobronchitis and epiglottitis rests on clinical grounds." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en429_14879", "title": "Kounis syndrome", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Management The management of these patients may be challenging for clinicians. Although beta blockers can be beneficial in ACS, they are contraindicated in Kounis syndrome. In allergic ACS, blocking beta receptors while giving epinephrine (which is the basis of treatment of anaphylaxis) can lead to an unopposed activity of α-adrenergic receptors which would aggravate the coronary spasm. Also opioids, indicated to relieve chest pain, may induce massive mast cell degranulation which in turn will worsen the anaphylaxis. They should hence be given carefully in such patients Type I variant Type I variant is treated based on its clinical presentation and how severe the allergic reaction is. If it is a mild reaction, then antihistamines and corticosteroids can help control the symptoms. If the patient’s presentation involves anaphylaxis, intramuscular adrenaline should be given." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_21144", "title": "[Allergic emergencies].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Both anaphylactic reactions and angioedema in the head and neck area can be life-threatening and require emergency treatment. Therapy needed is primarily directed by the patient's symptoms. The first measures taken should consist of immediate disruption of the allergen contact, adequate positioning of the patient, the insertion of an intravenous catheter and an emergency call. In case of cardiovascular or respiratory involvement, intramuscular ± inhalative adrenalin is the treatment of choice. In case of cardiovascular involvement, volume substitution by intravenous catheter and oxygen administration are crucial and in lower airway obstruction, additionally short-acting beta mimetics should be inhaled. Intravenous H1-antihistamines and glucocorticoids are added. Allergic reaction confined to the skin and mucosal surfaces without respiratory involvement or to the gastrointestinal tract should also be treated with intravenous H1-antihistamines and glucocorticoids. Angioedema in the head and neck area can, however, also be associated with a life-threatening upper airway obstruction. Histamine-induced angioedema should be treated as anaphylaxis involving the upper respiratory tract. In hereditary angioedema, or in unclassified angioedema unresponsive to therapy, early airway maintenance and subcutaneous injection of bradykinin-receptor antagonist icatibant, intravenous injection of C1-inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma is recommended. The same approach should be taken for severe angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor-induced angioedema with dyspnea. Intubation by skilled personal is indicated in inspiratory stridor and dyspnea at rest. In all cases of anaphylaxis or angioemdema, patients should be surveyed until a safe remission is achieved." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0310_15312", "title": "Symptomatic improvement following emergency department management of asthma: a pilot study of intramuscular dexamethasone versus oral prednisone.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Systemic corticosteroid therapy is an established adjunct to beta-adrenergic medications in acute exacerbations of asthma. To date, no study has defined the role of long-acting intramuscular preparations of corticosteroids in pediatric patients with asthma. A pilot study was conducted to prospectively compare symptomatic improvement following a single injection of intramuscular dexamethasone (IMD) to a 3-day regimen of oral prednisone (OP) for children with mild to moderate wheezing episodes that are responsive to nebulized medications in the Pediatric Emergency Department (PED). The following children presenting with acute exacerbations of asthma to the PED were eligible for enrollment: age 3-16 years; more than two prior wheezing episodes; mild to moderate wheezing; and oxygen saturation 95% or more in room air. The study patients were randomly assigned to receive either IMD (n = 21) or OP (n = 21) in addition to a standardized treatment regimen of nebulized albuterol. All of the children were clinically rated for wheezing severity by the Pulmonary Index (PI) score at regular intervals during the study. Discharge home was based on clinical improvement during treatment in the PED; patients who were admitted to the hospital were removed from the study. Follow-up was conducted the fifth day after discharge from the ED either by clinic visit or by telephone. Patients were assessed for symptomatic improvement and relapse or clinical deterioration during the study period by a clinician blinded to group assignment. Forty-two children participated in this pilot study. There were no significant differences between the IMD and OP groups for gender or age. Mean ages were: 82 months (SD 46 months), IMD group; 63 months (SD 36 months), OP group. Clinical progress (based on PI) with treatment in the PED was the same in both groups: pretreatment median, PI = 6; PED discharge median, PI = 2. None of the study patients were hospitalized during the follow-up period, and all reported symptomatic improvement since initial treatment. The data of this pilot study suggest that IMD may be a feasible alternative to OP for treatment of acute wheezing episodes in children with asthma. IMD provides sufficient treatment to prevent clinical deterioration within 5 days after initial therapy for mild to moderate pediatric exacerbations of asthma that are responsive to nebulized medications." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "In a patient with multiple CVRF with concomitant heart and renal failure (presumably of multiple etiology: renal hypoperfusion, arteriosclerosis...), we must be very careful when using diuretics and ACEI/ARA-II, since we can worsen renal function and/or increase potassium levels (among diuretics, spironolactone and eplerenone are \"potassium-sparing\")." } }

{ "1": "Enalapril.", "2": "Losartan.", "3": "Spironolactone.", "4": "Bisoprolol.", "5": "Eplerenone." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0878_11977", "title": "A Case of Refractory Heart Failure in Becker Muscular Dystrophy Improved With Corticosteroid Therapy.", "score": 0.014958824142603981, "content": "The patient was a 26 year-old man who was referred to our hospital in June 2011 because of severe heart failure. At age 24 years, he was found to have Becker muscular dystrophy. He received enalapril for cardiac dysfunction; however, he had worsening heart failure and was thus referred to our hospital. Echocardiography showed enlargement of the left ventricle, with a diastolic dimension of 77 mm and ejection fraction of 19%. His condition improved temporarily after an infusion of dobutamine and milrinone. He was then administered amiodarone for ventricular tachycardia; however, he subsequently developed hemoptysis. Amiodarone was discontinued and corticosteroid pulse therapy was administered followed by oral prednisolone (PSL). His creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) level and cardiomegaly improved after the corticosteroid therapy. The PSL dose was reduced gradually, bisoprolol was introduced, and the catecholamine infusion was tapered. A cardiac resynchronization device was implanted; however, the patient's condition gradually worsened, which necessitated dobutamine infusion for heart failure. We readministered 30 mg PSL, which decreased the CPK level and improved the cardiomegaly. The dobutamine infusion was discontinued, and the patient was discharged. He was given 7.5 mg PSL as an outpatient, and he returned to normal life without exacerbation of the heart failure. There are similar reports showing that corticosteroids are effective for skeletal muscle improvement in Duchenne muscular dystrophy; however, their effectiveness for heart failure has been rarely reported. We experienced a case of Becker muscular dystrophy in which corticosteroid therapy was effective for refractory heart failure. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0664_19416", "title": "[An elderly man with known heart failure admitted with cardiogenic shock].", "score": 0.014138689048760991, "content": "A 75-year-old man with post-MI heart failure and an ejection fraction of 15 % was treated with an ACE-inhibitor, spironolactone and a beta-blocker. He had reduced his intake of food and water due to an intercurrent illness the days before admission. He was admitted to our coronary care unit due to bradycardia and hypotension. On arrival his blood pressure was 60/40 mm Hg, and he was in a cardiogenic shock. The electrocardiogram showed broad QRS-complexes and large T waves. Serum-potassium was 9.1 mmol/L and he had acute renal failure with oliguria, probably caused by reduced cardiac output due to hypovolemia combined with taking an ACE inhibitor and spironolactone. Haemodialysis was started and during dialysis QRS complexes became more narrow and heart rate and blood pressure normalized. The patient was discharged 10 days later with normal potassium and creatinine levels. Patients treated with ACE-inhibitors and spironolactone should be monitored closely. During intercurrent illness dehydration may occur and this can lead to renal failure and hyperkalemia which can be life-threatening. The condition should be recognized and addressed promptly, and if indicated haemodialysis should be performed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0754_15408", "title": "ECG of the month. Irregular rhythm in a 25-year-old man with three prior cardiac operations. Coarse atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response, left anterior fascicular block, left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormality.", "score": 0.011957671957671959, "content": "The patient underwent closure of an atrial septal defect at age 3, had a leaking \"mitral\" valve repaired at age 9, and at age 13 had a \"mitral\" valve replacement. He began taking warfarin sodium at that time and remained symptom-free until 10 days before his initial visit here when he presented to another hospital with dyspnea and palpitations. Treatment there consisted of lisinopril 10 mg qd, carvedilol 6.25 mg bid, aldactone 25 mg qd, furosemide 40 mg qd, digoxin 0.25 mg qd, and a continuation of warfarin sodium 7.5 mg qd. An echocardiogram showed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 20%. After diuresis, he was referred to our cardiology clinic. On his initial visit here, his heart rate was an irregular 120 beats/min, his blood pressure was 106/77 mmHg, and closing and opening snaps of a normally functioning mechanical mitral valvular prosthesis were heard. He was obese (height, 5' 9\"; weight, 272 lbs). An electrocardiogram was recorded (Figure 1)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en370_36945", "title": "Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction", "score": 0.010126268000283748, "content": "Although the term diastolic heart failure is often used when there are signs and symptoms of heart failure with normal left ventricular systolic function, this is not always appropriate. Diastolic function is determined by the relative end diastolic volume in relation to end diastolic pressure, and is therefore independent of left ventricular systolic function. A leftward shift of the end-diastolic pressure-volume relationship (i.e. decreased left ventricular distensibility) can occur both in those with normal and those with decreased left ventricular systolic function. Likewise, heart failure may occur in those with dilated left ventricular and normal systolic function. This is often seen in valvular heart disease and high-output heart failure. Neither of these situations constitutes a diastolic heart failure. Stiffening of the left ventricle contributes heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, a condition that can be prevented with exercise." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0495_3220", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "PRESENTING FEATURES: A 70-year-old African American man was admitted with a history of fever, chills, and malaise of several days' duration. His past medical history was notable for end-stage renal disease requiring hemodialysis, coronary artery disease, and aortic stenosis requiring a bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement. On the day of admission, the patient was noted to have a shaking chill while undergoing dialysis through his catheter and was admitted to the hospital. He complained of pain at the catheter insertion site, shortness of breath, and dyspnea on exertion, but denied chest pain. On physical examination, the patient had a temperature of 100.4 degrees F, with a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, blood pressure of 127/72 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. He was a mildly obese man in no apparent distress. He had shotty cervical lymphadenopathy and a right subclavian dialysis catheter in place, with erythema and pus at the entry site. His jugular venous pressure was 10 cm H(2)O. Lung examination showed bibasilar rales. Heart sounds were normal, with no rub or gallop. He had a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur best heart at the left sternal border as well as a 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiated to his left axilla. Examination of the abdomen and extremities was unremarkable. The patient's neurological examination was unremarkable, and he was alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Laboratory studies showed an elevated white blood cell count of 16,700 cells/microL. His blood urea nitrogen level was 43 mg/dL and his serum creatinine level was 4.9 mg/dL. Multiple blood cultures grew methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. An admission, chest radiograph showed no infiltrate. An admission electrocardiogram showed normal sinus rhythm with first degree atrioventricular block, left anterior fascicular block, and left ventricular hypertrophy. shows rhythm strips from lead II electrocardiograms 5 months before admission (top), on admission (middle) and 5 days after admission (bottom). What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_10801", "title": "Left ventricular diastolic heart failure with normal left ventricular systolic function in older persons.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Underlying causes and precipitating causes of congestive heart failure (CHF) should be treated when possible. Older persons with CHF and normal left ventricular (LV) ejection fraction should have maintenance of sinus rhythm, treatment of hypertension and myocardial ischemia, slowing of the ventricular rate below 90 beats/minute, and reduction of salt overload. First-line drug treatment in the management of these persons is the use of loop diuretics combined with beta blockers as tolerated. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be administered if CHF persists despite diuretics and beta blockers. If persons are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors because of cough, rash, or altered taste sensation, angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists should be given. If CHF persists despite diuretics, beta blockers, and ACE inhibitors or the person is unable to tolerate beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, and angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists, isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine should be administered. Calcium channel blockers should be used if CHF persists despite administration of diuretics and the person is unable to tolerate beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists, and isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine. Digoxin, beta blockers, verapamil, and diltiazem may be used to slow a rapid ventricular rate in persons with supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Digoxin should not be used in persons with CHF in sinus rhythm with normal LV ejection fraction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_11814", "title": "[Successful use of angiotensin II receptor antagonist (losartan) in a patient with scleroderma renal crisis].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 67-year-old man with a one-and-a half-year history of Raynaud's phenomenon was admitted to our hospital for progressive dyspnea occurring over the previous two weeks. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 200/124 mmHg, and slightly tight and smooth skin of the fingers, hands and forearms. Laboratory evaluation included serum creatinine of 5.42 mg/dl, plasma renin activity &gt; 20 ng/ml/hr, and antinuclear antibody with a titer of 1 : 1,280. Renal biopsy was performed and the histopathological findings showed that some glomeruli exhibited ischemic retraction with wrinkling of the basement membranes, and that one arteriole exhibited significant intimal hyperplasia with luminal stenosis. These findings were compatible with scleroderma renal crisis (SRC). On the 5th day, serum creatinine had risen to 9.16 mg/dl, and he required temporary hemodialysis therapy. After the administration of captopril was started, his blood pressure fell to 160/86 mmHg and serum creatinine was reduced to 5.12 mg/dl. On the 9th day, he exhibited skin eruptions, and captopril was discontinued accordingly and temocapril started. Because of continued eruptions, temocapril was replaced by losartan. His blood pressure was controlled easily and his serum creatinine level reduced steadily. One year after the start of losartan, serum creatinine was 2.25 mg/dl and blood pressure was 130/82 mmHg. SRC is a life-threatening manifestation of systemic sclerosis. In the late 1970s, angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor was introduced and has dramatically improved the outcome in SRC patients. As ACE inhibitors act mainly on hyperreninemic renal vasoconstrictive hypertension in SRC, we would expect losartan, a selective antagonist of angiotensin receptor subtype 1, to be interchangeable with ACE inhibitors in SRC. In 1997, Caskey and colleagues reported the failure of losartan to control hypertension in a patient of SRC, and the reason has remained unclear. We report here, a case of SRC whose blood pressure was controlled successfully and his renal failure reversed by the administration of losartan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_6924", "title": "Pharmacologic therapy for patients with chronic heart failure and reduced systolic function: review of trials and practical considerations.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Heart failure (HF) is a complex clinical syndrome resulting from any structural or functional cardiac disorder impairing the ability of the ventricles to fill with or eject blood. The approach to pharmacologic treatment has become a combined preventive and symptomatic management strategy. Ideally, treatment should be initiated in patients at risk, preventing disease progression. In patients who have progressed to symptomatic left ventricular dysfunction, certain therapies have been demonstrated to improve survival, decrease hospitalizations, and reduce symptoms. The mainstay therapies are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers (bisoprolol, carvedilol, and metoprolol XL/CR), with diuretics to control fluid balance. In patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors because of angioedema or severe cough, valsartan can be substituted. Valsartan should not be added in patients already taking an ACE inhibitor and a beta-blocker. Spironolactone is recommended in patients who have New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III to IV symptoms despite maximal therapies with ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, diuretics, and digoxin. Low-dose digoxin, yielding a serum concentration &lt;1 ng/mL can be added to improve symptoms and, possibly, mortality. The combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate might be useful in patients (especially in African Americans) who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or valsartan because of hypotension or renal dysfunction. Calcium antagonists, with the exception of amlodipine, oral or intravenous inotropes, and vasodilators, should be avoided in HF with reduced systolic function. Amiodarone should be used only if patients have a history of sudden death, or a history of ventricular fibrillation or sustained ventricular tachycardia, and should be used in conjunction with an implantable defibrillator [corrected]. Finally, anticoagulation is recommended only in patients who have concomitant atrial fibrillation or a previous history of cerebral or systemic emboli." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0885_25817", "title": "ECG Case of the Month: Heart Failure in a Man from Chile.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 49-year-old man visiting New Orleans from Chile comes to the hospital complaining of exertional dyspnea for 2 months with the more recent onset of ankle edema. He is a slender man with a blood pressure of 91/60 mmHg, crackles at both lung bases, and markedly distended neck veins. His cardiac rhythm is irregular. A soft murmur of mitral regurgitation and a soft S-3 are heard at the left ventricular apex. All four pedal pulses are easily palpable. Epigastric tenderness is noted on palpation; although the patient has a history of peptic ulcer disease, the tenderness is probably due to an enlarged left lobe of his liver, the result of hepatic congestion from his heart failure. A chest radiograph shows generalized cardiomegaly with an especially large left ventricle. Pulmonary congestion and small bilateral pleural effusions also are noted. The Figure shows the electrocardiogram recorded on admission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0919_5513", "title": "Update of treatment of heart failure with reduction of left ventricular ejection fraction.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Underlying and precipitating causes of heart failure (HF) with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (HFrEF) should be identified and treated when possible. Hypertension should be treated with diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and β-blockers. Diuretics are the first-line drugs in the treatment of patients with HFrEF and volume overload. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and β-blockers (carvedilol, sustained-release metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol) should be used in treatment of HFrEF. Use an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) (candesartan or valsartan) if intolerant to ACE inhibitors because of cough or angioneurotic edema. Sacubitril/valsartan may be used instead of an ACE inhibitor or ARB in patients with chronic symptomatic HFrEF class II or III to further reduce morbidity and mortality. Add an aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone) in selected patients with class II-IV HF who can be carefully monitored for renal function and potassium concentration. (Serum creatinine should be ≤ 2.5 mg/dl in men and ≤ 2.0 mg/dl in women. Serum potassium should be &lt; 5.0 mEq/l). Add isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine in patients self-described as African Americans with class II-IV HF being treated with diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and β-blockers. Ivabradine can be used in selected patients with HFrEF." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_509", "title": "Pulmonary artery ablation to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension: a case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension is defined as a group of diseases characterized by a progressive increase in pulmonary vascular resistance that results in right heart failure and premature death. Although therapies exist to improve hemodynamic instability and symptoms, there is no cure for pulmonary arterial hypertension and it remains a life-threatening condition. A recent study performed in China reported, for the first time, the effect of pulmonary arterial denervation on functional capacity and hemodynamics in patients with refractory idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension. We report a case of a 60-year-old white Brazilian man, with controlled hypertension and stage 2 obesity who complained of progressive fatigue with moderate to light exertion of approximately 1 year's duration. During this period, he underwent myocardial perfusion scintigraphy without evidence of obstructive ischemic disease. He had no clinical evidence of systolic heart failure. He had undergone biological mitral valve replacement 3 years previously for mitral valve stenosis and ablation of atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia 18 months previously. At the time of valve replacement, he had no reported evidence of pulmonary arterial hypertension. His echocardiogram showed normal function of a mitral prosthesis, normal global left ventricular systolic function (left ventricular ejection fraction 62 % measured using the Teichholz method), stage I diastolic dysfunction, and a mean systolic pulmonary arterial blood pressure of 50 mmHg. In the 6-minute walk test, the patient walked 104 meters. Catheterization of his right heart chambers and pulmonary arteries confirmed the diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension. Electroanatomic reconstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract and pulmonary artery was performed under direct fluoroscopic visualization, and a merger was made with a formatted image of cardiac computed tomography angiography. Then we performed irrigated cardiac catheter ablation of the pulmonary trunk. At the patient's 3-month follow-up, he showed improvement in functional class for fatigue on major exertion, increased distance walked in the 6-minute walk test, and reductions in pressure of both the right cavities and the pulmonary artery. Currently, with 6 months of clinical follow-up, the patient has maintained his functional classification and is pedaling his bicycle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0584_10591", "title": "Treatment of heart failure with normal left ventricular ejection fraction.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Underlying causes and precipitating causes of heart failure (HF) should be treated when possible. Persons with HF and normal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) should have maintenance of sinus rhythm, treatment of hypertension, myocardial ischemia, dyslipidemia, and anemia, slowing of the ventricular rate below 90 bpm, and reduction of salt overload. First-line drug treatment in the management of these persons is the use of loop diuretics combined with beta blockers and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. If persons are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors because of cough, angioneurotic edema, rash, or altered taste sensation, angiotensin II type I receptor antagonists (ARBs) should be given. If HF persists despite diuretics, beta blockers, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs, isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine should be administered. Beta blockers, verapamil, diltiazem, and digoxin may be used to slow a rapid ventricular rate in persons with supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Digoxin should not be used in persons with HF in sinus rhythm with normal LVEF. Exercise training should be encouraged in persons with mild to moderate HF to improve functional status and to decrease symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en159_18160", "title": "TIMI", "score": 0.009558823529411765, "content": "TIMI Risk Score for STEMI Age 65-74 years? Yes (+2) – or – Age ≥75 years? Yes (+3) Diabetes, Hypertension or Angina? Yes (+1) Systolic BP < 100 mmHg? Yes (+3) Heart rate > 100? Yes (+2) Killip Class II-IV (JVD or any pulmonary exam findings of CHF)? Yes (+2) Weight < 67kg (147.7 lbs)? Yes (+1) Anterior ST Elevation or LBBB? Yes (+1) Time to treatment > 4 hours? Yes (+1) What Does This Score Mean? TIMI Risk Score for HF in Diabetes Prior heart failure? Yes (+2) History of atrial fibrillation? Yes (+1) Coronary artery disease? Yes (+1) eGFR < 60 ml/min/1.73*m2? Yes (+1) Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio >300 mg/g? Yes (+2) – or – Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 30-300 mg/g? Yes (+1) What Does This Score Mean?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_9493", "title": "[A 91-year-old man with a stroke, hypertension, and renal failure].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We report a 91-year-old man who had a stroke and died of renal failure. He had been treated for hypertension since 20 years before the onset of the present illness. In addition, he was operated on a gastric cancer 17 years previously. Otherwise he was doing well until May 29, 1991 (when he was 87-year-old) when he had sudden onset of dysarthria and right facial weakness. He was admitted to our hospital. On admission, general physical examination was unremarkable, and neurologic examination revealed a mentally sound man with slight dysarthria, right facial weakness, orolingual dyskinesia, and dysequilibrium in which he showed difficulty in tandem gait; however, no cerebellar ataxia was noted. A cranial CT scan revealed leukoaraiosis with multiple low density areas in the cerebral white matter. His BUN was 37 mg/dl and Cr 2.2 mg/dl. His neurologic symptoms cleared within the next few weeks and he was discharged with ticlopidine 100 mg q.d.. He had been doing well after the discharge except for gradual worsening of his renal function; his BUN was 65 mg/dl and Cr 3.27 mg/dl in April of 1994. On March 10, 1995, he fell down and hit his back; he became unable to walk because of pain, and he was admitted again on March 16, 1995. On admission, his blood pressure was 170/80 mmHg. There was an 1 + pitting pretibial edema; otherwise general physical examination was unremarkable. Neurologic examination revealed an alert and oriented man, however, Hasegawa's dementia scale was 23/30. Higher cerebral functions as well as cranial nerves were intact. He showed some unsteadiness of gait, however, no motor weakness or ataxia was noted. Deep tendon reflexes were diminished, but Chaddock sign was positive bilaterally. Vibration was diminished in the feet, however, pain and touch sensations were intact. Laboratory examination revealed a compression fracture of the twelfth thoracic vertebra. Blood count and chemistries were as follows; Hb 7.6 g/dl, Hct 23.3%, TP 6.0 g/dl, Alb 3.6 g/dl, BUN 87 mg/dl, Cr 4.53 mg/dl, T-Chol 174 mg/dl, HDL-Chol 49 mg/dl, Glu 156 mg/dl, Na 142 mEq/L, K 5.4 mEq/L, Cl 115 mEq/L. A urine specimen contained 1 + protein and 1 + glucose, and the sediments contained hyaline casts. A cranial CT scan was essentially same as that taken four years ago. His hospital course was complicated with pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and progressive renal failure. He was treated with intravenous fluid, chemotherapy, and other supportive measures, however, he expired from respiratory failure on April 30, 1995. He was discussed in a neurologic CPC, and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had Binswanger's disease in the brain, benign nephrosclerosis from arteriolosclerosis due to hypertension, congestive heart failure, and pneumonia. Opinions were divided regarding the question as to whether or not this patient had Binswanger's disease. Although his cranial CT scan revealed leukoaraiosis, his dementia and gait disturbance was only mild until his fall on March, 1995. Clinical features did not conform to those of Binswanger's disease. Postmortem examination of the right hemisphere revealed wide spread atherosclerosis and arteriolosclerosis. The kidney showed benign nephrosclerosis due to arteriolosclerosis. Sclerotic changes were also seen in the coronary arteries and the left middle cerebral artery with 70% stenosis. Myelin stain showed diffuse myelin pallor of the cerebral white matters with scattered small infarcts. Arterioles in the white matter showed arteriolosclerosis. Small infarcts were also seen in the putamen and in the thalamus. This patient appeared to have had circulatory disturbance of the white matter which is the basic abnormality causing Binswanger's disease. However, white matter changes in this patient were not quite severe enough to make a pathologic diagnosis of Binswanger's disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0734_24998", "title": "Recent developments in the management of heart failure.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The typical presentation of heart failure in primary care is insidious, with progressive breathlessness on exertion, ankle swelling, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Not all patients will have all these symptoms, and in many patients there may be other causes. If a GP suspects heart failure, then the key blood test is B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP). If the BNP is normal then heart failure is unlikely and other diagnoses should be considered. If it is raised, or if there is a past history of myocardial infarction, the patient requires further assessment, which must include echocardiography and a specialist assessment. The underlying cardiac abnormality should be identified. An ECG is often very useful and if it is completely normal it makes heart failure less likely. Both the NICE and the ESC guidance emphasise the importance of lifestyle management (regular appropriate exercise, avoiding excessive salt and alcohol consumption). ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin receptor blockers) and beta-blockers licensed for heart failure (carvedilol, bisoprolol, nebivolol) remain the mainstay of treatment in addition to as small a dose of diuretic as possible to control any fluid retention. Aldosterone antagonism is recommended by the 2012 ESC guidance for all patients who remain symptomatic despite an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. If the rhythm is sinus but the heart rate is 75 beats per minute, therapy needs to be optimised, perhaps by increasing the beta-blocker dose, if possible, or by the addition of ivabradine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_20938", "title": "[A comparison of the clinical efficacy of enalapril maleate analogs in patients with heart failure and ischemic heart disease].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The authors examined 68 patients aged from 42 to 68 years with ischemic heart disease without a history of myocardial infarction and with angina pectoris of exertion functional class 2-3 and circulatory insufficiency class 2 (according to NYHA criteria). The criteria serving as the reason for relating patients to the follow-up group were left-ventricular end-diastolic volume &gt; 160 ml, ejection fraction &lt; 30%, cardiothoracic index &gt; 0.55, threshold power of endured loads within a range of 71.5 +/- 2.30 watt. After stabilization of the clinical status by means of basic therapy (nitrates, blockers of slow calcium channels, diuretics, antiaggregants), all patients were divided into two follow-up groups. The first group consisted of 36 patients who received renitec (10 mg/24 h), patients of group 2 were given enap in the same dose. The course of treatment lasted 12 weeks. The effectiveness of treatment was controlled by echocardiography according to the standard methods in M- and B-regimens. Analysis of the obtained data showed that within 12-day follow-up renitec demonstrated higher effectiveness and lesser incidence of side-effects than did enap given in the same dose." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en275_12994", "title": "Management of heart failure", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Beta blockers Until recently (within the last 20 years), β-blockers were contraindicated in CHF, owing to their negative inotropic effect and ability to produce bradycardia – effects which worsen heart failure. However, current guidelines recommend β-blocker therapy for patients with systolic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after stabilization with diuretic and ACEI therapy, irrespective of symptomatic severity or blood pressure. As with ACEI therapy, the addition of a β-blocker can decrease mortality and improve left ventricular function. Several β-blockers are specifically indicated for CHF including: bisoprolol, carvedilol, nebivolol and extended-release metoprolol. The antagonism of β1 inotropic and chronotropic effects decreases the amount of work the heart must perform. It is also thought that catecholamines and other sympathomimetics have an effect on cardiac remodeling, and blocking their activity can slow the deterioration of cardiac function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0342_6414", "title": "[Heart function and clinical observations of patients with severe congestive heart failure treated with milrinone].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To evaluate the clinical effects of milrinone in patients with severe heart failure, heart function and clinical observations were performed on 25 patients with severe congestive heart failure treated with domestic intravenous milrinone for 15 days. Results showed that the total response rate to milrinone was 96% while 60% of them had significant improvement. Heart function and diameter of left atrial, left ventricle, and right ventricle were measured by pulsed Doppler and M-mode echocardiographg before and after the treatment. The systolic function of the left ventricle (such as SV, CO, EF, FS, IVST, PLVWT) was significantly improved. The diastolic function of the left ventricle (such as E peak, A peak, IRT) was also improved. Diameter of left atrial, left ventricle, and right ventricle was significantly reduced. The heart rate and blood pressure remained unchanged. No obvious side-effect was found in our observation. The domestic intravenous milrinone is a drug of choice for the management of patients with severe congestive heart failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0705_16659", "title": "Implantation of a Jarvik 2000 left ventricular assist device as a bridge to eligibility for refractory heart failure with renal dysfunction.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 55-year-old man, who previously underwent surgical ventricular restoration and mitral valve surgery, was referred to our department for management of refractory heart and multiple organ failure. At the time of admission to our hospital, he could not be registered as a candidate for heart transplantation because of severe renal failure with a serum creatinine level of 4.6 mg/dl. We considered that he was a marginal candidate for heart transplantation; thus, it was essential to understand the etiology of renal failure and estimate whether it was reversible. Cardiac catheterization revealed poor hemodynamic function with a systemic pressure of 107/60 mmHg, cardiac index of 2.5 l/min/m(2), and pulmonary artery pressure of 63/27 mmHg, despite intense medical treatment. Contrary to biochemical examination findings of blood, renal biopsy findings showed no significant glomerular abnormality. Furthermore, the severity of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis in the cortex was mild. These pathological findings suggested that the renal dysfunction in this case was possibly attributable to a hemodynamic factor. His symptoms gradually deteriorated despite an increasing dose of inotropic support; thus, we planned implantation of a Jarvik 2000 axial-flow pump (Jarvik Heart Inc., New York, NY, USA) as a bridge to eligibility, and informed consent was obtained. Because of a tight adhesion on the anterior wall, we placed the device on the lateral wall of the left ventricle, making sure not to direct the pump at the septum. Postoperatively, the implantable left ventricular assist device provided relief from heart failure symptoms as well as recovery of renal function, with serum the creatinine level at 1.2 mg/dl, which allowed the patient to become an appropriate candidate for heart transplantation. At an 18-month follow-up examination, his status was uneventful, and he is now at home awaiting heart transplantation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0344_3390", "title": "[Trends in pharmacological treatment of congestive heart failure].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Congestive heart failure (CHF) is growing epidemiologic and clinical problem, and is the only common cardiovascular condition that is increasing in incidence, prevalence and mortality. During last years numerous clinical trial have been conduced evaluating the effect of various treatment procedures on clinical endpoints in patients with CHF. The major risk factor for CHF are hipertension and atherosclerotic vascular diseases, and now it is clear that aggressive treatment of hypertension and hyperlipidemia can be effective in preventing CHF. Treatment strategies for CHF are aimed at preventing and delaying progression of the disease and improving survival. In the treatment of CHF diuretics are at present the first drugs line for patients with fluid retention and are necessary to relieve symptoms but cannot halt progression or improve the prognosis of CHF. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) therapy has been shown to decrease mortality and progression of CHF and should be used early in patients with left ventricular dysfunction whether they have symptomatic or asymptomatic CHF. Digoxin therapy is associated with decrease in the risk of worsening CHF irrespective of rhythm, systolic function, severity of CHF or therapy with ACE inhibitors. In patients with symptomatic CHF due to systolic dysfunction the addition of diuretics and digoxin appears to reducing worsening CHF without improving survival. Other than digoxin oral inotropic agents (amrinone, pimobendan, vesnarinone, ibopamine) increase mortality in patients with CHF and have not improved symptom status and other clinical endpoints during long-term therapy. Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate administrated in combination are less effective alternative to ACE inhibitors. Beta-blockers and particular carvedilol may prolong survival and decrease worsening CHF when used in combination with digoxine, diuretics and ACE inhibitors. Beta-blockers therapy improve hemodynamics, LVEF and functional status patients with CHF and the ideal candidate for this therapy is stable patients with NYHA II-III CHF due to nonischemic cause. Calcium antagonists do not appear to be useful in patients with CHF, although amlodipine and mibefradil appears to be safe for treatment of angina or hypertension in this group. On the basis of current data, antiarrhythmic agents should not be given to patients with CHF free from arrhythmia but those with sustained ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation amiodaron appears to be safe." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0264_19614", "title": "[A 46-year-old man with cardiac failure and statues epileptics].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We report a 46-year-old man with bacterial endocarditis and cardiac failure, who developed status epileptics. The patient was apparently well until July of 1991 when there was a gradual onset of fever and general fatigue. He was hospitalized to the cardiology service of our hospital where diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis and aortic insufficiency was made. On October 9, 1991, he suddenly developed cardiogenic shock, and emergency replacement of the aortic valve was made; at the operation, the main trunk of the left coronary artery showed embolic occlusion, and the myocardial movement was markedly diminished; serum creatine kinase was 3.150 IU/l. His cardiac failure did not resolve, and renal failure developed in December 1991, for which peritoneal dialysis was necessary. On February 2, 1992, he suddenly developed a clonic seizure which started from his face with a transient post-ictal left hemiparesis; a cranial CT scan was unremarkable. He was treated with phenytoin and glycerol, however, he developed status epileptics on February 3; he developed cardiac arrest after the injection of phenytoin 750 mg. He was resuscitated, however, his status did not resolve. Neurological consultation was asked on February 4. On physical examination, his blood pressure was 80/40 mmHg heart rate 77/min and regular, and body temperature 39.1 degrees C. The palpebral conjunctiva were slightly anemic, however, the bulbar conjunctiva were not icteric. No cervical adenopathy was noted. Glade II systolic murmur was heard in the apex; the lungs were clear. The abdomen was flat and soft without organomegaly. No edema was present in the legs. On neurologic examination, he was comatose without response to painful stimuli. He repeatedly had convulsion lasting for 30 seconds every 2 to 3 minutes; his convulsions started with the conjugate deviation of the eyes to the left followed by turning of the head toward left, and then clonic convulsions started in this left upper limb extending to other extremities. The optic fundi were unable to visualize because of corneal clouding; light reflex was sluggish on the right side; no oculocephalic response was elicited; corneal reflex was also lost bilaterally. Extremities were hypotonic, and no automatic movement was seen. The triceps brachii reflex was diminished, but all the other deep reflexes were lost; no plantar response was elicited. Meningeal sign was absent. He was treated with intravenous diazepam; the interval of convulsions prolonged, however, blood pressure dropped to 40 to 40 mmHg. On February 4, intravenous thiopental anesthesia was instituted, and assisted respiration was started.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_19698", "title": "[Effects of enalapril on left ventricular hypertrophy in patients with mild or moderate essential hypertension].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To evaluate the effects of enalapril maleate on the regression of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) associated to hypertension. Fifteen male, age between 45 and 65 years (mean age = 56 y) with diagnosis of mild-to-moderate essential hypertension (greater than diastolic blood pressure [DBP] less than between 90 and 114 mmHg) and LHV at the echocardiogram. The administration of enalapril maleate was initiated with a 20 mg daily dosage and titrated up to a maximum of 40 mg daily, whenever DBP was maintained above 90 mmHg and no adverse experience occurred. Fourteen patients completed the clinical trial and all of them achieved satisfactory blood pressure (BP) control. The dosage of enalapril was 20 mg/day for 11 patients and 40 mg/day for the other three. The mean systolic blood pressure in supine position decreased from an initial value of 151.4 +/- 9.5 to 126.4 +/- 9.4 mmHg at the end of treatment and the mean diastolic blood pressure from 100.0 +/- 5.0 to 80.4 +/- 1.5 mmHg (p less than 0.001). There was a reduction of mean diastolic septal wall thickness from 11.5 +/- 0.05 to 10.1 +/- 0.05 mm and left ventricular posterior wall thickness from 11.2 +/- 0.7 to 9.8 +/- 0.6 mm (p less than 0.05). The diastolic dimension and left ventricular volume did not show significant changes. The mean of calculated left ventricular mass showed a decrease from 263.6 +/- 32.9 to 231.3 +/- 34.7 g at the end of treatment (p less than 0.05). Mean ejection fraction and fractional fiber shortening showed light, but non significant increase. The tolerability to the drug was satisfactory. Two patients complained of transient palpitations and two other, irritative cough, that determined the treatment discontinuation in one case. Enalapril maleate 20 to 40 mg daily, besides the satisfactory control of BP in patients with mild-to-moderate essential hypertension, promoted regression of left ventricular hypertrophy, without impairment of left ventricular function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0392_8074", "title": "Atherosclerotic Renovascular Disease.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The patient, a 78-year-old Asian male, was brought to the hospital because of acute shortness of breath that had progressively worsened over the course of the day. He complained of a nonproductive cough and claudication after walking 1 block. His past medical history was significant for mild renal insufficiency (serum creatinine 1.5--2.0 mg/dl), the etiology of which was never explored. Although there was a recent history of mild to moderate hypertension, at presentation his blood pressure was noted to be 240/118 mm Hg in both arms. His physical exam at the time of admission was remarkable for grade II hypertensive retinopathy, an S4 gallop, periumbilical systolic bruits, audible femoral arterial bruits and absent distal lower extremity pulses. Initial complete blood count, serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes (including lactate dehydrogenase) were normal. His blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine concentrations were 51 and 3.6 mg/dl, respectively, and his urinalysis showed 1+ protein (both by dipstick and sulfasalicylic acid) with a \"benign\" sediment (0--1 WBC/HPE, 1--2 RBCs/HPF) with occasional granular casts. His electrocardiogram, apart from demonstrating left ventricular hypertrophy with secondary ST-T wave abnormalities, showed no acute changes; his chest X-ray demonstrated cardiomegaly and pulmonary vascular congestion. He was intubated and subsequently treated with increasing parenteral doses of furosemide (40--240 mg) and a nitroglycerine drip (up to 15 mcg/min). Over the course of the first 48 h, his blood pressure was gradually lowered to 170/100 mm Hg. His urine output increased from 20 ml/h to 125/ml/h, and his respiratory status improved, allowing him to be extubated. In spite of adequate control of his blood pressure in the ensuing days (150--170/80--90 mm Hg), his renal function continued to deteriorate. Renal sonography (without Doppler) demonstrated a right kidney of 9.6 cm and a left kidney of 9.3 cm in length without evidence of hydronephrosis. Both kidneys were noted to be echogenic. Assays for antinuclear antibodies and antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies were negative, and the patient's serum complement levels were normal. For several days after his admission, his serum creatinine gradually rose to 10.7 mg/dl, and hemodialysis was initiated for uremic encephalopathy. Because of the high index of suspicion for renal artery stenosis as the case of both his hypertension and renal failure, a renal angiogram was performed. It revealed a 90% occlusion of the right renal artery with ostial involvement and a 70% occlusion of the left renal artery; both kidneys had poor distal renal vasculature and there was marked atherosclerotic disease of the aorta. After being hemodialyzed for 3 treatments, his renal function began to improve spontaneously. His serum creatinine returned to 3.4 mg/dl, and a subsequent 24-hour urine demonstrated a creatinine clearance of 20 ml/min and an excretion of 1.2 g of protein. Following his discharge from the hospital, his renal function remained unchanged for 3 years, and his blood pressure was easily controlled on monotherapy with a long-acting calcium channel blocker. He recently died from pneumonia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0091_10996", "title": "[Value of heart rate recordings in selecting the initial treatment of hypertension].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "60 patients with mild arterial hypertension are studied, divided into three groups according to their heart rate (HR): 20 with heart rate below 70 b.p.m.; 20 with heart rate between 70 and 80 b.p.m., and 20 with heart rate above 80 b.p.m. In every group, 10 patients were treated with atenolol and the other 10 patients with chlorthalidone. The cases of bad tolerance or bad response to any of these drugs were included in the other subgroup, so that a total number of 71 responses to drugs were studied. It has been found that the hypertension in patients having HR above 80 b.p.m. has a better response to atenolol. On the other hand, in patients having HR below 70 b.p.m. the response is better to chlorthalidone. In those patients with HR between 71 and 79 a similar response to both drugs is observed, nevertheless the decrease of the diastolic pressure is significantly bigger with atenolol. We arrive at the conclusion that when the HR is above 70 b.p.m. and especially above 80 b.p.m., better results are obtained using atenolol than chlorthalidone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1079_17885", "title": "A Case of Dapsone-induced Mild Methemoglobinemia with Dyspnea and Cyanosis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Dear Editor, Dapsone is a dual-function drug with antimicrobial and antiprotozoal effects and anti-inflammatory features (1). In dermatology, it is a first choice for conditions such as leprosy, IgA pemphigus, dermatitis herpetiformis, and linear IgA bullous dermatosis, or an adjunctive treatment for, e.g. bullous pemphigoid (BP) and pemphigus vulgaris (1). However, dapsone is associated with some adverse effects, including methemoglobinemia (1). Methemoglobin (MetHb) concentrations of less than 15% usually cause no symptoms in patients with normal hemoglobin concentrations (2). Herein, we report the case of a patient with BP who developed dyspnea because of dapsone-induced methemoglobinemia that was as mild as 4.7%. A 93-year-old man was diagnosed with BP based on skin manifestations (Figure 1, a and b), histopathological findings (Figure 1, c and d), and anti-BP180 NC16A antibody titer determined by chemiluminescence enzyme immunoassay (279 U/mL) 3 years earlier. His comorbidities included diabetes mellitus, chronic heart failure, right pleural effusion, and brain infarction. The patient had been successfully treated with oral prednisolone, so the steroid was tapered to 4 mg/day. The blisters recurred, however, and new ones kept developing even though the prednisolone was increased to 25 mg/day. Dapsone (75 mg/day) was begun as adjunctive treatment, and new blister formation ceased. At one week from dapsone initiation, the patient developed dyspnea, and his oxygen saturation as measured by pulse oximetry decreased to 88% on room air. At presentation, his blood pressure was 118/78 mmHg, the heart rate was 95 beats/minute, and axillary temperature was 36.3 °C. Neurological examination and consciousness findings remained unchanged compared with findings before dyspnea onset. Chest examination showed normal breath and heart sounds, but lip and peripheral cyanosis was present. Blood tests revealed a white blood cell count of 12,920/μl; red blood cells, 370×104/μl; hemoglobin, 11.7 g/dl; and CMV antigenemia (or C7-HRP), negative. Chest CT and echocardiography indicated no remarkable change compared with imaging from one year earlier. Arterial blood gas analysis showed a pH of 7.454, PaO2 63.1 mmHg, PaCO2 35.4 mmHg, HCO3- 24.3 mmol/L, SaO2 92.4%, and MetHb of 4.7%. These findings indicated a saturation gap (difference between SpO2 and SaO2) induced by MetHb. Upon cessation of dapsone, MetHb levels and SpO2 returned to normal and the dyspnea resolved, implicating dapsone in the methemoglobinemia (Figure 1, e). Differential diagnoses were pulmonary disease, heart disease, neuromuscular disease, sepsis, and drug intoxication. These possibilities were ruled out by the physical examination, drug history, vital signs, blood tests, and chest CT and echocardiography. In normal individuals, MetHb levels are less than 1% (2). Healthy patients with normal hemoglobin concentrations develop cyanosis at MetHb level of 15-20%, dyspnea at 20-50%, and coma at 50-70%, and die at more than 70% (2). However, patients with hematologic disease, acidosis, or cardiopulmonary diseases, for example, present with symptoms even with MetHb levels less than 15% (2,3). We inferred that our patient presented with dyspnea even under mild methemoglobinemia because he had anemia, chronic heart failure, and right pleural effusion. The occurrence of dapsone-induced methemoglobinemia with obvious symptoms is rare (1,4). Clinicians should be aware that methemoglobinemia symptoms are influenced not only by MetHb concentrations but also by comorbidities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0284_3017", "title": "[The effect of hypotensive drugs on left ventricular mass and diastolic function].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Chronic left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is associated with depressed contractile performance, abnormal compliance of the chamber, and ultimately, the development of a left ventricular failure. Thus the presence of LVH carries a particularly ominous prognosis in patients with essential hypertension. Finally, regression of LVH appears to be a worthwhile goal of an antihypertensive therapy along with blood pressure control. Of particular importance, is whether the functional derangements associated with hypertrophy will also be reversed. The present study was undertaken to determine whether antihypertensive therapy reduced ventricular mass, and whether these changes were accompanied by improved diastolic function. 47 patients with mild-to-moderate essential hypertension were divided into two groups. Group I--included 21 patients whose blood pressure responded to nifedipine monotherapy. Group II--included 26 patients whose normalization of blood pressure required combined therapy with nifedipine and metoprolol. 40 healthy volunteers comprised a control group. To assess the effects of antihypertensive therapy on the heart, left ventricular mas (LVM), systolic and diastolic function, by M-mode, 2-D and pulsed wave Doppler echocardiography had been evaluated. Measurements were performed before therapy and every 3rd month during first year, and every 40th month during the second year of observation. RESULTS. At baseline all hypertensive patients had significantly increased LVM compared to the controls. Indexes of systolic function in studied patients were normal, while indexes of LV diastolic filling were significantly abnormal compared to the controls. In the group treated with nifedipine, starting from the 9th month of observation, small but significant decrease in posterior wall thickness was noted but LVM did not change during the whole time of the observation. Similarly, there was no significant change in indexes of left ventricular diastolic filling. Contrary to patients treated with nifedipine, in group of patients treated with combination of nifedipine and metoprolol, significant reduction of LVM and improvement of LV diastolic filling was observed. Of particular interest was the fact, that improvement in diastolic, performance appeared earlier, and preceded regression of LVM. Most striking was the improvement in Ev/Av ratio which increased by 16% after 6 months and by 35% after 24 months of the therapy. CONCLUSION. 1. Combined therapy with nifedipine and metoprolol contrary to monotherapy with nifedipine alone, results in the regression of left ventricular mass and the improvement of left ventricular diastolic function. 2. Improvement of left ventricular diastolic function appears earlier, preceding the regression of left ventricular hypertrophy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0886_6897", "title": "Miliary tuberculosis in an immunocompetent male with a fatal outcome.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A man aged 33 years, born in Nepal, but resident in the UK for 7 years presented to the emergency department with a 4-day history of general malaise, fever (temperature 38.6°C) and a non-productive cough. His medical history was unremarkable and no high-risk behaviour was identified. Clinical examination confirmed decreased air entry bilaterally with bibasal crackles. He was tachycardic, with a heart rate of 120 bpm. Further investigation with a 12-lead ECG confirmed supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) which was terminated with vagal manoeuvres. His chest radiograph demonstrated left basal consolidation. His white cell count was 11×10<sup9</sup/L and his C reactive protein was 43.2 mg/L. His blood cultures revealed no growth. He was diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia and started treatment with amoxicillin and clarithromycin. 3 days post admission, he was intubated for 24 hours in the Department of Intensive Care Medicine. Further episodes of SVT were observed and an ECHO showed a severely dilated and impaired left ventricle. Further chest radiographs illustrated diffuse consolidation with evidence of pulmonary oedema. HIV serology was negative. He developed transaminitis and thrombocytopenia. An ultrasound scan of his liver showed no obvious liver pathology. He remained tachypnoeic and due to worsening pulmonary oedema and extensive consolidation, he was readmitted to the intensive care unit. A CT abdomen with contrast showed an unusual pattern of lymphadenopathy with disproportionately enlarged coeliac axis nodes (5×7×5 cm) and minor para-aortic adenopathy, suspicious for lymphoma. On inserting his central venous catheter in his right internal jugular vein, pus was inadvertently aspirated from his right neck. Acid alcohol fast bacilli (AAFFB) were isolated from the pus and was subsequently identified as Mycobacterium tuberculosis He started treatment with antitubercular medication rifater: a combination of rifampicin 720 mg od, isoniazid 300 mg po od and pyrazinamide 1750 mg. In addition, he received ethambutol 1000 mg po od and pyridoxine 5 mg. He developed worsening metabolic acidosis, pH 7.19, loss of respiratory compensation and pancytopenia. Right heart strain was evident on his Focused Intensive Care Echo. He developed an increased oxygen requirement and respiratory distress on the ventilator. An erect chest radiograph showed bilateral pneumothoraces and bronchopleural fistulae. A chest drain was inserted. Following discussion with the Cardiothoracic Surgeons, pleurodesis was not deemed possible. He developed inotropic-dependent shock with worsening lung compliance. As a result of his deteriorating ventilation, acidosis and hyperkalaemia, he started treatment with continuous veno-venous haemofiltration. With a diagnosis of miliary tuberculosis and SVT causing cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, this man sadly died with his family at his bedside 10 weeks following initial hospital presentation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_18346", "title": "[Comparative study of 2 diuretic-containing combination preparations in patients with edematous heart failure].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The efficacy and tolerability of two combinations, namely 50 mg spironolactone + 20 mg furosemide (SF) or 50 mg spironolactone + 5 mg butizide (SB), were compared in a randomised intraindividual trial in 22 patients with congestive heart failure. The parameters used were: weight, ankle- and calf-circumference, blood pressure, resting pulse, resting ECG, spirometry and blood chemistry. The physicians' judgement of the success of treatment was also recorded. Clinical symptoms improved clearly in both groups and in most cases there was significant improvement of the various parameters. The trend towards improvement was more apparent with SF. The physicians considered SF to be more effective in 12 cases compared to one case with SB. In all other cases both treatments were considered equally effective. The blood chemistry data showed relevant differences: serum-potassium levels were less scattered with SF and showed a - desirable - shift into the upper normal range. The number of patients with elevated serum-creatinin-levels increased during SB-treatment whereas the opposite was noted with SF. This could be due to furosemide's positive effects on renal functions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_11166", "title": "A Case Report of Renal Sympathetic Denervation for the Treatment of Polymorphic Ventricular Premature Complexes: Expanding Horizons.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Premature ventricular complexes are very common, appearing most frequently in patients with hypertension, obesity, sleep apnea, and structural heart disease. Sympathetic hyperactivity plays a critical role in the development, maintenance, and aggravation of ventricular arrhythmias. Recently, Armaganijan et al reported the relevance of sympathetic activation in patients with ventricular arrhythmias and suggested a potential role for catheter-based renal sympathetic denervation in reducing the arrhythmic burden. In this report, we describe a 32-year-old hypertensive male patient presenting with a high incidence of polymorphic premature ventricular complexes on a 24  hour Holter monitor. Beginning 1 year prior, the patient experienced episodes of presyncope, syncope, and tachycardia palpitations. The patient was taking losartan 100  mg/day, which kept his blood pressure (BP) under control, and sotalol 160  mg twice daily. Bisoprolol 10  mg/day was used previously but was not successful for controlling the episodes. The 24  hour Holter performed after the onset of sotalol 160  mg twice daily showed a heart rate ranging between 48 (minimum)-78 (average)-119 (maximum) bpm; 14,286 polymorphic premature ventricular complexes; 3 episodes of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia, the largest composed of 4 beats at a rate of 197 bpm; and 14 isolated atrial ectopic beats. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium perfusion performed at rest and under pharmacological stress with dipyridamole showed increased left atrial internal volume, preserved systolic global biventricular function, and an absence of infarcted or ischemic areas. The patient underwent bilateral renal sympathetic denervation. The only drug used postprocedure was losartan 25  mg/day. Three months after the patient underwent renal sympathetic denervation, the mean BP value dropped to 132/86  mmHg, the mean systolic/diastolic 24  hour ambulatory BP measurement was reduced to 128/83  mmHg, and the 24  hour Holter monitor showed a heart rate ranging between 51 (minimum)-67 (average)-108 (maximum) bpm, 854 polymorphic premature ventricular complexes, and no episodes of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_21045", "title": "Electrocardiographic strain pattern and prediction of new-onset congestive heart failure in hypertensive patients: the Losartan Intervention for Endpoint Reduction in Hypertension (LIFE) study.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The ECG strain pattern of ST depression and T-wave inversion is strongly associated with left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) independently of coronary heart disease and with an increased risk of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in hypertensive patients. However, whether ECG strain is an independent predictor of new-onset congestive heart failure (CHF) in the setting of aggressive antihypertensive therapy in unclear. The relationship of ECG strain at study baseline to the development of CHF was examined in 8696 patients with no history of CHF who were enrolled in the Losartan Intervention for Endpoint Reduction in Hypertension (LIFE) study. All patients had ECG LVH by Cornell product and/or Sokolow-Lyon voltage criteria on a screening ECG, were treated in a blinded manner with atenolol- or losartan-based regimens, and were followed up for a mean of 4.7+/-1.1 years. Strain was defined as a downsloping convex ST segment with inverted asymmetrical T-wave opposite the QRS axis in lead V5 or V6. ECG strain was present in 923 patients (10.6%), and new-onset CHF occurred in 265 patients (3.0%), 26 of whom had a CHF-related death. Compared with patients who did not develop CHF, hypertensive patients who developed CHF were older; were more likely to be black, current smokers, and diabetic; were more like to have a history of myocardial infarction, ischemic heart disease, stroke, or peripheral vascular disease; and had greater baseline severity of LVH by Cornell product and Sokolow-Lyon voltage, higher baseline body mass indexes, higher serum glucose levels and albuminuria, similar baseline systolic and diastolic pressures, and reductions in diastolic pressure with treatment but greater reductions in systolic pressure. In univariate Cox analyses, ECG strain was a significant predictor of new-onset CHF (hazard ratio [HR], 3.27; 95% CI, 2.49 to 4.29) and CHF mortality (HR, 4.74; 95% CI, 2.11 to 10.64). In Cox multivariable analyses adjusting for baseline differences between patients with and without new-onset CHF, in-treatment differences in systolic and diastolic pressures, Sokolow-Lyon voltage, and Cornell product, and the impact of treatment with losartan versus atenolol on outcomes, ECG strain remained a significant predictor of incident CHF (HR, 1.80; 95% CI, 1.30 to 2.48) and CHF-related death (HR, 2.78; 95% CI, 1.02 to 7.63). ECG strain identifies hypertensive patients at increased risk of developing CHF and dying as a result of CHF, even in the setting of aggressive blood pressure lowering." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0959_20361", "title": "A Rare Case of Isolated Left Ventricular Non-compaction in an Elderly Patient.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 61-year-old male, with a history of emphysema, obstructive sleep apnea, and hypertension, presented to the emergency room with worsening shortness of breath over a three-month period. The patient also complained of orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and progressively worsening lower limb swelling. On examination, the patient had jugular venous distension, bilateral lower extremity edema, and bibasilar crackles. The laboratory evaluation showed an elevated B-natriuretic peptide level and a normal troponin level. A transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) showed a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 20%-25% with prominent hyper-trabeculations noted in the left ventricle, most prominent in the lateral and apical walls. These findings were concerning for left ventricular non-compaction (LVNC). The patient underwent left heart catheterization, which did not show obstructive coronary disease as a cause of his cardiomyopathy. The patient was managed with guideline-directed therapy for heart failure and was started on warfarin due to the increased risk of thromboembolism associated with LVNC. During his admission, he exhibited multiple episodes of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia and was subsequently evaluated by electrophysiology (EP). He was discharged home with a wearable cardioverter defibrillator with instructions to follow up with EP in three months for an evaluation of implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement for primary prevention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0002_388", "title": "[Problem in the management of arterial hypertension resistent to drug treatment. Study of 28 cases].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The antihypertensive effect of the following therapeutic regimens: diuretic alone (DA), diuretic plus sympathetic inhibitor (DSI), diuretic plus betablocker (DB) and diuretic plus, betablocker plus vasodilator (DBV) was studied for 34.1 +/- 5.4 months in 28 patients with resistant essential hypertension (REH). Depending of treatment tolerability and the optimal antihypertensive action of drugs 21, 24, 26 and 10 cases were treated continuously or alternately with DA (9.9), DSI (15.0), DB (4.8), and DBV (14.6), respectively (in paragraph average duration of treatment in months). On admission the 89.3% and 42.8% of population had electrocardiographic signs of left ventricular hypertrophy or past-history of cardio-vascular complications, respectively. Arithmethic average and standard deviation of individual changes of systolic and diastolic blood pressure obtained during DA, DSI, DB and DBV treatment were -32.4 +/- 31.8, -19.3 +/- 27.2, -18.9 +/- 15.9 and -18.2 +/- 21.3 for systolic and -35.8 +/- 20.2, -12.3 +/- 17.2, -15.1 +/- 16.9 and -15 +/- 13.1 (mm. de Hg.) for diastolic blood pressure respectively. Average blood pressure before treatment was 222.4 +/- 30.3/128.0 +/- 20.8 (mm of Hg) and under the most effective treatment was 175.5 +/- 21.8/106.5 +/- 12.1 with a p less than or equal to 0.001 for either sistolic and diastolic pressure. There were not significant regressive electrocardiographic changes during the therapeutic period, neither significant changes in urea and creatinine blood values. 46.4% and 25% of cases exhibited collateral drug symptoms and cardio-vascular no fatal complications, respectively. Three of the last group patients died outside of the Hospital (2 sudden deaths and 1 renal insufficiency death). RH still constitutes a challenge to medical therapy. Nevertheless individualized therapy may modify the natural history of this hypertensive variety." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 315, 489 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 73 ] ], "text": "The presence of a calcemia higher than 13mgr/dl, together with dysphonia, indicates a malignant tumor (higher calcemia level and infiltration), therefore we opt for option 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 66, 209 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 31 ] ], "text": "It is associated with hypercalcemia, therefore, the option of medullary thyroid cancer is ruled out (it does not affect the level of calcemia)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 210, 314 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 47 ] ], "text": "To think of MEN type I we should associate other pathologies (pituitary, pancreatic or duodenal tumors)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Parathyroid carcinoma.", "2": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma.", "3": "MEN type I.", "4": "Parathyroid adenoma.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1053_19333", "title": "A rare coexistence of parathyroid adenoma and medullary and papillary thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.018375566370196342, "content": "The combination of parathyroid adenoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), and papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) has been reported occasionally, but it has now been recognized more often through effective evaluations. However, the etiology and risk factors remain unclear, so we discuss them in this article. Here, we report the case of a 64-year-old woman with parathyroid adenoma, MTC, and PTC diagnosed incidentally. This woman was admitted to the Xingtai People's Hospital affiliated to Hebei Medical University for an apparently aggravating symptom of hypodynamia. Her past medical history included diabetes and a left nephrolith. Upon admission, her bloodwork showed hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and elevated serum parathyroid hormone. Subsequently, the sonographic findings revealed dominant nodules in both the right and left lobes with a left inferior suspected parathyroid adenoma. The patient underwent fine needle aspiration (FNA) of the bilateral thyroid lobes, the results of which were both thyroid carcinoma. Therefore, a thyroidectomy, a neck dissection, and the excision of a suspected parathyroid adenoma were performed. A histological examination revealed a combination of parathyroid adenoma, MTC, and PTC. Her serum calcium and parathyroid hormone levels returned to the normal range after the surgery. Our case highlighted the fact that even though the concurrent existence of parathyroid adenoma, MTC, and PTC is rare, the diagnosis of this coexistence should be considered in primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT). To avoid repeat surgeries, patients with coexisting diseases should be screened cautiously. Therefore, we recommend a preoperative check of the calcium levels in patients with thyroid cancer and a preoperative thyroid check in all patients with PHPT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0567_21694", "title": "Intrathyroidal parathyroid carcinoma as cause of hypercalcemia and pitfall of localization techniques: clinical and biologic features.", "score": 0.0177750058470414, "content": "To describe an unusual case of intrathyroidal parathyroid carcinoma (PC), which was retrospectively diagnosed in a woman who underwent surgical treatment of a recurrent nodular goiter. We report the clinical and biologic features of an intrathyroidal PC, discuss the challenges with distinguishing PC from parathyroid adenoma, and review the related literature. A 67-year-old woman sought medical attention for dysphagia attributable to the recurrence of a normal functioning multinodular goiter. Thyroid ultrasonography disclosed a 3-cm solid inferior nodule. Because she refused surgical treatment and a trial of levothyroxine was unsuccessful, periodic follow-up examinations were scheduled. At 1-year follow-up, hypercalcemia (12.1 to 12.6 mg/dL) and low phosphorus levels (2.0 to 2.3 mg/dL) were found, and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels were profoundly increased (481 to 721 pg/mL). Neck ultrasonography showed a large hypoechogenic solid nodule, not clearly cleaved from the right thyroid lobe, which was possibly compatible with an enlarged parathyroid gland; however, a sestamibi scan was negative. During total thyroidectomy, intraoperative frozen sections of the intrathyroid nodule were compatible with nodular goiter with cellular pleomorphism. Final histologic examination showed cellular nests with nuclear pleomorphism and invasive behavior into the thyroid tissue and likely into the vessels, in conjunction with immunohistochemical negativity for thyroglobulin and strong positivity for PTH. These findings were highly suggestive of and supported the diagnosis of PC. Postoperatively, calcium levels normalized, and PTH values declined considerably but remained slightly increased. Vitamin D supplementation helped normalize the PTH levels. The patient has undergone follow-up for 5 years and has shown no morphologic or biochemical signs of tumor recurrence. PC is a rare entity but should be suspected in patients with hypercalcemia, substantially increased PTH levels, and a neck mass. In such patients, techniques such as sestamibi scanning may fail to localize the neoplasm. Surgical treatment remains the preferred technique for an optimal outcome of the disease. Nevertheless, lifelong follow-up is necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0884_21525", "title": "Acute presentation of a giant intrathyroidal parathyroid adenoma: a case report.", "score": 0.01745598057073467, "content": "We report the case of a giant intrathyroidal parathyroid adenoma weighing 59 g in a young woman presenting acutely with severe hypercalcemia requiring correction and adequate preoperative management prior to surgery. Parathyroid adenomas account for 85 % of cases of primary hyperparathyroidism. Those weighing more than 3.5g are classified as giant parathyroid adenomas. There are only 25 cases of parathyroid adenomas weighing over 30g reported in the literature. With the wide availability of biochemical screening tests in Western countries, mildly elevated calcium levels are often discovered incidentally. Our case is unusual for the extreme level of hypercalcemia, the patient's young age, and the weight of the adenoma, particularly in a developed country. A 21-year-old Irish woman presented with a 3-week history of an enlarging right-sided neck mass. There was no dysphagia, stridor, or symptoms of hyperthyroidism or hypercalcemia. On examination, there was a firm painless swelling in the right lobe of her thyroid. Her thyroid function tests were normal. Corrected serum calcium was markedly elevated at 3.96 mmol/L with hypophosphatemia of 0.35 mmol/L. She was treated with bisphosphonates and fluids administered intravenously. Her parathyroid hormone level was over 20 times the upper limit of normal. Ultrasound revealed a solid and cystic nodule in the lower pole of the right lobe of her thyroid. Parathyroid scintigraphy demonstrated a 5×4 cm lesion which concentrated tracer. A right-sided parathyroidectomy, right thyroid lobectomy, and level VI neck dissection were performed. An encapsulated multiloculated solid cystic mass weighing 59 g was removed. There was no definite infiltration of the capsule and MIB1 count was low at 1 % thus the specimen lacked the diagnostic features of carcinoma. On the third postoperative day, hungry bone syndrome developed and calcium replacement administered intravenously was required. At 1-year postoperative, she was weaned off calcium and alfacalcidol. A follow-up ultrasound showed unremarkable residual thyroid. Any patient with an isolated hypercalcemia warrants a thorough work-up. Hungry bone syndrome is a potentially avoidable condition; thus the clinician should be highly attuned to the risk of hungry bone syndrome post-parathyroidectomy, which correlates with the weight of the adenoma resected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1151_14939", "title": "Hypercalcemia and Neurological Symptoms: A Rare Presentation of Hyperfunctioning Parathyroid Adenoma in an Adolescent.", "score": 0.01695156695156695, "content": "Neuropsychiatric symptoms are rarely described as a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism, especially in children. We describe the case of an adolescent with hypercalcemia related to and hyperfunctioning parathyroid adenoma presenting with acute neuropsychiatric symptoms. A 14-year-old-girl presented into the Emergency Service Department because of an acute onset of marked asthenia, muscle weakness with difficulty in walking, and altered mental status, which included nonsensical speech. No other neurological signs were present. Abdominal, cardiac, and thoracic examination were unremarkable. There was no recent history of trauma or infection. Family history was negative for neurologic disorders. Her past medical history was unremarkable. A head CT scan showed negative results. The laboratory work-up showed elevated levels of calcium level (14.35 mg/dl; nv 9-11 mg/dl), parathyroid hormone (PTH; 184 pg/ml; nv 3.5-36.8 pg/ml), and creatinine (1.23 mg/dl; nv 0.45-0.75 mg/dl). Sodium, potassium, chloride, thyroid function, glycemia, and insulin values were normal. Neck ultrasonography showed a solid, oval, capsulated, hypoechoic neoformation, with discrete vascularization localized to the inferior pole of the right thyroid lobe, referring to parathyroid tissue. Scintigraphy revealed a hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue at the inferior pole of the right thyroid lobe. Massive intravenous hydration and diuretic therapy were started. The signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia improved after the initiation of therapy. The patient was submitted to right cervicotomy and muscle sparing for the removal of the adenoma of the right superior parathyroid gland. After surgery, a decrease in PTH levels (&lt;4 pg/ml) and calcium levels (9.1 mg/dl) was recorded. During follow-up, calcium values remained stable; a progressive normalization of PTH was obtained. The oral calcium therapy was suspended after 3 months from surgery. No neuropsychiatric symptoms recurred. An evaluation of the serum calcium level is mandatory in children and adolescents with unexplained neurological signs or symptoms, and a check for hyperparathyroidism should be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1020_17674", "title": "Diagnosis of Parathyroid Adenomas with New Ultrasound Imaging Modalities.", "score": 0.016146326080100915, "content": "Ultrasound technology is becoming an integral part of diagnosing parathyroid adenomas. Careful ultrasound evaluation with b-mode, shear wave elastography, and three-dimensional (3D) of parathyroid adenomas may improve localization and outcome. <b<iIntroduction:</i</b A 60-year-old woman was referred for the evaluation of hyperparathyroidism. This patient gave her informed consent. She had a history of hypothyroidism and thyroid nodules. She was being treated with levothyroxine 50 mcg daily. Routine testing revealed hypercalcemia. The serum calcium was 11.2 (nL range 8.7-10.2 mg/dL), creatinine was 0.69 (nL range 0.57-1.00 mg/dL), intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) was 70 (nL range 15-65 pg/mL), phosphorus was 2.7 (nL range 2.5-4.5 mg/dL), vitamin D was 38.7 (30-100 ng/mL), and 24 hours urine calcium was 362.9 (100-300 mg/24 hour). The neck ultrasound showed two lesions one superior/posterior and the other in the inferior/posterior aspect of the right thyroid lobe measuring 11.6 × 4.4 × 9.7 mm and 14.6 × 5.0 × 10.0 mm, respectively. Both lesions resembled parathyroid adenomas. Shear wave velocity (SWV) measurements for the superior and inferior lesions were 1.67 and 1.77 m/second, respectively. For the adjacent thyroid tissue SWV was 2.3 m/second, significantly higher. 3D ultrasound examination demonstrated a polar artery in both lesions. A sestamibi scan showed a probable right parathyroid adenoma and she was referred for surgery. She was found to have two right parathyroid adenomas in the superior and inferior poles corresponding with the ultrasound finding. Intraoperative PTH level decreased from 139.9 to 17 pg/mL postresection. Six weeks after surgery, her calcium and PTH were normal. <b<iMaterials and Methods:</i</b This patient was evaluated in our clinic with ultrasound imaging, including b-mode, shear wave elastography (SWE), and 3D ultrasound. <b<iDiscussion:</i</b Most patients with primary hyperparathyroidism have a single parathyroid adenoma. Other causes include glandular hyperplasia, multiple adenomas, and parathyroid carcinoma.<sup1,2</sup This case shows two parathyroid adenomas in the neck posterior to the right thyroid lobe. The role of ultrasound in diagnosing parathyroid adenomas is becoming more prominent because of improved technology, low cost, and noninvasive nature. With this case we illustrate that SWE can be an added value to b-mode ultrasound in diagnosing parathyroid adenomas. Our previous publication in the <iJournal of European Radiology</i reported that SWV measurement of parathyroid adenomas may enhance other sonographic parameters to predict the diagnosis. In our view, parathyroid adenomas appear to have a more homogenous texture and lower tissue stiffness when compared with the thyroid gland.<sup3</sup This case confirms our prior findings. It can be challenging to differentiate parathyroid adenomas from lymph nodes (LNs) and ectopic thyroid tissue at level 6, with b-mode ultrasound. A combination of 3D ultrasound images with 3D color Doppler (CD) might improve our ability to identify the polar artery and enhance differentiation from LN. 3D technology might improve the view by adding coronal view to current b-mode that comprises of transverse and longitudinal views. This is a preliminary report, and more studies need to be done. <b<iConclusion:</i</b Combining multiple image modalities, including b-mode, shear wave elastography, and 3D technology, may improve our ability to identify parathyroid adenomas. Parathyroid adenomas have a lower SWV compared with thyroid tissue. 3D ultrasound technology may enhance view of polar artery when adding 3D CD. This challenging case illustrates the utility of these additional modalities. No competing financial interests exist. Runtime of video: 1 min, 52 secs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0264_16296", "title": "[A case of primary hyperparathyroidism associated with marked hypercalcemic crisis].", "score": 0.016078164615670028, "content": "A 41-year-old woman was referred to our hospital with complaints of general fatigue, appetite loss, nausea and vomiting. Blood examination revealed high serum calcium level (21.6 mg/dl) and high serum parathyroid hormone level. Although enlarged parathyroid glands could not be clearly detected via ultrasonography, computed tomography and scintigraphy, we diagnosed her with hypercalcemic crisis due to primary hyperparathyroidism and performed parathyroidectomy after conservative therapy. A parathyroid tumor measuring 1.9 x 1.1 x 1.0 cm, and weighing 1,100 mg was found at the upper right pole of the thyroid gland, and three thyroid tumors were found in the bilateral lobes of the thyroid gland. Histological diagnosis was adenoma of the parathyroid gland and follicular adenomas of the thyroid gland. Following removal of the parathyroid tumor, the serum calcium level rapidly dropped and the symptoms rapidly improved. Hypercalcemic crisis has a high mortality, and the only treatment is surgical removal. Therefore, in patients with hypercalcemic crisis due to primary hyperparathyroidism, surgical removal should be done immediately, unless the serum calcium level has dropped and symptoms of crisis have disappeared after conservative treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0102_6554", "title": "[A case of parathyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.01606699751861042, "content": "A case of parathyroid carcinoma in a 49-year-old female is described. She is found to have renal stones and high serum calcium levels. On physical examination a fixed walnut-sized mass was detected on her right neck. Laboratory studies disclosed a serum calcium level of 12.7 mg/dl, serum phosphorus level of 2.5 mg/dl, serum Ca++ level of 3.12 mEq/l, and positive Gold-Smith test. Computer-assisted tomography scan and ultrasonogram showed a mass in the posterior region of the right lobe of her thyroid. The tumor was resected and histopathological examination showed parathyroid carcinoma. The patient had no evidence of recurrence 2 years following surgery. Our report is the 70th case among Japanese literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_16943", "title": "Papillary thyroid carcinoma, parathyroid adenoma, and unexplained hypercalcitoninemia: an unusual presentation of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A?", "score": 0.015267175572519083, "content": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) is a rare syndrome of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) with pheochromocytoma and/or primary hyperparathyroidism (PHP), usually due to multigland hyperplasia. MEN 2 is associated with several RET protooncogene mutations. A 61-year-old woman with a family history of RET-positive MTC presented with a solitary thyroid nodule. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy was suspicious for neoplasm. Biochemical studies revealed basal hypercalcitoninemia (116 pg/mL [normal &lt;26]) and PHP (serum calcium, 10.9 mg/dL; intact PTH, 113.2 pg/mL [10.0-65.0]). Pheochromocytoma screening was negative. A provisional diagnosis of MEN 2 was made, but at surgery, a single parathyroid adenoma was resected and frozen sections of several lymph nodes revealed papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC). A total thyroidectomy was performed. Final histological diagnosis was PTC and parathyroid adenoma with no evidence of MTC. Postoperatively, RET mutation testing was positive. The basal calcitonin (CT) fell to 25 pg/mL, but peaked at 935 (normal &lt;105) after pentagastrin infusion, consistent with occult MTC. After radioiodine ablation, CT decreased further. Octreotide scanning was negative. Faced with PHP, a thyroid nodule, and a family history of MTC, clinicians tend to diagnose MEN 2. This patient had a single parathyroid adenoma and nonmedullary thyroid cancer, which the literature actually suggests to be an association more frequent than MEN 2. Yet, there remains compelling data in favor of occult MTC, leaving open the possibility of an MEN 2 variant with the rare association of PTC." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0690_17666", "title": "Primary hyperparathyroidism as the first clinical manifestation of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A in a 5-year-old child.", "score": 0.015159345391903532, "content": "Primary hyperparathyroidism occurs in only 10%-30% of patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (MEN2A), rarely as the sole clinical manifestation, and is usually diagnosed after the third decade of life. A 5-year-old girl was referred for prophylactic thyroidectomy as she carried the p.C634R RET mutation. She was clinically asymptomatic, with a normally palpable thyroid and with the cervical region free of lymphadenopathy or other nodules. Preoperative tests revealed hypercalcemia associated with elevation of parathyroid hormone (PTH) (calcium = 11.2 mg/dL, calcium ion = 1.48 mmol/L, phosphorus = 4.0 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase = 625 U/L, parathyroid hormone (PTH) PTH = 998 pg/mL). A thyroid ultrasound was normal and parathyroid scintigraphy with (99m)Tc-Sestamibi revealed an area of radioconcentration in the upper half of the left thyroid lobe suggesting hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue. She underwent total thyroidectomy and parathyroidectomy and developed hypocalcemia. The anatomopathological examination showed no histopathological changes in the thyroid tissue and an adenoma of the parathyroid gland, confirming the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. Primary hyperparathyroidism can be a precocious manifestation of MEN2A. This case report highlights that asymptomatic hypercalcemia should be scrutinized in children related to patients with MEN2A who carry a mutation in the RET proto-oncogene, especially mutations in the codon 634, before the currently recommended age of 8 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_4329", "title": "[Carcinoma of the parathyroids. Surgical experience in 3 cases].", "score": 0.01488483268144285, "content": "Parathyroid carcinoma is a rare cause of hyperparathyroidism (rate of occurrence of 0.5% of all parathyroid neoplasms). In this report we describe three cases of parathyroid carcinoma seen in our Institution and we analyse the clinical, diagnostic, therapeutic and pathological findings of this disease. The three patients were 14, 22 and 45 year old respectively. Familial history was negative for endocrine diseases. The laboratory and instrumental findings of thyroid and adrenal glands were negative. Predominant symptoms were in all cases weakness, lethargy, bone and muscular pain, nausea, vomiting. The two young patients presented fractures of the inferior limb and of the forearm respectively, five years and one year before the diagnosis. X-ray examination and MNR easily demonstrated the \"brown tumors\". In two cases a symptomatic nephrolithiasis was present. The 14 year old child presented polyuria and polydipsia. In all cases a mass was palpable in the neck (two in the right side and one in the left one). The elevated serum calcium concentration (15, 18, and 20.2 mg/dl respectively) and the elevated serum PTH (480, 651, and 680 pg/ml respectively) allowed the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. Ultrasound scan and thallium-technetium scanning identified in all cases a mass adjacent the thyroid. A radical resection of the malignant parathyroid gland and the ipsilateral thyroid lobe was performed in two cases, while only a resection of the involved parathyroid gland in one case. The diagnosis of parathyroid cancer was established using pathologic criteria.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en228_19524", "title": "Parathyroid carcinoma", "score": 0.013473294723294723, "content": "Parathyroid carcinoma is a rare cancer resulting in parathyroid adenoma to carcinoma progression. It forms in tissues of one or more of the parathyroid glands (four pea-sized glands in the neck that make parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps the body maintain normal levels of serum calcium by promoting calcium reabsorption from bone. It is antagonized by the hormone calcitonin, which prompts calcium storage.). It is rare, and much less common than parathyroid adenoma. It can be difficult to excise. Signs and symptoms Most patients experience moderate to severe hypercalcemia and high parathyroid hormone levels. A large mass in the neck is often seen, and kidney and bone abnormalities are common. Risk factors Parathyroid cancer occurs in midlife at the same rate in men and women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0929_17646", "title": "Parathyroid carcinoma occurred in two glands in multiple endocrine neoplasia 1: a report on a rare case.", "score": 0.013453453453453453, "content": "Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common hormonal manifestation associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 (MEN1). It is generally caused by parathyroid hyperplasia, and parathyroid carcinoma is rare. Here, we report a case of MEN1 with parathyroid carcinoma in two parathyroid glands causing primary hyperparathyroidism. A 40-year-old man with primary hyperparathyroidism due to MEN1 underwent a total parathyroidectomy. His corrected calcium and intact PTH (i-PTH) serum levels were 10.8 mg/dL and 203 pg/mL, respectively. Although three glands were successfully removed, the left upper parathyroid gland could not be detected. Since the right lower parathyroid lesion had invaded into the thyroid, right lobectomy was performed. A portion of the left lower parathyroid tissue was transplanted into his forearm. The histological findings of the left lower and the right upper parathyroid glands were consistent with hyperplasia while that of the right lower parathyroid gland was parathyroid carcinoma. Since the post-surgical i-PTH levels remained high, the intrathyroidal lesion of the left lobe, which was initally diagnosed as an adenomatous nodule, was suspected to contain parathyroid tumor. A fine needle aspiration of the tumor revealed a high concentration of i-PTH. One week after the first surgery, a left thyroid lobectomy was performed. The pathological diagnosis of the tumor was parathyroid carcinoma. After the surgery, calcium and i-PTH levels were normal. Although it is rare, parathyroid carcinoma should be considered as a cause of hyperparathyroidism in MEN1 patients. Since it is difficult to diagnose parathyroid carcinoma before surgery, intraoperative findings are important for the appropriate treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0831_3763", "title": "[Cervical macroadenoma causing hyperparathyroidism: Report of one case].", "score": 0.013146551724137931, "content": "We report a 59-year-old man with a history of hypertension, recurrent renal stones and a severe hypercalcemia of 14.9 mg/dl with a serum phosphorus of 2.4 mg/dl and a serum albumin of 3.6 g/dl. Physical examination showed a 4 cm left cervical nodule, consistent with the diagnosis of thyroid nodule. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels were 844 pg/mL (normal 15-65 pg/ml) and a cervical ultrasound examination disclosed a solid nodule in the lower left lobe of 40 x 30 x 25 mm, adjacent to the thyroid parenchyma. Abdominal ultrasound revealed bilateral renal stones. Parathyroid scintigraphy showed a high uptake of the left lower parathyroid mass and a bone densitometry showed bone density t scores of -1.2 in the spine, -2.0 in the right femoral neck and -3.5 in the distal radius. A review of his medical record revealed the presence of hypercalcemia for at least 4 years. He was admitted for hydration and administration of 4 mg zoledronic acid iv. At 24 hours, serum calcium dropped to 11.0 mg/dl, and a left thyroid lobectomy was performed including the lower left parathyroid gland. The pathology report showed a 22.6 g parathyroid adenoma. Intraoperatory PTH descended &gt; 50%, consistent with successful parathyroidectomy. At 7 days after surgery serum calcium was 8.8 mg/dl, phosphorus 2.1 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 166 U/L, albumin 3.9 g/dL, PTH 230 pg/ml and 25-OH vitamin D 12.4 ng/ml. This finding was interpreted as secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vitamin D deficiency and \"hungry bone\", being less likely the presence of residual or metastatic parathyroid tissue. A cholecalciferol load was administered, with significant descent of PTH. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1011_113", "title": "Thoracoscopic surgical case of an ectopic mediastinal parathyroid adenoma detected by chance: a case report.", "score": 0.012719106482769586, "content": "Ectopic mediastinal parathyroid tumor (EMPT) is a rare cause of primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT); it is difficult to resect using the cervical approach. We describe a case of using video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) for EMPT resection. A 67-year-old woman with a history of postoperative thyroid cancer had no symptoms. She was diagnosed with PHPT and underwent thyroid cancer surgery. She had serum calcium and intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels of 11.1 mg/dL and 206 pg/mL, respectively. Chest computed tomography showed a 10-mm nodule in the anterior mediastinum. Technetium-99 m methoxyisobutyl isonitrile scintigraphy showed an abnormal uptake lesion in the anterior mediastinum. She was diagnosed with PHPT caused by EMPT and underwent VATS. The pathological examination confirmed parathyroid adenoma. Her serum calcium and intact PTH levels were normal from 15 min after tumor resection. She has had no recurrence of EMPT. The VATS approach was effective for the resection of EMPT." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en226_21890", "title": "Parathyroid adenoma", "score": 0.012270341207349081, "content": "A parathyroid adenoma is a benign tumor of the parathyroid gland. It generally causes hyperparathyroidism; there are very few reports of parathyroid adenomas that were not associated with hyperparathyroidism. A human being usually has four parathyroid glands located on the posterior surface of the thyroid in the neck. In order to maintain calcium metabolism, the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH) which stimulates the bones to release calcium and the kidneys to reabsorb it from the urine into the blood, thereby increasing its serum level. The action of calcitonin opposes PTH. When a parathyroid adenoma causes hyperparathyroidism, more parathyroid hormone is secreted, causing the calcium concentration of the blood to rise, resulting in hypercalcemia. Signs and symptoms The first signs of a parathyroid adenoma and the resulting primary hyperparathyroidism can include bone fractures and urinary calculi such as kidney stones." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_5079", "title": "Subacute thyroiditis manifesting as a thyroid mass, vocal cord paralysis, and hypercalcemia.", "score": 0.012175324675324676, "content": "To report a case of subacute thyroiditis manifesting as a thyroid mass, vocal cord paralysis, and hypercalcemia. We describe the clinical, laboratory, and radiologic findings in a patient with an unusual clinical course of subacute thyroiditis. A 65-year-old woman presented with a hoarse voice and an enlarging tender mass in the right side of the neck. On admission, thyroid function was consistent with thyrotoxicosis from subacute thyroiditis. Laboratory studies showed a corrected serum calcium concentration of 11.4 mg/dL, intact parathyroid hormone of 125 pg/mL, 25-hydroxyvitamin D of 12 ng/mL, and creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL. Computed tomography of the neck without use of a contrast agent showed a heterogeneous mass in the right side of the neck in conjunction with deviation of the trachea from right to left but without invasion of the trachea. Thyroid ultrasonography disclosed a heterogeneous mass in the right thyroid lobe measuring 4.7 cm by 5.5 cm by 4.5 cm. Flexible laryngoscopy revealed right vocal cord paralysis. Treatment with a course of prednisone yielded normalization of the serum calcium level, improvement in her voice, and a decrease in size of the thyroid mass. Four months after initial presentation of the patient, thyroid hormone levels became normal, she was clinically euthyroid, and she had a full recovery of her voice. Her serum calcium concentration was normal (9.8 mg/dL) in association with a near-normal parathyroid hormone level of 90 pg/mL. The 25-hydroxyvitamin D and creatinine values were also normal. Repeated thyroid ultrasonography showed a smaller right thyroid lobe with a dominant nodule measuring 2.0 cm by 1.3 cm by 1.4 cm in the right upper pole. This case illustrates that subacute thyroiditis can have the unusual initial manifestations of a thyroid mass, vocal cord paralysis, and hypercalcemia. In similar patients, a trial of corticosteroid therapy may be warranted in an effort to improve clinical symptoms and thus avoid unnecessary surgical treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_85602", "title": "Parathyroid gland", "score": 0.01201868307131465, "content": "Hyperparathyroidism and hypoparathyroidism, characterized by alterations in the blood calcium levels and bone metabolism, are states of either surplus or deficient parathyroid function. Structure The parathyroid glands are two pairs of glands usually positioned behind the left and right lobes of the thyroid. Each gland is a yellowish-brown flat ovoid that resembles a lentil seed, usually about 6 mm long and 3 to 4 mm wide, and 1 to 2 mm anteroposteriorly. There are typically four parathyroid glands. The two parathyroid glands on each side which are positioned higher are called the superior parathyroid glands, while the lower two are called the inferior parathyroid glands. Healthy parathyroid glands generally weigh about 30 mg in men and 35 mg in women. These glands are not visible or able to be felt during examination of the neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0994_18304", "title": "Intrathyroidal parathyroid carcinoma presenting as an asymptomatic hypercalcemia: a case report.", "score": 0.012012987012987014, "content": "A 26-year-old female presented with severe hypercalcemia. She was asymptomatic. Blood analysis revealed high serum calcium (13 mg/dL = 3.25 mmol/L) and elevated intact parathyroid hormone (iPTH) levels (267.5 ng/L). Ultrasonography showed a mixed solid-cystic nodule of 30 mm in the left thyroid lower lobe and a nodular lesion of 14 mm posterior of the thyroid upper pole suggestive for parathyroid adenoma. Sestamibi scan and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue posterior of the left thyroid upper lobe. During surgery, a 15 mm nodule in the usual location of the left superior parathyroid was resected. Intraoperative frozen section revealed normal parathyroid tissue and intraoperative PTH levels did not decrease. Left thyroidectomy was performed due to the large solid-cystic nodule. Intraoperative PTH levels normalized 10 min later. Pathologic examination revealed a 28 mm nodule in the lower thyroid pole compatible with a parathyroid carcinoma (PC). Due to positive margins, a completion thyroidectomy was performed. 5-year follow-up showed no recurrence. PC is a rare entity comprising 0.5-2% of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism. Even more unusual is an intrathyroidal parathyroid gland (0.2%). Only a dozen cases of intrathyroidal PC have been reported. Our case is the second patient reported to be asymptomatic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_83965", "title": "Parathyroidectomy", "score": 0.011921458625525946, "content": "Recovery after the operation tends to be swift. The PTH level is back to normal within 10–15 minutes, and can be confirmed by intraoperative rapid assessment during the operation. However, the remaining parathyroid glands may take hours to several weeks to return to their normal functioning levels (as they may have become dormant). Calcium supplements are therefore often required to prevent symptoms of hypocalcemia and to restore lost bone mass. The patient is placed in a semi-Fowler position and the neck is extended. An abbreviated Kocher incision is made and the platysma muscle is dissected horizontally. The strap muscles are released off of the thyroid gland. Then the thyroid gland is mobilized and the parathyroid arterial blood supply is suture ligated. The entire parathyroid adenoma is identified and dissected out. Intraoperative PTH monitoring can begin at this time and will show falling PTH levels if the entire adenoma has been resected. Complications" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_2352", "title": "Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia", "score": 0.011060767590618336, "content": "Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH) is an inherited condition that can cause hypercalcemia, a serum calcium level typically above 10.2 mg/dL. It is also known as familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FBHH) where there is usually a family history of hypercalcemia which is mild, a urine calcium to creatinine ratio <0.01, and urine calcium <200 mg/day. Signs and symptoms Most cases of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia are asymptomatic. Laboratory signs of FHH include: High blood levels of calcium (hypercalcemia) A low amount of calcium excreted in the urine ( Ca excretion rate < 0.02 mmol/L) High blood levels of magnesium (hypermagnesemia) High normal to mildly elevated parathyroid hormone Causes Types include:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_72262", "title": "Hyperparathyroidism", "score": 0.010626010626010627, "content": "Tertiary Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is seen in those with long-term secondary hyperparathyroidism, which eventually leads to hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands and a loss of response to serum calcium levels. This disorder is most often seen in patients with end-stage kidney disease and is an autonomous activity. Treatment Treatment depends on the type of hyperparathyroidism encountered. Primary People with primary hyperparathyroidism who are symptomatic benefit from parathyroidectomy—surgery to remove the parathyroid tumor (parathyroid adenoma). Indications for surgery are: Symptomatic hyperparathyroidism Asymptomatic hyperparathyroidism with any of the following: 24-hour urinary calcium > 400 mg (see footnote, below) serum calcium > 1 mg/dl above upper limit of normal Creatinine clearance > 30% below normal for patient's age Bone density > 2.5 standard deviations below peak (i.e., T-score of -2.5) People age < 50 Surgery can rarely result in hypoparathyroidism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0743_16438", "title": "Spontaneous resolution of primary hyperparathyroidism in parathyroid adenoma.", "score": 0.0103359863255168, "content": "A 71 yo woman with primary hyperparathyroidism awaiting surgery because of significant hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria presented to the local emergency department with the chief complaints of discomfort in her neck, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She was found to be hypocalcemic with a calcium level of 8.1 mg/dL. She was seen by her endocrinologist three days later at which time serum calcium, iPTH, and serum phosphate levels were all within normal limits. Based on history and a series of ultrasounds the patient was diagnosed with spontaneous infarction of her parathyroid adenoma, which resulted in resolution of her primary hyperparathyroidism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1156_22265", "title": "Synchronous parathyroid carcinoma and papillary thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.01015228426395939, "content": "The simultaneous occurrence of parathyroid carcinoma and nonmedullary thyroid carcinoma is unusual. We report the case of 60-year-old woman who was found to have concurrent parathyroid carcinoma with severe clinical manifestations of primary hyperparthyroidism in addition to an incidental papillary thyroid carcinoma. Parathyroid hormone level was 569 pg/ml (normal range 10-65), and the serum calcium concentration was 13.83 mg/dl (normal range, 8.8-10.4). Preoperative investigation found a large 3 cm anterior cervical nodule suggestive of parathyroid adenoma. Total thyroidectomy and left parathyroidectomy were performed, and the final anatomopathological examination of the operative specimen concluded the coexistence of papillary microcarcinoma and parathyroid carcinoma. Although parathyroid carcinoma is an uncommon cause of hypercalcemia, it should be considered when severe hypercalcemia is observed, and in case of coexistence of thyroid nodules. The possibility of both malignancies must also be considered since parathyroid and nonmedullary thyroid carcinoma rare cases have previously been reported." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_88870", "title": "Parathyroid hormone", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "There are a number of rare but well-described genetic conditions affecting parathyroid hormone metabolism, including pseudohypoparathyroidism, familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia, and autosomal dominant hypercalciuric hypocalcemia. Of note, PTH is unchanged in pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism. In osteoporotic women, administration of an exogenous parathyroid hormone analogue (teriparatide, by daily injection) superimposed on estrogen therapy produced increases in bone mass and reduced vertebral and nonvertebral fractures by 45 to 65%. Measurement PTH can be measured in the blood in several different forms: intact PTH; N-terminal PTH; mid-molecule PTH, and C-terminal PTH, and different tests are used in different clinical situations. The average PTH level is 8–51 pg/mL. Normal total plasma calcium level ranges from 8.5 to 10.2 mg/dL (2.12 mmol/L to 2.55 mmol/L). Interpretive Guide The intact PTH and calcium normal ranges are different for age; calcium is also different for sex." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_6601", "title": "[Multiple endocrine type 2 neoplasia in 3 families].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In the last 15 years, 29 subjects (13 males, 16 females) aged 8-69 years, belonging to 3 kindreds with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN-2) were studied with rapid i.v. calcium gluconate infusions (2 mg Ca++/kg in 1 minute) in order to detect the presence of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC). Serum samples were obtained at 0, 2, 5, 7 and 10 minutes. Calcitonin was measured by radioimmunoassay using a commercial kit. On the basis of the results obtained in a control group of 28 healthy volunteers, hypercalcitoninemia (HCT) was defined as basal and stimulated values above 100 and 200 pg/ml, respectively, in either sex. In 2 patients with nodular goiter, HCT correctly predicted the malignant nature of the lesions. Out of 22 clinically normal subjects, 3 had HCT: one refused consent for surgery, but in the remaining 2 MTC was found, without extraglandular extension. Seven patients with surgically proven MTC have been followed; 4 have shown HCT: 3 women refused permission for exploratory surgery, and a 46 year old male with enlarged lymph nodes in the neck was found to have metastatic papillary thyroid cancer. Both calcitonin and thyroglobulin were immunohistochemically discovered in metastases and the original thyroid tumor (differentiated thyroid cancer, intermediate type). There were 2 false negative tests in patients with metastatic disease. This type of biochemical screening in members of MEN-2 kindreds allows early detection of MTC and its prevention through thyroidectomy in a preneoplastic stage (C-cell hyperplasia).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1060_9828", "title": "PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM ACCOMPANIED BY RECOVERY OF PARATHYROID BLOOD FLOW THREE MONTHS AFTER SPONTANEOUS PARATHYROID HEMORRHAGE.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The objective of this report was to describe an unusual case of emerging primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) accompanied by recovery of parathyroid blood flow 3 months after spontaneous parathyroid hemorrhage. Neck images and laboratory tests including serum calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH) were performed to evaluate parathyroid hemorrhage. Pathologic findings after parathyroidectomy are also presented. A 58-year-old woman developed acute onset of neck pain and swelling with ecchymosis. Computed tomography showed a right paratracheal hematoma-like lesion behind the thyroid. Ultrasound (US) of the neck revealed a round, hypoechoic nodule measuring 27 × 25 × 18 mm in the right lower thyroid pole without vascular flow. Blood tests showed a corrected calcium of 9.3 mg/dL (normal, 8.7 to 10.3 mg/dL), and intact PTH of 68 pg/mL (normal, 10 to 65 pg/mL). Intact PTH measurement in fine-needle aspirate of the lesion was 339 pg/mL, confirming parathyroid origin. Repeat US after 3 months showed a remarkable decrease in lesion size with significant blood flow. Blood biochemistry showed a corrected calcium of 10.9 mg/dL, and an intact PTH of 237 pg/mL. She eventually underwent parathyroidectomy, and pathologic examination revealed parathyroid adenoma with a tiny thrombus. Spontaneous remission of PHPT after parathyroid hemorrhage has been known to occur sporadically, a phenomenon referred to as autoparathyroidectomy. Although spontaneous remission with permanent improvement of PHPT may be observed, PHPT can recur in the relative short term after parathyroid hemorrhage, and so follow-up blood biochemistry surveillance is necessary. Also, evaluating parathyroid blood flow using color Doppler US might be useful in verifying the recurrence of PHPT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1060_9839", "title": "POSTOPERATIVE HYPOCALCEMIA FOLLOWING PARATHYROIDECTOMY FOR GIANT PARATHYROID ADENOMA.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Giant parathyroid adenomas (GPAs) are a rare type of parathyroid adenoma (PA) weighing &gt;2 to 3 g. The objective of this manuscript is to report a case of giant parathyroid adenoma and highlight the risk of postoperative hypocalcemia. We describe the presentation and work-up of a woman with GPA confirmed with histopathology as well as management of postoperative hypocalcemia. A 66-year-old Caucasian female with chronic fatigue was found to have elevated calcium levels at 13.7 mg/dL (normal, 8.9 to 10.2 mg/dL) and elevated parathyroid hormone levels at 1,240 pg/mL (normal, 12 to 72 pg/mL). Contrast enhanced computed tomography scan of the neck showed a 5.6 cm heterogeneous mass posterior to the right thyroid. The patient underwent right parathyroidectomy and histopathology confirmed the diagnosis of a giant parathyroid adenoma (GPA) weighing 28.7 g. Postoperatively, the patient developed hypocalcemia secondary to hungry bone syndrome and was treated aggressively with intravenous calcium supplementation. At 4 weeks postoperatively, she had normal calcium levels without any calcium supplementation. GPAs are a rare variant of PA, and could be a distinct clinical entity with features different from both PA and parathyroid carcinoma. We further postulate that the risk of postoperative hypocalcemia secondary to hungry bone syndrome could be higher among patients with GPA compared to patients with PA. These hypotheses needs to be validated with further studies." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_10911", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "and amyloid. Marked heterogeneity is present; cells may be polygonal or spindle shaped. The presence of amyloid is a diagnostic finding, but immunohistochemistry for calcitonin is more commonly used as a diagnostic tumor marker. These tumors also stain positively for CEA and calcito-nin gene–related peptide.Diagnosis. The diagnosis of MTC is established by history, physical examination, raised serum calcitonin, or CEA levels, and FNAB cytology of the thyroid mass. Attention to family history is important because about 25% of patients with MTC have familial disease. Because it is not possible to distinguish sporadic from familial disease at initial presentation, all new patients with MTC should be screened for RET point mutations, pheochromocytoma, and HPT. Screening of patients with famil-ial MTC for RET point mutations has largely replaced using provocative testing with pentagastrin or calcium-stimulated calcitonin levels to make the diagnosis. Calcitonin and CEA are used to identify" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1078_5884", "title": "Hyperparathyroidism-Jaw Tumor Syndrome.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Primary hyperparathyroidism is a relatively common endocrine disorder, affecting 7 out of 1,000 adults. The median age at onset is the 6th decade of life. Our objective was to present a young patient with primary hyperparathyroidism who has a positive <iCDC73</i mutation. A 23-year-old woman was evaluated for hypercalcemia that was found after surgery for bilateral ovarian cyst removal. Her family history included multiple family members with nephrolithiasis. The physical examination revealed a well-appearing Caucasian woman with no palpable neck mass. The laboratory results showed serum calcium at 11.7 mg/dL (ref. 8.4-10.2), ionized calcium at 1.44 mmol/L (ref. 1.12-1.32), and serum PTH at 192 pg/mL (ref. 11-65). A technetium-99 sestamibi scan revealed focal uptake inferior to the left thyroid lobe. Thyroid ultrasound showed a left parathyroid adenoma. The patient subsequently underwent left inferior parathyroidectomy, which confirmed parathyroid adenoma, with resultant normalization of serum calcium and PTH levels. Due to her young age at diagnosis, genetic testing was performed, which revealed a mutation of <iCDC73</i. Although penetrance and expression are variable, the <iCDC73</i mutation is associated primarily with hyperparathyroidism-jaw tumor syndrome, familial isolated hyperparathyroidism, and sporadic parathyroid carcinoma. This patient currently has no evidence of jaw, uterine or renal tumors on screening imaging. Given the potential impact of inheritable neoplasia, all young patients with unexplained hyperparathyroidism should be considered for genetic screening." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_16023", "title": "Prevalence of primary hyperparathyroidism in 13387 patients with thyroid diseases, newly diagnosed by screening of serum calcium.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Primary Hyperparathyroidism (PHP) often goes unrecognised. Evidence of the influence of thyroid diseases on parathyroid activity exists. In order to determine the prevalence of primary hyperparathyroidism (PHP) in patients with thyroid diseases, a series of patients referred to an outpatient department for patients with thyroid diseases were examined for additional PHP. In addition to screening for thyroid diseases, serum calcium concentration (S-Ca) was measured in a series of persons who came to our outpatients' service for patients with thyroid diseases during the period 1992 to 1998. 13387 persons, median age 48 y, m = 2367, f = 11020, among them 9017 patients with thyroid diseases and 4370 persons without thyroid dysfunction, were studied. In patients with S-Ca outside the normal range, further diagnostic tests relating to PHP were performed. 106/13387 persons showed S-Ca &gt; or = 2.6 mmol/L, in 31 cases due to PHP. In comparison to persons without thyroid diseases, the occurrence of PHP was significantly higher in patients with thyroid diseases (4/4370 = 0.09% vs. 26/9017 = 0.29%). Furthermore, 2 patients with normal S-Ca were diagnosed as having PHP in addition to another endocrine disease (acromegaly, multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIa, resp.). 31 of the 54 persons with S-Ca &gt; 2.6mmol/L and who showed no other reasons for hypercalcaemia were found to be in a hyperthyroid state. The prevalence of PHP was significantly higher in patients with euthyroid goitre (p &lt; 0.05) and in patients with thyroid carcinoma (p = 0.01) as compared to other persons with thyroid diseases. The groups of patients did not differ with regard to age. However, patients without thyroid diseases were significantly younger (median age 38y). Above the age of 50, the prevalence of PHP became higher in patients with euthyroid goitre or thyroid carcinoma than in those with a healthy thyroid gland. In contrast, in persons of under 50 y, there was no difference between these groups. The percentage of males with PHP was higher than in the total population studied (30% vs. 21.5%). In conclusion, a high occurence of PHP could be demonstrated in patients with thyroid diseases (0.29%) as compared to persons without thyroid dysfunction (0.09%), the highest prevalence being in patients with thyroid carcinoma. A clinically not relevant influence of thyroid function on S-Ca was seen in some patients with hyperthyroidism. Determination of S-Ca is recommended for each patient referred to a thyroid outpatients' department because of the high number of PHP cases in this context." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1036_19933", "title": "OCCULT PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM: A CASE REPORT AND REVIEW OF PARATHYROID ULTRASONOGRAPHY.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To discuss the diagnosis and management of occult primary hyperparathyroidism. We present the biochemical and radiologic evaluation, treatment, and outcome of a woman with occult primary hyperparathyroidism which presented as an unusual neck mass on ultrasound. We also present a relevant literature review. A 52-year-old female presented with Hashimoto thyroiditis and a 1.2-cm, hypoechoic oval nodule in the left upper lateral portion of the thyroid. She returned a decade later with a 2.2-cm, hypervascular mass on ultrasound. Parathyroid hormone was mildly elevated at 90 pg/mL (reference range is 15 to 65 pg/mL), but she had persistently normal levels of total serum calcium at 9.9 mg/dL (reference range is 8.7 to 10.3 mg/dL), phosphorus at 3.5 mg/dL (reference range is 2.1 to 4.5 mg/dL), and albumin at 4.4 g/dL (reference range is 3.6 to 4.8 g/dL). She had elevated ionized calcium of 5.9 mg/dL (reference range is 4.5 to 5.6 mg/dL). Computed tomography with contrast of the neck revealed an enhancing oval lesion abutting the superior pole of the left thyroid with attenuation characteristics similar though slightly different from the thyroid. 99mTc-Sestamibi scan showed increased uptake posterior to the superior aspect of the left thyroid. Bone densitometry showed osteoporosis of the left distal radius and osteopenia of the left femoral neck. Minimally invasive radio-guided parathyroidectomy was performed with normalization of parathyroid hormone. Pathology confirmed a 1.715-g parathyroid adenoma. Despite normal total calcium levels, clinically significant primary hyperparathyroidism may present as a large adenoma which could appear as a hypervascular neck mass on ultrasound. A high index of suspicion based on ultrasound features and measurement of ionized calcium may be helpful in diagnosing occult, but clinically relevant primary hyperparathyroidism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_5139", "title": "[Role of parathyroid hormone measurement in prediction for symptomatic hypocalcaemia after total thyroidectomy].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To evaluate the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and serum calcium in prediction for hypocalcaemia after total thyroidectomy. One hundred and sixty-five patients undergoing total or complete total thyroidectomy were reviewed retrospectively. The indications included bilateral carcinoma, undifferential carcinoma, surroundings invasion, distant metastasis and huge benign lesions. Preoperative and postoperative PTH, calcium concentrations and their decline levels were compared between Jan. 2005 and May 2009. The role of PTH value and decline level predicting for symptomatic hypocalcaemia were analyzed by receiver operator characteristics (ROC) curve. After total thyroidectomy, 85 patients (51.5%) developed hypocalcemia. Symptoms were reported by 36 patients (21.8%). The mean concentration of PTH for normocalcaemia (80 cases), asymptomatic hypocalcaemia (49 cases) and symptomatic patients (36 cases) were 31.0 ng/L, 19.6 ng/L and 11.9 ng/L, respectively. The mean decline level for the three groups were 28.6%, 52.6% and 78.0%, respectively. PTH value and its decline level had a poor predicting value for symptomatic hypocalcaemia and high negative predicting value for asymptomatic patients. The serum calcium concentration more than 2.0 mmol/L, PTH level higher than 15 ng/L and PTH decline less than 50% had the good negative predicting value of 97.6%, 90.3% and 96.5%, respectively. Postoperative PTH and its decline level were significantly correlated with postoperative serum calcium concentration but had a low accuracy for predicting symptomatic hypocalcaemia. The serum calcium concentration more than 2.0 mmol/L, PTH level higher than 15 ng/L and PTH decline less than 50% had the good predicting value for asymptomatic patients. Calcium should be routinely supplemented in the first 24 h after total thyroidectomy to reduce the rate of hypocalcemia and the severity of hypocalcemia symptoms." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 110, 267 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 48 ] ], "text": "In this case the MRI already places the origin of the symptoms in the pineal gland. The most frequent tumor in this region is the germ cell tumor (answer 3)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Glioblastoma.", "2": "Medulloblastoma.", "3": "Germ cell tumor.", "4": "Meningioma.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en303_24570", "title": "Neuro-oncology", "score": 0.017908538535337384, "content": "5. Pituitary Region Tumors A wide variety of tumors can occur in and around the sella turcica. The most common tumors in this region are craniopharyngiomas, pituitary adenomas, meningiomas, and optic chiasm gliomas. Visual impairment is a common presenting symptom, due to compression or invasion of the optic chiasm. 6. Germ Cell and Pineal Region Tumors Most tumors of the pineal region are either germinomas or pineal cell tumors, and are tumors of adolescents and young adults. Presentation relates to the location in the nervous system. 7. Medulloblastoma and Other Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumors Medulloblastoma and other primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNETs) are a group of highly aggressive central nervous system tumors with a tendency to spread via cerebrospinal fluid pathways. These typically are tumors of childhood and young adulthood. 8. Meningiomas and Other Meningeal Tumors" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0685_15836", "title": "Pineal mixed germ cell tumor with a synchronous sellar lesion in the sixth decade.", "score": 0.01738934056007227, "content": "Intracranial germ cell tumors (GCTs) typically affect children and adolescents. We here report on a 59-year-old male patient presenting with diplopia, polydipsia and polyuria. On clinical examination, slight restriction of the upward gaze was seen on the left side. Computed tomography demonstrated calcifications in the pineal region and enhanced neurohypophysis. Magnetic resonance imaging displayed a heterogeneous pineal mass of 3-cm diameter, which was multicystic with an enhanced cyst wall, and also swelling of the pituitary stalk. The pineal lesion of the tumor, which included calcifications and keratinaceous components, was totally excised using an occipital transtentorial approach. Histopathological examination showed it to be a mixed GCT with germinoma and mature teratoma components. Postoperative chemoradiotherapy provided complete disappearance of the suprasellar lesion. To our knowledge, this is the first case of mixed bifocal GCT in an older adult reported in the literature, although a few cases of tumors with a single histological component have been reported. Hence, our case further underlines the possibility of the occurrence of GCTs in older adults and advocates the consideration of GCTs in the differential diagnosis of such cases for appropriate management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_1607", "title": "[Unilateral supranuclear abducens palsy in a pineal tumor].", "score": 0.016464699683877766, "content": "A 13-year-old boy complained of frequent headaches and diplopia on rightward gaze. A CT scan demonstrated hydrocephalus and a non-homogeneous enhancing mass in the pineal area, leading to a diagnosis of pineal tumor. The physical examination revealed no abnormalities. On neurological examination, there were a right homonymous hemianopsia and slight choked disc in both optic fundi. His right eye was slightly adducted on primary gaze. On right lateral gaze, his right eye could not move beyond the midline and showed gaze paretic nystagmus, whereas his left eye could move fully in all directions. The abducens palsy could be overcome by the oculocephalic maneuver or caloric test. Interestingly, his right eye could abduct when his left eye was covered. From these finding, this was labelled a supranuclear abducens palsy. The convergent nystagmus was observed. Rightward OKN (quick phase to right) of the right eye was abolished with and without the left eye covered, while leftward OKN of the right eye was preserved. Pursuit to right was disturbed. After removal of the tumor, the gaze palsies disappeared. It is postulated that the supranuclear lateral gaze palsy was caused by impairment of supranuclear control by involvement of lateral gaze pathways to gaze center coursing near the oculomotor nucleus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0969_10428", "title": "Fast-developing fatal diffuse leptomeningeal dissemination of a pineal germinoma in a young child: a case report and literature review.", "score": 0.015281915480525212, "content": "Intracranial germinomas are uncommon and constitute less than 1% of all intracranial tumors. They usually arise in the midline of the brain, most commonly in the pineal region. Pineal germinomas tend to spread through the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). However, pineal germinomas with fast-developing diffuse subarachnoid/leptomeningeal dissemination are extremely rare, especially in young children. The case of a 4-year-old boy with a pineal germinoma who died of diffuse subarachnoid/leptomeningeal dissemination 1 month after radiotherapy is reported. A PubMed search with specific key terms was used to review cases of pineal germinomas with metastasis. The patient presented with a two-week history of worsening headache, visual disturbances and nonprojectile vomiting. Parinaud's sign was positive on physical examination. Head computed tomography (CT)/magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a lesion in the pineal region with eccentric calcification and obvious supratentorial hydrocephalus. Pineal germinoma was suspected. A ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt followed by focal radiotherapy ameliorated the headaches and visual disturbances. The patient was discharged home without further treatment due to financial difficulties. One month after discharge, he was readmitted due to worsening headache, vomiting and lethargy. MRI showed a decrease in the size of the pineal lesion but revealed a diffuse leptomeningeal enhancement including the sulcus, basal cistern, prepontine cistern, and supravermian cistern. The patient's condition deteriorated rapidly, and he died 26 hours after readmission. The characteristics of pineal germinomas with metastasis are reported based on a review of the literature. Metastases in pineal germinomas predominately occur in adolescents or young adults, most commonly as spinal \"drop metastases.\" Dissemination usually develops several years after the initial tumor diagnosis and has a relatively good clinical prognosis. However, fast widespread subarachnoid/leptomeningeal dissemination and sudden death may occur in a young child before salvage treatment, as in the presented case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0782_6835", "title": "An unusual location for a choroid plexus papilloma: the pineal region.", "score": 0.014668817421111001, "content": "Choroid plexus papillomas (CPP) are rare benign neoplasms of the central nervous system that occur most often in children during the first decade of life. They occur most often in the lateral ventricle. It is extremely rare for a CPP to occur in the pineal region. We describe the case of a child with a CPP located in the pineal region, who was initially diagnosed with obstructive hydrocephalus by cranial computed tomography (CT). A 9-year-old female patient presented with complaints of visual disturbance, nausea, and vomiting. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed a poor contrast-enhanced pineal-localized lesion. Anatomical variations within the patient caused her surgery to proceed using a supratentorial-occipital interhemispheric approach. The tumor was totally removed, and a histological examination revealed the tumor to be a typical CPP. The patient received follow-up neurological and ophthalmologic examinations at 3, 6, 9, 12, 24, and 36 months postoperatively, which demonstrated her progressive improvement. CPPs may have a wide range of locations and resulting symptoms. However, the pineal region is a rarely encountered location, particularly for pediatric patients. It is of great value to correctly differentiate neoplasms such as germ cell tumors, pineocytomas, meningiomas, and astrocytomas, so that patients receive the correct diagnosis and treatment approach." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1086_21257", "title": "Neuroophthalmic Manifestations of Intracranial Tumours in Children.", "score": 0.014409914020846343, "content": "All children between 0 and 16 years presenting with brain tumours confirmed by Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) and treated surgically in our institute were included in this study. The aim of this study is to evaluate the neuroophthalmic and clinical characteristics of intracranial space occupying lesions in children. Neuroophthalmic manifestations along with location of the tumour by contrast-enhanced MRI, type of surgical intervention, and postoperative histopathological diagnosis were evaluated. In pediatric brain tumours, male preponderance was seen and supratentorial location was more common in general, while in older children, infratentorial tumours were more common than supratentorial tumours. Headache, vomiting, and cerebellar signs were the commonest neurological features. Diminution of vision, diplopia, and strabismus were the commonest ophthalmic symptoms. Papilledema, ophthalmoparesis, and nystagmus were the most frequent ophthalmological signs. Neurological manifestations of seizures, altered sensorium and motor deficits were more frequently seen in supratentorial tumours, while cranial nerve involvement and ataxia were seen in infratentorial tumours. Ophthalmological manifestations including diplopia, strabismus, ophthalmoparesis, and nystagmus were more frequently seen in infratentorial tumours. Astrocytoma was the most frequent histopathological diagnosis followed by medulloblastoma. Diagnosis of pediatric intracranial tumours is complex and requires a multidisciplinary approach for prompt management. An ophthalmologist should have a high index of suspicion for brain tumours especially in patients presenting with common ocular symptoms like diminution of vision, diplopia, and strabismus without any neurological symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en085_55936", "title": "Medulloblastoma", "score": 0.01281763826606876, "content": "The cumulative relative survival rate for all age groups and histology follow-up was 60%, 52%, and 47% at 5 years, 10 years, and 20 years, respectively, with children doing better than adults. Signs and symptoms Signs and symptoms are mainly due to secondary increased intracranial pressure due to blockage of the fourth ventricle and tumors are usually present for 1 to 5 months before diagnosis is made. The child typically becomes listless, with repeated episodes of vomiting, and a morning headache, which may lead to a misdiagnosis of gastrointestinal disease or migraine. Soon after, the child will develop a stumbling gait, truncal ataxia, frequent falls, diplopia, papilledema, and sixth cranial nerve palsy. Positional vertigo and nystagmus are also frequent, and facial sensory loss or motor weakness may be present. Decerebrate attacks appear late in the disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_22483", "title": "Sphenoid wing meningioma", "score": 0.012319703921518921, "content": "Tumors found in the external third of the sphenoid are of two types: en-plaque and globoid meningiomas. En plaque meningiomas characteristically lead to slowly increasing proptosis with the eye angled downward. Much of this is due to reactive orbital hyperostosis. With invasion of the tumor into the orbit, diplopia is common. Patients with globoid meningiomas often present only with signs of increased intracranial pressure. This leads to various other symptoms including headache and a swollen optic disc. The differential diagnosis for sphenoid wing meningioma includes other types of tumors such as optic nerve sheath meningioma, cranial osteosarcoma, metastases, and also sarcoidosis. Following the physical exam, the diagnosis is confirmed with neuro-imaging. Either a head CT or MRI with contrast such as gadolinium is useful, as meningiomas often show homogenous enhancement. Angiography looking for signs like stretched arteries may be used to supplement evaluation of vascular" }, { "id": "article-22223_10", "title": "Germ Cell Seminoma -- History and Physical", "score": 0.012166666666666666, "content": "Pineal region tumors usually present with signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (headache, nausea, vomiting, papilledema) due to obstructive hydrocephalus. Neuroophthalmological abnormalities are also present, which include diplopia and Parinaud syndrome characterized by upward gaze paralysis, loss of light perception, loss of convergence, and nystagmus. [4]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_13485", "title": "Central neurocytomas of uncommon locations: report of two cases.", "score": 0.01161337018028688, "content": "We report two patients with central neurocytomas at an uncommon location in the brain. The first, a 58-year-old man presenting with signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, had a tumor located at the pineal region. The second, a 21-year-old woman with tumor in the aqueductal region had worsening migraine-like headaches and diplopia. Both patients had obstructive hydrocephalus treated by neuroendoscopic third ventriculostomy and biopsy of the tumors. No additional treatment was done. We conclude that neurocytomas should be considered in the differential diagnosis of tumors located in the pineal and aqueductal regions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1071_22733", "title": "Pineal Region Meningioma in a Very Young Child.", "score": 0.011363636363636364, "content": "Meningiomas in childhood are infrequently seen. Furthermore, they are extremely rare at a pineal location with few reported cases above 5-years of age. We present a very young child with a large pineal region meningioma which mimicked the usually occurring pathologies at this site. A 2.5-year-old child presented with symptoms of raised intracranial pressure. MRI demonstrated a homogenously enhancing pineal lesion with small cystic areas. After an initial cerebrospinal fluid evaluation for germ cell tumors, the child underwent excision of the lesion by the Krause approach. The tumor showed no definitive dural attachment, had well-defined arachnoid interface, and was completely excised. The final histopathology was meningioma. Although unusual, we highlight the importance of considering meningiomas among the childhood pineal region lesions, given their good outcome with total resection. Also, pertinent brief literature of the pediatric pineal region meningiomas has been provided. An assessment of preoperative and intraoperative features (clear arachnoid plane) along with adjuncts such as frozen studies can help discern various entities of this region, and decide the extent of excision." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_3365", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.010572916666666668, "content": "If an intracranial lesion is suspected, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is currently the examination of choice (Fig. 157-1). Examination of CSF by cytocentrifuge histologic testing is essential to determine the presence of metastatic disease in primitive neuroectodermal tumors, germ cell tumors, and pineal region tumors. A lumbar puncture should not be performed before imaging has been obtained to evaluate for evidence of increased intracranial pressure. If a tumor is Figure 157-1 Magnetic resonance imaging scan of a 9-year-old boy showing a heterogeneously enhancing fourth ventricular mass (arrow). It was resected, and pathology revealed medulloblastoma." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7616", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010257849954649505, "content": "A large number of tumors can arise in the region of the pineal gland. These typically present with headache, visual symptoms, and hydrocephalus. Patients may have Parinaud syndrome characterized by impaired upgaze and accommodation. Some pineal tumors such as pineocytomas and benign teratomas can be treated simply by surgical resection. Germinomas respond to irradiation, whereas pineoblastomas and malignant germ cell tumors require craniospinal radiation and chemotherapy. Meningiomas are diagnosed with increasing frequency as more people undergo neuroimaging for various indications. They are now the most common primary brain tumor, accounting for approximately 35% of the total. Their incidence increases with age. They tend to be more common in women and in patients with neurofibromatosis type 2. They also occur more commonly in patients with a past history of cranial irradiation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_9982", "title": "[A case of pineal teratoma arising from hydrocephalus of unknown cause].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We report a case of \"functional aqueductal stenosis\" which reveals dilatation of the lateral and 3rd ventricles without stenosis at the aqueduct in MRI. This case shows a pineal teratoma which presents one year later with symptoms of hydrocephalus caused by \"functional aqueductal stenosis\". A seven-year-old boy was admitted to our department owing to headache and vomiting. CT and MRI showed hydrocephalus. The lateral and 3rd ventricles were dilated while the 4th ventricle was normal. Furthermore, tumoral obstruction of the aqueduct was not found. After a ventriculoperitoneal shunt, he recovered well without neurological deficits. One year later, symptoms of precocious puberty, that is the appearance of public hair and deepening of his voice, were found. A follow-up MRI demonstrated a pineal region tumor. Although human chorionic gonadotropin level in the serum and urine was transiently elevated, it normalized before surgery. The operation was performed by the occipital transtentorial approach and the tumor was totally removed. Histological examination proved this tumor to be a mature teratoma, showing three germ cell layers. About two weeks later, he was discharged without any neurological deficit. In this case, although hydrocephalus occurred, MRI didn't demonstrate aqueductal obstruction caused by the tumor. However, one year later, a pineal region tumor was confirmed by MRI. This suggests that hydrocephalus might have some association with the appearance of the pineal region tumor. Therefore, it is necessary to be aware of the possibility of the occurrence of tumors whenever we encounter \"functional aqueductal obstruction\", when MRI doesn't demonstrate aqueductal obstruction caused by a tumor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0106_6753", "title": "Unusual clinical presentation of a presumed pineal germinoma with two disseminated lesions.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We report a case of a presumed pineal germinoma in a 28-year-old man. Although the pineal body, the presumed primary lesion, was small, there were two disseminated tumors, one in the posterior fossa and the other in the left parietal region. The initial symptom was cerebellar ataxia. These two disseminated tumors had attachments to the inferior surface of the cerebellar tentorium and the dura mater of the parietal convexity, respectively, and they were fed by external carotid artery branches, like meningiomas. Neither angiography nor magnetic resonance imaging could provide the differential diagnosis between germinoma and meningioma. Computed tomographic scanning revealed slight enlargement of the pineal body suggestive of a germinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0422_8686", "title": "Glioblastoma multiforme of the pineal region: case report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "pineal region tumors are uncommon, and comprise more frequently three categories: germ cell, parenchymal cell and glial tumors. Most pineal gliomas are low-grade astrocytomas. Glioblastoma multiforme, the most aggressive and common brain tumor, is extremely rare at this location with only few cases reported. a 29-year-old woman with a two month history of headache, nuchal pain, fever, nausea and seizures and physical examination showing nuchal rigidity, generalized hypotony, hypotrophy and hyper-reflexia, Babinski sign and left VI cranial par palsy. CT scan examination revealed a ill-defined hypodense lesion at the pineal region with heterogeneous contrast enhancement. MRI showed a lesion at the pineal region infiltrating the right thalamic region. The patient underwent a right craniotomy with partial resection of the mass. The histological examination of paraffin-embedded material defined the diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme. Post-operative radiotherapy was indicated but the patient refused the treatment and died two months afterwards. in spite of its rarity at this location, glioblastoma multiforme should be considered in the differential diagnosis of aggressive lesions at the pineal region." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0309_14137", "title": "[Medulloblastoma originating from the superior cerebellar peduncle: a case report].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A rare case of medulloblastoma originating from the superior cerebellar peduncle is reported. After tilting her neck to the right, a 4-year-old girl experienced a left-side hemiparesis for 3 months. Computed tomography (CT) scan and magnetic resonance image (MRI) showed an enhanced mass in the left tentorial incisura. The preoperative diagnosis was trochlear nerve neurinoma or tentorial meningioma, while the postoperative pathological diagnosis was medulloblastoma. Since medulloblastoma is thought to originate from the external granular layer, it is speculated that the external granular layer migrated through the superior cerebellar peduncle and changed to medulloblastoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1143_18977", "title": "Neuro-otology symptoms as the early sign in pediatric patient with a pineal gland tumor: a case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Patients with pineal tumors are often asymptomatic and the symptoms depend on the location of the mass. In fact, around 3%-8% of pediatric brain tumor cases are pineal tumors. Children with pineal tumors may present with dizziness and vertigo as early signs. These symptoms are common conditions among 5-15 years old children and could probably lead to misdiagnoses. We present a case of 14-year-old who came to the emergency room of DR. Soetomo Hospital Surabaya with neurotologic symptoms. After a series of radiographic and laboratory examinations, he was diagnosed with germinoma. A ventriculoperitoneal shunt was performed in the emergency room and intravenous dexamethasone was administered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0796_15545", "title": "A suprasellar cystic germ cell tumor initially diagnosed as an arachnoid cyst.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We report here the case of a suprasellar cystic germ cell tumor (GCT) initially diagnosed as an arachnoid cyst. A 10-year-old boy experienced headache, dizziness, and diplopia, and was shown to have an approximately 2 cm suprasellar cyst. Two months after endoscopic third ventriculostomy was performed, a 5-6 cm cystic mass with an internal enhancing component was observed in the suprasellar cistern. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin levels were slightly increased in the serum and cerebrospinal fluid (55 and 162 IU/L, respectively) but were strikingly elevated in the cystic fluid (14,040 IU/L). The patient showed complete remission, with only a very small cystic lesion remaining after surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation treatment for a suprasellar mixed GCT. However, follow-up after treatment was complicated by moyamoya syndrome and cerebral infarction. GCT can be considered as a rare differential diagnosis in the case of a suprasellar cystic mass. Evaluation of tumor markers and close follow-up will be necessary. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0865_19146", "title": "Immature teratoma of the tectum mesencephali with histopathological detection of rudimentary eye anlage in a 3-year-old boy: Report of a rare case.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Intracranial teratoma is a rare neoplasm derived from omnipotent germinal cells that can contain mesoderm, endoderm and/or ectoderm layer tissue. Histologically teratomas are characterized by abnormal structures like teeth or bone that can be further subdivided into mature and immature according to the presence of incompletely differentiated tissue. Characteristic intracranial teratomas are space-occupying lesions in the pineal region and often present with hydrocephalic symptoms due to aqueduct stenosis. A 3-year-old boy presented with a peracute hemiparesis, fatigue and speech deficit. MRI diagnostics showed a cystic, partially solid, inhomogeneous contrast-enhancing formation at the top of the tectum mesencephali with consecutive aqueduct compression. The patient underwent a sub-occipital craniotomy via a supracerebellar approach and complete resection was achieved. The histopathological examination mainly showed mature tissue of ectodermal, mesodermal and endodermal origin. However, small areas of undifferentiated neuroectodermal tissue within an optic vesicle formation were detected, leading to the diagnosis of an immature teratoma. In due course, the patient was discharged in good health without neurological deficits. To our knowledge, optic vesicle-containing intracranial germ cell tumors are extremely rare. Here we report a unique case with immature neuroectodermal tissue within an optic vesicle formation in an otherwise mature teratoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0804_4386", "title": "Clinical diagnostic dilemma of intracranial germinoma manifesting as wide skull base extension.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The aims of this study were to present an uncommon intracranial germinoma manifesting as skull base extension and analyze its clinical characteristics to give valuable insight into such uncommon radiologic variant. This is a clinical study of a 15-year-old girl with intracranial germinoma manifesting as skull base extension. Clinical characteristics, magnetic resonance imaging scan observations, pathologic findings, and flow of the treatment procedure were presented and analyzed. She had a 5-month history of diuresis and diplopia. magnetic resonance imaging observation displayed a neoplasm located in the right-side central skull base and suprasellar area with wide extension into the cavernous sinus, intraorbital region, ethmoidal sinus, sphenoid sinus, and pituitary fossa. After administration of contrast medium, strong and heterogeneous enhancement of the mass was observed, with a dural tail sign along the right cerebellar tentorial. Right pterional approach was performed, and intraoperative histologic examination suspected the diagnosis of germinoma; partial resection was achieved, and postoperative radiotherapy was administered. Cranial nerve palsy improved greatly 6 months postoperatively. Although highly unusual, germinoma should be included in the differential diagnosis of all masses with extension along the midline region of skull base, especially when it happens in young female patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0675_4521", "title": "Spontaneous regression of germinoma in the pineal region before endoscopic surgery: a pitfall of modern strategy for pineal germ cell tumors.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Since its introduction in the neurosurgical field, neuroendoscopy has played an important role in the treatment of pineal germ cell tumors. The authors report a case of pineal germinoma revealing spontaneous regression before neuroendoscopic surgery. A 15-year-old boy presented with chronic headache, deterioration of his visual acuity, and diplopia. Head magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a large tumor in the pineal region and triventricular hydrocephalus due to occlusion of the aqueduct. As levels of tumor markers in serum and cerebrospinal fluid, including those of alpha-fetoprotein, carcinoembryonic antigen, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and the beta-subunit of hCG, were all within the normal ranges, endoscopic surgery for biopsy and third ventriculocisternostomy was performed. Under endoscopic view, the tumor was revealed to be smaller than expected from preoperative images. MRI obtained 14 days after admission disclosed marked shrinkage of the tumor. The histopathological diagnosis was pure germinoma, and the patient underwent chemotherapy combined with fractionated radiotherapy. The tumor disappeared, and the patient did not show any signs of relapse. Spontaneous regression is a very rare phenomenon in malignant brain tumors, and in the literature it has been uncommonly described in pineal germ cell tumors. Our case disclosed a pitfall of modern strategy for this pathology with neuroendoscopy. Dilated ventricles and a certain amount of lesion are factors for safe endoscopic biopsy of pineal tumors. Radiographic images shortly before surgery are warranted, especially in patients whose symptoms of intracranial hypertension have already improved before surgery." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_5063", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Vomiting appears in a relatively small number of patients with a tumor syndrome and usually accompanies the headache when the latter is severe. It is more frequent with tumors of the posterior fossa. The most persistent vomiting (lasting several weeks) that we have observed has been in patients with low brainstem gliomas, fourth ventricular ependymomas, and subtentorial meningiomas. Some patients may vomit unexpectedly and forcibly without preceding nausea (“projectile vomiting”), a sign that is fairly specific to tumor in children, but others suffer nausea and severe discomfort. Usually the vomiting is not related to the ingestion of food, and, often, it occurs before breakfast." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_10794", "title": "[Deep sylvian meningioma: a case report of a child].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A case of deep sylvian meningioma without dural attachment in a 12-year-old boy was reported. He had been suffering from severe headache for a month. Neurological examination was normal. CT scan and MR images showed a well-enhanced 7 cm mass lesion with small cysts, located in the left sylvian fissure. Peritumoral edema was slight and the midline structures were minimally shifted in spite of its large size. A fronto-temporal craniotomy was made and the tumor was grossly totally removed. The tumor had no dural attachment and existed in the left sylvian fissure, involving the middle cerebral artery and its branches. The histological diagnosis was transitional meningioma without malignancy. The postoperative course was uneventful except for transient mild left oculomotor palsy for several days. He is doing well now one year after the surgery and follow-up MR images showed no recurrence. Intracranial meningioma is rare in children. According to the literature, meningioma in children is slightly more frequent in males. There is a higher incidence of lack of dural attachment and cystic tumors than in adults. Deep sylvian meningioma without dural attachment is also very rare. Including our case, 13 cases of deep sylvian meningioma were reported in the literature. Four of them were under 20 years old. We report this case in detail with other cases reported previously." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0713_1979", "title": "Lung carcinoma metastasis presenting as a pineal region tumor.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The pineal region is an unusual site for brain metastasis and most metastatic pineal lesions are asymptomatic. A 53 year-old man presented with severe headache, limitation of upward gaze and diplopia. The patient's neurological examination was unremarkable. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans of the brain demonstrated a 1.5 x 2 cm well demarcated solitary mass in the pineal region with hydrocephalus. Surgery was performed and adenocarcinoma was diagnosed. A systemic investigation revealed adenocarcinoma of the lung as primary lesion. Although rare, metastatic tumor should be considered in the differential diagnosis of pineal region tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0418_18553", "title": "Primary medulla oblongata germinoma: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We describe a case of primary intracranial medulla oblongata germinoma in a 16-year-old girl who presented with progressive headache and blurred vision. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a heterogeneous exophytic mass arising from dorsal aspect of medulla oblongata with extension into fourth ventricle. The differential diagnosis for this patient had included ependymoma, exophytic glioma, medulloblastoma and choroid plexus papilloma. After surgical resection and radiation therapy, she remains alive and recurrence-free for 7 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_7039", "title": "[Pretectal syndrome caused by a plaque of multiple sclerosis].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We report a 20-year-old woman who presented with pretectal syndrome. She was well until September 12, 1991 when she noted an onset of difficulty in focusing her eyes. On neurologic examination, she showed convergence-retraction nystagmus and restriction of vertical eye movements more in the upward direction. A cranial CT scan revealed no abnormality. An oligoclonal band was detected in CSF. An MRI using Hitachi MRH-500 (0.5 T) revealed an abnormal high signal intensity lesion at the ventral area of the midbrain aqueduct, and another small lesion in the temporal white matter on the left. In addition, periventricular scattered small lesions were also visualized. Hydrocephalus, tumors and cerebrovascular disorders are common causes of pretectal syndrome, but multiple sclerosis is a rare one. Problems associated with the similar terminologies including Parinaud's syndrome, sylvian aqueduct syndrome or dorsal midbrain syndrome were discussed. According to Ranalli (1988), fibers mediating the upward gaze originate in the rostral interstitial MLF (riMLF), cross through the posterior commissure, and terminate in the contralateral oculomotor complex. On the other hand, downward gaze fibers take another route to the oculomotor complex. This may be a reason for the dissociation of the upward and downward gaze palsy, and the riMLF seems to be one of the most important structures responsible for the upward gaze." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0631_21939", "title": "Occult leptomeningeal large cell medulloblastoma in an adult.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Large cell medulloblastoma is an uncommon malignancy of childhood that often pursues an aggressive clinical course. We report the first case of this entity in an adult that proved to be an unsuspected primary leptomeningeal tumor. A 30-year-old man complained of worsening neck pain over the course of 3 months. Neck pain increased a few days prior to admission and a cervical spine CT revealed tonsillar herniation. Cervical spine MRI performed the day prior to admission confirmed the diagnosis of Chiari I malformation and C3-4 disk herniation without spinal cord compression. On the day of admission, the patient became unresponsive and resuscitative measures were unsuccessful. Postmortem examination of the brain was notable for necrotic cerebellar tonsils, but demonstrated no evidence of an intraparenchymal mass lesion. Microscopic examination of the cerebellum revealed discohesive neoplastic cells, which showed characteristic dot-like immunoreactivity for synaptophysin, diagnostic of large cell medulloblastoma within the subarachnoid space. Our experience with this unique case illustrates the challenges of diagnosing a primary leptomeningeal neoplasm. This case also underscores the importance of maintaining a high degree of suspicion for leptomeningeal neoplasms in patients who present with imaging studies suspicious for Chiari I malformation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0969_17679", "title": "Calcifying pseudoneoplasm of the neuraxis (CaPNoN): an unusual cause of third nerve palsy in a teenager.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "An 18-year-old part-time teacher presented with headache and diplopia. Physical examination showed partial left oculomotor palsy. Neurology examination was otherwise unremarkable. Cross-sectional imaging was arranged for investigation of third nerve palsy. On CT scan, the lesion was calcified, and on MRI, hypointense on <iT</i <sub1</sub and <iT</i <sub2</sub weightedimages with thin rim enhancement, resembling an atypical meningioma. CT angiogram showed no vascular connection. Following worsening diplopia and a slight increase in lesion size on follow-up MRI, the patient was re-reviewed in our regional skull base multidisciplinary team meeting, where a decision for excision was made. Pre-operatively, the absence of a vascular connection was confirmed on catheter angiogram. Histopathological examination demonstrated features typical of calcified pseudoneoplasm of the neuraxis, with extensive metaplastic calcification with stroma containing variable fibrovascular tissue and focal inflammatory cell infiltrates, spindle and epithelioid cells, and psammoma bodies at the rim of the lesion. Following surgery, the patient had persisting diplopia. He remains under clinical review. As surgical resection is considered curative, no further imaging follow-up is planned." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0942_14182", "title": "Ambiguity in the Dural Tail Sign on MRI.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Meningiomas give rise to the dural tail sign (DTS) on contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (CEMRI). The presence of DTS does not always qualify for a meningioma, as it is seen in only 60-72% of cases. This sign has been described in various other lesions like lymphomas, metastasis, hemangiopericytomas, schwannomas and very rarely glioblastoma multiforme (GBM). The characteristics of dural-based GBMs are discussed here, as only eleven such cases are reported in the literature till date. Here we discuss the unique features of this rare presentation. A 17-year-old male presented to the emergency department (ED) with, complaints of headache, recurrent vomiting, vision loss in right eye and altered sensorium. On examination patient was drowsy with right hemiparesis, secondary optic atrophy in the right eye and papilledema in the left eye. MRI brain showed, heterogeneous predominantly solid cystic lesion with central hypo-intense core suggestive of necrosis with heterogeneous enhancement and a positive DTS. Patient underwent emergency left parasagittal parieto-occipital craniotomy and gross total tumor excision including the involved dura and the falx. On opening the dura, tumor was surfacing, invading the superior sagittal sinus and the falx, greyish, soft to firm in consistency with central necrosis and highly vascular suggesting a high-grade lesion. Postoperative computed tomography (CT) of the brain showed evidence of gross total tumor (GTR) excision. The postoperative course of the patient was uneventful. Histopathological analysis revealed GBM with PNET like components. The dura as well as the falx were involved by the tumor. GBMs can arise in typical locations along with DTS mimicking meningiomas. Excision of the involved dura and the falx becomes important in this scenario, so as to achieve GTR. Hence high index of suspicion preoperatively aided by Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRS) can help distinguish GBMs from meningioma, thereby impacting upon the prognosis." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_3889", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.008884416331224842, "content": "Brain tumors are the second most common neoplasm in children. About 50% arise from within the posterior fossa. Tumors that arise in the posterior fossa or brainstem produce progressive ataxia with headache that may be acute or gradual in onset. There is a progressive worsening over days, weeks, or months, typically with associated signs and symptoms of elevated intracranial pressure. The ataxia and dysmetria may result from primary cerebellar invasion or from obstruction of the CSF pathways (aqueduct of Sylvius or fourth ventricle) with resultant hydrocephalus. The most common tumors in this region include medulloblastoma, ependymoma, cerebellar astrocytoma, and brainstem glioma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_7156", "title": "Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor of the pineal region in an adult.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "An atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor (AT/RT) is a highly malignant embryonal tumor most often occurring in the posterior fossa in children younger than 3 years of age. Adult cases of AT/RT are very rare, and 27 cases with a diagnosis of either AT/RT or (malignant) rhabdoid tumor have been reported to date. The authors report an adult case of an AT/RT occurring in the pineal region with molecular cytogenetic and immunohistochemical confirmation. A 33-year-old woman presented with a 2-month history of headache and blurred vision progressing to diplopia, and was admitted emergently due to deteriorating mental status. An MR image showed a heterogeneously enhancing mass involving the posterior third ventricle and pineal region with mild hydrocephalus. She underwent a subtotal resection of the tumor and was then treated with chemoradiation. Thirteen months after surgery, she was still alive with radiological evidence of recurrence/residual lesions. Histological sections showed epithelioid cellular sheets of rhabdoid tumor cells with scattered mitotic figures. Immunohistochemically, the tumor cells were diffusely and strongly positive for epithelial membrane antigen and vimentin, and showed focal expression of glial fibrillary acidic protein, pancytokeratin, and neurofilament protein. Loss of nuclear immunoreactivity for INI1 protein was observed. Fluorescence in situ hybridization analysis showed monosomy 22. Histologically, this tumor consisted exclusively of epithelioid tumor cells with rhabdoid features. The differential diagnoses include rhabdoid glioblastoma, metastatic carcinoma, and rhabdoid meningioma. Molecular testing to identify monosomy 22 or deletions of the chromosome 22q11 containing the INI1/hSNF5 gene and/or immunohistochemical staining with INI1 antibody is of great importance for the diagnosis of this tumor." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Practice a blood glucose curve with 75 g of glucose.", "2": "Already meets diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.", "3": "Request a determination of basal insulinemia or C-peptide.", "4": "Request a determination of glycosylated hemoglobin.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en159_37769", "title": "Random glucose test", "score": 0.01695402298850575, "content": "Reference values The reference values for a \"normal\" random glucose test in an average adult are 80–140mg/dl (4.4–7.8 mmol/l), between 140-200mg/dl (7.8–11.1 mmol/l) is considered pre-diabetes, and ≥ 200 mg/dl is considered diabetes according to ADA guidelines (you should visit your doctor or a clinic for additional tests however as a random glucose of > 160mg/dl does not necessarily mean you are diabetic). See also Blood glucose Diabetes mellitus Hypoglycemia References External links Glucose Tests @ Lab Tests Online ADA page that hints at random glucose levels Blood tests Diabetes-related tests" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_15812", "title": "Glucose test", "score": 0.01436752224153799, "content": "Reference ranges Fasting blood sugar A level below 5.6 mmol/l (100 mg/dl) 10–16 hours without eating is normal. 5.6–6 mmol/l (100–109 mg/dl) may indicate prediabetes and oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) should be done for high-risk individuals (old people, those with high blood pressure etc.). 6.1–6.9 mmol/l (110–125 mg/dl) means OGTT should be done even if other indicators of diabetes are not present. 7 mmol/l (126 mg/dl) and above indicates diabetes and the fasting test should be repeated. Glucose tolerance test Postprandial glucose test Random glucose test See also Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia References Blood tests" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en180_32350", "title": "Prediabetes", "score": 0.014090019569471625, "content": "Diagnosis Prediabetes can be diagnosed with three different types of blood tests: Fasting blood sugar (glucose) level of: 110 to 125 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L to 6.9 mmol/L) – WHO criteria 100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L to 6.9 mmol/L) – ADA criteria Glucose tolerance test: blood sugar level of 140 to 199 mg/dL (7.8 to 11.0 mM) 2 hours after ingesting a standardized 75 gram glucose solution Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) between 5.7 and 6.4 percent, ie 38.9 and 46.4 mmol/mol Levels above these limits would justify a diagnosis for diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en416_22142", "title": "Diabetes", "score": 0.014066033469018543, "content": "A positive result, in the absence of unequivocal high blood sugar, should be confirmed by a repeat of any of the above methods on a different day. It is preferable to measure a fasting glucose level because of the ease of measurement and the considerable time commitment of formal glucose tolerance testing, which takes two hours to complete and offers no prognostic advantage over the fasting test. According to the current definition, two fasting glucose measurements above 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en416_22141", "title": "Diabetes", "score": 0.013953299161988446, "content": "Diagnosis Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with a test for the glucose content in the blood, and is diagnosed by demonstrating any one of the following: Fasting plasma glucose level ≥ 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). For this test, blood is taken after a period of fasting, i.e. in the morning before breakfast, after the patient had sufficient time to fast overnight. Plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) two hours after a 75 gram oral glucose load as in a glucose tolerance test (OGTT) Symptoms of high blood sugar and plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) either while fasting or not fasting Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1C) ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0227_12259", "title": "Review of criteria for diagnosis of diabetes mellitus based on results of follow-up study.", "score": 0.013422116859573282, "content": "Comparison of the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) method was made with the conventional 50-g method in a fixed population followed for 1--17 yr. The possibility of using the results in establishing the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus was also considered. The following results were obtained: (1) The 75-g method showed significantly higher 2-h and 3-h postchallenge plasma glucose (PG) and immunoreactive insulin values. (2) The two methods showed good correlation in PG values at various time periods, and there was no difference between the two at 1/2 h and 1 h. The 2-h standard value of 200 mg/dl used to diagnose diabetes with the 75-g method was equivalent to 180 mg/dl by the 50-g method. The upper limits of normals were 140 mg/dl and 120 mg/dl, respectively, for the two tests. (3) Those subjects diagnosed as diabetic on the basis of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values of 140--149 mg/dl only had a high rate of reverting to normal over time. The frequency of \"nondiabetic\" plasma glucose values after glucose loading steadily decreases as FPG increased, with separation into two asymptotic lines at 150 mg/dl level. Thus, the logical value for diagnosis of diabetes when based only on FPG value is considered to be 150 mg/dl. (4) A smaller number of individuals had 2-h PG values that satisfied criteria for diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, but 1/2-h and 1-h values that were less than 200 mg/dl. Nevertheless, follow-up of these subjects showed a high development rate of diabetes. Thus, the 1/2-h and 1-h values are not considered necessary to establish diagnosis of diabetes mellitus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_21289", "title": "Diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus in Japan--from a report of the Japan Diabetes Society (JDS) Committee on the Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus, 1982.", "score": 0.013081617086193745, "content": "After the proposal of diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus by the National Diabetes Data Group (1979) and by WHO (1980), a committee was set up by the Japan Diabetes Society (JDS) to reconsider the old criteria by the JDS which had been proposed in 1970. Items covered by the report of the committee in 1982 included the concept of diabetes mellitus, describing it's features, and stating that it's diagnosis is a procedure of recognizing the disease 'diabetes' characterized by these features. Cutoff blood glucose values for fasting samples, after a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test, were proposed to define normal and diabetic types. The cutoff values for the diabetic type are identical to those of the WHO defining diabetes, whereas the values for the normal type (fasting &lt; 110 mg/dl and 1-h &lt; 160 and 2-h &lt; 120 mg/dl for venous plasma) are much lower than those for the lower limit of IGT by the WHO. Subjects whose glucose tolerance is neither diabetic nor normal are classified as borderline type, which includes not only IGT but cases with milder glucose intolerance. The cutoff points for the normal type were selected based on the long-term follow-up data for mild glucose intolerance in Japan. The Committee further stated that the clinical diagnosis of diabetes should be made not only on the basis of the glucose tolerance data, but also after clinical consideration of the possibility of any other diseases which might impair glucose tolerance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en180_32354", "title": "Prediabetes", "score": 0.012999463149014494, "content": "Impaired glucose tolerance Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is diagnosed with an oral glucose tolerance test. According to the criteria of the World Health Organization and the American Diabetes Association, impaired glucose tolerance is defined as: two-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol/l) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test. A patient is said to be under the condition of IGT when he/she has an intermediately raised glucose level after 2 hours, but less than the level that would qualify for type 2 diabetes mellitus. The fasting glucose may be either normal or mildly elevated. From 10 to 15 percent of adults in the United States have impaired glucose tolerance or impaired fasting glucose." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en416_22143", "title": "Diabetes", "score": 0.01264939634775223, "content": "Per the WHO, people with fasting glucose levels from 6.1 to 6.9 mmol/L (110 to 125 mg/dL) are considered to have impaired fasting glucose. People with plasma glucose at or above 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL), but not over 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL), two hours after a 75 gram oral glucose load are considered to have impaired glucose tolerance. Of these two prediabetic states, the latter in particular is a major risk factor for progression to full-blown diabetes mellitus, as well as cardiovascular disease. The American Diabetes Association (ADA) since 2003 uses a slightly different range for impaired fasting glucose of 5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L (100 to 125 mg/dL). Glycated hemoglobin is better than fasting glucose for determining risks of cardiovascular disease and death from any cause. Prevention" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_10292", "title": "Glucose tolerance test", "score": 0.012624482917113527, "content": "Results Fasting plasma glucose (measured before the OGTT begins) should be below 5.6 mmol/L (100 mg/dL). Fasting levels between 5.6 and 6.9 mmol/L (100 and 125 mg/dL) indicate prediabetes (\"impaired fasting glucose\"), and fasting levels repeatedly at or above 7.0 mmol/L (>126 mg/dL) are diagnostic of diabetes. For a 2 hour GTT with 75 g intake, a glucose level below 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) is normal, whereas higher levels indicate hyperglycemia. Blood plasma glucose between 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) and 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) indicate \"impaired glucose tolerance\", and levels at or above 11.1 mmol/L at 2 hours confirm a diagnosis of diabetes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_10293", "title": "Glucose tolerance test", "score": 0.012404155653835082, "content": "For gestational diabetes, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) recommends a two-step procedure, wherein the first step is a 50 g glucose dose. If after 1 hour the blood glucose level is more than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL), it is followed by a 100 g glucose dose. The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is then defined by a blood glucose level meeting or exceeding the cutoff values on at least two intervals, with cutoffs as follows: Before glucose intake (fasting): 5.3 mmol/L (95 mg/dL) 1 hour after drinking the glucose solution: 10.0 mmol/L (180 mg/dL) 2 hours: 8.6 mmol/L (155 mg/dL) 3 hours: 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_126419", "title": "Type 2 diabetes", "score": 0.012280527066945468, "content": "fasting plasma glucose ≥ 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl) or with a glucose tolerance test, two hours after the oral dose a plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/l (200 mg/dl) A random blood sugar of greater than 11.1 mmol/l (200 mg/dl) in association with typical symptoms or a glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %) is another method of diagnosing diabetes. In 2009 an International Expert Committee that included representatives of the American Diabetes Association (ADA), the International Diabetes Federation (IDF), and the European Association for the Study of Diabetes (EASD) recommended that a threshold of ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %) should be used to diagnose diabetes. This recommendation was adopted by the American Diabetes Association in 2010. Positive tests should be repeated unless the person presents with typical symptoms and blood sugars >11.1 mmol/l (>200 mg/dl)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en376_33245", "title": "Oxyhyperglycemia", "score": 0.011761307362165732, "content": "Distinction from regular impaired glucose tolerance Most patients (or animals) with prediabetic type impaired glucose tolerance (serum glucose 140–200 mg/dL at 2 hours after OGTT) are generally not oxyhyperglycemic because: Glycosuria is not necessary for mild impaired glucose tolerance (e.g. at approx 140–180 mg/dL range of blood glucose), is necessary for oxyhyperglycemia (i.e. peak >renal threshold). In contrast to the commonly seen shallow OGTT curve, amplitude of the pointy spike in oxyhyperglycemia need not necessarily be restricted to only prediabetic range and in severe oxyhyperglycemia it may cross 250 mg/dL. In oxyhyperglycemia, by two hours, the glucose not only comes back to pre-diabetic range it may even start shooting below the fasting baseline." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_196058", "title": "Blood glucose monitoring", "score": 0.011735165851724594, "content": "Healthcare professionals advise patients with diabetes mellitus on the appropriate monitoring regimen for their condition. Most people with type 2 diabetes test at least once per day. The Mayo Clinic generally recommends that diabetics who use insulin (all type 1 diabetics and many type 2 diabetics) test their blood sugar more often (4–8 times per day for type 1 diabetics, 2 or more times per day for type 2 diabetics), both to assess the effectiveness of their prior insulin dose and to help determine their next insulin dose. Purpose Blood glucose monitoring reveals individual patterns of blood glucose changes, and helps in the planning of meals, activities, and at what time of day to take medications. Also, testing allows for a quick response to high blood sugar (hyperglycemia) or low blood sugar (hypoglycemia). This might include diet adjustments, exercise, and insulin (as instructed by the health care provider). Blood glucose meters" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_12455", "title": "[Diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus].", "score": 0.01153673835125448, "content": "In the last three years, new diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus have been proposed by the American Diabetes Association (ADA, 1997), the World Health Organization (WHO) consultation (1998), and the Japan Diabetes Society (JDS, 1999). The most important change from the previous WHO criteria (1985) to these criteria is a decrease in fasting plasma glucose level (FPG) from 140 mg/dl to 126 mg/dl, which defines diabetes mellitus. These criteria attach more importance to FPG than to plasma glucose levels 2 hours after 75 g glucose load (2 hPG). According to these criteria, for example, in one instance with FPG &gt; or = 126 mg/dl, the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is warranted, if the postprandial plasma glucose &gt; or = 200 mg/dl or another FPG &gt; or = 126 mg/dl were reconfirmed on a subsequent day. The ADA criteria did not recommend an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for routine clinical use. These criteria has established a new category of impaired fasting glucose (IFG) (&gt; or = 110 mg/dl and 126 &lt; mg/dl), similar to impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) which is recognized by performing OGTT. We have reported from a cohort study that there was only one risk factor for IGF: worsening of metabolic derangement progressing to overt diabetes. With IGT, however, there are two risks: a risk for progression to diabetes, and a risk for development of cardiovascular disease. Therefore it seems that whether or not OGTT should be performed depends on the purpose: simply diagnosing for overt diabetes, or detecting risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The JDS criteria proposed the use of HbA1C as a supporting diagnostic tool, because JDS has achieved a fruitful standardization in Japan to a considerable extent. According to the JDS criteria, a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus can be made by an FPG &gt; or = 126 mg/dl when HbA1C &gt; or = 6.5% is confirmed. It is expected that these new criteria will promote further efforts against the increasing number of patients with diabetes mellitus." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27756", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011151942020109221, "content": "CRiTERiA foR THE DiAgnoSiS of DiAbETES mElliTuS • Symptoms of diabetes plus random blood glucose concentration ≥11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL)a or Fasting plasma glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL)b or Hemoglobin A1c ≥ 6.5%c or 2-h plasma glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) during an oral glucose aRandom is defined as without regard to time since the last meal. bFasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h. cHemoglobin A1c test should be performed in a laboratory using a method approved by the National Glycohemoglobin Standardization Program and correlated to the reference assay of the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial. Point-of-care hemoglobin A1c should not be used for diagnostic purposes. dThe test should be performed using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water, not recommended for routine clinical use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_219", "title": "[The reference value of plasma glucose in individuals over 65 years].", "score": 0.011044767751520758, "content": "The characteristics of plasma glucose in individuals aged over 65 years was investigated by analysis of age dependent changes of fasting and post glucose (75 g) load values in population based studies and some follow-up studies. Institutional differences were surveyed in central laboratory of institutions which joined this study and found that differences were the range of +3.0-3.5% from the mean glucose levels between 100-400 mg/dl. Therefore plasma glucose values around cutoff level should be confirmed by repeated determinations for reaching final diagnosis. The reference interval of plasma glucose does not differ in an age-dependent manner. We may use the reference interval proposed by the Committee of Diagnostic Criteria of Diabetes Mellitus of Japan Diabetes Society for adult individuals. Cases of diabetes diagnosed before 65 years old should be judged by the adult criteria. However, those who were not diabetic before age 65 and were found to be hyperglycemic after that age can be diagnosed classifying as follows: (1) Diabetes should be diagnosed in individuals with a fasting plasma glucose of 140 mg/dl or more and 2 hours after glucose (75 g) of 240 mg/dl or more. Those with some symptoms suggesting diabetes and either 140 mg/dl more or fasting or 240 mg/dl or more 2 hours post 75 g glucose load can also be diagnosed as diabetes.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_83573", "title": "Glycated hemoglobin", "score": 0.010944299390774587, "content": "A1c is measured primarily to determine the three-month average blood sugar level and can be used as a diagnostic test for diabetes mellitus and as an assessment test for glycemic control in people with diabetes. The test is limited to a three-month average because the average lifespan of a red blood cell is four months. Since individual red blood cells have varying lifespans, the test is used as a limited measure of three months. Normal levels of glucose produce a normal amount of glycated hemoglobin. As the average amount of plasma glucose increases, the fraction of glycated hemoglobin increases in a predictable way. In diabetes, higher amounts of glycated hemoglobin, indicating poorer control of blood glucose levels, have been associated with cardiovascular disease, nephropathy, neuropathy, and retinopathy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_34864", "title": "Diabetes management", "score": 0.0107428803080977, "content": "\"Perfect glycemic control\" would mean that glucose levels were always normal (70–130 mg/dl, or 3.9–7.2 mmol/L) and indistinguishable from a person without diabetes. In reality, because of the imperfections of treatment measures, even \"good glycemic control\" describes blood glucose levels that average somewhat higher than normal much of the time. In addition, one survey of type 2 diabetics found that they rated the harm to their quality of life from intensive interventions to control their blood sugar to be just as severe as the harm resulting from intermediate levels of diabetic complications. In the 1990s the American Diabetes Association conducted a publicity campaign to persuade patients and physicians to strive for average glucose and hemoglobin A1c values below 200 mg/dl (11 mmol/l) and 8%. Currently, many patients and physicians attempt to do better than that." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_59770", "title": "Gestational diabetes", "score": 0.010296658986175114, "content": "An alternative test uses a 75 g glucose load and measures the blood glucose levels before and after 1 and 2 hours, using the same reference values. This test will identify fewer women who are at risk, and there is only a weak concordance (agreement rate) between this test and a 3-hour 100 g test. The glucose values used to detect gestational diabetes were first determined by O'Sullivan and Mahan (1964) in a retrospective cohort study (using a 100 grams of glucose OGTT) designed to detect risk of developing type 2 diabetes in the future. The values were set using whole blood and required two values reaching or exceeding the value to be positive. Subsequent information led to alterations in O'Sullivan's criteria. When methods for blood glucose determination changed from the use of whole blood to venous plasma samples, the criteria for GDM were also changed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en213_29906", "title": "Postprandial glucose test", "score": 0.010120725800621701, "content": "A postprandial glucose (PPG) test is a blood glucose test that determines the amount of glucose, in the plasma after a meal. The diagnosis is typically restricted to postprandial hyperglycemia due to lack of strong evidence of co-relation with a diagnosis of diabetes. American Diabetes Association do not recommend a PPG test for determining diabetes; it though notes that postprandial hyperglycemia does contribute to elevated glycated hemoglobin levels (a primary factor behind diabetes) and recommends testing and management of PPG levels for those patients who maintain optimum pre-prandial blood glucose levels but have high A1C values. Carbohydrate in the form of glucose is one of the main constituents of foods and assimilation starts within about 10 minutes. The subsequent rate of absorption of carbohydrates in conjunction with the resultant rates of secretion of insulin and glucagon secretion affects the time-weighed PPG profile." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_78311", "title": "Glucose meter", "score": 0.010115206461063384, "content": "The imprecision is compounded by the relative likelihoods of false positives and negatives in populations with diabetes and those without. People with type 1 diabetes usually have a wider range of glucose levels, and glucose peaks above normal, often ranging from 40 to 500 mg/dl (2.2 to 28 mmol/l), and when a meter reading of 50 or 70 (2.8 or 3.9 mmol/l) is accompanied by their usual hypoglycemic symptoms, there is little uncertainty about the reading representing a \"true positive\" and little harm done if it is a \"false positive.\" However, the incidence of hypoglycemia unawareness, hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF) and faulty counterregulatory response to hypoglycemia make the need for greater reliability at low levels particularly urgent in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus, while this is seldom an issue in the more common form of the disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_83589", "title": "Glycated hemoglobin", "score": 0.010114003228410008, "content": "Due to glycated hemoglobin's variability (as shown in the table above), additional measures should be checked in patients at or near recommended goals. People with HbA1c values at 64 mmol/mol or less should be provided additional testing to determine whether the HbA1c values are due to averaging out high blood glucose (hyperglycemia) with low blood glucose (hypoglycemia) or the HbA1c is more reflective of an elevated blood glucose that does not vary much throughout the day. Devices such as continuous blood glucose monitoring allow people with diabetes to determine their blood glucose levels on a continuous basis, testing every few minutes. Continuous use of blood glucose monitors is becoming more common, and the devices are covered by many health insurance plans, but not by Medicare in the United States. The supplies tend to be expensive, since the sensors must be changed at least every 2 weeks. Another useful test in determining if HbA1c values are due to wide variations of blood" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_59769", "title": "Gestational diabetes", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The test involves drinking a solution containing a certain amount of glucose, usually 75 g or 100 g, and drawing blood to measure glucose levels at the start and on set time intervals thereafter. The diagnostic criteria from the National Diabetes Data Group (NDDG) have been used most often, but some centers rely on the Carpenter and Coustan criteria, which set the cutoff for normal at lower values. Compared with the NDDG criteria, the Carpenter and Coustan criteria lead to a diagnosis of gestational diabetes in 54 percent more pregnant women, with an increased cost and no compelling evidence of improved perinatal outcomes. The following are the values which the American Diabetes Association considers to be abnormal during the 100 g of glucose OGTT: Fasting blood glucose level ≥95 mg/dL (5.33 mmol/L) 1 hour blood glucose level ≥180 mg/dL (10 mmol/L) 2 hour blood glucose level ≥155 mg/dL (8.6 mmol/L) 3 hour blood glucose level ≥140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_427", "title": "[The validity of basal blood glucose in the control of non-insulin-dependent diabetic patients].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To validate basal glucemia as a control method for non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, and to determine the cut-off point that best characterizes good control. A transversal, observational study of 256 patients who participated in a diabetes mellitus follow-up program during 1993. In the study, glucemia validity indicators were evaluated after making 2 X 2 tables and ROC (receiver operating characteristic) curves for the different values. Control values of glycated hemoglobin was used as to define a good (&lt; 6.5%) and moderate (&lt; 8%). The values of glucemia considered to be \"good\" as regards control (from 80 to 110 mg/dl, 4.4-6.05 mmol/dl) have good sensitivity (from 97.3% to 100%) and negative predictive values (from 85.7% to 100%) but extremely bad specificity (from 3.8% to 22.7%) and only moderate positive predictive values (from 59.5% to 64.1%) in reference to values of glycated hemoglobin of 6.5%. The same occurs for 8% as regards sensitivity (from 98.6% to 100%), negative predictive value (from 96.4% to 100%) and specificity from 2.1% to 14.5%). Positive predictive value worsens (from 27.8% to 30.3%). The most effective and most accurate values of glucemia in the ROC curves are 150 mg/dl (8.25 mmol/l) if the control of glycated hemoglobin is good, and 170 mg/dl (9.35 mmol/l) if it is moderate. The glucemia control figures recommended by consensus produce false positives when they are compared to glycated hemoglobin. In the analysis of effectiveness and ROC curves greater accuracy is obtained with glucemia values that are slightly higher than those recommended." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0363_7960", "title": "[The level of diabetic compensation and endogenous secretion of insulin in newly diagnosed diabetics. Prospective study: Part 1].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In a prospective study of newly detected diabetic patients in 1989-1991 the authors focused their attention on the evaluation of blood sugar levels and HbA1c during manifestation of DM and the amount of insulin secretion in relation to diabetes type 1 and 2 in adult patients. Part 1 of the paper reveals great differences in the fasting blood sugar level during manifestation of DM (26% of the group had a blood sugar level lower than 8.5 mmol/l and 14% above 15 mmol/l) even after 1-4 months treatment (3.8-17.2 mmol/l). Similar differences were found in HbA1c values (4.5-12.9%). High C-peptide levels revealed an incorrectly assessed diagnosis of type 1 diabetes in 16.7% diabetics and low C-peptide values on fasting and postporandial values were at variance with the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes in 6% of the group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_3252", "title": "[Diagnosis of type 2 diabetes in general practice].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Among 285 patients seen in general practice, all over the age of 40, 11 (4%) new cases of non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus was diagnosed. 12 patients (4%) were found to have impaired glucose tolerance. Measurement of glucose levels in unstandardized blood samples is a suitable method of screening for non-insulin-dependent diabetes in general practice. In order to reduce the number of oral glucose tolerance tests we suggest a modification of WHO guidelines." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_3951", "title": "[Screening methods for diabetes mellitus in aged group].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "There are many methods of screening for diabetes mellitus, for example, blood glucose test, urine sugar test, hemoglobin A1c, fructosamine etc. For the purpose of more efficient screening of diabetes mellitus in elderly groups, these data were analyzed to evaluate validity and ability to estimate prognosis. 1) Validity for screening based on diabetic type was analyzed in 27,074 cases. For screening with the standard level of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) &gt; or = 120 mg/dl, sensitivity was 70.5%, specificity, 94.5%, predictive value, 89.0%, hemoglobin A1c &gt; or = 6.5%, 62.7%, 91.2%, 81.5%, respectively, and fructosamine &gt; or = 290 mumol/L, 54.1%, 92.3%, 78.1%, respectively. FPG had the highest validity. Comparison of validity between the &gt; or = 65-yr group and the &lt; or = 55-yr group was mode. There was significant difference in specificity but sensitivity and predictive value were lower in the &gt; or = 65-yr group. 2) Mean blood glucose levels (BG) +/- S.D. by time after meal were studied. Fasting BG was 84.8 +/- 9.8 mg/dl, 0.5-1 hr. BG after meal, 100.8 +/- 24.5 mg/dl, and 4.5 hr or more, 84.1 +/- 12.8 mg/dl. Based on this data, standard levels for screening based on diabetic type using random blood glucose levels for 0.5-1 hr BG after meals were &gt; or = 130 mg/dl, 1.5-2 hr BG &gt; or = 120 mg/dl, and 3.5 hr or more BG and FBG &gt; or = 100 mg/dl.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0076_251", "title": "[Study of the beta cell function in type I diabetes by the determination of peptide C after glucagon challenge].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In 35 patients (13F/22M; age range 2-15 years), affected by insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), basal and glucagon stimulated C peptide was determined and correlated with the daily insulin requirement (U/Kg/die), the glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c), the age of onset (months) and the length of the illness (months). The results of C peptide determinations are illustrated in tab. 1: in 20 patients (group I) the basal value of C peptide is higher than 1 ng/ml and increases after glucagon load; in 15 patients (group II) the basal value of C peptide is lower than 1 ng/ml; in 9 ones (group IIA) of these 15 a glucagon load does not elicit a residual insulin secretion; in the other 6 ones (group IIB) a significative C peptide increase is observed after glucagon load. A better metabolic control (p less than 0.01); Student t test) and a shorter length of the illness (p less than 0.05; Mann-Withney U test) was noticed in the group I in comparison with the group IIA, in which no insulin reserve, even after glucagon load, was demonstrated (tab. 2). However, no difference in the metabolic control, insulin requirement, age of onset or length of the illness resulted between group IIA and group IIB (in which an insulin reserve had been demonstrated only after glucagon load). The basal C peptide evaluation and follow up is useful in the assessment of the individual case of IDDM: a glucagon load may demonstrate a residual insulin reserve in some patients with a low basal C peptide." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_196074", "title": "Blood glucose monitoring", "score": 0.009417792092821758, "content": "For patients with diabetes mellitus type 2, the importance of monitoring and the optimal frequency of monitoring are not clear. A 2011 study found no evidence that blood glucose monitoring leads to better patient outcomes in actual practice. Randomized controlled trials found that self-monitoring of blood glucose did not improve glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) among \"reasonably well controlled non-insulin treated patients with type 2 diabetes\" or lead to significant changes in quality of life. However a recent meta-analysis of 47 randomized controlled trials encompassing 7677 patients showed that self-care management intervention improves glycemic control in diabetics, with an estimated 0.36% (95% CI, 0.21–0.51) reduction in their glycated hemoglobin values. Furthermore, a recent study showed that patients described as being \"Uncontrolled Diabetics\" (defined in this study by HbA1C levels >8%) showed a statistically significant decrease in the HbA1C levels after a 90-day period of" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_10290", "title": "Glucose tolerance test", "score": 0.009375, "content": "Procedure A zero time (baseline) blood sample is drawn. The patient is then given a measured dose (below) of glucose solution to drink within a 5-minute time frame. Blood is drawn at intervals for measurement of glucose (blood sugar), and sometimes insulin levels. The intervals and number of samples vary according to the purpose of the test. For simple diabetes screening, the most important sample is the 2 hour sample and the 0 and 2 hour samples may be the only ones collected. A laboratory may continue to collect blood for up to 6 hours depending on the protocol requested by the physician." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_13401", "title": "A new look at screening and diagnosing diabetes mellitus.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Diabetes is underdiagnosed. About one third of people with diabetes do not know they have it, and the average lag between onset and diagnosis is 7 yr. This report reconsiders the criteria for diagnosing diabetes and recommends screening criteria to make case finding easier for clinicians and patients. R.M.B. invited experts in the area of diagnosis, monitoring, and management of diabetes to form a panel to review the literature and develop consensus regarding the screening and diagnosis of diabetes with particular reference to the use of hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c). Participants met in open session and by E-mail thereafter. Metrika, Inc. sponsored the meeting. A literature search was performed using standard search engines. The panel heard each member's discussion of the issues, reviewing evidence prior to drafting conclusions. Principal conclusions were agreed on, and then specific cut points were discussed in an iterative consensus process. The main factors in support of using HbA1c as a screening and diagnostic test include: 1) HbA1c does not require patients to be fasting; 2) HbA1c reflects longer-term glycemia than does plasma glucose; 3) HbA1c laboratory methods are now well standardized and reliable; and 4) errors caused by nonglycemic factors affecting HbA1c such as hemoglobinopathies are infrequent and can be minimized by confirming the diagnosis of diabetes with a plasma glucose (PG)-specific test. Specific recommendations include: 1) screening standards should be established that prompt further testing and closer follow-up, including fasting PG of 100 mg/dl or greater, random PG of 130 mg/dl or greater, or HbA1c greater than 6.0%; 2) HbA1c of 6.5-6.9% or greater, confirmed by a PG-specific test (fasting plasma glucose or oral glucose tolerance test), should establish the diagnosis of diabetes; and 3) HbA1c of 7% or greater, confirmed by another HbA1c- or a PG-specific test (fasting plasma glucose or oral glucose tolerance test) should establish the diagnosis of diabetes. The recommendations are offered for consideration of the clinical community and interested associations and societies." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 20, 53 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 8 ] ], "text": "It does not explain pyramidalism." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 147, 346 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 54 ] ], "text": "We would lack data to think of a Brown Sequard hemimedullary syndrome. It would explain the pyramidalism, but we would be missing data suggestive of this picture such as a contralateral hypoesthesia." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 367, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 57, 74 ] ], "text": "It could explain the difficulty in dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the foot, but not the pyramidalism." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 494, 604 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 97 ] ], "text": "In a similar way to the previous one, it could explain part of the clinical picture, but not the pyramidalism." } }

{ "1": "Mononeuropathy of the right common peroneal nerve.", "2": "Focal involvement of the first motor neuron and probably of the second.", "3": "Right hemimedullary involvement (Brown-Sequard).", "4": "Multiple mononeuropathy with involvement of the common peroneal and right posterior tibial nerve.", "5": "Right lumbar plexopathy." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0605_2048", "title": "Clinical neurophysiology in the diagnosis of peroneal nerve palsy.", "score": 0.01801874595992243, "content": "Peroneal neuropathy is one of the common focal mononeuropathies in the lower extremities occurring in both adults and children. Foot drop due to weakness of ankle dorsiflexion is the most common presentation of a peroneal neuropathy. It may also result from other causes involving the upper or lower motor neurons. Disorders that must be distinguished from peroneal neuropathy include sciatic mononeuropathy, lumbosacral plexopathy, motor neuron disease, polyneuropathy, and an L5 radiculopathy. To establish a diagnosis, electrodiagnostic studies have been used to localize the level of the abnormality and to establish prognosis. The most common site of injury is the fibular head, but focal neuropathies have also been reported at the level of the calf, ankle, and foot. In this article, we overviewed the peroneal nerve palsy, and its diagnosis by neurophysiologic evaluation, conduction study and needle EMG. The neurophysiologic information gives us the underlying pathophysiology and its prognosis. Therefore the neurophysiologic evaluation must be performed not only for the differential diagnosis, but also for planning the treatment strategy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1155_16059", "title": "Peroneal Nerve Palsy Caused by Proximal Fibular Solitary Osteochondroma: Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.017308397506417307, "content": "Osteochondroma is a relatively common benign tumor of the bone, and compressive neuropathies due to osteochondroma are comparatively rare. Here, we present a rare case of osteochondroma of the fibular head that caused peroneal nerve palsy in an 8-year-old girl. Physical examination revealed 0/5 tibialis anterior, 1/5 extensor hallucis longus, and 1/5 peroneal brevis muscle power-according to the manual muscle testing grading system, as well as numbness on the lateral side of the right leg and the back of the foot. Radiological examination and ultrasound revealed a bone tumor in the head of the right fibula. Magnetic resonance imaging ruled out spinal nerve root compression. It was discovered that the bone tumor in the fibular head had compressed and displaced the common peroneal nerve. The patient underwent surgical decompression of the right peroneal nerve. A bone region measuring 22 × 14 × 8 mm was removed. Three months postoperatively, the preoperative neurological deficits were found to be nearly resolved. The patient presented with a foot drop for 1 year, but symptoms resolved 3 months after surgery. Conventional wisdom states that surgery should be performed within 3 months, but we recommend that surgery be performed as soon as diagnosis is made even in cases with a long history, as it may improve patient symptoms and outcomes." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_10940", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.013493958468996455, "content": "Just above the popliteal fossa the sciatic nerve divides into the tibial nerve (medial, or internal, popliteal nerve) and the common peroneal nerve (lateral, or external, popliteal nerve). The latter swings around the head of the fibula to the anterior aspect of the leg, giving off the superficial peroneal nerve that provides musculocutaneous branches (to the peroneal muscles) and to the deep peroneal nerve (formerly called anterior tibial nerve). Branches of the latter supply the dorsiflexors of the foot and toes (anterior tibialis, extensor digitorum longus and brevis, and extensor hallucis longus muscles) and carry sensory fibers from the dorsum of the foot and lateral aspect of the lower half of the leg. There was weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot (foot-drop) in all of the 116 cases of common peroneal neuropathy reported by Katirji and Wilbourn, and numbness of the dorsum of the foot was present in most cases. Weakness of eversion of the foot is usually demonstrable; because" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0836_18411", "title": "A Unique Case of Common Peroneal Nerve Entrapment.", "score": 0.013466925231631115, "content": "The authors present a case of a previously healthy 36-year-old man with a 3-day history of spontaneous complete right lower extremity foot drop. He noticed the symptoms immediately when he attempted to stand after waking from sleep. The patient had no history of similar symptoms, recent trauma, or peripheral nerve disease. Physical examination showed a slap foot gait, complete numbness of the lateral leg and dorsal foot, and 0/5 strength with ankle and great toe dorsiflexion and ankle eversion. Serum laboratory studies showed normal values. Nerve conduction studies confirmed increased latency and decreased amplitude of the right peroneal nerve at the knee, whereas electromyography showed denervation of the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum brevis. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs showed a normal right knee with the exception of a posterior fibular neck exostosis. Physical therapy, an ankle-foot orthosis, and a 5-day course of oral prednisone burst (50 mg) were prescribed. After 1 month of therapy without resolution, the patient underwent surgical release of the common peroneal nerve and excision of the bony prominence. Twelve days postoperatively, the patient had no sensory improvements but had improved findings on motor examination. Three months postoperatively, the patient had near-normal sensation to light touch in the superficial and deep peroneal nerves, with 5/5 strength and a normal gait. The patient returned to all activity without limitations. The authors present this unique case describing a fibro-osseous source of common peroneal compressive neuropathy and review the literature for spontaneous peroneal entrapment, highlighting the importance of prompt diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0911_10078", "title": "Repetitive Plantar Flexion (Provocation) Test for the Diagnosis of Intermittent Claudication due to Peroneal Nerve Entrapment Neuropathy: Case Report.", "score": 0.013040523320023787, "content": "The diagnosis of peroneal nerve (PN) entrapment neuropathy (PNEN) is based on clinical symptoms and nerve conduction studies. However, these studies do not always detect PNEN. Our 64-year-old patient suffered persistent left L5 numbness after two lumbar surgeries. Two years before admission to our institute his left leg pain gradually reappeared. When walking, his numbness in the left lower thigh to the dorsum of the foot increased. Electrophysiological testing revealed no conduction block on the PN. To identify the origin of his intermittent symptoms we performed loading of repetitive ankle plantar flexion in the at-rest posture to avoid the lumbar factor. We used this provocation test to check for PNEN because it occurs at a site where the PN passes the soleus- and the peroneus longus muscle (SM, PLM). The symptoms appeared reproducibly within 10 s of loading. PN neurolysis under local anesthesia showed that the PN was strongly compressed by the SM and PLM. This procedure eased his symptoms and he was able to walk without elicitation of numbness and pain upon repetitive ankle plantar flexion. In our case, repetitive plantar flexion elicited the symptoms and this provocation test may be useful to identify PN dynamic entrapment neuropathy as the origin of intermittent claudication." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1608", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012632933685565263, "content": "Fig. 10-3) and between the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae (compressing the L5 root). Lesions of the fifth lumbar root (L5) produce pain in the region of the hip and posterolateral thigh (i.e., sciatica) and, in more than half such cases, lateral calf (to the lateral malleolus), and less often, the dorsal surface of the foot and the first or second and third toes. Pain is elicited by the straight-leg raising test or one of its variants, and protective nocifensive reflexes come into play, limiting further elevation of the leg. Paresthesia may be felt in the entire territory or only in its distal parts. The tenderness is in the lateral gluteal region and near the head of the femur. Weakness, if present, involves the extensors of the big toe and foot and the foot invertors (a distinguishing feature of foot drop originating from peroneal nerve damage, which spares inversion because it is a tibial nerve function). The ankle jerk may be diminished (more often it is normal), but the knee" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en503_1201", "title": "List of neuromuscular disorders", "score": 0.012597188995215312, "content": "Lower extremity deep peroneal mononeuropathy at the fibular neck common fibular mononeuropathy at the hip deep fibular mononeuropathy at the ankle superficial fibular mononeuropathy sciatic mononeuroapthy at the hip or thigh piriformis syndrome proximal tibial mononeuropathy tarsal tunnel syndrome interdigital neuropathy (Morton's Neuroma) sural mononeuropathy femoral mononeuropathy saphenous mononeuropathy lateral femoral cutaneous neuropathy ilioinguinal neuropathy iliohypogastric neuropathy genitofemoral neuropathy posterior femoral cutaneous neuropathy obturator neuropathy neuropathy of gluteal nerves" }, { "id": "article-115844_3", "title": "Electrodiagnostic Evaluation of Peroneal Neuropathy -- Introduction", "score": 0.012372812372812373, "content": "Patients tend to present with either an acute or a gradual foot drop. Patients may give a history of falls and possibly tripping due to the foot drop. They may also complain of paresthesias or numbness in the lower leg's lateral portion and the foot's dorsum. Pain can be absent in many cases presenting with a foot drop. [3] However, pain can be an initial presenting symptom in patients without a foot drop but can show a slight weakness in ankle dorsiflexion only when carefully examined. [4] One-third of these patients can have normal electrodiagnostic tests. [4]" }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_10941", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012364849321371059, "content": "of common peroneal neuropathy reported by Katirji and Wilbourn, and numbness of the dorsum of the foot was present in most cases. Weakness of eversion of the foot is usually demonstrable; because inversion is a function of the L5 root and the tibial nerve, it is spared in peroneal palsy, thereby allowing a distinction between foot-drop at the two sites. (Foot eversion should be tested with the ankle passively dorsiflexed.) Pain is variable." }, { "id": "article-21885_33", "title": "Foot Drop -- History and Physical", "score": 0.012358329451948456, "content": "Sciatic neuropathy classically presents with sensory loss of the whole foot and weakness of ankle plantar flexors (gastrocnemius, soleus) and ankle inversion. It can result in a 'flail foot.' Hamstring muscles may also be involved resulting in knee flexion weakness. It is not uncommon for an incomplete sciatic neuropathy to present as a common peroneal neuropathy. Often, the peroneal fascicles in the sciatic nerve are more susceptible to injury than the tibial fascicles." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_10399", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012028138935996482, "content": "Mononeuropathy is the most circumscribed form of peripheral nerve disease. It is reflected by weakness and sensory loss in the territory of a single peripheral nerve. Specific features serve to differentiate mononeuropathy from a radiculopathy—for example, weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot is referable either to the peroneal nerve or to the L5 nerve root; however, if there is weakness of inversion of the foot, innervated by the tibial nerve, the fault must be with the L5 root, not with the peroneal nerve. Conversely, if inversion is spared in a foot drop, the lesion is in the peroneal nerve. The distribution of sensory loss also aids in distinguishing the two processes; for example, in the aforementioned case the region of sensory change corresponding to the L5 root extends almost up to the knee on the anterior surface of the foreleg whereas it ends a limited distance above the ankle in the case of a peroneal nerve lesion (see the sensory maps in Figs. 8-1, 8-2, and" }, { "id": "article-27038_4", "title": "Peroneal Nerve Injury -- Introduction", "score": 0.011922583404619332, "content": "Sensory Common peroneal nerve: lateral aspect of the leg just distal to the knee Superficial peroneal nerve: the anterolateral distal third of the leg and the majority of the dorsum of the foot (except the first webspace) Deep peroneal nerve: first dorsal webspace Motor Common peroneal nerve: none Superficial peroneal nerve: eversion of the foot Deep peroneal nerve: dorsiflexion of the foot and great toe extension This paper will focus on peroneal nerve injuries, including etiologies, epidemiology, history, and physical exam findings, as well as diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0847_14335", "title": "Intraneural Ganglia of the Common Peroneal Nerve in Children: Case Report and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.01190644932671864, "content": "Intraneural ganglia are nonneoplastic cystic formations contained within the epineurium of peripheral nerves. The common peroneal nerve at the fibular neck is the most frequently affected site. Intraneural ganglia are not a frequent occurrence in the adult patients and are even rarer in children, with only 10 pediatric cases reported in the English language literature. We report on a new pediatric case of intraneural ganglion of common peroneal nerve and present a review of the English language literature on this topic in children. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to our institution because of pain referred to posterior and anterior aspects of the right leg and right foot drop. The radiologic investigations showed a wide (20 cm long) intraneural ganglion cyst of the right common peroneal nerve. The patient underwent surgical treatment according to the Spinner technique. Postoperative course was uneventful. A gradual improvement of motor and sensory functions was observed, starting from the third postoperative day, with a complete motor function restoration registered 26 months after surgery. Intraneural ganglia of the common peroneal nerve should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of foot drop in pediatric age since because early diagnosis and adequate surgical treatment play a crucial role in the patient's motor and sensory outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0860_21334", "title": "[Peroneal myoatrophy type 4H FGD4 new gene mutation in one case and literature review].", "score": 0.011739730932528518, "content": "To explore the clinical and gene mutation characteristics of children with peroneal myoatrophy FGD4 mutations. The clinical data of a patient with peroneal myoatrophy with novel FGD4 gene mutations were collected, the related literature was searched from China National Knowledge Infrastructure, Wanfang Data Knowledge Service Platform, National Center for Biotechnology Information and PubMed (up to December 2014) by using search terms\"muscular disorders, atrophic\"\"peripheral nervous system diseases\"\"genes\". The clinical features and treatment of the patients with FGD4 gene mutations were studied. The patient was a 10-years-old boy, he was presented to our clinic due to lower extremity weakness for 3 years, worsening for one year with normal family history and birth history. When he was 6 years old, his feet turned inward as he walked, at 7 years of age, his toes pointed toward the ground, the heel could not touch the ground, the right foot was more serious. During the recent year his symptoms were worsened, manifested as clubfoot, foot drop, arched feet, crane legs, difficult in squatting, walking with swaying gait, easy to fall. He was brought to a number of domestic general hospitals' neurology clinic, he was clearly diagnosed as peroneal myoatrophy, but failed to make typing. Electromyography (EMG) showed neurogenic damage (peripheral neuropathy - motor and sensory fibers are involved). Target gene sequencing showed that the child had FGD4 genes compound heterozygous mutation: c. 338A&gt; G and c. 1730G&gt; A, where the former was inherited from his father, the latter inherited from his mother, it was a new mutation unreported previously. Literature search retrieved six reports (all in English literature) with FGD4 10 cases with mutations, which were expressed as peroneal myoatrophy, but were homozygous mutation. This study found the FGD4 4th and the 14th exons' c. 338A&gt; G and c. 1730G&gt; A heterozygous mutations, and this mutations may lead to peroneal myoatrophy." }, { "id": "article-27038_12", "title": "Peroneal Nerve Injury -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01112075264888564, "content": "The clinician directs the clinical physical examination by the patient’s reported symptoms and requires an understanding of the relevant anatomy and possible underlying etiology. For example, in cases of suspected chronic peroneal nerve palsy with resultant foot drop, the clinician should consider a primary documented part of the examination focusing on gait assessment as it may provide significant clues to the etiology of the symptoms. [8] A patient with weakened or paralyzed dorsiflexors may ambulate with a high steppage gait to prevent dragging their toes on the ground due to nerve injury. Furthermore, numbness or dysesthesia in the upper lateral leg indicates a lesion proximal to the fibular head, which may involve the sciatic nerve or lumbosacral nerve roots. In contrast, if there is a decreased or abnormal sensation in the lower lateral leg and dorsum of the foot, the superficial peroneal nerve may be involved. If there is also altered sensation in the dorsal aspect of the first web space of the foot, the deep peroneal nerve may also be involved. [8]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1040_16744", "title": "[A case of tibial nerve palsy due to intraneural ganglion cysts].", "score": 0.011110261702724052, "content": "A 39-year-old man presented with an 8-month history of pain and paresthesia of the right foot sole and difficulty in the right toe dorsiflexion. A neurological examination revealed weakness in performing both the ankle and right foot toe dorsiflexion, reduced right planta pedis sensation, and absent right Achilles tendon reflex. Tinel's sign was present on the right popliteal fossa and medial part of the right ankle. MRI of the right knee showed multiple cystic lesions in his right tibial nerve. The cystic lesions extended from the popliteal fossa and were thought to be intraneural ganglion cysts. On MRI performed 4 months later, most of the cystic lesions spontaneously vanished. Therefore, intraneural ganglia should be considered when atypical mononeuropathy, such as tibial nerve palsy, is present." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en086_11425", "title": "Foot drop", "score": 0.010965588084232153, "content": "Foot drop is rarely the result of a pathology involving the muscles or bones that make up the lower leg. The anterior tibialis is the muscle that picks up the foot. Although the anterior tibialis plays a major role in dorsiflexion, it is assisted by the fibularis tertius, extensor digitorum longus and the extensor hallucis longus. If the drop foot is caused by neurological disorder all of these muscles could be affected because they are all innervated by the deep fibular (peroneal) nerve, which branches from the sciatic nerve. The sciatic nerve exits the lumbar plexus with its root arising from the fifth lumbar nerve space." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_11201", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.01079799235621863, "content": "Bicrural palsy presenting as lower leg weakness with inability to walk on the heels and toes, or as paralysis of all leg muscles With the exception of certain distinctive distal types of muscular dystrophies, this pattern, usually due to weakness of peroneal, anterior tibial, and thigh muscles, is usually not a result of myopathy. Symmetrical weakness of the lower legs is more often caused by polyneuropathy. In cases of total leg and thigh weakness, one first considers a spinal cord disease. Motor neuron disease may begin in the legs, asymmetrically and distally as a rule, and affect them disproportionately to other parts of the body. Thus the differential diagnosis of distal or generalized leg weakness involves more diseases than are involved in the restricted paralyses of other parts of the body." }, { "id": "article-27038_11", "title": "Peroneal Nerve Injury -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010789391086001255, "content": "A thorough history and physical exam to assess the status and function of the common peroneal nerve is always required. In patients with a peroneal nerve injury, clinical presentation varies based on the location and severity of the injury and the presence of anatomic variations. The most common presentation of a common peroneal nerve injury is a weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and the classic resultant foot drop or catching the toes while ambulating. [8] Foot drop can develop acutely or over days to weeks, depending on the etiology. It can also be complete or partial in severity. There may also be accompanying numbness or paresthesia present along the lateral leg, dorsal foot, and/or the first toe webspace. Pain may also be present in traumatic cases but is not always present. [8]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1009_20839", "title": "Compressive peroneal neuropathy by an intraneural ganglion cyst combined with L5 radiculopathy: A case report.", "score": 0.01039265898420828, "content": "Most cases of foot drop are known to result from lower motor neuron pathologies, particularly lumbar radiculopathy and peripheral neuropathy, including common peroneal neuropathy. To improve the prognosis of foot drop, it is important to quickly and accurately diagnose the etiology and provide appropriate treatment. A 65-year-old female patient with a history of L4-5 intervertebral disc herniation presented with right foot drop that had developed 1 month previously. Electrodiagnostic examination revealed common peroneal neuropathy combined with L5 radiculopathy, with the former being the main cause of the foot drop. MRI of the right knee was performed to identify the cause of the peroneal nerve lesion, which revealed an intraneural ganglion cyst in the common peroneal nerve. The patient was treated by ultrasound-guided percutaneous cyst aspiration and corticosteroid injection into the decompressed ganglion, followed by strengthening exercise, electrical stimulation therapy, and prescription of an ankle foot orthosis. We confirmed regeneration of the injured peroneal nerve at the follow-up electrodiagnostic examination 12 weeks after the intervention. In addition, the manual motor power test demonstrated an increase in the ankle dorsiflexor function score by one grade. Diagnosing the cause of foot drop can be difficult with multiple co-existing pathologies, and consideration of various possible etiologies is the key for appropriate diagnosis and treatment. In addition to imaging modalities such as MRI, electrodiagnostic examination can help to improve diagnostic accuracy. Intraneural ganglion cyst of the common peroneal nerve is rare, but should be considered as a possible cause of foot drop." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1124_5998", "title": "Lower limb axonal mononeuropathies as sequelae of COVID-19: a case report and review of literature.", "score": 0.010391030899644518, "content": "Neurological symptoms and complications of Coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) were seldom discussed in the literature initially. Neurological symptoms such as headache, dizziness, anosmia, hypogeusia, and neuralgia are, however, now being reported commonly. Mononeuropathies are rare complications of COVID-19, with most cases associated with prolonged intensive care stay. A 61-year-old gentleman with prior history of well-controlled diabetes and hypertension was recently treated for COVID-19 pneumonia with supplemental oxygen and positive pressure ventilation. He now presented with left-sided foot weakness two weeks after recovering from the viral illness. On examination he had normal bulk and tone and a power of 4/5 in proximal and distal muscles of bilateral lower limbs except for ankle dorsiflexion on the left which was 2/5. He also had absent ankle and knee reflexes bilaterally with bilateral flexor plantar reflexes. Since the patient had no back pain and the sensory system was normal, the lesion was localized to the peripheral nerves and a Nerve Conduction Studies and Electromyography (NCS/EMG) was done. NCS/EMG showed findings suggestive of axonal mononeuropathies. Relevant workup done to identify the cause of mononeuropathy was negative including infectious and autoimmune workup. Since diabetes was well-controlled and he had no intensive care stay his findings were presumed to be associated with resolving COVID-19 infection. The patient underwent aggressive daily physical therapy and has started to show improvement in symptoms. Complications such as mononeuropathies should be kept in mind in patients recovering from COVID-19 infection, since timely diagnosis can improve clinical outcomes in patients." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_12237", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010332796564680623, "content": "being the tibial nerve). It receives contributions from L4, L5, S1, and S2. It emerges as a separate nerve in the popliteal fossa and laterally wraps around the fibular neck, after which it splits to Brunicardi_Ch42_p1827-p1878.indd 184801/03/19 7:16 PM 1849NEUROSURGERYCHAPTER 42form the deep and superficial peroneal nerves. The superficial, fixed location at the fibular neck makes the common peroneal nerve susceptible to compression. The classic cause of traumatic peroneal neuropathy is crush injury from a car bumper striking the lateral aspect of the leg at the knee. Symptoms of common peroneal neuropathy include foot drop (weakness of the tibialis anterior), eversion weakness, and numbness over the anterolat-eral surface of the lower leg and dorsum of the foot. In contrast, a foot drop due to L5 radiculopathy spares eversion because the S1 fibers are intact. Surgical exploration of a common peroneal crush lesion is typically a low yield endeavor. Rare cases may be due to" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_46208", "title": "Peroneal nerve paralysis", "score": 0.01022705030338618, "content": "Prolonged pressure on nerve may occur because of: Sitting position Blood clots, tumors Casts on lower leg due to tightness Diagnosis For partial nerve palsy, more than 80% of patients will recover completely. For complete nerve palsy, less than 40% of patients will have complete recovery. Peroneal nerve in continuity arises from defined cause will be recovered better than those arise from unknown causes. Examinations are required for following reasons: Considering lumbar radiculopathy during the examination Possibility of foot drop Sensory loss that may be difficult to determine because of variable and small autonomous zone of sensation Tinel's sign over the fibular neck that can help localize the site of nerve compression Checking for direct compression that reproduces nerve symptoms Electromyography" }, { "id": "article-27038_14", "title": "Peroneal Nerve Injury -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010051110968542162, "content": "To test for the motor involvement of the superficial peroneal nerve and deep peroneal nerve, one must assess foot eversion (SPN) and foot/toe dorsiflexion (DPN). A finding of weakness of both foot eversion as well as foot/toe dorsiflexion suggests a lesion involving the common peroneal nerve. [8] Proximal lesions, for example, secondary to traumatic knee dislocations, will often present with varying degrees of numbness in both superficial peroneal nerve and deep peroneal nerve distributions. A careful and detailed examination detecting the presence or absence of dorsiflexion of the ankle and/or great toe past neutral is imperative for motor examination testing. The subtle distinction is important in differentiating the ability to actively dorsiflex the great toe from a maximally plantarflexed position to a near-neutral position. Such findings do not rule out deep peroneal nerve injury." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0840_1121", "title": "[A case of chronic progressive motor-dominant multiple mononeuritis associated with primary Sjögren's syndrome].", "score": 0.009972373829256788, "content": "A 45-year-old female with a history of dry eyes presented with chronic progressive disturbance of her right finger extension, bilateral foot drops, and dysesthesia in the left lower leg. On admission, neurological examination revealed decreased tendon reflex in the right upper limb and bilateral lower limbs, and dysesthesia in the distal outer portions of the bilateral lower legs. Her vibration sensation was moderately diminished in both lower legs. Weakness ranging from moderate to severe was predominantly found in the muscles innervated by the radial (r &gt; l), medial (r &gt; l), ulnar (r &gt; l), deep peroneal (r ≒ l), tibial (r &lt; l), and medial planter nerves (r &lt; l). Nerve conduction study showed asymmetrical axonal neuropathy, while chronic neurogenic changes were observed on needle electromyography. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis results were unremarkable, except for an elevated IgG index (1.53) and the presence of oligoclonal IgG bands. Seropositive anti-SS-A antibody and histological findings of the biopsied minor salivary gland, as well as the lack of other connective tissue disorders, indicated primary Sjögren syndrome (SjS). A left sural nerve biopsy showed inhomogeneous reductions in the myelinated fibers within fascicules, mild infiltration of CD8-positive T lymphocytes around small vessels, and no fibrinoid necrosis in the arteries. From these findings, the diagnosis of motor-dominant multiple mononeuritis associated with primary SjS was made. Therapy that comprised a single course of intravenous (IV) methylprednisolone (1 g for 3 days), followed by oral prednisolone (60 mg/day) with gradual tapering, resulted in no amelioration of her symptoms. She then received IV immunoglobulin (0.4 mg/kg/day for 5 days), which resulted in moderate improvement in the strength of several muscles and a reduction of CSF IgG index (0.89). A wide variety of peripheral nerve complications are documented in primary SjS. However, the present case is unique in the symptoms of chronic progressive, motor-dominant, multiple mononeuritic phenotype. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0685_13634", "title": "Common peroneal and tibial nerve paralysis secondary to herpes zoster infection: a case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The usual presentation of herpes zoster (HZ) is a self-limiting vesicular rash, often accompanied by post-herpetic neuralgia. However, HZ can give rise to other complications, that have unusual presentations and serious sequelae like segmental motor paralysis of the limbs that is a relatively rare complication. A 68-year-old man presented with foot drop on the right side had a history of HZ infection on and around the knee and the popliteal fossa. He was treated with acyclovir by a dermatologist and 10 days after the inital symptoms he developed weakness on the right ankle and on the muscles distal to the knee. In a few days foot drop has developed and he was unable to walk without help. Three months later he was admitted to the neurology out patient clinic. On his electrophysiological examination common peroneal nerve could not be stimulated on the right side. The distal latency of the tibial nerve has prolonged, CMAP amplitude has diminished and the nerve conduction velocity has slowed down. Latency of the sural nerve has prolonged with a small SNAP amplitude and a slow nerve conduction velocity on the right side. Electromyography revealed denervation on the muscles inervated by tibialis anterior and common peroneal nerves distal to the knee. The double mononeuropathy of the tibial and common peroneal nerves secondary to HZ was not found in the published data. HZ should be considered as a possible cause of the paralysis of peripheral nerves and more attention should be paid to it." }, { "id": "article-21885_30", "title": "Foot Drop -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009726302511245, "content": "A lesion of the L5 root, lumbar plexus, sciatic nerve, common peroneal, or the deep peroneal nerve can potentially lead to foot drop due to the weakness of the anterior compartment musculature. The presenting symptom is the inability to ambulate as before. More specifically, weakness of the muscles in the foot that assist in dorsiflexion. There may or may not be a pain. The person will be unable to dorsiflex during the heel strike. The foot remains flat on the ground. Sometimes can also cause toe drag and inability to clear the foot. This can potentially lead to falls." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1055_21132", "title": "HIV Neuropathy-Associated Foot Drop, a Presenting Sign of HIV Infection, Resolving After Initiation of Antiretroviral Therapy: A Clinical Vignette.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Peripheral neuropathy is one of the most frequent complaints in patients with HIV. Many complex syndromes exist, with the etiology being secondary to the disease process itself, antiretroviral medication, or immune reconstitution. However, isolated mononeuropathy is rare. In this case, we present a previously healthy man who complained of several months of worsening right foot drop that did not improve with physical therapy or lifestyle interventions. He had begun to use an solid ankle-foot orthotic on this right lower limb to minimize tripping and prevent falls. He had no other neuromuscular involvement or constitutional complaints. Nerve conduction study of the right lower limb showed decreased peak amplitude, prolonged distal latency, and decreased conduction velocity of the deep peroneal nerve. Electromyography revealed abnormal insertional activity and absent motor unit action potentials in both the right tibialis anterior and right extensor digitorum brevis muscles. Magnetic resonance imaging of the right lower limb was suggestive of acute/subacute denervation of the right tibialis anterior muscle. An extensive laboratory workup revealed active HIV infection with a significant viral load. Once the diagnosis was made, the patient was started on antiretroviral treatment. Six months later, his foot drop had entirely resolved, in association with significant improvements in viral load and CD4 count. He has since been ambulating without assistive devices and his HIV/AIDS disease process remains well controlled. This clinical vignette is the first, to our knowledge, to illustrate that an acute focal mononeuropathy causing foot drop and gait dysfunction in an otherwise healthy-appearing individual can be a heralding sign of HIV/AIDS. Furthermore, it also suggests that this functional deficit can be reversed with timely initiation of antiretroviral treatment. Early recognition, diagnosis, and treatment in this patient have not only led to an uncomplicated AIDS disease course but also restored his ability to ambulate with complete independence and improved his quality of life." }, { "id": "article-21885_31", "title": "Foot Drop -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Radiculopathy affecting the fifth lumbar nerve root typically results in neuropathic pain starting in the lumbar region and radiating down the posterior thigh, anterolateral leg to the foot down to the big toe.  Sensory symptoms include the medial aspect of the foot, including the first webspace. Motor symptoms include weakness of dorsiflexors and evertors of the foot." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_31215", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009695443456362635, "content": "Symptoms and signs consist of footdrop (ankle dorsiflexion, toe extension, and ankle eversion weakness) and variable sensory loss, which may involve the superficial and deep peroneal pattern. There is usually no pain. Onset may be on awakening in the morning. Peroneal neuropathy needs to be distinguished from L5 radiculopathy. In L5 radiculopathy, ankle invertors and evertors are weak and needle EMG reveals denervation. EDx can help localize the lesion. Peroneal motor conduction velocity shows slowing and amplitude drop across the fibular head. Management consists of rapid weight loss and avoiding leg crossing. Footdrop is treated with an ankle brace. A knee pad can be worn over the lateral knee to avoid further compression. Most cases spontaneously resolve over weeks or months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_20520", "title": "Pseudoaneurysm of the popliteal artery complicated by peroneal mononeuropathy in a 4-year-old child: report of a case.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pseudoaneurysms of the popliteal artery (PPA) rarely occur in children. In fact, we found only 10 cases reported in the medical literature. We report the case of a 4-year-old boy who presented with a painful palpable mass in the right popliteal fossa. He also had mild, painless right foot-drop and difficulty toe-walking on the same side. The diagnosis of a PPA was based on the findings of triplex ultrasound and computed tomographic-angiography. We attributed the cause of the lesion to blunt trauma, which he had suffered 2 years earlier. Thorough preoperative evaluation excluded the possibility of a self-immune process or a bone tumor in the region. Neurological examination demonstrated a mild, isolated, peripheral mononeuropathy of the right peroneal nerve. Thus, we performed surgical repair using an autologous reversed great saphenous vein graft. The patient had an uneventful postoperative course and his peripheral neuropathy and foot-drop resolved completely within 1 month after surgery. Now, after 3 years of follow-up, the patient has a patent graft and a fully functioning limb. PPAs are rare, especially in children, and trauma is the predominating underlying cause. PPAs should be treated immediately after diagnosis because their complications are associated with high rates of functional impairment and even limb loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0776_6178", "title": "Hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsy: a recurrent and bilateral foot drop case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsy is characterized by acute, painless, recurrent mononeuropathies secondary to minor trauma or compression. A 16-year-old boy had the first episode of right foot drop after minor motorcycle accident. Electromyography revealed conduction block and slowing velocity conduction of the right deep peroneal nerve at the fibular head. After motor rehabilitation, he fully recovered. Six months later he had the second episode of foot drop in the opposite site after prolonged squatting position. Electromyography revealed sensorimotor polyneuropathy of left peroneal, sural, posterior tibial, and deep peroneal nerves and also of ulnar, radial, and median nerves of both upper limbs. Histological examination revealed sensory nerve demyelination and focal thickenings of myelin fibers. The diagnosis of hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsy was confirmed by PMP22 deletion of chromosome 17p11.2. He started motor rehabilitation and avoidance of stressing factors with progressive recovery. After one-year followup, he was completely asymptomatic. Recurrent bilateral foot drop history, \"sausage-like\" swellings of myelin in histological examination, and the results of electromyography led the authors to consider the diagnosis despite negative family history. The authors highlight this rare disease in pediatric population and the importance of high index of clinical suspicion for its diagnosis. " } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 363, 658 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 66, 119 ] ], "text": "Although there are many protocols on preoperative procedures, almost as many as there are hospitals, the question makes it easy by putting a very old patient, 80 years old. The age range from which it is considered mandatory to request an ECG varies between 45, 50, 60 or even some say 70 years." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Perform a stress test.", "2": "Perform echocardiography", "3": "Perform a thallium and dipyridamole scan.", "4": "Perform electrocardiogram.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_1130", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.016733232337143644, "content": "Irbesartan Generic,Avapro Treatment of Angina Pectoris Bertram G. Katzung, MD, PhD* A 56-year-old woman presents in the office with a history of recent-onset chest discomfort when jogging or swimming vigorously. The pain is dull but poorly localized; it disap-pears after 5–10 minutes of rest. She has never smoked but has a history of hyperlipidemia (total cholesterol level of 245 mg/dL and low-density lipoprotein [LDL] of 160 mg/dL recorded 1 year ago) and admits that she has not been fol-lowing the recommended diet. Her father survived a “heart attack” at age 55, and an uncle died of some cardiac disease at age 60. On physical examination, the patient’s blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 80 bpm. She is in no acute distress, and there are no other significant physical findings; an electrocardiogram is normal except for slight left ventricular hypertrophy. Assuming that a diagno-sis of stable effort angina is correct, what medical treatment should be implemented?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60678", "title": "Angina", "score": 0.013106973347937203, "content": "In angina patients momentarily not feeling any chest pain, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is typically normal unless there have been other cardiac problems in the past. During periods of pain, depression, or elevation of the ST segment may be observed. To elicit these changes, an exercise ECG test (\"treadmill test\") may be performed, during which the patient exercises to his/her maximum ability before fatigue, breathlessness, or pain intervenes; if characteristic ECG changes are documented (typically more than 1 mm of flat or downsloping ST depression), the test is considered diagnostic for angina. Even constant monitoring of the blood pressure and the pulse rate can lead to some conclusions regarding angina. The exercise test is also useful in looking for other markers of myocardial ischemia: blood pressure response (or lack thereof, in particular, a drop in systolic blood pressure), dysrhythmia, and chronotropic response. Other alternatives to a standard exercise test include a thallium" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en159_18160", "title": "TIMI", "score": 0.011151175213675214, "content": "TIMI Risk Score for STEMI Age 65-74 years? Yes (+2) – or – Age ≥75 years? Yes (+3) Diabetes, Hypertension or Angina? Yes (+1) Systolic BP < 100 mmHg? Yes (+3) Heart rate > 100? Yes (+2) Killip Class II-IV (JVD or any pulmonary exam findings of CHF)? Yes (+2) Weight < 67kg (147.7 lbs)? Yes (+1) Anterior ST Elevation or LBBB? Yes (+1) Time to treatment > 4 hours? Yes (+1) What Does This Score Mean? TIMI Risk Score for HF in Diabetes Prior heart failure? Yes (+2) History of atrial fibrillation? Yes (+1) Coronary artery disease? Yes (+1) eGFR < 60 ml/min/1.73*m2? Yes (+1) Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio >300 mg/g? Yes (+2) – or – Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 30-300 mg/g? Yes (+1) What Does This Score Mean?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25047", "title": "Diagnosis and management of carbon monoxide poisoning in the emergency department.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "An 89-year-old female is found by her family, lying unconscious on her kitchen floor after they had been unable to reach her by phone for several hours. EMS is activated and when the paramedics arrive, they note that the gas oven is on, and there is thin, gray smoke coming from around the door. The house gas supply is turned off, windows are opened, and the family and the patient are immediately evacuated from the home. En route to the hospital, the patient is placed on high-flow oxygen at 15 liters per minute by non-rebreather mask. Her bedside glucose determination is 229 mg/dL. Vital signs are within normal limits during transport. She opens her eyes to sternal rub, and makes spontaneous movements of all extremities. Upon arrival to the ED, the patient becomes more alert and is able to respond to your questions. She tells you that she remembers putting a tray of calzones into the oven, after which she has no recall of the day's events. She has a past medical history of \"well-controlled\" hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and non-insulin-dependent diabetes. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily, lisinopril 10 mg daily, simvastatin 20 mg daily, and metformin 1000 mg twice daily. On physical examination, weight is 65 kg, blood pressure is 97/50 mm Hg, heart rate is 113 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, temperature is 37.1 degrees C (98.8 degrees F), and oxygen saturation is 99% on 15 liters per minute via non-rebreather mask. She appears her stated age. Cardiopulmonary examination is remarkable only for tachycardia. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with normal bowel sounds. Her skin is warm and dry, and there is no peripheral edema. Her cranial nerves are intact, with briskly reactive, symmetric pupils. Motor and sensory examination is non-focal, and cerebellar testing is notable only for an intention tremor on finger-nose-finger test. Gait is normal and speech is fluent and without errors. Laboratory testing shows a hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dL and a leukocyte count of 11.7 x 10(9)/L. Electrolyte results fall within the normal range, and her serum creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL. Qualitative CK-MB and troponin I tests are positive, and the sample has been sent to the STAT lab for quantitative testing. Serum carboxyhemoglobin level is 15% with normal serum pH on an arterial blood gas. An ECG reveals deep, down-sloping inferior and lateral ST-segment depressions which were not present on a routine cardiogram 1 month prior. You have many questions about this patient's care. What symptoms and physical signs need to be addressed and treated? What additional diagnostic testing should be performed? What treatment regimen is appropriate and what should be avoided? What are the risks or delayed complications from her illness? Are there special considerations for this or other patient populations?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0236_8871", "title": "[Physical exercise in patients with angina pectoris of effort].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Results of physical training in 37 patients with the ischaemic heart disease with angina of effort are given, 31 one them had had myocardial infarction. Training on bicycle ergometer lasted 2 1/2 to 10 months. After exercise 75% of patients showed enhanced threshold capability, the \"double product\" (the heart rate x systolic AP) decreased at the expense of the pulse deceleration and decrease of the systolic AP with the standard exercise of 50 W. The maximum size of the \"double product\" under exercise and also with the appearance of angina remained unchanged. The heart volume after exercises did not change. Changes in haemodynamics depended on the initial functional state of the myocardium, which was evaluated by the degree of rise of the diastolic pressure in the pulmonary artery (DPPA) with 50 W exercise and according to the functional curves of the left ventricle traced by comparing DPPA and the minute volume. In patients with \"good\" myocardial function (DPPA not lower than 30 mm Hg) after exercises the stroke and minute volumes increased with the threshold exercise, DPPA decreased with 50 W, functional curve of the left ventricle approached the functional curve of healthy individuals. Patients with \"bad\" function (DPPA over 30 mm Hg and higher did not show) changes in haemodynamics and in the functional curve of the left ventricle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0941_15930", "title": "Report of a lung carcinoma extended to the left atrium through pulmonary vein.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Lung cancers may extend along or grow through the pulmonary veins to invade or lie within the left atrium (LA). A 62-year-old man, previously healthy, presented with 1-month ventilatory-independent right hemithorax back pain, dry cough and large effort dyspnea. He also referred weight loss of 12 kg in 10 months and denied hemoptysis. As antecedents, he smoked for 40 years and moderate daily alcoholism. On physical examination, the patient was in good general condition, hydrated and regular respiration at rest [blood pressure (BP) =120/80 mmHg; heart rate (HR) =90 bpm; respiratory rate (RR) =16 rpm]. Cardiac auscultation revealed two standard rhythmic sounds without murmurs. Pulmonary auscultation revealed a slightly diminished vesicular murmur in the lower 1/3 of the right hemithorax without adventitious noises. Chest radiography showed a mass over the right lower lung. A CT scan confirmed the radiography image with the mass extending along the right inferior pulmonary vein and a tumor in the LA. Transthoracic and transesophageal echocardiography revealed large mass within the LA (occupying almost the entire cavity), measuring about 10 cm × 3 cm at its largest diameter, prolapsing into the left ventricle. Bronchoscopy, head CT scan, and whole-body bone scintigraphy investigation did not show any distant metastasis. The patient was successfully operated removing the intracardiac and inferior pulmonary vein tumor with the aid of cardiopulmonary bypass, followed by a right inferior lobectomy carried out after 25 days. After 30 days from surgery presented seizures associated a brain metastasis evidenced by CT when adjuvant radio and chemotherapy was started. During the next 90 days, the clinical conditions worsened, and the patient died 4 months after the surgical treatment. The case report has two primary justifications, even considering the poor outcome: (I) rarity and (II) the possibility of the surgical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0557_18543", "title": "[Pulmonary or circulatory causes of dyspnea - value of spiroergometry].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Patients often report of dyspnea during exertion which should be further analysed as a hint of heart or lung disease. When case history, chest X-ray, ECG, spirometry, and methacholine test do not explain the complaints, a cardiopulmonary exercise test is recommended. Parameters of spiroergometry can often elucidate cardiocirculatory or pulmonary causes. In cardiocirculatory triggered dyspnea the following pattern can be found: reduced maximal oxygen consumption and work rate (WR), an early plateau of oxygen consumption/WR, reduced increase of oxygen consumption/WR, reduced heart rate reserve &lt; 15 beats/min, reduced oxygen pulse and an early plateau, increased breathing reserve, an increased minute ventilation/CO (2) production indicating increased dead space ventilation. In pulmonary triggered dyspnea the following pattern can be found: reduced maximal oxygen consumption, increased heart rate reserve, reduced breathing reserve. With the exercise tidal flow volume loop plotted within the maximal flow volume loop a more thorough interpretation is possible. In a case presentation, the decision-making process using the 9-panel display of Wasserman is demonstrated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_14295", "title": "Chest Pain With Apical Diverticulum in the Absence of Coronary Disease: Case Report and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Aneurysmal dilatation of segment of the left ventricle in the absence of coronary disease has been reported and termed diverticulum, which appears to be a congenital anomaly. A 56-year-old white female was admitted to our hospital with chest pain that has been intermittent over the past 1 month. The pain was described as exertional, substernal and pressure-like in quality, radiating to left arm and jaw, and lasting approximately 30 minutes each episode; it was associated with shortness of breath. She has had approximately 10 such episodes in the past 1 month. The patient denied any dizziness, palpitations, syncope, orthopnea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND). She has had a history of hypertension for many years, however has not been compliant with her medications for the past 6 months. On admission, vital signs revealed blood pressure of 185/100 mm Hg, and regular heart rate of 94 beats per minute. Physical examination revealed a normal body habitus. Cardiac examination revealed no murmurs or extra cardiac sounds on auscultation. The pulmonary and abdomen examinations were unremarkable. The chest radiograph was normal. The electrocardiogram showed sinus rhythm, with borderline prolongation of the QT interval. The laboratory test results, including cardiac enzymes, were normal. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) revealed normal left ventricular systolic function, with localized dyskinesis of the apex. No significant valvular abnormalities were identified. Coronary angiography revealed angiographically normal coronary arteries; left ventriculography showed abnormal apical \"filling defect\" consistent with an aneurysm. A repeat echocardiogram using Definity contrast revealed left ventricular apical diverticulum with hypertrabeculation. The patient was placed on antihypertensive medications with resolution of her chest pain, and was able to ambulate comfortably. The patient was counseled thoroughly on the importance of compliance with her medications. This case describes an apical left ventricular diverticulum found incidentally and demonstrated on contrast echocardiography in a patient with chest pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0940_13359", "title": "Treating her well.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "CLINICAL INTRODUCTION: A 44-year-old woman presents pain free to our ED after experiencing 45 min of tightening of the chest with radiation to her left arm, diaphoresis and nausea. Her vital signs are normal except for her high BP, which is 180/110. She reports recurrent episodes of chest pain in the past 1.5 weeks, unrelated to exercise. She visited a general practitioner who prescribed pain medication and treated her new-onset hypertension. Besides the recently found hypertension, heavy smoking is her only other traditional risk factor for cardiovascular disease. What finding on figure 1 should make you concerned?emermed;35/4/246/F1F1F1Figure 1Initial ECG.The U-wave in the precordial leadsThe biphasic P-wave in lead IThe negative T-waves in aVR as well as aVLThe biphasic T-waves in V2 and V3." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0969_11585", "title": "Case 260: Endobronchial Posttransplantation Lymphoproliferative Disease.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "History A 31-year-old woman with a history of bilateral orthotopic lung transplantation performed 10 months earlier for cystic fibrosis presented for a routine follow-up appointment, with her chief symptom being a cough. The cough started approximately 1 month prior to this appointment and was minimally productive of clear to yellow phlegm. In addition to her cough, she reported increased sinus congestion and a sensation of \"something in her upper chest.\" She denied shortness of breath, wheezing, hemoptysis, or cigarette smoking. Review of systems was negative for fever, chills, or night sweats. At physical examination, the patient was afebrile, borderline tachycardic (heart rate, 99 beats per minute), and mildly hypertensive (blood pressure, 138/99 mm Hg). Oxygen saturation was 96% on room air. Laboratory evaluation revealed a white blood cell count of 3.5 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal range, [3.2-9.8] × 10<sup9</sup/L). Pulmonary function testing was notable for a newly decreased ratio of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV<sub1</sub) to forced vital capacity (FVC) of 64% (2.0 and 3.4 L, respectively) (normal FEV<sub1</sub-to-FVC ratio, 80%), suggesting an obstructive lung process. One month prior to presentation, the patient's sputum cultures grew Pseudomonas and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. The patient showed no evidence of active infection at the time of bronchoscopy. Thus, the bacteria were favored to reflect colonization, and antibiotic therapy was not administered at that time. The patient was taking an immunosuppression regimen of mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept; Genentech, San Francisco, Calif) (1 g twice daily), prednisone (10 mg daily), and tacrolimus (Prograf; Astellas Pharma US, Northbrook, Ill) (goal therapeutic range, 12-14 ng/mL). The patient was sent for posteroanterior and lateral chest radiography followed by chest CT ( Figs 1 - 3 ) and fluorine 18 (<sup18</supF) fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) PET/CT ( Fig 4 )." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0232_5920", "title": "[Examination of the effect of aorto-coronary revascularisation by means of exercise tests (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The purpose of this study was to determine the value of exercise tests in the examination of the effect of aorto-coronary revascularisation. 48 patients (mean age 52 +/- 6 years) were examined 5.0 +/- 1.9 months before and 4.9 +/- 3.0 months after coronary revascularisation by means of coronary and left ventricular angiography. Left ventricular function at rest was unchanged. 122 grafts were constructed, the patency rate was 86%. Preoperatively two exercise tests with a bicycle ergometer were performed, some days before angiography and some days before operation, respectively. A third test was performed postoperatively (again some days before angiography). During exercise at identical work load, heart rate and systolic blood pressure did not change significantly pre- and postoperatively. At the second preoperative examination, pulmonary artery pressure (31.6 +/- 11.3 mm Hg) was significantly lower than at the first examination (36.3 +/- 10.8 mm Hg). Postoperatively there was a further decrease of mean pulmonary artery pressure (27.6 +/- 6.5 mm Hg). At the highest work load, mean pulmonary artery pressure was significantly lower at the second preoperative and at the postoperative examination (34.4 +/- 11.6 and 31.3 +/- 8.1 mm Hg versus 39.6 +/- 9.8 mm Hg). The explanation of the preoperative reduction of pulmonary artery pressure is not clear. The pressure decrease must be considered in the examination of the effect of aorto-coronary revascularisation by means of exercise tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_10265", "title": "Case 260.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "History A 31-year-old woman with a history of bilateral orthotopic lung transplantation performed 10 months earlier for cystic fibrosis presented for a routine follow-up appointment, with her chief symptom being a cough. The cough started approximately 1 month prior to this appointment and was minimally productive of clear to yellow phlegm. In addition to her cough, she reported increased sinus congestion and a sensation of \"something in her upper chest.\" She denied shortness of breath, wheezing, hemoptysis, or cigarette smoking. Review of systems was negative for fever, chills, or night sweats. At physical examination, the patient was afebrile, borderline tachycardic (heart rate, 99 beats per minute), and mildly hypertensive (blood pressure, 138/99 mm Hg). Oxygen saturation was 96% on room air. Laboratory evaluation revealed a white blood cell count of 3.5 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal range, 3.2-9.8 × 10<sup9</sup/L). Pulmonary function testing was notable for a newly decreased ratio of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV<sub1</sub) to forced vital capacity (FVC) of 64% (2.0 and 3.4 L, respectively) (normal FEV<sub1</sub-to-FVC ratio, 80%), suggesting an obstructive lung process. One month prior to presentation, the patient's sputum cultures grew Pseudomonas and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. The patient showed no evidence of active infection at the time of bronchoscopy. Thus, the bacteria were favored to reflect colonization, and antibiotic therapy was not administered at that time. The patient was taking an immunosuppression regimen of mycophenalate mofetil (CellCept; Genentech, San Francisco, Calif) (1 g twice daily), prednisone (10 mg daily), and tacrolimus (Prograf; Astellas Pharma US, Northbrook, Ill) (goal therapeutic range, 12-14 ng/mL). The patient was sent for posteroanterior and lateral chest radiography followed by chest CT ( Figs 1 - 3 ) and fluorine 18 fluorodeoxyglucose PET/CT ( Fig 4 ). [Figure: see text][Figure: see text][Figure: see text][Figure: see text]." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0086_10396", "title": "[Assessment of the risk of a fatal outcome in patients with stable stenocardia in a 5-year period (II)].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Based on the examination of 377 patients with associated coronary heart disease and stable angina pectoris a rule of forecasting coronary death was developed. Computer was used to identify the weight values of different clinical signs, changes in the ECG taken at rest, bicycle ergometry test, coronarography and the deciding rule was deduced. Depending on the magnitude of the prognostic index (I2) groups of low, moderate and high risk of the lethal outcome were identified during the 5-year period. The schedule for coronary death forecasting permits its use at public health institutions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0228_11582", "title": "[Bicycle ergometry test results in persons with ischemic heart disease detected in mass screening].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Bicycle ergometry in 40-59 year-old male patients with coronary heart disease, identified during mass prophylactic examination on the basis of epidemiological criteria, has shown that in patients with angina pectoris of effort and no myocardial infarction in history positive exercise tests are observed in 20,8% of cases, while in patients with painless CHD forms positive results are observed in 15.4% of cases. Positive exercise tests are the most often in patients with daily anginal attacks and in those with ST depression and flat negative T waves." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_23808", "title": "Paraneoplastic Encephalopathy in a Patient With Metastatic Lung Cancer: A Case Study.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b RS, a 36-year-old female, presented to the emergency department (ED) of a large academic medical center upon the advice of her primary care provider because of 3 weeks of progressive mental status changes, weakness, and decreased oral intake. According to her husband, RS was diagnosed with stage IIIA large cell lung cancer 8 months earlier and was treated with concurrent chemotherapy (carboplatin, pemetrexed, and bevacizumab) and radiation therapy that was completed 4 months prior to admission. No other specific information about her treatment or outside health records was available. According to her husband, RS had been in her usual state of health until approximately 3 weeks prior, when she began having significant mental status changes. She first exhibited some difficulty finding words and later was noted to be putting food in a coffee maker. This spontaneously resolved after approximately 1 week; however, she rapidly developed slurred speech and began to make nonsensical statements. These manifestations also slowly improved but were followed by worsening speech deficit, difficulty walking, and impaired balance. During one of these episodes, she had an occurrence of incontinence. Her husband also noted an incident where her \"eyes were beating back and forth and the left side of her face was twitching.\" RS also had periods (according to her husband) where she \"did not seem to be interacting with her environment.\" These progressively worsened during the last week, and she completely stopped walking and talking 2 days prior to coming to the ED. According to her husband, RS had rheumatoid arthritis and no surgical history. Her family history was unknown except that RS's mother had \"seizures.\" RS had reportedly not used tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and she was sexually active with her husband. Home medications included transdermal fentanyl 12 μg/hr patch changed every 72 hours; oxycodone-acetaminophen tablets 5-325 mg, two every 4 hours as needed for pain; prednisone 10 mg, one tablet daily; and megestrol 40 mg/mL suspension, 20 mL once daily for appetite stimulation. RS was admitted to an inpatient medical oncology service and evaluated by the oncology advanced practitioner (AP) on her second inpatient day. Upon exam, RS was nonverbal except for moaning in response to painful stimuli and to her sister's voice. Her vital signs were normal. She appeared ill but well-nourished, and she was mildly diaphoretic. Neurologic examination revealed that her pupils were slightly sluggish but equal, round, and reactive to light. Extraocular muscle movements were intact, but she did not move her eyes in response to commands. She tracked the AP and family members around the room with her eyes. Cranial nerve examination was intact with the exception of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, which were difficult to examine given her inability to cooperate and open her mouth. Motor examination revealed increased tone throughout and intermittent, inconsistent resistance to passive movement. She was seen to move all four extremities spontaneously although not in response to commands. Deep tendon reflexes were intact and equal in all extremities. Examination of other body systems was as follows: there was dry, peeling skin on her lips, but her mucous membranes were moist and free of erythema or lesions. Her lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her heart rate and rhythm were regular, there were no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and distal pulses were intact. Her abdomen was nondistended with normally active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Her abdomen was soft, nontender to palpation, and without palpable masses. There was no peripheral discoloration, temperature changes, or edema, and examination of her skin was benign. <bWorkup</b On admission to the emergency department, serum laboratory studies were unrevealing for any potential causes of encephalopathy. Kidney and liver function were normal, making diagnoses of uremic and hepatic encephalopathies less likely. Cultures of the urine and blood were negative. Samples of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were obtained via lumbar puncture and were unrevealing for any abnormalities. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast was negative for any acute intracranial process. Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant revealed a single, nonspecific, hypoechoic hepatic lesion. Computed tomography scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the primary malignancy in the upper lobe of the left lung, as well as possible metastatic disease within the left lung, right lung, and liver, and widespread osseous metastatic disease. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain performed 1 day after admission demonstrated numerous scattered punctate foci of enhancement throughout the supratentorial and infratentorial brain parenchyma, measuring at most 3 to 4 millimeters in diameter. There was no significant mass effect or midline shift. A paraneoplastic panel was sent to an outside laboratory and returned positive for antivoltage-gated potassium channel (VGKC) autoantibodies. <bDifferential Diagnosis</b Clinically, RS was exhibiting signs of encephalopathy, a broad term that indicates general brain dysfunction, the hallmark of which is altered mental status. Diagnosing encephalopathy is challenging, as many differential diagnoses must be considered. The clinician must consider metabolic derangements, toxic and infectious etiologies, psychiatric disorders, and less commonly, prion disorders and progressive dementia. Cultures of RS's blood and urine as well as other specialized endocrine tests were negative, decreasing the likelihood of a metabolic or infectious cause for her presentation. The abnormalities on her brain MRI were reviewed by a neuro-oncology team, who felt that the faint, nondescript nature of the visualized lesions was not suspicious for metastatic disease. Sequelae of seizures was also considered by neuro-oncology but dismissed given a grossly normal prolonged electroencephalogram. Some encephalopathies are caused by autoimmune or inflammatory mechanisms, which are confirmed by the presence of autoantibody markers and/or clear response to immunomodulatory treatment (Vernino, Geschwind, &amp; Boeve, 2007). These types of encephalopathies have been seen in patients with cancer and have thus been termed paraneoplastic. The presence of anti-VGKC antibodies on RS's paraneoplastic panel directed the inpatient medical oncology team toward a paraneoplastic neurologic disorder (PND) as the most likely diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0824_4978", "title": "How to Be 80 Year Old and Have a VO2max of a 35 Year Old.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Background. To discuss the cardiovascular and pulmonary physiology and common risk factors of an 80-year-old man with a world record maximal oxygen uptake of 50 mL·kg(-1)·min(-1). Methods. Results. His maximal oxygen uptake of 3.31 L·min(-1), maximal heart rate of 175 beats·min(-1), and maximal oxygen pulse of 19 mL·beats(-1) are high. He is lean (66.6 kg) and muscular (49% skeletal muscle mass). His echo parameters of mitral flow (left ventricular filling, E = 82 cm·s(-1) and E/A = 1.2) were normal for 40- to 60-year-old men. Systolic and diastolic function increased adequately during exercise, with no increase in left ventricular filling pressure. He has excellent pulmonary function (FVC = 4.31 L, FEV1 = 3.41, FEV1/FVC = 0.79, and DLCO = 12.0 Si(1)) and normal FMD and blood volumes (5.8 L). He has a high level of daily activity (10,900 steps·day(-1) and 2:51 hours·day(-1) of physical activity) and a lifelong history of physical activity. Conclusion. The man is in excellent cardiopulmonary fitness and is highly physically active. His cardiac and pulmonary functions are above expectations for his age, and his VO2max is comparable to that of an inactive 25-year-old and of a normal, active 35-year-old Norwegian man." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0800_14851", "title": "Breathlessness with pulmonary metastases: a multimodal approach.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Case Study  Sarah is a 58-year-old breast cancer survivor, social worker, and health-care administrator at a long-term care facility. She lives with her husband and enjoys gardening and reading. She has two grown children and three grandchildren who live approximately 180 miles away. SECOND CANCER DIAGNOSIS  One morning while showering, Sarah detected a painless quarter-sized lump on her inner thigh. While she thought it was unusual, she felt it would probably go away. One month later, she felt the lump again; she thought that it had grown, so she scheduled a visit with her primary care physician. A CT scan revealed a 6.2-cm soft-tissue mass in the left groin. She was referred to an oncologic surgeon and underwent an excision of the groin mass. Pathology revealed a grade 3 malignant melanoma. She was later tested and found to have BRAF-negative status. Following her recovery from surgery, Sarah was further evaluated with an MRI scan of the brain, which was negative, and a PET scan, which revealed two nodules in the left lung. As Sarah had attended a cancer support group during her breast cancer treatment in the past, she decided to go back to the group when she learned of her melanoma diagnosis. While the treatment options for her lung lesions included interleukin-2, ipilimumab (Yervoy), temozolomide, dacarbazine, a clinical trial, or radiosurgery, Sarah's oncologist felt that ipilimumab or radiosurgery would be the best course of action. She shared with her support group that she was ambivalent about this decision, as she had experienced profound fatigue and nausea with chemotherapy during her past treatment for breast cancer. She eventually opted to undergo stereotactic radiosurgery. DISEASE RECURRENCE  After the radiosurgery, Sarah was followed every 2 months. She complained of shortness of breath about 2 weeks prior to each follow-up visit. Each time her chest x-ray was normal, and she eventually believed that her breathlessness was anxiety-related. Unfortunately, Sarah's 1-year follow-up exam revealed a 2 cm × 3 cm mass in her left lung, for which she had a surgical wedge resection. Her complaints of shortness of breath increased following the surgery and occurred most often with anxiety, heat, and gardening activities, especially when she needed to bend over. Sarah also complained of a burning \"pins and needles\" sensation at the surgical chest wall site that was bothersome and would wake her up at night. Sarah met with the nurse practitioner in the symptom management clinic to discuss her concerns. Upon physical examination, observable signs of breathlessness were lacking, and oxygen saturation remained stable at 94%, but Sarah rated her breathlessness as 7 on the 0 to 10 Borg scale. The nurse practitioner prescribed duloxetine to help manage the surgical site neuropathic pain and to assist with anxiety, which in turn could possibly improve Sarah's breathlessness. Several nonpharmacologic modalities for breathlessness were also recommended: using a fan directed toward her face, working in the garden in the early morning when the weather is cooler, gardening in containers that are at eye level to avoid the need to bend down, and performing relaxation exercises with pursed lip breathing to relieve anxiety-provoked breathlessness. One month later, Sarah reported relief of her anxiety; she stated that the fan directed toward her face helped most when she started to feel \"air hungry.\" She rated her breathlessness at 4/10 on the Borg scale. SECOND RECURRENCE: MULTIPLE PULMONARY NODULES  Sarah's chest x-rays remained clear for 6 months, but she developed a chronic cough shortly before the 9-month exam. An x-ray revealed several bilateral lung lesions and growth in the area of the previously resected lung nodule. Systemic therapy was recommended, and she underwent two cycles of ipilimumab. Sarah's cough and breathlessness worsened, she developed colitis, and she decided to stop therapy after the third cycle. In addition, her coughing spells triggered bronchospasms that resulted in severe anxiety, panic attacks, and air hunger. She rated her breathlessness at 10/10 on the Borg scale during these episodes. She found communication difficult due to the cough and began to isolate herself. She continued to attend the support group weekly but had difficulty participating in conversation due to her cough. Sarah was seen in the symptom management clinic every 2 weeks or more often as needed. No acute distress was present at the beginning of each visit, but when Sarah began to talk about her symptoms and fear of dying, her shortness of breath and anxiety increased. The symptom management nurse practitioner treated the suspected underlying cause of the breathlessness and prescribed oral lorazepam (0.5 to 1 mg every 6 hours) for anxiety and codeine cough syrup for the cough. Opioids were initiated for chest wall pain and to control the breathlessness. Controlled-release oxycodone was started at 10 mg every 12 hours with a breakthrough pain (BTP) dose of 5 mg every 2 hours as needed for breathlessness or pain. Sarah noted improvement in her symptoms and reported a Borg scale rating of 5/10. Oxygen therapy was attempted, but subjective improvement in Sarah's breathlessness was lacking. END OF LIFE  Sarah's disease progressed to the liver, and she began experiencing more notable signs of breathlessness: nasal flaring, tachycardia, and restlessness. Opioid doses were titrated over the course of 3 months to oxycodone (40 mg every 12 hours) with a BTP dose of 10 to 15 mg every 2 hours as needed, but her breathlessness caused significant distress, which she rated 8/10. The oxycodone was rotated to IV morphine continuous infusion with patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) that was delivered through her implantable port. This combination allowed Sarah to depress the PCA as needed and achieve immediate control of her dyspneic episodes. Oral lorazepam was also continued as needed. Sarah's daughter moved home to take care of her mother, and hospice became involved for end-of-life care. As Sarah became less responsive, nurses maintained doses of morphine for control of pain and breathlessness and used a respiratory distress observation scale to assess for breathlessness since Sarah could no longer self-report. A bolus PCA dose of morphine was administered by Sarah's daughter if her mother appeared to be in distress. Sarah died peacefully in her home without signs of distress. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0061_13856", "title": "[The role of the exercise test in patients with ischemic heart disease in estimating the risk of sudden death].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The authors evaluated after 4-year interval the results of coronarographic and spiroergometric examination after a work load on a bicycle ergometer up to the limiting work syndrome in 51 all patients with the aim to reveal \"risk factors\" of sudden death in CHD patients. The following parameters were recorded: age, duration of treatment number of cigarettes smoked, systolic blood pressure at rest and the daily dose of the most frequently used drugs. After the work load the limiting values of pulse rate, systolic blood pressure, oxygen consumption, blood lactate level and the work ECG were evaluated. In the group of 7 sudden deaths of CHD patients the authors found statistically significant (p less than 0.001) a lower mean limiting value of oxygen consumption/kg and a deeper (p less than 0.0001) mean depression of the S-T segment in the work ECG when compared with 35 CHD patients surviving for 4 years. Both indicators are considered the main \"risk factors\" for sudden death." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_5378", "title": "Correlation of adenosine echocardiography and thallium scintigraphy.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Echocardiography and thallium-201 imaging with coronary vasodilators such as dipyridamole have been shown to be useful in detecting the presence and prognostic significance of coronary artery disease. Adenosine, a potent and direct coronary vasodilator, has a shorter physiologic half-life than dipyridamole, which exerts its effect by blocking the cellular uptake of adenosine. Because of the potential advantage of dipyridamole, we undertook this study to determine the correlation of adenosine echocardiography with thallium scintigraphy. Forty-two patients (18 men and 24 women; mean age 64) who were unable to undergo treadmill exercise and were known or suspected to have coronary artery disease were studied. A baseline echocardiogram was obtained in four standard views followed by adenosine infusion at a rate of 140 micrograms/kg/min for 6 minutes. Thallium-201 was administered 3 minutes into the infusion while a second echocardiogram was performed. Thallium-201 imaging was begun immediately after the infusion of adenosine and repeated 4 hours later. Sixteen patients underwent coronary angiography within 1 month of the adenosine echocardiogram and thallium-201 study. At the peak infused dose of adenosine there was a significant increase in heart rate (12 beats/min; p = 0.0001) and rate-pressure product (1.3 x 10(3) beats/min x mm Hg; p = 0.02) and statistically insignificant decreases in systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Sixty-two percent of patients experienced side effects during the adenosine infusion, with chest pain, shortness of breath, and flushing occurring most frequently. These side effects resolved within 1 to 2 minutes after the infusion was stopped. Ischemic electrocardiographic changes occurred in 19% of patients.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_12810", "title": "[Exercise test in patients over 70 years of age].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "One hundred and sixty-four out of 171 prescribed tests were carried out (96 p. 100) in 48 women aged 70 to 85 years (mean 74,3 years), and 116 men aged 70 to 84 years (mean 73,4 years). The indications were: coronary artery disease (113 cases), cardiac arrhythmias (44 cases), cardiac failure (12 cases), hypertension (9 cases) and assessment of apparently normal subjects (7 cases). The tests were performed on a bicycle ergometer in the upright position; the work load was increased stepwise every 3 minutes with automatic electrocardiographic recording. 37.2 p. 100 of subjects exceeded 90 p. 100 of the maximal predicted heart rate for age; 23.2 p. 100 failed to achieve 75 p. 100 of the target heart rate. There were no serious complications but 4.2 p. 100 minor incidents occurred. The mean maximum work load was 66,5 watts (71.9 W for men and 53.5 W for women). These results show that exercise testing is possible in geriatric patients and provides information of comparable value to that obtained in younger patients. The investigation is safe when performed under strict medical supervision." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0225_2961", "title": "Multicenter evaluation of mepindolol and of mepindolol plus hydrochlorothiazide in essential hypertension.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The effect on systolic (SAP) and diastolic (DAP) arterial blood pressure of 5 mg mepindolol daily vs 12.5 mg hydrochlorothiazide daily vs 5 mg mepindolol plus 12.5 mg hydrochlorothiazide daily was evaluated in this multicenter study. After a 2-week washout period with placebo, 138 patients with mild to moderate essential hypertension (WHO Class I and II), homogeneous for age and blood pressure values, were randomly allocated to one of the three treatment groups. Arterial blood pressure and heart rate were obtained at the beginning and at the end of the washout placebo period, and after 2, 4, and 6 weeks of active treatment. At the beginning and at the end of the study, all patients underwent a thorough clinical and laboratory evaluation, including blood chemistry, electrocardiogram, and chest roentgenogram. A trend toward normalization of blood pressure was defined as a lowering of DAP to 90 mmHg or at least a 10-mmHg decrease from the control value. Statistical analysis was performed on all the data. After 6 weeks of treatment, SAP and DAP values were significantly reduced in 67% of the patients in all groups. In 71% of patients on mepindolol plus hydrochlorothiazide a particularly more marked decrease in DAP was observed. Mepindolol was well tolerated: side effects were generally mild and inconsequential. The results show that mepindolol, given as a single oral dose of 5 mg, is an effective agent in the treatment of mild to moderate essential hypertension. Because of its efficacy, the advantage of single daily administration, and lack of important side effects, it can increase compliance to therapy. Moreover the association of mepindolol plus hydrochlorothiazide appears to be safe and effective." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0495_3220", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "PRESENTING FEATURES: A 70-year-old African American man was admitted with a history of fever, chills, and malaise of several days' duration. His past medical history was notable for end-stage renal disease requiring hemodialysis, coronary artery disease, and aortic stenosis requiring a bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement. On the day of admission, the patient was noted to have a shaking chill while undergoing dialysis through his catheter and was admitted to the hospital. He complained of pain at the catheter insertion site, shortness of breath, and dyspnea on exertion, but denied chest pain. On physical examination, the patient had a temperature of 100.4 degrees F, with a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, blood pressure of 127/72 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. He was a mildly obese man in no apparent distress. He had shotty cervical lymphadenopathy and a right subclavian dialysis catheter in place, with erythema and pus at the entry site. His jugular venous pressure was 10 cm H(2)O. Lung examination showed bibasilar rales. Heart sounds were normal, with no rub or gallop. He had a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur best heart at the left sternal border as well as a 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiated to his left axilla. Examination of the abdomen and extremities was unremarkable. The patient's neurological examination was unremarkable, and he was alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Laboratory studies showed an elevated white blood cell count of 16,700 cells/microL. His blood urea nitrogen level was 43 mg/dL and his serum creatinine level was 4.9 mg/dL. Multiple blood cultures grew methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. An admission, chest radiograph showed no infiltrate. An admission electrocardiogram showed normal sinus rhythm with first degree atrioventricular block, left anterior fascicular block, and left ventricular hypertrophy. shows rhythm strips from lead II electrocardiograms 5 months before admission (top), on admission (middle) and 5 days after admission (bottom). What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19094", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Electrocardiographic The most widely used test for both the diagnosis of IHD and the estimation of risk and prognosis involves recording the 12-lead ECG before, during, and after exercise, usually on a treadmill (Fig. 293-2). The test consists of a standardized incremental increase in external workload (Table 293-2) while symptoms, the ECG, and arm blood pressure are monitored. Exercise duration is usually symptom-limited, and the test is discontinued upon evidence of chest discomfort, severe shortness of breath, dizziness, severe fatigue, ST-segment depression >0.2 mV (2 mm), a fall in systolic blood pressure >10 mmHg, or the development of a ventricular tachyarrhythmia. This test is used to discover any limitation in exercise performance, detect typical ECG signs of myocardial ischemia, and establish their relationship to chest discomfort. The ischemic ST-segment response generally is defined as flat or downsloping depression of the ST segment >0.1 mV below baseline (i.e., the PR" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25046", "title": "An evidence-based approach to managing the anticoagulated patient in the emergency department.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "You start another busy shift with a double row of charts waiting to be seen. Your first patient is an elderly man who fell 1 hour prior to presentation. He did not lose consciousness, but he was dazed for a few minutes. He complains of a mild headache but denies any neck pain. He takes warfarin for valvular heart disease. He looks good and has no focal neurological complaints. His mental status is normal, he has a negative head CT scan, and his INR is 3.9. His family wants to take him home, which would help relieve some of the congestion in the ED, but you wonder what would be best. To observe and repeat imaging? Reverse his anticoagulation? Change his dosing regimen of warfarin? In the next room, you quickly evaluate a 51-year-old obese woman with nonspecific back and abdominal pain that started 24 hours before and has slowly progressed to become intolerable. She denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. She is on the last day of a 5-day course of ciprofloxacin for a UTI. She takes warfarin for a pulmonary embolus that occurred 2 months prior. Her hematocrit is mildly decreased, and her white blood count is normal; however, the INR is 6.8. You wonder if her abdominal pain is related to the UTI, or if it could be somehow related to the prolonged INR. In fact, you wonder why her INR is so prolonged..." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_2763", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "If a patient has evidence of both pulmonary and cardiac disease, a cardiopulmonary exercise test should be carried out to determine which system is responsible for the exercise limitation. If, at peak exercise, the patient achieves predicted maximal ventilation, demonstrates an increase in dead space or hypoxemia, or develops bronchospasm, the respiratory system is probably the cause of the problem. Alternatively, if the heart rate is >85% of the predicted maximum, if the anaerobic threshold occurs early, if the blood pressure becomes excessively high or decreases during exercise, if the O2 pulse (O2 consumption/heart rate, an indicator of stroke volume) falls, or if there are ischemic changes on the electrocardiogram, an abnormality of the cardiovascular system is likely the explanation for the breathing discomfort. PART 2 Cardinal Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1020_12383", "title": "Persistent unexplained chest pain and dyspnea in a patient with coronary artery disease: a case report.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, a sustained decrease in blood pressure upon standing, is caused by autonomic nervous system failure and characterized by an insufficient increase in heart rate needed to maintain blood pressure upon standing. In this case, neurogenic orthostatic hypotension symptoms preceded a diagnosis of Parkinson disease. A diagnosis of underlying neurogenic orthostatic hypotension significantly changed the course of treatment for this patient. An 84-year-old woman was referred to a cardiologist by her primary care practitioner for evaluation of exertional dyspnea and chest pain upon walking a few feet. Her medical history included hypertension, hypothyroidism, and osteoarthritis. Based on her continued symptoms, the patient underwent 2 cardiac catheterizations for coronary artery stenosis. After the catheterizations, exertional dyspnea and chest pain continued, and subsequently, dysphagia to solid foods and episodic dizziness developed. Orthostatic evaluation showed a supine blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg with a heart rate of 70 beats per min. Upon standing for 3 min, the patient's blood pressure decreased to 110/74 mmHg with a heart rate of 76 beats per min. The diagnostic criteria for orthostatic hypotension were met, and the lack of an adequate compensatory heart rate increase upon standing was consistent with a neurogenic cause (ie, neurogenic orthostatic hypotension), which was supported by tilt-table testing results. Although nonpharmacologic treatments were initially successful, episodes of lightheadedness, chest pain, and dyspnea upon standing became more frequent, and the patient was prescribed droxidopa (200 mg; 3 times daily). Droxidopa significantly improved her symptoms, with the patient reporting resolution of her chest pain and significant improvement of dyspnea and dizziness. She was diagnosed with Parkinson disease approximately 6 months later. This case highlights the importance of evaluating and identifying potential causes of symptoms of cardiovascular disease when persistent symptoms do not improve after cardiac interventions. This case complements findings demonstrating that signs of autonomic failure, such as neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, may precede the motor symptoms of Parkinson disease. Importantly, this case provides real-world evidence for the efficacy of droxidopa to treat the symptoms of neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, after an appropriate diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_2179", "title": "[Can the training of coronary patients be monitored by readily measurable parameters?].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The prognosis of coronary patients in terms of the mortality of coronary heart disease shows a positive relation to the severity of clinical and functional diagnostic parameters. Thus exercise therapy should be monitored by criteria that take ischemia, the myocardial situation and rhythm disorders into account. These criteria should be reliable and should be easy to determine as well as to apply. For pragmatic reasons the non-invasive evaluation of findings and the diagnostic symptom-limited ergometer test are especially significant for dosage and monitoring of exercise therapy. Monitored exercise therapy is here understood to mean individually adjusted exercising by patients, and training thus has to be based on diagnostic findings. First existing complaints have to be analyzed and such findings as size of infarction in the ECG, heart volume in the X-ray, size and function of the left ventricle by echography, etc. checked. Afterwards maximum physical work capacity on a multistage bicycle ergometer test is measured with respect to the following termination criteria: a) subjective reports by the patient during exercise (e.g. onset and severity of angina pectoris, dyspnea and/or fatigue of the leg muscles) and b) objective criteria such as significant ischemic ST-depression, exercise-hypertension, age-related submaximal heart rate and significant rhythm disorders. An inverse correlation is found between measured maximum symptom-limited physical performance and the frequency of cardiac termination criteria; a comparable inverse correlation exists with heart volume: max. O2 pulse.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_13522", "title": "Twenty-three year-old with pleuritic chest pain.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 23-year-old woman followed at another medical centre for congenital heart disease (CHD) presented to our emergency clinic with 3 weeks of bilateral pleuritic chest pain. She returned from holiday in Greece 6 weeks earlier where a tattoo and nasal piercing had been performed. There was no history of night sweats or fever.Her temperature was 37.5°C, heart rate 120 beats/min, oxygen saturations 94% on room air and blood pressure 110/74. Her chest was clear and there was systolic murmur on auscultation. The chest radiograph showed peripheral bilateral lower zone atelectasis. The ECG demonstrated sinus tachycardia. The haemoglobin was 11.2 g/dL, white cell count 10.18×10<sup9</sup/L, C-reactive protein 67 mg/L (normal &lt;5 mg/L) and D dimer=430 ng/mL (normal &lt;230 ng/mL).A pulmonary embolus was suspected and a CT pulmonary angiogram was performed (figure 1). Based on the CT findings, what is the most likely underlying congenital heart lesion in this patient?Bicuspid aortic valveCoarctation of the aortaFontan circulationParachute mitral valveVentricular septal defect heartjnl;105/6/464/F1F1F1Figure 1CT pulmonary angiogram (coronal views)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0247_7515", "title": "[Exercise tests in pneumopathy patients].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "In this prospective work eleven pneumopathes patients were studied, ten of them with HAP, which were subjected to effort prove in endless band, in order to know the electrocardiographic alterations presented during the exercise. The VO2 máx was determined simultaneously in four patients. In the four, the value of this parameter was found under the normal value, which showed us a poor increase of the cardiac expense for the demands in the exercise. If the effort proves had not been practiced, this fact could not have been known. Related to the electrocardiographic alterations, cellular diastolic depolarization signs (cellular damage), product of the cellular damage, were found. The mechanics of this cellular damage, as well as the one of the poor increase of cardiac expense, are mentionned in the discussion." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_66455", "title": "Heart failure", "score": 0.008706257622666292, "content": "Framingham criteria By the Framingham criteria, diagnosis of congestive heart failure (heart failure with impaired pumping capability) requires the simultaneous presence of at least two of the following major criteria or one major criterion in conjunction with two of the minor criteria. Major criteria include an enlarged heart on a chest X-ray, an S3 gallop (a third heart sound), acute pulmonary edema, episodes of waking up from sleep gasping for air, crackles on lung auscultation, central venous pressure more than 16 cm at the right atrium, jugular vein distension, positive abdominojugular test, and weight loss more than 4.5 kg in 5 days in response to treatment (sometimes classified as a minor criterion). Minor criteria include an abnormally fast heart rate more than 120 beats per minute, nocturnal cough, difficulty breathing with physical activity, pleural effusion, a decrease in the vital capacity by one-third from maximum recorded, liver enlargement, and bilateral ankle edema." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_4952", "title": "Case Report.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Thyroid hormone resistance (RTH) is defined as a decrease in response to thyroid hormones in the target tissue. Most patients present with nonspecific findings. In this article, we aimed to represent a 22-year-old female patient who presented with palpitation, fatigue, and heat intolerance. She was thought to have thyroid hormone resistance and her genetic examination revealed NM_001128177.1 (THRβ): c.1034G &gt; A (p.Gly345Asp) pathogenic variation in the THRβ gene. A 22-year-old female patient presented with complaints of fatigue, heat intolerance and palpitations. She was taking Propranolol twice daily at admission. Her family history revealed hypothyroidism in her grandmother. Her physical examination results were as follows: height 160 cm, weight 65 kg, body mass index 25.4kg/m<sup2</sup, body temperature 36.5°C, respiratory rate 18/min, heart rate 86 beats/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg. Her palms were sweaty. The heart sounds were normal, and no heart murmur was auscultated. The laboratory results were TSH: 5.31uU/mL, fT3: 6.83 pg/mL, and fT4: 2.43 ng/dL. THRβ gene mutation analysis was requested for our patient whose clinical history and laboratory results were compatible with thyroid hormone resistance. The pathogenic variation NM_001128177.1(THRβ):c.1034G&gt;A (p.Gly345Asp) was detected after analysis. A diagnosis of RTH requires high clinical suspicion and a genetic mutation analysis should be requested in the case of clinical suspicion. In this way, unnecessary anti-thyroid treatment can be prevented." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0241_4187", "title": "[Positive exercise test in the absence of pain. Characteristic of a high-risk population?].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "157 consecutive patients (pts) with suspected coronary artery disease and an ischemic ecg response during exercise test (ET) were studied. During ET 61 of them (group I) had neither chest pain nor anginal equivalent, while 96 (group II) experienced angina. There were no significant differences between the two groups in regard to age, sex, prior myocardial infarction, history of angina or hypertension. During ET pts of group I tolerated a higher work load (group I 3467 Kpm, group II 2594 Kpm, P less than 0,05) and had a higher maximal heart rate (group I 128,3 b/min, group II 120,4 b/min, P less than 0,05) with a more marked ST segment depression (group I 2,4 mm, group II 1,8 mm, P less than 0,01) and with a more elevated incidence of arrhythmias (group I 18%, group II 7%, P less than 0,05). The coronary angiography showed significant obstruction (greater than or equal to 75%) in 91,7% of group I and in 91,6% of group II (prevalence of single vessel disease in group I and multiple vessel disease in group II). No significant difference was found between group I and II in regard to left ventricular ejection fraction (group I 51%, group II 53%), left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (group I 12,9 mmHg group II 13,6 mmHg) and left ventricular end-diastolic volume (group I 102,3 ml/m2, group II 104,2 ml/m2). We conclude that ST segment depression during ET in asymptomatic pts at risk for cardiovascular disease is predictive of coronary artery disease as in symptomatics. These subjects have, compared with symptomatics, a higher work load tolerance but with more marked ecg ischemic changes and more frequent arrhythmias during ET, thus representing a group of coronary population at potentially higher risk." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 96, 387 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 57 ] ], "text": "As the mechanical function of the left inferior rectus is compromised, it would not allow to complete the supraduccion movement generating vertical diplopia, this plus the traumatic antecedent allows to suspect a fracture of the orbital floor with muscular entrapment of the inferior rectus." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 388, 513 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 57, 77 ] ], "text": "Fracture of the roof is much less frequent and the entrapment of the superior rectus would cause limitation for infraduction." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Fracture of the inferior wall of the floor of the orbit with entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle.", "2": "Zygomatic arch fracture.", "3": "Fracture of the superior wall of the orbit with entrapment of the superior rectus muscle.", "4": "Dentoalveolar fracture.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en128_11452", "title": "Orbital blowout fracture", "score": 0.01960972796308757, "content": "Signs & Symptoms Some clinically observed signs and symptoms include: Orbital pain Eyes displaced posteriorly into sockets (enophthalmos) Limitation of eye movement Loss of sensation (hypoesthesia) along the trigeminal (V2) nerve distribution Seeing-double when looking up or down (vertical diplopia) Orbital and lid subcutaneous emphysema, especially when blowing the nose or sneezing Nausea and bradycardia due to oculocardiac reflex inability to elevate eye ball, and move eyeball downward due to inferior rectus entrapment Causes Common medical causes of blowout fracture may include: Direct orbital blunt injury Sports injury (squash ball, tennis ball etc.) Motor vehicle accidents" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en128_11460", "title": "Orbital blowout fracture", "score": 0.018295739348370928, "content": "History Orbital floor fractures were investigated and described by MacKenzie in Paris in 1844 and the term blow out fracture was coined in 1957 by Smith & Regan, who were investigating injuries to the orbit and resultant inferior rectus entrapment, by placing a hurling ball on cadaverous orbits and striking it with a mallet. References External links CT Scans of Blowout Fracture from MedPix Bone fractures" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0639_16874", "title": "Clinico-radiologic findings of entrapped inferior oblique muscle in a fracture of the orbital floor.", "score": 0.01801948051948052, "content": "A 51-year old man presented with vertical and torsional diplopia after reduction of a blowout fracture at another hospital one year ago. He had no anormalies of head position and 14 prism diopters (PD) right hypertropia (RHT) in the primary position. In upgaze no vertical deviation was found, and hyperdeviation on downgaze was 35PD. Bielschowsky head tilt test showed a negative response. Distinct superior oblique (SO) and inferior rectus (IR) underaction of the right eye was noted but IO overaction was mild on the ocular version test. Double Maddox rod test (DMRT) revealed 10-degree extorsion, but fundus extorsion was minimal in the right eye.Thin-section coronal CT scan showed that there was no fracture line on the anterior orbital floor, but a fracture remained on the posterior orbital floor. Also, the anterior part of the right inferior oblique muscle was vertically reoriented and the medial portion of the inferior oblique muscle was not traced on the coronal CT scan. The patient underwent 14 mm right IO recession and 3 mm right IR resection. One month after the surgery, his vertical and torsional diplopia were eliminated in the primary position." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1095_8097", "title": "Anatomical implication of less occurrence of inferior oblique muscle entrapment in orbital floor trapdoor fracture.", "score": 0.016230104023060535, "content": "To examine the anatomy of the inferior oblique (IO) muscle and its surrounding structures to clarify why IO muscle entrapment develops less in orbital floor trapdoor fractures. Computed tomographic (CT) images on the unaffected sides were obtained from 64 patients with unilateral orbital fractures. On coronal planes, presence or absence of an infraorbital groove below the IO muscle was confirmed. At the level of the medial margin of the infraorbital groove/canal, the distance from the orbital floor to the IO muscle (IO-floor distance), the thickness of the orbital floor, and the shortest distance from the inferior rectus (IR) muscle to the orbital floor (shortest IR-floor distance) were measured. On quasi-sagittal planes, the distances from the inferior orbital rim to the inferior margin of the IO muscle (IO-rim distance) and the most anterior point of the infraorbital groove (groove-rim distance) were measured. The infraorbital groove was found below the IO muscle in eight patients (12.5%), and the IO-rim and IO-floor distances were significantly longer than the groove-rim and shortest IR-floor distances, respectively (p &lt; 0.001). The orbital floor below the IO muscle was significantly thicker than that below the IR muscle (p &lt; 0.001). Although the medial margin of the infraorbital groove is the most common fracture site, the IO muscle was not located above the groove in most cases. A longer IO-floor distance and thicker orbital floor below the IO muscle may also contribute to less occurrence of IO muscle entrapment in orbital floor trapdoor fractures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en225_19300", "title": "Facial trauma", "score": 0.014863387978142076, "content": "Nerves and muscles may be trapped by broken bones; in these cases the bones need to be put back into their proper places quickly. For example, fractures of the orbital floor or medial orbital wall of the eye can entrap the medial rectus or inferior rectus muscles. In facial wounds, tear ducts and nerves of the face may be damaged. Fractures of the frontal bone can interfere with the drainage of the frontal sinus and can cause sinusitis. Infection is another potential complication, for example when debris is ground into an abrasion and remains there. Injuries resulting from bites carry a high infection risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0223_18117", "title": "[Blow out fracture of the medial orbital wall--plastic repair with tantalum mesh].", "score": 0.014563843236409607, "content": "Two cases of blow out fracture of the medial orbital wall were reported. The one was a 14 year-old boy and the other was a 32 year-old man. After hitting the eye against another man or a hard object, the patients felt diplopia, especially on lateral gaze toward the injured side. The blow out fracture was able to be diagnosed by plain roentgenography or tomography. The fractured bone as well as the entrapped soft tissue were clearly detected by CT scan. The fractures occurred at the thinnest part of the Lamina orbitalis ossis ethmoidalis (Lamina papyracea) in both cases. Objects with diameter larger than that of the bony orbit pressed the eye ball and other soft tissue into the orbital cavity, and the blow out fracture occurred in the medial orbital wall in each case. The skin was incised along the supero-medial margin of the orbit and subperiostial dissection was done. The entrapped medial rectus muscle was observed in one case and unverified in the other. Entrapment of the orbital soft tissue other than medial rectus muscle may also have caused diplopia. Tantalum mesh, used for repair is quite thin material. It has much plasticity and little possibility of damaging the orbital tissue and of causing postoperative bleeding. No complication occurred after operation and diplopia disappeared completely or nearly completely in the cases reported." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0682_15123", "title": "Lateral rectus muscle injury, orbital fracture, mouth locking, and facial palsy resulting from reduction malarplasty.", "score": 0.014345948169477582, "content": "I report here on a patient with serious complications (lateral rectus muscle injury, orbital fracture, mouth locking, and facial palsy) that were caused by reduction malarplasty. A 32-year-old woman was referred to our department with complaints of inability to move her right eyeball laterally and inability to open her mouth. She has undergone reduction malarplasty 30 days previously at a local clinic. On examination, her maximal mouth opening was less than 3 mm. Her upper lip deviated to the left side when whistling. The orbit was displaced laterally and inferiorly. The upward and lateral gaze were limited. Computed tomography revealed fracture of the right orbital floor and lateral orbital wall extending to the orbital roof. The right lateral rectus muscle showed disconnection. The osteotomized segments were displaced inferiorly, and they pressed on the masseter muscle and coronoid process on the left side. On the 43rd postoperative day, a revision operation for the zygoma and orbit was carried out. Four days after the revision operation, surgery was performed for the myorrhaphy of the lateral rectus muscle and transposition of the medial rectus muscle. This case suggests the possibility of orbital fracture that can occur as a result of sawing in the wrong direction when using the intraoral approach. Although orbital fracture is extremely rare, it is hoped that this case will heighten the awareness of surgeons for this potential orbital fracture." }, { "id": "article-23495_22", "title": "Anatomy, Head and Neck: Eye Inferior Rectus Muscle -- Clinical Significance", "score": 0.013953299161988446, "content": "Because the inferior rectus is near the orbital floor, orbital floor fractures may involve this muscle. Inferior rectus muscle paresis can result from trauma to the inferior rectus muscle or nerve. This can occur either at the time of initial injury or during surgical repair of the orbital floor. If inferior rectus muscle paresis is present without entrapment, the patient may display hypertropia in the primary position. If paresis is present with entrapment, the patient may have a slight deviation or hypotropia, which decreases with downgaze. The initial management of inferior rectus paresis is observation for six months. Muscle surgery may be recommended if there is no improvement during this time. [9] [10]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0092_11119", "title": "[Types and treatments of blow-out fractures].", "score": 0.013654943179266047, "content": "A total of ten cases of blow-out fractures of the orbit was investigated as to the signs and symptoms, image findings of conventional views of Caldwell and Waters' and of coronal CT. According to the locations of fractures, medial, floor and medial-floor types were classified. Fractured bone tips were classified to depressive and trapdoor types. Fractures often occur posterior to the eyeball, the inferior rectus muscle showed dislocation and cylinder-like hypertrophy. Contrary to the reports in the past, the inferior rectus muscle did not show entrapment in the herniated portion. Caldwell view is superior to Waters' view in demonstrating fractures at the medial orbital wall. As to the choice of treatment in the majority of cases, conservative methods are indicated. Images by CT are used in determining surgical methods, the depressive type without clinical improvement after two weeks is the indication for the surgical treatments." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1067_8360", "title": "Resolution of Vertical Gaze Following a Delayed Presentation of Orbital Floor Fracture With Inferior Rectus Entrapment: The Contributions of Charles E. Iliff and Joseph S. Gruss in Orbital Surgery.", "score": 0.013378052457039493, "content": "Orbital floor fractures occur commonly as a result of blunt trauma to the face and periorbital region. Orbital floor fractures with a \"trapdoor\" component allow both herniation and incarceration of contents through a bone defect into the maxillary sinus as the bone rebounds faster than the soft tissue, trapping muscle, fat, and fascia in the fracture site. In children, the fractured floor, which is often hinged on one side, tends to return toward its original anatomical position due to the incomplete nature of the fracture and elasticity of the bone. The entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle itself is considered a true surgical emergency-prolonged entrapment frequently leads to muscle ischemia and necrosis leading to permanent limitation of extraocular motility and difficult to correct diplopia. For this reason, prompt surgical intervention is recommended by most surgeons. In adults, true entrapment of the muscle itself is not as common because the orbital floor is not as elastic and fractures are more complete. We present an adult patient with an isolated orbital floor fracture with clinical and radiologic evidence of true entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle itself. Despite the delayed surgical repair (4 days after the injury), the patient's inferior rectus muscle function returned to near normal with mild upward gaze diplopia. Inferior rectus entrapment in adults may more likely be associated with immobilization of the muscle without total vascular compression/incarceration significant enough to lead to complete ischemic necrosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_882", "title": "Less common orbital fracture patterns: the role of computed tomography in the management of depression of the inferior oblique origin and lateral rectus involvement in blow-in fractures.", "score": 0.0132213608957795, "content": "During the past decade, advances in radiographic imaging have made it possible for the surgeon managing orbital fractures to adopt a rational therapeutic strategy based on a knowledge of alterations in surgical anatomy secondary to traumatic injury. To illustrate the value of computed tomography in the surgeon's armamentarium for management of orbital fractures, cases are presented in which imaging proved decisive in planning a course of therapy. Two patients presented with two types of isolated lateral blow-in fracture, an uncommon fracture pattern. The other cases underscore the value of defining involvement of the inferior oblique origin and lateral rectus muscles in imaging complex orbital fractures, issues not emphasized in earlier literature. Although diplopia alone does not always warrant surgical intervention, diplopia in the context of computed tomography-defined muscle entrapment or muscle origin displacement justifies operative therapy. These cases demonstrate the value of computed tomography in directing surgical therapy with resolution of diplopia and prevention and correction of enophthalmos." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1044_8135", "title": "An Uncommon Case of Isolated Superior Rectus Palsy.", "score": 0.01311883174195619, "content": "Head injury associated with orbital trauma is commonly encountered in day-to-day practice. We report a rare case of orbital trauma resulting in isolated orbital \"roof blow\" in fracture in a 14-year-old child. The patient presented to us with diplopia and limitation of elevation of right eye after orbital trauma. Computed tomography of the orbits (2 mm sections) did not reveal fracture of the orbital floor. However, there was orbital roof \"blow in\" fracture with fracture fragment impingement on the superior rectus muscle. Patient was treated conservatively and spontaneous recovery of ocular motility was noted after a month." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en052_59239", "title": "Medial rectus muscle", "score": 0.013105413105413105, "content": "Compression The medial rectus muscle lies directly adjacent to the orbit of the skull. This leaves it vulnerable to being compressed (incarcerated) during skull fractures, which can prevent movement of the eye. This usually resolves when skull fractures are fixed. Surgical damage The medial rectus muscle may be damaged during eye surgery or skull surgery, such as functional endoscopic sinus surgery. The damage can be minor, such as bruising, or sever, such as cutting through the muscle partially or completely, and nerve injury. Additional images See also Extraocular muscles References External links () Diagram at howstuffworks.com Muscles of the head and neck Human eye anatomy de:Augenmuskeln#Musculus rectus medialis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0136_3524", "title": "Orbital blowout fractures. The prognostic significance of computed tomography.", "score": 0.012217765894236482, "content": "Nineteen patients with orbital floor fractures were examined and underwent computed tomography of both orbits. By evaluating the amount of orbital expansion and soft tissue herniation, we were able to identify a group of patients at high risk for developing enophthalmos (3/7 in the group with the largest amount vs. 0/7 and 0/5 in the two other groups). By studying the appearance of the inferior rectus muscle, we were also able to identify a group of patients at high risk for developing persistent diplopia (5/5 with entrapped muscles, 0/2 with hooked muscles and 0/12 of patients with free inferior rectus positions)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_21842", "title": "Overcorrection of a Medial Orbital Wall Fracture Using the Endonasal Approach.", "score": 0.012131147540983607, "content": "Although the endonasal approach is frequently used, and the inadvertent displacement of a bone fragment into the orbital cavity is possible, no reports have yet described the overcorrection of medial orbital wall fractures using the endonasal approach. The authors report 2 patients of the overcorrection of a medial orbital wall fracture using an endonasal approach.In the first patient, a 26-year-old Chinese-Korean woman experienced a fracture of the right medial orbital wall without entrapment of the medial rectus muscle. Eleven days after the trauma, endonasal reduction was performed. Postoperative computed tomography revealed overcorrection of the medial orbital wall and lateral displacement of the medial rectus muscle. On postoperative day 19, exophthalmos of the operated side was still observed (o.d. 20 mm/o.s. 17 mm). In the second patient, a 25-year-old Korean man experienced a fracture of the left medial orbital wall without entrapment of the medial rectus muscle. Postoperative computed tomography showed overcorrection of the medial orbital wall and a laterally displaced medial rectus muscle. On postoperative day 4, exophthalmos of the operated side was observed (o.d. 23 mm/o.s. 26 mm).For fractures of the medial wall, surgery should be performed according to the recommended indications. When the endonasal approach is used to treat medial orbital wall fractures, great care is required in reducing the herniated orbital tissue and inserting the sheet to avoid overcorrection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_8550", "title": "[Isolated blow out fracture of the medial wall of the orbit with medial rectus entrapment. Apropos of 3 cases].", "score": 0.011867977528089888, "content": "We report three cases of isolated medial orbital wall blow out fracture with medial rectus entrapment. Few cases have been reported in the literature, predominantly in black people as in this paper. Predominance of this rare fracture in black population could be explained by an anatomic hypothesis based on racial origin. The diagnosis is often suggested by the medial rectus entrapment. Depending on the position of the incarceration in front of or behind the equator of the eyeball, the eye presents pseudo-Duane syndrome or exotropia with decreased adduction. The diagnosis is established by orbital computed tomography visualizing the lamina papyracea of the ethmoid bone fracture and the medial rectus incarceration. This exceptional fracture must be detected to avoid complications: enophthalmos and motility disturbances." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0984_6733", "title": "Intraoperative Findings of Extraocular Muscle Necrosis in Linear Orbital Trapdoor Fractures.", "score": 0.011852394916911046, "content": "Orbital trapdoor fractures can constitute a relative surgical emergency. The reason for poor surgical outcomes in ocular motility disturbances and diplopia is not apparent in these fractures. The purpose of this retrospective study was to analyze the possibility of ischemic necrosis of the orbital contents in linear trapdoor fracture of the orbital floor and to evaluate the recovery period of trapdoor fractures. The study included 11 patients with linear trapdoor fracture of the orbital floor over 5 years with minimum 1-year follow-up. Patients with associated facial bone fractures were excluded. Demographic, etiologic, and radiologic characteristics, interval from trauma to surgery, and surgical techniques were recorded. Patients' age range was 9 to 29 years (mean, 16.3 yr). Mean time to surgical intervention from time of injury was 3.9 days (range, 0 to 11 days). Intraoperatively, macroscopic segmental necrosis of the entrapped inferior rectus muscle was observed in 3 patients. Postoperative review was conducted for a minimum of 12 months at 1-week and 1-, 3-, 6-, and 12-month intervals. At the end of the follow-up period, incomplete recovery was observed in 5 patients, including the 3 patients with intraoperative necrosed muscle, and the other 2 patients were operated on at days 7 and 8 from time of injury. This study showed that segmental necrosis of the entrapped inferior rectus muscle is possible in linear trapdoor fracture of the orbital floor. In addition, incomplete recovery correlated with clinical evidence of inferior rectus muscle necrosis and late surgical intervention." }, { "id": "article-26295_14", "title": "Orbital Floor Fracture -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011817653890824623, "content": "Decreased sensation over the inferior orbital rim that may extend nasolabially signifies trigeminal nerve damage Subcutaneous emphysema is a sign of a maxillary sinus fracture Inferior rectus entrapment between inferior orbital fragments may have associated oculomotor nerve palsy Enopthalmos, exophthalmos, or swelling behind the globe indicates displacement of the fractured orbital bones Early referral to an ophthalmologist or orbital specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment planning." }, { "id": "article-30629_28", "title": "Trochlear Nerve Palsy -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.011611104068956775, "content": "5. Blow-out fracture of the orbit: Orbital blow-out fracture with entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle can result in a misleading three-step test. Infraorbital hypoaesthesia, enophthalmos, and findings on imaging help in arriving at the diagnosis." }, { "id": "article-133080_10", "title": "Extraocular Muscle Management With Orbital and Globe Trauma -- Anatomy and Physiology", "score": 0.011502077416023097, "content": "The oblique muscles course inferior to their corresponding rectus muscles and insert laterally onto the globe. The superior oblique muscle arises from the periosteum of the sphenoid bone body, but its functional origin is the trochlea. The trochlea acts as a pulley for the superior oblique and is situated on the superomedial aspect of the frontal bone, rendering it prone to trauma from penetrating hook injuries in the medial canthus. [10] The inferior oblique originates from the orbital portion of the maxillary bone, crosses the inferior rectus laterally, and inserts over the macula. Incarceration of the inferior oblique muscle or its branch of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) can occur with \"trapdoor\" fractures. [11] Additionally, the lateral inferior oblique runs with pupillomotor preganglionic parasympathetic nerves. Damage here can result clinically in a dilated pupil. Intraoperative considerations, such as a broad arc of contact with the globe and the possibility of the inferior oblique having more than one muscle belly, are likewise important. [12] [13]" }, { "id": "article-133080_11", "title": "Extraocular Muscle Management With Orbital and Globe Trauma -- Anatomy and Physiology", "score": 0.011348139489577245, "content": "EOM entrapment or flap tears may follow orbital fractures, which comprise the most common cause of traumatic strabismus. [14] The resultant strabismus depends on the fracture location and extent of EOM involvement. The orbit is pyramidally shaped with the apex posteriorly and the base anteriorly. Seven bones form its boundaries (Table 2). Frontal force to the orbit or globe first impacts the orbital rim but can be transmitted posteriorly before buckling downwards. The orbital floor and medial wall are commonly affected, resulting in a blowout fracture. This type of injury usually results in a comminuted fracture pattern in adults. [15]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0024_534", "title": "[A contribution to the operative treatment of diplopia in patients with long-standing orbital floor fractures. A combined operative technique by an ophthalmologist and an otorhinolaryngologist is described (author's transl)].", "score": 0.011293759512937596, "content": "A patient with an 8-month old orbital floor fracture presented with inferior displacement of the globe, enophthalpmus and diplopia on upward gaze due to an entrapped inferior rectus muscle. In a combined approach, the orbital floor was first repaired by an otorhinolaryngologist. The ophthalmologist then severed the adhesions of the inferior rectus muscle, and a piece of silicone sheeting was sutured to periorbital tissue under the muscle to prevent the formation of new adhesions as well as to provide a smooth surface for the muscle to slide on. This approach restored the muscle function which has remained intact 13 months postoperatively. The simplicity of the procedure is stressed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0028_6056", "title": "Blunt trauma to the eye.", "score": 0.011268411268411268, "content": "1. Blunt trauma to the orbital region may result in a blowout fracture, characteristically found in the orbital floor, which may contain herniated orbital contents including both inferior muscles of the eye. Persistent diplopia continues as a problem in a significant number of patients following the surgical management of a blowout fracture of the orbit. 2. Prompt recognition and treatment of blowout fractures exhibiting diplopia is usually successful. Inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles incarcerated in a blowout fracture site for periods varying from two months to nine years may fail to function properly even following successful release of the entrapped muscles. There is some presumptive evidence to suggest a myogenic or neurogenic cause for such dysfunction. 3. Vertical diplopia that persists beyond three months following release of entrapped muscle tissue requires surgical correction, depending on the degree of vertical dissociation. 4. Motility surgery was required in 18 of 20 cases of persistent diplopia. Multiple muscle combinations are frequently required to achieve success. The criterion for a successful result was elimination of vertical diplopia in the primary and reading positions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0711_9019", "title": "Accelerated osteomesh resorption: a case report.", "score": 0.01112333455567779, "content": "Facial fractures occur commonly as a result of blunt trauma from road traffic accidents, assaults, and sporting injuries. Orbital floor fractures form a significant proportion of these and when large enough, the defect often requires surgical reconstruction of the floor to prevent orbital content herniation. Here, we present a case of a 28-year-old gentleman, who sustained an orbital floor fracture from a soccer-related injury. The resulting floor defect was surgically repaired using an osteomesh that was hand-cut to size. He developed delayed enophthalmos and entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle due to early resorption of the osteomesh, requiring revision surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0932_5808", "title": "Complete inferior rectus muscle transection secondary to orbital blowout fracture.", "score": 0.01107399717131594, "content": "Complete extraocular muscle transection is uncommon in the setting of blunt trauma. We report a case of a 53-year-old male that developed diplopia after hitting his face directly on a concrete slab after a fall. On examination, he had a right hypertropia with a complete infraduction deficit. A CT scan of the face showed an orbital floor blowout fracture with complete inferior rectus transection. On surgical exploration, the distal and proximal ends of the muscle were identified and sutured together, and the floor fracture was repaired. At his post-operative visits, the patient had a persistent infraduction deficit, but subjectively had improved diplopia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en128_11457", "title": "Orbital blowout fracture", "score": 0.011017822948887906, "content": "Imaging Thin cut (2-3mm) CT scan with axial and coronal view is the optimal study of choice for orbital fractures. Plain radiographs, on the other hand, do not have the sensitively capture blowout fractures. On Water's view radiograph, polypoid mass can be observed hanging from the floor into the maxillary antrum, classically known as teardrop sign, as it usually is in shape of a teardrop. This polypoid mass consists of herniated orbital contents, periorbital fat and inferior rectus muscle. The affected sinus is partially opacified on radiograph. Air-fluid level in maxillary sinus may sometimes be seen due to presence of blood. Lucency in orbits (on a radiograph) usually indicate orbital emphysema. Treatment" }, { "id": "article-26289_11", "title": "Anatomy, Head and Neck, Orbit -- Muscles", "score": 0.010976190476190476, "content": "The levator palpebrae superioris muscle, which receives nerve supply from CN III, elevates the upper eyelid. It is superior to the superior rectus muscle at the roof of the orbit, and these two muscles join in a common aponeurosis anteriorly. This intimate muscular relationship explains why the eye elevates as the upper eyelid is retracted. The extraocular muscles and their actions are as follows: [2] Superior rectus: Elevates, adducts and rotates medially Medial rectus: Adducts Inferior rectus: Depresses, adducts and rotates laterally Lateral rectus: Abducts Superior oblique: Depresses, abducts, and rotates medially Inferior oblique: Elevates, abducts, and rotates laterally" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1059_10634", "title": "A Medial Orbital Wall Fracture From Cricket Bat During Training: Surgical Approach.", "score": 0.010590056959575291, "content": "A 24-year-old male athlete, injured by a cricket bat during training, was transferred to the hospital with an open head bleeding trauma in the medial part of his right eye. He was conscious, with no memory loss and dizziness. A medial orbital wall fracture (MOWF) with a foreign body presence was depicted in X-ray. Head computed tomography scan confirmed initial diagnosis and revealed the complete fracture of ethmoid sinuses. Temporary sutures were placed initially to close the wound and prevent trauma's infection. The ophthalmological exam revealed strabismus of the right eye due to medial rectus muscle entrapment and consequent diplopia in the horizontal gaze. After two weeks, surgery was planned to remove the foreign body, restore eye mobility, and correct diplopia. The wooden foreign body (2.5cm x 1cm) was removed with immediate decompression of the medial rectus muscle. The fracture was repaired by an open approach, a mesh net was placed and sutured to the periosteum for bone stabilization and regeneration. Fifteen days postoperatively, visual acuity was 10/10, ocular mobility was normal, and diplopia disappeared. Imaging is essential in diagnosis' confirmation and reconstructive surgery planning, without postoperative complications and complete patient's rehabilitation. The current report highlights the value of reconstructive surgery in orbital structures' preservation in complex MOWF cases. In such cases, the foreign body that entraps medial rectus muscle should be removed in time in order to prevent the orbital content displacement towards the gap created by the fractured bone with consequences enophthalmos and diplopia, as well as consecutive intraorbital infections. Eye preservation in the correct position eliminates strabismus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_18866", "title": "Superior oblique muscle", "score": 0.010412829391684471, "content": "The superior oblique muscle, or obliquus oculi superior, is a fusiform muscle originating in the upper, medial side of the orbit (i.e. from beside the nose) which abducts, depresses and internally rotates the eye. It is the only extraocular muscle innervated by the trochlear nerve (the fourth cranial nerve). Structure The superior oblique muscle loops through a pulley-like structure (the trochlea of superior oblique) and inserts into the sclera on the posterotemporal surface of the eyeball. It is the pulley system that gives superior oblique its actions, causing depression of the eyeball despite being inserted on the superior surface. The superior oblique arises immediately above the margin of the optic foramen, superior and medial to the origin of the superior rectus, and, passing forward, ends in a rounded tendon, which plays in a fibrocartilaginous ring or pulley attached to the trochlear fossa of the frontal bone." }, { "id": "article-133080_12", "title": "Extraocular Muscle Management With Orbital and Globe Trauma -- Anatomy and Physiology", "score": 0.01026138452113539, "content": "Bony fragments can impinge surrounding EOMs, commonly the inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus, and less commonly, the superior oblique. [16] The bones are more elastic in pediatric patients, so upon initial blow, the bone bends, then entraps orbital tissue and muscle before closing back. [17] This fracture pattern has been described as a \"trapdoor\" because the fracture, which is linear and minimally displaced, opens transiently before rebounding back into place. Roof and lateral wall fractures are less common, and EOM entrapment is rare. In adult patients, the frontal sinus diffuses traumatic blunt force and prevents the extension of a fracture along the orbital roof. In pediatric patients, the frontal sinus is not yet fully pneumatized, and the ratio of the cranial vault to the midface is greater than in adults, so the frontal impact is more likely. [18] Regarding lateral wall fractures, isolated fracture through the greater wing of the sphenoid is rare. However, its articulation with the zygomatic bone, the sphenozygomatic suture, is prominent and susceptible to external trauma. [19] [20]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_9699", "title": "Case study of an orbital screwdriver injury.", "score": 0.009980089596814335, "content": "1. A man struck himself in the right eye with a screwdriver. The initial diagnosis was probable medial wall fracture with medial rectus entrapment, but a forced auction test result was negative and the initial x-ray study of the orbit and sinuses was within normal limits. The patient was treated with topical antibiotics and observed closely. Subsequent exams revealed a complete, isolated right gaze palsy. 2. An axial computed tomography scan of the orbit revealed an area of a probable hematoma overlying the lateral rectus muscle. There was also a fracture of the greater wing of the spheroid. 3. One month after the injury, the patient had complete, spontaneous clearing of the diplopia and lateral gaze palsy. The patient has had no residual effects 3 years later. This care reinforces the idea that injuries such as this should be treated symptomatically and observed." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_4278", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009936444697400872, "content": "ocular mobility, is performed to ensure that there is not inferior rectus entrapment. If there is entrapment, this would also result in diploplia with upward gaze. Blowout fractures demonstrating significant entrapment or enophthal-mos are treated by orbital exploration and reinforcement of the floor with titanium mesh, hydroxyapatite, or split calvarial bone grafts. Sometimes, the anterior maxillary bone that has been fractured and is accessed in the process of repairing other factures can also be used.62There are three classic patterns of more extensive mid-face fractures: Le Fort I, II, and III. However, fractures rarely follow this exact pattern, and the two sides of the face may have different Le Fort fractures. Nonetheless, a full under-standing of midface buttresses is central in understanding these fractures (Fig. 18-18). There are three vertical buttresses: the nasofrontal-maxillary, the frontozygomaticomaxillary, and Key stitchFigure 18-16. Approximation of the vermilion" } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Review dietary carbohydrate distribution.", "2": "Discontinue metformin.", "3": "Discontinue sulfonylurea.", "4": "Substitute metformin with a DPP4 inhibitor.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0659_10790", "title": "[Sequential treatment with insulin glargine and metformin, and exenatide in a patient with newly diagnosed type-2 diabetes].", "score": 0.018234323432343234, "content": "HISTORY AND ADMISSIONS FINDINGS: A 54-year-old man was admitted to hospital for treatment of a newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He had polydipsia and polyuria and had lost 11 kg in weight over four weeks. Further diagnoses were visceral obesity and arterial hypertension. Laboratory tests revealed highly elevated blood glucose parameters (HbA1c 14,9 %, fasting glucose 280 mg/dl, maximal postprandial glucose 430 mg/dl and 320 mg/dl before the meal) and triglyceride (2219 mg/dl). The patient was initially treated with a combination of insulin glargine and metformin. After a few days exenatide was added, as the patient wanted to be able to go without insulin. He was given a structured diabetes education and motivated to have five to six hours' of physical activity and a low glycemic diet. After a few days normal glucose levels had been achieved. After one month the insulin treatment was discontinued. The continuing treatment with metformin, 1000 mg twice daily, and exenatide, 5 mg twice daily, prolonged remission of beta-cell dysfunction and maintained normal blood glucose levels for seven months. After reduction of the metformin dosage (500 mg twice daily) and discontinuance of exenatide as well as a reduction of his physical activity (because of joint pain) for six months, the glucose control worsened. When exenatide was administered again, good control of postprandial blood glucose, but not of fasting glucose was achieved. Initial combination treatment with insulin glargine, metformin and exenatide may be beneficial in a subgroup of patients with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes, markedly elevated blood glucose and free fatty acid levels (glucolipotoxicity). This should be further investigated in randomized controlled trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0650_13044", "title": "[Therapeutic behavior to follow in the following clinical case: treatment of type 2 diabetes].", "score": 0.017677937316658947, "content": "A 62-year old woman with obesity, high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM2) was referred to a Vascular Risk Unit of the Internal Medicine Department due to elevated HbA1C (8.1%) in spite of having taken metformin (850 mg/12h) and glipizide (10 mg/12 h) regularly. She tries to exercise daily (walking 30 min) and has lost weight (from 5 to 12 kg) several times, but always regains what she has lost. Furthermore, she monitors her glucose levels in fasting every two weeks and generally has between 120 and 160 mg/dL. Her high blood pressure is being treated with enalapril/HCTZ and she also takes aspirin 100mg/day and simvastatin 20 mg/day. It is seen in her family background that one brother died suddenly at 50 years of age. Her physical examination shows a BMI of 32.4 Kg/m(2), and she has no edemas in the lower limbs. Her BP is 154/82 mmHg and creatinine 0.9 mg/dL. She has no microalbuminuria and her liver function is normal. What treatment do you think would be the more appropriate? 1 - Add glitazones. 2 - Add incretin mimetics (GLP 1/ DPP-4). 3 - Slow acting insulin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0571_137", "title": "Efficacy and safety of the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor, sitagliptin, in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus inadequately controlled on glimepiride alone or on glimepiride and metformin.", "score": 0.016403361344537813, "content": "To assess the efficacy and safety of a 24-week treatment with sitagliptin, a highly selective once-daily oral dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor, in patients with type 2 diabetes who had inadequate glycaemic control [glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA(1c)) &gt;or=7.5% and &lt;or=10.5%] while on glimepiride alone or in combination with metformin. After a screening, diet/exercise run-in and drug wash-off period, a glimepiride +/- metformin dose titration/stabilization period and a 2-week, single-blind placebo run-in, 441 patients (of ages 18-75 years) were randomized to receive the addition of sitagliptin 100 mg once daily or placebo in a 1 : 1 ratio for 24 weeks. Of these patients, 212 were on glimepiride (&gt;or=4 mg/day) monotherapy and 229 were on glimepiride (&gt;or=4 mg/day) plus metformin (&gt;or=1,500 mg/day) combination therapy. Patients exceeding pre-specified glycaemic thresholds during the double-blind treatment period were provided open-label rescue therapy (pioglitazone) until study end. The primary efficacy analysis evaluated the change in HbA(1c) from baseline to Week 24. Secondary efficacy endpoints included fasting plasma glucose (FPG), 2-h post-meal glucose and lipid measurements. Mean baseline HbA(1c) was 8.34% in the sitagliptin and placebo groups. After 24 weeks, sitagliptin reduced HbA(1c) by 0.74% (p &lt; 0.001) relative to placebo. In the subset of patients on glimepiride plus metformin, sitagliptin reduced HbA(1c) by 0.89% relative to placebo, compared with a reduction of 0.57% in the subset of patients on glimepiride alone. The addition of sitagliptin reduced FPG by 20.1 mg/dl (p &lt; 0.001) and increased homeostasis model assessment-beta, a marker of beta-cell function, by 12% (p &lt; 0.05) relative to placebo. In patients who underwent a meal tolerance test (n = 134), sitagliptin decreased 2-h post-prandial glucose (PPG) by 36.1 mg/dl (p &lt; 0.001) relative to placebo. The addition of sitagliptin was generally well tolerated, although there was a higher incidence of overall (60 vs. 47%) and drug-related adverse experiences (AEs) (15 vs. 7%) in the sitagliptin group than in the placebo group. This was largely because of a higher incidence of hypoglycaemia AEs (12 vs. 2%, respectively) in the sitagliptin group compared with the placebo group. Body weight modestly increased with sitagliptin relative to placebo (+0.8 vs. -0.4 kg; p &lt; 0.001). Sitagliptin 100 mg once daily significantly improved glycaemic control and beta-cell function in patients with type 2 diabetes who had inadequate glycaemic control with glimepiride or glimepiride plus metformin therapy. The addition of sitagliptin was generally well tolerated, with a modest increase in hypoglycaemia and body weight, consistent with glimepiride therapy and the observed degree of glycaemic improvement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0738_11529", "title": "Glimepiride: evidence-based facts, trends, and observations (GIFTS). [corrected].", "score": 0.015142857142857142, "content": "Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive β cell failure; therefore, β cell secretagogues are useful for achieving sufficient glycemic control. Glimepiride is a second-generation sulfonylurea that stimulates pancreatic β cells to release insulin. Additionally, is has been shown to work via several extra pancreatic mechanisms. It is administered as monotherapy in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus in whom glycemic control is not achieved by dietary and lifestyle modifications. It can also be combined with other antihyperglycemic agents, including metformin and insulin, in patients who are not adequately controlled by sulfonylureas alone. The effective dosage range is 1 to 8 mg/day; however, there is no significant difference between 4 and 8 mg/day, but it should be used with caution in the elderly and in patients with renal or hepatic disease. In clinical studies, glimepiride was generally associated with lower risk of hypoglycemia and less weight gain compared to other sulfonylureas. Glimepiride use may be safer in patients with cardiovascular disease because of its lack of detrimental effects on ischemic preconditioning. It is effective in reducing fasting plasma glucose, post-prandial glucose, and glycosylated hemoglobin levels and is a useful, cost-effective treatment option for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0772_21909", "title": "[A combination of dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor and metformin in the treatment of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus: effective control of glycemia, weight, and quantitative body composition].", "score": 0.013322120917057626, "content": "To study the impact of intensified therapy with the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor vilagliptin or sulfonylurea (SU) on the control of glycemia, weight, and quantitative body composition in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM-2) who have failed to achieve compensation during metformin monotherapy. Forty patients (mean age 55.0 (range 53.0-60.7) years; disease duration 2.0 (range 1.1-5.0) years) with poor glycemic control (7%&lt;HbA1c &lt;10%) during metformin monotherapy were allocated to 2 groups for 6-month therapy. In group 1 (n=20), vildagliptin 100 mg/day was added to metformin; in Group 2 (n=20), the latter was added by SU with its dose adjustment. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry was used to quantify body composition at baseline and after 6 months. The efficiency of glycemic control and adiponectin level changes was evaluated at baseline and after 3 and 6 months. Following 6 months of treatment, both groups achieved a comparable reduction in HbA1c levels; however, the number of glycemic episodes during SU treatment was found to be significantly higher. When vildagliptin was used in combination therapy, with the lean body mass being preserved, there was a statistically significant decrease in total body weight, body mass index (BMI), fat mass, and tissue fat percentage without considering bone mass, as well as waist circumference (WC), which was attended by an elevation of adiponectin levels. On the contrary, when SU therapy was intensified, total body weight, fat mass, BMI, and WC were statistically significantly increased and adiponectin levels remained unchanged. The glucose-lowering efficiency of combination therapy with metformin + vildagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, was comparable with that of a metformin + SU combination, but safer with respect to the risk of developing hypoglycemia. Addition of vildaglptin to metformin monotherapy may cause an additional favorable effect in reducing body weight at the expense of a fat component, with the lean body mass being preserved, and in elevating the level of adiponectin, an adipose tissue-derived antiatherogenic hormone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0768_21002", "title": "Rationale, design and baseline characteristics of a 4-year (208-week) phase III trial of empagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, versus glimepiride as add-on to metformin in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus with insufficient glycemic control.", "score": 0.013166894664842681, "content": "Sulfonylureas (SUs) are commonly used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes (T2DM), usually as second-line treatment after the failure of metformin. However, SUs are associated with poor durability, hypoglycemia and weight gain. Empagliflozin is a sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor in development for the treatment of T2DM. In Phase II/III trials, empagliflozin reduced hyperglycemia, body weight and blood pressure, with a low incidence of hypoglycemia. The aim of this Phase III study is to compare the effects of empagliflozin and the SU glimepiride as second-line therapy in patients with T2DM inadequately controlled with metformin immediate release (IR) and diet/exercise. After a 2-week placebo run-in, patients were randomized to receive empagliflozin 25 mg once daily (qd) or glimepiride 1-4 mg qd double-blind for 2 years, in addition to metformin IR. Patients who participate in the initial 2-year randomization period will be eligible for a 2-year double-blind extension. The primary endpoint is change from baseline in HbA1c. Secondary endpoints are change from baseline in body weight, the incidence of confirmed hypoglycemia and changes in systolic and diastolic blood pressure. Exploratory endpoints include markers of insulin secretion, body composition and responder analyses. Safety endpoints include the incidence of adverse events (AEs) (including macro- and microvascular adverse events) and changes from baseline in clinical laboratory parameters. Between August 2010 and June 2011, 1549 patients were randomized and 1545 patients were treated. At baseline, mean (SD) age was 55.9 (10.4) years, HbA1c was 7.92 (0.84)%, body mass index was 30.11 (5.59) kg/m², systolic blood pressure was 133.5 (15.9) mmHg and diastolic blood pressure was 79.5 (9.4) mmHg. This is the largest study to compare the efficacy and safety of an SGLT2 inhibitor with an SU in patients with T2DM inadequately controlled on metformin to date. In addition to determining the effects of these treatments on glycemic control over the long term, this study will investigate effects on beta-cell function, cardiovascular risk factors and markers of renal function/damage. The results will help to inform the choice of second-line treatment in patients with T2DM who have failed on metformin. Clinicaltrials.gov NCT01167881." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0766_23910", "title": "Combination Therapy with a Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitor, Sulfonylurea, and Metformin Markedly Improves HbA1c Levels in Japanese Patients with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.", "score": 0.012180046538685282, "content": "Combination therapy with a dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)-4 inhibitor and metformin or sulfonylurea results in substantial and additive glucose-lowering effects in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). However, it is not known whether triple combination therapy with a DPP-4 inhibitor, metformin, and sulfonylurea has greater additive effects or synergic effects. In the present report, we investigated the effect of addition of sitagliptin, the first-in-class DPP-4 inhibitor, to ongoing metformin and sulfonylurea therapy in three female Japanese patients with T2DM who refused insulin therapy. Combined treatment with all three drugs resulted in marked improvements in HbA1c. In the first patient, HbA1c levels decreased from 11.1% to 6.1% after the addition of sitagliptin to metformin 1000 mg, glibenclamide, and miglitol, even though the dose of glibenclamide was decreased. HbA1c levels decreased similarly in the second patient, who was being treated with metformin and glibenclamide, from 7.9% to 6.0% after addition of sitagliptin and an increase in metformin to 2250 mg; this patient ceased glibenclamide because of hypoglycemia and instead was started on low-dose glimepiride. In the third patient, HbA1c levels decreased from 8.6% to 7.1% after addition of glimepiride to ongoing sitagliptin and metformin therapy. All three patients had refused insulin therapy, despite the fact that ongoing combination therapy had failed to achieve satisfactory glycemic control. Based on these results, it is likely that the addition of sitagliptin to metformin and at least a small dose of sulfonylurea may be effective in reducing HbA1c levels without weight gain. This triple combination therapy may prove useful in at least some patients who need initiation of insulin therapy. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en607_26383", "title": "Pioglitazone/glimepiride", "score": 0.012176946250198193, "content": "Medical uses In the United States pioglitazone/glimepiride is indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus who are already treated with a thiazolidinedione and sulfonylurea or who have inadequate glycemic control on a thiazolidinedione alone or a sulfonylurea alone. In the European Union pioglitazone/glimepiride is indicated for the treatment of people with type 2 diabetes mellitus who show intolerance to metformin or for whom metformin is contraindicated and who are already treated with a combination of pioglitazone and glimepiride. References External links Anti-diabetic drugs" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_162161", "title": "Hyperglycemia", "score": 0.011023391812865498, "content": "In diabetes mellitus (by far the most common cause of chronic hyperglycemia), treatment aims at maintaining blood glucose at a level as close to normal as possible, in order to avoid serious long-term complications. This is done by a combination of proper diet, regular exercise, and insulin or other medication such as metformin, etc. Those with hyperglycaemia can be treated using sulphonylureas or metformin or both. These drugs help by improving glycaemic control. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor alone or in combination with basal insulin can be used as a treatment for hyperglycemia with patients still in hospital. Increasing aerobic exercise to at least 30 minutes will make better use of glucose accumulated in the body since glucose is being used for energy by the muscle. Calorie restriction would be one of the main lifestyle changes because it reduces over eating which contributes to hyperglycemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0534_2644", "title": "Comparative efficacy of glimepiride and/or metformin with insulin in type 2 diabetes.", "score": 0.010504086446163128, "content": "The data regarding comparison of efficacy of metformin with glimepiride, newest Sulfonylurea, or with the use of both drugs in combination with insulin is rare in the literature. Therefore, we assessed the daily insulin dose, hypoglycemic events and body weight on achieving desirable glycemic control after addition of insulin, to glimepiride 8 mg and/or metformin 2500 mg, in subjects with type 2 DM manifesting lapse of glycemic control. S.C. insulin Novolog Mix [70/30], pre-supper was initiated in 12 subjects on metformin, 14 subjects on glimepiride, and 12 subjects receiving both drugs, with HbA1C &gt; 7.5% and eight subjects receiving placebo. Insulin dose was increased by 4 U at weekly interval until fasting blood sugar [FBS] between 6.6 and 8 mM/l was attained and then further titrated by 2 U every week to attain and maintain FBS between 4.5 and 6.7 mM/l over the next 4 months. The comparisons were conducted between these groups for HbA1C, the daily insulin dose, body weight noted at the end of this study period as well as the hypoglycemic episodes per patient during the last 4 weeks of the study period. HbA1C levels were &lt; 7.0% in all subjects at the end of the study. The daily insulin dose (units), total and per kg/BW was significantly lower [p &lt; 0.001] with metformin (51 +/- 5, 0.51 +/- 0.10), glimepiride (40 +/- 4, 0.42 +/- 0.09) as well as with both drugs (23 +/- 7, 0.21 +/- 0.07) in comparison to placebo (82 +/- 10, 0.82 +/- 0.12). The insulin dose was also significantly lower [p &lt; 0.05] in subjects on both drugs than subjects receiving them individually. Weight gain was less [p &lt; 0.001] with metformin [2.5 +/- 0.74 kg], glimepiride [2.3 +/- 0.7 kg], and both drugs [2.2 +/- 0.61 kg] in comparison to placebo [5.2 +/- 1.4 kg] whereas the hypoglycemic episodes were lesser with metformin (3.8 +/- 1.2) and glimepiride (3.3 +/- 0.9) and least with both drugs (2.5 +/- 0.6) in comparison to placebo (5.2 +/- 1.0). Glimepiride and metformin are effective individually in achieving a glycemic goal with a less daily insulin dose, weight gain, and hypoglycemic episodes in comparison to insulin monotherapy in subjects with type 2 diabetes mellitus with further marked reduction in these parameters when used concurrently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0803_19538", "title": "Glycemic control: a combination of lifestyle management and the use of drugs.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Some 30% of contemporary cardiology patients have coexisting known diabetes, and another 40% have either undiagnosed diabetes or prediabetes. There is still no final conclusive evidence of cardiovascular benefit by good glycemic control in type 2 diabetes, although studies like the United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) and the Prospective Pioglitazone Clinical Trial in Macrovascular Events, and meta-analyses based on these and other randomized controlled trials of blood glucose-lowering therapies have been encouraging. On the other hand, microvascular disease is clearly reduced by good glycemic control. Structured education has remained a mandatory prerequisite of any successful treatment. Not only is appropriate weight management by diet and exercise able to revert new onset diabetes to normal, but it is also the foundation of any successful pharmacotherapy of diabetes. Aiming at normal fasting plasma glucose concentrations of 5.3 mmol/L or 95 mg/dL appears to be safe since publication of the long-term outcome results of the Outcome Reduction with an Initial Glargine INtervention trial. Individualized target glycosylated hemoglobin levels as near to normal as safely possible (i.e., &lt;7% and avoiding hypoglycaemia) are the goal for glycemic control. Hypoglycemia seems to emerge as a real concern in cardiology patients. Based on the findings of UKPDS, including the \"legacy\" study, metformin is the most widely recommended first-line drug therapy in type 2 diabetes, also in terms of preventing cardiovascular complications. An alternate first-line option in some parts of the world, especially Asian countries, is the class of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. In most patients, combination therapies with two or three classes of drugs are warranted. Early combination are the golden strategy as type 2 diabetes is a multi-causal disease; the various classes of drugs have distinct and synergistic modes of action, and the blood glucose-lowering efficacy of these drugs is more or less fully maintained in combination. The recent joint American Diabetes Association/European Association for the Study of Diabetes position statement mentions five options as step two of the treatment algorithm for combination with metformin: sulfonylureas, pioglitazone, dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors, glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists, and basal insulin. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_19470", "title": "Glycemic control with diet, sulfonylurea, metformin, or insulin in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus: progressive requirement for multiple therapies (UKPDS 49). UK Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) Group.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Treatment with diet alone, insulin, sulfonylurea, or metformin is known to improve glycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, but which treatment most frequently attains target fasting plasma glucose (FPG) concentration of less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) or glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) below 7% is unknown. To assess how often each therapy can achieve the glycemic control target levels set by the American Diabetes Association. Randomized controlled trial conducted between 1977 and 1997. Patients were recruited between 1977 and 1991 and were followed up every 3 months for 3, 6, and 9 years after enrollment. Outpatient diabetes clinics in 15 UK hospitals. A total of 4075 patients newly diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes ranged in age between 25 and 65 years and had a median (interquartile range) FPG concentration of 11.5 (9.0-14.4) mmol/L [207 (162-259) mg/dL], HbA1c levels of 9.1% (7.5%-10.7%), and a mean (SD) body mass index of 29 (6) kg/m2. After 3 months on a low-fat, high-carbohydrate, high-fiber diet, patients were randomized to therapy with diet alone, insulin, sulfonylurea, or metformin. Fasting plasma glucose and HbA1c levels, and the proportion of patients who achieved target levels below 7% HbA1c or less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) FPG at 3, 6, or 9 years following diagnosis. The proportion of patients who maintained target glycemic levels declined markedly over 9 years of follow-up. After 9 years of monotherapy with diet, insulin, or sulfonylurea, 8%, 42%, and 24%, respectively, achieved FPG levels of less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) and 9%, 28%, and 24% achieved HbA1c levels below 7%. In obese patients randomized to metformin, 18% attained FPG levels of less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) and 13% attained HbA1c levels below 7%. Patients less likely to achieve target levels were younger, more obese, or more hyperglycemic than other patients. Each therapeutic agent, as monotherapy, increased 2- to 3-fold the proportion of patients who attained HbA1c below 7% compared with diet alone. However, the progressive deterioration of diabetes control was such that after 3 years approximately 50% of patients could attain this goal with monotherapy, and by 9 years this declined to approximately 25%. The majority of patients need multiple therapies to attain these glycemic target levels in the longer term." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0686_20725", "title": "Evaluation of efficacy and tolerability of glimepiride and metformin combination: a multicentric study in patients with type-2 diabetes mellitus, uncontrolled on monotherapy with sulfonylurea or metformin.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The objectives of this study were to evaluate the efficacy and tolerability of glimepiride plus extended release metformin (MET) on glycemic control in patients with type-2 diabetes mellitus uncontrolled on monotherapy with sulfonylurea or MET. This was a prospective, open-labeled, multicentric study over 12 weeks. Patients who were diagnosed with type-2 diabetes and were uncontrolled on monotherapy with single oral hypoglycemic agents such as glimepiride or MET and characterized by glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) ≥7% and ≤10% and fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥ 140 mg/dL were enrolled in this study. Treatment regimen was started at 1 mg of glimepiride plus 500 mg of MET once a day and was titrated to next dose level depending on the clinician's judgment, not exceeding a total daily dose of 8 mg of glimepiride and 2000 mg of MET. After 12-weektreatment, glimepiride plus MET combination showed improvement in metabolic control as assessed by changes in HbA1c, FPG, and post prandial glucose (PPG). Primary efficacy parameter, HbA1c, was significantly reduced to (7.65 ± 1.70) at the end of the treatment from the baseline value (8.35 ± 0.93) (P &lt; 0.001). Of the patients, 65.79% showed ≥0.5% reduction in HbA1c and or HbA1c &lt;7% at the end of the therapy. FPG and PPG were significantly reduced at the end of the therapy as compared with baseline values (P &lt; 0.001). Moreover, the lipid profile was also improved during the treatment period. The addition of glimepiride to MET is an effective treatment for patients inadequately controlled on sulfonylurea or Met alone. A combination of glimepiride with MET achieves good glycemic control with better tolerability profile." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1058_25724", "title": "[Starting insulin or not? And if so, which basal insulin?]", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 55-year-old patient with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 is referred for uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus. His HbA1c-concentration is 71 mmol/mol, despite an initial 8% weight loss and treatment with metformin and glimepiride. The general practitioner proposes to start with insulin, but the patient refuses. We discuss whether there is a good alternative for insulin such as more weight loss and the addition of more drugs. Our patient then changes his mind and agrees to start insulin treatment. Basal insulin is usually recommended in cases like this.Since there are no significant differences between different types of available basal insulin, it seems reasonable to take price into account. Our patient achieved reasonable glucose control without weight gain using a combination of basal insulin and a GLP-1 receptor agonist." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en373_11843", "title": "Gemigliptin", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Glycemic variability and chronic sustained hyperglycemia are the main components of dysglycemia in diabetes. The previous studies suggested that different pharmacodynamic profiles between DPP-4 inhibitors have been associated with the different effects on glycemic variability. In this study, a multicenter, randomized, active-controlled, parallel group, open-label, exploratory study was designed to evaluate the efficacy on glycemic variability and safety of initial combination therapy of gemigliptin 50 mg qd versus sitagliptin 100 mg qd, or glimepiride 2 mg qd with metformin in patients with T2DM (study identifier: LG-DPCL012, STABLE study; ClinicalTrials.gov registration number: NCT01890629). The mean amplitude of glycemic excursions (MAGE) and SD of glucose were used for assessing glucose fluctuations from the baseline after 12 weeks of treatment. At 12 weeks, MAGE was significantly lower in the DPP-4 inhibitor groups (gemigliptin and sitagliptin) than in the glimepiride group" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0827_15341", "title": "[Treatment of elderly diabetic patients].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Type 2 diabetes has become a pandemic disease over the past 50 years. Its incidence increases the most rapidly in the senior population, i.e. among people older than 65. In a number of countries 1/4 of the people with diabetes are now older than 65 years. Geriatrics now examines numerous differences regarding the senior patients, which often lead to somewhat different therapeutic procedures as compared to the treatment of other adult patients. This paper aims to show some different aspects of the treatment of an elderly patient with diabetes. The intensity of diabetes treatment in the elderly is mainly defined by the incidence of symptoms caused by diabetic decompensation which negatively affect quality of life and are likely to increase mortality. The treatment goals expressed by HbA1c, fasting and post-prandial glycemia, should be set individually based on age, initial HbA1c, present comorbidities and the level of frailty of an elderly patient. An effort to reduce weight regarding people at an older age is probably inappropriate and maybe even harmful, while physical activity reduces mortality and slows muscle catabolism at every age. Ideal is normal walking for 20-30 minutes a day. Except for \"very fit elders\" without renal insufficiency, the sulfonylurea treatment is unsuitable and perhaps even harmful. It significantly increases the incidence of different types of hypoglycemia and very likely overall mortality as well. The basis of diabetes treatment for the elderly is the effort to perform any regular exercise. In regard to medication treatment it is recommended to choose metformin or gliptin following the rule \"start low, go slow\", i.e. start with low medication doses and increase them at a slow pace. The main goal of the treatment is to maintain the good quality of life as long as possible, without symptoms associated with hyperglycemia with minimizing the risk of hypoglycemia development." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0662_6687", "title": "Probable hypoglycemic adverse drug reaction associated with prickly pear cactus, glipizide, and metformin in a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To report a case of an adverse drug reaction (ADR) in a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus taking prickly pear cactus (PPC), glipizide, and metformin. A 58-year-old Mexican male with type 2 diabetes mellitus being treated with metformin 1000 mg twice daily and extended-release glipizide 10 mg daily was referred to the pharmacist for medication education. He denied taking herbal supplements or experiencing hypoglycemia. Two hemoglobin A(1c) values (6.8% and 6.7%) obtained over the past year demonstrated glycemic control, which was supported by his reported fasting blood glucose readings of 113-132 mg/dL. One month later, the patient reported 4 hypoglycemic events with blood glucose readings of 49-68 mg/dL, which resulted in discontinuation of glipizide. One month later, the patient denied any further hypoglycemia. During medication reconciliation he reported consuming crude PPC pads daily for 2 months for glucose control. Literature suggests that PPC has an effect on lowering blood glucose levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, although few identified data describe ADRs from combining PPC with other agents used in treating type 2 diabetes mellitus. A literature search of MEDLINE (through December 2009) using the search terms diabetes mellitus, prickly pear cactus, nopal, opuntia, metformin, glipizide, glyburide, glimepiride, and sulfonylurea revealed no case reports of the described ADR. One case report describing the blood glucose-lowering effect of PPC in a patient concurrently taking oral antihyperglycemics documented an episode of hypoglycemia, although the Naranjo probability scale was not applied. One patient survey discovered the most common drug-herbal interaction in the given population to be between PPC and antihyperglycemic agents, resulting in hypoglycemia. In our case, use of the Naranjo probability scale suggests the ADR to be probable. The mechanism may be due to the additive glucose lowering of the 3 agents consumed concurrently by the patient. Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should be routinely counseled about the use of herbal products to minimize the risk of ADRs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_16541", "title": "[Towards new recommendations for the treatment of type 2 diabetes? An expert's point of view].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Type 2 diabetes is growing rapidly, as its cost and the daily concern of general practitioners. Many treatment advances are now available and many more are in development. Currently the drugs based on the \"incretin\" phenomenon are the more recent and innovative (tree different DPP-inhibitors and two GLP1 analogues) with a specific benefit, no hypoglycemic attacks and a better body weight control. Thus the recommendations for the management of hyperglycaemia are becoming increasingly complex and difficult to write. The first recommendation is to not drift HbAlc, the second, is to use metformin as first line treatment for most patients in the absence of intolerance. The delay in passing to combination (two 0ADs) remains excessive; it must be done without delay at 6.5 or 7% HbA1c. There are four possible combinations today (acarbose, sulfonylureas, gliptins, glitazones). Then, one can choose between triple oral therapy, insulin and GLP1 analogues. Deciding who needs what becomes more difficult regarding the different phenotypes and specificities of each patient, the economic considerations and the benefit/risk of the different classes or strategies. Thereby, recommendations cannot enter so many details and strategies. The need for continuing medical education and the referral to diabetologist more often is becoming essential." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27923", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009504360936694848, "content": "Considerable clinical experience exists with metformin and sulfonylureas because they have been available for several decades. It is assumed that the α-glucosidase inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, DPP-IV inhibitors, thiazolidinediones, and SLGT2 inhibitors will reduce DM-related complications by improving glycemic control, but longterm data are not yet available. The thiazolidinediones are theoretically attractive because they target a fundamental abnormality in type 2 DM, namely insulin resistance. However, all of these agents are currently more costly than metformin and sulfonylureas. Patient with type 2 diabetes Individualized glycemic goal Medical nutrition therapy, increased physical activity, weight loss + metformin" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_2291", "title": "Diabetes mellitus in the young: Gliptins or sulfonylurea after metformin?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Diagnosis and initial management of diabetes mellitus (DM) in the young are clinical dilemma. Gliptins may be a safer and more effective option than sulfonylureas. Few Indian studies have addressed this issue of clinical relevance. To compare the use of sitagliptin and glimepiride as early add-on drugs along with metformin in young patients with DM to achieve optimum glycemic targets. This was a prospective, open-label, cohort study set in a tertiary care hospital in North India. Newly diagnosed patients of DM ≤35 year of age were initially treated to pre-defined glycemic goals (Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) 70-130, post prandial glucose (PPG) &lt; 180 mg/dl) with insulin and metformin 1 g for 8 weeks. Insulin was discontinued and metformin increased to 2 g daily for next 4 weeks. Thereafter, glimepiride 1 mg or sitagliptin 100 mg was randomly added to those who were not maintaining the set glucose targets. Dose of glimepiride was uptitrated every 4 weeks upto a maximum of 4 mg. Three groups (Gp A: Metfromin 2 g/d, Gp B: Metformin 2 g + Glimepiride 1-4 mg/d, and Gp C: Metformin 2 g + sitagliptin 100 mg/d) were followed up over next 24 weeks. They were compared for glycemic control and weight change. Those failing therapy on these drugs (FPG &gt; 180, PPG &gt; 250 mg/dl with/without catabolic symptoms/ketosis) were withdrawn. Sitagliptin with metfromin and metfromin alone group fared better than the glimepiride group for glycemic control, lesser treatment failures, and less weight gain. In this limited study, we found that sitagliptin is a safer and more effective option in young, newly diagnosed patients with DM. Findings of this study are relevant for clinical practice in Indian setting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0757_14190", "title": "[Management of type 2 diabetes: new or previous agents, how to choose?].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Once lifestyle measures implemented, if hyperglycemia persists, above individual HbA1c targets, a medication should be started in type 2 diabetic patients (T2DM). First, unless exception, an oral antidiabetic drug. Except in case of intolerance, the initial monotherapy, metformin remains the strengthening treatment. Latter, combination of two oral drugs, now offers several options, mainly the choice to associate a \"conventional insulin-secretor\", sulfonylureas, glinide, or a \"new one\" belonging the class of \"incretin\", more readily a gliptine (DPP-4 inhibitors) rather than injectable GLP-1 analogue which can also be sometimes chosen at this stage. These options are mostly new and have the advantage a neutral or favourable (for GLP-1) effect on body weight in obese type 2 DM patient and the absence of any hypoglycaemic risk in both classes of incretins. But this risk varies depending on the patient profile, much higher if the target HbA1c is low (6 to 6.5 or 7%), or in the elderly, fragile and/or in case of renal insufficiency. These two different situations with a high risk of hypoglycaemia, define best indications of this new class. If dual oral therapy does not achieve the goals we are faced with three options: triple oral therapy: metformin-sulfonylurea-gliptine or one of two approaches with injections, insulin or GLP-1 analogues. The use of GLP-1 analogues is often delayed today and put wrongly in balance with the transition to insulin, a use already delayed in France and insufficient. The use of incretins is new and needs to be validated by studies of sustainability on glycemic control, prevention of microvascular and macrovascular complications and after years on the market security of use, primarily on the exocrine pancreas. In short, individualization of strategies and HbA1c targets are required, the new molecules can help us in this process. This individualization can easily be done through the handy guide proposed by the experts ADA EASD statement, endorsed by the SFD, abandoning the complex algorithm recently again proposed by HAS and ANSM in 2013. A recommendation that prioritizes the costs of the strategies. An absolutely critical issue, while admitting not to have the tools to measure them in all their dimensions. Finally, we must reconsider every treatment after a maximum of 6 months of use, if the results are deemed inadequate substitute rather than adding drugs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_34864", "title": "Diabetes management", "score": 0.009349534924675407, "content": "\"Perfect glycemic control\" would mean that glucose levels were always normal (70–130 mg/dl, or 3.9–7.2 mmol/L) and indistinguishable from a person without diabetes. In reality, because of the imperfections of treatment measures, even \"good glycemic control\" describes blood glucose levels that average somewhat higher than normal much of the time. In addition, one survey of type 2 diabetics found that they rated the harm to their quality of life from intensive interventions to control their blood sugar to be just as severe as the harm resulting from intermediate levels of diabetic complications. In the 1990s the American Diabetes Association conducted a publicity campaign to persuade patients and physicians to strive for average glucose and hemoglobin A1c values below 200 mg/dl (11 mmol/l) and 8%. Currently, many patients and physicians attempt to do better than that." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en416_22141", "title": "Diabetes", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Diagnosis Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with a test for the glucose content in the blood, and is diagnosed by demonstrating any one of the following: Fasting plasma glucose level ≥ 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). For this test, blood is taken after a period of fasting, i.e. in the morning before breakfast, after the patient had sufficient time to fast overnight. Plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) two hours after a 75 gram oral glucose load as in a glucose tolerance test (OGTT) Symptoms of high blood sugar and plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) either while fasting or not fasting Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1C) ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_24403", "title": "[Oral antidiabetic therapy].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Consistent antihyperglycaemic treatment for preventing vascular complications in type 2 diabetes mellitus (2DM) often require the application of several measures. The basis of such treatment should be dietary changes and increased physical exercise. The target of antiglycemic treatment is the reduction of HbA1c to below 6.5%. Regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months is reasonable in order to recognize therapeutic failure early and adapt treatment accordingly. Metformin is the drug of first choice for the oral treatment of 2DM, once possible contraindications having been excluded. The advantage of glinides, compared with sulfonylureas, is mainly in allowing greater dietary flexibility. Although not finally decided, there are ever fewer objections against combined metformin and sulphonylurea treatment. The current guidelines of the (British)National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) specifically recommend this combination treatment. There are pointers to glitazone having protective effects in 2DM beyond its blood-sugar lowering action. However, the clinical significance of these effects requires confirmation. If adequate blood-sugar reduction cannot be achieved with oral medication it is important to initiate insulin administration as soon as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1028_12669", "title": "Clinical Review: Safety and Efficacy Comparison between Sulfonylureas and Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitors as Second-Line Therapies in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "According to the World Health Organization (WHO), diabetes mellitus is considered the 7th leading cause of death as of 2016, while almost half of all deaths related to high blood glucose occur before the age of 70. According to the 2019 American Diabetes Association's (ADA) guidelines, metformin is the firstline treatment for patients with Type 2 diabetes. Additional therapy is dependent on multiple patient-specific factors, including cardiovascular risks, risk of hypoglycemia, metabolic changes, and cost. The objective of this systematic review is to analyze variables of interest in Type 2 diabetes including fasting blood glucose (FBG), post-prandial blood glucose (PPBG), hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), microvascular complications, and cardiovascular outcomes in order to determine the shift towards the newer class of medications for type 2 diabetes. A systematic review was conducted using ScienceDirect as the primary source of obtaining articles. This review used PRISMA for reporting and GRACE for quality assessment of ten articles. The inclusion criteria for the review consisted of patients who were on metformin therapy for a sufficient amount of time, as defined by the trial's protocol, and who were then initiated on either a sulfonylurea (glipizide or glimepiride) or a DPP-4 inhibitor (saxagliptin or linagliptin). The articles included in this review range from 2005-2019 that are written in English only. Exclusion criteria for this systematic review were articles in which patients were not initially started on metformin therapy, were diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus, and articles that were written in languages other than English. After filtering 50 studies, 10 were selected for meeting the criteria of variables of interest. Findings suggested a significant reduction in fasting plasma glucose with 154 mg/dL + 4 mg/dL as baseline, decreasing to 132 mg/dL + 4 mg/dL with the use of glipizide &amp; metformin combination. A similar pattern was presented with the use of saxagliptin and metformin in combination, but changes were less significant than glipizide. However, hypoglycemic events in patients who were taking glipizide with metformin versus saxagliptin with metformin; 13.4% of patients achieved HbA1c &lt;7% without hypoglycemic events compared to 22.2% of the patients who achieved an HbA1c of &lt;7% without hypoglycemic events. Despite the higher efficacious characteristics of sulfonylureas in lowering HbA1c, due to its reported hypoglycemic effects, DPP-4 inhibitors may be considered as a clinically stable choice for second-line therapy after completing maximally tolerated doses of metformin. Sulfonylureas are considered better than DPP-4 inhibitors for treatment in patients with cardiovascular disease history and hypoglycemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_6681", "title": "Effect of noninsulin antidiabetic drugs added to metformin therapy on glycemic control, weight gain, and hypoglycemia in type 2 diabetes.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Metformin is the recommended initial drug therapy for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). However, the optimal second-line drug when metformin monotherapy fails is unclear. To determine the comparative efficacy, risk of weight gain, and hypoglycemia associated with noninsulin antidiabetic drugs in patients with type 2 DM not controlled by metformin alone. A literature search via MEDLINE (beginning in January 1950) and Cochrane CENTRAL through January 2010 and a manual search of references for additional relevant studies. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) with at least 3 months' duration, evaluating noninsulin antidiabetic drugs added to metformin in patients experiencing an inadequate response to maximized and stable (&gt; or = 4 weeks at &gt; or = 1500 mg or maximally tolerated dose) metformin therapy. Inclusion/exclusion criteria; duration of patient follow-up; drug, dose, and schedule used; use of concurrent lifestyle modification; and baseline characteristics (age, sex, anthropometrics, glycated hemoglobin A(1c) [HbA(1c)], duration of DM, and metformin dose). End points collected included mean change in HbA(1c), proportion of patients achieving HbA(1c) goal of less than 7%, change in weight, and incidence of hypoglycemia. Mixed-treatment comparison meta-analysis was used to calculate the weighted mean difference for changes from baseline in HbA(1c) and body weight and relative risk (RR) of HbA(1c) goal attainment and hypoglycemia, with associated 95% credible intervals. Overall, 27 RCTs (n = 11 198) were included. Mean (range) trial duration was 32 (12-52) weeks. The different classes of drugs were associated with similar HbA(1c) reductions (range, 0.64%-0.97%) compared with placebo. Although use of thiazolidinediones, sulfonylureas, and glinides were associated with weight gain (range, 1.77-2.08 kg), glucagon-like peptide-1 analogs, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors were associated with weight loss or no weight change. Sulfonylureas and glinides were associated with higher rates of hypoglycemia than with placebo (RR range, 4.57-7.50). When added to maximal metformin therapy, all noninsulin antidiabetic drugs were associated with similar HbA(1c) reductions but differed in their associations with weight gain and risk of hypoglycemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0758_21568", "title": "A novel cobiotic containing a prebiotic and an antioxidant augments the glucose control and gastrointestinal tolerability of metformin: a case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The gut microbiome plays an important role in regulation of metabolic processes, including digestion, absorption, and synthesis of bioactive molecules that signal physiological host mechanisms. Changes in the human gut microbiome are associated with type 2 diabetes and insulin resistance. Water-soluble dietary fibres like inulin and beta-glucan are fermented in the colon, and beta-glucan increases viscosity. Blueberries improve insulin sensitivity through an antioxidant effect. A cobiotic, consisting of purified inulin, sugar-free blueberry pomace extract, and an oat preparation of purified beta-glucan was developed for twice a day (bid) consumption as a smoothie drink to repair the gastrointestinal dysbiosis in type 2 diabetes. A 30-year-old man presented with new onset type 2 diabetes and a fasting glucose (FBS) of 375 mg/dl. Metformin 500 mg bid was initiated and increased to 1 g bid after 1 week. During the first 9 days of metformin treatment, he developed diarrhoea, but his FBS only dropped to 325 mg/dl. The cobiotic bid was added on the 9th day of metformin treatment, and after 2 days, his FBS dropped to 175 mg/dl. After 8 weeks on metformin and the cobiotic, his blood sugar was 100 mg/dl and he lost 5.5 kg. His stools became soft and formed on the cobiotic, reverted to diarrhoea when off of it for 2 days, and returned to normal on resuming the cobiotic formulation. Metformin is a safe, effective and inexpensive generic medication favouring weight loss, recommended as initial treatment of type 2 diabetes by the American Diabetes Association. However, a 20% incidence of diarrhoea limits its tolerability. A safe food supplement that can increase the efficacy of metformin and its tolerability, as occurred in this case report, would have significant positive public health consequences. A controlled clinical trial of the cobiotic with metformin is planned. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0769_16870", "title": "What are the preferred strategies for control of glycaemic variability in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus?", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The aim of therapy in type 2 diabetes in terms of blood glucose control is to reduce to target levels HbA1c and to reduce glycaemic variability in order to avoid both hypoglycaemia and wide excursions of postprandial glucose. The first approach to reduce glycaemic variability should consider a dietary and behavioural approach aiming to limit the glycaemic index and the glycaemic load of food and the prescription and implementation of a physical activity plan appropriate for the subject. From the pharmacological point of view, the diabetes specialist has now a much richer therapeutic armamentarium. The therapeutic algorithms can help the physician to choose the most appropriate drug. The traditional approach involves: i) metformin, acting mainly on fasting blood glucose; ii) sulphonylureas, that have shown a number of drawbacks, including the high risk of hypoglycemia; iii) pioglitazone, with a substantial effect on fasting and postprandial glucose and a low risk of hypoglycaemia; iv) insulin, that can be utilized with the basal or prandial approach. The new drugs belonging to the class of dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors have shown the reduction of postprandial glucose, a neutral effect on weight increase, a good safety profile and preliminary positive cardiovascular effects. When excess weight prevails, the glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists may be the preferred choice for their effect on weight reduction, reduction of hyperinsulinism and glycaemic variability. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_2074", "title": "Effects of replacing metformin with pioglitazone on glycemic control in japanese patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus: A 12-week, open-label, prospective study.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Insulin resistance is a critical aspect of the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is also associated with other risk factors for cardiovascular disease (eg, dyslipidemia and hypertension). Accordingly, insulin resistance is a possible target for lowering plasma glucose concentration and preventing diabetic macroangiopathy. Biguanides, such as metformin, and thiazolidinediones (TZDs), such as pioglitazone, improve insulin resistance. The aims of this study were to assess the effects of replacing a biguanide with a TZD on glycemic control in patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and also to identify the factors affecting interpatient variation in the effects of treatment change. This was a 12-week, open-label, prospective study in which previously prescribed metformin (500 or 750 mg/d) was replaced with pioglitazone (15 or 30 mg/d) in patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) concentration &gt;7% despite treatment with diet, exercise, and hypoglycemic agents other than TZDs were eligible for the study. Patients who never received TZDs were also eligible for inclusion. Vital signs, metabolic parameters, and arterial stiffness were assessed at baseline and after 12 weeks of treatment with pioglitazone. The primary end point was change in HbA1c concentration after replacing metformin with pioglitazone. Tolerability was assessed by medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests (aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase). Twenty-one Japanese patients (15 women, 6 men; mean [SD] age, 61.8 [8.4] years; body mass index, 25.5 [3.0] kg/m(2)) were included in the study. HbA1c concentration was not significantly changed from baseline after 12 weeks of pioglitazone treatment (8.0% [0.7%] vs 8.2% [0.7%]). Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) concentration also was not significantly changed after the replacement of treatment (156 [27] vs 144 [30] mg/dL). In addition, the resistin concentration did not change significantly from baseline after 12 weeks of pioglitazone treatment (6.6 [3.8] vs 6.4 [3.6] ng/mL). In contrast, significant improvement from baseline was observed in triglyceride (TG) concentrations (157 [109] vs 117 [68] mg/dL; P = 0.003), high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) (55 [12] vs 61 [16] mg/dL; P = 0.016), remnant-like particle cholesterol (6.6 [6.0] vs 5.3 [3.5] mg/dL; P = 0.048), and serum adiponectin (8.8 [4.3] vs 23.3 [11.7] μg/mL; P &lt; 0.001). Pulse wave velocity was also significantly improved (1730 [361] vs 1622 [339] m/sec; P = 0.009). Changes in HbA1c were significantly correlated with serum fasting insulin concentration at baseline in the patients not receiving insulin preparations (r = -0.635, P = 0.013). The percentage change in serum adiponectin concentration was correlated with the percentage changes in HbA1c and FPG concentrations (HbA1c, r = -0.518, P = 0.019; FPG, r = -0.594, P = 0.006). Body weight was significantly increased after treatment (62.6 [11.9] vs 65.5 [12.2] kg; P &lt; 0.001). Mild edema was reported in 5 patients. One patient discontinued treatment due to an increase in serum creatine kinase activity to ~6.6 times the upper limit of normal. Replacement of metformin with pioglitazone did not produce significant differences in HbA1c and FPG concentrations from baseline after 12 weeks of treatment in these patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, the replacement was effective in a subset of patients whose serum insulin concentrations were high or whose serum adiponectin concentrations were sensitive to TZDs. In addition, the replacement was associated with significant improvements in TG, HDL-C, serum adiponectin concentration, pulse wave velocity, and body weight increase from baseline." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0900_4966", "title": "Impact of health policy and practice on finding the best fit for patients with type 2 diabetes after metformin failure: Croatian pilot study.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We assessed the impact of clinical practice and health policy on the choice and efficacy of different second-line therapies for the treatment of type 2 diabetes (T2DM) after failure of metformin. This retrospective database analysis included 200 patients with a follow-up period of 6 months. The primary end-point was achievement of HbA1c &lt;7% and fasting (FBG) and postprandial glucose levels (PPG) &lt;7.2mmol/L and &lt;10mmol/L, respectively after three and six months of different add-on treatments. Secondary end-points were weight change during treatment and incidence of hypoglycemia. All second-line therapeutic options, except human basal insulin (BHI) and thiazolidendions (TZD) significantly increased the proportion of patients reaching target HbA1c after 6 months (p&lt;0.01). Only sulfonylurea (SU) and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors significantly reduced all monitored parameters of glucoregulation without changing body weight and BMI after 3 and 6 months as opposed to insulin agents. However, there were no statistically significant differences between the groups when adjusting for starting HbA1c, FBG and PPG (F=1.16, p=NS), although a statistically significant difference in HbA1c levels (F=3.35, p&lt;0.01) persisted in DPP-4 inhibitor users. The incidence of hypoglycemia was significantly higher in patients treated with NPH insulin and premixed insulin than in patients treated with other agents. A more aggressive approach is needed with early treatment intensification using available agents." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27924", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009036804439900688, "content": "Patient with type 2 diabetes Individualized glycemic goal Medical nutrition therapy, increased physical activity, weight loss + metformin Insulin + metformin Reassess HbA1c Reassess HbA1c Reassess HbA1c Combination therapy -metformin + second agent Combination therapy -metformin + two other agents FIGURE 418-3 Glycemic management of type 2 diabetes. See text for discussion of treatment of severe hyperglycemia or symptomatic hyperglycemia. Agents that can be combined with metformin include insulin secretagogues, thiazolidinediones, α-glucosidase inhibitors, DPP-IV inhibitors, GLP-1 receptor agonists, SLGT2 inhibitors, and insu-lin. HbA1c, hemoglobin HbA1c." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0752_13018", "title": "Glimepiride strongly enhances the glucose-lowering effect in triple oral antidiabetes therapy with sitagliptin and metformin for Japanese patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "After approval of sitagliptin and &gt;750 mg of metformin in Japan, a triple oral antidiabetes drug (OAD) regimen including sulfonylurea, metformin, and sitagliptin was sometimes described. However, in the real world of clinical practice, the daily dose of sulfonylurea tended to be decreased according to the warning from the Japan Diabetes Society for avoiding hypoglycemia, instead of increasing the dose of metformin for maintaining hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) levels with this regimen. This study examined the impact of either a small dose of glimepiride or a high dose of metformin on HbA1c in triple OAD therapy with sitagliptin in a 3-month, single-center, open-label, randomized controlled study. Fifty-six type 2 diabetes mellitus patients who had been treated with 50 mg of sitagliptin, ≥ 1,000 mg of metformin, and ≤ 1 mg of glimepiride with an HbA1c level of &lt;7.4% during at least 3 months were enrolled in the study. The patients were randomly assigned to two treatment groups who either received a 50% reduced dose of metformin (n = 27) or discontinued glimepiride (n = 29), while sitagliptin administration continued in both groups. Twenty-six patients from the reduced metformin group and 27 patients from the discontinued glimepiride group completed the study. Significantly greater changes were observed in HbA1c and glycated albumin levels in patients who discontinued glimepiride than in patients with a 50% reduced metformin dose, during the 2-3-month period than in the 1-3-month period. Glimepiride is important for good glycemic control in triple OAD therapy with sitaglitpin and metformin. This regimen may be useful for those patients who do not achieve satisfactory glycemic control with dual combination therapy." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 867, 1119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 149, 196 ] ], "text": "Applying the general rules of response in the MIR, if two options are similar except in one detail, the correct one is one of these, so we would mark 5 (and this is what would be done in any hospital nowadays: a suboccluded artery is dilated directly)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 461, 503 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 73, 81 ] ], "text": "2 is absurd: sitting down to avoid angina?" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 594, 711 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 96, 117 ] ], "text": "since it is a single vessel and not a proximal LAD, revascularization would have to be percutaneous, so we discard 3." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 712, 827 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 117, 140 ] ], "text": "Between 4 and 5, the fifth is more complete: not only would it be necessary to dilate, but also to implant a stent." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 867, 1119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 149, 196 ] ], "text": "Applying the general rules of response in the MIR, if two options are similar except in one detail, the correct one is one of these, so we would mark 5 (and this is what would be done in any hospital nowadays: a suboccluded artery is dilated directly)." } }

{ "1": "Medical with vasodilators and beta-blockers to avoid angina.", "2": "Expectorant with rigorous rest, since decreasing myocardial oxygen demand should decrease angina.", "3": "Surgical revascularization of the ischemic myocardium by means of a left mammary artery bypass distal to the lesion in the diseased coronary artery.", "4": "Dilatation of the coronary artery lesion by therapeutic catheterization.", "5": "Therapeutic catheterization to dilate the lesion of the diseased artery and implantation of a stent in the dilated area." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en010_91445", "title": "Coronary artery bypass surgery", "score": 0.015901482544237205, "content": "Efficacy The 2004 ACC/AHA CABG guidelines state CABG is the preferred treatment for: Disease of the left main coronary artery (LMCA). Disease of all three coronary arteries (LAD, LCX and RCA). Diffuse disease not amenable to treatment with a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The 2005 ACC/AHA guidelines further state that CABG is the preferred treatment with other high-risk patients such as those with severe ventricular dysfunction (i.e. low ejection fraction), or diabetes mellitus. Bypass surgery can provide relief of angina when the location of partial obstructions precludes improving blood flow with stents. There is no survival benefit with bypass surgery vs. medical therapy in stable angina patients. However, there is obvious benefit of CABG surgery when compared to medical therapy, as it prolongs survival not only in patients with 3-vessel disease but also with left main disease and 1- or 2- vessel disease with proximal LAD disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_91449", "title": "Coronary artery bypass surgery", "score": 0.014331501831501833, "content": "Results compared to stent placement CABG or stent placement is indicated when medical management anti-angina medications, statins, antihypertensives, smoking cessation, and/or tight blood sugar control in diabetics do not satisfactorily relieve ischemic symptoms. Both PCI and CABG are more effective than medical management at relieving symptoms, (e.g. angina, dyspnea, fatigue). CABG is superior to PCI for most of the patients with multivessel CAD SYNTAX study found a 40% higher mortality in patient with 3-vessel coronary artery disease treated with PCI in comparison with CABG. The Surgery or Stent (SoS) trial was a randomized controlled trial that compared CABG to PCI with bare-metal stents. The SoS trial demonstrated CABG is superior to PCI in multivessel coronary disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_84828", "title": "Coronary artery disease", "score": 0.013068966804824316, "content": "Stable angina In \"stable\" angina, chest pain with typical features occurring at predictable levels of exertion, various forms of cardiac stress tests may be used to induce both symptoms and detect changes by way of electrocardiography (using an ECG), echocardiography (using ultrasound of the heart) or scintigraphy (using uptake of radionuclide by the heart muscle). If part of the heart seems to receive an insufficient blood supply, coronary angiography may be used to identify stenosis of the coronary arteries and suitability for angioplasty or bypass surgery. Stable coronary artery disease (SCAD) is also often called stable ischemic heart disease (SIHD). A 2015 monograph explains that \"Regardless of the nomenclature, stable angina is the chief manifestation of SIHD or SCAD.\" There are U.S. and European clinical practice guidelines for SIHD/SCAD. Acute coronary syndrome" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_84813", "title": "Coronary artery disease", "score": 0.012893190459730383, "content": "Coronary artery disease (CAD), also called coronary heart disease (CHD), ischemic heart disease (IHD), myocardial ischemia, or simply heart disease, involves the reduction of blood flow to the heart muscle due to build-up of plaque (atherosclerosis) in the arteries of the heart. It is the most common of the cardiovascular diseases. Types include stable angina, unstable angina, myocardial infarction, and sudden cardiac death. A common symptom is chest pain or discomfort which may travel into the shoulder, arm, back, neck, or jaw. Occasionally it may feel like heartburn. Usually symptoms occur with exercise or emotional stress, last less than a few minutes, and improve with rest. Shortness of breath may also occur and sometimes no symptoms are present. In many cases, the first sign is a heart attack. Other complications include heart failure or an abnormal heartbeat." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en048_43632", "title": "Revascularization", "score": 0.012458640016206361, "content": "Applications For coronary artery disease (ischemic heart disease), coronary artery bypass surgery and percutaneous coronary intervention (coronary balloon angioplasty) are the two primary means of revascularization. When those cannot be done, transmyocardial revascularization or percutaneous myocardial revascularization, done with a laser, may be an option. Treatment for gangrene often requires revascularization, if possible. The surgery is also indicated to treat ischemic wounds (inadequate tissue perfusion) in some forms of chronic wounds, such as diabetic ulcers. References Vascular surgery" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en109_6201", "title": "Transmyocardial revascularization", "score": 0.01213909048190884, "content": "Transmyocardial laser revascularization (TMR) is a procedure used to treat inoperable heart disease in people with persistent angina that isn't relieved by any other revascularization method. Most people with coronary artery disease are treated with angioplasty and stenting or coronary bypass surgery and medications to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. The objective of each of these approaches is to increase blood flow through the coronary arteries to the heart. When these treatment options are exhausted, the patient is left with no viable surgical alternative other than, in limited cases, heart transplantation. Without a viable surgical alternative, the patient is generally managed with drug therapy, often with significant lifestyle limitations. TMR, or transmyocardial laser revascularization, is a newer treatment aimed at improving blood flow to areas of the heart that were not treated by angioplasty or surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_12577", "title": "A preliminary experience report: Drug-eluting stents versus coronary artery bypass surgery in patients with a single lesion in the proximal left anterior descending artery suffering from diabetes mellitus and chronic stable angina.", "score": 0.011919742729306487, "content": "Treatment of lesions located in the proximal segment of the left anterior descending artery (pLAD), either with coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) or percutaneous coronary intervention, in patients with diabetes mellitus has been associated with an unfavourable outcome. The aim of the present study was to compare the long-term clinical outcome of drug-eluting stents (DES) vs. CABG with a left internal mammary artery (LIMA) graft in patients with a pLAD lesion who suffered from chronic stable angina and diabetes mellitus. We studied 77 consecutive patients suffering from chronic stable angina, diabetes mellitus, and with an isolated pLAD lesion. Thirty-nine patients underwent DES implantation and 38 LIMA grafting. Primary endpoints were the occurrence of major adverse cardiac events, defined as death, myocardial infarction, and target vessel revascularisation. Secondary endpoints included the length of stay in hospital, in-hospital complications, and the recurrence of chest pain. More in-hospital complications were observed in the CABG group than in the DES group. The mean duration of hospitalisation after CABG was 7.76 +/- 2.82 days vs. 1.17 +/- 1.15 days after DES. The mean follow-up period was 19.7 +/- 6.3 months for the DES group and 19.7 +/- 7.4 months for the surgical group. The incidence of major adverse cardiac events was similar in the two groups. There were two re-interventions in the DES group and none in the surgical group. Recurrent angina occurred in 2 patients in the DES group and 3 patients in the CABG group. The present study demonstrates that patients with diabetes mellitus, chronic stable angina, and single vessel disease in the pLAD have an excellent long-term outcome with both DES implantation and LIMA anastomosis. The surgical approach, however, was associated with more in-hospital complications and a longer hospitalisation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_36407", "title": "Antianginal", "score": 0.011917562724014338, "content": "Beta blockers Beta blockers are used in the prophylaxis of exertional angina by reducing the myocardial oxygen demand below the level that would provoke an angina attack. They are contraindicated in variant angina and can precipitate heart failure. They are also contraindicated in severe asthmatics due to bronchoconstriction, and should be used cautiously in diabetics as they can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. Agents include either cardioselectives such as acebutolol or metoprolol, or non-cardioselectives such as oxprenolol or sotalol. Calcium channel blockers Calcium ion (Ca++) antagonists (Calcium channel blockers) are used in the treatment of chronic stable angina, and most effectively in the treatment of variant angina (directly preventing coronary artery vasospasm). They are not used in the treatment of unstable angina ." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en082_16442", "title": "Percutaneous coronary intervention", "score": 0.011437451437451437, "content": "The appropriateness of PCI use depends on many factors. PCI may be appropriate for patients with stable coronary artery disease if they meet certain criteria, such as having any coronary stenosis greater than 50 percent or having angina symptoms that are unresponsive to medical therapy. Although PCI may not provide any greater help in preventing death or myocardial infarction over oral medication for patients with stable coronary artery disease, it likely provides better relief of angina." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_11841", "title": "Coronary arteries", "score": 0.01118156837877827, "content": "Clinical significance Narrowing of the arteries can be caused by a process known as atherosclerosis (most common), arteriosclerosis, or arteriolosclerosis. This occurs when plaques (made up of deposits of cholesterol and other substances) build up over time in the walls of the arteries. Coronary artery disease (CAD) or ischemic heart disease (IHD) are the terms used to describe narrowing of the coronary arteries. As the disease progresses, plaque buildup can partially block blood flow to the heart muscle. Without enough blood supply (ischemia), the heart is unable to work properly, especially under increased stress. Stable angina is chest pain on exertion that improves with rest. Unstable angina is chest pain that can occur at rest, feels more severe, and/or last longer than stable angina. It is caused by more severe narrowing of the arteries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0562_8211", "title": "[Effect of Type 2 Diabetes on Results of Endovascular Treatment of Ischemic Heart Disease With Drug Covered Stents (Results of 1 Year Follow-up).].", "score": 0.011048658180415496, "content": "Aim of the study was to determine the impact of sirolimus-eluting stents (SES) on clinical outcomes in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) undergoing coronary revascularisation. The study enrolled 99 diabetic patients with de novo lesions in native coronary arteries. Medically treated DM was present in 61 patients (62%), 7 (7%) of whom required insulin. 53 patients received 78 SES and 46 patients received 57 bare metal stents. The differences in clinical outcomes between diabetic patients treated with SES and bare metal stents were assessed. Major adverse cardiac events (MACE) defined as death, myocardial infarction (MI), repeat revascularizations, and recurrences of angina were analyzed at 12-month follow-up. In the SES group the rate of recurrence of angina was 17%, the rate of coronary artery bypass surgery was 3,8%, the rate of repeat coronary angioplasty was 5,7%. In the bare metal stent group the rate of recurrence of angina was 37,8%, the rate of coronary artery bypass surgery was 2,2%, the rate of MI was 4,4%, the rate of repeat coronary angioplasty was 22,2%. Implantation of SES in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus reduces recurrence of angina and major adverse cardiac events during first year after coronary angioplasty." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_11838", "title": "Coronary arteries", "score": 0.011021162391658235, "content": "Reduced function of the coronary arteries can lead to decreased flow of oxygen and nutrients to the heart. Not only does this affect supply to the heart muscle itself, but it also can affect the ability of the heart to pump blood throughout the body. Therefore, any disorder or disease of the coronary arteries can have a serious impact on health, possibly leading to angina, a heart attack, and even death. Structure The coronary arteries are mainly composed of the left and right coronary arteries, both of which give off several branches as shown in the 'Coronary artery flow' figure. Aorta Left coronary artery (LCA) Left anterior descending artery Left circumflex artery Posterior descending artery Ramus or intermediate artery Right coronary artery (RCA) Right marginal artery Posterior descending artery" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0065_20501", "title": "Coronary angioplasty for medically refractory unstable angina in patients with prior coronary bypass surgery.", "score": 0.010844010814623252, "content": "Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) has been applied with good results to selected patients with unstable angina and to selected patients who have had prior bypass surgery. The population with prior bypass and unstable angina has not been specifically evaluated. This report reviews the results of angioplasty of 45 vessels in 34 patients with medically refractory unstable angina and at least one prior bypass heart surgery. Of these 34 patients, 32 had rest angina; 14 had resting electrocardiographic changes, all 34 were on aspirin 325 mg QD, 31 were on a calcium blocker, 22 were on a beta blocker, 9 were on intravenous nitroglycerin, and 5 required intraaortic balloon counterpulsation for temporary stabilization. Angioplasty of a vein graft was attempted in 17 patients; the left internal mammary was attempted in 4 patients; 24 native coronary arteries in 15 patients were attempted; 3 of the native arteries were protected left main arteries. Of the LIMA angioplasties, 3 were successful; in the 1 unsuccessful case, the occluded anterior descending artery was opened. Of the 17 vein grafts, 16 were successful: 1 had an acute occlusive syndrome and went to surgery with a balloon pump and bail out catheter; his recovery was uneventful. Of the 24 native artery angioplasties, 22 were successful: one patient was technically unsuccessful in the only vessel attempted; he went to semiemergent surgery and recovered uneventfully. In the other, a right coronary lesion was successfully dilated, but an occluded anterior descending artery was not opened. There were no deaths or in-hospital myocardial infarctions.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en245_7293", "title": "Coronary ischemia", "score": 0.010414163262036369, "content": "Other medications may be used to reduce the symptoms of coronary ischemia, particularly angina. Long and short acting nitrates are one option for reducing anginal pain. Nitrates reduce the symptoms of angina by dilating blood vessels around the heart, which increases oxygen-rich blood supply to the muscle cells of the heart. Veins are also dilated, which reduces return of blood to the heart, easing strain on the heart muscle. Short-acting nitrates can be taken upon the onset of symptoms and should provide relief within minutes. Nitroglycerin is the most common short-acting nitrate and it is applied under the tongue. Long acting nitrates are taken 2-3 times per day and can be used to prevent angina. Beta-blockers may also be used to reduce the incidence of chronic angina. Beta-blockers prevent episodes of angina by reducing heart rate and reducing the strength of contraction of the heart, which lowers oxygen demand in the heart." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60680", "title": "Angina", "score": 0.010287511230907457, "content": "In patients in whom such noninvasive testing is diagnostic, a coronary angiogram is typically performed to identify the nature of the coronary lesion, and whether this would be a candidate for angioplasty, coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), treatment only with medication, or other treatments. In hospitalized patients with unstable angina (or the newer term of \"high-risk acute coronary syndromes\"), those with resting ischaemic ECG changes or those with raised cardiac enzymes such as troponin may undergo coronary angiography directly. Treatment" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_91451", "title": "Coronary artery bypass surgery", "score": 0.010253419831377408, "content": "A study comparing the outcomes of all patients in New York state treated with CABG or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) demonstrated CABG was superior to PCI with DES in multivessel (more than one diseased artery) coronary artery disease (CAD). Patients treated with CABG had lower rates of death and of death or myocardial infarction than treatment with a coronary stent. Patients undergoing CABG also had lower rates of repeat revascularization. The New York State registry included all patients undergoing revascularization for coronary artery disease, but was not a randomized trial, and so may have reflected other factors besides the method of coronary revascularization. A meta-analysis with over 6000 patients showed that coronary artery bypass was associated with lower risk for major adverse cardiac events compared to drug-eluting stenting. However, patients had a higher risk of stroke events." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60694", "title": "Angina", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Women with myocardial ischemia often have either no or atypical symptoms, such as palpitations, anxiety, weakness, and fatigue. Additionally, many women with angina are found to have cardiac ischemia, yet no evidence of obstructive coronary artery disease on cardiac catheterization. Evidence is accumulating that nearly half of women with myocardial ischemia suffer from coronary microvascular disease, a condition often called microvascular angina (MVA). Small intramyocardial arterioles constrict in MVA causing ischemic pain that is less predictable than with typical epicardial coronary artery disease (CAD). The pathophysiology is complex and still being elucidated, but there is strong evidence that endothelial dysfunction, decreased endogenous vasodilators, inflammation, changes in adipokines, and platelet activation are contributing factors. The diagnosis of MVA may require catheterization during which there is an assessment of the microcirculatory response to adenosine or" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_628", "title": "[Statistical analysis of decision making in the treatment in two-vessel coronary artery disease].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The objective of this paper was to analyze the choice of treatment in two-vessel coronary artery disease and to evaluate the effectiveness of the chosen treatment. The data of sixty-five patients with two-vessel coronary artery disease was analyzed. Two-vessel coronary artery disease was recognized when critical stenoses were present in two arteries with a diameter no less than 2 mm across. Patients who had a CABG were excluded. Patients were divided into three groups according to their treatment: those treated with CABG (29 patients), those treated with coronary angioplasty (20 patients), and those treated conservatively (16 patients). The mean follow-up was 29.3 months (12-48 mo). There were two groups of data collected. The first group consisted of data which might have influenced the decision-making and state of the patients after they had been introduced to the selected treatment. The second group consisted of data necessary to evaluate the state of the patients during the follow-up period. The statistical analysis was divided into three stages. In the first stage, clinical data connected to the selected treatments was studied. In the second, the effects of the chosen treatment were examined. During the third stage of analysis, variables which influenced the effectiveness of the specific treatment were evaluated. Decision-making in patients with two-vessel coronary artery disease depended on the co-existence of hypertension, diabetes, lower-limb ischemia and earlier-performed coronary angioplasty. The only statistically important angiographic feature was the condition of the proximal LAD. Objective improvements in the states of patients (evaluated by exercise tests) were frequently connected to CABG treatment. Subjective improvements in the states of patients were more often connected to conservative treatment. Elevated cholesterol levels were connected to the progression of the disease both in those treated conservatively and interventionally." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0676_2615", "title": "[Myocardial revascularization of patients with diffuse coronary artery disease].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting (off-pump CABG) after off-pump coronary endarterectomy (CE) for myocardial revascularization is a way to rescue the patients with diffuse coronary artery disease (CAD). This study retrospectively analyzed its clinical outcomes and experiences, and explored the safety and effectiveness. From October 2003 to December 2008, 177 diffuse CAD patients with 229 vascular lesions received off-pump CABG plus CE. Incision was made at the hardest part of coronary artery and ≥ 2 cm from the distal intervention site. Then bypass graft was performed by internal mammary artery or saphenous vein. The intra-operative blood tests showed that 215 (93.9%) bridges were satisfied with (27 ± 12) ml/min blood flow while 14 bridges were dissatisfied. The blood flow was (7 ± 4) ml/min. Six (3.4%) cases suffered peri-operative myocardial infarction. Among them, 3 patients had no significant cardiac hemodynamic changes. Three suffered a low cardiac output and improved by intra-aortic balloon counter pulsation support. And they were then discharged after treatment. After 3 - 40 months, 98 patients underwent coronary angiography to measure the graft latency. And the blood flow was excellent. Off-pump CABG plus CE for diffuse coronary artery disease is both feasible and safe. And it is an effective treatment with a high degree of vascularization." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en359_24609", "title": "Hybrid cardiac surgery", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Clinical applications Hybrid revascularization approach for coronary artery disease Surgical bypass grafting and percutaneous coronary artery revascularization are traditionally considered isolated options. A simultaneous hybrid approach may allow an opportunity to match the best strategy for a particular anatomic lesion. Thus hybrid coronary revascularization and MIDCAB (minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass surgery) have been developed. Revascularization of the left anterior descending artery with the left internal mammary artery is by far the best treatment option in terms of long-term results. Integrating this therapy with percutaneous coronary angioplasty (hybrid procedure) offers multi-vessel revascularization through a mini-thoracotomy. Particularly in high risk patients, morbidity and mortality decreases in comparison to conventional surgery. Completion angiography" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0271_17298", "title": "[Ischemia--reliable results of therapy, operation and angioplasty--in coronary disease].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Randomized studies have shown that coronary bypass-surgery is effective in prolonging survival and reducing symptoms in various groups of patients with coronary artery disease, when compared with medical therapy alone. This effect is most pronounced and stable in patients who received an internal-mammary-artery graft. Therefore internal-mammary-artery grafting for lesions of the left anterior descending coronary artery is preferable whenever indicated and technically feasible. While percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty is effective in improving symptoms of angina pectoris, beneficial effects on survival have not yet been shown. In randomized trials of PTCA versus bypass-surgery acute results were comparable. During follow-up significantly less re-interventions and more angina-free patients were seen in the bypass-groups, indicating a more stable result after bypass surgery. In older patients with a higher mortality and rate of cerebral vascular events during surgery, a palliative PTCA of the culprit lesion may be superior to the bypass-operation. For the often used \"unproven\" indications for PTCA (silent ischemia, infarct-related artery in asymptomatic patients, isolated proximal LAD-stenosis, acute myocardial infarction, cardiogenic shock) larger randomized trials should be awaited to prove the effectiveness of PTCA in these settings." }, { "id": "article-20009_21", "title": "Coronary Artery Disease -- Treatment / Management -- Stable Ischemic Heart Disease", "score": 0.009636062861869313, "content": "Every patient should get guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) which includes low dose aspirin, beta-blocker, as-needed nitroglycerin, and moderate to high-intensity statin. If symptoms are not controlled with this, beta-blocker therapy should be titrated up to heart rates 55-60, and the addition of calcium channel blocker and long-acting nitrates should be considered. [10] Ranolazine could also be added to relieve refractory anginal symptoms. If maximal GDMT has failed to relive angina, cardiac catheterization should be done to visualize the coronary anatomy and a decision should be made for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) based on the patient profile. [11]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5628", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C14)", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "– ischemia – brain ischemia – colitis, ischemic – compartment syndromes – anterior compartment syndrome – infarction – brain infarction – brain stem infarctions – lateral medullary syndrome – cerebral infarction – dementia, multi-infarct – infarction, anterior cerebral artery – infarction, middle cerebral artery – infarction, posterior cerebral artery – myocardial infarction – myocardial stunning – shock, cardiogenic – pulmonary embolism – splenic infarction – myocardial ischemia – coronary disease – angina pectoris – angina pectoris, variant – angina, unstable – microvascular angina – coronary aneurysm – Coronary Arteriosclerosis – coronary stenosis – coronary restenosis – coronary thrombosis – coronary vasospasm – angina pectoris, variant – myocardial infarction – myocardial stunning – shock, cardiogenic – myocardial stunning – optic neuropathy, ischemic – reperfusion injury – myocardial reperfusion injury" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0281_11732", "title": "[Indications for coronary dilatation and bypass surgery].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Coronary artery disease is the dominant disorder in industrialized countries. It can be treated by drugs, coronary angioplasty, or bypass surgery. Angioplasty has become the most frequent mode of active therapy. Local variations in the use of treatment modalities can be explained mainly by early detection of coronary artery disease yielding more candidates for angioplasty. All indications should be based on a combination of symptoms, objective signs of ischemia (e.g., stress test) and angiographic correlates. Coronary angioplasty is limited to the less complex cases such as single vessel disease (except for diffuse disease, old total occlusions), double vessel disease with up to 3 discrete lesions or lesions in secondary vessels, and, exceptionally, triple vessel disease of the appropriate kind (usually in 2 sessions). These limitations arise from the drawbacks of the method, i.e., acute occlusion (about 7%), recurrence (about 30%), and technical failures (about 5%). For acute myocardial infarction, direct coronary angioplasty is probably the method of choice, provided it can be performed within 30 minutes after diagnosis. For unstable angina, the results are inferior to those obtained with stable symptomatology; compared with the spontaneous prognosis, they remain nonetheless beneficial. The same holds true for angioplasty in elderly patients, where the reduced chances of success must be viewed in light of a typically very severe clinical picture. Angioplasty is often a blessing for young patients. It allows immediate resumption of a normal life and is easily repeatable over the years. Indications for coronary bypass surgery should not be deduced from the randomized studies of the seventies. They concentrated on survival, and surgical methods have been refined since.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0116_10308", "title": "[Results of coronary revascularization in occluded coronary arteries].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In a total of 82 patients (age 37-71 years) with an occluded left anterior descending artery (LAD) the results of coronary revascularization were evaluated 7 months postoperatively on average. In all patients the indications for revascularization was given by clinical symptoms (angina pectoris) or by prognostic reasons. In patients with multivessel disease. In patients with anterior wall infarction viable myocardium was proven by thallium-scintigram at rest and during exercise. 29 patients were evaluated by coronary angiography postoperatively, in 19 patients the angiograms of the left ventricle could be assessed quantitatively. Total patency rate was 76%, for the LAD 69%, for the circumflex artery 73% and for the right coronary artery 83%. The relatively low patency rate for the LAD was caused by an increased collateral flow to the occluded LAD and therefore by a significantly lower bypass flowrate measured during surgery. Angina pectoris improved markedly, 55% of patients had angina pectoris class III or IV versus 10% postoperatively. These changes were observed in all patients irrespectively of patency rate or occluded grafts to the LAD. Left ventricular volumes and ejection fraction did not change on average after revascularization. Only end-diastolic volume increased significantly in patients with an occluded graft to the LAD. There was a tendency of the end-systolic volume to decrease postoperatively in patients with complete revascularization or at least an open graft to the LAD. The results show a similar clinical improvement in these patients with occluded LAD as shown after \"usual\" revascularization in other patients. Preoperative coronary angiograms are helpful in judging the postoperative outcome of grafts to the occluded LAD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60687", "title": "Angina", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The other class of medication that can be used to treat angina are the organic nitrates. Organic nitrates are used extensively to treat angina. They improve coronary blood flow of the coronary arteries (arteries which supply blood to the heart muscle) by reversing and preventing vasospasm, which increases the blood flow to the heart, improving perfusion and oxygen delivery to the heart associated with the pain of angina. These drugs also reduce systemic vascular resistance, of both veins and arteries but the veins to a greater extent. The decrease in the resistance of the arteries and veins decreases the myocardial oxygen demand, which also reduces myocardial oxygen demand. Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that decreases myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing the heart's workload. Nitroglycerin should not be given if certain inhibitors such as sildenafil, tadalafil, or vardenafil have been taken within the previous 12 hours as the combination of the two could cause a serious" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0105_6434", "title": "[Coronary occlusion immediately following a successful coronary angioplasty. Treatment by repeat angioplasty].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The authors report the case of a 52 year old patient with a significant stenosis of the medial portion of the left anterior descending artery (LAD) with excellent left ventricular function. Transluminal coronary angioplasty (TCA) was indicated following a positive exercise stress test. This was initially performed successfully. Fifteen minutes after the end of the procedure, a total obstruction occurred at the site of dilatation immediately eliciting significant precordial chest pain and massive elevation of the ST segment. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) at a dose of 2 mg was injected into the artery 3 times without success as was an attempt to pass through the obstruction with a guide wire. Another TCA was then attempted without administration of the thrombolytic agent. The dilating catheter passed easily by the obstruction permitting several dilatations which restored rapid coronary artery flow, relieved completely the chest pain, and normalized electrocardiographic abnormalities. This procedure represents a new therapeutic approach to obstruction, an often unpredictable and serious complication of coronary angioplasty in the absence of collateral circulation, thereby preventing the development of a myocardial infarction and an emergency aortocoronary bypass operation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0489_34", "title": "[Early clinical results of balloon coronary angioplasty in patients with ischemic heart disease and three impaired coronary vessels].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To study a short-term clinical effect of balloon coronary angioplasty (BCA) in patients with affection of three coronary arteries regarding an anginal form and completeness of myocardial revascularization. The study included 80 patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) having three affected major coronary arteries after BCA among them 48 patients with stable and 32 patients with unstable angina. The procedures were made using \"Polydiagnost C\" angiographic complex (Philips, Holland). Overall clinical efficacy of BCA in affection of three coronary arteries was 88.75% (in 71 of 80 patients), no response was observed in 9 of 80 patients (11.25%). The response to BCA was independent of the anginal form. In stable angina there were no differences in clinical efficacy in complete and incomplete functionally-adequate anatomic BCA (91 and 89.6%, respectively). In incomplete anatomic revascularization clinical effect was less (62.5%). In unstable angina a clinical effect of BCA did not depend on the degree of myocardial revascularization. Stenting raised clinical response to BCA in all the patients. The findings demonstrate high clinical efficacy of BCA in affection of three coronary arteries irrespective of an angina form. Incomplete anatomic revascularization in stable effort angina is less effective but can be used if other operations are impossible. If definition of the symptom-causing artery is possible, the intervention should be limited to BCA of this artery to decide on dilation of other arteries later." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60681", "title": "Angina", "score": 0.009274396378269618, "content": "Angina pectoris occurs as a result of coronary blood flow insufficiency in the face of increased oxygen demand. The principal goal in the prevention and relief of angina is to limit the oxygen requirement of the heart so it can meet the inaqedate oxygen supply derived through the blood supplied from the stenosed or constricted arteries. The main goals of treatment in angina pectoris are relief of symptoms, slowing progression of the disease, and reduction of future events, especially heart attacks and death. Beta blockers (e.g., carvedilol, metoprolol, propranolol) have a large body of evidence in morbidity and mortality benefits (fewer symptoms, less disability and longer life) and short-acting nitroglycerin medications have been used since 1879 for symptomatic relief of angina. There are differing course of treatments for the patient depending on the type of angina the patient has. However, this second can provide a brief overview of the types of medications provided for angina and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en082_16440", "title": "Percutaneous coronary intervention", "score": 0.009264013692768507, "content": "Primary PCI is the urgent use of PCI in people with acute heart attack, especially where there is evidence of heart damage on the electrocardiogram. PCI is also used in people after other forms of myocardial infarction or unstable angina where there is a high risk of further events. Finally, PCI may be used in people with stable angina pectoris, particularly if the symptoms are difficult to control with medication. PCI is an alternative to coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG, often referred to as \"bypass surgery\"), which bypasses stenotic arteries by grafting vessels from elsewhere in the body. Under certain circumstances such as extensive blockages, background of diabetes, CABG may be superior. Coronary angioplasty was first introduced in 1977 by Andreas Gruentzig in Switzerland. Medical uses" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_91431", "title": "Angioplasty", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The word is composed of the combining forms of the Greek words ἀνγεῖον \"vessel\" or \"cavity\" (of the human body) and πλάσσω \"form\" or \"mould\". Uses and indications Coronary angioplasty A coronary angioplasty is a therapeutic procedure to treat the stenotic (narrowed) coronary arteries of the heart found in coronary heart disease. These stenotic segments of the coronary arteries arise due to the buildup of cholesterol-laden plaques that form in a condition known as atherosclerosis. A percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), or coronary angioplasty with stenting, is a non-surgical procedure used to improve the blood flow to the heart. Coronary Angioplasty is indicated for coronary artery disease such as unstable angina, NSTEMI, STEMI and spontaneous coronary artery perforation. PCI for stable coronary disease has been shown to significantly relieve symptoms such as angina, or chest pain, thereby improving functional limitations and quality of life. Peripheral angioplasty" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0077_20803", "title": "[Clinical and angiographic expression of myocardial ischemia in stable angina as a function of its coronary reserve].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We have studied the distribution of the coronary reserve, evaluated by serial effort tests, in patients with proved coronaropathy, determining the correlation between clinic (effort and mixed angina) and coronary reserve (fixed and variable), assessing angiographic findings in function to that reserve. We took 120 patients with stable angina to whom 2 effort tests were performed, basal and after vasodilator drugs. It was considered variable reserve if in the second test the S-T descend improved greater than or equal to 1 mm for a similar of greater double product and fixed when it didn't improve. In all patients coronarography was performed. Seventy two patients (60%) showed fixed reserve, 58 with effort angina (80%) and 14 (20%) with mixed. Forty eight showed variable reserve, 40 (80%) with mixed angina and 8 (17%) with effort. The group with fixed reserve had a greater S-T max. descent (2.9 +/- 0.9 vs 2.2 +/- 0.4) (p less than 0.001), a lower double product max. (221 +/- 44 vs 284 +/- 37) (p less than 0.001) and a lower maximal oxygen consumption (MVO2 7 +/- 2 vs 11 +/- 2) (p less than 0.001) than the variable reserve group. Considering the angiography, the fixed reserve group had more number of vessels affected (1.9 +/- 0.7 vs 1.4 +/- 0.5) (p less than 0.01), a higher angiographic score (4.88 +/- 2.4 vs 2.2 +/- 1.2) (p less than 0.001), a lower ejection fraction (59 +/- 8.5 vs 65 +/- 7.5) (p less than 0.001), more multivessel and descending anterior artery lesion than the variable reserve group.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 354, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 78 ] ], "text": "Vertebral crushing would be seen in the simple X-ray, as well as vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis and many metastases." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 487, 584 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 80, 96 ] ], "text": "there is no data in the history pointing to bone metastases (oncologic history, weight loss etc)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 354, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 78 ] ], "text": "Vertebral crushing would be seen in the simple X-ray, as well as vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis and many metastases." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 164 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 30 ] ], "text": "We suspect spondylodiscitis - the febrile fever and the limitation of mobility of the spine with the acute course give the key -, and the indicated test is the MRI." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Vertebral crush with computed tomography (CT).", "2": "Bone metastases with technetium bone scan.", "3": "Vertebral ankylosing hyperostosis with dorsolumbar spine x-ray.", "4": "Pyogenic spondylodiscitis with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0905_17675", "title": "Radiologic Diagnosis of Spondylodiscitis, Role of Magnetic Resonance.", "score": 0.019417475728155338, "content": "Study aim is to report the Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) features of acute and chronic spontaneous spondylodiscitis. 57 year old female, complaining of a fever and longstanding cervical pain worsened during physical therapy. MR images were acquired using superconductive magnet 1.5 T, with the following sequences: sagittal PD and T2 TSE, sagittal T1 SE, axial PD and T2 TSE (lumbar spine), axial T2 GRE (cervical spine). Axial and sagittal T1 SE after administration of (gadolinium DTPA). Examination was reviewed by three radiologists and compared to CT findings. Patient reported cervical pain associated with fever and minimal weight loss. Blood tests were normal except hyperglycemia (DM tip II). X Ray: vertebral destruction localized at C-4 and C-5: NECT: destruction of the C-4/C-5 vertebral bodies (ventral part). MRI: Low signal of the bone marrow on T1l images, which enhanced after Gd-DTPA administration and became intermediate or high on T2 images. The steady high signal intensity of the disk on T2 images and enhancement on T1 images is typical for an acute inflammatory process. Bone Scintigrafi results: Bone changes suspicious for metastasis. Whole body CT results: apart from spine, no other significant changes. MRI is the most sensitive technique for the diagnosis of spondylodiscitis in the acute phase and comparable to CT regarding chronial stage of the disease. The present imagining essay os aimed at showing the main magnetic resonance imaging findings of tuberculous discitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_14610", "title": "[Radiologic diagnosis of spondylodiscitis: role of magnetic resonance].", "score": 0.017216117216117217, "content": "To report the Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) features of acute and chronic spontaneous spondylodiscitis as well as any typical patterns which can be useful for the differential diagnosis between pyogenic and tuberculous forms. Eleven patients affected with spontaneous spondylodiscitis were selected for the study; they were 7 men and 4 women ranging in age 33-87 years (mean: 64). We excluded the patients with iatrogenic spondylodiscitis. MR images were acquired with a superconductive magnet at 1.5, with the following sequences: sagittal PD and T2-weighted TSE, sagittal T1-weighted SE, axial PD and T2-weighted TSE for the lumbar spine, axial T2-weighted GRE for the cervical and dorsal spine and axial and sagittal T1-weighted SE after contrast agent (gadolinium DTPA) injection. MR images were reviewed by three experienced radiologists and morphological and signal intensity changes of vertebral body and disk were recorded on a standard form. In 9 patients it was possible to compare MR to CT findings. At the time of our observation all patients reported pain at the spine level, associated with fever and weight loss in 50% of cases and with increased values of the inflammatory markers. Three patients had infectious diseases in other organs and 2 were diabetics. Biopsy was performed in two cases only and demonstrated Staphylococcus aureus in one and Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the other patient. MRI allowed the correct diagnosis to be made in all cases, demonstrating the pathological involvement of the paravertebral structures and into the spinal canal earlier and more accurately than CT. A common finding in pyogenic and tuberculous spondylodiscitis was the low signal of the subcortical bone marrow on T1-weighted sagittal images, which enhanced after Gd-DTPA administration and became intermediate or high on T2-weighted images. Moreover, the steady high signal intensity of the disk on T2-weighted images and its contrast enhancement on T1-weighted images is typical for an acute inflammatory process. Based on our personal experience and literature data, we believe MRI to be the most sensitive technique for the diagnosis of spondylodiscitis in the acute phase, whereas it is comparable to CT in the chronic stage of the disease. At present MRI does not allow to differentiate pyogenic from tuberculous forms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0824_10317", "title": "Unusual case of pyogenic spondylodiscitis, vertebral osteomyelitis and bilateral psoas abscesses after acupuncture: diagnosis and treatment with interventional management.", "score": 0.016281512605042014, "content": "We report, for the first time, a case of pyogenic spondylodiscitis combined with vertebral osteomyelitis and bilateral psoas abscesses after acupuncture. A 60-year-old man was diagnosed with rectal cancer, and radical rectectomy and permanent colostomy were carried out. However, 3 years after the surgery the patient complained of pain in the lower back, and the symptoms worsened after seven sessions of acupuncture. Technetium 99m-labelled methylene diphosphonate ((99m)Tc-MDP) bone scintigraphy (BS) revealed abnormal uptake of (99m)Tc-MDP in the L4 and L5 vertebrae. He was admitted to our hospital because of suspected bone metastases from rectal cancer. He was diagnosed with infection based on a history of acupuncture and the findings of enhanced MRI and CT. Percutaneous lumbar discectomy (PLD), external drainage and irrigation using antibiotics were carried out to treat the L4-5 disc. Pathological analyses and bacterial culture of the resected disc confirmed infection with group C streptococcus. Postoperative antibiotic treatment resulted in significant pain relief on the third day and gradual complete relief. Considerable improvement was seen on CT and MRI at follow-up. We consider it highly likely that this patient's infection was caused by acupuncture. In patients with malignancy, abnormal uptake of (99m)Tc-MDP in BS may signify bone metastasis but can also be observed in bone infections. PLD can be used to resect diseased discs to relieve pain quickly and to prevent herniation of lumbar discs. After PLD, external drainage can be employed for abscess drainage, decompression and perfusion of antibiotics. PLD may serve as an alternative to open surgery for pyogenic spondylodiscitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_24294", "title": "[Huge dorsolumbar cold abscess associated with Pott's disease].", "score": 0.015942028985507246, "content": "Pott's disease, or tuberculosis of the spine, is the most common osteoarticular tuberculosis. Among them, dorsolumbar impairment is predominant. The authors report the case of a patient with a huge cold lumbar abscess associated with Pott's disease. The patient is a 32-year-old man presenting dorsolumbar tumefaction associated with an alteration in his general condition and fever for three months. Treatment by \"traditional healers\" did not provide any improvement. He consulted for mild lumbar pain triggered by fatigue appearing one week before and after the failure of the traditional practitioner. The clinical examination found a temperature of 38.5°C, cachexia, mild lumber kyphosis and impressive, soft, painless and non inflammatory dorsolumbar bruised tumefaction, 40 cm high, 15 cm wide and 7 cm deep. He did not present any neurological signs. The dorsolumbar X-ray of the spine revealed a lesion associated with Pott's disease in the first and second lumbar vertebrae with pinching of the disc, punched-out lesions and osteocondensation. The ultrasound examination of the soft tissue revealed the presence of a laterovertebral collection of fluid diffusing in the subcutaneous region. The psoas major and the paravertebral muscles were not affected. A scan or MRI of the spine was not carried out. Examination of the tissue sample and drainage of the abscess confirmed the tubercular origin. Treatment with tuberculostatic drugs for 12 months associated with immobilisation resulted in a cure with sequelae of mild kyphoscoliosis vertebral statics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_22053", "title": "Two cases of diskitis attributable to anaerobic bacteria in children.", "score": 0.015564437984496124, "content": "Diskitis, an inflammation of the intervertebral disk, is generally attributable to Staphylococcus aureus and rarely Staphylococcus epidermidis, Kingella kingae, Enterobacteriaciae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae. In many cases, no bacterial growth is obtained from infected intervertebral discs. Although anaerobic bacteria were recovered from adults with spondylodiscitis, these organisms were not reported before from children. The recovery of anaerobic bacteria in 2 children with diskitis is reported. Patient 1. A 10-year-old male presented with 6 weeks of low back pain and 2 weeks of low-grade fever and abdominal pain. Physical examination was normal except for tenderness to percussion over the spine between thoracic vertebra 11 and lumbar vertebra 2. The patient had a temperature of 104 degrees F. Laboratory tests were within normal limits, except for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), which was 58 mm/hour. Blood culture showed no growth. Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast revealed minimal inflammatory changes in the 12th thoracic vertebra/first lumbar vertebra disk. There was no other abnormality. A computed tomography (CT)-guided aspiration of the disk space yielded bloody material, which was sent for aerobic and anaerobic cultures. Gram stain showed numerous white blood cells and Gram-positive cocci in chains. Cultures for anaerobic bacteria yielded heavy growth of Peptostreptococcus magnus, which was susceptible to penicillin, clindamycin, and vancomycin. The patient was treated with intravenous penicillin 600 000 units every 6 hours for 3 weeks, and then oral amoxicillin, 500 mg every 6 hours for 3 weeks. The back pain resolved within 2 weeks, and the ESR returned to normal at the end of therapy. Follow-up for 3 years showed complete resolution of the infection. Patient 2. An 8-year-old boy presented with low back pain and low-grade fever, irritability, and general malaise for 10 days. He had had an upper respiratory tract infection with sore throat 27 days earlier, for which he received no therapy. The patient had a temperature of 102 degrees F, and physical examination was normal except for tenderness to percussion over the spine between the second and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Laboratory tests were normal, except for the ESR (42 mm/hour). Radiographs of the spine showed narrowing of the third to fourth lumbar vertebra disk space and irregularity of the margins of the vertebral endplates. A CT scan revealed a lytic bone lesion at lumbar vertebra 4, and bone scan showed an increase uptake of (99m)technetium at the third to fourth lumbar vertebra disk space. CT-guided aspiration of the disk space yielded cloudy nonfoul-smelling material, which was sent for aerobic and anaerobic cultures. Gram stain showed numerous white blood cells and fusiform Gram-negative bacilli. Anaerobic culture grew light growth of Fusobacterium nucleatum. The organism produced beta-lactamase and was susceptible to ticarcillin-clavulanate, clindamycin, metronidazole, and imipenem. Therapy with clindamycin 450 mg every 8 hours was given parenterally for 3 weeks and orally for 3 weeks. Back pain resolved within 2 weeks. A 2-year follow-up showed complete resolution and no recurrence. This report describes, for the first time, the isolation of anaerobic bacteria from children with diskitis. The lack of their recovery in previous reports and the absence of bacterial growth in over two third of these studies may be caused by the use of improper methods for their collection, transportation, and cultivation. Proper choice of antimicrobial therapy for diskitis can be accomplished only by identification of the causative organisms and its antimicrobial susceptibility. This is of particular importance in infections caused by anaerobic bacteria that are often resistant to antimicrobials used to empirically treat diskitis. This was the case in our second patient, who was infected by F nucleatum, which was resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. The origin of the anaerobic bacteria causing the infection in our patient is probably of endogenous nature. The presence of abdominal pain in the first child may have been attributable to a subclinical abdominal pathothology. The preceding pharyngitis in the second patient may have been associated with a potential hematogenous spread of F nucleatum. P magnus has been associated with bone and joint infections. This report highlights the importance of obtaining disk space culture for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria from all children with diskitis. Future prospective studies are warranted to elucidate the role of anaerobic bacteria in diskitis in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0750_18977", "title": "Subdural tuberculous abscess of the lumbar spine in a patient with chronic low back pain.", "score": 0.014511803985488195, "content": "Despite modern imaging methods, tuberculous abscess in the subdural space of the spine can lead to misdiagnosis and to neurogical complications development, even more up to paraplegia. We presented an extremely rare case of subdural tuberculous abscess of the lumbar (L) spine and paraparesis in imunocompetent a 49-year-old patient. A patient with chronic L syndrome and a history of intervertebral (IV) disc L3 and L5 operations got severe back pain late in July 2007. At the same time the patient had a purulent collection in the left knee, and was treated with high doses of corticosteroids and antibiotics. Then, the patient got a high fever, the amplification of pain in the L spine and the development of paraparesis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 108 mm/1 h, C-reactive protein 106.0 mg/L, white blood cell (WBC) 38.4 x 09/L with a left turn. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spine was registered expansive formation in the spinal canal, from the level of the IV disc L2 to the mid-L4 vertebral body. This finding is a \"spoke\" in favor of the extrusion and sequestration of IV disc L3 with the cranial and caudal migration. The patient underwent an emergency neurosurgical operation. The diagnosis of subdural staphylococcal abscess of L spine was made. According to the antibiogram antibiotic therapy was applied but without effect on the course of the disease. Control MRI of the L spine showed spondylodiscitis L3/L4, abscess collection in the spinal canal and paravertebral muscle abscess. Late in September 2007 the patient underwent needle biopsy of the L3 vertebral body guided by computed tomography and the acid-fast bacilli (AFB) were found. Tuberculostatics were introduced in the therapy. Two years later the patient was without significant personal difficulties, and with normal clinical, laboratory and morphological findings. Subdural tuberculous abscess of the spine is extremely rare manifestation of spine tuberculosis. The exact and early diagnosis and adequate treatment of atypical form of spine tuberculosis are key factors of good prognosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_63435", "title": "Spondylolisthesis", "score": 0.013466220328667072, "content": "In adults with non-specific low back pain, strong evidence suggests medical imaging should not be done within the first six weeks. It is also suggested to avoid advanced imaging, such as CT or MRI, for adults without neurological symptoms or \"red flags\" in the patient's history. General recommendations for initial low back pain treatment is remaining active, avoiding twisting and bending, avoiding activities that worsen pain, avoiding bed rest, and possibly initiating a trial of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs after consulting a physician. Children and adolescents with persistent low back pain may require earlier imaging and should be seen by physician. Once imaging is deemed necessary, a combination of plain radiography, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging may be used. Images are most often taken of the lumbar spine due to spondylolisthesis most commonly involving the lumbar region. Images of the thoracic spine can be taken if a patient's history and physical" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10455", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012316715542521993, "content": "of febrile back pain is broad, including pyelonephritis, pancreatitis, and viral syndromes. In addition, multiple noninfectious pathologies of the vertebral column, such as osteoporotic fracture, seronegative spondylitis (ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis, reactive arthritis, enteropathic arthritis), and spinal stenosis must be considered. Imaging procedures are the most important tools not only for the diagnosis of vertebral osteomyelitis but also for the detection of pyogenic complications and alternative conditions (e.g., bone metastases or osteoporotic fractures). Plain radiography is a reasonable first step in evaluating patients without neurologic symptoms and may reveal an alternative diagnosis. Because of its low sensitivity, plain radiography generally is not helpful in acute osteomyelitis, but it can be useful in subacute or chronic cases. The gold standard is MRI, which should be performed expeditiously in patients with neurologic impairment in order to rule out a herniated" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en370_31891", "title": "Vertebral osteomyelitis", "score": 0.011783575005728127, "content": "Radiological intervention is often necessary to confirm the presence of vertebral osteomyelitis in the body. Plain-film radiological orders are necessary for all patients displaying symptoms of the disease. This diagnostic approach is often preliminary to other radiological procedures, such as magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, computed tomography (CT) scan, fine-needle aspiration biopsy, and nuclear scintigraphy. The initial plain-film X-ray images are scanned for any indication of disc compression between two vertebrae or the degeneration of one or more vertebrae. Only when these findings are ambiguous is further testing necessary to diagnose the disease. Other radiological approaches offer more comprehensive imaging of the spinal area, but can often prove inconclusive. MRI scans do not expose the patient to radiation and are highly sensitive to changes in the size and appearance of the intervertebral discs; however, findings on the MRI scan may be confused with other conditions" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0734_16874", "title": "[Surgical treatment of lumbar pyogenic spondylitis].", "score": 0.011727363848980956, "content": "To investigate the diagnosis and effectiveness of surgical treatment for lumbar pyogenic spondylitis. Between February 2005 and June 2010, 15 cases of lumbar pyogenic spondylitis were treated. There were 10 males and 5 females with an average age of 48.6 years (range, 26-72 years). Affected segments included L2, 3 in 3 cases, L(3, 4) in 3 cases, L(4, 5) in 8 cases, and L5, S1 in 1 case. All cases had clinical manifestations of moderate or severe fever, local pain of lesion, and limitation of the spinal movement; 10 patients had nerve root symptoms, and 8 patients had symptoms of lower limb paraplegia. Leukocyte, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) significantly increased in all cases. The preoperative X-ray and CT examinations showed no clear bone destruction; MRI showed decreased signal intensity on T1WI and increased signal intensity on T2WI, 7 cases had localized abscess formation. The patients underwent focal cleaning and bone grafting and fusion combined with internal fixation, including anterior operation in 13 cases, posterior operation in 1 case, and combined anterior and posterior operation in 1 case. The results of bacterial culture were positive in 10 cases. According to the results of intraoperative bacterial cultures, sensitive antibiotics were selected. Healing of incision by first intention was achieved in 14 cases, healing by second intention in 1 case. After 2 weeks, 1 case recurred and symptoms was reliefed after symptomatic treatment. Back pain and (or) lower limb pain were obviously improved in the other patients; body temperature recovered to normal after 3-4 days; leukocyte, ESR, and CRP significantly decreased. All the patients were followed up 12 to 70 months with an average of 35.4 months. The patients had no rejection, no fistula formation, no lumbar kyphosis, and no fixator loosening or breakage. The bony fusion time was 4-8 months. Combination of clinical manifestations, laboratory tests, and MRI can diagnose lumbar pyogenic spondylitis, of which CRP is an important indicator to determine progression of the disease, and MRI is important for diagnosis. Debridement combined with interbody fusion and internal fixation is a safe and effective treatment method." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1507", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01015028332101503, "content": "Vertebral osteomyelitis is often caused by staphylococci, but other bacteria or tuberculosis (Pott’s disease) may be responsible. The primary source of infection is usually the urinary tract, skin, or lungs. Intravenous drug use is a well-recognized risk factor. Whenever pyogenic osteomyelitis is found, the possibility of bacterial endocarditis should be considered. Back pain unrelieved by rest, spine tenderness over the involved spine segment, and an elevated ESR are the most common findings in vertebral osteomyelitis. Fever or an elevated white blood cell count is found in a minority of patients. MRI and CT are sensitive and specific for early detection of osteomyelitis; CT may be more readily available in emergency settings and better tolerated by some patients with severe back pain. The intervertebral disk can also be affected by infection (diskitis) and, very rarely, by tumor." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_74645", "title": "Lumbar spinal stenosis", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Ankylosing spondylitis Diagnosis The diagnosis is based on clinical findings. Some patients can have a narrowed canal without symptoms, and do not require therapy. The normal lumbar central canal has a midsagittal diameter (front to back) greater than 13 mm, with an area of 1.45 cm2. Relative stenosis is said to exist when the anterior-posterior canal diameter measures between 10 and 13 mm. Absolute stenosis of the lumbar canal exists anatomically when the anterior-posterior measurement is 10 mm or less. Plain X-rays of the lumbar or cervical spine may or may not show spinal stenosis. The definitive diagnosis is established by either computerized tomography or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning. Identifying the presence of a narrowed canal makes the diagnosis of spinal stenosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0605_17131", "title": "[Spondylodiscitis without fever: a diagnostic challenge].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Three patients with different forms of vertebral osteomyelitis are presented, two with hematogenous infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus and one with postsurgical infection after excision of a vertebral disc caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci. None of the patients was initially febrile, but all had localized back pain and a restricted range of movement of the vertebral column. EXAMINATIONS, DIAGNOSIS: In all three patients the MRI of the affected vertebral column was consistent with vertebral osteomyelitis. Microbiological diagnosis was made by bone biopsy in all patients and by blood cultures in two of them. Antibiotics were administered for 4-6 weeks. At follow-up two patients were without symptoms, but the third patient had persistent back pain without radiological signs of vertebral osteomyelitis. In patients with localized back pain vertebral osteomyelitis should be included in the differential diagnosis, even if there is no fever and no increase in white cell count, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein level and radiography is normal. Specific bacterial diagnosis should be made by multiple bone biopsy or blood cultures, before starting appropriate antibiotics." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en088_35523", "title": "Spondylolysis", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Spondylolysis is typically caused by a stress fracture of the bone, and is especially common in adolescents who over-train in activities. The pars interarticularis is vulnerable to fracture during spinal hyperextension, especially when combined with rotation, or when experiencing a force during a landing. This stress fracture most commonly occurs where the concave lumbar spine transitions to the convex sacrum (L5-S1). A significant number of individuals with spondylolysis will develop spondylolisthesis, which is true for 50-81% of this population. Diagnosis There are several imaging techniques used to diagnose spondylolysis. Common imaging techniques include X-ray, MRI, Bone Scintigraphy (Bone Scan), and Computed Tomography (CT Scan)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0820_20217", "title": "Multifocal septic osteomyelitis mimicking skeletal metastatic disease in a patient with prostate cancer.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We present an unusual case of a 59 years old patient with prostate cancer, who was referred to our hospital with pleurodenia, low back and other sites of bone ostalgia, for bone scintiscan. The patient underwent a whole body bone scanning after the intravenous administration of 740MBq (99m)Tc-methylene diphosphonate (MDP). The main findings of the study were: increased radiotracer uptake at the T5, T9-T10 vertebrae, the head of the 11th rib and the area of the left sternoclavicular joint (SCJ), which were initially attributed to skeletal metastatic lesions. Another \"hot\" area in the left knee, was consistent with severe arthritis. Physical examination revealed fever up to 38.7°C, tenderness and swelling of his left knee and various painful sites. Due to persistent fever and markedly raised inflammatory markers (ESR 102mm/h, CRP 73.8mg/L, WBC 16.800 cells/μ L - neutrophils 78%, lymphocytes 15%, monocytes 5%, eosinophils 1%), the patient was further referred for a magnetic resonance (MR) scan with specific interest on the thoracic spine and the SCJ. In the sagittal short-tau inversion recovery (STIR) MR image, abnormally high signal involving both T9 and T10 vertebral bodies due to bone marrow oedema and irregularity of the endplates with focal destruction areas, were observed. The T9-T10 intervertebral disc had an abnormally high signal suggestive of \"hot disc\" sign and also a prevertebral soft tissue mass abutting the anterior aspect of the involved vertebral bodies. The axial T1-weighted image with fat saturation post gadolinium (Gd), revealed diffuse strong enhancement in the vertebral body, the paraspinal soft tissue mass and the adjacent right rib. Circumferential epidural enhancement indicative of intra-canal spread of the infection, was also noticed. Additional MR sequences covered the level of the SCJ. Extensive subarticular and soft tissue changes with fluid collection and bone oedema of the left SCJ were shown with the typical pattern of diffuse enhancement suggestive of septic arthritis. The MR imaging findings combined with the scintigraphic findings were consistent with subacute multifocal septic arthritis involving the axial skeleton, as a pyogenic spondylodiscitis at the T9-T10 level, the left SCJ joint and the left knee joint. Subsequently, aspiration of the SCJ and the left knee joint was performed. A purulent fluid was drained and sent to microbiology. The sample revealed 96.000 cells/μL (95% neutrophils) and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The patient received intravenous vancomucin (2gr. twice a day for 14 days) and subsequently the dose was adjusted to maintain the vancomucin serum levels between 17 and 20mcg/mL. The total treatment duration was 12 weeks. Four months later the patient had fully recovered and his blood tests were normal. The patient had not been referred to an oncology department yet, as the onset of the arthritis occurred about two weeks after the diagnosis of prostate cancer. In conclusion, we present a patient with known malignancy, fever, skeletal pain and multiple bone lesions in the (99m)Tc-MDP and the MRI examination, not due to metastatic disease but to septic arthritis. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_74892", "title": "Spinal tumor", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Imaging Imaging is often the next step when the diagnosis is unclear or there is greater suspicion for a serious condition that may need immediate intervention. Common types of medical imaging include X-rays, computer tomography scan (CT), Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), myelography, and bone scans. MRI is the imaging of choice for spinal tumors. The MRI protocol that is most frequently used includes T1-weighted and T2-weighted sequences, including contrast enhanced T1-weighted sequences. Short-TI Inversion Recovery (STIR) is also commonly added to the MRI protocol for detecting spinal cord tumors. Myelography may be used as a substitute when the patient cannot undergo an MRI or it is unavailable. X-rays and CT are more commonly used to view the bony structures. They are less frequently used for spinal cord tumors, however, since they cannot reliably detect them. Bone scanning may be used as a supplementary imaging modality for tumors involving bony structures of the spine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0109_13898", "title": "[Pyogenic sacroiliitis. Review of 8 personal cases and 200 cases from the literature].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Eight patients with a pyogenic infection of the sacroiliac joint are compared to 200 published cases. In all our patients the disease began with fever and immobilizing low back and buttock pain. All had bacterial growth in the blood cultures. Five out of 6 patients did not show inflammatory signs in the initial plain roentgenogram. Tc-99m scan was initially positive in 4 out of 6 patients. In 2 patients only the second scan, at 13 and 15 days respectively, was positive. All but one patient had a 4-6 week course of intravenous antibiotics. Three patients underwent surgery for abscesses or intraarticular sequestra. One patient with a small psoas abscess had only medical treatment under CT monitoring. All the patients recovered. From our observations and the literature we conclude that pyogenic sacroiliitis is often not recognized initially. Wrong diagnoses such as sepsis of unknown origin, appendicitis, discal hernia etc. can be avoided if pyogenic sacroiliitis is sought in a systematic fashion. The clinical diagnosis can be confirmed by bone scan, to be repeated at a later stage of disease (i.e. two weeks after onset) if the first examination is inconclusive." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en088_35526", "title": "Spondylolysis", "score": 0.009603883158533414, "content": "Computed tomography Commonly known as a CT Scan or CAT scan, this form of imaging is very similar to x-ray technology but produces many more images than an x-ray does. The multiple images produce cross-sectional views not possible with an x-ray. This allows a physician or radiologist to examine the images from many more angles than an x-ray allows. For this reason the CT scan is much more accurate in detecting spondylolysis than an x-ray. Bone scintigraphy combined with CT scan is considered the gold standard which means that it is best at detecting spondylolysis. MRI MRI is a newer technique used to diagnose spondylolysis and is favorable for a few reasons. The MRI is much more accurate than the x-ray and also does not use radiation. The MRI uses powerful magnets and radio frequencies to produce very detailed images of many different densities of tissue including bone and soft tissues. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1097_2794", "title": "Rare case of brucellosis misdiagnosed as prostate carcinoma with lumbar vertebra metastasis: A case report.", "score": 0.009524673439767779, "content": "Prostatitis caused by <iBrucella</i infection is rare and usually lacks typical lower urinary tract symptoms. However, <iBrucella</i infection can cause serum prostate-specific antigen levels to become abnormally elevated. When concurrent with lumbar vertebra infection and erosion, brucellosis can easily be misdiagnosed as prostate cancer with bone metastasis. A 45-year-old man complained of recurrent low back pain and fever for 2 wk. Magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar vertebrae showed abnormal signs at the rear of the L4-5 vertebral body. Serum prostate-specific antigen level was 17.64 ng/mL, and positron emission tomography/computed tomography suggested the possibility of prostate cancer with liver and lumbar metastases. The patient was transferred to our department for further treatment. He experienced repeated bouts of fever and low back pain during hospitalization. Biopsy results indicated prostatitis. There was no significant increase in white blood cell count or procalcitonin levels. The <iMycobacterium tuberculosis</i smear and antibody detection results were negative. Cefoperazone sulbactam was not effective. Blood culture test results were positive for brucellosis, confirming the diagnosis of brucellosis. After oral anti-infection treatment with doxycycline and rifampicin, the body temperature gradually returned to normal, and lumbago improved. After continuous treatment for 6 mo, the patient recovered. In patients with low back pain and fever accompanied by elevated prostate-specific antigen levels and lesions of the prostate and lumbar spine, a detailed medical history and blood and urine cultures should be obtained, and attention should be given to the local epidemic infectious disease situation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0714_22367", "title": "[Spondylodiscitis].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The authors present a clinical case of a female child, aged 23 months, previously healthy that 24 hours after falling down started to refuse walking and complained about back pain. She never had fever. She felt better with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, restarting the symptoms, two days after therapy suppression. At admission on hospital she presented inability to flex the lower back and loss of lumbar lordosis, being normal the remaining physical examination. There was a raise of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and a radiological narrowing of the L1/L2 inter-vertebral disc space, a compatible image of spondylodiscitis in the MRI. Several diagnosis hipothesis have been considered, being infectious spondylodiscitis the most probable. We instituted tuberculosis therapeutic during one year and intravenous ceftriaxone for tree weeks followed by oral acetil cefuroxime (tree weeks). The spine has been immobilized with spine support. At four months disease and two months therapy, a Oerskovia xanthineolytica was isolated by intervertebral needle biopsy. A good clinical and radiological evolution has been observed. The authors stress the importance of MRI and intervertebral needle biopsy in the diagnosis of spondylodiscitis. It is also enhanced the use of MRI and ESR in the monitoring of response to the treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0384_2868", "title": "Limited magnetic resonance imaging in low back pain instead of plain radiographs: experience with first 1000 cases.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We report our experience with the first 1000 patients with non-traumatic low back pain (LBP) without radiculopathy undergoing limited sequence magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) instead of plain radiography. Between January 1996 and December 1998, 1042 patients with low back pain unresponsive to conservative treatment were examined using a limited MR protocol comprising sagittal T1-weighted and STIR imaging. Plain radiographs were not performed. Malignancy, infection, vertebral fracture, spondylitis, pars defects and cord tumours were detected in 20%. Of the 82 osteoporotic vertebral fractures detected, 51 (62%) were recent and 31 had normal marrow signal indicating that they were old. Eighty pars defects were identified, 45(56%) had spondylolisthesis, 29(37%) were undisplaced and 6 (7%) had pars oedema only. Neoplastic disease was found in 17(8%) of which none was suspected before imaging. Benign neoplastic diseases such as vertebral AVM/haemangiomata were excluded. Twenty-one patients had a variety of disorders including ankylosing spondylitis (7), large vessel aneurysm (3), discitis (2), ovarian cyst (2), sequestered disc (2), sacral insufficiency fracture (2) and one patient each with burst fracture, retroperitoneal haematoma and a previously unsuspected horseshoe kidney. The majority of patients with LBP are best assessed clinically and imaging is usually not required. In patients with worrying symptoms, MRI with a limited protocol detects a greater number of abnormalities than previously reported studies using plain radiographs and has replaced plain radiography in our hospital. We report our experience with the first 1000 patients and highlight issues such as protocols, detection rates and communication issues." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0356_15012", "title": "Pyogenic arthritis of a lumbar facet joint.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We herein report the case of a 68-year-old man with diabetes who developed pyogenic arthritis of a lumbar facet joint after spinal injection. We performed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomography (CT), technetium 99 methylene diphosphonate scintigraphy, and single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) for this patient. MRI showed a lesion in the facet joint and no evidence of spondylodiscitis. CT showed a swelling of periarticular soft tissue around the facet joint. Bone scintigraphy showed a characteristic vertical uptake. In particular, SPECT was able to clearly confirm the location of the infection. An infection of the facet joint has only been rarely reported, but we recommended that this area should be carefully evaluated whenever a patient develops an infection of the lumbar spine after a spinal injection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0391_12620", "title": "Spontaneous pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis in nondrug users.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To analyze the clinical, microbiological, and radiologic features of patients without drug addiction suffering from spontaneous pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis. We collected all microbiologically proved cases of pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis seen between January 1980 and December 1999 in a teaching hospital. Patients with prior spinal instrumentation or surgery and injection drug users were excluded. Sixty-four patients, with a mean age of 59 +/- 17 years, were identified. In 29 (45%) patients, 1 or more underlying medical illnesses were found. The mean duration of symptoms before hospital admission was 48 +/- 40 days. Neurologic impairment was present in 18 (28%) patients. Staphylococcus aureus and gram-negative bacilli, mainly Escherichia coli, were the predominant etiologic agents. Blood cultures were positive in 72% (46/64) of cases. The cultures of spinal specimens obtained by x-ray-guided biopsy were positive in 52% (11/21) of cases, and those obtained by open biopsy in 75% (15/20) of cases. Plain radiography showed abnormalities in all but 7 patients. Fifty-one of 53 (96%) technetium Tc 99m diphosphonate bone scans and 40 of 44 (91%) gallium citrate Ga 67 bone scans showed increased uptake of tracers in the involved area. Paraspinal and epidural extension was found on computed tomography and/or magnetic resonance imaging in 74% (39/53) of cases; the presence of an extra-vertebral extension was not associated with the development of neurologic findings in many patients. Two patients died in relation to the infectious process and 3 relapsed; functional sequelae often were found. Spontaneous pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis in nondrug users is a disease that affects mainly older patients suffering underlying medical illnesses. S aureus and E coli are the main causative microorganisms. Positive blood cultures frequently aided the diagnosis. Extra-vertebral extension is frequent but does not indicate a worse prognosis. Although life outcome is good, functional sequelae are common. Diagnostic delay before admission is a concern, and the physician should be alert to the possibility of this condition in patients with back or neck pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0722_15132", "title": "Spondylodiscitis as a spinal complication of transrectal ultrasound-guided needle biopsy of the prostate.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A case report. To describe the presentation of pyogenic spondylodiscitis as an iatrogenic spinal complication of a transrectal ultrasound-guided needle biopsy of the prostate (TUGNBP), despite prophylactic use of antibiotics, and discuss possible route of infection. Pyogenic spondylodiscitis is a rare complication of TUGNBP. Several similar case reports, have been previously published, including 1 by the authors of this case report; however, in the present case, spondylodiscitis occurred despite prophylactic antibiotic use. A 59-year-old man was admitted to the neurosurgery department, experiencing severe back and bilateral leg pain for 6 weeks. His neurological examination was normal. His medical and surgical histories were unremarkable, except for a TUGNBP performed 2 months ago because of the high serum levels of prostate-specific antigen levels. At the time of the biopsy, he had been given prophylactic oral antibiotic (ciprofloxacin, 500 mg twice a day) for 2 weeks. The day after biopsy, the patient experienced intermittent high fever and fatigue, and a week after biopsy, he complained of progressive back pain. After 2 weeks, whole-body bone scan with Tc99m-MDP revealed hyperactivity at the level of L4 and L5 vertebral bodies. His contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance image of the lumbar spine showed diffuse contrast enhancement vertebral bodies and intervertebral disc of L4 and L5 along with contrast-enhanced circumferential epidural mass extending from S2 to L3 levels. L4 hemilaminectomy and epidural and intradiscal abscess drainage at the L4-L5 levels were performed. The diagnosis was consistent with acute discitis with Gram (-) bacilli, and microbiological culture was positive for Escherichia coli. He received intravenous and oral antibiotics for 6 weeks. Acute pyogenic spondylodiscitis should be considered among the major complications of TUGNBP and may occur despite prophylactic antibiotic use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1127_8161", "title": "<i>Enterococcus gallinarum</i> causing cervical vertebral osteomyelitis: Imagery detecting the process of rapid progression of degeneration-like change in 3 months.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We present a series of images of X-rays and MRI of vertebral osteomyelitis caused by <iEnterococcus gallinarum</i in a 65-year-old patient with persistent neck pain and fever accompanied by preceding transient biliary enzymes elevation. Images detected progression of degeneration-like changes of C5-7 in three months, which is too rapid for true degeneration and relatively slow for vertebral osteomyelitis of common pathogens. Though initial imagery evaluation detected merely degenerative change, the patient was followed up monthly because of persistent fever. Three months later, the images detected the typical imagery of vertebral osteomyelitis i.e., the destruction of vertebral bone: narrowing of intervertebral spaces with focal osteosclerosis and osteolysis on C5-7 became prominent. At this point, consultation to general internal medicine was made. With grade 3 regurgitation murmur, transthoracic echocardiography was performed and revealed 14-mm-in-diameter vegetation on aortic valve. Blood cultures detected <iEnterococcus gallinarum</i of which suspected entry was biliary tract. No previous case reports of <iEnterococcus gallinarum</i referred to vertebral osteomyelitis. While this case showed a typical clinical course of infective endocarditis, the course of progression of vertebral osteomyelitis and perhaps endocarditis was much slower comparing to common pathogens. This might reflect the relatively non-life-threatening features of this organism. <iEnterococcus gallinarum</i shows mild resistance to vancomycin and cephalosporins, initial therapy sometimes fails. <iEnterococcus gallinarum</i should be newly added to pathogenic candidates of vertebral osteomyelitis especially when feverish patients shows back or neck pain with preceding biliary tract problems." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0379_22466", "title": "[Pseudomonas aeruginosa osteitis of the spinal process after peridural anesthesia].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Osteitis of the posterior wall of the spinal canal is an exceptional complication after peridural anesthesia. Prognosis depends on early diagnosis based on clinical signs and imaging data. A 73-year-old man was hospitalized for lower back pain and fever of 3 weeks duration after a total hip arthroplasty performed under general anesthesia. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar spine disclosed osteitis of the spinal processes. Local bacteriology sample evidenced Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Outcome was favorable after a 6-month treatment. Data in the French and English literature (since 1948) on bone infections following epidural anesthesia have included 5 cases of spondylodiscitis and 1 case of posterior wall osteitis. The diagnosis is suggested by the clinical presentation. Standard x-rays contribute little. Early diagnosis in the infraradiological phase can be obtained with bone scintigraphy. Computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging are currently highly contributive to diagnosis and follow-up after treatment. Contamination may be direct or via the blood stream or result from an extension of a neighboring infectious focus. Antibiotic therapy and immobilization are indicated. Rigorous application of strict aseptic procedures during lumbar puncture and use of the epidural catheter are crucial for prevention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0872_21341", "title": "Imaging of Degenerative and Infectious Conditions of the Spine.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": ": Imaging is important in the evaluation of patients with degenerative disease and infectious processes. There are numerous conditions that can manifest as low back pain (LBP) or neck pain in a patient, and in many cases, the cause may be multifactorial. Clinical history and physical examination are key components in the evaluation of such patients; however, physical examination has variable sensitivity and specificity. Although studies have demonstrated that uncomplicated acute LBP and/or radiculopathy are self-limited conditions that do not warrant any imaging, neuroimaging can provide clear anatomic delineation of potential causes of the patient's clinical presentation. Various professional organizations have recommendations for imaging of LBP, which generally agree that an imaging study is not indicated for patients with uncomplicated LBP or radiculopathy without a red flag (eg, neurological deficit such as major weakness or numbness in lower extremities, bowel or bladder dysfunction, saddle anesthesia, fever, history of cancer, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, trauma, or worsening symptoms). Different imaging modalities have a complementary role in the diagnosis of pathologies affecting the spine. In this review, we discuss the standard nomenclature for lumbar disk pathology and the utility of various clinical imaging techniques in the evaluation of LBP/neck pain for potential neurosurgical management. The imaging appearance of spinal infections and potential mimics also is reviewed. Finally, we discuss advanced neuroradiological techniques that offer greater microstructural and functional information. ADC, apparent diffusion coefficientDTI, diffusion tensor imagingDWI, diffusion-weighted imagingDOM, diskitis-osteomyelitisLBP, low back painMRM, magnetic resonance myelographySNA, spinal neuroarthropathySPECT, single-positron emission computed tomographySTIR, short tau inversion recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1013_13850", "title": "Management of lumbar spondylodiscitis developing after laparoscopic sacrohysteropexy with a mesh: A case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Lumbar spondylodiscitis is a rare and severe complication of laparoscopic sacrohysteropexy with a polypropylene mesh. However, a case of lumbar spondylodiscitis following laparoscopic sacrohysteropexy has not been reported so far. We present a case of lumbar spondylodiscitis following laparoscopic sacrohysteropexy with a mesh. We also discuss 33 cases of lumbar spondylodiscitis following sacral colpopexy and (or) rectopexy with a mesh. A 46-year-old woman with 3 previous vaginal deliveries underwent laparoscopic mesh sacrohysteropexy for stage III uterine prolapse. One month after surgery, the patient developed persistent symptoms, such as stiffness of the lumbosacral portion, low back pain (LBP), persistent swelling, pain between the right iliac crest and the buttock, inability to bend down, and pain in the right lower limb. Symptoms were alleviated by a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. However, in the last 7 days, symptoms worsened and she was unable to stand or walk. The patient had very limited leg mobility. Blood routine examination, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine indicated lumbar pyogenic spondylodiscitis. Removal of mesh and hysterectomy via laparoscopy were performed immediately, and antibiotics were given simultaneously. However, on the basis of MRI findings and persistent symptoms, debridement, laminectomy, spinal canal decompression, bone grafting, and internal fixation via pedicle screw placement were performed 5 months after laparoscopic sacrohysteropexy. All symptoms were alleviated 5 days after the operation. The patient could stand in the erect position and raise her lower limbs within 2 weeks. She could resume her normal activities within 2 months after the operation, and her X-ray appeared normal. Persistent LBP and radiating pain may be the signals of lumbar spondylodiscitis. MRI is the gold standard diagnostic examination for lumbar spondylodiscitis. Awareness of symptoms, such as LBP and radiating pain symptoms, timely diagnosis, mesh removal, and referral to orthopedists are important to prevent more severe complications. Surgical practice needs to be improved further and any other infections should be treated immediately as the most likely causes of lumbar spondylodiscitis are related to the mesh and other infections." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en055_29363", "title": "Enchondroma", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) - a diagnostic procedure that uses a combination of large magnets, radiofrequencies, and a computer to produce detailed images of organs and structures within the body. This test is done to rule out any associated abnormalities of the spinal cord and nerves. computed tomography scan (Also called a CT or CAT scan.) - a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses a combination of x-rays and computer technology to produce cross-sectional images (often called slices), both horizontally and vertically, of the body. A CT scan shows detailed images of any part of the body, including the bones, muscles, fat, and organs. CT scans are more detailed than general x-rays." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_8029", "title": "Clinical features, diagnostic and therapeutic approaches to haematogenous vertebral osteomyelitis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "This article review the clinical features and the diagnostic approach to haematogenous vertebral osteomyelitis in order to optimise treatment strategies and follow-up assessment. Haematogenous spread is considered to be the most important route: the lumbar spine is the most common site of involvement for pyogenic infection and the thoracic spine for tuberculosis infection. The risk factors for developing haematogenous vertebral osteomyelitis are different among old people, adults and children: the literature reports that the incidence seems to be increasing in older patients. The source of infection in the elderly has been related to the use of intravenous access devices and the asymptomatic urinary infections. In young patients the increase has been correlated with the growing number of intravenous drug abusers, with endocarditis and with immigrants from areas where tuberculosis is still endemic. The onset of symptoms is typically insidious with neck or back pain often underestimated by the patient. Fever is present in 10-45% of patients. Spinal infections may cause severe neurological compromise in few cases, but mild neurological deficit, limited to one or two nerve roots, was detected in 28-35% of patients. The diagnosis of haematogenous vertebral osteomyelitis may be very difficult, as the symptoms can be sometimes not specific, vague or almost absent. The usual delay in diagnosis has been reported to be two to four months, despite the use of imaging techniques: in the early diagnosis of vertebral ostemyelitis is important the role of bone scintigraphy. The general principles for the management of spine infections are non operative, consisting of external immobilization and intravenous antibiotics, followed by oral antibiotics. Indications for surgery should be given in case of absence of clinical improvement after 2-3 weeks of intravenous antibiotics, persistent back pain and systemic effects of chronic infection and with presence or progression of neurological deficit in elderly or in cervical infection. Chronic ostemyelitis may require surgery in case of a development of biomechanical instability and/or a vertebral collapse with progressive deformity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_36568", "title": "Copenhagen disease", "score": 0.008981007122329127, "content": "Thoracolumbar spine X-rays are often used to confirm a diagnosis, and some prominent features include pinching of the anterior intervertebral disc, with fusion eventually going towards the rest of the vertebrae. Sagittal MRI imaging provides accurate scans of the spine showing non-infectious fusion. CT scans can also be used to locate issues in the vertebrae, but this form of diagnosis currently lacks a significant amount of support from the literature. 3D-CT scans can be utilized to clarify the extent of the vertebral malformations, and assist in the differential diagnosis, as multiple congenital spine defects, such as osteogenesis imperfecta, may accompany Copenhagen disease." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_25494", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.008929719797887, "content": "Years may elapse before unequivocal sacroiliac abnormalities are evident on plain radiographs, and consequently, MRI is being increasingly used in diagnosing AS. Active sacroiliitis is best visualized by dynamic MRI with fat saturation, either T2-weighed turbo spin-echo sequence or short tau inversion recovery (STIR) with high resolution, or T1-weighted images with contrast enhancement. These techniques sensitively identify early intraarticular inflammation, cartilage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroiliitis (Fig. 384-1). They are also highly sensitive for evaluation of acute and chronic spinal changes (Fig. 384-2). Reduced bone mineral density can be detected by dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry of the femoral neck and the lumbar spine. Use of a lateral projection of the L3 vertebral body can prevent falsely elevated readings related to spinal ossification." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 377 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 59 ] ], "text": "Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common porphyria and can present with three major clinical forms: familial, sporadic and toxic. Clinically, it is characterized by marked skin fragility with the appearance of erosions, vesicles and blisters after minimal trauma. The most frequent sites are the back of the hands and the face, i.e. the areas of greatest photoexposure." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Familial benign pemphigus.", "2": "Pemphigoid.", "3": "Porphyria cutanea tarda.", "4": "Pemphigus vulgaris.", "5": "Scalded skin syndrome." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0102_840", "title": "[The morphology of skin damage in porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)].", "score": 0.01951637471439452, "content": "Skin biopsies (fresh and old blisters) of the back of the hand and lower arm, respectively, obtained from 24 patients with clinically and biochemically established porphyria cutanea tarda have been examined light and electron microscopically, 15 out of them also by immunofluorescence microscopy (occurrence of IgG, IgM and C3). Light microscopically there were subepidermal blisterings and typical corial broadenings of the capillary wall with deposits of diastase-resistant PAS-positive material in and around the walls of the vessels. Electron microscopically, replications of the capillary basement membrane with deposits of amorphous material were observed. IgG and C 3 on the dermoepidermal junction and in the capillaries could be identified by means of the direct immunofluorescence method in a number of cases. The pathogenesis of the lesions of the vessel walls and that of the subepidermal blistering, hitherto interpreted as their consequence, is not yet clarified sufficiently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0870_4714", "title": "Reflectance confocal microscopy in the diagnosis of vesicobullous disorders: case series with pathologic and cytologic correlation and literature review.", "score": 0.01835016835016835, "content": "Vesicobullous disorders are characterized by intraepidermal or subepidermal blistering resulting from different pathogenetic mechanisms. The diagnosis is generally based on clinical examination and semi-invasive/invasive procedures such as cytology and histopathology. In vivo reflectance confocal microscopy (RCM) is a non-invasive technique for real-time, en face imaging of the epidermis and upper dermis with high resolution close to conventional histopathology. To evaluate RCM features of different vesicobullous diseases and correlate with cytologic and histopathologic examination. Ten patients (6M/4F, age range: 9-81 years) affected by blistering diseases, such as herpes simplex, herpes zoster, Kaposi's varicelliform eruption, pemphigus vulgaris, Hailey-Hailey disease, bullous pemphigoid, and porphyria cutanea tarda were evaluated using a handheld RCM device. In our study, a clear correlation between RCM and Tzanck's test and/or histopathology was observed. RCM allowed in all cases an easy identification of the blister spaces and of the split levels, and in some cases specific features were detected, such as giant keratinocytes in herpes infections and acantholytic cells in pemphigus vulgaris and Hailey-Hailey disease. Reflectance confocal microscopy may support the clinical diagnosis of vesicobullous disorders and indicate to the physician the appropriate patient management and/or the need for further investigation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_13353", "title": "Mixed connective tissue disease. A clinical, histologic, and immunofluorescence study of eight cases.", "score": 0.015213675213675216, "content": "A study of the cutaneous eruptions of eight patients with mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) was performed to better characterize its dermatopathology and to explore a role for the membrane attack complex of complement C5b-9 in lesional pathogenesis. Nine lesional skin biopsies were obtained from eight patients with MCTD and analyzed by conventional light microscopy. Direct immunofluorescence (IF) and indirect IF using a monoclonal antibody to C5b-9 were applied in six and five cases respectively. The biopsied cutaneous eruptions were characterized clinically as photo-distributed erythematosus annular and/or papulosquamous lesions mimnicking subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE) in five of eight patients as an ill-defined, telangiectatic, scaly patch on the face in one patient, palpable purpura in one patient, and dorsal hand blisters resembling porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) in another. With the exception of the latter two patients, the histology appeared similar, comprising a cell poor and/or lichenoid interface dermatitis with suprabasilar exocytosis around necrotic keratinocytes in the absence of deep periadnexal or perivascular extension or conspicuous follicular plugging, a pattern similar to that of SCLE. However, the lesions differed from SCLE by virtue of vasculopathic alterations comprising vascular ectasia, hypovascularity, and/or luminal thrombosis confined to the superficial vascular plexus and a sclerodermoid tissue reaction, the latter seen in two cases. One biopsy showed a pustular leukocytoclastic vasculitis (LCV). In another case, a biopsied hand blister demonstrated a PCT-like appearance histologically, namely, pauci-inflammatory subepithelial blister formation with hyalinization of dermal papillae capillaries accompanied by an LCV. There was nuclear keratinocyte decoration with IgG and C5b-9 in all cases studied, accompanied by a positive lupus band test in two cases and homogenous deposition of immunoreactants along the dermoepidermal junction and within vessels in the PCT-like eruption. Granular vascular decoration with immunoreactants including C5b-9 was seen in two LCV cases and in two biopsies from rashes clinically mimicking SCLE. Although the epidermal pathology of MCTD mimicks that of SCLE, a concomitant vasculopathy paralleling that seen in skin lesions of dermatomyositis distinquishes the dermatopathology of MCTD from that of SCLE. Corroborating the role of microangiopathy in the pathogenesis of the skin lesions of MCTD was the demonstration of C5b-9 in blood vessels. The deposition of C5b-9 in keratinocytes may explain the pattern Of IgG decoration of keratinocytes; the formation of plasmalemmal pores may permit binding of immunoglobulin to antigens in the nucleus and/or cytosol. The C 5b-9 complex may be the effector mechanism of epithelial and/or endothelial cell injury in MCTD or may serve to augment the effects of antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58281", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.014519056261343012, "content": "Pemphigus vulgaris is a rare chronic blistering skin disease and the most common form of pemphigus. Pemphigus was derived from the Greek word pemphix, meaning blister. It is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction in which antibodies are formed against desmosomes, components of the skin that function to keep certain layers of skin bound to each other. As desmosomes are attacked, the layers of skin separate and the clinical picture resembles a blister. These blisters are due to acantholysis, or breaking apart of intercellular connections through an autoantibody-mediated response. Over time the condition inevitably progresses without treatment: lesions increase in size and distribution throughout the body, behaving physiologically like a severe burn." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_45350", "title": "Nikolsky's sign", "score": 0.013499002914557447, "content": "Nikolsky's sign is almost always present in Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, caused by the exfoliative toxin of Staphylococcus aureus. It is also associated with pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus. It is useful in differentiating between the diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris or mucous membrane pemphigoid (where the sign is present) and bullous pemphigoid (where it is absent). The Nikolsky sign is dislodgement of intact superficial epidermis by a shearing force, indicating a plane of cleavage in the skin epidermal-epidermal junctions (e.g., desmosomes). The histological picture involves thinner, weaker attachments of the skin lesion itself to the normal skin – resulting in easier dislodgement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_27537", "title": "Pemphigus", "score": 0.013433787770070956, "content": "and eye doctors, as lesions can affect the eyes and mucous membranes of the oral cavity. Intraorally, it resembles the more common diseases lichen planus and mucous membrane pemphigoid. Definitive diagnosis requires examination of a skin or mucous membrane biopsy by a dermatopathologist or oral pathologist. The skin biopsy is taken from the edge of a blister, prepared for histopathology and examined with a microscope. The pathologist looks for an intraepidermal vesicle caused by the breaking apart of epidermal cells (acantholysis). Thus, the superficial (upper) portion of the epidermis sloughs off, leaving the bottom layer of cells on the \"floor\" of the blister. This bottom layer of cells is said to have a \"tombstone\" appearance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0475_9214", "title": "Blistering disorders: diagnosis and treatment.", "score": 0.012578369905956113, "content": "Blistering diseases are a heterogeneous group of disorders that can affect either skin and mucous membrane, or both, varying in presentation, clinical course, pathohistology, immunopathology and treatment. Not infrequently the diagnosis is delayed. This can result in severe, and sometimes fatal consequences. Although these diseases are rare, it is very important to make an accurate diagnosis based on a combination of clinical profile and laboratory observations. A brief review is presented of the following bullous diseases: pemphigus, paraneoplastic pemphigus, bullous pemphigoid, cicatricial pemphigoid, epidermolysis bullosa acquisita, dermatitis herpetiformis, linear IgA bullous disease, porphyria cutanea tarda, and subcorneal pustular dermatitis. Their clinical, pathohistologic and immunopathologic features and recommendations for therapy are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0005_4852", "title": "Porphyria-like cutaneous changes induced by tetracycline hydrochloride photosensitization.", "score": 0.012577639751552794, "content": "Five patients manifested cutaneous changes indistinguishable from those noted in some porphyric disorders, consisting of fragility, denudation, and blister formation of sun-exposed skin. Microscopical examination showed subepidermal bulla formation and the desposition of PAS-positive, diastase-resistant material and IgG in or around the upper dermal blood vessel walls. There was also electron microscopical evidence of vascular basal lamina reduplication and the deposition of a fine fibrillar material in and around these vessels. However, no abnormal porphyrin formation was noted. All five patients had been receiving 250 mg of tetracycline hydrochloride twice a day for at least six months and had had extensive sun exposure prior to the onset of the condition. For four patients, discontinuing the medication led to complete remission, despite subsequent sun exposure; the fifth patient was much improved, but her skin was still somewhat fragile seven months later. We concluded that these cutaneous changes resulted from a low-grade photosensitization by tetracycline hydrochloride." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0905_6516", "title": "A study of clinical, histopathological and direct immunofluorescence diagnosis in pemphigus group Utility of direct immunofluorescence.", "score": 0.012375412204972396, "content": "To determine the diagnostic accordance between histopathological and direct immunofluorescence diagnosis of patients with autoimmune vesiculobullous skin diseases. The term pemphigus refers to a group of autoimmune blistering diseases mediated by auto-antibodies directed against desmoglein proteins. The differentiation between the various bullous diseases is important for treatment and prognosis. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy is still the gold standard in differentiating these diseases. Patients with clinical diagnosis of vesiculobullous dermatitis from pemphigus group were included in the study. We retrospectively analyzed histopathologic and direct immunofluorescence results from skin or mucosal samples over 15-year period. 81 patients were included. The accordance was good in pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus herpetiformis, but low in pemphigus vegetans, pemphigus foliaceus and pemphigus erythematosus. No accordance was in Hailey-Hailey disease and Grover´s disease. Uncommon result in our analysis included: intraepidermal IgG and IgM depositions at DIF in one Grover´s disease patient. Our results confirmed the relevance of direct immunofluorescence assays as a necessary diagnostic method for the definitive diagnosis of autoimmune blistering disease in the case, where the clinical feature and the results of histopathology are not clear (Tab. 4, Fig. 5, Ref. 26)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0999_5778", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris.", "score": 0.01232806555458004, "content": "Pemphigus vulgaris is a chronic autoimmune bullous dermatosis that results from the production of autoantibodies against desmogleins 1 and 3. It is the most frequent and most severe form of pemphigus, occurring universally, usually between 40 and 60 years of age. It usually begins with blisters and erosions on the oral mucosa, followed by lesions on other mucous membranes and flaccid blisters on the skin, which can be disseminated. There is a clinical variant, pemphigus vegetans, which is characterized by the presence of vegetating lesions in the large folds of the skin. Clinical suspicion can be confirmed by cytological examination, histopathological examination, and direct and indirect immunofluorescence tests. The treatment is performed with systemic corticosteroids, and immunosuppressive drugs may be associated, among them azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil. More severe cases may benefit from corticosteroids in the form of intravenous pulse therapy, and recent studies have shown a beneficial effect of rituximab, an anti-CD20 immunobiological drug. It is a chronic disease with mortality around 10%, and septicemia is the main cause of death. Patients need long-term and multidisciplinary follow-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58285", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.011695906432748537, "content": "Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against both desmoglein 1 and desmoglein 3 present in desmosomes. Loss of desmosomes results in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in the epidermis, and a disruption of the barrier function served by intact skin. The process is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction (in which antibodies bind to antigens on the body's own tissues). On histology, the basal keratinocytes are usually still attached to the basement membrane leading to a characteristic appearance called \"tombstoning\". Transudative fluid accumulates in between the keratinocytes and the basal layer (suprabasal split), forming a blister and resulting in what is known as a positive Nikolsky's sign. This is a contrasting feature from bullous pemphigoid, which is thought to be due to anti-hemidesmosome antibodies, and where the detachment occurs between the epidermis and dermis (subepidermal bullae). Clinically, pemphigus vulgaris is characterized" }, { "id": "Pathology_Robbins_5248", "title": "Pathology_Robbins", "score": 0.011589925226288864, "content": "Fig. 24.8 Levelsofblisterformation.(A)Subcorneal(asinpemphigusfoliaceus).(B)Suprabasal(asinpemphigusvulgaris).(C)Subepidermal(asinbullouspemphigoidordermatitisherpetiformis). mechanisms, but differ in their clinical presentation and course due to variation in the location of the target antigen (hemidesmosomes in bullous pemphigoid, desmosomes in pemphigus). Fig.24.12B ).Theoverlyingepidermischaracteristicallylacksacantholysis.Earlylesionsshowvariablenumbersofeosinophilsatthedermal-epidermaljunction,occasionalneutrophils,superficialdermaledema,andassociatedbasalcelllayervacuolization.Thevacuolatedbasalcelllayereventuallygivesrisetoafluid-filledblister( Fig.24.12C ).Theblisterroofconsistsoffull-thicknessepidermiswithintactintercellularjunctions,akeydistinctionfromtheblistersseeninpemphigus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_27503", "title": "Pemphigoid", "score": 0.011441339578958704, "content": "Other potential contributory factors including genetic factors, environmental exposures to infections and drugs as well as the phenomenon of epitope spreading are also known to cause bullous pemphigoid. Diagnosis Diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid includes clinical assessment, skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence, indirect immunofluorescence and ELISA test. Among all, direct immunofluorescence is the gold standard for diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid. Clinical assessment For patients greater than 70 years old Blistering skin disease characterized by the presence of tense blisters and erosions that occur without another identifiable cause and rarely on mucosa. Unexplained pruritus, pruritic eczematous eruptions, or urticarial plaques Histopathology Lesional tissue, preferably of an intact vesicle or the edge of an intact bulla is obtained using punch biopsy for Haemotoxylin and Eosin (H&E)staining. Typical histopathologic findings include:" }, { "id": "article-27441_18", "title": "Porphyria Cutanea Tarda -- Histopathology", "score": 0.011303976487728906, "content": "Cutaneous pathologic findings: Sub-epidermal bullae and thick hyalinized blood vessels in the upper dermis are seen. Caterpillar bodies, which are linear globules that stain PAS-positive, are present at the roof of the blisters and represent disintegrating keratinocytes and basement membrane material. Dermal sclerosis may also be present, which can be histologically identical to scleroderma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58282", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.01128314106456183, "content": "Before the advent of modern treatments, mortality for the disease was close to 90%. Today, the mortality rate with treatment is between 5-15% due to the introduction of corticosteroids as primary treatment. Nevertheless, in 1998, pemphigus vulgaris was the fourth most common cause of death due to a skin disorder. The disease mainly affects middle-aged and older adults between 50–60 years old. There has historically been a higher incidence in women. Signs and symptoms Pemphigus vulgaris most commonly presents with oral blisters (buccal and palatine mucosa, especially), but also includes cutaneous blisters. Other mucosal surfaces, the conjunctiva, nose, esophagus, penis, vulva, vagina, cervix, and anus, may also be affected. Flaccid blisters over the skin are frequently seen with sparing of the skin covering the palms and soles." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58288", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.010981546473451828, "content": "Diagnosis Because it is a rare disease, diagnosis is often complicated and takes a long time. Early in the disease patients may have erosions in the mouth or blisters on the skin. These blisters can be itchy or painful. Theoretically, the blisters should demonstrate a positive Nikolsky's sign, in which the skin sloughs off from slight rubbing, but this is not always reliable. The gold standard for diagnosis is a punch biopsy from the area around the lesion that is examined by direct immunofluorescent staining, in which cells are acantholytic, that is, lacking the normal intercellular connections that hold them together. These can also be seen on a Tzanck smear. These cells are basically rounded, nucleated keratinocytes formed due to antibody mediated damage to cell adhesion protein desmoglein." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_27536", "title": "Pemphigus", "score": 0.010734231076082488, "content": "Pemphigus defines a group of autoimmune intraepithelial blistering diseases that are characterized by loss of normal cell-cell adhesion (acantholysis), and by the presence of pathogenic (predominantly IgG) autoantibodies reacting against epithelial adhesion molecules. Pemphigus is further divided in two major subtypes: pemphigus vulgaris (PV) and pemphigus foliaceus (PF). However, several other disorders such as IgA pemphigus, IgE pemphigus, pemphigus herpetiformis, drug-induced pemphigus, Senear Usher syndrome, and endemic pemphigus foliaceus exist, and are recognized by a dermatologist from the appearance and distribution of the skin lesions. It is also commonly diagnosed by specialists practicing otolaryngology- head and neck surgery, periodontists, oral and maxillofacial surgeons, and eye doctors, as lesions can affect the eyes and mucous membranes of the oral cavity. Intraorally, it resembles the more common diseases lichen planus and mucous membrane pemphigoid. Definitive" }, { "id": "Pathoma_Husain_493", "title": "Pathoma_Husain", "score": 0.010696798493408663, "content": "3. Thin-walled bullae rupture easily (Nikolsky sign), leading to shallow erosions with dried crust. 4. Immunofluorescence highlights IgG surrounding keratinocytes in a 'fish net' pattern. II. BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID A. Autoimmune destruction ofhemidesmosomes between basal cells and the underlying basement membrane B. Due to IgG antibody against hemidesmosome components (BP180) of the basement membrane C. Presents as blisters of the skin (Fig. 19.SA), usually in the elderly; oral mucosa is spared. 1. Basal cell layer is detached from the basement membrane (Fig. 19.SB). 2. D. Immunofluorescence highlights IgG along basement membrane (linear pattern). III. DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS A. Autoimmune deposition of IgA at the tips of dermal papillae B. Presents as pruritic vesicles and bullae that are grouped (herpetiform, Fig. 19.6) C. Strong association with celiac disease; resolves with gluten-free diet" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0634_3597", "title": "Broad histopathologic patterns of non-glabrous skin and glabrous skin from patients with a new variant of endemic pemphigus foliaceus-part 1.", "score": 0.010443935427574172, "content": "A prospective, controlled epidemiologic survey performed in El Bagre, Colombia revealed a new variant of endemic pemphigus disease, occurring in a gold mining region. The disease resembled Senear-Usher syndrome, and occurred in an endemic fashion. The aim of this study is to describe the most frequent histopathologic patterns in non-glabrous skin and in glabrous skin observed in these patients, and their clinical correlation. The study was performed on non-glabrous skin biopsies of 30 patients from the dominantly clinical affected areas (either on the chest, arms or face). Simultaneously, biopsies from the palms were obtained in 10 randomly chosen patients of the 30 total patients. The specimens were examined following hematoxylin and eosin (H&amp;E) staining. The most common blisters observed were subcorneal, although in some cases intraspinous and subepidermal blisters were visualized. Our results showed a very heterogeneous pattern of histopathologic patterns in non-glabrous skin, which seemed to correlate with the clinical features. The most common pattern was typical pemphigus foliaceus-like, with some lupus erythematosus-like features. A non-specific, chronic dermatitis pattern prevailed in the clinically controlled patients taking daily corticosteroids. In the patients who have had the most severe and relapsing pemphigus, early sclerodermatous changes and scleredermoid alterations prevailed in their reticular dermis. In addition to the scleredermoid alterations, the reticular dermis showed a paucity of appendageal structures. On the contrary, in the palms, a similar pattern was seen in all cases, including thickening of the stratum corneum, hypergranulosis, edema in the papillary and reticular dermis and a dermal perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. The direct immunofluorescence of the glabrous vs. the non-glabrous skin also showed some differences. We conclude that the histopathologic features of this new variant of endemic pemphigus are complex, therefore, classical histopathologic features previously described for superficial, endemic pemphigus cannot be used alone to diagnose this disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_11207", "title": "Polymorphous light eruption", "score": 0.010146451663161174, "content": "Differential diagnosis The photosensitivity connected with lupus erythematosus is the main condition that may appear like PLE. However, the rash of lupus is inclined to be more persistent. PLE does not increase the risk of lupus. Other similar appearing conditions are solar urticaria, which has a shorter duration, the eczema-like condition, photosensitive dermatitis, and photosensitivity drug reaction. Prickly heat, which is caused by warm weather or heat is not the same as PLE. Photosensitivity is also found in some of the porphyrias. Nearly all cases of porphyria cutanea tarda exhibit blister formation on the skin within 2–4 days of light exposure. Variegate porphyria and hereditary coproporphyria can also exhibit symptoms of light-induced blisters. Classification Sunlight has been documented to trigger numerous skin conditions and the confusing terminology and categorisation previously has made the correct diagnosis and subsequent treatment difficult." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4205", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010035153695225639, "content": "Pemphigus foliaceus (PF) is distinguished from PV by several features. In PF, acantholytic blisters are located high within the epidermis, usually just beneath the stratum corneum. Hence, PF is a more superficial blistering disease than PV. The distribution of lesions in the two disorders is much the same, except that in PF mucous membranes are almost always spared. Patients with PF rarely have intact blisters but rather exhibit shallow erosions associated with erythema, scale, and crust formation. Mild cases of PF resemble severe seborrheic dermatitis; severe PF may cause extensive exfoliation. Sun exposure (ultraviolet irradiation) may be an aggravating factor." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_6389", "title": "List of dog diseases", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Lick granuloma also known as acral lick dermatitis, is a skin disorder in dogs resulting from an urge to lick the lower portion of the leg. The lesion from the incessant licking is a thickened, firm, oval plaque. Pemphigus is an uncommon autoimmune skin disease. The most common form in dogs is pemphigus foliaceus, which manifests as erosions and crusting of the skin and mucocutaneous junctions. Pemphigus vulgaris is more rare and manifests as blister-like lesions in the mouth and at mucocutaneous junctions. Bullous pemphigoid is most commonly seen in Dobermanns and Collies and appears as a scald-like lesion of the groin. Sebaceous adenitis is an uncommon autoimmune skin disease. Most commonly found in Akitas and Standard Poodles. Dermal fragility syndrome, also known as Ehlers–Danlos-like syndrome, is a rare condition in dogs characterized by increased skin elasticity and poor wound healing. There appears to be a genetic basis for the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0583_2018", "title": "Porphyria cutanea tarda in pre-existent lupus erythematosus--is there an association?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In lupus erythematosus (LE), vesicles and bullae are only rarely seen. However, in some instances such efflorescences might suggest an association with distinct cutaneous diseases, including erythema multiforme, toxic epidermal necrolysis or autoimmune blistering disorders such as bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, and dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring. Another blistering disease that has been described in association with cutaneous and systemic LE is porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT). PCT is a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of the fifth enzyme in heme biosynthesis, uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. Here, we report on a 57-year-old Caucasian woman of Dutch origin with a medical history of mild cutaneous LE who developed skin fragility, blistering skin lesions, milia, and facial hypertrichosis. Subsequent porphyrin analysis in urine and feces confirmed the suspected simultaneous manifestation of LE and PCT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_9217", "title": "Direct Immunofluorescence of Mechanobullous Epidermolysis Bullosa Acquisita, Porphyria Cutanea Tarda and Pseudoporphyria.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Mechanobullous epidermolysis bullosa acquisita (mEBA) can have a clinical presentation that is very similar to other blistering diseases, such as porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) and pseudoporphyria. Direct immunofluorescence is an important feature in the diagnosis of mEBA, although features that overlap with PCT and pseudoporphyria have been reported. This retrospective observational study investigated whether direct immunofluorescence can discriminate mEBA from PCT and pseudoporphyria. Biopsies of 13 patients with mEBA, 10 with PCT and 10 with pseudoporphyria were included. In 7 cases of PCT and 4 of pseudoporphyria, direct immunofluorescence showed a pattern at the dermal-epidermal junction that appeared similar to the u-serrated pattern in mEBA. Vessel wall depositions were observed in all 3 diseases, but were more frequent and more intense in PCT and pseudoporphyria than in mEBA. Careful examination of direct immunofluorescence of mEBA vs. PCT and pseudoporphyria revealed different staining patterns, although overlapping features were present. Therefore, integrating all clinical and laboratory data is essential to differentiate between mEBA, PCT and pseudoporphyria." }, { "id": "article-27441_26", "title": "Porphyria Cutanea Tarda -- Evaluation", "score": 0.00980126467931346, "content": "Skin Biopsy: This is not needed for diagnosis and may only help in excluding some other skin conditions from the cutaneous porphyrias. Subepidermal blisters and depositions in vessel walls are some of the biopsy findings seen in porphyrias. [21]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0251_7564", "title": "Interstitial collagenase is expressed by keratinocytes that are actively involved in reepithelialization in blistering skin disease.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Migrating keratinocytes actively involved in reepithelialization in dermal wounds acquire a collagenolytic phenotype upon contact with the dermal matrix. To determine whether this phenotype is associated with repair in other forms of wounds, we assessed collagenase expression in 50 specimens representing a variety of blistering skin diseases, including subtypes of epidermolysis bullosa, porphyria cutanea tarda, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus, transient acantholytic dermatosis, and suction blisters. Distinct from that seen in chronic ulcers or in normal healing by second intention, reepithelialization in these blistering conditions was not necessarily associated with a complete loss of basement membrane, as determined by immunostaining for type IV collagen. Collagenase mRNA was detected in the basal keratinocytes of several specimens of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (six of 10) and of pemphigus (three of seven), as well as in one quarter of transient acantholytic dermatosis samples in the presence of an intact basement membrane. In contrast, three of nine porphyria cutanea tarda, one third of epidermolysis bullosa acquisita, and one of 10 bullous pemphigoid samples had collagenase-positive basal keratinocytes with the basement membrane disrupted. The collagenase-positive lesions generally represented older blisters with evidence of epithelial regeneration. Collagenase was also expressed in suction blisters at 2 and 5 d after induction of the blister, but was shut off when the epidermis had healed. Other metalloproteinases were expressed occasionally, if at all. Our results suggest that keratinocyte migration is associated with collagenase expression and that contact of keratinocytes with the dermal matrix is not necessarily needed for collagenase induction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0603_14919", "title": "Cutaneous pemphigus vulgaris with skin features similar to the classic mucocutaneous type: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is a life-threatening autoimmune blistering skin disease that specifically involves oral mucosa. It was recently shown that a very small number of patients with PV show no mucous membrane involvement although they have circulating autoantibodies directed against both desmoglein (Dsg)1 and Dsg3 that are associated with histopathological suprabasal acantholysis. These cases are classed as cutaneous-type PV. We report here a case of cutaneous-type PV that occurred in a 50-year-old man. Clinical examination revealed numerous tense and spreading blisters and erosions over the patient's entire body, similar to the classic mucocutaneous-type PV. Interestingly, none of the previously reported patients with cutaneous PV had shown skin features like those of mucocutaneous PV, whereas the present case clearly demonstrated very typical clinical features similar to those in mucocutaneous PV." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0028_5405", "title": "[Pseudo-late onset cutaneous parphyria in haemodialysis patients. Clinical and histological features. 9 cases (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In the context of a study of cutaneous problems seen in chronic renal failure patients on intermittent haemodialysis, the authors noted bullous eruptions very similar to late onset cutaneous porphyria. The bullae occur during the summer and are situated on exposed areas, in particular the head and neck. There is skin fragility and the bullae are transient, giving place to erosions and later to atrophic scarring. Even pseudo-miliary cysts have been observed. Histology reveals a sub-epidermal bulla, the basis of which consists of spiky papillary dermis. Immunofluorescence show immunoglobulin deposits in the vessels and basal membrane. All porphyrin measurements are negative. This disorder may be due to the presence of a non-porphyrinogenic photo-sensitising substance, found in certain types of plastic tubing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en246_29307", "title": "Paraneoplastic pemphigus", "score": 0.009531222971804186, "content": "Signs and symptoms While the presence of lesions is the denominator among patients with PNP, the characteristics of the lesions differ. The five clinical presentations of lesions associated with PNP include: \"Pemphigus-like\": Flaccid blister (discrete), crusts over the raw exuding skin lesions \"Pemphigoid-like\": Tense blister(s) on brick red erythema \"Erythema multiforme-like\": Severe polymorphic skin and/or mucous membrane lesions \"Graft-vs.-host disease-like\": Widespread lichenoid eruption with severe mucous membrane involvement \"Lichen planus-like\": Small red flat-topped scaly papules" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0286_14246", "title": "A case of autoimmune bullous dermatosis with features of pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pleomorphic blisters, including tense bullae and annularly arranged vesicles around the erythema as well as erosive eruptions in the oral cavity, appeared on a 61-year-old woman 5 years after surgery for cholangiocellular carcinoma. A biopsy specimen from the oral cavity showed intraepidermal blisters, and those from skin lesions showed subepidermal blisters with infiltrates of eosinophils and neutrophils. The early-stage vesicles showed infiltrates along the epidermal-dermal junction, where electron microscopy disclosed disruption of the lamina densa, basal cells remaining on the dermis, and acantholytic keratinocytes among the infiltrates, but there was no cleavage of the epidermal-dermal junction at the lamina lucida. Direct immunofluorescence studies showed immune deposition at the intercellular space (ICS) and along the basement membrane zone (BMZ). Indirect immunofluorescence studies confirmed coexistence of IgG class anti-ICS and anti-BMZ antibodies. Although this case showed immunohistochemical features of bullous pemphigoid, the presence of suprabasal cleavage in the oral mucosa, acantholytic cells in the blister cavity, the deposition of IgG at the ICS of the perilesional epidermis, and circulating anti-ICS antibodies strongly suggested that this case was primarily pemphigus. The strong inflammation along the epidermal-dermal junction due to unknown factors may have modified the clinical appearance and the histopathology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0541_12444", "title": "Transition from pemphigus foliaceus to pemphigus vulgaris: case report with literature review.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The transition between the main subtypes of pemphigus, pemphigus vulgaris (PV), and pemphigus foliaceus (PF) has rarely been reported. Moreover, the development of PV in a patient with PF is much more unusual than that of PF in a patient with PV. We report a 48-year-old man who presented with cutaneous lesions showing the typical clinical and histological features of PF. Five years later, his skin lesions became extensive and he developed oral erosions. His condition did not respond well to steroids and azathioprine. Histological examination of a vesicle disclosed suprabasal acantholysis in contrast to the subcorneal acantholysis discovered upon initial histological evaluation. Indirect immunofluorescence revealed IgG antikeratinocyte cell surface antibodies at a titer of 1:640. The titer was 1:160 at initial diagnosis. Upon immunoblotting, the patient's serum reacted with 130 kiloDalton (kDa) and 160 kDa proteins, suggesting desmoglein (Dsg) 3 and 1, respectively. We herein report an unusual case of PV that developed from PF during the disease's flare-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_84684", "title": "Porphyria cutanea tarda", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The dermatological symptoms of PCT that include blistering and lesions on sun-exposed areas of the skin are caused by a buildup of porphyrin compounds (specifically uroporphyrinogen) close to the surface of the skin that have been oxidized by free radicals or sunlight. The oxidized porphyrins initiate degranulation of dermal mast cells, which release proteases that catabolize the surrounding proteins. This begins a cell-mediated positive feedback loop which matches the description of a type 4 delayed hypersensitivity reaction. The resulting blisters, therefore, do not appear immediately but begin to show up 2–3 days after sun exposure. Due to the highly conjugated structure of porphyrins involving alternating single and double carbon bonds, these compounds exhibit a deep purple color, resulting in the discoloration observed in the skin. Excess alcohol intake decreases hepcidin production which leads to increased iron absorption from the gut and an increase in oxidative stress. This" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 253 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 36 ] ], "text": "Coxo-femoral osteoarthrosis presents with a negative Lasegue test. Wrong answer 2." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 617, 775 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 87, 110 ] ], "text": "The clinical case describes the Lasegue maneuver or test; a provocation test that evidences radicular irritation in the lumbosacral region (Answer 3 correct)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 776, 983 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 110, 140 ] ], "text": "Claudication due to canal stenosis typically presents with pain that worsens with trunk extension (walking, standing) and is relieved with flexion (sitting, sleeping in the fetal position...) Wrong answer 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Gouty arthritis of the left hip.", "2": "Left coxofemoral arthrosis.", "3": "Radiated low back pain / lumbosciatica.", "4": "Claudication due to canal stenosis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en029_55324", "title": "Sacroiliac joint", "score": 0.015396323615501698, "content": "Signs and symptoms The following are signs and symptoms that may be associated with an SI joint (SIJ) problem: Mechanical SIJ dysfunction usually causes a dull unilateral low back pain. The pain is often a mild to moderate ache around the dimple or posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) region. The pain may become worse and sharp while doing activities such as standing up from a seated position or lifting the knee towards the chest during stair climbing. Pain is typically on one side or the other (unilateral PSIS pain), but the pain can occasionally be bilateral. When the pain of SIJ dysfunction is severe (which is infrequent), there can be referred pain into the hip, groin, and occasionally down the leg, but rarely does the pain radiate below the knee. Pain can be referred from the SIJ down into the buttock or back of the thigh, and rarely to the foot. Low back pain and stiffness, often unilateral, that often increases with prolonged sitting or prolonged walking." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en132_2144", "title": "Greater trochanteric pain syndrome", "score": 0.012593970394481903, "content": "More often the lateral hip pain is caused by disease of the gluteal tendons that secondarily inflames the bursa. This is most common in middle-aged women and is associated with a chronic and debilitating pain which does not respond to conservative treatment. Other causes of trochanteric bursitis include uneven leg length, iliotibial band syndrome, and weakness of the hip abductor muscles. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome can remain incorrectly diagnosed for years, because it shares the same pattern of pain with many other musculoskeletal conditions. Thus people with this condition may be labeled malingerers, or may undergo many ineffective treatments due to misdiagnosis. It may also coexist with low back pain, arthritis, and obesity. Signs and symptoms The primary symptom is hip pain, especially hip pain on the outer (lateral) side of the joint. This pain may appear when the affected person is walking or lying down on that side. Diagnosis" }, { "id": "article-28772_10", "title": "Sciatica -- History and Physical", "score": 0.012498392696412498, "content": "Further, a straight leg raise (SLR) test is a neurological maneuver performed while examining a patient presenting with lower back pain. This test is conducted with the patient lying supine while keeping the symptomatic leg straight by flexing the quadriceps. The examiner elevates the leg progressively at a slow pace. The test is deemed positive if it reproduces the patient's symptoms (pain and paresthesia) at an angle lower than 70° with radiation below the knee (Lasegue sign). This test is most helpful in diagnosing L4, L5, and S1 radiculopathies. The patient is asked to dorsiflex the foot while the examiner raises the leg (Bragaad sign) to increase the test's sensitivity. When executing the straight leg raise test, the examiner will slightly bend the patient's knee by 20° to 30°, which will lessen the pain. Then, manual pressure is applied in the popliteal fossa. The Bowstring sign is considered positive if it causes the same level of discomfort that the patient feels during a straight leg raise. [8] The Naffziger test involves reproducing pain via coughing. [9]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0272_22133", "title": "The piriformis muscle syndrome: a simple diagnostic maneuver.", "score": 0.012481231231231231, "content": "Current maneuvers to diagnose the piriformis syndrome are less than ideal. Freiberg's maneuver of forceful internal rotation of the extended thigh elicits buttock pain by stretching the piriformis muscle, and Pace's maneuver elicits pain by having the patient abduct the legs in the seated position, which causes a contraction of the piriformis muscle. This report describes a maneuver performed by the patient lying with the painful side up, the painful leg flexed, and the knee resting on the table. Buttock pain is produced when the patient lifts and holds the knee several inches off the table. The maneuver produced deep buttock pain in three patients with piriformis syndrome. In 100 consecutive patients with surgically documented herniated lumbar discs, the maneuver often produced lumbar and leg pain but not deep buttock pain. In 27 patients with primary hip abnormalities, pain was often produced in the trochanteric area but not in the buttock. The maneuver described in this report was helpful in diagnosing the piriformis syndrome. It relies on contraction of the muscle, rather than stretching, which the author believes better reproduces the actual syndrome." }, { "id": "article-28772_9", "title": "Sciatica -- History and Physical", "score": 0.012150502402795981, "content": "A straight-leg raise has variable sensitivity and specificity and may or may not be present depending on the underlying cause. The straight-leg test is a passive examination where the patient first lies in a relaxed, supine position. The examiner then lifts the leg from the posterior aspect, flexing at the hip joint and keeping the knee in full extension or keeping the leg straight. Typically, pain that is reproduced between 30° to 70° of hip flexion and experienced primarily in the back is likely due to a lumbar disc herniation. Pain and parenthesis felt in the leg are possible due to lateralizing compression of a peripheral nerve. While not absolute, musculoskeletal causes of the pain usually reproduce pain above 70° of flexion and below 30° of flexion." }, { "id": "article-24453_19", "title": "Lumbar Disc Herniation -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011837808417997097, "content": "A straight leg raise test is a neurological maneuver performed while examining a patient presenting with lower back pain. It is conducted with the patient lying supine while keeping the symptomatic leg straight by flexing the quadriceps. The examiner slowly elevates the leg progressively at a slow pace. The test is positive when it reproduces the patient's symptoms (pain and paresthesia) at an angle lower than 45 degrees with radiation below the knee (Lasegue sign). It is most helpful in diagnosing L4, L5, and S1 radiculopathies. The patient is asked to dorsiflex the foot while the examiner is raising the leg (Bragaad's sign) to increase the sensitivity of the test." }, { "id": "article-20584_16", "title": "Disc Herniation -- History and Physical -- Physical Examination", "score": 0.011486194995685936, "content": "L5 Nerve - back, radiating into buttock, lateral thigh, lateral calf, and dorsum foot, great toe; sensory loss on the lateral calf, dorsum of the foot, webspace between first and second toe; weakness on hip abduction, knee flexion, foot dorsiflexion, toe extension and flexion, foot inversion and eversion; decreased semitendinosus/semimembranosus reflex. S1 Nerve - back, radiating into buttock, lateral or posterior thigh, posterior calf, lateral or plantar foot; sensory loss on the posterior calf, lateral or plantar aspect of foot;  weakness on hip extension, knee flexion, plantar flexion of the foot; Achilles tendon; Medial buttock, perineal, and perianal region; weakness may be minimal, with urinary and fecal incontinence as well as sexual dysfunction. S2-S4 Nerves - sacral or buttock pain radiating into the posterior aspect of the leg or the perineum; sensory deficit on the medial buttock, perineal, and perianal region; absent bulbocavernosus, anal wink reflex." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0414_16669", "title": "[Diagnosis and treatment of lumbar spinal canal stenosis].", "score": 0.011396011396011397, "content": "Lumbar spinal canal stenosis (LSCS) was first described in 1954 by Verbiest, followed by the currently accepted international classification of LSCS in 1976 by Arnoldi. Briefly, LSCS is a nervous system syndrome that is characterized by neural symptoms in the lower extremities due to tightened cauda equina and spinal nerve root involvement. LSCS international classification consists of: (1) degenerative, (2) congenital developmental, (3) combined, (4) spondylolytic spondylolisthesis, (5) iatrogenic and (6) post traumatic stenosis. Degenerative stenosis-the most common type of LSCS-is caused by disc degeneration, osteoarthritis of the facet joint and hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum. LSCS may also be the result of intervertebral disc degeneration, protruded intervertebral disc and/or bony spur compress cauda equina and spinal nerve root anteriorally, while degenerated facet joint and hypertrophied the ligamentum flavum compress cauda equina and spinal nerve root posteriorally? Most often, spondylolytic spondylolisthesis occurs at the fourth lumbar vertebrae in middle-aged women. As a result of a slipping forward of the vertebra, cauda equina and spinal nerve roots can be tightened between the edge behind the top of lower vertebra and frontal edge of the lower part of upper lamina. Typical clinical symptoms of LSCS are low back pain, leg pain and intermittent claudication. Low back pain is chronic with secondary radiating pain in the buttock. The leg pain is called \"sciatica\", which tends to appear on the back of thigh, in the lateral aspect of lower leg and calf muscles, and which intensifies when the patient is fatigued. Intermittent claudication is a symptom associated with this syndrome. Often, patients with LSCS find it impossible to walk because of increased numbness and pain in their leg. Many patients report that after squatting for a few minutes they are able to resume walking. LSCS patients may also report dysaesthesia in the perineum area, and may also report urinary dysfunction ranging from extreme urgency to urinary delay. Patients who present with symptoms of LSCS should be seen by an orthopedic surgeon. Correct diagnosis by imaging and clinical examination, with appropriate conservative or operative treatment in a timely fashion should be encouraged in order to prevent irreversible nerve damage." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_60316", "title": "Low back pain", "score": 0.011248981638152534, "content": "Low back pain may be classified based on the signs and symptoms. Diffuse pain that does not change in response to particular movements, and is localized to the lower back without radiating beyond the buttocks, is classified as nonspecific, the most common classification. Pain that radiates down the leg below the knee, is located on one side (in the case of disc herniation), or is on both sides (in spinal stenosis), and changes in severity in response to certain positions or maneuvers is radicular, making up 7% of cases. Pain that is accompanied by red flags such as trauma, fever, a history of cancer or significant muscle weakness may indicate a more serious underlying problem and is classified as needing urgent or specialized attention." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_24071", "title": "GALS screen", "score": 0.011195652173913044, "content": "Now ask the patient to do the following noting any painful, restricted or asymmetrical movements: Test rotation of the thoracic and lumbar spine. Gently hold the patient's hips still and ask them to: \"Turn your shoulders round as far as you can to the left, then do the same to the right.\" Test lateral flexion of the thoracic and lumbar spine: \"Stand up straight and then slide the palm of your right hand down your thigh towards your knee, bending your shoulder down to the side.\" \"Now do the same with your left hand down your left leg.\" \"Bend your left ear down towards your left shoulder and then your right ear down towards your right shoulder\" to test for pain free cervical spine lateral flexion. Now test for stiffness or pain flexing or extending the cervical spine: \"bend your neck forwards to try to touch your chin against your chest.\" \"bend your neck back to lift your chin.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0626_20486", "title": "Greater trochanteric pain syndrome: a review of anatomy, diagnosis and treatment.", "score": 0.011124456646076412, "content": "Greater trochanteric pain syndrome (GTPS) is a term used to describe chronic pain overlying the lateral aspect of the hip. This regional pain syndrome, once described as trochanteric bursitis, often mimics pain generated from other sources, including, but not limited to myofascial pain, degenerative joint disease, and spinal pathology. The incidence of greater trochanteric pain is reported to be approximately 1.8 patients per 1000 per year with the prevalence being higher in women, and patients with coexisting low back pain, osteoarthritis, iliotibial band tenderness, and obesity. Symptoms of GTPS consist of persistent pain in the lateral hip radiating along the lateral aspect of the thigh to the knee and occasionally below the knee and/or buttock. Physical examination reveals point tenderness in the posterolateral area of the greater trochanter. Most cases of GTPS are self-limited with conservative measures, such as physical therapy, weight loss, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and behavior modification, providing resolution of symptoms. Other treatment modalities include bursa or lateral hip injections performed with corticosteroid and local anesthetic. More invasive surgical interventions have anecdotally been reported to provide pain relief when conservative treatment modalities fail." }, { "id": "article-24477_15", "title": "Lumbosacral Facet Syndrome -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010971492873218304, "content": "In most presentations, facetogenic lumbosacral pain often presents secondary to chronic pain alone. It should, however, be noted that facet joint pain may be referred distally into the lower limb, thus mimicking sciatica. In these cases of \"pseudo-radicular\" lumbar pain, patients typically experience radiation into the unilateral or bilateral buttocks and the trochanteric region (from L4 and L5 levels), the groin and thighs (from L2 to L5), ending above the knee, and without any neurologic deficits. At times, pain may radiate further down the lower extremity reaching the foot, thus mimicking sciatic pain. This may occur especially in the setting of rather large synovial cysts causing direct mechanical compression and creating ensuing inflammation to further irritate the surrounding nerve roots. [15] Facet joint pain is typically worse in the mornings and following periods of inactivity. Stress exercise, lumbar spinal extension or rotary motions, standing or sitting positions, and facet joint palpation may also elicit lumbar facetogenic pain. [2]" }, { "id": "article-28194_14", "title": "Radicular Back Pain -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010957655972761712, "content": "L2, L3, and L4 lumbar radiculopathies are considered a group. This group has a marked overlap of the innervation of the anterior thigh muscles. [1] An acute injury in the distribution of L2, L3, and L4 will most commonly present with the patient experiencing radiating back pain to the anterior aspect of the thigh, which may progress into their knee, and possibly radiate to the medial aspect of the lower leg, into the foot. On examination, patients can have weakness during knee extension, hip adduction, and or hip flexion. There is often a loss of sensation over the anterior thigh along the area of pain. The patient may show a reduced patellar reflex (L4). [1] Activities that can make the symptoms worse include coughing, leg straightening, or sneezing." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_31210", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010923377390198484, "content": "2692 LATERAL FEMORAL CUTANEOUS NEUROPATHY (MERALGIA PARESTHETICA) The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve arises from the upper lumbar plexus (spinal levels L2/3), crosses through the inguinal ligament near its attachment to the iliac bone, and supplies sensation to the anterior lateral thigh. The neuropathy affecting this nerve is also known as meralgia paresthetica. Symptoms and signs consist of paresthesias, numbness, and occasionally pain in the lateral thigh. Symptoms are increased by standing or walking and are relieved by sitting. There is normal strength, and knee reflexes are intact. The diagnosis is clinical, and further tests usually are not performed. EDx is only needed to rule out lumbar plexopathy, radiculopathy, or femoral neuropathy. If the symptoms and signs are classic, EMG is not necessary. Symptoms often resolve spontaneously over weeks or months, but the patient may be left with permanent numbness. Treatment consists of weight loss and avoiding tight belts. Analgesics" }, { "id": "article-22895_7", "title": "Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01084280303030303, "content": "Patients with greater trochanteric pain syndrome usually have lateral hip pain, tenderness over and around the greater trochanter, pain at end-range hip rotation, abduction or adduction, pain with resisted hip abduction, and a positive Patrick-FABER (flexion abduction external rotation) test. Patients usually suffer from chronic back pain radiating to the posterolateral aspect of the thigh, leg paresthesias, and tenderness over the iliotibial tract. [6] They will often complain of the inability to lay on the affected hip. The mean duration of symptoms before treatment ranges from 7.1 weeks to 4.4 years. Young adults (18 to 35 years old) with hip pain often present with non-specific symptoms and vague findings from the history and physical examination, which may lead to a misdiagnosis of GTPS or trochanteric bursitis. [1] [4]" }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_10553", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.010762017278298753, "content": "The most characteristic syndrome affects the lumbar roots. Pain, which can be severe, begins in the low back or hip and spreads to the thigh and knee on one side; the discomfort has a deep, aching character with superimposed lancinating jabs and there is a propensity for pain to be most severe at night. Weakness and later atrophy are evident in the pelvic girdle and thigh muscles, although the distal muscles of the leg may also be affected. The weakness can progress for days or weeks (rarely, months). The patellar reflex is lost on the affected side. Curiously, we have found the opposite patellar reflex to be absent in some patients, without explanation. Deep and superficial sensation may be intact or mildly impaired, conforming to either a multiple nerve or multiple adjacent root distribution (i.e., L2 and L3, or L4 and L5). The pain lasts for several days and then gradually abates. Motor recovery is the rule although months and even years may elapse before it is complete. The same" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_6384", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010688172043010754, "content": "heavy-muscled athletesVenous claudicationEntire leg, but usually worse in thigh and groinTight, bursting painAfter walkingSubsides slowlyRelief speeded by elevationHistory of iliofemoral deep venous thrombosis, signs of venous congestion, edemaNerve root compression (e.g., herniated disk)Radiates down leg, usually posteriorlySharp lancinating painSoon, if not immediately after onsetNot quickly relieved (also often present at rest)Relief may be aided by adjusting back positionHistory of back problemsSymptomatic Baker’s cystBehind knee, down calfSwelling, soreness, tendernessWith exercisePresent at restNoneNot intermittentIntermittent claudication (hip, thigh, buttock)Hip, thigh, buttocksAching discomfort, weaknessAfter same degree of exerciseQuickly relievedNoneReproducibleHip arthritisHip, thigh, buttocksAching discomfortAfter variable degree of exerciseNot quickly relieved (and may be present at rest)More comfortable sitting, weight taken off legsVariable, may relate to activity" }, { "id": "article-29356_9", "title": "Spinal Stenosis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010027328147992433, "content": "Stenosis in the lumbar spine can lead to neurogenic claudication, myeloradiculopathy symptoms, sensory disturbances, motor weakness, and pathologic reflexes. Patients will present with complaints of cramping pain in the leg, calf, and or buttocks. They might report an increase in pain with walking or standing for prolonged periods and relief when sitting or leaning forward while using a shopping cart. [9] Disk herniation is most common at the L4-5 and L5-S1 levels. A herniated disk at L5-S1 can lead to plantarflexion weakness, decrease sensation in the lateral foot, and cause pain in the posterior leg. A disk herniation at L4-5 can lead to a foot drop and numbness in the large toe web and dorsal aspect of the foot. Lastly, an L3-4 disk herniation can lead to knee extension weakness, numbness in the medial foot, and pain in the anterior thigh." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1089_19591", "title": "Spinal gouty tophus presenting as an epidural mass lesion - A case report.", "score": 0.009951763218283146, "content": "Gout is a metabolic disease secondary to an increased body pool of urate with hyperuricemia. Gout typically affects the peripheral joints and rarely involves the intra-spinal area. A 43-year-old man, who had metabolic syndrome s/p bariatric surgery and gout suffered from severe left low back pain with radiation to the lateral side of his left thigh and anterior side of his left leg for more than 7 days. His L-spine MRI showed an abnormal posterior epidural space occupying lesion at L4-L5 level. For tissue diagnosis and neural structures decompression, he underwent surgical removal of the epidural mass lesion. The surgical specimen showed a picture of gout and he got a good recovery after operation. The differential diagnoses of an epidural mass includes synovial cysts, ligament cyst, cystic neuromas, tumors, hematomas and abscesses. Gout in the spinal canal is difficult to diagnosis before surgery because it is rare and its clinical presentation and radiologic findings mimic tumor, abscess, tuberculosis, and degenerative spinal diseases. Patients with spinal gout may present with axial pain and a variety of neurological symptoms. Spinal gouty tophus should be considered in the different diagnoses of spinal epidural masses especially in patients with systemic gout. Surgery is needed for final diagnosis. If spinal gouty tophus is highly suspected during the surgery, the specimen should not be preserved with Formalin because birefringent crystals under polarized light is a unique feature for gouty tophus but they dissolve in Formalin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0222_2576", "title": "[Acromegaly and spinal canal stenosis].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A rare case of acromegaly with radiculomyelopathy due to spinal canal stenosis is reported. A long history of acromegalic deformity was seen on this 55 years old acupuncture therapist for the last 18 years, while he had developed unusually increased appetite, profuse perspiration and gained weight. Fifteen years ago, acromegalic tendency became prominent and was accompanied by low back and knee pain. In 1974 CB-154 was administered in several occasions beside 4000 rads irradiation to the sella. After radiation therapy was completed his outlook was somewhat improved, although low back pain was aggravated and associated with atrophy of the left lower extremity. The neurological examination at admission in 1980 revealed acromegalic feature, increased DTRs on both upper and lower extremities, dysesthesia of feet and atrophy of the leg muscles in general, mainly due to diffuse atrophy. Patient bended knees due to pain and unable to walk. He had radiating pain in the postero-lateral aspect of the left lower extremity and some dysesthesia of feet, although no specific root lesion was identifiable. Spinal roentgenograms disclosed diffuse ossification of anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments, and marked spondylotic changes. Although the low back pain was impending complaint of the patient, the hypophyseal tumor was advised to remove and transsphenoidal hypophyseal adenomectomy was performed. A good amount of softend tumor tissue was removed however, adenoma found markedly fibrotic. Low back pain and knee were decreased gradually, but intermittent claudication was evident. Acromegaly in association with spinal canal stenosis were reviewed in literature, and the relationship of growth hormone and therapeutic problems were discussed." }, { "id": "article-28194_19", "title": "Radicular Back Pain -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009856809856809857, "content": "A straight leg raising can be helpful in lumbosacral radiculopathy. The mechanism of pain during a straight leg raise is increased dural tension placed upon the lumbosacral spine during the test. Patients lay supine during the test. The physician will flex the patient's quadriceps with the leg in extension as well as dorsiflex the patient's foot on the symptomatic side. Pain or reproduction of paresthesias is considered a positive test (Lasegue's sign). A Bowstring sign relieves this underlying radicular pain with flexion of the patient's knee on the affected side. The straight leg raising test is most helpful in the diagnosis of L4 and S1 radiculopathies. [11] [3]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_12062", "title": "Diabetic amyotrophy, not your typical back pain.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 49-year-old man presented to the hospital for spinal cord decompression surgery with left buttock and left leg pain. The patient described an acute burning pain radiating down from his left buttock to left lateral leg. He also noted a 13.6 kg weight loss in recent months. Physical examination showed decreased muscle bulk of the left thigh, decreased strength of the left hip, left knee flexors and extensors. Recent MRI spine showed mild canal narrowing and cord flattening in the lower thoracic spine. Serologic testing showed an elevated glucose of 17.9 mmol/L and haemoglobin A1c of 9.8%. Electromyography showed denervation of scattered muscles of the left knee flexors, hip flexors and adductors. In the setting of newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus, he was diagnosed with diabetic amyotrophy, started on insulin therapy, and his surgery was cancelled." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0977_21644", "title": "Comparison of the history and physical examination for hip osteoarthritis and lumbar spinal stenosis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Leg pain associated with walking is sometimes incorrectly attributed to hip osteoarthritis (OA) or lumbar spinal stenosis (LSS). This study compared physicians' values of signs and symptoms for diagnosing and differentiating hip OA and LSS to their clinical utility. Musculoskeletal physicians were surveyed with online questionnaires. Patients were recruited from hip and spine specialty practices. Seventy-seven hip OA and 79 LSS patients. Signs and symptoms of hip OA and LSS. Fifty-one of 66 invited musculoskeletal physicians completed online surveys about the values of 83 signs and symptoms for diagnosing hip OA and LSS. Of these, the most valued 32 symptoms and 13 physical examination items were applied to patients with symptomatic hip OA or LSS. Positive likelihood ratios (+LR) were calculated for each items' ability to differentiate hip OA from LSS, with a +LR&gt;2 set as indicating usefulness for favoring either diagnosis. Positive LRs were compared with surveyed physicians' values for each test. All symptoms were reported by some patients with each diagnosis. Only 11 of 32 physician-valued symptoms were useful for discriminating hip OA from LSS. Eight symptoms favored hip OA over LSS: groin pain (+LR=4.9); knee pain (+LR=2.2); pain that decreased with continued walking (+LR=3.9); pain that occurs immediately with walking (+LR=2.4); pain that occurs immediately with standing (+LR=2.1); pain getting in/out of a car (+LR=3.3); pain with dressing the symptomatic leg (+LR=3.1); and difficulty reaching the foot of the symptomatic leg while dressing (+LR=2.3). Three symptoms favored LSS over hip OA: pain below the knee (+LR=2.3); leg tingling and/or numbness (+LR=2.7); and some pain in both legs (+LR=2.5). Notable symptoms that did not discriminate hip OA from LSS included: pain is less while pushing a shopping cart (+LR=1.0); back pain (+LR=1.1); weakness and/or heaviness of leg (+LR=1.1); buttocks pain (+LR=1.2); poor balance or unsteadiness (+LR=1.2); pain that increased with weight-bearing on the painful leg (+LR=1.3), and step to gait on stairs (+LR=1.7). Consistent with physicians' expectations, 7 of 13 physical examination items strongly favored hip OA over LSS: limited weight-bearing on painful leg when standing (+LR=10); observed limp (+LR=9); and painful and restricted range-of-motion with any of five hip maneuvers (+LR range 21-99). Four of five tested neurological deficits (+LR range 3-8) favored the diagnosis of LSS over hip OA. There is substantial crossover of symptoms between hip OA and LSS, with some physician-valued symptoms useful for differentiating these disorders whereas others were not. Physicians recognize the value of the examination of gait, the hip, and lower extremity neurological function for differentiating hip OA from LSS. These tests should be routinely performed on all patients for which either diagnosis is considered. Awareness of these findings might reduce diagnostic errors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1147_26703", "title": "Pudendal tumor mimicking cauda equina syndrome and acute radiculopathy: case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is most caused by lumbar disc herniation, and the associated treatment involves prompt surgical decompression. Rarer causes of CES include perineural (Tarlov) cysts. A 62-year-old female with history of rheumatoid arthritis, hip and knee replacements, and chronic low back pain presented with worsening back pain, left leg weakness and pain for 6 weeks, and bowel/bladder incontinence with diminished sensation in the perianal region for 24 h prior to presentation. MRI demonstrated severe spinal stenosis at L4-S1, central disc herniation at L5-S1, and compression of the cauda equina, consistent with CES. A lumbar decompression was performed. Patient did well at 2-week follow up, but presented 5 weeks post-discharge with increased left leg pain/weakness and genitalia anesthesia. Imaging was unremarkable. Two months later, the patient presented with diminished sensation in the buttocks and bilateral lower extremities and bowel/bladder incontinence. Imaging demonstrated a large cystic presacral mass with involvement of the left sciatic foramen and S3 neural foramen. A team of plastic, orthopedic, and neurological surgeons performed an S3 sacral laminectomy, foraminotomy, partial sacrectomy, and S3 rhizotomy, and excision of the large left hemorrhagic pudendal mass. Final pathology demonstrated a perineural cyst with organizing hemorrhage. On follow-up, the patient's pain and weakness improved. CES-like symptoms were initially attributed to a herniated disk. However, lumbar decompression did not resolve symptoms, prompting further radiographic evaluation at two separate presentations. This represents the first reported case of a pudendal tumor causing symptoms initially attributed to a herniated disc." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_16103", "title": "Does this older adult with lower extremity pain have the clinical syndrome of lumbar spinal stenosis?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The clinical syndrome of lumbar spinal stenosis (LSS) is a common diagnosis in older adults presenting with lower extremity pain. To systematically review the accuracy of the clinical examination for the diagnosis of the clinical syndrome of LSS. MEDLINE, EMBASE, and CINAHL searches of articles published from January 1966 to September 2010. Studies were included if they contained adequate data on the accuracy of the history and physical examination for diagnosing the clinical syndrome of LSS, using a reference standard of expert opinion with radiographic or anatomic confirmation. Two authors independently reviewed each study to determine eligibility, extract data, and appraise levels of evidence. Four studies evaluating 741 patients were identified. Among patients with lower extremity pain, the likelihood of the clinical syndrome of LSS was increased for individuals older than 70 years (likelihood ratio [LR], 2.0; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.6-2.5), and was decreased for those younger than 60 years (LR, 0.40; 95% CI, 0.29-0.57). The most useful symptoms for increasing the likelihood of the clinical syndrome of LSS were having no pain when seated (LR, 7.4; 95% CI, 1.9-30), improvement of symptoms when bending forward (LR, 6.4; 95% CI, 4.1-9.9), the presence of bilateral buttock or leg pain (LR, 6.3; 95% CI, 3.1-13), and neurogenic claudication (LR, 3.7; 95% CI, 2.9-4.8). Absence of neurogenic claudication (LR, 0.23; 95% CI, 0.17-0.31) decreased the likelihood of the diagnosis. A wide-based gait (LR, 13; 95% CI, 1.9-95) and abnormal Romberg test result (LR, 4.2; 95% CI, 1.4-13) increased the likelihood of the clinical syndrome of LSS. A score of 7 or higher on a diagnostic support tool including history and examination findings increased the likelihood of the clinical syndrome of LSS (LR, 3.3; 95% CI, 2.7-4.0), while a score lower than 7 made the diagnosis much less likely (LR, 0.10; 95% CI, 0.06-0.16). The diagnosis of the clinical syndrome of LSS requires the appropriate clinical picture and radiographic findings. Absence of pain when seated and improvement of symptoms when bending forward are the most useful individual findings. Combinations of findings are most useful for identifying patients who are unlikely to have the diagnosis." }, { "id": "article-24453_17", "title": "Lumbar Disc Herniation -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009621429070335964, "content": "L5 nerve root exits at the L5-S1 foramina. When compressed by a herniated disc, it causes back pain that radiates into the buttock, lateral thigh, lateral calf, the dorsum of the foot, and the great toe. Sensory loss is present on the web space between the big toe and second toe, the dorsum of the foot, and lateral calf. There is a weakness in hip abduction, knee flexion, foot dorsiflexion, big toe dorsiflexion, foot inversion, and eversion. Patients present with decreased semitendinosus/semimembranosus reflex. Weakness in foot dorsiflexion makes it challenging to walk on the heels. Chronic L5 radiculopathy may cause atrophy of the extensor digitorum brevis and the tibialis anterior of the anterior leg." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0621_10286", "title": "Bilateral periprosthetic stress fractures in a juvenile chronic arthritis patient secondary to bilateral genu valgum.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Lateral insufficiency fractures following total hip replacement have been reported with the femoral stems positioned in varus, together with osteopenia of the lateral femoral cortex. Any abnormal alignment of the lower limbs, such as genu valgum, will alter the load distribution across the femoral cortices, and repetitive loading during walking will predispose the bones to stress fractures at any stress riser point, such as the tip of a femoral component. Bilateral femoral stress fractures post total hip replacements have not been previously described. We present a 55-year-old woman, diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis, who had undergone bilateral total hip replacements and bilateral knee replacements. The knees 15 years postoperatively were in valgus and the left knee was extremely stiff, flexing to just 5. The patient presented with bilateral thigh pain, with plain radiographs confirming bilateral periprosthetic fractures of the femur at the tip of well-fixed femoral components. There was no history of injury and her hips were functioning well up to this time. The patient required revision of both hips to long-stem uncemented components, bypassing the fractures, and revision of both knees to stemmed semi-constrained implants, thereby correcting the alignment of both lower limbs. Both fractures healed and the patient is currently pain-free and mobile with walking aids. Surgeons must remain aware that when implants are in situ, abnormal alignments will lead to abnormal forces, and stress fractures are likely to occur at any stress riser around the implant. Avoiding malalignment will avoid this complication." }, { "id": "article-27291_20", "title": "Plantar Heel Pain -- History and Physical -- S1 Radiculopathy", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Patients with heel pain may have a history of chronic lower back pain. Clinically, radicular involvement will present as pain and numbness radiating from the lower back down to the heel of the foot. Patients may have decreased sensation over the skin of the sole, heel, or lateral foot and weakness of the gastrocnemius, gluteus maximus, hamstring, peroneal, and foot muscles with a diminished ankle reflex. Perform the positive straight leg raise test (Lasègue test) with the patient in the supine position. Pain with passive hip flexion while lifting the leg suggests stretching the lower lumbar and sacral roots. [21] Perform a crossed straight leg raise test, eliciting pain on the contralateral side with the same motion. Results from new studies suggest that these exams may not be as reliable as we once thought. [22]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en175_10188", "title": "Neurogenic claudication", "score": 0.009592490842490843, "content": "Knee to chest stretch - Laying down on the back, bring one leg up and pull it towards the chest and hold for 30–45 seconds. Posterior pelvic tilt (bridges) - Laying on the back, bend both legs and place your feet on the floor. Raise stomach from the ground, lifting the back and pelvis, until the back is straight. Hold for 5–10 seconds and relax. Neural Stretching of the legs - Laying on the back, bring one leg up with a stretching band until a stretch is felt in the legs. Ensure your legs are straight. Once the stretch is felt, hold for 30–45 seconds and relax. Hip-flexor stretch - To stretch the right hip-flexor, bring the left leg forward, and kneel on the right knee. Push the pelvis forward (lean forward), whilst keeping the upper body straight. Hold the position for 30–45 seconds and relax. To stretch the left hip-flexor, bring swap the positions of the legs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0553_3822", "title": "Deep vein thrombosis in an athletic military cadet.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Resident's case problem. A 21-year-old healthy athletic male military cadet with complaint of worsening diffuse left knee pain was evaluated 4 days after onset. The knee pain began 2 hours after completing a long car trip, worsened over the subsequent 3 days, and became almost unbearable during the return trip. The patient reported constant pain, limited knee motion, and difficulty ambulating. In addition, he was unable to perform physical military training or attend academic classes due to the severe left knee pain. Past medical history revealed a mild left lateral calf strain 21/2 weeks prior, which completely resolved within 24 hours of onset. Our physical examination led us to either monoarticular arthritis, pseudothrombophlebitis (ruptured Baker's cyst), or a lower leg deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as the cause of knee pain. Diagnostic imaging of this patient revealed a left superficial femoral vein thrombosis and popliteal DVT, with bilateral pulmonary emboli (PE). A systematic differential diagnosis was undertaken to rule out a potentially fatal DVT diagnosis as the cause of knee pain, despite minimal DVT risk factors. The physical therapist in a direct-access setting must ensure timely evaluation and referral of a suspected DVT, even when patient demographics cause the practitioner to question the likelihood of this diagnosis. The physical examination findings, clinical suspicion, and established clinical prediction rules can accurately dictate the appropriate referral action necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0374_2491", "title": "What was the disease of the legs that afflicted King Asa?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The elderly have suffered from pain in their legs, which may be associated with various diseases, for thousands of years. This report analyzes the disease that afflicted the biblical King Asa (the third king of the house of Judah who reigned between 867 and 906 BCE). The sentence 'Nevertheless in the time of his old age he was diseased in his legs' indicates that King Asa suffered from disease in his legs. Among numerous diseases, peripheral vascular disease, gout, and degenerative osteoarthritis were most likely to affect the King's legs. And among these diseases, the diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease is the most acceptable. This report shows that the roots of contemporary modern gerontology can be traced back to biblical times." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0839_300", "title": "Multiple Venous Thromboses Presenting as Mechanical Low Back Pain in an 18-Year-Old Woman.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The purpose of this case report is to describe a patient who presented with acute musculoskeletal symptoms but was later diagnosed with multiple deep vein thrombosis (DVT). An 18-year-old female presented to a chiropractic clinic with left lumbosacral pain with referral into the posterior left thigh. A provisional diagnosis was made of acute myofascial syndrome of the left piriformis and gluteus medius muscles. The patient received 3 chiropractic treatments over 1 week resulting in 80% improvement in pain intensity. Two days later, a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain caused the patient to seek urgent medical attention. A diagnostic ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis were performed and interpreted as normal. Following this, the patient reported increased pain in her left leg. Evaluation revealed edema of the left calf and decreased left lower limb sensation. A venous Doppler ultrasound was ordered. Doppler ultrasound revealed reduction of the venous flow in the femoral vein area. An additional ultrasonography evaluation revealed an extensive DVTs affecting the left femoral vein and iliac axis extending towards the vena cava. Upon follow-up with a hematologist, the potential diagnosis of May-Thurner syndrome was considered based on the absence of blood dyscrasias and sustained anatomical changes found in the left common iliac vein at its junction with the right common iliac artery. A week following discharge, she presented with chest pain and was diagnosed with venous thromboembolism. The patient was successfully treated with anticoagulation therapy and insertion of a vena cava filter. Although DVTs are common in the general population, presence in low-risk individuals may be overlooked. In the presence of subtle initial clinical signs such as those described in this case report, clinicians should keep a high index of suspicion for a DVT. Rapid identification of such clinical signs in association with a lack of objective examination findings warrants further evaluation due to potentially negative outcomes." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 611, 736 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 92, 111 ] ], "text": "Finally, in broca's aphasia the language is non-fluent, comprehension is preserved, it does not repeat and does not nominate." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 505, 610 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 92 ] ], "text": "Conduction aphasia differs from sensory aphasia in that comprehension is preserved, all else being equal." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 409, 504 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 77 ] ], "text": "Sensory transcortical aphasia differs from sensory aphasia in that patients are able to repeat." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 247, 408 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 63 ] ], "text": "Wernicke's aphasia or sensitive aphasia has a fluent language, does not understand, does not repeat and does not nominate, just like the patient in the question." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Broca's aphasia.", "2": "Conduction aphasia.", "3": "Sensitive transcortical aphasia.", "4": "Wernicke's aphasia.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0206_3738", "title": "[Crossed aphasia in right-handed patients. II. Neuropsychological and neurolinguistic study of a case. Evolution over a 2 year period].", "score": 0.01633333333333333, "content": "We present an unusual case of crossed aphasia in a doctor who is totally right handed, following an infarction which almost completely destroyed his right hemisphere. The observations--linguistic and extra linguistic--during a study over two years are presented. The aphasia evolved in three stages, taking semiological and evolutive aspects not commonly met with. In speech and writing there were: 1. an oral agrammatism and a written dyssyntaxia in the initial stage; 2. the evolution of a non-fluent speech typically agrammatic leading to a jargonaphasia; 3. a dissociation between oral and written language, characterised by phonemic paraphasias in speech and dyssyntaxia in writing. Comprehension was good except for a verbal class called \"empty signs\" of language, in which the lexic which refers to the notion of space and time has a primary role. On an extra linguistic level some of the usual signs of right hemisphere lesions were present indicating disturbances of a spatial type. The patient could no longer grasp the concept of numerical value and showed severe difficulties in relation to time. On a linguistic level, the discussion is first considered from a typological point of view; this allows to compare our patient's disorders with a Broca's then with a conduction aphasia, Secondly, the discussion is considered from a semiological point of view, taking into consideration the 10 selected cases in the literature and adding our own; a semiological formula of crossed aphasia is given: agrammatism and/or dyssyntaxia + phonemic paraphasia and/or dysorthographia. A suggestion concerning the role of each hemisphere in the language of our patient is proposed: the possible role played by a congenital deafness in the right ear (discovered in the patient at the age of 8) to explain this abnormal hemispherical functional specialisation is discussed. Original comprehension difficulties concerning the time-space lexic are replaced by a perspective of a cognitive type. We conclude that in our patient, there was a \"breakdown\" of time and space which comes close to the \"indifferenciation\" of spatial order and time which Piaget has described in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1015_2312", "title": "Confusion vs Broca Aphasia: A Case Report.", "score": 0.016076962809917356, "content": "Broca aphasia presents with impaired expression of spoken and/or written language and is often caused by infarction in the Broca area in the frontal lobe. We present a case of Broca aphasia that was initially interpreted as confusion. A 76-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department because of confusion and slurred speech that began in the morning. The patient had an extensive history of alcohol abuse, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension and had recently quit drinking 5 days earlier. The patient appeared confused, answering questions with \"I don't know,\" but had no signs of agitation. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain confirmed a recent infarct involving the left frontal and occipital lobes, coinciding with the Broca area. The patient was able to communicate via writing and eventually made an uneventful recovery of speech. This case demonstrates a patient without the display of stereotypical signs of stroke, yet that was the underlying condition leading to her aphasia. It is important for clinicians to be aware that a stroke can present with isolated findings such as language deficit or confusion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0318_3561", "title": "[Cerebrovascular disorder and the language areas].", "score": 0.016070737059506908, "content": "Recent progress of imaging techniques has achieved precise descriptions of aphasic syndromes associated with cerebrovascular disorders. Infarction of the left anterior cerebral artery brings about transcortical motor aphasia. Occlusion of each branches of the left middle cerebral artery produces characteristic language symptoms. Recently, cases with infarction of the areas of prefrontal and precentral arteries were reported to manifest fluent aphasia indistinguishable from the classical transcortical sensory aphasia. Rare cases with lesions restricted to the Broca's area (territory of the precentral artery) produces aphasia with normal fluency, word finding difficulty and deficit in sentence comprehension. Classical non-fluent Broca's aphasia is caused by infarctions which at least involves the areas of precentral and central arteries. Aphemia or pure word dumbness results from damages which involves territory of the central artery. Conduction aphasia is most often associated with lesions of the posterior parietal artery territory. As in the case of Broca's aphasia, Wernicke's aphasia is a composite of conduction aphasia, pure word deafness, transcortical sensory aphasia, and alexia with agraphia. The lesion of Wernicke's aphasia naturally involves the areas of all of these aphasic symptoms. Transcortical sensory aphasia is associated with lesions in the posteroinferior temporal region, and is often associated with watershed infarctions of the middle and posterior cerebral arteries. Aphasia which results from putaminal hemorrhage has ambiguous manifestation, and is difficult to be classified into Wernicke-Lichtheim's model. Assessment of its fluency is notoriously difficult. Thalamic aphasia is similar to either anomic aphasia or transcortical sensory aphasia. It was pointed out that classical aphasic syndromes are still valid as cerebral arterial occlusion syndromes, but are insufficient for the purpose of more precise anatomo-clinical correlation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_10485", "title": "[A case of conduction aphasia due to small infarction in the left parietal lobe].", "score": 0.014896551724137931, "content": "This is a report on the patient with conduction aphAsia due to small infarction in the left parietal lobe. The patient is a right-handed man aged 74, who developed a speech disorder and mild paralysis of the right hand on November 13. 1996. A CT scan showed a small low-density in the supramarginal gyrus of the left parietal lobe. Standard Language Test of aphasia (SLTA) conducted at five days after admission to the hospital showed preserved auditory comprehension and phonemic para-aphasia symptoms with respect to volitional speech, naming, reading aloud and repetition. Frequent self-correction was also observed while repetition was not remarkably impaired. A test at three months after the onset revealed generally fluent speech, while there still remained occasional phonemic para-aphasia and self-correction for the speech disruption. Three years and four months later, most of the aphasic syndromes disappeared, although the patient claimed he still had difficulty in speaking. This case suggests that conduction aphasia can be caused by a lesion, though small, located in arcuate fibers of the cerebrum. The characteristics are phonemic para-aphasia with respect to general speech functions as well as self-correction toward target words. The indicated that lesions in the pathway connecting Broca's area and Wernicke's area causes difficulties in selecting accurate phonemes due to a malfunctioning interface between the two areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0107_6802", "title": "[Cerebral lateralization in two cases of crossed dextral aphasia with right-hemisphere arteriovenous malformation].", "score": 0.014760904105376456, "content": "This paper reports two cases of crossed dextral aphasia. The first patient was a 60-year-old right-handed male with no family history of sinistrality. He experienced sudden onset of left hemiplegia and loss of consciousness. A CT scan showed high-density area in the right fronto-parietal region. An angiography revealed an arteriovenous malformation (AVM) in the right parietal lobe. It was fed by a branch of the middle cerebral artery and drained through a cortical vein. Neuropsychological examination one week after the surgery showed severe defects of all language moderalities. He was alert and cooperative, but completely mute. He recognized common words by auditory and visual stimuli, but could not perform simple command. He wrote some meaningless letters when asked to write his own name. Auditory and reading comprehension gradually improved thereafter, but Broca's type of aphasia with non-fluent hesitant and effortful output was still present four months after the surgery. The second patient was a 38-year-old right-handed male. All members of this family are right-handed except for one sister who is left-handed. He suddenly suffered left hemiparesis and loss of consciousness. A CT scan disclosed a right parietal intracerebral hematoma. And an AVM which was fed by the angular artery and drained through a cortical vein was angiographically demonstrated in the same area. Postoperatively the left hemiparesis rapidly disappeared, but left homonymous hemianopsia and anomic type of aphasia still persisted. His speech was fluent and daily communication was possible in spite of circumlocutory paraphasic output.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_8849", "title": "[A case of crossed aphasia in a dextral patient with polycythemia].", "score": 0.014169535498677843, "content": "We report a 72-year-old right-handed man who was diagnosed as having crossed aphasia. He had polycythemia, hypertension and an old cerebral infarction in the right occipital lobe. He was admitted to our hospital because of muscle weakness in the left extremities at the age of 71. In the laboratory data, red blood cells(689 x 10(4)/microliter) and platelets(87.6 x 10(4)/microliter) were increased in number. Brain CT detected a right putaminal hematoma and an old infarct in the occipital lobe on the right. After admission, he developed non-fluent speech, and impairments of auditory comprehension, writing and naming due to the infarction in his right cerebral hemisphere including the middle cerebral artery distribution. The standard language test of aphasia(SLTA) revealed marked impairments in the language function, except for reading kana and kanji words. This writing was severely impaired compared with other language dysfunctions. Auditory comprehension, repetition and reading were impaired at the sentence level rather than at the kana word level. Furthermore, he suffered from left hemiparesis and left unilateral spatial neglect. We diagnosed his impairments of language function as crossed aphasia based on his right-handedness, CT findings and the results of SLTA. His language center was considered to be located in both cerebral hemispheres. Compared with typical findings in reported cases of crossed aphasia, the presence of both non-fluent speech and mutism were consistent with previous observations. However, the marked impairments of auditory comprehension, repetition and naming were different. Polycythemia and hypertension were considered to be the risk factors of cerebral infarction in our patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0802_21103", "title": "Proper name anomia after right-hemispheric lesion: a case study.", "score": 0.013910422049956933, "content": "This study describes the case of CH, a 68-year-old left-handed woman who suffered a right temporo-parieto-occipital infarct in the territory of the middle cerebral artery and who exhibits severe proper name anomia. During the acute stage, CH was diagnosed with severe amnestic aphasia (Aachen Aphasia Test). Her lesion mirrors those of left hemisphere impairing the processing proper names, without an aphasic language disorder in general. Seven weeks later, language improved to a mild amnestic aphasia that currently does not interfere with her daily life. However, the use of proper names in both the visual and auditory modalities was still impaired and showed no improvement after 6 months of speech therapy. While not being able to name family members or familiar persons, she was, however, still able to describe the persons' backgrounds along with some additional semantic information. Furthermore, in a simple semantic design test, CH was selectively impaired in correctly classifying proper names into their respective word classes. Conversely, she was able to correctly name and classify other word categories (e.g., common nouns). In the subsequent study, we assessed the modalities \"auditory comprehension,\" \"picture naming,\" and \"reading comprehension\" and classified her responses in the categories \"correctly named,\" \"correctly classified,\" \"correctly described attributes\" (e.g., occupation) and \"falsely named.\" The results were compared with those of an age-matched healthy control group. In the visual task, CH correctly named 80% of the visualized objects, 3% of the familiar persons and 15% of the familiar city views. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_4331", "title": "[Transcortical sensory aphasia due to extensive infarction of left cerebral hemisphere].", "score": 0.013797814207650274, "content": "We report a case of transcortical sensory aphasia occurred after extensive infarction of left cerebral hemisphere. A 68-year-old, right-handed man with atrial fibrillation suddenly developed cerebral embolism of left middle cerebral artery. He was treated conservatively, and the right hemiplegia, aphasia, apraxia in a slight degree and right hemispatial neglect in a slight degree consequently existed. MRI showed a large cortical and subcortical infarct lesion including the left Broca's area, central region, perisylvian area with Wernicke's area and temporal lobe. In contrast, neuropsychological evaluation using the Western Aphasia Battery (WAB) demonstrated transcortical sensory aphasia, e.g., fluency 8, auditory comprehension 1. repetition 10 and object naming 2.4. In addition to preserved repetition, both linguistic prosody and affective prosody were well preserved. Most cases with transcortical sensory aphasia are known to occur with the lesion including temporo-parieto-occipital junction of dominant hemisphere. Our patient and a few other reported cases of transcortical sensory aphasia had a lesion in perisylvian area including Wernicke's area. Therefore, it is possible that their minor hemisphere worked selectively for repetition. Furthermore, we suggest that this patient presented dissociative aphasia that all the process of repetition and the function of linguistic and emotional prosody were represented in the right hemisphere and the other functions including comprehension of word meanings were existed in the left hemisphere. We believe that our case of transcortical sensory aphasia with dissociative aphasia gives a suggestion about the mechanism and localization of repetition and prosody in the whole system of language." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0321_17087", "title": "Subcortical crossed aphasia.", "score": 0.013680331644403501, "content": "A 55 year-old, right-handed, hypertensive woman with global aphasia, due to a spontaneous hemorrhage in the right putamen extending to the periventricular white matter was examined thirteen days after the acute onset of stroke. She had left hemiplegia and inability to speak. She displayed no spontaneous speech output and was capable only of occasional undifferentiated grunts in conversation. Other language modalities such as auditory and reading comprehension, naming, repetition and writing were severely impaired. Her aphasia was classified as global aphasia. Forty-five days after the onset of stroke, rapid recovery from the aphasia with mild deficits in speaking, naming, and repetition was detected. This case is a good example of crossed aphasia, favouring the importance of deep structures of the right hemisphere in this type of aphasia. Rapid recovery is an important feature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1136_5815", "title": "Thalamic aphasia associated with mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes: A case report.", "score": 0.012969156447417318, "content": "Mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes (MELAS) with aphasia is a rare disorder, with the associated aphasia reported as either Wernicke's or Broca's. Herein, we report a patient with MELAS complicated by thalamic aphasia. A 15-year-old right-handed girl presented with headache, nausea, right homonymous hemianopsia, and aphasia. She could repeat words said by others, but had word-finding difficulty, paraphasia, and dysgraphia. Brain MRI revealed abnormal signals from the left occipital lobe to the temporal lobe and left thalamus, but Wernicke's area and Broca's area were not involved. Additionally, she had short stature, lactic acidosis, bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and a maternal family history of diabetes and mild deafness. Based on clinical findings and the presence of a mitochondrial A3243G mutation, she was diagnosed with MELAS. With treatment, the brain MRI lesions disappeared and her symptoms improved. Her aphasia was classified as amnesic aphasia because she could repeat words, despite having word-finding difficulty, paraphasia, and dysgraphia. Based on MRI findings of a left thalamic lesion, we diagnosed her with thalamic aphasia. Thalamic aphasia may be caused by MELAS. Assessment of whether repetition is preserved is important for classifying aphasia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7032", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.012400118378218408, "content": "In this rare type of aphasia, Broca's area, Wernicke's area, and the arcuate fasciculus are intact but the watershed region around them is damaged. This damage isolates these areas from the rest of the brain. The most frequent etiology of mixed transcortical aphasia is stenosis (narrowing) of the internal carotid artery. Mixed transcortical aphasia can also occur after cerebral hypoxia, cerebral swelling, and any stroke that affects the cerebral artery. Often lesions that cause mixed transcortical aphasia affect both the anterior and posterior perisylvian border zones. Some times the type of aphasia can be determined just by knowing the lesion location. In order for a patient to be diagnosed with mixed transcortical aphasia all other forms of transcortical must be ruled out. Using WAB or the BDAE can rule out global aphasia if the ability to repeat is present. If verbal fluency is depressed transcortical aphasia gets ruled out and if auditory processing and comprehension is weak then" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_43279", "title": "Wernicke's area", "score": 0.010818391265150756, "content": "Diagnosis of aphasia, as well as characterization of type of aphasia, is done with language testing by the provider. Testing should evaluate fluency of speech, comprehension, repetition, ability to name objects, and writing skills. Fluency is assessed by observing the patient's spontaneous speech. Abnormalities in fluency would include shortened phrases, decreased number of words per minute, increased effort with speech, and agrammatism. Patients with Wernicke's aphasia should have fluent speech, so abnormalities in fluency may indicate a different type of aphasia. Comprehension is assessed by giving the patient commands to follow, beginning with simple commands and progressing to more complex commands. Repetition is evaluated by having the patient repeat phrases, progressing from simple to more complex phrases. Both comprehension and repetition would be abnormal in Wernicke's aphasia. Content should also be assessed, by listening to a patient's spontaneous or instructed speech." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0216_17163", "title": "[Spontaneous speech disturbances in so called transcortical motor aphasia--comparison of 3 cases with the different lesion sites].", "score": 0.010605002457256667, "content": "So called transcortical motor aphasia (TCMA) is frequently subdivided, because the clinical features and the localization of the lesions are variable. The authors have been attempting to classify TCMA into three types according to the distribution of the lesions, such as Type F 1, Type F 2 and Type F 3. Case 1 N.S. belongs to Type F 1 showing the clinical features of TCMA with bleeding in the territory of the left anterior cerebral artery. Case 2 M.E. belongs to Type F 2 (published case). This case is similar to Luria's dynamic aphasia in its clinical features and results from the lesions including the posterior parts of left middle frontal gyrus. Case 3 N.T. belongs to Type F 3 who recovered from typical Broca aphasia after language training for four years. The case is similar to Goldstein's Type 1 of TCMA in its clinical features. These three cases are compared with regard to the fundamental bases of spontaneous speech disturbance. The items of comparison are as follows; the volume of speech production and the the time taken to start speech, word fluency test, cue effects necessary for the success of sentence constructions grammatical ability. The results are summerized in Table 2. Type F1 shows the most conspicuous defect of spontaneous speech, but no disturbance in grammatical ability. And when the top word of a sentence (a subject word) is given by the examiner, the patient can construct a structurally correct sentence. These findings imply that the spontaneous speech disturbance of Type F 1 is due to a defect of the starting mechanism of speech.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7030", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.010269627279936558, "content": "Symptoms and language characteristics Mixed transcortical aphasia is characterized by severe speaking and comprehension impairment, but with preserved repetition. People who suffer mixed transcortical aphasia struggle greatly to produce propositional language or to understand what is being said to them, yet they can repeat long, complex utterances or finish a song once they hear the first part. Persons with mixed transcortical aphasia are often nonfluent, and in most cases do not speak unless they are spoken to, do not comprehend spoken language, cannot name objects, and cannot read or write. However, they often have the ability to repeat what is said to them. In fact, persons with mixed transcortical aphasia often repeat in a parrot-like fashion. Some patients with this disorder can experience many different types neurological symptoms including, bilateral paralysis, lack of voluntary speech, and difficulty with producing spontaneous speech." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_13770", "title": "[Transcortical sensory aphasia following a left frontal lesion--case report].", "score": 0.010087104525430518, "content": "We report a patient with transcortical sensory aphasia (TCSA) following a left frontal lesion. The patient was a 63-year-old right handed Buddhist priest admitted to our hospital with a complaint of word-finding difficulty. Neurological examination failed to reveal any abnormal findings except aphasia. The patients spontaneous speech was fluent, not agrammatic, and free of phonemic paraphasia but he sometimes exhibited semantic paraphasia. His ability to repeat sentences was excellent, but he had severe difficulty in word-finding, auditory comprehension and writing. He read aloud correctly, but his reading comprehension of kana (phonograms) was poor in contrast to excellent reading comprehension of kanji (morphonograms). His clinical picture was characterized by poor comprehension but excellent repetition, and a diagnosis of TCSA was made. CT and MRI revealed an infarction involving the pars opercularis and pars triangularis in the inferior frontal gyrus and the anterior portion of the lower prefrontal gyrus and the middle frontal gyrus. Regional cerebral blood flow was measured by single photon emission CT and was found to be decreased in the same region as indicated on CT and MRI. The clinical picture in this patient was comparable to that of TCSA due to a posterior parieto-occipital lesion, but the rapid improvement (within 1 to 2 months) of this patient was characteristic. Auditory comprehension, kana (phonograms) reading comprehension, and word recall, which were severely impaired in this patient, all demand interaction between phonological processes and semantic processes. Thus we conclude that this patient had impairment of the phonological-semantic interaction process." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_102707", "title": "Anomic aphasia", "score": 0.010081053698074976, "content": "Anomic aphasia (also known as dysnomia, nominal aphasia, and amnesic aphasia) is a mild, fluent type of aphasia where individuals have word retrieval failures and cannot express the words they want to say (particularly nouns and verbs). Anomia is a deficit of expressive language. Anomia is a symptom of all forms of aphasia, but patients whose primary deficit is word retrieval are diagnosed with anomic aphasia. Some level of anomia is seen in all of the aphasias. Individuals with aphasia who display anomia can often describe an object in detail and maybe even use hand gestures to demonstrate how the object is used, but cannot find the appropriate word to name the object. Patients with anomic aphasia have relatively preserved speech fluency, repetition, comprehension, and grammatical speech." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26964", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Individuals with conduction aphasia have deficits in the connections between the speech-comprehension and speech-production areas. This might be caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, the structure that transmits information between Wernicke's area and Broca's area. Similar symptoms, however, can be present after damage to the insula or to the auditory cortex. Auditory comprehension is near normal, and oral expression is fluent with occasional paraphasic errors. Paraphasic errors include phonemic/literal or semantic/verbal. Repetition ability is poor. Conduction and transcortical aphasias are caused by damage to the white matter tracts. These aphasias spare the cortex of the language centers but instead create a disconnection between them. Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus. The arcuate fasciculus is a white matter tract that connects Broca's and Wernicke's areas. People with conduction aphasia typically have good language comprehension, but poor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0322_3553", "title": "Complex partial seizures and aphasia as initial manifestations of non-ketotic hyperglycemia. Case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We describe a case of non-ketotic hyperglycemia (NKH), heralded by complex partial seizures and aphasia of epileptic origin, besides versive and partial motor seizures. This clinical picture was accompanied by left fronto-temporal spikes in the EEG. The seizures were controlled by carbamazepine only after the control of the diabetes. A month later, carbamazepine was discontinued. The patient remained without seizures, with normal language, using only glybenclamide. Complex partial seizures, opposed to simple partial seizures, are rarely described in association to NKH. Epileptic activity localized over language regions can manifest as aphasia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7039", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "For most patients, formal and informal language assessments are initially administered during his/her acute hospital stay by a licensed speech-language pathologist. However, a standardized assessment may provide further information regarding an aphasia classification. While there are different classifications of aphasia (i.e., Broca’s, Wernicke’s, Conduction, Anomia), they each have hallmark deficits. Research has shown, a patient presenting with mixed transcortical aphasia will have impairments in all communicative areas, with the exception of the preserved ability to repeat a person’s words or phrases. Patients with mixed transcortical aphasia demonstrate similar deficits as those seen in patients with global aphasia. Therefore, assessment of repetition is most critical in order to differentially diagnose. Specifically, language based standardized assessments such as the Western Aphasia Battery (WAB), and the Folstein Mini Mental State Exam include a repetition subtest amongst" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0753_942", "title": "A case of foreign accent syndrome.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Foreign accent syndrome is a rare but potentially devastating clinical condition associated with altered speech rhythm and prosody, often occurring after a cerebral vascular accident. Missing this diagnosis can lead to delayed stroke work-up and treatment. We report a case of foreign accent syndrome in a 60-year-old woman who presented to the Emergency Department (ED) with 3 weeks of altered speech pattern, widened gait, bilateral leg heaviness, and mild headache. The patient had a history of Type 2 diabetes, malignant hypertension, toxic nodular goiter, and hyperlipidemia. She initially presented to the ED at the onset of symptoms, was thought to have had speech change secondary to a goiter impinging on the recurrent laryngeal nerve, and was discharged. She returned to the ED 3 weeks later when outpatient imaging revealed subacute infarction of the left hemi-pons and absent flow within the left vertebral artery. On examination, the patient was alert and conversational. She spoke fluently with an accent that had components of Jamaican and the accent of an Italian speaking English. Neurology was consulted and the patient was admitted. The patient was treated medically, and was discharged home with primary care follow-up. She developed a second, more significant stroke 1 month later, with unilateral weakness and slurred speech in the middle cerebral artery distribution. Clinicians should be aware that some stroke patients present with various atypical symptoms, and should suspect stroke in any patient with acute-onset neurological symptoms, including speech change." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26971", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Recent classification schemes adopting this approach, such as the Boston-Neoclassical Model, also group these classical aphasia subtypes into two larger classes: the nonfluent aphasias (which encompasses Broca's aphasia and transcortical motor aphasia) and the fluent aphasias (which encompasses Wernicke's aphasia, conduction aphasia and transcortical sensory aphasia). These schemes also identify several further aphasia subtypes, including: anomic aphasia, which is characterized by a selective difficulty finding the names for things; and global aphasia, where both expression and comprehension of speech are severely compromised. Many localizationist approaches also recognize the existence of additional, more \"pure\" forms of language disorder that may affect only a single language skill. For example, in pure alexia, a person may be able to write but not read, and in pure word deafness, they may be able to produce speech and to read, but not understand speech when it is spoken to them." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_1184", "title": "Type of aphasia: relationship to age, sex, previous risk factors, and outcome of rehabilitation.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Relationship of types of aphasia in hemiplegics to survival, outcome of rehabilitation, activities of daily living (ADL) and pre-existing risk factors, hypertension (HT), ischemic heart disease (IHD), diabetes mellitus (DM) were studied in a group of 257 patients. The control group was a large population of CVA cases previously documented. Four main categories were considered: expressive-receptive (global), predominantly expressive (Broca), predominantly receptive (Wernicke) and predominantly amnestic (anomia) aphasias. 40% of each category were female. No clear pattern emerged concerning relationship with risk factors; however, hypertension, the factor most frequently encountered, was significantly less prevalent among expressive ahphasics, and diabetes mellitus was rare among those with the receptive pattern. For all categories, the most frequent etiology was thrombosis, the second being embolia. The oldest groups were the expressive-receptive and the predominantly receptive aphasia groups: showed the poorest rehabilitation outcome in both ADL and locomotion, and lived less time after stroke (5.8 years). Amnestic and expressive patients were younger and fared better in all other parameters; an etiology of embolia was much more frequent among the former. It can be said that patients with the expressive-receptive kind of aphasia have the worst survival and rehabilitation prognoses." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_2566", "title": "Conduction aphasia", "score": 0.009629970121811077, "content": "History In the late 19th century, Paul Broca studied person with expressive aphasia. These person had lesions in the anterior perisylvian region (now known as Broca's area), and produced halting and labored speech, lacking in function words and grammar. For example: Comprehension is generally preserved, although there can be deficits in interpretation of complex sentences. In an extreme example, one of his person could only produce a single syllable, \"Tan\". Meanwhile, Carl Wernicke described person with receptive aphasia, who had damage to the left posterior superior temporal lobe, which he named \"the area of word images\". These person could speak fluently, but their speech lacked meaning. They had a severe deficit in auditory comprehension. For example, \"Clinician: What brings you to the hospital? The two disorders (expressive and receptive aphasias) thus seemed complementary, and corresponded to two distinct anatomical locations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_49815", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Transcortical sensory aphasia (TSA) is a kind of aphasia that involves damage to specific areas of the temporal lobe of the brain, resulting in symptoms such as poor auditory comprehension, relatively intact repetition, and fluent speech with semantic paraphasias present. TSA is a fluent aphasia similar to Wernicke's aphasia (receptive aphasia), with the exception of a strong ability to repeat words and phrases. The person may repeat questions rather than answer them (\"echolalia\")." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0238_4170", "title": "[A case of pure word deafness and auditory agnosia associated with bilateral temporo-parietal lesions].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A-49-year-old right-handed female was reported. She showed pure word deafness and auditory agnosia because of bilateral temporo-parietal lesions. The left lesion resulted from angiospasm of the left anterior and middle cerebral arteries after subarachnoid hemorrhage due to a ruptured aneurysm of the left carotid artery, and the right one resulted from subcortical hematoma after the V-P shunt operation. CT scan revealed the abnormal low density area on the bilateral temporo-parietal regions seven months after onset. Neurophychological findings were as follows: there were no aphasic symptoms such as paraphasia, word finding difficulties, or disturbances of spontaneous writing, reading and calculation. But her auditory comprehension was severely disturbed, and she could neither repeat words after the tester nor write from dictation. She also could not recognize meaningful sounds and music in spite of normal hearing sensitivity for pure tone, BSR and AER. We discussed the neuropsychological mechanisms of auditory recognition, and assumed that each hemisphere might process both verbal and non-verbal auditory stimuli in the secondary auditory area. The auditory input may be recognized at the left association area, the final level of this mechanism. Pure word deafness and auditory agnosia of this case might be caused by the disruption of the right secondary auditory area, the pathway between the left primary auditory area and the left secondary auditory area, and between the left and right secondary auditory areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_4072", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia due to a left frontal subcortical haemorrhage.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A case of transcortical sensory aphasia caused by a cerebral haemorrhage in the left frontal lobe is presented. A 72-year-old right-handed woman was admitted to the hospital, with a history of acute onset of speech disturbance and headache. On initial assessment, her spontaneous speech was fluent. She had no difficulty initiating speech, articulated normally, and did not exhibit logorrhea. Her ability to repeat phonemes and short sentences (5-6 words) was fully preserved, however she had severe difficulty with visual recognition of words, and with aural comprehension at the word level, although she was able to read words aloud. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging showed cerebral haemorrhage in the left frontal lobe, involving the superior and middle frontal gyrus. Single photon emission CT revealed a wider area of low perfusion over the entire left frontal lobe, including the superior, middle and inferior frontal gyrus. The aphasia symptoms, mainly poor comprehension, disappeared quickly several weeks after the event. This may have been due to a reduction in the size of the haematoma and a resolution of the oedema around the haematoma. Clinically, the transcortical sensory aphasia in this case was indistinguishable from that caused by damage to the posterior language areas. Further case reports of transcortical sensory aphasia associated with frontal lobe lesions would help to confirm whether a relatively rapid recovery is characteristic in cases such as this." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0285_15747", "title": "[50-year-old patient with dyspnea, dizziness, palpitations and brief sensory aphasia].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "After a syncope, a 50 years old female patient was administered with an incomplete central facial paralysis on the left side combined with dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypotension as well as a systolic nurmur over the tricuspid valve. One week before, a vein stripping of the left long saphenous vein had been undertaken. By doppler-ultrasound, a thrombosis of the left tibial veins could be found as the cause of the pulmonary embolism. Additionally, the echocardiogram showed a relative tricuspid insufficiency and a floating atrial septum combined with an enlarged right atrium as an expression of the pulmonary hypertension. The incomplete central facial paralysis must be due to a paradox embolism in the cerebrovascular circulation as a result of an open foramen ovale. Under a therapy with high-dose heparin, all findings receded totally within one week." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0256_4769", "title": "[Postictal aphasia and its generating mechanism in 3 patients with localization-related epilepsy].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Semiology of postictal aphasia as well as its generating mechanism involving both the epileptogenic zone and language area has not yet been sufficiently elucidated. Therefore, postictal aphasias were studied in 3 patients with localization-related epilepsy. Postictal motor aphasia was observed in a patient (patient 1) with frontal lobe epilepsy whose recovery of language function progressed from loss of language function, to Broca's aphasia, and eventually to poor spontaneous speech. Postictal sensory aphasia was observed in 2 patients (patient 2 and 3) with temporal lobe epilepsy whose recovery of language function progressed from loss of language function, to jargon, and eventually to circumlocutory anomic speech. Both patient 2 and 3 did not show fluent speech. Seizure manifestations, EEG, IMP-SPECT and MRI indicated that epileptogenic zones were in the left frontal lobe including Broca's area in patient 1, the mesial part of the left temporal lobe in patient 2, and the middle and posterior part of the left temporal lobe including Wernicke's area in patient 3. A postictal verbal dichotic listening test showed the reduction of correct responses by right ear in the patient 3. Postictal auditory verbal learning tests showed the impairment of verbal memorization in patient 2 and 3. The impairment of verbal memorization was particularly marked in patient 2. These results suggest that 1) the characteristics of postictal motor and sensory aphasia are clearly elucidated by analyzing the sequence of recovery from postictal language dysfunction, 2) postictal aphasia is generated by the epileptogenic zone involving the language area or the ictal discharges propagating to the language area, and 3) not only the disturbance of language function, but also the impairment of verbal memorization seems to participate in the disturbance of repeating and understanding sentences in the patient with postictal sensory aphasia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_15219", "title": "[Slowly progressive fluent aphasia--clinical features and an imaging study including MRI, SPECT and PET].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Three cases of slowly progressive fluent aphasia were presented. In all it began with word amnesia or stuttering, and in one to five years impairment of auditory comprehension, and reading and writing difficulties with kanji (Japanese morphograms) appeared. The neuropsychological and radiological findings were as follows: Case 1: a right-handed 65-year-old man showed severe fluent aphasia (the Western Aphasia Battery profile was rated as corresponding to Wernicke's aphasia but his score on the Token test was too high for Wernicke's aphasia) and memory disturbance. Cortical atrophy was prominent in the left temporal and parietal lobes. Hypoperfusion was evident in the bilateral anterior temporal region, suggesting the diagnosis of Pick's disease. Case 2: a right-handed 42-year-old man presented amnesic aphasia with buccofacial and ideomotor apraxia. The left frontal, temporal and parietal lobes were all atrophic. Hypoperfusion was marked in the left perisylvian and temporo-parietal regions, being similar to the pattern of Mesulam's slowly progressive aphasia. Case 3: a right-handed 55-year-old man with amnesic aphasia. Left-side dominant cortical atrophy involved the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes. The metabolic rate was lower in the left anterior temporal lobe, compatible with the finding in Pick's disease. The common clinical features of these patients were selective deficits in vocabulary, resulting in impairment of confrontation naming, and auditory comprehension. They sometimes could not recognize things even when they were told their names; case 1 could not even point to objects on command, while their syntactic comprehension was well preserved.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_102731", "title": "Anomic aphasia", "score": 0.009366402330474187, "content": "Although not many literary cases mention anomic aphasia, many nonfiction books have been written about living with aphasia. One of them is The Man Who Lost His Language by Sheila Hale. It is the story of Hale's husband, John Hale, a scholar who suffered a stroke and lost speech formation abilities. In her book, Hale also explains the symptoms and mechanics behind aphasia and speech formation. She adds the emotional components of dealing with a person with aphasia and how to be patient with the speech and communication. See also Conduction aphasia Expressive aphasia Lists of language disorders Primary progressive aphasia Receptive aphasia Tip of the tongue References External links Aphasias Dementia Stroke Speech and language pathology Language disorders Communication disorders de:Aphasie#Amnestische bzw. anomische Aphasie id:Disnomia pl:Dysnomia (choroba) sv:Dysnomi" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_49819", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Transcortical sensory aphasia is characterized as a fluent aphasia. Fluency is determined by direct qualitative observation of the patient’s speech to determine the length of spoken phrases, and is usually characterized by a normal or rapid rate; normal phrase length, rhythm, melody, and articulatory agility; and normal or paragrammatic speech. Transcortical sensory aphasia is a disorder in which there is a discrepancy between phonological processing, which remains intact, and lexical-semantic processing, which is impaired. Therefore, patients can repeat complicated phrases, however they lack comprehension and propositional speech. This disconnect occurs since Wernicke’s area is not damaged in patients with TSA, therefore repetition is spared while comprehension is affected. Patients with intact repetition can repeat both simple and complex phrases spoken by others, e.g. when asked if the patient would like to go for a walk, he or she would respond \"go for walk.\" Although patients can" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_1777", "title": "Subcortical anarthria: a case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 56-year-old right-handed male with a history of hypertension and diabetes presented two episodes of stroke: The first affected territory was the left anterior coroidal artery (capsular and paracapsular infarcts at the level of the genu and posterior arm of the internal capsule) and the second was the right thalamus, due to a hematoma. Following the first stroke, the patient developed severe dysarthria and after the second stroke remained anarthric. The pathophysiology of the disorder is discussed, and the role of the left and right thalamus as far as speech is concerned is reviewed." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Plain abdominal x-ray.", "2": "Intravenous urography.", "3": "Spiral CT with contrast.", "4": "Abdominal ultrasound.", "5": "Doppler ultrasound." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0307_17528", "title": "Intravenous urography revisited in the age of ultrasound and computerized tomography: diagnostic yield in cases of renal colic, suspected pelvic and abdominal malignancies, suspected renal mass, and acute pyelonephritis.", "score": 0.01916024935826916, "content": "The aim of our study was to assess the diagnostic yield of intravenous urography (IVU) compared to ultrasound (US) and computerized tomography (CT) in cases of renal colic, suspected pelvic and abdominal malignancies, suspected renal mass, and acute pyelonephritis. We retrospectively analyzed the case charts of 216 consecutive patients. The patients had been referred to the Department of Radiology by different hospital departments and local general practitioners. All had undergone clinical examination, US and IVU, in that order. When deemed necessary, conventional tomography was performed. Patients with renal masses also underwent CT. In cases without renal colic and normal US examination, the subsequent IVU failed to detect any further important pathology. Hydronephrosis was equally well detected using US and IVU, however, the level of obstruction was better determined using delayed X-ray films. In 24% of cases of renal colics the initial US was normal, however, the IVU revealed ureteric obstruction. Repeat US 8-12 h later always showed hydronephrosis. In 6 of 34 solid renal masses, IVU and conventional tomography failed to make the correct diagnosis, but never could the patient be spared a subsequent CT. IVU is only indicated if US shows hydronephrosis. In cases of renal colic, repeat US is necessary to diagnose the possibly developing hydronephrosis. Clinical history, US and a plain abdominal image will suffice to make the diagnosis. Renal masses always require CT. In these cases, IVU is not necessary. There is no indication left for conventional renal tomographies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_20329", "title": "Heightened suspicion and rapid evaluation with CT for early diagnosis of partial renal infarction.", "score": 0.01490596238495398, "content": "Although renal infarction has been well studied and clearly defined, it remains greatly underdiagnosed, resulting in significant morbidity. Acute segmental renal infarction is a diagnosis even more problematic, as the problem can appear insidiously and masquerade as other entities including stone, infection, and even tumor. The clinical manifestations and evaluation of partial renal infarction in our patients were reviewed. Seven patients presenting to the emergency department who were subsequently found to have partial renal infarction were identified from the 5-year records of a single institution. Patients were evaluated for presenting complaints, physical findings, temperature, and blood pressure. Laboratory analysis consisted of a complete blood count (CBC); measurements of creatinine, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), aspartate transaminase/alanine transaminase (AST/ALT), and alkaline phosphatase; and urinalysis. The sequence of the work-up was recorded, as well as time to diagnosis. The etiology of infarction was identified for all patients. All seven patients were eventually discovered to have partial renal infarction as a result of dysrhythmia (N = 4), mural thrombus (N = 2), or septic emboli (N = 1). The average time to diagnosis was 65.2 hours with a range of 9.5 to 168 hours. The chief complaint was flank pain (N = 3), nonspecific abdominal pain (N = 2), left lower-quadrant pain (N = 1), and mental status change (N = 1). The presenting signs and symptoms included abdominal tenderness (N = 4), nausea and vomiting (N = 4), temperature &gt;100.5 degrees F (N = 3), and hypertension (N = 3). Laboratory studies revealed a white cell count &gt;11,000/microL in six, microhematuria in four, proteinuria in four, elevated LDH in all patients, elevated AST/ALT in two, and elevated alkaline phosphatase in one. The work-up varied by presentation, but definitive diagnosis was made by CT in all five patients scanned and by angiography in two. Angiography confirmed the CT findings in four of the five patients. In evaluating partial renal infarction, a strong clinical suspicion is necessary. We found a history of dysrhythmia or other cardiac disease, the presence of abdominal or flank pain, fever with an elevated white cell count, and an elevated LDH to be clinically significant, and their presence should alert the clinician to the possibility of renal infarction. Once a degree of suspicion exists, early evaluation with CT should speed the diagnosis and effect decreased morbidity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_15802", "title": "[The meaning and usefulness of spiral CT for radiolucent ureteric stones diagnosis: our experience].", "score": 0.014785823005001086, "content": "The aim of this work was to report some case histories on the usefulness of spiral TC, used for several years both to diagnose renal colic and urinary lithiasis and to study radio lucent stones that are often difficult to be detected with traditional radiology. 13 patients, aged between 31 and 76 (average age: 54.2), were therefore examined. Eight of them had a ureteral colic when examined, while five patients had shown symptoms some days before being hospitalised in our ward. In all cases, ultrasonography showed a significant hydronephrosis, while direct radiography of the urinary tract could not detect any images that could be associated with radio-opaque lithiasis. All patients therefore underwent an abdominal spiral TC with no contrast medium within 24 hours after hospitalisation. The confrontation between the results obtained by ultrasonography and those obtained by spiral TC, showed the usefulness of the former method to detect stones located in the proximal ureter or in its intramural tract, while the latter could detect the lithiasis of the proximal ureter in 3 cases (23%), of the mid ureter in 2 cases (15.3%), and of the distal ureter in 8 cases (61%). The stones had, approximately, a 5 mm diameter in 5 cases. In 6 cases the diameter was between 6 and 10 mm, and more than 1 cm in 2 cases. Both methods proved to be equally accurate in the assessment of the hydronephrosis degree and of the thickness of the renal parenchyma. The therapy was medical in 2 cases and open surgery in 3 cases, while 8 patients were treated with ureterolitholapaxy with a ballistic searcher. The usefulness of TC in the study of urolithiasis nowadays is supported by a large literature which clearly supplies with documentary evidence the high sensitivity and specificity of such a method in diagnosing the presence of urolithiasis in general and above all of ureteric stones. Such a method not only makes an accurate evaluation of the stones location possible, but it can also assess the calculi dimensions and the indirect signs of the functionality of the kidney affected, without having to use the contrast medium. This method needs very limited execution times and allows a diagnostic of possible collateral pathologies. The main disadvantage of spiral TC, if compared to conventional radiology, is that the patient is exposed to a larger quantity of ionizing radiations, although such an inconvenience will be overcome by the new and more technologically advanced machines. According to our experience, though based on a limited number of cases, spiral TC allowed us to get a quick diagnosis of radio-lucent lithiasis, to see the seat and dimensions of the calculi and finally to chose the most effective treatment. We can therefore think of a diagnostic protocol, for ureteral colics with hydronephrosis or complicated by hyperpyrexia or sepsis, with spiral TC in order to have a quick diagnosis and start the most effective therapy in case an ultrasonographic research should not result diriment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_23050", "title": "Role of the plain radiograph and urinalysis in acute ureteric colic.", "score": 0.01354431489436311, "content": "(1) To determine the accuracy of accident and emergency (A&amp;E) doctors' diagnosis of radio-opaque ureteric calculi on plain abdominal radiographs; (2) to study the predictive value of haematuria with a history suggestive of ureteric colic. A prospective study of all patients seen in a three month period with a provisional diagnosis of ureteric colic. Intravenous urography (IVU) was used as the gold standard for diagnosis of ureteric calculi. The accident and emergency department and medical unit of a large teaching hospital. 60 patients who were admitted with an initial diagnosis of ureteric colic, 51 subsequently undergoing intravenous urography. A&amp;E doctors achieved a calculated sensitivity of 29% (95% confidence intervals 13% to 49%) and a specificity of 73% (52% to 90%) for identification of renal calculi on plain abdominal radiograph, compared with figures of 68% (48% to 84%) and 96% (78% to 100%) respectively for consultant radiologists. The difference between these results was highly significant (P = 0.0011). No patient with a definitive diagnosis of ureteric colic had a negative result for haematuria on urinary dipstick analysis. A&amp;E doctors are poor at identifying radio-opaque ureteric calculi on plain abdominal radiographs. If haematuria is absent on urinalysis then ureteric colic is an unlikely diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_2246", "title": "Present-day imaging of patients with renal colic.", "score": 0.012841921119592875, "content": "In the past decade alternatives to urography have been proposed for the study of patients with renal colic. In 1992 it was suggested to replace urography with KUB and ultrasonography. In 1993 the combination of KUB and ultrasonography followed by urography in unresolved cases was proposed and, in 1995, it was suggested to replace urography with unenhanced helical CT (UHCT). This article illustrates the contribution of UHCT to the study of patients with renal colic and analyses advantages and shortcomings of the technique compared with other diagnostic approaches. Diagnostics of the patient with renal colic is based on the detection of direct and indirect signs which allow identification of not only the calculus, with a sensitivity of 94-100% and accuracy of 93-98% according different authors, but also other signs that can serve to guide patient management and evaluate long-term prognosis. Unenhanced helical CT has the capability to detect extraurinary abnormalities which present with flank pain and mimic renal colic. The examination technique affects the quality of the images and therefore diagnostic accuracy as well as the dose to the patient. With regard to setting parameters, the choice of thickness and table feed should be guided by numerous factors. Multiplanar reconstruction is indicated in the study of the entire ureter course to identify the exact site of the calcification for the urologist to perform an evaluation similar to that obtained by urography. Many authors consider UHCT to be a valuable tool for suggesting the best therapeutic approach. Among these there are also urologists. The evaluation is based on the stone detection, its size and level in the urinary tract. Cost analysis shows that the cost of UHCT is equal to or inferior to the cost of urography. With regard to the dose, different data are reported in the literature. A high pitch (more than 1.5) and a thin collimation (3-mm thickness) are good compromise between quality and dose which can be compared to the dose of normal urography. What is to be done if helical CT is not available? If helical CT is not available, plain film plus ultrasonography should be considered. This approach does not solve all the cases; in unresolved cases urography is indicated. It should also be noted that US has a good sensitivity in detecting other conditions such as biliary lithiasis, acute pancreatitis, acute appendicitis and abdomino-pelvic masses which are responsible for pain that mimics renal colic. In conclusion, IVU should not have any more the priority in investigating the patients with renal colic. Helical CT should be the first choice in imaging a patient with renal colic. If this technique is not available, plain film and ultrasonography should be considered adding urography in unresolved cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_19656", "title": "[Spiral computerized tomography without perfusion of contrast media as first line investigation in patients with renal colic].", "score": 0.01229260935143288, "content": "We investigated the diagnostic accuracy of unenhanced helical CT in the detection of stones in patients with suspected renal colic from ureteral stones and compared CT findings with the results of plain abdominal film and US. We reviewed the findings relative to 80 patients (age range 24-75) who came to our observation to the Emergency Department with acute flank pain. All patients had been examined with plain abdominal radiography, US and unenhanced helical CT. While abdominal radiography showed the presence of radiopaque stones in 38 patients only (47.5%), US demonstrated ureter dilatation in 72 patients and detected stones in 36 of them (45%). Helical CT performed best, depicting a stone in 72 patients (90%), with high sensitivity and specificity. Mean stone size was 3 mm, with 7 mm-1 mm range. The biggest stones were seen in 3 cases and the smallest ones in 34. In 8 patients with no signs of stones we found other extraurinary conditions, namely pancreatitis, diverticula, renal cancer. We also found a case of urinary tract infection. Thanks to its short execution time and accuracy, helical CT makes the examination of choice in patients with acute flank pain due to renal colic. It is also a most valuable tool in the differential diagnosis of other pathological causes of pain such as abdominal or pelvic masses and inflammatory conditions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_36932", "title": "Abdominal aortic aneurysm", "score": 0.010897435897435897, "content": "Classification Abdominal aortic aneurysms are commonly divided according to their size and symptomatology. An aneurysm is usually defined as an outer aortic diameter over 3 cm (normal diameter of the aorta is around 2 cm), or more than 50% of normal diameter. If the outer diameter exceeds 5.5 cm, the aneurysm is considered to be large. Ruptured AAA should be suspected in any older (age >60) person with collapse, unexplained low blood pressure, or sudden-onset back or abdominal pain. Abdominal pain, shock, and a pulsatile mass is only present in a minority of cases. Although an unstable person with a known aneurysm may undergo surgery without further imaging, the diagnosis will usually be confirmed using CT or ultrasound scanning. The suprarenal aorta normally measures about 0.5 cm larger than the infrarenal aorta. Differential diagnosis Aortic aneurysm rupture may be mistaken for the pain of kidney stones, or muscle related back pain." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22168", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010755042947173759, "content": "The diagnosis is often made on the basis of the history, physical examination, and urinalysis. Thus, it may not be necessary to wait for radiographic confirmation before treating the symptoms. The diagnosis is confirmed by an appropriate imaging study—preferably helical CT, which is highly sensitive, allows visualization of uric acid stones (traditionally considered “radiolucent”), and is able to avoid radiocontrast (Fig. 342-2). Helical CT detects stones as small as 1 mm that may be missed by other imaging modalities. Typically, helical CT reveals a ureteral stone or evidence of recent passage (e.g., perinephric stranding or hydronephrosis), whereas a plain abdominal radiograph (kidney/ureter/bladder, or KUB) can miss a stone in the ureter or kidney, even if it is radiopaque, and does not provide information on obstruction. Abdominal ultrasound offers the advantage of avoiding radiation and provides" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_29255", "title": "Kawasaki disease", "score": 0.010583356156344145, "content": "Other optional tests include: Electrocardiogram may show evidence of ventricular dysfunction or, occasionally, arrhythmia due to myocarditis. Echocardiogram may show subtle coronary artery changes or, later, true aneurysms. Ultrasound or computerized tomography may show hydrops (enlargement) of the gallbladder. Urinalysis may show white blood cells and protein in the urine (pyuria and proteinuria) without evidence of bacterial growth. Lumbar puncture may show evidence of aseptic meningitis. Angiography was historically used to detect coronary artery aneurysms, and remains the gold standard for their detection, but is rarely used today unless coronary artery aneurysms have already been detected by echocardiography. Biopsy is rarely performed, as it is not necessary for diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0109_7269", "title": "Relative merits of ultrasound and intravenous urography in the investigation of the urinary tract.", "score": 0.010426849136526556, "content": "Three hundred and fifty adult patients referred for intravenous urography were entered into a prospective double blind trial comparing intravenous urography with real time ultrasound. The study was performed to clarify the relative merits of the two techniques. Our results show that ultrasound and a plain abdominal radiograph should be the examination of first choice in most circumstances. This is particularly so in vague abdominal pain and in recurrent urinary tract infections where intravenous urography can usually be omitted or used only as a secondary investigation for further evaluation of abnormal ultrasound findings. In acute renal colic, intravenous urography should be the primary investigation. In macroscopic haematuria, initial examination by ultrasound would reliably diagnose mass lesions, show whether the lesion is cystic or solid and assess possible spread. Normal ultrasound does not exclude haematuria due to ureteric lesions or bladder lesions and intravenous urography is recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en622_26954", "title": "Page kidney", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Diagnosis Techniques for the diagnosis of Page kidney are all imaging based, including abdominal x-ray, intravenous pyelography, angiography, renal doppler ultrasound, CT scan, and Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). X-ray and pyelography may add in diagnosis, but are non-diagnostic when used alone. Additionally, pyelograms use potentially nephrotoxic contrast agents, further limiting their utility. Diagnosis is primarily made using ultrasound and CT. CT and MRI imaging can show the space occupying lesions but doppler ultrasound is needed to display the hemodynamic changes occurring in the kidney. Ultrasound is often the initial diagnostic test of choice but due to its low resolution further imaging may be necessary. Treatment" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en114_9174", "title": "Brodifacoum", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In another case reported in 2013, a 48-year-old female patient reported 4 days of mild dyspnea, dry cough, bilateral popliteal fossae pain, and diffuse upper abdominal pain. She had no history of liver disease or alcohol or illicit substance abuse. Initial physical examination was remarkable only for mildly pale conjunctivae and mild abdominal tenderness and pain in the left popliteal fossa. A complete blood count and complete metabolic panel were normal. Prothrombin time (PT) was above 100 s, partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was above 200 s and international normalized ratio (INR) was reported as above 12.0. Urinalysis revealed hematuria (blood in the urine). Venous Doppler ultrasound of lower extremities demonstrated left popliteal vein thrombosis. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen demonstrated transmural hematoma, and a fecal occult blood test was positive. A full anticoagulant work-up showed critical reduction of vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X. PT and PTT" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en221_30114", "title": "Abdominal trauma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Diagnosis Ten percent of people with polytrauma who had no signs of abdominal injury did have evidence of such injuries using radiological imaging. Diagnostic techniques used include CT scanning, ultrasound, and X-ray. X-ray can help determine the path of a penetrating object and locate any foreign matter left in the wound, but may not be helpful in blunt trauma. Diagnostic laparoscopy or exploratory laparotomy may also be performed if other diagnostic methods do not yield conclusive results. Ultrasound Ultrasound can detect fluid such as blood or gastrointestinal contents in the abdominal cavity, and it is a noninvasive procedure and relatively safe. CT scanning is the preferred technique for people who are not at immediate risk of shock, but since ultrasound can be performed right in an emergency room, the latter is recommended for people who are not stable enough to move to CT scanning. A normal ultrasound does not rule out all injuries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_10740", "title": "Asymptomatic nephrolithiasis detected by ultrasound.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Data from several countries suggest a recent world-wide increase in the prevalence of stone disease. However, these studies have not analyzed the effect that increases in utilization of imaging modalities have had on detection of asymptomatic stones. A retrospective chart review of all patients who had an abdominal or retroperitoneal ultrasound in 2005 at a Department of Veterans' Affairs Medical Center was conducted. The charts of patients who had ultrasounds demonstrating kidney stones were further reviewed. Patients were classified into symptomatic and asymptomatic groups on the basis of their clinical history. Age and sex for all patients were recorded. For those patients with stones, additional data were recorded. Of all patients in the study, the percentage of those with asymptomatic stones was calculated. Taking into account uncertainty about symptomaticity in some patients, a sensitivity analysis for the presence or absence of gross and microhematuria was performed to determine a range for the percent of asymptomatic stones. Appropriate statistical tests were used to determine significance. The prevalence of all kidney stones in the study group was 8.6 %. Using the sensitivity analysis, 29.8 to 45.7% of all stones were asymptomatic. Of stones found on abdominal ultrasounds, 71.4% were asymptomatic, whereas 36.8% of stones found on retroperitoneal ultrasound were asymptomatic. Asymptomatic stones have a relatively high prevalence on ultrasound. Epidemiologic estimates of prevalence of nephrolithiasis need to account for increases in utilization of imaging modalities and the resulting detection bias." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0334_14134", "title": "Imaging characteristics of indinavir calculi.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Indinavir sulfate is an effective protease inhibitor of the human immunodeficiency virus type 1. Use is associated with a significant incidence of crystallization and stone formation in the urinary tract, and these calculi are not visible on plain radiographs. Previously all urinary stones, including uric acid and matrix, were believed to be radiodense on computerized tomography (CT). We conducted a retrospective study to evaluate the radiographic appearance of indinavir calculi. Retrospective chart review of 36 patients taking indinavir sulfate and presenting with renal colic was performed with attention to presentation, urinalysis, radiographic evaluation and management. Specifically, imaging characteristics on CT were addressed. All patients complained of ipsilateral flank pain and 35 had nausea and/or vomiting. Of 30 patients with dysuria or urgency the majority had hematuria, and most had pyuria and/or proteinuria. No stones were visualized on abdominal radiography. Diagnosis was confirmed on 1 of 13 excretory urograms and 4 of 11 renal ultrasounds. None of 12 CT scans was diagnostic of renal lithiasis. Indinavir sulfate is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion. Crystallization and stone formation are demonstrated in as many as 20% of patients taking the medication. Most patients present with flank pain, nausea or vomiting and hematuria. Previously CT was thought to identify all urinary calculi with clarity but it cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0055_376", "title": "[The local lysis therapy of spontaneous renal artery dissection with arterial thrombosis].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 33-year-old previously completely healthy man developed severe, at first colicky then persisting, pain in the left flank. The blood pressure was 190/110 mm Hg and he had pain over the left kidney on percussion. There was a mild leucocytosis (10,300/microliters), serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl and a rise in lactate dehydrogenase level to 395 U/l, while the urine was unremarkable. The pyelogram demonstrated on the left the upper calyceal system only and this very weakly. Colour Doppler ultrasound showed a massively reduced blood flow in the left renal vein while the artery was not visible. Digital subtraction angiography demonstrated eccentric narrowing of the left renal artery by an intravascular thrombus, providing the diagnosis of spontaneous renal artery dissection with thrombosis. Complete recanalization occurred after local thrombolysis with 500,000 IU urokinase over 7 hours, and subsequent administration of four times 40 mg tissue plasminogen activator over 4 hours. But the scintigram still demonstrated impaired renal function with decrease in clearance to 10% of total. The patient was still symptom-free on re-examination 16 months later, serum creatinine concentration was stable at 1.3 mg/dl and the blood pressure was normal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0959_23829", "title": "Bilateral Renal Hypoperfusion Following Motor Vehicle Accident.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Renal hypoperfusion noted on abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan without any underlying comorbid condition is a rare finding. Most reported cases of renal hypoperfusion have an association with an underlying cardioembolic problem, such as atrial fibrillation, endocarditis, cardiomyopathies, or artificial valve thrombi. We present a case of transient renal hypoperfusion evident on abdominal CT scan following blunt trauma. An 18-year-old male without any significant past medical history presented to the emergency department with the complaint of abdominal pain. The patient reported history of motor vehicle accident 1 week prior to his presentation. He was a front seat passenger wearing a seatbelt when the car went into a ditch. Airbags were deployed and the patient briefly lost consciousness. He presented 1 week later with complaints of generalized abdominal pain, more on the left side that started a few days after his accident, nonradiating, constant, 4/10 intensity. He denied dysuria, hematuria, groin pain, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, decreased oral intake, joint pain, leg swelling, or redness. He denied any medication use or any history of intravenous drug abuse. There was no reported family history of kidney disease or blood clots. Initial laboratory tests, including complete blood count, basic metabolic panel, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and urinalysis were unremarkable except trace protein on the urinalysis. Contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen showed multiple, confluent, focal areas of hypoperfusion of the renal parenchyma bilaterally. Given the CT findings of bilateral renal hypoperfusion, the patient was admitted to the hospital and an extensive workup was performed to rule out cardioembolic etiology. Echocardiogram, renal ultrasound, magnetic resonance angiogram of the abdomen, vasculitis panel, and hypercoagulable workup was unremarkable. The CT findings of renal hypoperfusion were considered secondary to transient hypoperfusion from blunt trauma. Abdominal pain resolved with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and he was discharged to home. Follow-up abdominal CT scan with contrast obtained a few months later showed normal kidneys with resolution of previously noted renal hypoperfusion. Our case highlights a benign incidental finding of bilateral renal hypoperfusion following motor vehicle accident (with airbag injury), which resolved on follow-up imaging. On literature search, such CT scan findings of transient renal hypoperfusion of unclear significance have not been previously reported. Even though our patient underwent extensive workup to rule out cardioembolic etiology, it may be reasonable to forego such workup following blunt abdominal trauma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0733_24263", "title": "[Ultrasound diagnosis of an abdominal aortic aneurysm in a 52 year old woman].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is defined as increasing the diameter of the aorta in more than 50 % of its original size and the infra-renal location is the most common (90 %). AAA disease mainly affects older men and white smokers, and has a male: female ratio of 4:1, as well the diagnosis is rare in women under age 55. Aneurysm rupture is the most common complication and cause of death in the general population, its etiology is unclear, but is commonly associated with atherosclerosis. The AAA do not exhibit rupture and it is usually asymptomatic diagnosed incidentally, however, as the aneurysm grows, appears symptoms such as back pain, abdominal or groin pain, well as palpation of a pulse mass on umbilical and supra-umbilical region. Imaging study such as ultrasound and CT scan are the mainstay of diagnosis. We present a case of 52 years old patient with no history related to the diagnosis, who presented sudden and severe abdominal pain. She was admitted to the emergency room with a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis vs. acute pancreatitis. After ultrasound and CT studies, the diagnosis was a complicated abdominal aortic aneurysm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_3090", "title": "[Lithiasis of soft appearance within a calyceal diverticulum in the right kidney. Report of one case and therapeutic management].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To report the case of a 28-year-old female patient carrying a lithiasis of soft appearance located within a calyceal diverticulum in the right kidney which presented clinically during pregnancy, and to comment on therapeutic management, as well as the outcome one year after conservative treatment. 28-year-old female patient with history of renal colic during pregnancy, who presents at our clinics in the postpartum period with a recurrent abdominal and lumbar pain. Kidney-ureter-bladder (KUB) x-ray and intravenous urography (IVP) detected a lithiasis of soft appearance within a calyceal diverticulum in the right kidney. Treatment was conservative with potassium citrate/citric acid and follow-up controls with urine culture (every 3 months) and ultrasounds (every 8 months). Currently she is asymptomatic but the lithiasis persists on KUB and urine culture is positive (Escherichia coli) and receives treatment with cefuroxime 250 mg every 12 hours for 6 days and nitrofurantoin 100 mg every night for three months. Most urinary stones located within calyceal diverticula have an asymptomatic course, treatment not being necessary. The most frequent clinical presentations of these stones are flank pain, urinary infection demonstrated by positive urine culture, and incidental finding. IVU is an effective method for diagnosis. ESWL is not an effective treatment for them, being percutaneous techniques the most suitable for a single-surgical procedure resolution of both lithiasis and pyelocalyceal diverticulum." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0359_8528", "title": "[Significance of simple radiography of the abdomen in nephritic colic].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The utility of the abdominal plain film in the emergency department to evaluate urolithiasis is questionable. Between another things, there are influence of the different formation of distinct examinators. A retrospective study in 65 patients referrals to urology in 1997 and 1998 by suspicion of renal colic was carried out. The radiography of abdomen took in the emergency room the day of the income is reviewed with a protocol, by a resident of Familiar and Community Medicine and by the urologist, separately and without information of the medical records. We have excluded three patients. At last, we diagnose 49 patients as renal colic with certainty, 6 patients with doubtful diagnosis and 7 patients with distinct diagnosis. The urologist achieved the most adequate reading in 11 cases; in 7 was best the resident, to equal in 31, and in 13 the differences were not important. The resident obtained of radiography a sensitivity of the 67% and a specificity of the 42% and the urologist 71% and 57% respectively. There are few differences of reading, at least when the resident dispose a protocol of interpretation. Despite to the almost null diagnostic utility of the radiography, supply additional ation, and permit to value the evolution with a few aggressive technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0936_17595", "title": "Infected renal hematoma in a healthy adolescent with no renal structural anomaly.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Renal abscesses are uncommon in otherwise healthy children and adolescents who have no underlying renal structural anomalies. A previously healthy, immunocompetent, 14-year-old male without a history of abdominal trauma or urinary tract infection (UTI) was found to have a renal hematoma that became infected and developed into a renal abscess. He presented with a 2-day history of nausea, vomiting, fever and 1-day history of abdominal pain that radiated to the right flank. Clinical examination, blood work, and initial imaging indicated likely infection; however, findings were normal on urinalysis and urine culture had no growth. Complete blood count (CBC) showed a leukocytosis with a left shift. Renal ultrasound showed a 4-cm mass-like area of liquefaction in the upper pole of the right kidney, confirmed by abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan with and without contrast. Intravenous ceftriaxone was started and the patient continued to improve. He was discharged on hospital day 6 after remaining afebrile for over 20 hours and inflammatory markers continued to decrease. Intravenous ceftriaxone was continued, and oral clindamycin was added. Both antibiotics were discontinued on day 24 since onset of illness." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_2712", "title": "[Early and systematic use of ultrasonography in emergency patients with renal colic: analysis of the actual diagnostic efficacy].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In this study, the diagnostic yield of ultrasonography (US) in the early phase of acute urinary obstruction was retrospectively assessed and compared with that of clinical examination. 351 patients were admitted to our emergency department because of suspected renal colic over an 11 months' period: urinary obstruction was subsequently confirmed with other examinations in 76 of them, who were all submitted to renal US within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms. Emergency US results were then retrospectively compared with clinical and laboratory data and the cost of each US exam was calculated. Thirty-nine of 76 patients had negative US findings (51.3%). In the extant 37 patients, US showed hydronephrosis (which was mild in 13 patients and moderate in 6) and renal stones (in 18 patients). Hydronephrosis was associated with renal stones or increased parenchymal echogenicity in 5 and 6 patients, respectively. Pain, which was always severe, was not a useful sign for diagnostic purposes. In contrast, all the 37 patients with abnormal US findings (hydronephrosis, renal stones and increased parenchymal echogenicity) exhibited specific clinical and laboratory abnormalities such as hematuria, ketonuria and marked blood pressure increase (diastolic pressure &gt; 100 mmHg). The same abnormalities, although less severe (mild hematuria and ketonuria and increased diastolic pressure not exceeding 100 mmHg) were nevertheless present in all the 39 patients with negative US findings and yet having a renal colic. The cost of each emergency US exam (calculated on the basis of literature tables and reference cost) was approximately It. L. 104,000. The corresponding total cost for submitting to US all the 76 patients with renal colic was approximately It. L. 7,900,000. In the early phase of urinary obstruction, the association of hematuria, ketonuria and increased blood pressure was more reliable than US findings-the latter method yielding a 51.3% false-negative rate. The presence and severity of the above clinical and laboratory abnormalities might thus represent a criterion to select the patients who are less likely to have positive US findings. This should allow the cost of medical and non-medical staff, equipment and materials to be reduced. As for our personal series, It. L. 28,000,000 was the estimated additional cost of performing US routinely in all the remaining (275) patients with suspected renal colic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_3636", "title": "Ultrasonography compared with intravenous urography in the investigation of adults with haematuria.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To compare ultrasonography with intravenous urography in the investigation of adults with haematuria. Prospective study entailing the examination of all patients with both investigations concurrently. The investigations were performed independently on routine lists by different duty radiologists. Each was aware of the details of the request form but not of the findings of the other investigation. Radiology department of a teaching hospital. 155 Consecutive adult patients (aged 18-93) referred from general practitioners and hospital outpatient clinics with a history of haematuria. When results of both examinations proved normal no clinical or radiological follow up was sought. All abnormal findings of either investigation were correlated with results of subsequent imaging studies or operative findings. 81 Patients (52%) had normal findings on urography and ultrasonography. Overall, the findings of ultrasonography concurred with those of urography in 144 cases (93%). Among the discrepant findings of the two investigations ultrasonography missed two ureteric calculi; one was in a non-dilated ureter, and in the other case ultrasonography detected the secondary ureteric dilatation. Ultrasound examination alone detected four bladder tumours not visible on urography with sizes ranging from 5 to 21 mm, representing one fifth of the 20 cystoscopically proved bladder tumours detected in the series. Ultrasonography detected all the 22 neoplastic lesions discovered in the study (20 bladder, two renal). Ultrasonography clarified the nature of renal masses evident in three urograms (simple cysts). Ultrasonography is a safe and accurate method of investigating the urinary tract in adults with haematuria. When combined with a single plain abdominal radiograph it proved to be superior to urography as the primary imaging study in this series. Ultrasonography should certainly be preferred to urography if cystoscopy is not planned. No urothelial tumours of the upper urinary tract were found in the series, reflecting their rarity. For those patients in whom ultrasonography and plain radiography have shown no abnormality and in whom cystoscopic appearances are normal urography would be advisable to exclude urothelial tumours of the upper urinary tract." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en091_46194", "title": "Ischemic colitis", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Diagnostic tests There is a recent optical test, but it requires endoscopy (see Diagnosis). There are no specific blood tests for ischemic colitis. The sensitivity of tests among 73 patients were: The white blood cell count was more than 15,000/mm3 in 20 patients (27%) The serum bicarbonate level was less than 24 mmol/L in 26 patients (36%) Plain X-rays are often normal or show non-specific findings. In a series of 73 patients, plain abdominal radiography (56%) showing colic distension in 53% or a pneumoperitoneum in 3%. CT scans are often used in the evaluation of abdominal pain and rectal bleeding, and may suggest the diagnosis of ischemic colitis, pick up complications, or suggest an alternate diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0244_5938", "title": "[Diagnosis of \"severe\" renal insufficiency of unknown origin: value and respective roles of ultrasonography and intravenous urography (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A retrospective study in 46 patients hospitalised with severe renal insufficiency of unknown origin, and investigated by means of a straight x-ray of the urinary system followed by bilateral renal ultrasonography, emphasises the importance of the latter examination for establishing the medical or surgical origin of the affection. Intravenous urography, which carries certain risks and does not supply supplementary information, can sometimes be avoided, but it is essential when dilated cavities are seen on ultrasonography. In the absence of the latter sign it should be performed when there is clinical evidence of an obstruction, or when the kidneys are of normal size of enlarged, depending on the results of biological tests or the clinical history. The only contraindication to its use is when ultrasonography has shown two small kidneys with thin cavities resulting from an acute episode of a pre-existing chronic nephropathy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0319_15150", "title": "[Right ectopic hydronephrotic kidney with pelvic lithiasis. Report of a case].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To report a case of hydronephrotic ectopic kidney with lithiasis and pelvic localization, its diagnostic aspects and surgical treatment. A 39-year-old male consulted at the emergency services for low abdominal pain. Physical examination disclosed a hypogastric mass. Patient evaluation by ultrasound, intravenous urography and pyelography revealed a right hydronephrotic ectopic kidney with lithiasis and pelvic localization. Nephrectomy via a right infraumbilical incision was performed. Pelvic renal ectopy is uncommon, but not rare in our area. This anomaly is associated with a higher than normal incidence of hydronephrosis and lithiasis. The diagnostic techniques most frequently used to evaluate these patients are ultrasound, intravenous urography, cystography and pyelography. When a surgical procedure is performed, the anatomical features of this anomalous condition should be considered, such as abnormal vascularization, pyelourethral anomalies, kidney rotation and absence of perirenal fat tissue." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_2582", "title": "One year's clinical experience with unenhanced spiral computed tomography for the assessment of acute loin pain suggestive of renal colic.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To assess the use of unenhanced spiral computed tomography (CT) as the primary investigation of choice for suspected acute renal colic in clinical urological practice. Patients and Methods Between 1 August 1997 and 31 July 1998, all patients attending a hospital accident and emergency department with acute loin pain suggestive of renal colic underwent a physical examination, urine analysis, plain abdominal radiography (if clinically indicated) and unenhanced spiral CT. The effective radiation dose and financial cost of unenhanced spiral CT and standard three-film emergency intravenous urography (IVU) were calculated. In all, 116 patients were assessed, 63 of whom had calculi and related secondary phenomena of obstruction identified on unenhanced spiral CT. There were two false-positive and one false-negative result. An alternative urinary tract diagnosis was made in four patients, including two with renal cell carcinoma and one ureteric transitional cell carcinoma. Causes other than in the urinary tract were diagnosed in three patients, i.e. two with ovarian cyst and one with sigmoid diverticulitis. The effective radiation dose of unenhanced spiral CT was 4.7 mSv and that for three-film IVU was 1.5 mSv. The costs of both IVU and unenhanced spiral CT were identical. Unenhanced spiral CT allows a rapid, contrast-medium-free, anatomically accurate diagnosis of urinary tract calculi and in the present series had a sensitivity of 98% and a specificity of 97%. CT provided an alternative diagnosis in 6% of patients. These advantages must be weighed against the threefold greater radiation dose of unenhanced spiral CT than with three-film IVU, and in practice the requirement for a radiologist to interpret routine axial scans." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0420_2653", "title": "Suspected ureteral colic: plain film and sonography vs unenhanced helical CT. A prospective study in 66 patients.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The aim of this study was to compare the sensitivity and specificity of plain abdominal films plus ultrasound, vs nonenhanced CT for the diagnosis of ureteral colic in patients with acute flank pain. During a 4-month period, 66 patients (mean age 48 years) with acute flank pain were prospectively studied by means of plain abdominal film, US, and unenhanced CT. The presence of lithiasis and of obstructive uropathy signs were determined. The plain film was only used as a guide for the US exam. Clinical follow-up of all patients was obtained. Ureteral lithiasis was confirmed in 56 patients. The CT had a greater sensitivity (93 vs 79%) and negative predictive value (71 vs 46%) for the detection of lithiasis. The combination of lithiasis plus obstructive signs showed a sensitivity and a specificity of 100% for CT and of 100 and 90%, respectively, for US. The 11 lithiasis not detected by US were passed spontaneously (10 were &lt;5 mm). Both techniques showed similar extraurinary pathology. Computed tomography is the most accurate technique for the detection of ureteral lithiasis; however, the combination of plain film and US is an alternative to nonenhanced CT with a lower sensitivity and radiation dose that has a good practical value." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_9061", "title": "[Value of ultrasound in early diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The importance of ultrasonography in early detection of renal cell carcinoma was analyzed for 1854 patients, who were operated from 1975 to 1997. The 5-year survival rate of all patients amounts to 75%, the 10- and 20-year survival rate was 68% and 64%. While from 1975 to 1986 tumor symptoms like hematuria (30%), abdominal pain (19%) and palpable mass (3%) lead to diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma in 56% of all cases, there were only 26% from 1987 to 1997. 83% of asymptomatical tumors from 1987 to 1997 were accidentally detected by means of ultrasonography in a kidney independent examination. These tumors are significantly smaller (5.5 cm) than the tumors of symptomatical patients (7.8 cm) and show often a significantly lower local tumor stage, a better tumor grade, frequently lymph nodes, which are free of tumor infiltration and more rarely distant metastasis. The 5-year survival rate of patients with incidental tumors, detected by ultrasonography (82%) was significantly better (log rank &lt; 0.001) in comparison with the symptomatical patients (72%). These results verify 1. The effectivity of ultrasonography in early diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma and 2. The advantage of survival on patients with early tumor detection. That's why asymptomatic patients, who selected under risk factors should be examinated by ultrasonography consistently too." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0678_12649", "title": "[Laparoscopic cholecystectomy in a patient with situs inversus totalis].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To report a case with situs inversus totalis (SIT) and chronic cholelithiasis solved by laparoscopic surgery, outlining the utility of minimal invasive surgery and specific considerations in patients with anatomic variations. A case of a 46 year-old female who presented with a six-month history of abdominal colic pain at the left hypochondrium, accompanied with nausea and vomiting, is presented. On examination she had epigastric tenderness. Blood tests, including liver function tests, were normal. Electrocardiogram showed right axis deviation and right ventricular hypertrophy, in keeping with dextrocardia. Chest-X-Ray confirmed the diagnosis of dextrocardia. An ultrasound scan of the upper abdomen identified the gallbladder containing stones in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan visualized the spleen and the gastric camera in the right upper quadrant. Barium gastrointestinal transit, barium enema and abdominal-X-Ray were used as complementary diagnostic studies. A magnetic resonance cholangiography was not performed because the patient suffered from claustrophobia. Cholecystectomy and transcystic cholangiography were performed by laparoscopic route, taking care to set-up the operating theatre in the mirror image of the normal set-up for cholecystectomy. The patient completed a successful procedure without complications and was discharged 48 hours after the procedure. Histological exam diagnosed a chronic lithiasic cholecystitis. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is an adequate surgical procedure for patients with total situs inversus and cholelithiasis, having a high security range. Detailed clinical examination is important for the diagnosis of previously unknown anatomic variations. Transcystic cholangiography is mandatory when a magnetic resonance cholangiography can not be performed. Furthermore, perhaps in this situation a left-handed surgeon is better prepared than a right-handed one to comfortably carry out the procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0267_16463", "title": "The diagnostic yield of intravenous urography: a demographic study.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To examine the impact of intravenous urography (IVU) on patient management in unselected patients in an effort to identify groups in which the use of urography could be reduced. The results of IVU in 235 consecutive unselected patients were assessed prospectively to establish the value of IVU in patient management. Patients were divided into subgroups on the basis of age, sex, presenting symptoms and source of referral. The percentage of examinations with findings affecting patient management was taken as the 'positive diagnostic yield.' Differences between the positive diagnostic yields of IVU in the various groups were examined using the chi 2 test. For all patients the diagnostic yield was 37.4%. In patients over 50 years of age the yield was 46% while below that age the yield fell to 20%. This difference was significant (chi 2 = 13.88, P &lt; 0.001). There were no significant differences between the other defined groups. Specifically, patients referred by general practitioners were as likely to have an IVU abnormality as were patients referred by a hospital practitioner. Patients with painless microscopic haematuria had a lower diagnostic yield (20%) than the other groups examined but this was not significant. IVU has a high diagnostic yield in an unselected population. Although the yield is lower in younger patients IVU offers advantages over other techniques in the investigation of urolithiasis--the commonest positive diagnosis in this study. We argue that it should retain its position as the primary investigation for the majority of patients with urological disease, particularly those suffering loin pain or haematuria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0420_10611", "title": "[Retroperitoneal fibrosarcoma. Apropos of a case].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To report one case of retroperitoneal fibrosarcoma in a 45 year-old caucasian patient cared for at the Public Health System hospitals in Republic of Cuba. Blood analysis showed increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and moderate anemia. Intravenous urography showed that left kidney was displaced towards midline but presented a good contrast uptake and excretion. Renal ultrasound discovered a large hyperechogenic mass with internal calcifications. CT scan confirmed a left flank tumor with internal necrosis which displaced the kidney. Complete tumour resection was performed confirmatory of the histological diagnosis of retroperitoneal fibrosarcoma. Postoperative chemotherapy was administered. Four months after surgery patient presented with severe lumbar-abdominal pain; abdominal ultrasound showed retroperitoneal and intraperitoneal recurrences; patient have a sudden death after a dyspnea episode one month later. Necropsy revealed right pulmonary thromboembolism, abdominal ganglionar metastases and retroperitoneal tumour extension. Our experience confirms the aggressiveness of this tumours and their tendency to local recurrence." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "It appears that the patient has erythema nodosum lesions associated with a flare of his disease, which is common. Treatment of the disease and its control usually improves the cutaneous lesions. The lesions should not be biopsied." } }

{ "1": "Recommend relative rest and warm cloths on both legs and add antidepressant treatment.", "2": "Biopsy skin areas away from the injured areas and prescribe opioid analgesics at the beginning.", "3": "Biopsy skin areas away from the injured areas and prescribe opioid analgesics at the beginning.", "4": "Suspect bilateral lower extremity ischemia of drug origin.", "5": "Adjustment of the treatment of the disease." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0697_18550", "title": "An unusual cutaneous manifestation of Crohn's disease.", "score": 0.016748366013071895, "content": "A 61-year-old man with a 12-year history of quiescent Crohn's disease on mesalamine presented to his gastroenterologist in April 2009, complaining of abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and a 25-lb weight loss over 6 weeks. He did not respond to prednisone 50 mg and 6-mercaptopurine 100 mg daily. Abdominal computed tomography findings revealed diffuse submucosal edema consistent with extensive colitis. Colonoscopy demonstrated diffuse inflammation with erythema, friability, and shallow ulcerations in the rectum and colon. Biopsies were consistent with Crohn's colitis. He was admitted for infliximab infusion for his unremitting diarrhea. Five days before admission, the patient noted mild swelling and redness of the left lower eyelid, which progressed to involve the right lower eyelid with frank pus draining from both eyes. He had no visual impairment or eye pain. Two days before admission, an ophthalmologist prescribed a steroid eyedrop with no relief. He also complained of seropurulent painful skin lesions on his face and scalp, which spread to involve his upper trunk and proximal arms. On admission to the hospital, dermatology, ophthalmology, and infectious disease consultations were obtained to rule out disseminated infection before initiation of infliximab therapy. The patient was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His oral mucosa was normal. He had prominent bilateral lower eyelid edema, erythema, and superficial erosions with hemorrhagic crusting and frank green purulent drainage from both eyes, with crusting along the lower lash line and bilateral sclera injection (Figure 1). On his scalp, face, trunk, and proximal extremities, he had 25 to 30 erythematous, 4- to 8-mm papulopustules with narrow red halos, some with central necrosis and crusting (Figure 2). Cultures from the purulent ocular drainage and pustules on the trunk and arms were all negative for bacteria, virus, and fungi. Gram stain from the eye drainage showed polymorphonuclear leukocytes without organisms. Tissue cultures were negative for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial infection. Skin biopsy taken from the central upper back demonstrated subcorneal pustules with areas of eroded epidermis and collections of neutrophils in the superficial dermis (Figure 3). Special stains were negative for organisms. He received infliximab infusion 5 mg/kg for a total dose of 420 mg over 2 hours. Within 48 hours of infusion, there was notable decrease in size of lesions, in addition to reduction of purulent drainage from both eyes. The patient was discharged home following infliximab infusion. His skin lesions resolved during a period of 2 weeks, leaving small pink atrophic scars. He received his second infusion of infliximab 2 weeks after discharge with continued improvement in his gastrointestinal symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1099_7101", "title": "A Rare Case of <i>Helicobacter pylori</i> Infection Complicated by Henoch-Schonlein Purpura in an Adult Patient.", "score": 0.013680425265791121, "content": "Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is known as a leukocytoclastic vasculitis of small vessels, resulting in skin, joint, gastrointestinal (GI) and renal involvement. It is the most common acute vasculitis in children but is relatively uncommon in adults. The pathogenesis of HSP remains unclear, but a wide variety of conditions such as bacterial or viral infections, vaccinations, drugs and other environmental exposures may be responsible for the onset. A few previous case reports have described an association between gastric <iHelicobacter pylori</i (HP) infection and HSP. A 30-year-old Indian man who migrated to the USA from India 3 years prior to this presentation with a past medical history of psoriasis on remission, not on any medications presented to the emergency department with sudden onset constant abdominal pain for 5 days. The pain was in the right upper quadrant, spasmodic in nature. The abdominal examination was normal. The patient was evaluated with complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, urinalysis, computed tomography scan of abdomen and pelvis, and right upper quadrant ultrasound, all of which were negative except for leukocytosis. He was discharged on pantoprazole and tramadol. Pain continued despite treatment. Patient was readmitted 2 days later, when he noticed a new maculopapular rash on both legs. Upper GI endoscopy was done showing non-bleeding small gastric ulcer with multiple duodenal erosions. Gastric biopsy came back positive for HP and he was started on clarithromycin, amoxicillin and lansoprazole. Pain persisted after finishing antibiotic course. Rash continued to spread to involve the thighs, flanks, around the umbilicus and extensor surfaces of arms. Immunological workup was negative. A skin biopsy of the skin rash came back positive for leukocytoclastic vasculitis. HSP diagnosis was made by exclusion. Patient was started on prednisone 40 mg daily and improved drastically on the following day. He was continued steroids taper for 8 weeks. Rash as well as abdominal pain resolved completely. In conclusion, HSP involves the skin, GI tract, joints and kidneys. It is a pediatric disease and rarely occurs in adults. It can be associated with underlying malignancy in adults. HP infection can trigger HSP in pediatric and adult patients. Detection of the carrier state is crucial in HSP patients in areas where HP is endemic. Eradication of HP infection is usually associated with the resolution of HSP. In resistant cases with GI and renal involvement, corticosteroids use results in resolution of symptoms and reduction of the duration of mild nephritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_14385", "title": "Nicolau's syndrome: A rare but preventable iatrogenic disease.", "score": 0.011811846689895471, "content": "Dear Editor, Nicolau's syndrome, also called embolia cutis medicamentosa or livedoid dermatitis, is a rare injection site reaction characterized by immediate intense pain at the injection site followed by erythema and a hemorrhagic patch with a livedoid reticular pattern after injections of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), antiepileptics, antibiotics, antihistaminics, corticosteroids, etc. (1). To the best of our knowledge, only one case of Nicolau's syndrome has been reported after the use of triamcinolone acetonide. Herein we report two cases of Nicolau's syndrome caused by intramuscular injections of triamcinolone acetonide and diclofenac sodium, respectively. CASE 1 A 24-year-old male patient presented with severe pain and bluish discoloration of the right arm for 2 days, which he had noticed shortly after receiving an intramuscular injection of triamcinolone for recurrent episodes of urticaria by a local practitioner in the right deltoid region. On examination, there was a livedoid pattern of non-blanchable, violaceous discoloration extending from the deltoid area to the distal third of the forearm with associated induration (Figure 1, a, b). The local area was warm and tender to the touch. There was no regional lymphadenopathy, and the rest of the examination was normal. The patient's platelet count, bleeding and clotting times, prothrombin time, and international normalized ratio (INR) were unremarkable. There was no previous history of any bleeding disorder. The patient denied any intake of drugs like aspirin, warfarin, etc. Subsequently, the patient developed an ulcer on the forearm, which was managed by topical and systemic antibiotics to prevent any secondary infection of the wound. CASE 2 A 40-year-old female patient presented with complaints of pain and discoloration of the left gluteal region after receiving an intramuscular injection of diclofenac sodium for her arthralgia. A large ecchymotic patch with reticular borders was found on the gluteal region, extending to the lateral aspect of thigh (Figure 2). It was tender to the touch, non-indurated, and the local temperature was raised. There was no regional lymphadenopathy. No other abnormality was detected on examination. All routine investigations were within normal limits. Platelet count, bleeding, clotting and prothrombin times, and international normalized ratio (INR) were within normal limits. The lesions resolved within few weeks without any complications. Nicolau syndrome was first described in the early 1920s by Freudenthal and Nicolau as an adverse effect of using intramuscular injections of bismuth salts in the treatment of syphilis. Since then, several case reports of this disease occurring after intramuscular, intra-articular, intravenous, and subcutaneous injections have appeared in the literature associated with a variety of drugs like NSAIDs, vitamin K, penicillin, antihistamines, corticosteroids, local anesthetics, vaccines, polidocanol, and pegylated interferon alpha (1). The pathogenesis of Nicolau syndrome is unknown, though intra and periarterial injection of the drug is a possible cause. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerve due to periarterial injection causes spasms and consequent ischemia. Inadvertent intra-arterial injections may cause emboli and occlusion. A lipophilic drug may penetrate the vessel and produce physical occlusion like fat embolism. Cytotoxic drugs may produce perivascular inflammation and ischemic necrosis. NSAIDs are believed to additionally induce ischemic necrosis due to their inhibition of cyclooxygenase and, consequently, prostaglandins (2). The clinical features of the disease have been divided into three phases in a review by Kim et al. (3). The authors describe an initial phase characterized by intense pain with subsequent erythema. This is followed 1-3 days later by an acute phase, when an indurated, tender plaque with livedoid pattern develops. The final phase occurs between 5 days and 2 weeks later. Necrosis ensues in this stage, with possible ulceration. Diagnosis is chiefly clinical, and histopathology shows necrotic changes and vascular thrombosis. However, a biopsy was not performed in our cases because both lesions were painful. Management strategies are variable and range from conservative management with analgesics and antibiotics to active surgical debridement (4). Complications include deformities, contractures or even death. The patient in our first case developed ulceration which healed normally, while the second case resolved without any complications. Nicolau syndrome can be avoided by precautions such as aspirating the needle before injecting to check for blood, use of Z-track injection technique, proper site of injection, avoiding large doses at a single site, and regular change of sites if multiple injections are to be given (5). Nicolau syndrome is a rare disease. There are a few case reports of it occurring after diclofenac injection (1-5). We could only find one case report of this syndrome after intramuscular injection (IM) of triamcinolone in a patient with lichen planus (3), and our case is the second reported case of this syndrome as a result of triamcinolone acetonide injection, which adds to the significance to the present article." }, { "id": "article-131092_5", "title": "Extraintestinal Manifestations of Inflammatory Bowel Disease -- Introduction -- Cutaneous Manifestations", "score": 0.010816901408450704, "content": "Cutaneous manifestations of IBD occur in up to 15% of IBD patients. [4] The most common conditions include EN, pyoderma gangrenosum, Sweet syndrome, and oral aphthous lesions. EN frequently arises as tender raised subcutaneous nodules on the lower extremities. These nodules appear red/purple, measuring 1-5 cm in size, and occurs more commonly in females than males. EN is a self-limited condition that coincides with intestinal-IBD activity and improves with IBD treatment. Specific treatment options for mild EN include leg elevation, compression stockings, analgesic, and anti-inflammatory medication. [7]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0866_23650", "title": "Generalized Pyoderma Gangrenosum Associated with Ulcerative Colitis: Successful Treatment with Infliximab and Azathioprine.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is a rare ulcerative skin disease, part of the spectrum of neutrophilic and auto-inflammatory dermatoses. Its pathogenesis is unknown, although immune pathways have been implicated. Lesion biopsies show a predominantly neutrophilic infiltrate. The incidence of PG is uncertain, but it is estimated to be 3-10 per million per year, occurring at any age but most commonly between 20 and 50 years with a possible slightly higher incidence in women. Approximately 50% of patients with PG also have another disease associated with PG. The most common is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), particularly Crohn's and ulcerative colitis (UC). Local treatment may be sufficient for mild cases, while for severe cases systemic immunosuppressants are the mainstay (1,2). We report the case of a patient with bullous PG and UC successfully treated with infliximab and azathioprine. A 32-year-old male Caucasian patient presented with painful violaceous vesicles and enlarging bullae of various sizes and with acute onset, located on the trunk and bilaterally on both the lower and the upper extremities. Lesions on the trunk were composed of hemorrhagic pustules with a surrounding erythematous overhanging border. Some of the lesions had undergone central necrosis and ulceration (Figure 1, a-d). The patient reported of the lesions had appeared one week ago, simultaneously with the exacerbation of a known inflammatory bowel disease with hemorrhagic mucoid diarrhea and fever of up to 38.5°C. The patient's medical history included UC affecting the whole colon (pancolitis), diagnosed 5 months prior to the onset of the epidermal lesions, for which the patient was receiving treatment with oral prednisolone 10 mg/day and mesalazine granules. Blood tests showed severe anemia, leukocytosis, and increased inflammatory markers (C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) andtibodies, antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA), perinuclear neutrophil antibodies (p-ANCA), antiphospholipid antibodies, and tumor markers were within normal limits. The patient was negative for cryoglobulins, viral hepatitis (B, C) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Blood cultures were negative. Microscopy and cultures for mycobacteria and fungi gave negative results. Stool samples tested negative for infections agents. The Mantoux skin test was negative. Colonoscopy showed severe pancolitis, and biopsies from the rectum and sigmoid colon were consistent with chronic ulcerative colitis. Abdominal ultrasound and chest and abdominal X-rays did not result in significant findings. Because of severe anemia, the patient received 2 blood transfusions. The histopathologic examination carried out on the erythematous border of a lesion on the lower leg showed a neutrophilic infiltrate, confined to the dermis. On the basis of clinical findings, the diagnosis of PG was established. Topical wound care consisted of local wound care and a topical corticosteroid. Systemic therapy was initiated with 40 mg/day methylprednisolone for 7 days, 30 mg/day for 7 days, then 25 mg/day, and then tapered down further. The patient received an infusion of infliximab 7.5 mg/kg at weeks 0, 2, and 6 and every 8 weeks thereafter. After week 2, oral azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg daily was added to the treatment. The patient also received mesalazine tablets (2 g ×2/day) and mesalazine enema (1-2/day). The patient showed good response to treatment, with clinical remission of skin lesions. Lesions healed with characteristic thin, atrophic scars (Figure 2, a-d). At 7-month follow-up the patient was continuing with infusions of infliximab 7.5 mg/kg and azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg and was still in remission. We reported our experience with a case of generalized bullous pyoderma gangrenosum associated with ulcerative colitis. Generalized pyoderma gangrenosum is very rare. Bullous or atypical PG was first described by Perry and Winklemann in 1972 (1). Brunsting et al. coined the term pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) to describe a series of patients with recurrent ulcerations (3). The incidence of this disease is uncertain. Its pathogenesis is unknown, but an immunological background has been suggested. In approximately 50% of patients, an underlying immunological disease is present, commonly inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) (4-6). In larger series of patients with PG, approximately 50% present with a primary disorder. Ulcerative colitis is found in 10-15% of cases. Crohn's disease is associated with PG closed than UC. Less than 3% of patients with Crohn's disease or UC develop PG (6). PG is characterized by cutaneous ulcerations with mucopurulent or hemorrhagic exudate. It begins as an inflammatory pustule with a surrounding halo that enlarges and begins to ulcerate. These very painful ulcers present with undermined bluish borders with surrounding erythema. The lesions of PG most commonly occur on the legs, but they may occur anywhere on the body. The clinical picture of PG is very characteristic. Therefore the diagnosis of PG is based firstly on clinical signs and on the patient's history of underlying diseases and then supported by biopsy. PG has four distinctive clinical and histological variants. Some have morphological and histological features that overlap with other reactive neutrophilic skin conditions. There are no diagnostic serologic features (6,7). There is no evidence that the efficacy of treatment strategies for PG differs between IBD and non-IBD patients. For patients with a diffuse disease or rapidly progressive process, systemic treatment is essential. Immunosuppression is the mainstay of treatment. Traditionally, the most commonly used drugs with the best clinical experience are systemic corticosteroids. Corticosteroids have been considered as first line treatment (6,8). As reported by the European Crohn's and Colitis Organisation (ECCO) in 2008, an evidence-based consensus on the management of special situations in patients with ulcerative colitis, systemic corticosteroids are recommended (9). Treatment with corticosteroids (e.g. prednisolone 1-2 mg per kg/day or pulse therapy with 1 g of methylprednisolone) aims to prevent progression and rapidly stop inflammation (6). Additional mesalamine and corticosteroids may be effective in patients with bowel disease (10). In recent years, tumor necrosis alpha (TNF-α) inhibitors, such as infliximab and adalimumab, were reported to be effective for PG associated with IBD. These drugs block the biological activity of TNF-α, which effects regulatory T cells, restoring their capacity to inhibit cytokine production. The TNF-α inhibitors thus suppress the inflammatory processes that is involved in the pathogenesis of PG (11). Infliximab, a chimeric monoclonal antibody, is given by infusion at weeks 0, 2, and 6 and then every 8 weeks, usually at a dosage of 5 mg/kg. UC of patients with frequent disease relapse or those that are resistant or dependent on corticosteroids is often treated with purine antimetabolites, such as azathioprine (AZA) (10). AZA, a purine antimetabolite (2.5 mg per kg/day) is administered for its steroid-sparing effects. The response occurs after 2 to 4 weeks (6, 10). Infliximab can be combined with AZA. Patients with UC treated with infliximab plus AZA were more likely to achieve corticosteroid-free remission at 16 weeks than those receiving either monotherapy (10,12). " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_3972", "title": "[Cutaneous complications in idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 29-year-old male patient with the anamnesis of inflammatory bowel disease and Grave-Basedowov disease was hospitalized because of rapidly spreading skin defect with affected muscle on the left shin. This skin defect appeared after the significant decreasing of corticoids. The small skin trauma preceded the pyoderma gangrenosum. First the skin disease was not right diagnosed and patient was cured by the excision of the defect. It caused tissue disintegration, muscle necrosis and extension of the defect. The whole leg was endangered. Patient was cured with corticoids and cyclosporin A after the right diagnosis. The defect healed and laboratory inflammatory markers decreased. The immunosuppresive therapy was changed to azathioprin, the corticoid therapy was interrupted. After three months the defect was healed." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4314", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009895776591495079, "content": "Patients with SJS, SJS/TEN, or TEN initially present with acute onset of painful skin lesions, fever >39°C (102.2°F), sore throat, and conjunctivitis resulting from mucosal lesions. Intestinal and pulmonary involvement is associated with a poor prognosis, as are a greater extent of epidermal detachment and older age. About 10% and 30% of SJSand TEN-affected persons die from their disease, respectively. Drugs that most commonly cause SJS or TEN are sulfonamides, nevirapine (1 in 1000 risk of SJS or TEN), allopurinol, lamotrigine, aromatic anticonvulsants, and NSAIDs, specifically oxicam. Frozen-section skin biopsy may aid in rapid diagnosis. At this time, SJS and TEN have no proven effective treatment. The best results come from early diagnosis, immediate discontinuation of any suspected drug, supportive therapy, and paying close attention to ocular complications and infection. Systemic glucocorticoid therapy (prednisone 1–2 mg/kg) may be useful early in the evolution of the disease," }, { "id": "pubmed23n1152_8812", "title": "Atypical Forms of Pyoderma Gangrenosum in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: Report of Four Cases and Literature Review.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Cutaneous involvement is the second-most frequent extraintestinal manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, with pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) a particularly relevant form because of its frequency, morbidity, and recurrence. The limited number of clinical trials involving PG increases the challenge to gastroenterologists in the management of this condition. Four cases of atypical presentations of PG are reported. A 25-year-old patient with ulcerative colitis presented an extensive chronic ulcerative lesion on her left leg that was associated with significant bleeding; the intestinal disease was in remission under the use of azathioprine. The patient was on long-term use of 60 mg corticosteroid with no improvement in the skin disease; however, initiation of cyclosporine induced remission. In the second case, a 52-year-old woman was a carrier of Crohn's disease, with a history of partial colectomy. The patient's skin condition had evolved with a cutaneous lesion localized in the perineal region, buttocks, and colostomy pouch, simulating a case of impetigo, and this had been treated with antibiotic cycles without improvement. Lesion biopsy suggested a diagnosis of PG. Consequently, the patient was started on biological therapy with infliximab, and the PG regressed. In the third case, a 38-year-old woman with a history of pancolitis presented a picture of PG with an extensive and deep ulcerative lesion in the right breast. The lesion regressed after treatment with oral corticosteroid. The final case was a 44-year-old woman with Crohn's disease suffering from Crohn's disease pancolitis. The patient's condition evolved with a mixed pattern with pustules, bullae, and ulcerative lesions in the vulva, oral cavity, gluteus, right auricular region, scalp, and left flank, and was resolved by administration of adalimumab. PG is an important and frequent manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, with a spectrum of clinical variants, significant morbidity, and requiring a variety of therapeutic approaches." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_21239", "title": "Hardness and Painful Lesion of the Breast.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Dear Editor, Lupus panniculitis or lupus profundus is a rare inflammatory complication found in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), or discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) (1). When the breast is involved, the term lupus mastitis (LM) is used. This disease involving the breast is rare, and the lesions may precede, coincide with, or occur later than the onset of other lupus lesions. Tissue biopsy is required to confirm the suspected diagnoses of LM. We report a case of a patient with lupus mastitis due to the important differential diagnosis. A 60-year-old woman presented with a painful nodular lesion in her left breast that had appeared 15 days ago (Figure 1, a). She had been previously diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus 3 years ago. Physical examination revealed a deep and firm erythematous subcutaneous nodule without overlying skin involvement in the lower-central portion of the left breast. Laboratory findings were positive for antinuclear antibodies (1:80) and double-stranded deoxynucleic acid antibodies (1:10). Mammography and ultrasounds showed an area of increased density and irregular breast tissue along with an important thickening of the overlying skin (Figure 1, b). On suspicion of malignancy, a needle biopsy of the breast lesion was performed and showed vacuolar alteration and lymphocytic infiltrate in the basal layer. Subcutaneous fat showed a lobular panniculitis with a prominent lymphocytic infiltrate and hyalinization of the fat lobules (hyaline fat necrosis). Direct immunofluorescence of the face biopsy revealed IgA, IgG, IgM, and C3 granular deposition. Based on these results, a diagnosis of lupus mastitis associated with DLE was established. Antimalarial therapy resulted in complete resolution of the clinical features. Three years later, the patient presented with a disfiguring atrophy with retraction in the damaged areas of the breast (Figure 2). Lupus mastitis is a very unusual disease that most commonly affects middle-aged women. The first case of LM was described by Tuffanelli in 1971. The lesions usually present following the diagnosis of SLE/DLE; however, on rare occasions they may be observed earlier (2). The histophysiology of this disease remains unclear, but the predominant theory suggests an autoimmune-related etiology. Corroborating evidence for this theory includes the finding of immune complexes, both at the basement membrane of the dermal-epidermal junction and in the blood vessels in the areas of panniculitis (3). Lupus mastitis may be present in the breast as single or multiple subcutaneous nodules that may be tender or painful and can progress to chronic ulcers over time or resolve, leaving atrophic scars. The overlying skin can be normal, erythematous, poikilodermic or ulcerated. When skin changes are prominent, the lesion may clinically and radiologically mimic inflammatory breast carcinoma. Mammographic and ultrasounds findings include an ill-defined breast density with or without associated microcalcifications (4). Histologically, this disease is characterized by lobular lymphocytic panniculitis and predominantly involves the fat lobule and the presence of anucleated adipocytes in a background of a glassy-appearing collagenous stroma (hyaline fat necrosis). Fibrinoid necrosis of the vessel wall has also been reported, but is usually absent (5). Differential diagnosis of lupus mastitis includes inflammatory breast carcinoma, primary medullary carcinoma, and other immune-mediated inflammatory conditions such as diabetic mastopathy. The first line of treatment the use of antimalarial drugs such as hydroxychloroquine. Systemic steroids and cyclophosphamide have also been used. Surgical treatment should be considered only in patients who do not respond to management with medications. In summary, we reported a case of lupus mastitis in a patient with discoid lupus erythematosus. This dermatosis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of breast lesions in lupus patients, and a biopsy of the breast lesion is essential to reject suspected malignancy. If the disease is left untreated, unsightly atrophy will appear; it is thus important to diagnose early on. The course of the disease tends to be chronic with remission and flares, so patients should be followed-up regularly due to the risk of recurrences in the same area or in a different location." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_1472", "title": "[Atypical recurrent aseptic cutaneous abscesses as the presenting manifestation of Crohn's disease].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We report here a case of chronic inflammatory bowel disease revealed by multiple large cutaneous aseptic distal necrotic ulcers. A 44-year-old male presented with high fever at 40°C associated with multiple necrotic abcesses located on the distal part of his limbs. They were treated successfully by debridment and dressings associated with antibiotics allowing complete healing after 1 month. Six months later, the patient relapsed on his left hand with a short episode of diarrhoea. A total coloscopy revealed a Crohn's disease. Systemic corticotherapy and azathioprine were administered and complete remission was obtained with a 1-year follow-up. Skin manifestations that this patient presented were atypical because of their number, size, and location, exclusively distally on the limbs. This report illustrates an unusual presentation of Crohn's disease with multiple necrotic ulcers only located on the patient extremities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0918_3956", "title": "Xanthoma-like Skin Changes in an Elderly Woman with a Normal Lipid Profile.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Dear Editor, An 83-year-old woman developed yellow-brownish infiltrates, nodules, and tumors mimicking xanthomas, mostly involving the periorbital and chest area within three months (Figure 1). She had no abnormalities in serum cholesterol or triglycerides levels. A detailed laboratory analysis revealed the presence of mild monoclonal gammopathy with a presence of immunoglobulin G (IgG) kappa light chains; however, according to hematologist consultation, it did not require medical intervention. Imaging assessment and ultrasound examination did not show any specific involvement of internal organs. The skin biopsy demonstrated necrobiotic areas alternated with foci of xanthogranulomatous infiltration throughout the reticular dermis with extension into subcutaneous tissue. The granulomatous infiltrate was composed of epithelioid, foamy histiocytes in addition to conspicuous giant cells of the Touton type and foreign body type, as well as variable numbers of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and neutrophiles. Lipid vacuoles were seen within the foci of necrobiosis and xanthogranulomatous infiltration (Figure 2). Two months after first admission to our department, the first signs of necrosis within the lesions were noted, and massive necrosis of skin lesions occurred after the following 5 months (Figure 1). Based on the clinical manifestation and histological and laboratory findings, the diagnosis of necrobiotic xanthogranuloma (NXG) was established. In our patient, the extremely late onset of the disease, its very aggressive course, and the absence of malignant hematological disorder were remarkable. The general condition improved after local treatment and a low dose of prednisone. However, patient anamnesis revealed myocardial infarction in the past, congestive heart failure, and atrial fibrillation. Eventually, the patient died due to acute heart failure before alkylating agents could be administered; we consider the patient's death to have been unrelated to NXG. NXG is a rare, chronic granulomatous disorder which was first described in 1980 by Kossard and Winkelmann (1). Currently, less than one hundred fifty cases of this syndrome have been reported in the literature worldwide (2,3). The disease occurs during adulthood, slightly more frequently in women, and usually after the age of 60 years, although the youngest reported patient was 17 years old (3). The disease initially manifests as xanthoma-like eruptions of yellowish or red-orange papules and nodules that coalesce into indurated plaques (4). The size of the lesions typically increases over time or with the next recurrences. In comparison to hyperlipemic and normolipemic xanthomas, the lesions are firmer, more prominent, and more polymorphic (3) with superficial telangiectasias, sometimes erythematous and/or violaceous borders, and atrophy (5). Ulcerations of the lesions were observed in about 50% of patients and tended to be extensive and progressive (4). Skin lesions of NXG can occur anywhere on the body. However, about two-thirds of patients had periorbital involvement, particularly on the upper and/or lower eyelids or elsewhere on the face. The second most commonly affected site was the trunk, predominantly the chest (3-6). However, many skin lesions first appear on the trunk or extremities and subsequently involve the periorbital area (4). More than one body area was affected in about 90% of the published cases (3,4). In individual cases, the occurrence of NXG was noted within scars, after trauma, or in a previously X-ray irradiated area (5). Lesions may be asymptomatic; however, over half of patients asked reported various symptoms, predominantly itching but also burning, tenderness, and even pain (4,5). Periorbital skin lesions are often accompanied by ophthalmic manifestations, mainly scleritis, choroiditis, or conjunctivitis (3), and with complications such as blepharoptosis, restricted ocular motility, and proptosis (4,5). Extracutaneous lesions are most commonly seen in the respiratory tract, including the lungs and larynx, followed by the myocardium, oral cavity, skeletal muscles, kidneys, ovaries, intestine, and other sites (5,6). Extracutaneous involvement was reported in less than 20% of cases (3), but its frequency seems to have increased in recent years (5). Regarding laboratory abnormalities, the majority of patients with NXG (70% and up to 90% depending on the studied population) have a monoclonal gammopathy (more often IgG-kappa than IgG-lambda). Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, anemia, leukopenia, low C1 and C4 levels, and cryoglobulinemia are also frequently present (3-6). Incisional biopsy is recommended to confirm the diagnosis of NXG, but correlations between the clinical presentation and specific histopathologic findings have been poorly characterized so far. The histopathology shows an inflammatory infiltrate composed of macrophages, foam cells, plasma cells, and other inflammatory cells as well as Touton and foreign body-type giant cells in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Necrobiosis is usually present, and nodular lymphoid aggregates are common. Cholesterol clefts or asteroid bodies are rare or absent. The epidermis may be atrophic or normal. Special stains are not helpful in establishing the diagnosis of NXG, but immunohistochemistry for CD68 is positive while it is always for CD1a and PS100 negative, like in non-X histiocytosis (4,5). In patients without a known myeloproliferative disorder, bone marrow biopsy may reveal atypical or increased plasma cells and, very rarely, true multiple myeloma (5). As mentioned above, NXG can be a manifestation of multiple myeloma. However, chronic lymphocyte leukemia, B-cell lymphoma, and other lymphoproliferative diseases have also been reported in patients with NXG (3). Remarkably, hematological disorders may emerge many years before or after the onset of skin lesions (even up to 11 years) (4). According to available literature data, the course of the disease is usually chronic and slowly progressive, and the prognosis is relatively good in the absence of co-occurrence of malignant hematological disorders ([5-7). Aside from hyperlipemic and normolipemic xanthomas, the differential diagnosis of NXG includes multifocal necrobiosis lipoidica, granuloma annulare, foreign-body granuloma, juvenile xanthogranuloma, rheumatoid nodules, and amyloidosis (4). In 5 cases from the literature, xanthoma and NXG were present at the same time (3). Despite several hypotheses, the etiopathogenesis of NXG remains unknown (3,4,8). For that reason and due to the rarity of the disease, the optimal therapy has not been not defined. Frequently, chlorambucil or melphalan have been used alone or in combination with prednisone (4). Treatment may result in remission of symptoms on the skin, but it does not provide a permanent cure (8). There are also single reports of the successful use of thalidomide, lenalidomide, cyclophosphamide, dexamethasone, interferon 2a and 2b, plasmapheresis and hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, infliximab, and autologous bone marrow transplantation (3). Methotrexate seems to be ineffective (9). Local therapy, including local steroids, laser CO2, or radiotherapy, results in partial improvement (3,4). Skin lesions which relapsed or were unresponsive to treatment could be excised surgically and the defects resurfaced with skin grafts. [2]." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en505_24993", "title": "Undertreatment of pain", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "facilities with principally minority patients were three times more likely to be undermedicated than patients treated in non-minority facilities. Furthermore, a follow-up study that investigated pain treatment in minority patients with recurrent or metastatic cancer found that 74% of Latinx and 59% of African American patients experiencing pain were not given the adequate analgesics. Minority patients, when compared to non-minority patients, were not as likely to be appropriately evaluated for their pain and reported less pain relief. Although the prescription of opioid analgesics in response to pain-related visits grew from 1993 to 2005, disparities in prescribing to racial and ethnic minorities persisted. White patients experiencing pain were considerably more likely to be prescribed an opioid analgesic when compared to Black, Hispanic or Asian patients. Specifically, 40% of white patients were prescribed opioid analgesics in 2005, while only 32% of nonwhite patients experiencing" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0060_2483", "title": "Atrophie blanche. A clinicopathological study of 27 patients.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Twenty seven patients (8 males and 19 females) with atrophie blanche were observed in the past 7-years. The mean age at onset was 32 years (ranging from 23 years to 57 years) and 19 years (ranging from 11 years to 36 years) for male and female patient, respectively. The mean disease duration was 2.5 years (ranging from 2 months to 16 years) prior to their consultation. Sixty-three percent of them had summer exacerbation. Four patients had essential cryoglobulinemia, one of whom also developed bilateral iliofemoral artery stenosis one year later. Twelve patients also manifested concurrent purpura pigmentosa chronica (PPC)-like lesions. The observation of the natural course and clinical morphology, being divided into white atrophy-predominant and ulcer-predominant type, led to the impression that atrophie blanche and livedo vasculitis are synonyms with the same disease spectrum. Furthermore, white atrophy is not ulcer scars but lesions de novo suggesting dermal vasculopathy. An attempt was made to explain the uniqueness of clinical morphology. First line treatment included local wound care, bed rest and low-dose aspirin plus dipyridamole. Thirteen patients responded to these treatment either at the first attack or the recurrent episodes. Heparin (5000 units subcutaneous injection once daily) was effective for control of intractable painful ulceration in active stage in 70% of the remaining patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0794_16304", "title": "Subcutaneous histiocytoid sweet syndrome associated with crohn disease in an adolescent.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We report a case of subcutaneous histiocytoid Sweet syndrome in an adolescent with Crohn disease. A 14-year-old boy with a 1-year history of ileocolonic and perianal Crohn disease, treated with infliximab and azathioprine, was admitted to the Pediatrics Department with malaise, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and fever (39°C) from 15 days ago. Two days later, he developed cutaneous lesions consisting of tender, erythematous, and violaceous papules and nodules scattered over his legs, soles, and upper extremities. Laboratory studies revealed neutrophilia, microcytic anemia, and elevation of both erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein rate. A skin biopsy specimen showed deep dermal and predominantly septal inflammatory infiltrate in the subcutaneous tissue composed of polymorphonuclears, eosinophils, and mononuclear cells of histiocytic appearance. These histiocytoid cells stained positive for myeloperoxidase. Subcutaneous Sweet syndrome is a rare subtype of acute neutrophilic dermatosis, in which the infiltrate is exclusively or predominantly located in the subcutaneous tissue, causing lobular or septal panniculitis. It is often described in patients with an underlying haematological disorder or caused by drugs, but very rare in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, especially in childhood or adolescence. To our knowledge, this is the first case of subcutaneous histiocytoid type in a paediatric patient. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_2213", "title": "[Ileocecal manifestation of Schoenlein-Henoch purpura as a rare differential Crohn disease diagnosis].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In the case of a 21-year-old patient gastroscopy and coloscopy were performed because of recurrent abdominal pain with diarrhea and vomiting. Colonoscopy showed moderate signs of inflammation of the rectum and aphthoid ulcerations in the terminal ileum. Since the macroscopic and clinical presentation was compatible with Crohn's disease, therapy with sulfasalacine was started. Because histology showed only lymphoid hyperplasia and the patient was asymptomatic at that time, the medication was ceased. Recurrence of abdominal pain and weight loss, proteinuria and a recurrent palpable purpura of the shanks in synopsis with the result of the previous colonoscopy led to a suspected diagnosis of Schoenlein-Henoch purpura with cutaneous, renal and abdominal manifestation which was confirmed by dermal and renal biopsies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1100_17413", "title": "Indurated Plaques on the Legs: Think Lymphoma.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Dear Editor, Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg-type (PCDLBCL-LT) is a rare and aggressive neoplasm. A timely diagnosis may prevent fatal outcomes; physicians should take this entity into consideration when assessing non-specific lesions on the lower limbs. We present a 69-year-old woman with a 1-month history of a firm plaque on her left leg. Physical examination revealed an asymptomatic, indurated, smooth, and erythematous plaque on the pretibial region of her left extremity (Figure 1, a). The rest of the physical examination was normal. Histological examination revealed cohesive sheets of a dense cell infiltrate in the dermis, composed of large round immunoblast-type cells with prominent nucleoli, and the presence of mitoses. Immunohistochemical stains were positive for CD20, Bcl2, and MUM1 (Figure 1, b-d). Additionally, c-MYC and Ki67 exhibited a 20% positivity; CD3 and CD10 were negative. The diagnosis of PCDLBCL-LT was established. Imaging and blood workup ruled out systemic involvement. Treatment with R-CHOP chemotherapy was initiated, with complete tumor regression by the third cycle. The patient completed 6 cycles and has remained disease-free after 18 months. Primary cutaneous B-cell lymphomas (CBCL) are lymphoproliferative disorders that appear on the skin without evidence of extracutaneous manifestations at the time of diagnosis (1). They represent 25 to 35% of all primary cutaneous lymphomas (2). In 2018, an updated version of the 2008 WHO-EORTC classification divided CBCLs into 5 subtypes: PCDLBCL-LT, primary cutaneous marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (PCMZL), primary cutaneous follicle center lymphoma (PCFCL), Epstein-Barr virus-positive mucocutaneous ulcer (EBVMCU), and intravascular large B-cell lymphoma (3). PCDLBCL-LT is the least common subtype, representing approximately 10% of all CBCLs and only 4% of all cutaneous lymphomas (2,3). Although the pathogenesis for most CBCLs is still unknown, positive serology for Lyme disease in a significant number of patients has been recognized as a probable etiologic association (4). PCDLBCL-LT is more frequent in women, and the mean age of presentation is 76 years. It usually presents as erythematous or bluish nodules, and up to 75% of the cases appears on one or both legs (1). Although infrequent, other locations have been reported, including the head, neck, trunk, and upper extremities (5). Workup should include a complete physical exam, skin biopsy, blood tests, and imaging (2,3). Histopathology shows a diffuse infiltrate in the dermis composed of large B-cells (centroblasts and/or immunoblasts) with extension to subcutaneous cellular tissue. These cells have round nuclei that are more than twice the size of normal lymphocytes, with prominent nucleoli. The immunophenotype of PCDLBCL-LT is CD20+, CD79a+, CD10-, and Bcl-6+/-, and strongly expresses Bcl-2, MUM1/IRF4, and FOX-P1 (1-3). Unlike the other indolent subtypes, PCDLBCL-LT is generally more aggressive with a poor prognosis. The 5-year disease survival rate is of approximately 50% (5). Management depends on the body surface area, location, and the patient's age and general health. To date, chemotherapy with R-CHOP remains the first line of therapy for PCDLBCL-LT, resulting in complete remission in up to 92% of cases (2). The prognostic characteristics of most PCDLBCL-LTs require timely and appropriate diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_14382", "title": "[Emétine and quinine, a therapy to rescue Bellini in 1835].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "At the moment when his operas got a European celebrity, Vincenzo Bellini born in 1801 rapidly died in September 1835 after a three weeks digestive illness, with mainly dysenteria. Young and healthy, this unexpected event questioned the authorities in Paris. The post mortem examination showed that the colonic mucosa was covered by numerous ulcers, and that a large abcess existed in the liver. All other parts of the body were absolutely sound. These results came out from the autopsy performed by Adolphe Dalmas (1799-1844), professor agrégé at the Faculty of medicine of Paris, formerly member of the special committee in charge of fighting the cholera in 1831 and 1832, who studied its medical aspects during the epidemic attack in Russia, Poland, Germany and Great Britain. With a wide knowledge in the field of the intestinal pathology, his conclusions established that the death came from an inflammation of the bowel, excluding clearly any touch of cholera or poisoning. Nowadays, it is obvious that this dysenteria syndome associated to such anatomic disorders would belong to the chronic amebic disease. Probably contaminated in 1828, Bellini developed a severe episode in 1830, necessitating a long rest during several months, spent at Moltrasio along the side of the Lake of Como. At the time, he composed La Sonnambula and Norma. In 1833 after staying in London from April to August, he came to Paris preparing a new work I Puritani (The Puritains). At summer time, he usually suffered slight recurring episodes, that he treated by applying vesicatories. For frequent periods, he lived outside Paris in a villa standing along the Seine in Puteaux rented by his British friends the Levys. Early in September 1835, these symptoms came again and and suddenly worsened with pain, fever and loss of rest at night. Deserted and lonely as the Levys often left the villa, his critical condition exhibiting tremendous sufferings led to death on the 23rd of September. During the final days, he was not granted any relevant medical support, except the poor cares given by the Italian physician Montallegri, not authorised at that time to practice in France. As emetine and quinine since 1822 were both available as pure alcaloids, produced by the pharmacist Joseph Pelletier, it is assumed that Bellini might have recovered after an intensive treatment implementing these substances by oral, local and rectal routes (enemas and suppositories). At that time, apart from the academic teaching inherited from Broussais, the tropical practitioners currently used them in the treatment of dysenteria and tropical liver abcesses (Annesley, Segond and Dutroulau), as decocted ipeca roots and cinchona barks. Later on when the amebic disease has gained its proper nosography, the clinicians underlined the dangerous and unpredictable issues of the hyperacute hepatic syndromes, unexpected and occurring by apparently healthy individuals. By 1960, its treatment was still obtained by the emetine derivatives." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_82428", "title": "Betty Ford", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In January 1984, Betty Ford said the six years since beginning her alcohol and drug abuse treatment \"have been the best years in my life from the standpoint of feeling healthier and feeling more comfortable with myself\" during an address at a program in Michigan. The Betty Ford Center In 1978, the Ford family staged an intervention and forced her to confront her alcoholism and an addiction to opioid analgesics, which had been prescribed in the early 1960s for a pinched nerve. \"I liked alcohol,\" she wrote in her 1987 memoir. \"It made me feel warm. And I loved pills. They took away my tension and my pain\". She went into treatment for substance abuse." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22930", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is seen in 1–12% of UC patients and less commonly in Crohn’s colitis. Although it usually presents after the diagnosis of IBD, PG may occur years before the onset of bowel symptoms, run a course independent of the bowel disease, respond poorly to colectomy, and even develop years after proctocolectomy. It is usually associated with severe disease. Lesions are commonly found on the dorsal surface of the feet and legs but may occur on the arms, chest, stoma, and even the face. PG usually begins as a pustule and then spreads concentrically to rapidly undermine healthy skin. Lesions then ulcerate, with violaceous edges surrounded by a margin of erythema. Centrally, they contain necrotic tissue with blood and exudates. Lesions may be single or multiple and grow as large as 30 cm. They are sometimes very difficult to treat and often require IV antibiotics, IV glucocorticoids, dapsone, azathioprine, thalidomide, IV cyclosporine, or infliximab." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_68234", "title": "Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Treatment Currently, the only pharmacological treatment available for ADPKD consists in reducing the speed in gain of total kidney volume (TKV) with vasopressin receptor 2 (V2) antagonists (i.e. tolvaptan). Tolvaptan treatment does not halt or reverse disease progression and patients still progress towards renal failure. Palliative treatment modalities involve symptomatic medications (nonopioid and opioid analgesics) for abdominal/retroperitoneal pain. Options for analgesic-resistant pain include simple or complex surgical procedures (i.e. renal cyst aspiration, cyst decortication, renal denervation and nephrectomy), which can result in complications inherent to surgery. Recent research suggests that ketogenic dietary interventions beneficially affect the progression and symptoms in individuals with ADPKD. Mild weight loss favorably affects pain indicating the benefit of dietary and lifestyle changes." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3126", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "IdIOPATHIC INFLAMMATORY BOwEL dISEASE The illnesses in this category, which include Crohn’s disease and chronic ulcerative colitis, are among the most common organic causes of chronic diarrhea in adults and range in severity from mild to fulminant and life-threatening. They may be associated with uveitis, polyarthralgias, cholestatic liver disease (primary sclerosing cholangitis), and skin lesions (erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum). Microscopic colitis, including both lymphocytic and collagenous colitis, is an increasingly recognized cause of chronic watery diarrhea, especially in middle-aged women and those on NSAIDs, statins, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs); biopsy of a normal-appearing colon is required for histologic diagnosis. It may coexist with symptoms suggesting IBS or with celiac sprue or drug-induced enteropathy. It typically responds well to anti-inflammatory drugs (e.g., bismuth), to the opioid agonist loperamide," }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_112", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009118279569892473, "content": "The differential also includes graft-versus-host reaction (usually after bone marrow transplant), radiation therapy, and burns. Patients have the same complications as burn victims, including thermoregulatory difficulties, electrolyte disturbances, and 2° infections. Treatment includes skin coverage and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance. Controversial treatments include systemic corticosteroids in the early stages of SJS/ TEN or IVIG. There is a high risk of mortality. A panniculitis whose triggers include infection (e.g., Streptococcus, Coccidioides, Yersinia, TB), drug reactions (e.g., sulfonamides, various antibiotics, OCPs), and chronic infl ammatory diseases (e.g., sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis, Behçet’s disease). Painful, erythematous nodules appear on the patient’s lower legs (see Figure 2.2-6) and slowly spread, turning brown or gray. Patients may present with fever and joint pain. FIGURE 2.2-6. Erythema nodosum." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en062_54995", "title": "Methadone clinic", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A methadone clinic, or substance use disorder services clinic (SUDS), is a clinic which has been established for the dispensing of medications used in the treatment of opiate dependence —historically and most commonly methadone, although buprenorphine is also increasingly prescribed. Medically assisted drug therapy treatment is indicated in patients who are opioid-dependent or have a history of opioid dependence. Methadone is a schedule II (USA) opioid analgesic, that is also prescribed for pain management. It is a long-acting opioid that can delay the opioid withdrawal symptoms that patients experience from taking short-acting opioids, like heroin, and allow time for detoxification. In the United States, by law, patients must receive methadone under the supervision of a physician, and dispensed through an opioid treatment program certified by Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration and registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_71315", "title": "Erythromelalgia", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Pain relief Patients find relief by cooling the skin. All patients must be notified to not apply ice directly on to the skin, since this can cause maceration of the skin, nonhealing ulcers, infection, necrosis, and even amputation in severe cases. Mild sufferers may find sufficient pain relief with tramadol or amitriptyline. Sufferers of more severe and widespread EM symptoms, however, may obtain relief only from opioid drugs. Opana ER has been found to be effective for many in the USA, whilst in the UK slow-release morphine has proved to be effective. These powerful and potentially-addictive drugs may be prescribed to patients only after they have tried almost every other type of analgesia to no avail. (This delay in appropriate pain management can be a result of insurer-mandated or legally-required step therapy, or merely overly-cautious prescribing on the part of sufferers' doctors.)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en534_7287", "title": "Pain management in children", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "After treatment Post-procedural treatment in children is primarily prescription opioids. Morphine is effective and relatively safe, and is often used with moderate to severe pain. Codeine and tramadol should be avoided especially in children younger than 12 years old since metabolism varies due to genetic differences between individuals, and, in the case of tramadol, this medication has not been well studied in children. However, other interventions include medications classified as non-opioid analgesics, which are useful in post surgical treatment. For example, acetaminophen or ibuprofen can be used as a non-opioid analgesics. Unlike acetaminophen, ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory property which can be useful for pain in inflammatory conditions. Aspirin is not used in pediatric population due to its association with Reye's syndrome. Management" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1157_4999", "title": "Umbilical spider's web.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We report the case of a 38y old woman who consulted for chronic diffuse abdominal pain related to previous irritable bowel syndrome diagnosis. Physical examination showed nonblanching reddish hyperpigmented reticular peri-umbilical skin patch (figure 1). What's your diagnosis? The diagnosis of erythema ab igne was made. Additional investigations confirmed repeated use of hot water bottles applied on abdominal wall for 3 weeks overnight for pain relief. Erythema ab igne is a pathognomonic cutaneous presentation of long-lasting exposure to heat sources (1). The pathophysiology of erythema ab igne remains uncertain. It has been suggested that heat exposure damages dermal vascular plexus and subsequent hemosiderin deposition leading to spider's web-like hyperpigmentation. Differential diagnosis of peri -umbilical dermatological manifestations includes digestive-related entities as caput medusae's sign (related to portal hypertension), Cullen's sign or Walzel's sign (related to acute pancreatitis); and non-digestive-related entities such as livedo reticularis (2). Erythema ab igne is well known from the dermatologists, mostly located on the lower limbs due to prolonged close exposition to heaters or on thighs due to laptop batteries (3). Erythema ab igne is usually of benign course, most often self-resolving after heat exposure discontinuation (3). We believe that it is of paramount to take into consideration the patients' pain and to propose an adapted management to avoid self-treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_6556", "title": "Chronic wound", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "If local treatment does not provide adequate pain reduction, it may be necessary for patients with chronic painful wounds to be prescribed additional systemic treatment for the physical component of their pain. Clinicians should consult with their prescribing colleagues referring to the WHO pain relief ladder of systemic treatment options for guidance. For every pharmacological intervention there are possible benefits and adverse events that the prescribing clinician will need to consider in conjunction with the wound care treatment team. Ischemia and hypoxia Blood vessels constrict in tissue that becomes cold and dilate in warm tissue, altering blood flow to the area. Thus keeping the tissues warm is probably necessary to fight both infection and ischemia. Some healthcare professionals use ‘radiant bandages’ to keep the area warm, and care must be taken during surgery to prevent hypothermia, which increases rates of post-surgical infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0407_14718", "title": "[Clinical features of Crohn's disease: its diagnosis and treatment].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To enhance our understanding of Crohn's disease and improve its early diagnostic accuracy and therapeutic efficacy. Thirty-one patients with active Crohn's disease were studied. All their diagnostic and therapeutic results were analyzed. Most patients were young adults, with a 1.14:1 female predominance in prevalence. The disease affects any segment or a combination of segments of the alimentary tract from the mouth to the anus. However, the colon and the small bowel were the major sites involved. Recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and watery diarrhea were the most common symptoms. In addition, low grade fever, emaciation, anemia, and symptoms with skin, joints or perianal complications could be discovered if attention was paid. An endoscopy combined with histologic examination in biopsy specimens provided characteristic features with a diagnostic accuracy of 62.9%. Granulomas were identifiable in 30.8% of all biopsy specimens. Transabdominal bowel sonography (TABS) accurately detected intestinal complications. Factors causing misdiagnosis were: insufficient attention of the disease, diverse clinical presentations, or over emphasis of the diagnostic value of granulomas. Oral prednisone therapy for mild to moderate disease was more rapid to receive clinical remission when compared to oral aminosalicylates (SASP or 5-ASA). Nutrition support therapy was given in 20 cases with active disease and received beneficial effects on host nutritional status. Immunosuppressives were used on an individual basis, and showed variable effects with limited experience. Sixteen patients had operations due to intestinal obstruction or failure to respond to drug therapies. Rapid improvement after operations was achieved. Crohn's diseases not uncommon in China. Abdominal pain and watery diarrhea are two hallmark symptoms. Endoscopy (with biopsy), and TABS were both valuable procedures for diagnosis. Prednisone and SASP/5-ASA were effective as inductive therapies. Surgery, as an alternative and effective treatment, provided another choice in well selected patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1029_15451", "title": "Pain Management for Pediatric Burns in the Outpatient Setting: A Changing Paradigm?", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Childhood burns are common and distressing for children and their parents. Pain is the most common complaint and often thought to be undertreated, which can negatively influence the child's care and increase the risk of posttraumatic stress disorder. There is limited literature on the role of opioids and multimodal therapy in the treatment of pediatric outpatient burns. We sought to evaluate the current use of opioids (including the use of multimodal therapies), storage, and disposal of opioids in this patient population. Parents of burn-injured children 8 months to 18 years old, who were seen in an outpatient setting within 2 weeks of their burn injury, were queried from April to December 2019 regarding their child's pain control, opioid medication use, over-the-counter pain medication use, opioid storage, and disposal. A total of 142 parents of burn-injured children and their parents were surveyed. The median age of the burn-injured children was 2.7 years old and the majority (54.2%; 77/142) were male. The mean total body surface area (TBSA) was 1.8% and half sustained burn injuries to one or both hands. The most frequently used regimens for constant and/or breakthrough pain control were acetaminophen (62.7%) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs; 68.3%). Less than one fifth (26/142;18%) of patients were prescribed opioids and 88% filled their prescription. The median number of doses of opioids prescribed was eight doses, with a median of four doses of opioids unused. Only three patients used all of their prescribed opioids and no patient ≥12 years old used their entire prescription. Burns greater than 3% TBSA, irrespective of burn injury location, were associated with opioid prescription (P = .003). Approximately 40% (10/26) of parents who filled their child's opioid prescription stored the opioid in a locked area. Fewer than one third (7/26) of patients were educated on how to dispose of excess opioid pain medication. Overall, most pediatric outpatient burn injuries can be successfully managed with over-the-counter medications. Providers, who care for burn-injured children ≤ 12 years old with burns that cover ≥3% TBSA in the outpatient setting, should consider no more than four opioid doses for initial pain control. This guideline, coupled with family and provider-centered education on multimodal therapy at the time of initial presentation and safe use of opioids, are important first steps to minimizing the use of opioids in the management of small area burns in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_22655", "title": "[Acute abdominal pain as the first sign of Henoch-Schönlein purpura; a hidden diagnosis in the absence of purpura].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "2 girls with abdominal pain, aged 7 and 9 years, were admitted and underwent extensive evaluation: the first girl underwent colonoscopy and the second appendectomy, in which a negative appendix was removed. After 6 and 14 days, respectively, they developed skin lesions that did not disappear on pressure, characteristic of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). They recovered after treatment with prednisone. HSP is a systemic vasculitis, which can be diagnosed by its characteristic purpura of the skin. Diagnosis is more difficult if the patient does not present with skin lesions. HSP presenting with acute abdominal pain as an initial symptom can give rise to unnecessary additional investigation and even laparotomy. Apart from the other clinical features of HSP, i.e. bloody stools, oligo-articular arthritis and (microscopic) haematuria, diagnosis can be made earlier if biopsies of the normal skin or duodenum are taken and assessed for IgA depositions. Treatment of the abdominal pain with corticosteroids can be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_6400", "title": "Levomepromazine", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Medical uses It can be used as an analgesic for moderate to severe pain in non-ambulant patients (the latter being because of its strong sedative effects). Levomepromazine is also used at lower doses for the treatment of nausea and insomnia. Levomepromazine is frequently prescribed and valued worldwide in palliative care medicine for its multimodal action, to treat intractable nausea or vomiting, and for severe delirium/agitation in the last days of life. Palliative care physicians will commonly prescribe it orally or via subcutaneous syringe drivers in combination with opioid analgesics such as hydromorphone." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_113", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "FIGURE 2.2-6. Erythema nodosum. Erythematous plaques and nodules are commonly located on pretibial areas. Lesions are pain ful and indurated but heal spontaneously without ulceration. (Reproduced, with permission, from Hurwitz RM. Pathology of the Skin: Atlas of Clinical-Pathological Correlation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1998: 132.) Diagnosed by clinical impression. Histology shows nonspecific septal panniculitis. Workup should include an ASO titer, a PPD test in patients who are high risk, a CXR to rule out sarcoid, and a small bowel series to rule out IBD in patients with GI symptoms. Remove the triggering factor and treat the underlying disease where possible. NSAIDs can be used but may lead to erythema multiforme." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 141, 315 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 19, 47 ] ], "text": "answer 2 is the false answer and, therefore, the one that should be marked. This is because hysterosalpingography can spread the infection to the pelvic and abdominal cavity." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "We would start antibiotic treatment as soon as we suspect the diagnosis.", "2": "We would indicate as a preferential complementary test a hysterosalpingography for tubal assessment.", "3": "Delay in diagnosis and treatment increases the occurrence of sequelae.", "4": "The presence of abscess would be a criterion for hospitalization.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0682_9090", "title": "[Pelvic inflammatory disease: contemporary diagnostic and therapeutic approach].", "score": 0.016666666666666666, "content": "Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is polymicrobial infection in women characterized by inflammation of the upper genital tract, including endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic peritonitis, occasionally leading to the formation of tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). PID primarily affects young, sexually active women, and it is highly correlated with having several sexual partners, intrauterine contraceptive device and sexually transmitted diseases. The spectrum of disease is caused most commonly by Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in 30-50% of cases. PID is responsible for severe acute morbidity and significant long-term sequelae, including tubal factor infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. The following clinical features are suggestive of a diagnosis of PID: bilateral lower abdominal tenderness, abnormal vaginal or cervical discharge, fever (higher than 38 degrees C), abnormal vaginal bleeding, dyspareunia, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness, with or without a palpable mass. In laboratory findings, there is presence of excess leucocytes, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein. Transvaginal ultrasound scanning may be helpful, and its sensitivity is up to 85%. It can identify inflamed and dilated tubes and tubo-ovarian masses. Magnetic resonance imaging can be helpful in a final diagnosis in 95% of cases. In 15-30% of suspected cases, there is no laparoscopic evidence of disease. Treatment regimens for PID include broad-spectrum antibiotics, including coverage for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. The usage of parenteral or oral therapy, inpatient or outpatient regimens, depends on the patient's clinical condition. Considering the potential complications of disease, there is a need for good health educational programmes in reproductive period." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_16758", "title": "<i>Chlamydia</i> ascites: a call for sexually transmitted infection testing.", "score": 0.01391914790607601, "content": "A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 woman with a recent uncomplicated vaginal delivery 10 weeks prior presented to our hospital with 5 weeks of abdominal swelling and discomfort. Four weeks after delivery, the patient began having right upper quadrant pain and was found to have cholelithiasis. She underwent an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy 6 weeks prior to admission, but started to develop worsening abdominal swelling 1 week postoperatively. Abdominal distension and shifting dullness were present on examination. CT of the abdomen and pelvis was remarkable for moderate-volume ascites and mild enhancement of the pelvic peritoneum. Paracentesis removed 2.46 L of ascites fluid with 76% lymphocytic predominance. Results for <iChlamydia trachomatis</i were positive in urine, cervical swab and ascitic fluid. Doxycycline was prescribed for a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease exudative ascites. Since discharge, she has completed her antibiotic course and reports resolution of all symptoms without recurrence of ascites." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_5050", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.013535353535353536, "content": "Camille E. Beauduy, PharmD, & Lisa G. Winston, MD motion tenderness is present. A first-catch urine specimen is obtained for chlamydia and gonorrhea nucleic acid amplifi-cation testing. A urine pregnancy test is also ordered as the patient reports she “missed her last period.” Pending these results, the decision is made to treat her presumptively for chlamydial cervicitis. What are two potential treatment options for her possible chlamydial infection? How does her potential pregnancy affect the treatment decision? A 22-year-old woman presents to her college medical clinic complaining of a 2-week history of vaginal discharge. She denies any fever or abdominal pain but does report vaginal bleeding after sexual intercourse. When questioned about her sexual activity, she reports having vaginal intercourse, at times unprotected, with two men in the last 6 months. A pelvic examination is performed and is positive for muco-purulent discharge from the endocervical canal. No cervical" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_840", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.012816441994053632, "content": "factors include non-Caucasian ethnicity, douching, smoking, multiple sex partners, and prior STDs and/or PID. Presents with lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, menstrual disturbances, and a purulent cervical discharge. are also seen. Diagnosed by the presence of acute lower abdominal or pelvic pain plus one of the following: A WBC count > 10,000 has poor positive and negative predictive value for PID. Order a β-hCG and ultrasound to rule out pregnancy and to evaluate for the possibility of tubo-ovarian abscess. Ultrasound is a noninvasive means of diagnosing PID. Look for: Thickening or dilation of the fallopian tubes Fluid in the cul-de-sac Antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while awaiting culture results. All sexual partners should be examined and treated appropriately. Outpatient regimens: Regimen A: Of oxacin or levof oxacin × 14 days +/– metronidazole × 14 days." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2367", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.011870255348516219, "content": "Leukocytosis and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), a nonspecific, although more sensitive, sign of inflammation, are found in patients with acute PID. Pregnancy test is usually negative because PID as co-existent intrauterine pregnancy (IUP) is rare. If the pregnancy test is positive, an infected or very inflamed ectopic pregnancy, or instrumented IUP or infected, incomplete abortion should be suspected. Appendicitis and diverticulitis can be mistaken for PID. Laparoscopy can be useful if the diagnosis is uncertain. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines for diagnosing PID state that PID should be suspected and treatment started if the patient is at risk for PID and she has uterine, cervical, or adnexal motion tenderness without any apparent cause (19a). Findings that support the diagnosis include cervical or vaginal mucopurulent discharge, elevated ESR or C-reactive protein (CRP), laboratory confirmation of gonorrhea or chlamydia, oral temperature of" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2911", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.011695075757575757, "content": "facultative bacteria, anaerobes, and streptococci (16,40). Recommended regimens for the treatment of PID are listed in Table 18.5. An outpatient regimen of cefoxitin and doxycycline is as effective as an inpatient parenteral regimen of the same antimicrobials (41). Therefore, hospitalization is recommended only when the diagnosis is uncertain, pelvic abscess is suspected, clinical disease is severe, or compliance with an outpatient regimen is in question. Hospitalized patients can be considered for discharge when their fever has lysed (<99.5◦F for more than 24 hours), the white blood cell count has become normal, rebound tenderness is absent, and repeat examination shows marked amelioration of pelvic organ tenderness (42). Sexual partners of women with PID should be evaluated and treated for urethral infection with chlamydia or gonorrhea (Table 18.3). One of these STDs usually is found in the male sexual partners of women with PID not associated with chlamydia or gonorrhea (43,44)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10838", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011355997311053492, "content": "Sexually Transmitted Infections: Overview and Clinical Approach 878 impractical. Most patients with acute PID have lower abdominal pain of <3 weeks’ duration, pelvic tenderness on bimanual pelvic examination, and evidence of lower genital tract infection (e.g., MPC). Approximately 60% of such patients have salpingitis at laparoscopy, and perhaps 10–20% have endometritis alone. Among the patients with these findings, a rectal temperature >38°C, a palpable adnexal mass, and elevation of the ESR to >15 mm/h also raise the probability of salpingitis, which has been found at laparoscopy in 68% of patients with one of these additional findings, 90% of patients with two, and 96% of patients with three. However, only 17% of all patients with laparoscopy-confirmed salpingitis have had all three additional findings. In a woman with pelvic pain and tenderness, increased numbers of PMNs (30 per 1000× microscopic field in strands of cervical mucus) or leukocytes outnumbering epithelial cells in" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10839", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010745051319648095, "content": "additional findings. In a woman with pelvic pain and tenderness, increased numbers of PMNs (30 per 1000× microscopic field in strands of cervical mucus) or leukocytes outnumbering epithelial cells in vaginal fluid (in the absence of trichomonal vaginitis, which also produces PMNs in vaginal discharge) increase the predictive value of a clinical diagnosis of acute PID, as do onset with menses, history of recent abnormal menstrual bleeding, presence of an IUD, history of salpingitis, and sexual exposure to a male with urethritis. Appendicitis or another disorder of the gut is favored by the early onset of anorexia, nausea, or vomiting; the onset of pain later than day 14 of the menstrual cycle; or unilateral pain limited to the right or left lower quadrant. Whenever the diagnosis of PID is being considered, serum assays for human β-chorionic gonadotropin should be performed; these tests are usually positive with ectopic pregnancy. Ultrasonography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_103653", "title": "Chlamydia", "score": 0.01032844453625284, "content": "Chlamydia is known as the \"silent epidemic\", as at least 70% of genital C. trachomatis infections in women (and 50% in men) are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis, and can linger for months or years before being discovered. Signs and symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge, abdominal pain, painful sexual intercourse, fever, painful urination or the urge to urinate more often than usual (urinary urgency). For sexually active women who are not pregnant, screening is recommended in those under 25 and others at risk of infection. Risk factors include a history of chlamydial or other sexually transmitted infection, new or multiple sexual partners, and inconsistent condom use. Guidelines recommend all women attending for emergency contraceptive are offered chlamydia testing, with studies showing up to 9% of women aged <25 years had chlamydia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0414_11905", "title": "[Catatonia de novo, report on a case: immediate vital prognosis and psychiatric prognosis in longer term].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We report on the case of a 20 year old woman with no previous psychiatric history, who displayed a first episode of catatonia with acute onset. Symptoms started plainly with sudden general impairment, intense asthenia, headache, abdominal pain and confusion. After 48 hours, the patient was first admitted to an emergency unit and transferred to an internal medicine ward afterwards. She kept confused. Her behaviour was bizarre with permanent swinging of pelvis, mannerism, answers off the point and increasingly poor. The general clinical examination was normal, except for the presence of a regular tachycardia (120 bpm). The paraclinical investigations also showed normal: biology, EEG, CT Scan, lumbar puncture. Confusion persisted. The patient remained stuporous, with fixed gazing and listening-like attitudes. She managed to eat and move with the help of nurses but remained bedridden. The neurological examination showed hypokinaesia, extended hypotonia, sweating, urinary incontinence, bilateral sharp reflexes with no Babinski's sign and an inexhaustible nasoorbicular reflex. The patient was mute and contrary, actively closed her eyes, but responded occasionally to simple instructions. For short moments, she suddenly engaged in inappropriate behaviors (wandering around) while connecting back to her environment answering the telephone and talking to her parents. The patient's temperature rose twice in the first days but with no specific etiology found. During the first 8 days of hospitalization, an antipsychotic treatment was administered: haloperidol 10 mg per os daily and cyamemazine 37.5 mg i.m. daily. Despite these medications, the patient worsened and was transferred to our psychiatric unit in order to manage this catatonic picture with rapid onset for which no organic etiology was found. On admission, the patient was stuporous, immobile, unresponsive to any instruction, with catalepsy, maintenance of postures, severe negativism and refusal to eat. A first treatment by benzodiazepine (clorazepate 20 mg i.v.) did not lead to any improvement. The organic investigations were completed with cerebral MRI and the ruling out of a Wilson's disease. Convulsive therapy was then decided. It proved dramatically effective from the first attempt; 4 shocks were carried out before the patient's relatives ask for her discharge from hospital. The patient revealed she had experienced low delirium during her catatonic state. The clinical picture that followed showed retardation with anxiety. She was scared with fear both for the other patients and the nursing team. She kept distant and expressed few affects. The treatment at the time of discharge was olanzapine 10 mg per os. She was discharged with a diagnosis of catatonia but with no specific psychiatric etiological diagnosis associated. She discontinued her follow-up a few weeks later. After one year, we had no information about her. Catatonia has now become rare but remains a problem for clinicians. We reviewed data concerning short term vital prognosis and psychiatric long term prognosis in catatonia. Lethal catatonia is associated with acute onset, both marked psychomotor and neurovegetative symptoms. In the light of literature, there is no proband clinical criterion during the episode that is of relevant diagnostic value to ascertain the psychiatric etiology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0567_7979", "title": "[Summary of the practice guideline 'Pelvic inflammatory disease' (first revision) from the Dutch College of General Practitioners].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The 1995 guideline on pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) has been updated. The general practitioner should consider PID whenever a woman of childbearing age complains of lower abdominal pain; the diagnosis should then be based on 5 criteria: (a) non-acute lower abdominal pain; (b) pain on upward movement or adnexal tenderness during vaginal touch; (c) painful or swollen adnexae; (d) ESR &gt; or = 15 mm in the 1st hour or a temperature &gt; 38 degree C, and (e) no indications for other diseases, such as appendicitis or an extra-uterine pregnancy. In case of diagnostic doubt, a gynaecologist must be consulted. Rapid treatment with antibiotics diminishes symptoms, shortens the course of disease, and may prevent complications such as infertility or extra-uterine pregnancy. Treatment should be started with ofloxacin and metronidazole. Due to the increasing antibiotic resistance of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, when there are indications for this pathogen the medicinal treatment should immediately be directed at it by means of cefotaxim, doxycycline and metronidazole. In his or her information to the patient, the general practitioner should devote attention to the major role of sexually transmissible micro-organisms and give advice, if necessary, regarding high-risk behaviour." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0617_24570", "title": "A postmenopausal women presenting with atypical symptoms and cervical cancer: a case report.", "score": 0.009755291005291005, "content": "Globally cervical cancer kills millions of women every year. There is a wealth of evidence suggesting that cervical screening is one of the best defences against the development of cervical cancer. Lives could be saved if medical practitioners make a point of routinely enquiring about the date and result of the patient's last cervical smear test and if they repeatedly emphasize the importance of attendance for cervical smear tests, especially in post-menopausal women. A 66 year old caucasian woman presented with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection, weight loss, anorexia and night sweats. There was no history of post menopausal bleeding. She was admitted for intravenous antibiotics. A few days later she developed vomiting, abdominal pain and a brown vaginal discharge.She then had a CT scan which showed a pyometra extending to the umbilicus, with an intrauterine contraceptive device noted inside. After re-taking the history, it emerged that a Lippes loop was inserted 25 years previously. The patient was not given relevant information at the time and then unfortunately was lost to follow up.The pyometra was drained and the coil removed. However, at operation cervical cancer was suspected and biopsies taken. The patient's sepsis improved after pyometra drainage but histology subsequently confirmed stage 1B squamous cell cervical carcinoma. She was referred for a radical hysterectomy. Every consultation is an opportunity for health education and promotion. Patients need to be encouraged to utilize cervical screening programmes. It is also important to remember that cervical cancer can present with non-specific symptoms, thus the onus is on all doctors to take a good history and perform a thorough examination. Failing to do so may delay making the right diagnosis, with associated morbidity and mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0990_843", "title": "Acute odontogenic infection combined with crowned dens syndrome: a case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition disease is a condition in which calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal is deposited in joint cartilage and ligaments. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition disease that involves calcification around the odontoid process of the second cervical vertebra is called crowned dens syndrome. Crowned dens syndrome is accompanied by fever in addition to acute and intense neck, posterior head, and temporal pain; thus, distinguishing crowned dens syndrome may be difficult in the presence of odontogenic infection. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first report describing a patient with crowned dens syndrome with coexisting odontogenic infection. A 75-year-old Japanese woman was examined in the Emergency Department of this hospital due to a chief complaint of worsened buccal swelling on the left side. An odontogenic infection was considered, and she underwent her first examination. She presented with a body temperature of 37.4 °C, marked swelling and tenderness of her left lower eyelid through to her left cheek, and pain on the left temporal area. Blood tests revealed a leukocyte count of 6700/μL and a C-reactive protein level of 7.15 mg/dL. There was swelling and pain around the gingiva and acute purulent apical periodontitis of left maxillary second premolar. Cellulitis of the left cheek was diagnosed. After performing drainage of the pus, antibiotic treatment was initiated. Although her clinical symptoms improved, blood tests on day 9 of hospitalization revealed a leukocyte count of 6500/μL and a C-reactive protein level of 25.62 mg/dL, which were indicative of worsening symptoms. Computed tomography was performed to evaluate remote infection and images revealed a calcification around the odontoid process of her second cervical vertebra. When she was referred to the Orthopedic Surgery Department, pseudogout of the cervical spine was diagnosed. Subsequently, oral acetaminophen was initiated, and both her leukocyte count and C-reactive protein improved markedly. In the presence of persistent fever and abnormally high leukocyte and C-reactive protein indicative of an inflammatory reaction, coexistence of pseudogout should be considered. In particular, when symptoms of temporal pain are present, the possibility of pseudogout of the cervical spine must be considered in the differential diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0591_13965", "title": "Emergency physicians' patterns of treatment for presumed gonorrhea and chlamydia in women: one center's practice.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "No indicator reliably predicts if a woman has gonorrhea or chlamydia (sexually transmitted diseases [STDs]) during an Emergency Department (ED) visit. Before culture results return, emergency physicians (EPs) must choose whom to treat. We evaluated EP treatment of STDs within our institution. EPs voluntarily completed anonymous surveys while evaluating women requiring both a pelvic examination and STD cultures, except for sexual assault victims. The questionnaires asked for patients' demographics, history, physical examination, and in-ED laboratory tests, and whether any particular section of the encounter caused treatment. The treated and untreated groups' characteristics, as reported by the examining physicians, were compared. There were 145 questionnaires returned over a 6-month period; 41/145 patients (28%) were treated for presumed STD-28 (68%) based on physical examination, 8 (19.5%) on history, and 5 (12.5%) on in-ED laboratory tests. Comparison of treated vs. untreated groups revealed no difference in patient demographics. The treated group had more historical positives (3.92 vs. 2.84, respectively; p &lt; 0.001) and physical examination findings (3.39 vs. 1.24, respectively; p &lt; 0.001) compared to the untreated group. Eleven patients (7.58%) had positive STD cultures, 4 (9.75%) in the treated group and 7 (6.73%) in the untreated group (p &gt; 0.05). In our institution, EPs chose to treat patients with more historical and physical examination findings, not based on demographics. Our EPs' presumptive STD treatment paradigms do not accurately distinguish patients with positive pelvic culture results from those with negative results, supporting the available literature that describes the difficulty of this diagnosis. Individual EDs must recognize this infection identification problem and, after assessment of their treatment population, institute either a liberal presumptive STD treatment regimen for all comers, or establish reliable and timely follow-up for women left untreated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0413_8072", "title": "Identification of symptoms that indicate a pelvic examination is necessary to exclude PID in adolescent women.", "score": 0.00963342055901628, "content": "Diagnosis of chlamydia, gonorrhea, and vaginitis is now possible in adolescents using urine testing and vaginal swabs obtained by care provider or patient. However, a complete pelvic examination is necessary to diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is thus important to identify patients who might have pelvic inflammatory disease to assure complete gynecologic assessment of genitourinary symptoms. To determine whether adolescent patients with pelvic inflammatory disease report predictable symptoms during the medical interview and to determine what proportion of patients diagnosed with PID report at least one predictor symptom. Observational study. Hospital-based adolescent clinic and Job Corps health service. A convenience sample (n = 193) of adolescent and young adult women who had a pelvic examination performed to evaluate a wide range of genitourinary symptoms. Clinical diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. Sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive value of predictor symptoms for identifying patients given a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. Twenty (10.4%) patients received a clinical diagnosis of PID. Lower abdominal pain was the most common symptom (90.0%) reported by these patients. All of the patients with PID reported either lower abdominal pain or dyspareunia in the medical history compared with 97 (56.1%) of those without PID. The presence of lower abdominal pain and/or dyspareunia in the clinical history yielded a sensitivity of 100%, specificity of 44%, and positive and negative predictive value of 17% and 100%, respectively, for identifying patients given a diagnosis of PID. This study identified two symptoms reported in the medical history (lower abdominal pain and dyspareunia) that were associated with a clinical diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. If lack of these two symptoms was used as a criterion for omitting a pelvic examination, more than one third of the patients in this study could have been evaluated for cervical and vaginal infections with urine and directly obtained vaginal swabs. Although some of these patients might have required a pelvic examination to exclude other causes of abnormal vaginal bleeding, at least 30% of the total sample could have been evaluated without a speculum and bimanual examination. If further studies support these findings, patients with symptoms suggestive of uncomplicated genitourinary infection (e.g., vaginal discharge, vaginal pruritus, or dysuria) who deny lower abdominal pain and dyspareunia can be evaluated with urine and vaginal samples in place of a speculum and bimanual examination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1026_13880", "title": "A Case of a False-Positive Urine Pregnancy Test and Delayed Diagnosis of Obstructive Pyelonephritis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "BACKGROUND Urine pregnancy tests are usually performed by women at home and also by healthcare professionals. However, there are several conditions that may cause a false-positive urine pregnancy test, including trophoblast tumors, malignancy, nephrotic syndrome, adenomyosis, tubo-ovarian abscess, and paraneoplastic syndromes. A case is presented of a false-positive urine pregnancy test in a 28-year-old woman with a history of tubal ligation, who had a delayed diagnosis of obstructive pyelonephritis due to renal calculus. CASE REPORT A 28-year-old woman had previously been sterilized by tubal ligation. She presented with acute pyelonephritis associated with a left staghorn renal calculus and was found to have a false-positive urine pregnancy test, which delayed the diagnosis and management of her acute pyelonephritis. On follow-up, she had a negative serum pregnancy test. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) identified a left-sided staghorn calculus resulting in partial ureteric obstruction and hydronephrosis. She was treated with antibiotics, including cefazoline, and a left nephrostomy tube was sited to treat her hydronephrosis. Her pain was initially managed with acetaminophen and hydrocodone. Four days after her initial hospital admission, the patient was stable enough to go home on oral levofloxacin and pain medication. CONCLUSIONS This case of a false-positive urine pregnancy test in a 28-year-old woman with a history of tubal ligation highlights that this association may result in the delay in the diagnosis and treatment of acute pyelonephritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0014_3648", "title": "Diagnosis and treatment of acute salpingitis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Acute salpingitis is one of the most common acute gynecologic diseases and occurs in approximately 750,000 women each year in the United States. Use of laparoscopy to confirm the diagnosis of acute salpingitis has shown that the signs and symptoms classically ascribed to this disease are not specific to it. Fever, leukocytosis, elevated ESR and adnexal masses or swelling are not necessary to make a diagnosis of acute salpingitis. Lower abdominal pain and adnexal tenderness are the most consistent findings. Microbiologic data obtained by laparoscopy and culdocentesis have raised questions about the role of N. gonorrhoeae in salpingitis and have demonstrated that, as in pelvic infections generally, acute salpingitis is associated with mixed aerobic-anaerobic bacterial flora. Good results in the treatment of acute salpingitis depend upon: (1) early diagnosis, (2) hospitalization and bed rest, (3) the use of antibiotic therapy that takes into account the polymicrobial etiology of acute salpingitis, (4) prevention of recurrent episodes of salpingitis through efforts at patient education and identification and treatment of sexual partners. Most important, we must remember that what is at stake is often the future reproductive potential of a young woman. It must be weighed against both patient and physician convenience and cost. Further investigative efforts are essential to determine the role of IUDs in pelvic infections, discover the true microbiologic etiology of salpingitis and establish appropriate antimicrobial treatment as determined by prospective, microbiologically controlled investigations." }, { "id": "article-37726_9", "title": "Tubo-Ovarian Abscess -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009561145208784191, "content": "A complete physical examination, including a thorough pelvic exam, must be performed. The speculum and bimanual exam should assess the consistency, size, and mobility of the uterus and both adnexa. [5] Mucopurulent discharge and cervical motion tenderness are indicative of PID, and concomitant uterine or adnexal tenderness should raise concern for a TOA. [5] A detailed abdominal examination and careful attention to vital signs will help determine associated acute abdomen or systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). [5] Routine blood work may demonstrate leukocytosis with a left shift and urine, cervical and blood cultures may show bacterial growth. [5] A wet mount of vaginal discharge may show clue cells. [5] A urine pregnancy test should be performed to rule out an intrauterine or ectopic pregnancy. [5]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0569_22737", "title": "Ectopic pregnancy following emergency contraception with ethinyloestradiol-levonorgestrel: a case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Emergency contraception with ethinyloestradiol-levonorgestrel is effective, and ectopic pregnancy following its failure is rare. A 21-year-old nulligravid Japanese woman with regular menstrual periods took ethinyloestradiol-levonorgestrel pills for emergency contraception (EC) 36 and 48 hours after a coitus complicated by retention of the condom in the vagina. She started bleeding vaginally 24 days after that intercourse. As the bleeding continued for three weeks she consulted a gynaecologist. The pregnancy test was positive. Two weeks later she complained of lower abdominal pain, and transvaginal ultrasonography suggested a pelvic blood collection. At emergency surgery, she was found to have a left tubal pregnancy. Although ectopic pregnancy after failure of EC is rare, one should be alert to its possible occurrence." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2908", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial part of the workup of a patient with PID (38). In women with PID, an increased number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes may be detected in a wet mount of the vaginal secretions or in the mucopurulent discharge. More elaborate tests may be used in women with severe symptoms because an incorrect diagnosis may cause unnecessary morbidity (39) (Table 18.4). These tests include endometrial biopsy to confirm the presence of endometritis, ultrasound or radiologic tests to characterize a tubo-ovarian abscess, and laparoscopy to confirm salpingitis visually. Treatment Therapy regimens for PID must provide empirical, broad-spectrum coverage of likely pathogens, including N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, M. genitalium, gram-negative Table 18.4 Clinical Criteria for the Diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Additional criteria to increase the specificity of the diagnosis" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_144454", "title": "Pneumonia", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In children, low oxygen levels and lower chest indrawing are more sensitive than hearing chest crackles with a stethoscope or increased respiratory rate. Grunting and nasal flaring may be other useful signs in children less than five years old. Lack of wheezing is an indicator of Mycoplasma pneumoniae in children with pneumonia, but as an indicator it is not accurate enough to decide whether or not macrolide treatment should be used. The presence of chest pain in children with pneumonia doubles the probability of Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Diagnosis in adults In general, in adults, investigations are not needed in mild cases. There is a very low risk of pneumonia if all vital signs and auscultation are normal. C-reactive protein (CRP) may help support the diagnosis. For those with CRP less than 20 mg/L without convincing evidence of pneumonia, antibiotics are not recommended." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0087_10260", "title": "[Criteria of recovery from gonorrhea].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A total of 563 case histories of gonorrhea patients and 218 ones of patients with gonorrhea recurrences are analyzed. 86.7-87.5% of recurrences were recorded in the first week after treatment for acute or chronic condition (before the provocation test). The relapses develop earlier after the treatment for acute or subacute gonorrhea than for the chronic condition, and are most common between the third and seventh days after therapy. The share of patients timely consulting the doctors is in inverse proportion with the time of the check-ups (the criterion of cure being 96.2%, the first control 84.1%, the second one 62%). The validity of cure should better be checked up on the fifth-sixth days after therapy, and not on days 7-10. Patients with complicated urogenital diseases (prostatitis, orchiepididymitis, infiltrative urethritis) should be followed up after the first check-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_67997", "title": "Pelvic inflammatory disease", "score": 0.009412535488097838, "content": "The disease is caused by bacteria that spread from the vagina and cervix. Infections by Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis are present in 75 to 90 percent of cases. Often, multiple different bacteria are involved. Without treatment, about 10 percent of those with a chlamydial infection and 40 percent of those with a gonorrhea infection will develop PID. Risk factors are generally similar to those of sexually transmitted infections and include a high number of sexual partners and drug use. Vaginal douching may also increase the risk. The diagnosis is typically based on the presenting signs and symptoms. It is recommended that the disease be considered in all women of childbearing age who have lower abdominal pain. A definitive diagnosis of PID is made by finding pus involving the fallopian tubes during surgery. Ultrasound may also be useful in diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0758_10623", "title": "[A case of pulmonary tuberculosis in which diagnosis was delayed because of prior treatment with fluoroquinolone and metronidazole].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We report the case of a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis, whose diagnosis was delayed because of prior treatment with fluoroquinolone and metronidazole. A 35-year-old woman developed productive cough, fever, and back pain, which lasted for 3 weeks before admission to hospital. She had been diagnosed with lower respiratory infection and was treated with garenoxacin mesilate hydrate for 7 days before admission. As her symptoms did not improve, she was referred to our hospital for further evaluation. A chest computed tomography scan revealed confluent consolidation in the right lower lung, predominantly in segment 7, and lung abscess was initially suspected. Since chemotherapy with ceftriaxone and minomycin did not reduce her symptoms, metronidazole was added on day 4. Her symptoms improved dramatically and she was discharged on day 15. Metronidazole was given for a total of 3 weeks, and 2 weeks after discontinuation of metronidazole, she presented with recurrent chest pain and was diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. In addition to the atypical imaging findings in this patient, the use of chemotherapeutics such as garenoxacin mesilate hydrate and metronidazole, which have anti-tuberculosis effects, meant that the diagnosis of tuberculosis was complicated and hence delayed. We should keep in mind that some general chemotherapy agents, including linezolid, also have anti-tuberculosis effects and may cause similar problems with diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0061_7637", "title": "Surgical considerations in the diagnosis and treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Pelvic inflammatory disease continues to be a common finding in young women with lower abdominal pain. Typical emergency room pelvic inflammatory disease, with classic symptoms of pain, fever, and a history of high-risk sexual behavior, is easily diagnosed with a high degree of specificity. However, the majority of patients with pelvic inflammatory disease have atypical symptoms, and their condition may be incorrectly diagnosed and treated. Careful attention to the physical signs of pelvic infection and the evaluation of the vaginal secretions for leukocytes improves diagnostic accuracy. Liberal use of diagnostic laparoscopy to confirm the possibility of acute salpingitis is recommended in young women, who have much to lose from a case of untreated salpingitis. Outpatient treatment with a beta-lactam antibiotic followed by a course of doxycycline adequately treats patients with N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis infections. However, patients with suspected anaerobic upper genital tract infection such as those infections associated with tubo-ovarian abscess or IUD use should be admitted for parenteral antibiotic therapy and observation. Laparotomy and extirpative surgery should be reserved for seriously ill patients with generalized peritonitis associated with rupture of a tubo-ovarian abscess and for patients who do not respond to antibiotic therapy. Sound judgment regarding the extent of extirpative surgery, taking into consideration the wishes of the patient with respect to future fertility and hormone production, will lead to an acceptable outcome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_21188", "title": "Brucellar spondylo-discitis with rapidly progressive spinal epidural abscess presenting with sciatica.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Case report. To present a patient with spinal brucellosis, which was initially presented with sciatica and misdiagnosed as a lumbar disc herniation owing to nonspecific neurological and radiological findings. The delay in diagnosis led to rapid progression of the disease and complications. Department of Neurosurgery at a tertiary university teaching hospital (Sutcu Imam University Medical Center in Turkey). A 57-year-old woman with a history of low-back pain for 6 months, fatigue, and severe left-sided sciatica for the last 3 months presented to our hospital. Three months earlier, at another hospital, she had had a negative Rose-Bengal test for brucellosis and a lumbar computed tomography performed at that time showed only minimal L4-5 annular bulging. For 2 months, she was treated with analgesics for 'lumbar disc herniation' without relief of pain. On presentation to our department, her magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) examination showed edema and minimal annular bulging at L3-4 and L4-5. When her Rose-Bengal test returned positive, she was started on triple antibiotics for presumed Brucella infection. When symptoms and neurologic signs worsened while taking antibiotics, repeat MRI scan showed a spinal epidural abscess at the L4-5 level. Emergent surgery and 8 weeks of antibiotics resulted in cure. In areas endemic for brucellosis, subtle historical and exam features should be sought to exclude an infection such as brucellar sponylo-discitis. Appropriate serological tests should be readily available to confirm or exclude this diagnosis in selected patients, to avoid delays in antibiotic treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0359_120", "title": "PID: clinical and laparoscopic aspects.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Clinical signs of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) are not constant and are often limited to slight pelvic pain. Laparoscopy can lead to a rapid and correct diagnosis of PID. Intrapelvic bacteriologic samples can be obtained so as to administer the proper antibiotic. The exact nature of the lesions can be evaluated, and in severe cases, recent abscesses can be treated with good results for fecundity. Because the results in cases of long-standing abscess are not so good, laparoscopy should be performed at the onset of infection and not be reserved until after some weeks of inefficient medical treatment, especially in young women who have not completed their family. In primary chronic salpingitis, the lack of any clinical signs usually leads to a delay in diagnosis until women consult for fertility problems. The ideal point would be to detect some biologic or clinical change that may lead to diagnosis such as a positive anti-Chlamydia trachomatis (CT) serology or, in the future, positive anti-CT Hsp 60 antibody could be the key to detecting and treating silent salpingitis in young women, CT being the main microorganism involved in chronic salpingitis. Screening for C. trachomatis low genital tract infection is mandatory in young people in order to control the epidemic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1108_16218", "title": "Early Gestational Age Placenta Accreta Case Report: Can We Avoid Missed Diagnosis?", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "BACKGROUND Placenta accreta is an abnormal invasive placenta that can be life-threatening because of the risk of hemorrhage. Its incidence has increased due to high cesarean delivery rates. Early gestational age placenta accreta is difficult to diagnose and misdiagnosis can lead to inappropriate treatment. CASE REPORT Patient 1, a 34-year-old woman (para 2 abortus 1) with 2 previous cesarean deliveries, was referred to our department for vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. She received 2 curettages for blighted ovum; then, ultrasound examination found uterus perforation and fluid in the Douglas cavity. Exploratory laparotomy confirmed uterine perforation, and a hysterectomy was performed. Histopathological examination revealed placenta accreta. Patient 2, a 35-year-old woman (para 3) with 3 previous cesarean deliveries, was treated at a previous hospital for vaginal bleeding and stomach enlargement. She received serial chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia. Ultrasound examination showed a nonhomogeneous opacity in the lower uterine corpus with color score 4. Total abdominal hysterectomy was performed, and histopathological examination revealed placenta accreta. Patient 3, a 32-year-old woman (para 2) with 2 previous cesarean deliveries, had irregular vaginal bleeding suspected as gestational trophoblastic neoplasia due to ultrasound examination and positive beta-human chorionic gonadotropin. Ultrasound and MRI examination showed enlargement with nonhomogeneous opacity, color score 4, and bridging vessels. Due to our previous experience, we suspected it was a placenta accreta and performed a hysterectomy. The histopathology result indicated placenta accreta. CONCLUSIONS The key point in diagnosing placenta accreta properly is to evaluate the morphometric changes based on the structure using imaging like ultrasound. Collection and analysis of these data enables precise diagnosis in early gestational age placenta accreta." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0339_177", "title": "[The salpingitis diagnosis under scrutiny].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The rationale for the diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) was studied among hospitalized patients at the Department of Gynaecology, Regional Hospital of Trondheim, Trondheim. From 1 January 1991 to 31 December 1993, 153 patients were discharged with a diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. In retrospect, the diagnoses were reconsidered applying strict criteria. All 26 patients (17%) who had a diagnosis verified by laparoscopy were classified as suffering from a \"true\" diagnosis, 83 (54%) patients were reconsidered as suffering from a \"more likely\" and 44 (29% as suffering from a \"less likely\" diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. Women who had a laparoscopy verified diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease, had higher ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), C-reactive protein and temperature when compared with women reclassified as \"less likely\" suffering from Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. Only 72% of the patients had microbiological sampling from the cervix. In order to increase diagnostic precision we argue for minimum criteria and a systematic clinical examination, including vaginal ultrasound, when diagnosing Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. We recommend more diagnostic use of laparoscopy especially among women with mild symptoms and few objective signs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_55563", "title": "Vaginal atresia", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Diagnosis Vaginal atresia can sometimes be diagnosed by physical examination soon after birth. A child with vaginal atresia often has other congenital abnormalities and other tests such as X-ray and tests to evaluate the kidneys are done. Findings in adolescents may include abdominal pain, difficulty voiding, and backache, but most present with amenorrhea. Difficulties with sexual intercourse can suggest atresia. In the event that the condition is not caught shortly after birth, vaginal atresia becomes more evident when no menstrual cycle is occurs. If vaginal atresia is suspected by the doctor, a blood test may also be request for any of the previously mentioned syndromes, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) test, or an ultrasound. A regular evaluation of children born with an imperforate anus or anorectal malformation should be paired with the assessment of the results from these tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0364_12865", "title": "Diagnosing PID--getting the balance right.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The objective of the study was to determine the clinical manifestations and diagnostic criteria used to diagnose presumptive pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) at the Sydney Sexual Health Centre (SSHC). The study was a retrospective, case-note review of all women diagnosed with presumptive PID between April 1991 and December 1997. Seven hundred and thirteen women were included. The commonest recorded symptoms were vaginal discharge (68%), lower abdominal pain (65%) and dyspareunia (57%), while adnexal tenderness (83%), cervical motion tenderness (75%) and cervicitis (56%) were the most frequently recorded examination findings. Sixty-two per cent were prescribed doxycycline and metronidazole. The recording of signs and symptoms in women with presumptive PID was poor and only 22% met the current Centers for Disease Control (CDC) diagnostic criteria. It is likely that PID is over diagnosed in this group of women. This may lead to under diagnosis of other conditions causing pelvic pain and may be detrimental to reproductive health." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1037_7274", "title": "Case 283.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "History A 44-year-old woman who was a resident of Bihar, which is a state in eastern India, presented to the surgical outpatient department of our hospital with a history of gradually increasing swelling of the right breast associated with redness, pain, and itching over the past month (Fig 1). She reported a general sense of malaise and experienced episodes of chills over the past 6 months; however, she had no documented fever. There was no history of breast trauma. No history suggestive of a possible hypercoagulable state could be elicited (she was a nonsmoker, had undergone uncomplicated normal vaginal delivery 15 years earlier, was not taking oral contraceptives, and had no history to suggest past deep venous thrombosis). General physical examination findings were unremarkable. On local examination, she was found to have diffuse enlargement of the right breast. The skin over the lateral part of the breast was erythematous and showed the presence of prominent superficial veins. On palpation, few ill-defined firm mobile masses were found in the upper outer quadrant with overlying skin induration. No skin ulceration or nipple discharge was present. Few firm and discrete lymph nodes were palpable in the right axilla. Laboratory investigations showed mild anemia (hemoglobin level, 10 g/dL; normal range, 12-15 g/dL), a total leukocyte count of 14 000 cells per microliter (14 cells × 10<sup9</sup/L) (normal range, 4500-11 000 cells per microliter [4.5-11 cells × 10<sup9</sup/L]), a normal differential leukocyte count (74% neutrophils [normal range, 40%-80%], 24% lymphocytes [normal range, 20%-40%], and 2% eosinophils [normal range, 1%-4%]), and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 31 mm per hour (normal range, 0-29 mm per hour). She underwent both mammography (Fig 2) and US (Fig 3). Real-time US showed mobile structures on the series of US images obtained seconds apart (Fig 4). On the basis of the imaging findings, US-guided fine-needle aspiration cytology was performed to confirm the diagnosis, and appropriate treatment was instituted." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 240 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This is a typical description of a picture of intestinal obstruction due to bridging or adhesions due to previous surgery. The correct answer is 5 and not 1 because most of these situations resolve spontaneously with conservative treatment." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 240 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This is a typical description of a picture of intestinal obstruction due to bridging or adhesions due to previous surgery. The correct answer is 5 and not 1 because most of these situations resolve spontaneously with conservative treatment." } }

{ "1": "This is a picture of intestinal flange obstruction requiring emergency laparotomy.", "2": "Most likely we are facing a case of obstruction at the level of the large intestine.", "3": "The fact that the patient presented a diarrheal stool allows us to exclude the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. Further imaging studies are necessary to ensure a diagnosis.", "4": "We should indicate the practice of a decompressive colonoscopy.", "5": "Initial management should be conservative, with serum therapy, nasogastric aspiration and periodic clinical, analytical and radiographic monitoring." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1081_16743", "title": "Intestinal obstruction and ischemia by necrotic annular Meckel's diverticulum: Case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.014734561213434454, "content": "Meckel's diverticulum (MD) is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct, representing the most common congenital malformation of the gastrointestinal tract. Diagnosis of MD is a challenge because of its rarity and frequent asymptomaticity. Radiological exams generally aren't useful for its diagnosis. Intestinal obstruction represents the most common complication of MD in adults. Surgery is the appropriate treatment of complicated MD. A 70-year-old Caucasian male was admitted to the Emergency Department with a two-day history of abdominal pain associated with inability to pass gas or stool, nausea and vomiting. Physical examination revealed abdominal distention and abdominal pain without Blumberg's sign. Abdominal contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CECT) showed small bowel obstruction caused by suspected MD. Laboratory tests reported high serum levels of glycemia, LDH, C-reactive protein and leukocytosis. After diagnosis of intestinal obstruction, the patient underwent exploratory laparotomy: a segmental resection of ischemic distal ileum bearing a necrotic MD was performed. The postoperative course of patient was uneventful. MD is found in 2%-4% of the population in large autopsy and surgical series. MD is mostly asymptomatic and incidentally discovered if not complicated; a debate exist about management of asymptomatic MD. Surgery represents the definitive treatment of complicated MD. MD is a true diverticulum rarely discovered in adults. Diagnosis of MD is difficult even with the help of radiological exams. Although surgical resection represents the correct treatment of symptomatic MD, nowadays there is no consensus on the optimal treatment of asymptomatic and incidentally discovered MD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0739_24604", "title": "Sigmoid volvulus in a young woman nearly misdiagnosed as fecal impaction.", "score": 0.014393052302888367, "content": "Volvulus of the sigmoid colon is a potentially life-threatening condition rarely seen in younger age groups and is male predominant. We report a previously healthy young woman with the triad of constipation, progressive abdominal distension, and severe abdominal pain, with plain-film x-ray studies mimicking stool impaction and computed tomography disclosing the typical findings of sigmoid volvulus. The case reminds Emergency Physicians to consider sigmoid volvulus if mechanical obstruction is suspected, even in a young patient. A 33-year-old woman had the triad of symptoms for 3 days. Physical examination did not show peritoneal signs. Digital rectal examination disclosed neither palpable mass nor stool in rectum. Computed tomography revealed \"coffee bean\" sign and \"whirl\" sign. Laparoscopy demonstrated redundant sigmoid colon and she was treated with detorsion with colopexy uneventfully. Sigmoid volvulus is rarely seen in developed countries. Clinical manifestations vary with disease progression, but it typically presents with a triad of constipation, progressive abdominal distension, and severe abdominal pain. Plain-film x-ray studies can demonstrate a coffee bean or \"omega loop\" (inverted-U sigmoid) sign in &lt;60% cases, but it was reported as high as 86% in computed tomography. The whirl sign on computed tomography might also be observed. The cause is multifactorial and colonic length is the most important predisposing factor. Flexible colon fiberscopic decompression followed by elective definitive surgery is the treatment choice, but exploratory laparotomy is mandatory if any complicated entity occurs. The mortality rate is still &gt;50% when bowel gangrene develops." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_100729", "title": "Bowel obstruction", "score": 0.014377289377289378, "content": "Diagnosis The main diagnostic tools are blood tests, X-rays of the abdomen, CT scanning, and ultrasound. If a mass is identified, biopsy may determine the nature of the mass. Radiological signs of bowel obstruction include bowel distension and the presence of multiple (more than six) gas-fluid levels on supine and erect abdominal radiographs. Ultrasounds may be as useful as CT scanning to make the diagnosis. Contrast enema or small bowel series or CT scan can be used to define the level of obstruction, whether the obstruction is partial or complete, and to help define the cause of the obstruction. The appearance of water-soluble contrast in the cecum on an abdominal radiograph within 24 hours of it being given by mouth predicts resolution of an adhesive small bowel obstruction with sensitivity of 97% and specificity of 96%. Colonoscopy, small bowel investigation with ingested camera or push endoscopy, and laparoscopy are other diagnostic options." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_19533", "title": "[Intermittent incomplete ileus of the small intestine. Sonographic diagnosis and trends].", "score": 0.014331501831501833, "content": "Intermittent incomplete intestinal obstruction was proven by sonography in 25 male and 48 female patients with an age range of 10 to 88 years. All of them suffered from intermittent colicky pain, nausea and meteorism followed by liquid stools. Only 52 patients had undergone a total of 69 abdominal operations. The pertinent symptoms could be traced back for 6 months to 10 years (4 +/- 3 years). In 47 patients, intake of bulky food during the last 12 to 48 hours triggered the onset of disorders. The preadmission diagnoses were: incomplete intestinal obstruction (only 21), gastroenteritis (15), biliary colic (13), peptic ulcer (10), renal colic (4), food intoxication (4), appendicitis (3), adnexitis (3). Sonographic findings were: inconstant lumen distension, visible bowel wall movements with contractions of 3 to 6 mm, food bolus, enhanced paradoxical peristalsis, proof of distended and collapsed gut segments, bowel wall edema and free peritoneal fluid. Based on these ultrasonic findings and trend observation, conservative treatment was successfully instituted. All patients were discharged symptom-free with no subsequent attacks for 12 months. 20 patients, subsequently suffering from complete intestinal obstruction after 1 to 3 years, were operated on, comprising 8 cases of intestinal resection, 7 cases of adhesiolysis and intestinal tube splinting, 3 cases of band dissection and 2 cases of palliative bypass procedures. The diagnostic accuracy of abdominal ultrasonography is clearly demonstrated by the fact, that 11 of these patients with intermittent incomplete intestinal obstruction and now suffering from complete obstruction had no previous abdominal surgery." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en239_18126", "title": "Ileosigmoid knot", "score": 0.013507873268829445, "content": "An ileosigmoid knot is a form of volvulus in which ileum wraps around the base of the sigmoid and passes beneath itself forming a knot. The exact cause of this condition is not known. Patients usually present with clinical features of colonic obstruction. Vomiting, abdominal distension, abdominal pain, blood stained stools are frequent symptoms. It is difficult to diagnose this condition before surgery. Raveenthiran described a triad which may be useful in preoperative diagnosis. The triad includes 1). Clinical features suggestive of small bowel obstruction, 2). Radiological features suggestive of large bowel obstruction, 3). Inability to negotiate sigmoidoscope or a flatus tube. This is a surgical emergency that requires urgent resection of gangrenous bowel and untwisting of the volvulus. References Gastrointestinal tract disorders" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1161_22961", "title": "Case Report: Caecal volvulus management from diagnosis to treatment in a young patient.", "score": 0.013457556935817806, "content": "Caecal volvulus (CV) is a rare cause of intestinal obstruction, defined by an axial torsion of the caecum, ascending colon, and terminal ileum around the mesenteric vascular pedicles, leading to ischemia and bowel necrosis. A 20-year-old woman, with no significant medical history, was admitted for generalized abdominal pain evolving for three days, along with constipation and abdominal distension, but with no vomiting. Physical examination showed a generalized abdominal tenderness with no rigidity or rebound tenderness, associated with abdominal distension and tympanic upon percussion. Laboratory findings were within normal limits. An abdominal computed tomography scan revealed distension of a loop of the large bowel with its long axis extending from the right lower quadrant to the epigastrium or left upper quadrant. Colonic haustral pattern was absent. An abdominal computed tomography scan showed a rounded focal collection of air-distended bowel with haustral creases in the upper left quadrant. In addition, spiraled loops of the collapsed cecum (giving a whirl sign) were noted, along with low-attenuating fatty mesentery from the twisted bowel. The patient underwent an emergency laparotomy and caecectomy using GEA 80 charges. The patient had no complaints post-operation. CV is a rare cause of bowel obstruction, mainly caused by an exceedingly mobile caecum. Despite its rareness, CV represents the second most common cause of large bowel volvulus, behind sigmoid volvulus. For acute obstruction by CV, it is hard to differentiate it clinically from obstruction of the small bowel; therefore, radiological exams are needed. Surgery is the gold standard treatment for CV. We report a rare case of CV to highlight the rarity of this pathology, specify its diagnostic and therapeutic means, and its clinical and biological evolution." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1150_17581", "title": "Case Report: Caecal volvulus management from diagnosis to treatment in a young patient.", "score": 0.01336002614806341, "content": "Caecal volvulus (CV) is a rare cause of intestinal obstruction, defined by an axial torsion of the caecum, ascending colon, and terminal ileum around the mesenteric vascular pedicles, leading to ischemia and bowel necrosis. A 20-year-old woman, with no significant medical history, was admitted for generalized abdominal pain evolving for three days, along with constipation and abdominal distension, but with no vomiting. Physical examination showed a generalized abdominal tenderness with no rigidity or rebound tenderness, associated with abdominal distension and tympanic upon percussion. Laboratory findings were within normal limits. An abdominal computed tomography scan revealed distension of a loop of the large bowel with its long axis extending from the right lower quadrant to the epigastrium or left upper quadrant. Colonic haustral pattern was absent. An abdominal computed tomography scan showed a rounded focal collection of air-distended bowel with haustral creases in the upper left quadrant. In addition, spiraled loops of the collapsed cecum (giving a whirl sign) were noted, along with low-attenuating fatty mesentery from the twisted bowel. The patient underwent an emergency laparotomy and caecectomy using GEA 80 charges. The patient had no complaints post-operation. CV is a rare cause of bowel obstruction, mainly caused by an exceedingly mobile caecum. Despite its rareness, CV represents the second most common cause of large bowel volvulus, behind sigmoid volvulus. For acute obstruction by CV, it is hard to differentiate it clinically from obstruction of the small bowel; therefore, radiological exams are needed. Surgery is the gold standard treatment for CV. We report a rare case of CV to highlight the rarity of this pathology, specify its diagnostic and therapeutic means, and its clinical and biological evolution." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1132_21650", "title": "Chronic Appendicitis-From Ambiguous Clinical Image to Inconclusive Imaging Studies.", "score": 0.012948987587116994, "content": "A six-year-old boy visits a general practitioner due to diarrhea and abdominal pain with a moderate fever of up to 39 °C for 2 days. Treatment is initiated; however, the recurrence of abdominal pain is observed. Physical examination of the child at the emergency department reveals abdominal guarding and visible, palpable, painful intestinal loops in the left iliac and hypogastric regions-this is referred to as an 'acute abdomen'. An X-ray shows single levels of air and fluid indicative of bowel obstruction. Ultrasound reveals distended, fluid-filled intestinal loops with diminished motility. The intestinal wall is swollen. Laboratory tests indicate increased inflammatory indices. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography examination of the abdominal cavity and lesser pelvis shows intestinal dilation. The loops were filled with liquid content and numerous collections of gas. The patient is qualified for a laparotomy. An intraoperative diagnosis of perforated gangrenous appendicitis with autoamputation was made. In addition, numerous interloop and pelvic abscesses, excessive adhesions, signs of small intestine micro-perforation, and diffuse peritonitis are found. The patient's condition and laboratory parameters significantly improve during the following days of hospitalization. Despite the implementation of multidirectional, specialized diagnostics in the case of acute abdomen, in everyday practice we still encounter situations where the final diagnosis is made intraoperatively only." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en231_31943", "title": "Nausea", "score": 0.01196969696969697, "content": "Diagnostic testing When a history and physical exam are not enough to determine the cause of nausea and vomiting, certain diagnostic tests may prove useful. A chemistry panel would be useful for electrolyte and metabolic abnormalities. Liver function tests and lipase would identify pancreaticobiliary diseases. Abdominal X-rays showing air-fluid levels indicate bowel obstruction, while an X-ray showing air-filled bowel loops are more indicative of ileus. More advanced imaging and procedures may be necessary, such as a CT scan, upper endoscopy, colonoscopy, barium enema, or MRI. Abnormal GI motility can be assessed using specific tests like gastric scintigraphy, wireless motility capsules, and small-intestinal manometry." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_100723", "title": "Bowel obstruction", "score": 0.011815994003235096, "content": "Bowel obstruction, also known as intestinal obstruction, is a mechanical or functional obstruction of the intestines which prevents the normal movement of the products of digestion. Either the small bowel or large bowel may be affected. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, vomiting, bloating and not passing gas. Mechanical obstruction is the cause of about 5 to 15% of cases of severe abdominal pain of sudden onset requiring admission to hospital. Causes of bowel obstruction include adhesions, hernias, volvulus, endometriosis, inflammatory bowel disease, appendicitis, tumors, diverticulitis, ischemic bowel, tuberculosis and intussusception. Small bowel obstructions are most often due to adhesions and hernias while large bowel obstructions are most often due to tumors and volvulus. The diagnosis may be made on plain X-rays; however, CT scan is more accurate. Ultrasound or MRI may help in the diagnosis of children or pregnant women." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_38001", "title": "Volvulus", "score": 0.011815704731236066, "content": "Signs and symptoms Regardless of cause, volvulus causes symptoms by two mechanisms: Bowel obstruction manifested as abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Ischemia (loss of blood flow) to the affected portion of intestine. Depending on the location of the volvulus, symptoms may vary. For example, in patients with cecal volvulus, the predominant symptoms may be those of small bowel obstruction (nausea, vomiting and lack of stool or flatus), because the obstructing point is close to the ileocecal valve and small intestine. In patients with sigmoid volvulus, although abdominal pain may be present, symptoms of constipation may be more prominent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0865_20022", "title": "[Investigation of diagnostic method and treatment on acute appendicitis with acute intestinal obstruction as presenting manifestation].", "score": 0.011137288498607838, "content": "Prevention of the misdiagnosis of acute appendicitis when it first manifested as acute intestinal obstruction, and to search proper way of diagnosis and treatment for such event to provide the reference. Clinical data of 33 acute appendicitis cases presented with acute intestinal obstruction in Beijing Tong Ren Hospital during January 2000 and December 2015 were analyzed retrospectively. All 33 patients were admitted to the Emergency Department with symptoms of various degrees abdominal pain and abdominal distension. There was no passage of gas and feces. The mean time of onset was (62.2±25.0) hours. The imaging examination showedthat all patients had complete bowel obstruction. Twenty one patients(63.6%) had peritonitis, three of whom developed with septic shock. Abdominal CT was performed in 17 patients preoperatively, which showed retention of gas and fluid in the small intestine in all the patients and 13 were suggestive of acute appendicitis. All of these patients received surgical treatment, 12 patients underwent laparoscopic exploration, and the remaining 21 patients received exploratory laparotomy during which acute appendicitis was confirmed to be the cause of intestinal obstruction, of whom 14(42.4%) was identified as mechanical intestinal obstruction. Nine patients underwent appendectomy and lysis of adhesion, five appendectomy and partial excision of the greateromentum. Nineteenpatients(57.6%) were identified as paralytic ileus and underwent appendectomy only. Twelve patients required respiratory and circulatory support and were admitted to ICU postoperatively. The mean duration time in ICU was(8.8±5.2) days. Postoperative pathology showedgangrene accompanied with perforation in the appendix. All patients were discharged without any complication. The length of hospital stay was (15.4±4.6) days. All patients were followed up for 3 ~ 12 months. One patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease developed repeated pulmonary infection and died of respiratory failure at 185 days postoperatively. The remaining patients were followed up and there were no patients developed intra-abdominalsepsis, intestinal obstruction, surgery-related complications, or death. Patients with acute appendicitis presenting with acute intestinal obstruction are mostly in severe condition. Clinical diagnosis for this patients is difficult and surgery should be performed as soon as possible." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_21930", "title": "Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome", "score": 0.010833079035703387, "content": "Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) involves obstruction of the distal part of the small intestines by thickened intestinal content and occurs in about 20% of mainly adult individuals with cystic fibrosis. DIOS was previously known as meconium ileus equivalent, a name which highlights its similarity to the intestinal obstruction seen in newborn infants with cystic fibrosis. DIOS tends to occur in older individuals with pancreatic insufficiency. Individuals with DIOS may be predisposed to bowel obstruction, though it is a separate entity than true constipation. Signs and symptoms Signs and symptoms of DIOS include a sudden onset of crampy abdominal pain, vomiting, and a palpable mass (often in the right lower quadrant) in the abdomen. The characteristic abdominal pain is typically located in the center or right lower quadrant of the abdomen. X-rays of the abdomen may reveal stool in the colon and air-fluid levels in the small intestines." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en056_56030", "title": "Necrotizing enterocolitis", "score": 0.010602235845654525, "content": "Diagnosis is usually suspected clinically, but often requires the aid of diagnostic imaging, most commonly radiography, which can show the intestines and may show areas with death tissue or a bowel perforation. Specific radiographic signs of NEC are associated with specific Bell's stages of the disease: Bell's stage 1 (suspected disease): Mild systemic disease (apnea, lethargy, slowed heart rate, temperature instability) Mild intestinal signs (abdominal distention, increased gastric residuals, bloody stools) Nonspecific or normal radiological signs Bell's stage 2 (definite disease): Mild to moderate systemic signs Additional intestinal signs (absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness) Specific radiologic signs (pneumatosis intestinalis or portal venous gas) Laboratory changes (metabolic acidosis, too few platelets in the bloodstream) Bell's stage 3 (advanced disease): Severe systemic illness (low blood pressure)" }, { "id": "article-31263_9", "title": "Volvulus -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010577951364671967, "content": "Diagnosis of colonic volvulus is clinical, however, radiological investigations are often required for diagnostic confirmation due to an overlap of clinical features with other diseases. The first investigation to be performed is a plain radiograph of the abdomen. Specific signs including \"bent inner tube\" or a \"coffee bean\" sign are characteristic for sigmoid volvulus. These refer to the appearance of the air-filled closed loop of the colon which forms the volvulus revealing a thick inner and a thin outer wall. Similarly, plain radiographs of patients with cecal volvulus reveal distended small bowel and large bowel. Contrast enema should be performed only after perforation peritonitis is ruled out. Demonstration of a \"bird's beak\" at the point where the colon rotates to form the volvulus is characteristic of sigmoid volvulus. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen and pelvis is generally not indicated in patients with colonic volvulus, however, when performed an upward displacement of the appendix with large and small bowel obstruction is suggestive for cecal volvulus. [7] Similar to colonic volvulus, in children with midgut volvulus, radiological features include paucity of gas throughout the intestine with few scattered air-fluid levels on plain radiograph, and an abnormally placed duodenojejunal junction (DJ) with the small bowel looping entirely on the right side of the abdomen on upper GI series. [5] Laboratory studies including complete blood count (CBC) and serum biochemistry may show a left shift with leucocytosis and electrolyte abnormalities respectively, however, these are non-specific." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_100725", "title": "Bowel obstruction", "score": 0.0103125, "content": "Signs and symptoms Depending on the level of obstruction, bowel obstruction can present with abdominal pain, swollen abdomen, abdominal distension, and constipation. Bowel obstruction may be complicated by dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities due to vomiting; respiratory compromise from pressure on the diaphragm by a distended abdomen, or aspiration of vomitus; bowel ischemia or perforation from prolonged distension or pressure from a foreign body. In small bowel obstruction, the pain tends to be colicky (cramping and intermittent) in nature, with spasms lasting a few minutes. The pain tends to be central and mid-abdominal. Vomiting may occur before constipation. In large bowel obstruction, the pain is felt lower in the abdomen and the spasms last longer. Constipation occurs earlier and vomiting may be less prominent. Proximal obstruction of the large bowel may present as small bowel obstruction. Causes Small bowel obstruction" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_100732", "title": "Bowel obstruction", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A small flexible tube (nasogastric tube) may be inserted through the nose into the stomach to help decompress the dilated bowel. This tube is uncomfortable but relieves the abdominal cramps, distention, and vomiting. Intravenous therapy is utilized and the urine output is monitored with a catheter in the bladder. Most people with SBO are initially managed conservatively because in many cases, the bowel will open up. Some adhesions loosen up and the obstruction resolves. The patient is examined several times a day, and X-ray images are made to ensure he or she is not getting clinically worse. Conservative treatment involves insertion of a nasogastric tube, correction of dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. Opioid pain relievers may be used for patients with severe pain. Antiemetics may be administered if the patient is vomiting. Adhesive obstructions often settle without surgery. If the obstruction is complete surgery is usually required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_15975", "title": "[Rational diagnostics of acute abdomen].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In view of the threat that comes with an acute abdomen, it is of major importance that diagnostics are executed quickly and efficiently. In the course of this two tendencies can be differentiated: 1) general use of complex examination (e.g. CT, MRT) of all potential patients and 2) step-by-step-diagnostics with advanced diagnostics as and when required. A total of 444 patients with an acute abdomen as admission diagnosis were investigated. All data were evaluated prospectively and analyzed retrospectively. All patients had the same basic diagnostics consisting of aclinical history, clinical examination, laboratory examination, abdominal sonography and x-ray overview images. These examinations were supplemented when required by advanced measures, such as CT, colon enema with contrast fluid, endoscopic examination and diagnostic laparotomy. Three different disease groups of unequal diagnostic need could be identified. The first group, presented in the form of an appendicitis showed that in 80% of all patients a basic diagnosis was sufficient. Advanced examination such as CT affected 14%. The negative appendectomy rate amounted to 8%. Other diseases belonging to the first group were ileus, acute biliary diseases, perforation etc. In the second group presented in the form of a diverticulitis, an advanced radiological examination was required in 84% of all cases. Similar results are also expected in cases of pancreatitis. In the third group presented in the form of coprostasis, inflammatory etiology was found in 39% of all secondary diseases. However the symptoms became clinically apparent after treatment of the coprostasis. In this group a basic diagnosis was satisfactory in 84% of cases, however, a diagnostic laparotomy was inevitable for 3% of these patients. Generally step-by-step diagnostic approach has proven itself to be efficient. For 80% of all patients it makes advanced diagnostic measures unnecessary. The exceptions are diseases in which it is necessary to know not only the diagnosis but also the disease stage. In these cases (e.g. pancreatitis, diverticulitis etc.) advanced diagnostics should be pursued from the onset. The necessity of a diagnostic laparotomy has lost importance for 1% of all patients." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_11424", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.00984676449821575, "content": "Older patients tend to require a longer time for full recovery.Management of the Child With Perforated Appendicitis. The signs and symptoms of perforated appendicitis can closely mimic those of gastroenteritis and include abdominal pain, vom-iting, and diarrhea. Alternatively, the child may present with symptoms of intestinal obstruction. An abdominal mass may be present in the lower abdomen. When the symptoms have been present for more than 4 or 5 days, and an abscess is suspected, it is reasonable to obtain a computerized tomogram of the abdo-men and pelvis with IV, oral, and rectal contrast in order to visu-alize the appendix and the presence of an associated abscess, phlegmon, or fecalith (Fig. 39-21).An individualized approach is necessary for the child who presents with perforated appendicitis. When there is evidence of generalized peritonitis, intestinal obstruction or evidence of systemic toxicity, the child should undergo appendectomy. This should be delayed only for as long" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0631_13870", "title": "[Diverticulitis appendicis vermiformis--a case review and literature overview].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Diverticulosis and diverticulitis of appendix vermiformis is a rare diagnosis with incidency of 0.004-2%. Because of intermittent pain and atypical problems patients with diverticulitis are surgically intervened later as patients with simplex appendicitis. Complications in regard to perforation of appendix are more frequent in 27% in diverticulitis and mortality of consequent peritonitis is 30 times higher than in simplex appendicitis. Authors present 0.1% incidency of diverticulitis of appendix in the group of 1496 patients with appendicitis. The case involved a man and a woman (age 59 and 61). In clinical picture predominated pain with the duration of two and three days with maximum in right lower abdomen. Patients showed no febrility, one of them had anorexia and constipation, one of them suffered from diarrhea. Mantrels score reached 5 and 7 points. In laboratory parameters elevated inflammatory markers (Leu: 1.5 x 10(9)/l, 11.44 x 10(9)l; CRP: 182 mg/l, 96.3 mg/l) were detected. Ultrasonographic examination determined the diagnosis of subacute appendicitis in one case, a perforation of sigmoid diverticle in the second case. Appendectomy was performed in both patients, there was a finding of gangrenous and phlegmonous appendicitis. In both patients, a correct diagnosis of diverticulitis was determined only through histopathological examination. Clinical and laboratory examinations did not showed a difference between progress of disease of diverticulitis and simplex appendicitis. In comparison to a control group, only a higher CRP was determined and also a 35 years higher age average. In neither case did the USG examination determine the exact diagnose. Urgent surgical operation prevented frequent complications presented in the literature." }, { "id": "article-26080_11", "title": "Large Bowel Obstruction -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009782704319521423, "content": "The patient should have the standard blood work (full blood count and renal function tests), to aid resuscitation and assess the kidney function for a potential computed tomography scan with contrast. [7] [8] [9] A plain abdominal x-ray will show the dilated colon, and a cutoff in the area of obstruction, as well as a paucity of gas in the rectum, or a classical coffee bean sign in the case of a volvulus. If a colonic malignancy is suspected, a computed tomogram (CT) of thorax, abdomen, and pelvis will stage the disease and allow for further management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en164_18523", "title": "Abdominal x-ray", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "An abdominal x-ray is an x-ray of the abdomen. It is sometimes abbreviated to AXR, or KUB (for kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder). Indications In children, abdominal x-ray is indicated in the acute setting: Suspected bowel obstruction or gastrointestinal perforation; Abdominal x-ray will demonstrate most cases of bowel obstruction, by showing dilated bowel loops. Foreign body in the alimentary tract; can be identified if it is radiodense. Suspected abdominal mass In suspected intussusception, an abdominal x-ray does not exclude intussusception but is useful in the differential diagnosis to exclude perforation or obstruction. Yet, CT scan is the best alternative for diagnosing intra-abdominal injury. Computed tomography provides an overall better surgical strategy planning, and possibly less unnecessary laparotomies. Abdominal x-ray is therefore not recommended for adults with acute abdominal pain presenting in the emergency department. Projections" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_16148", "title": "Acute abdomen. When to operate immediately and when to observe.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "When to operate immediately, when to observe, and when not to operate at all represent major challenges in the management of a child with an acute abdomen. This article is an overview of the subject from symptom to diagnosis, evaluation, and preparation for the surgical intervention. Tables provide examples of conditions requiring prompt surgical intervention and relative surgical urgency; pathologies suitable for (initial) nonsurgical management; and clinical pictures where surgical intervention is not indicated. Factors that influence the timing of operation are provided, as is the differential diagnosis between intestinal strangulation and obstruction. Brief notes highlight four important causes of acute abdomen in children acute appendicitis, malrotation with volvulus, Meckel's diverticulum, and intussusception. These as well as other intraabdominal pathologies are illustrated by means of surgical photographs. The acute abdomen is a clinical diagnosis. Other diagnostic modalities have merely supporting roles. The decision to operate is based primarily on the results of a good history and thorough physical examination(s)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0584_1981", "title": "The demise of the instant/unprepared contrast enema in large bowel obstruction.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Imaging the colon in suspected acute large bowel obstruction (LBO) is traditionally carried out with a supine abdominal X-ray (AXR) and erect chest X-ray. If there is no clinical or radiological evidence to suggest a perforation, then an unprepared barium or water-soluble contrast enema (CE) can be performed to confirm the presence of and demonstrate the site of obstruction. The advent of modern, fast multidetector CT (MDCT) scanners has changed management strategies for acute abdominal conditions including suspected LBO in all groups of patients especially the elderly, infirm and those on ITU/HDU. A retrospective case note analysis was carried over a 7-year period in a single centre. The study criteria involved investigation of suspected LBO with CE, CT and MDCT. It showed a reduction in the number of contrast enemas performed. MDCT was shown to be more accurate in the diagnosis of LBO, is usually available on a 24-h basis, and in many institutions has replaced the urgent CE in this group of patients. This also has the advantage of excluding incidental findings and in staging malignant disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_47015", "title": "Intussusception (medical disorder)", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Intussusception is a medical condition in which a part of the intestine folds into the section immediately ahead of it. It typically involves the small bowel and less commonly the large bowel. Symptoms include abdominal pain which may come and go, vomiting, abdominal bloating, and bloody stool. It often results in a small bowel obstruction. Other complications may include peritonitis or bowel perforation. The cause in children is typically unknown; in adults a lead point is sometimes present. Risk factors in children include certain infections, diseases like cystic fibrosis, and intestinal polyps. Risk factors in adults include endometriosis, bowel adhesions, and intestinal tumors. Diagnosis is often supported by medical imaging. In children, ultrasound is preferred while in adults a CT scan is preferred." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0039_4146", "title": "[New findings in the differential diagnosis of acute ileus (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Knowledge of the patho-physiological behaviour present in the colon is the deciding factor for a reliable differential diagnosis of mechanical or paralytic ileus. A quick and sure diagnosis can be got with irrigoscopy (barium enema). In paralytic ileus, a radical change in the function of the right colon is present; instead of resorption, exudation and paralysis have taken place. Barium enema shows this behaviour; the left colon stays contracted, the contrast medium passes easily into the right colon, where it mixes with the fluid levels. This picture is proof of paralytic ileus. A completely different picture is to be found in mechanical ileus of the small intestine; the small intestine is gas-inflated, with fluid levels, and passes nothing on to the colon which, therefore, is contracted in its whole length. This picture also is diagnostic. Barium enema is already known in the diagnosis of mechanical ileus of the large intestine. It can also be used in the diagnosis of paralytic enterocolitis (without diarrhoea) in childhood and old age. In the case of post-operative early ileus it gives a quick and sure differential diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0977_16961", "title": "Extensive small bowel metastasis and peritoneal dissemination 1 year following curative gastrectomy for T1N1 gastric cancer: A case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Metastasis of T1N1 gastric cancer (GC) at early stage after curative gastrectomy is unusual. Reports on the diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis of peritoneal metastasis following curative gastrectomy for T1N1 GC are lacking. A 54-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital with complaints of mild abdominal distension and failure to pass gas and stool for 2 days. She has a history of distal gastrectomy for T1N1 GC. About 1 year after surgery, she presented with persistent abdominal distension and underwent conservative managements. Imaging tests failed to identify the apparent cause of intestinal obstruction. When conservative managements failed to relieve the symptoms, she underwent emergency laparotomy, which revealed extensive small bowel metastasis and peritoneal dissemination. Peritoneal irrigation and drainage were performed with the consent of the patient's families. The patient abandoned further therapy and died 1 week later during the follow-up period. Although the metastasis of T1N1 GC is rare, patients with high risk of metastasis after curative surgery should also be closely followed and be considered as candidates for more aggressive screening strategies. In addition, the use of more effective chemotherapeutic drugs as adjuvant chemotherapy after curative surgery in T1N1 patients may also need to be explored." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0730_15365", "title": "Early diagnosis of bowel motility disorders, with US in urgency, compared to conventional X-ray investigation: personal collection and literature.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Ultrasound investigation is more and more useful instrumental investigation, for early detection of rising signs of bowel occlusion, if compared to conventional abdominal x-ray. A personal collection of 25 intestinal occlusions is reported, comparing the conventional radiographic and ultrasonographic essays. The static x-ray of abdomen didn't reveal adynamic condition in 11/15 patients, confirmed by US supporting clinical examination; 4/25 has been even treated conservatively, completely restored, though radiological diagnosis of occlusion, relying on clinical and sonographic reports. In 9/25 subjects x-ray has not been performed, relying on US only to achieve instrumental diagnosis. The most important advantage of echography, such as dynamic evaluation, allows the study of potential mechanical peristaltic disorders, revealing the stratification of liquid and gas enteric contents, one of the most peculiar sign of intestinal occlusion. Supporting clinical suspect, in the reported collection, it recruited on one hand early surgical solution for the most of them and conservative approach for five patients on the other." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1150_4573", "title": "Ileo-sigmoid knotting- an unusual cause of intestinal obstruction: A case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Ileosigmoid knotting is an unusual cause of intestinal obstruction in which the ileum wraps around the base of the sigmoid colon and its mesentery, which leads to a closed loop intestinal obstruction. A 59-year-old male patient was referred to our center with acute abdominal pain, obstipation and a few episodes of vomiting. On physical examination, he had hypotension and tachycardia as well as distension, diffused tenderness, guarding and rebound tenderness of the abdomen. Bowel sounds were absent. Abdominal Plain X-ray showed dilatation of the large bowel associated with the distended small bowel. After resuscitation with aggressive intravenous fluid therapy, the patient underwent an emergency laparotomy. Exploration revealed gangrene of the intestinal loops, including the jejunum and ileum, which was secondary to a 360° clockwise twisting of the ileal loops around the sigmoid colon. Gangrene of the sigmoid colon along with torsion of the superior mesenteric arteries was also obvious. Resection of the gangrenous loops of the small bowel as well as a sigmoidopexy was carried out and a primary anastomosis of the small intestine and colon was performed. He did well post-operatively. It is crucial to distinguish Ileosigmoid knotting from sigmoid volvulus because it can rapidly, even within hours, progress to bowel gangrene and peritonitis; moreover, in this situation the endoscopic reduction is contraindicated. Ileosegmoid knotting is an unusual cause of bowel obstruction which has relatively high mortality rates and should be considered in patients with acute abdominal pain and presentations of bowel obstruction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0926_23310", "title": "Use of Postmortem Computed Tomography to Detect Bowel Obstruction and its Relationship to the Cause of Death.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Bowel distension frequently indicates bowel obstruction, which is a common diagnosis in clinical radiology. Typically, symptoms and complaints lead to radiological examinations and the detection of the etiology. Untreated intestinal obstructions can lead to a fatal outcome through cardiac failure due to septic shock. Certain of these cases undergo medicolegal investigations depending on the case history, the condition of the decedent, the location of the finding, or recent visits to medical professionals. Computed tomography (CT) is a recommended method in clinical radiology for the detection of bowel obstruction, which is indicated by bowel distension and further radiological signs (eg, the whirl sign, which indicates a volvulus). Postmortem CT (PMCT) has increased worldwide, but PMCT differs from clinical CT; thus, the question of whether PMCT is also reliable for the detection of bowel obstruction in decedents or is negatively affected by postmortem modifications should be discussed. This study consists of 10 cases displaying radiological signs of bowel obstruction. Apart from bowel distension, the most common radiological signs (whirl sign, coffee bean sign, bird beak sign, and u-shape sign) are described and depicted. All decedents underwent autopsy and had a postmortem interval of less than 72 hours. Based on these cases, we assess the reliability of PMCT for detecting bowel obstruction and determining its relationship to the cause of death." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en302_9809", "title": "Chronic diarrhea of infancy", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Hirschsprung's disease (HSCR), a gut motility disorder characterized by a lack of nerve cells in the large intestine which are needed to move the stool through the digestive tract. In infants, HSCR typically presents when a newborn is unable to pass the first feces, or meconium within 48 hours of birth. Other symptoms include blockage of the intestine, fever, rapid release of stool and flatulence upon rectal examination, and may present with diarrhea in infants. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction (IPO), a gut motility disorder characterized by the inability to contract intestinal walls with symptoms similar to intestinal obstruction but lack a distinguishable cause of obstruction. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, dilated or enlarged bowel, constipation and may include diarrhea. Although rare in infants, IPO is a type of congenital disorder that may present with diarrhea in infants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0326_18533", "title": "Simple data from history and physical examination help to exclude bowel obstruction and to avoid radiographic studies in patients with acute abdominal pain.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To assess the value of plain abdominal radiographs and of data from the medical history and physical examination in the diagnosis of acute abdominal pain in general and of bowel obstruction in particular. Prospective study. 4 university and 2 community hospitals, Germany. 1254 patients with acute abdominal pain lasting less than 7 days, and with no history of abdominal injury including surgery. Standardised and structured medical history and physical examination, study of results of plain abdominal radiographs. Positive predictive value and sensitivity of clinical variables and abdominal film with respect to the diagnosis at discharge. 48 patients (3.8%) had bowel obstruction. 704 patients (56.1%) had plain abdominal films taken at the time of initial presentation. 111 studies (15.8%) showed important findings leading to diagnosis or immediate treatment, 455 (64.7%) showed unimportant or no findings. In 138 (19.6%) results of films were not reported. 16 of 45 single variables were of help in diagnosing bowel obstruction. The six with the highest sensitivity were distended abdomen, increased bowel sounds, history of constipation, previous abdominal surgery, age over 50, and vomiting. If only patients presenting with any two of these symptoms had had radiographs taken, 300 (42.6%) could have been avoided without loss in diagnostic accuracy. A considerable number of plain abdominal films taken for patients with acute abdominal pain could be avoided by focusing on clinical variables relevant to the diagnosis of bowel obstruction." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1471, 1885 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 258, 334 ] ], "text": "Perhaps we could think about this one because they talk about pain in the right knee, but this picture that they present us is limited to the right lower limb, they do not talk about other joints or fever or other accompanying systemic symptoms, so it is not an option to evaluate, especially with the other options presented to us that would be more likely in view of the picture presented to us (option 1 false)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 375, 467 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 80 ] ], "text": "We should think of this one because it is the most frequent and possible (correct answer 2)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 989, 1119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 170, 198 ] ], "text": "In a child the most typical would be a fracture at the level of the physis, not at the level of the femoral neck, so we discard 3." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 862, 988 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 148, 170 ] ], "text": "Perthes disease occurs in younger children (4-9 years) with episodes of limping and pain in the hip and knee (false answer 4)." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 723, 861 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 128, 148 ] ], "text": "Complications of dysplasia are dislocations and subluxations that may require surgery and avascular necrosis of the head (false answer 5)." } }

{ "1": "Juvenile chronic arthritis.", "2": "Epiphysiolysis capitis femoris.", "3": "Fracture of the femoral neck due to overload.", "4": "Perthes disease.", "5": "Sequelae of developmental dysplasia of the hip." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0077_3751", "title": "[Delayed diagnosis of epiphysiolysis capitis femoris].", "score": 0.01747674767476748, "content": "The prognosis in epiphysiolysis of the head of the femur (ECF) depends on immediate treatment in the earliest stage of the disease. The reasons for and the extent of delayed diagnosis of slipping of the epiphysis in the hip were analysed in 56 children (72 hips) with ECF. The median total delay was six months with a delay of one month due to the patient and delay of three months due to the doctor. Pain in the lower limbs not related to the hip, including pain in the knee, occurred in 1/3 of the patients and resulted in more extensive delays due to the doctor (median four months). Other reasons for delay due to the doctor were erroneous interpretation of the x-ray films (14 patients). The most characteristic clinical finding was limited internal rotation of the affected hip. Comparison with the literature revealed that delay in the diagnosis of ECF has not been reduced during the past 35 years. Clinical examination of the hips should be undertaken in any child who complains of pain in the knee or thigh. If internal rotation is limited, x-ray examination including Lauenstein's projection should be carried out or the child should be referred to a department of orthopaedic surgery on account of suspected hip disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_108562", "title": "Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease", "score": 0.017261904761904763, "content": "Signs and symptoms The condition is most commonly found in children between the ages of 4 and 10. Common symptoms include pain in the hip, knee, or ankle (since hip pathology can cause pain to be felt in a normal knee or ankle), or in the groin; this pain is exacerbated by hip or leg movement, especially internal hip rotation (with the knee flexed 90°, twisting the lower leg away from the center of the body). The range of motion is reduced, particularly in abduction and internal rotation, and the patient presents with a limp. Pain is usually mild. Atrophy of thigh muscles may occur from disuse and an inequality of leg length. In some cases, some activity can cause severe irritation or inflammation of the damaged area, including standing, walking, running, kneeling, or stooping repeatedly for an extended period of time. In cases exhibiting severe femoral osteonecrosis, pain is usually a chronic, throbbing sensation exacerbated by activity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1033_23538", "title": "Femoral osteotomy to improve range of motion in residual deformity of perthes disease: A case report.", "score": 0.015159747880895457, "content": "The treatment strategies for residual deformity of Perthes disease are not established. This is a case report of a 15-year-old boy. He developed right Perthes disease (lateral pillar classification group B) when he was 10 years old and underwent varus femoral osteotomy of the right side. At 12 years of age, he developed left Perthes disease (lateral pillar classification group B) and underwent varus femoral osteotomy of the left side. Postoperatively, he was treated with partial weight bearing of the left leg with crutches. At 15 years, range of motion (ROM) of his left hip was markedly limited at 30° flexion, 10° abduction, 70° external rotation, and -20° internal rotation, and he was having difficulty maintaining a sitting position. Stulberg group V was noted on plain radiography. Computed tomography (CT) showed collapse of the load-bearing part of the femoral head on the coronal plane, but the ball-shape was maintained in the posterior femoral head on sagittal and transverse sections. Valgus-flexion-internal rotation osteotomy was performed to improve ROM. Left hip ROM improved to 90° flexion, 20° abduction, 50° external rotation, and 40° internal rotation immediately after the surgery. He was able to sit 10 months postoperatively but was left with a limp and limited ROM in the left hip at 60° flexion. Chondroplasty was performed during the plate removal surgery at 10 months postoperatively, which improved hip flexion to 100° immediately after the surgery. The patient was left with limited ROM of 60° flexion of the left hip at the final observation. Femoral osteotomy to improve ROM could be an option for residual deformity of Perthes disease." }, { "id": "article-24174_8", "title": "Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease -- History and Physical -- Physical Examination", "score": 0.013707466537655217, "content": "Decreased internal rotation and abduction of the hip Pain on rotation referred to the anteromedial thigh and/or knee Atrophy of thighs and buttocks from pain leading to disuse Afebrile Leg length discrepancy" }, { "id": "article-40881_3", "title": "Intoeing -- Introduction", "score": 0.011681804785253061, "content": "In coming to understand variational pathologies of the lower limb, it is important to be familiar with the normal growth and development of children’s lower extremities. Neonates are born with about 40 degrees of femoral anteversion or forward rotation of the femoral neck. This increased internal rotation of the hip decreases over time. By about 10 years old, the degree of anteversion decreases by about half. Any deviation from the expected course of limb development and rotation should be recognized and differentiated from the persistence of early angulation, to pathologies preventing normal rotation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_108563", "title": "Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease", "score": 0.010289855072463768, "content": "The first signs are complaints of soreness from the child, which are often dismissed as growing pains, and limping or other guarding of the joint, particularly when tired. The pain is usually in the hip, but can also be felt in the knee (referred pain). In some cases, pain is felt in the unaffected hip and leg, due to the children favoring their injured side and placing the majority of their weight on their \"good\" leg. It is predominantly a disease of boys (4:1 ratio). Perthes is generally diagnosed between 5 and 12 years of age, although it has been diagnosed as early as 18 months. Typically, the disease is only seen in one hip, but bilateral Perthes is seen in about 10% of children diagnosed. Cause Perthes disease is a childhood hip disorder initiated by a disruption of blood flow to the head of the femur. Due to the lack of blood flow, the bone dies (osteonecrosis or avascular necrosis) and stops growing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_18704", "title": "[Perthes disease with onset after nine years of age].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The aim of this study is to evaluate and compare selected clinical and radiological hip joint parameters in Perthes disease with onset before and after 9 years of age. Analysis was based on 261 patients with unilateral Perthes disease. Patient with bilateral changes ware excluded because of earlier onset before 9 years old. The average age of patients at the time of initial symptoms was 7,1 years ( 2,5 - 13 years). The follow-up ranged from 16 to 50 years (average 20, 2 years). The clinical analysis was based on evaluation of age, gender and range of passive abduction. The radiological assessment was based on Catterall and Herring classifications, lateral subluxation, premature physeal closure by Bowen classification, limb length discrepancy, shape of the lateral acetabulum rim, ATD distance and index, center-edge angle, the Mose Classification, epiphyseal index and quotient. Assessments of final results were based on The Mose Classification and the Stulberg Classification. We affirmed that, in children with the onset of disease after 9 years of age, asymmetrical premature physeal closure, major lateralization, grater contour of the head deviation (Mose) and trochanteric overgrowth were more frequent occurred than in children with Perthes disease before 9 years of age. Patients who were over the age of 9 years at the time of onset and have a hip in Catterall 3 group and 4 group together with the lateral pillar B group or C group get a poor outcome. There were not any differences in the outcomes in Catterall 1 and 2 group together with Hering A group depending on age at the time of onset. Both age at the time of onset after 9 and quantity of femoral head necrosis have the most significant impact on the outcome, leading to poor final results. In accordance with our observation we do advise caution in older children's treatment with femoral varus osteotomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0898_5370", "title": "[Long-Term Outcomes of the Treatment of Pediatric Femoral Shaft Fractures Treated with Bryant's Vertical Traction].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "PURPOSE OF THE STUDY The paper aimed to evaluate the long-term outcomes of the treatment of diaphyseal femur fractures in children treated with Bryant's vertical traction. Moreover, we also assessed the size of overgrowth in the injured femur. MATERIAL AND METHODS The study included 23 patients with 23 femoral shaft fractures treated with Bryant's vertical traction at our department in 2009-2014. The following parameters were assessed: sex, ïnjured side, weight, age, mechanism of injury, potential abuse, type of fracture, duration of traction, and total length of hospital stay. The healing time of the fracture was the same as the duration of traction. Also assessed was the size of femoral shortening after the removal of traction, the presence of skin complications in the course of treatment and potential development of compartment syndrome. At the mean follow-up of 47.8 months (range 22-85 months) from the date of injury the patients were evaluated clinically and radiologically for: length of limbs, presence of rotational deformity, range of motion of knee and hip joints, potential pain or limping, potential scoliosis of the spine and presence of scars after traction. Finally, through a questionnaire we learned about the opinions of parents as to the treatment method and about the possibility of home traction. RESULTS All the fractures healed. There was a total of 17 injured boys and 6 injured girls. Whereas 12 patients sustained a fracture of the left femur, 11 patients sustained a fracture of the right femur. The mean weight of patients at the time of injury was 13.9 kg (range 5-20 kg). The mean age at the time of traction was 30.8 months (range 1-70 months). The injury most frequently occurred from various falls, altogether in 15 cases (65.2%). Traffic accidents were registered as the cause of injury in 3 cases (13%). No abuse was confirmed. The average duration of traction was 19.8 days (range 8-26 days). The total length of hospital stay took on average 23.6 days (range 9-33 days). Skin excoriation and bullae due to irritation by the traction occurred in 21 children (91.3% cases). All the bullae healed, in 4 (17.4%) patients minor scars of 1x1 cm in size were formed around ankles. Not a single patient developed the compartment syndrome. The average femoral shortening after the removal of traction was 0.8 cm (range 0-2.3 cm). The follow-up examination, performed on average 47.8 months (range 22-85 months) from the date of injury revealed the average discrepancy of spinomalleolar distances in both the lower limps of 0 cm (range -1 to 1 cm). Radiographically measured lengths of both the femurs showed the average difference of 0 cm (range -1.4 to 0.9 cm). The resulting average overgrowth of injured femur was 0.9 cm (range 0.1 to 3.2 cm). Scoliosis of the spine was not reported in any of the patients. In 3 patients femur alignment demonstrated rotation, namely an external rotation of 10° in all the cases. All the children demonstrated full hip and knee joint mobility, identical to the uninjured side. After a heavy load one patient reported pain in the thigh and one walked with limp. The other patients showed no problems whatsoever. Treatment with the use of Bryant's traction was well tolerated by parents. Altogether 15 parents (65.2%) would opt for the same treatment method in case of a recurrent injury. The home traction option would be welcomed by 17 parents (73.9%). DISCUSSION The treatment by Bryant's vertical traction is condemned in Anglo-Saxon countries due to the risk for developing compartment syndrome, described in earlier studies. Neither our cohort, nor more recent studies reported the occurrence of compartment syndrome. The most frequent complication faced in our study was the skin complications underneath the traction, namely in a total of 91.3% of patients. In the literature, the other authors only make references to bullae occurrence, but do not provide any further specifications. Overgrowth after femoral shaft fractures is a very well described phenomenon. The size of femoral overgrowth described in our study was similar to that referred to in the available literature. A method frequently used abroad is the so-called home traction. This method, however, has so far failed to take root in our country, even though this therapeutic technique would be appreciated by parents. CONCLUSIONS The treatment of femoral shaft fractures by Bryant's vertical traction, in children up to the weight of 15 kg, is a simple and safe method with excellent functional outcomes and minimum serious complications. When treating the children with the body weight more than 15 kg, the risk of bullae formation increases, therefore in this weight category treatment shall be decided upon on a case by case basis. The resulting average overgrowth of injured femur was 0.9 cm which corresponds with the findings of other authors. The treatment method using the Bryant's traction is well tolerated by parents, even though most of them would welcome the option of home traction. Key words: traction, femur fracture, overgrowth, children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0571_19641", "title": "High trochanter location: Natural history or complication following treatment of Perthes' disease?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Background. In Perthes' disease femoral head deformities can be accompanied by high location of the greater trochanter and diminished shaft-neck angle, causing decreased joint stability and diminished hip function. The aim of our study was to compare head-trochanter relationships in hips treated for Perthes' disease using surgical and non-surgical methods. Material and methods. The clinical material consisted of 61 children (68 hips) treated in our hospital from 1990 to 1994; 32 hips were treated conservatively, while 36 hips were operated. The mean observation time was 7.7 years. We re-examined X-rays done at onset, after 3-6 months of treatment, and at final follow-up. The projected shaft-neck angle, ATD (Edgren), and degree of head involvement (Catteral and Herring) were evaluated, while the Stulberg classification was used for outcome evaluation. In clinical examination we looked for Trendelenburg sign, limping, and leg length discrepancy. Results. The value of shaft-neck angle and ATD were correlated with age, sex, degree of head containment, and method of treatment. In boys, comparatively low ATD values were found in both treatment groups. In girls the ATD values were considerably lower in operated hips. High trochanter location and diminished shaft-neck angle had no statistical effect on clinical outcome. Conclusion. The natural course of Perthes' disease causes decreased ATD, regardless of treatment type. In our operative technique, containment may be achieved more by extension (anteflexion) osteotomy of the femur than by pure varisation osteotomy. We found no indication for epiphysiodesis of the greater trochanter combined with anteflexion osteotomy of the femur." }, { "id": "article-22896_41", "title": "Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.009713551230260742, "content": "Other conditions causing leg length discrepancies: Proximal femoral focal deficiency A femoral neck fracture Coxa vara Residual effects of infective arthritis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1032_15308", "title": "Isolated Distal Fibular Stress Fracture after Total Hip Arthroplasty in a Patient with Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Stress fractures following total hip arthroplasty in the lower limbs away from the surgical area are very rare. We report a case of stress fracture in the isolated distal fibula that presented five months after total hip arthroplasty in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip. A 67-year-old woman diagnosed with coxarthrosis of the right hip joint, classified as Crowe's group 3, underwent total hip arthroplasty with acetabular reconstruction using a bulk bone graft. The surgery successfully treated the preoperative leg length discrepancy and flexion and external rotation contractures. The alignment of the right lower limbs changed from slight varus to valgus knee following surgery. The postoperative process went well; however, she experienced lateral ankle pain on the affected side five months after surgery. No obvious fracture was observed via radiograph; however, she received a subsequent diagnosis of isolated distal fibula stress fracture. Additionally, she was diagnosed with vitamin D deficiency. Valgus alignment change of the knee joint and vitamin D deficiency were considered the main causes of the stress fracture. Stress fractures should be suspected in patients complaining of unexpected pain following total hip arthroplasty, even in distant areas of the affected limb, especially in osteoporotic patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_21441", "title": "Double intertrochanteric osteotomy for trochanteric overgrowth and a short femoral neck in adolescents.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To review the outcome of Wagner double intertrochanteric osteotomy for trochanteric overgrowth and a short femoral neck in 7 adolescents. Records of one male and 6 females aged 15 to 20 years who underwent modified Wagner osteotomy for trochanteric overgrowth and a short femoral neck by a single senior surgeon were reviewed. The diagnoses were coxa vara (n=2), developmental dysplasia of the hip (n=3), Leg-Calve-Perthes (n=1), and proximal femoral focal deficiency (n=1). Radiological indication for double intertrochanteric osteotomy included a neck-shaft angle (NSA) &lt;120º or a centre trochanter distance (CTD) &lt;28 mm. Function was evaluated using the Children's Hospıtal Oakland Hip Evaluation Scale (CHOHES). The articulotrochanteric distance (ATD), CTD, NSA, and the distance between the centre of the femoral head and the centre of the acetabulum (MZ) were measured on radiographs. The mean follow-up duration was 61 (range, 28-86) months. The ATD improved from 16±11.5 mm to -6.3±10.2 mm (p=0.018), the CTD from 27.9±3.5 mm to 36.4±7.1 mm (p=0.018), the NSA from 112º±24.4º to 131º±16º (p=0.028), the MZ from 12.7±6.5 mm to 7.7±4.2 mm (p=0.028), and the CHOHES score from 62.1±8.7 to 84±9.6 (p=0.017). One patient had delayed union. Two patients had persistent Trendelenburg gait. Two patients declined second-stage surgery for acetabular dysplasia after solving the femoral side problems at the first stage. One of them developed hip arthrosis. Double intertrochanteric osteotomy is a viable treatment option for adolescents with trochanteric overgrowth and a short femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1069_18679", "title": "Ipsilateral femoral neck and shaft fracture in children: Two case reports.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pediatric femoral shaft combined with ipsilateral femoral neck fractures are very rare but challenging injuries fraught with the development of avascular necrosis, coxa vara, and leg length discrepancy. Majority of the previous reports indicated the neck femur fracture was fixed with cannulated screws or/and pins, femoral shaft fracture was stabilized with a plate and screws. However, we used cannulated screws combined with elastic stable intramedullary nails to minimally invasive procedures treat this type of injury and achieved good follow-up results. A 7-year-old boy (Case 1) was hospitalized due to a traffic accident resulting in swelling and deformity of the right thigh accompanied by limited mobility of hip and knee. A 5-year-old male child (Case 2) presented with pain and swelling in the bilateral lower limb after fall from approximately 12 feet. Physical examination, X-ray film, and computed tomography were performed. Both patients were diagnosed with ipsilateral femoral neck and shaft fracture. The fractures were reduced closed by image-intensifier imaging. Two partially threaded cancellous screws were used to fix femoral neck fracture, and elastic intramedullary nails were performed to stable the femoral shaft fracture. Postoperatively, the patients were immobilized in a one-and-a-half hip spica cast for six weeks. The internal fixations were removed after one year. Case one was follow-up at 14 months and the other one was followed up for 3 years. And at the last follow-up showed a normal and painless hip function. No clinical complications were found during follow-up visit, including head penetration, implant failure, fracture nonunion, avascular necrosis and hip varus deformity. Clinician should carefully check and read relevant imaging data to avoid missed diagnosis. And the internal fixation method described in this paper may be more minimally invasive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1165_9625", "title": "Perthes disease: comparison of two surgical options.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Varus intertrochanteric osteotomy (ITO) remains the most popular method to contain the fragmenting femoral head in Perthes disease. However, resultant compromise of hip abductors may result in coxa brevis and acetabular dysplasia, increasing the risk of requiring future surgery. A minimally invasive strategy of tension plating the greater trochanter was developed in effort to avoid these consequences. The objective is to compare greater trochanter-guided growth to ITO for treatment of Perthes disease. This IRB approved, retrospective review compares two series of children with Perthes, one treated with ITO and one with greater trochanter-guided growth (GG). Clinical examination findings and clinical course were recorded via chart review. Weight-bearing pelvic X-rays were analyzed preoperatively and at the last known follow-up prior to other procedures. There were 58 patients: 18 underwent ITO versus 40 GG. The groups matched in age, sex, examination, and radiographic parameters. Average follow-up was 5 years. The change in the center head-trochanteric distance (CTD) was statistically significant (P &lt; 0.05), -0.3 cm in GG versus -1.09 cm in ITO patients. At final follow-up, the ITO group was more likely to have LLD ≥ 2 cm (16.67% vs. 0%; P = 0.03) and 52.5% of GG patients were classified as Stulberg III or greater, versus 72.2% of the ITO group (P &lt; 0.001). Ninety-four percent of ITO patients versus 40% of GG required additional surgery. Containment by ITO reflects exclusive focus upon the femoral head, without considering long-term sequelae. GG addresses the femoral neck issues potentially providing better outcomes. Level of Evidence. This is a level III study providing further understanding of the properties of the proximal femoral physes and an alternative for surgical management of perthes disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1146_13100", "title": "Perthes Disease in a Child With Osteogenesis Imperfecta From a Rare Genetic Variant: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "<bBackground:</b Although certain genetic components have been reported as contributing factors for Perthes disease, its etiology remains unclear. We present a rare case of Perthes disease in a child with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) caused by a mutation in the <iCOL1A1</i gene <i(NM_000088):exon25:c.1726C&gt;T, (p.Gln576X)</i. <bCase presentations:</b A 7-year-old boy was initially treated at our medical facility in March 2016 with a history of chronic pain in right hip joint and limping for a year. He was diagnosed as Perthes disease in the right hip joint. He underwent acetabular osteotomy and ipsilateral proximal femoral varus osteotomy for better containment. During the follow-ups, the right hip demonstrated a normal range of motion without pain, and the pelvic X-ray demonstrated Stulberg Type II hip joint with a round femoral head. In the latest admission in 2022, he suffered from a right femoral shaft fracture after petty violence. After reviewing his medical history, he was suspected of having OI. The whole exome sequencing demonstrated a gene mutation in <iCOL1A1</i (OMIM 166200) and confirmed the diagnosis of OI. Telescopic nailing was used to treat the femoral shaft fracture. After the nailing of the right femur, the appearance of the lower extremity seemed normal and symmetrical. <bConclusion:</b This study revealed that there might be an association between OI and Perthes disease. Our case report enriches the phenotypes of osteogenesis imperfecta and provides insight into the pathogenesis of LCPD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0247_4781", "title": "[Painful hip joint with epiphyseal dysplasia (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Among patients who visited our hip clinic, eighteen patients from ten families were diagnosed as mild or atypical cases of spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia or multiple epiphyseal dysplasia. Clinical and X-ray examinations of these patients showed common characteristic features as follows. 1. They usually had short stature but were not dwarfs. Their facial features and body proportions did not suggest hereditary bone dysplasia. 2. Although the disease might be transmitted in an autosomal dominant manner, its occurrence among these families was found to be sporadic. 3. Symptoms of the hip joint mainly resulted from limited range of motion, coxalgia being usually less than expected from X-ray findings. 4. Joints were always affected bilaterally although the degree might be different on each side. 5. In the majority of the cases, the spine, shoulder (in 7 cases), knee (in 6 cases), elbow (in 3 cases), ankle, and wrist joint (in 2 cases) were also affected. 6. Characteristic X-ray findings of the hip joints were as follows. a) Coxa vara, flattening or rectanglar deformity of the femoral head and shortening of the femoral neck. b) The trabecular pattern of the femoral head was irregular and subchondral cysts were often observed. c) Joint space was relatively better restored than expected from the deformity and subchondral bony changes of the femoral head. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia and multiple epiphyseal dysplasia are genetic disorders of the epiphyseal and apophyseal cartilage. The hip joint is loading greater mechanical force than any other joint. In both spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia and multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, the hip joint is always affected. As the hip joint is most vulnerable when there is some disorder of the epiphyseal cartilage, it is probably the only detectable abnormal joint. In relatively short period (1972-1978), the diagnosis of mild or atypical spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia was made in 18 patients in our hip clinic. This means that the mild or atypical cases of spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia is not so rare as expected. They might be misdiagnosed as aseptic necrosis, deformity of the femoral head due to Perthes disease or primary osteoarthrosis. An extreme care should be taken when we examine such patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en061_23511", "title": "Slipped capital femoral epiphysis", "score": 0.009507678410117435, "content": "SCFEs are most common in adolescents 11–15 years of age, and affects boys more frequently than girls (male 2:1 female). It is strongly linked to obesity, and weight loss may decrease the risk. Other risk factors include: family history, endocrine disorders, radiation / chemotherapy, and mild trauma. The left hip is more often affected than the right. Over half of cases may have involvement on both sides (bilateral). See also Legg–Calvé–Perthes syndrome – another cause of avascular necrosis of the femoral head, seen in younger children than SCFE Hip dysplasia Drehmann sign – Clinical test examining for SCFE References External links Chondropathies Skeletal disorders Rare diseases Medical terminology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0934_25536", "title": "Duration of Anti-Programmed Death-1 Therapy in Advanced Melanoma: How Much of a Good Thing Is Enough?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The Oncology Grand Rounds series is designed to place original reports published in the Journal into clinical context. A case presentation is followed by a description of diagnostic and management challenges, a review of the relevant literature, and a summary of the authors' suggested management approaches. The goal of this series is to help readers better understand how to apply the results of key studies, including those published in Journal of Clinical Oncology, to patients seen in their own clinical practice. A 53-year-old healthy man presented with recurrent in-transit melanoma of the right lower extremity. Eight years prior he had undergone wide local excision and sentinel lymph node biopsy for invasive melanoma of the anteromedial aspect of the distal right thigh. Pathology revealed an ulcerated melanoma, Breslow depth 3.5 mm, and with one involved micrometastatic inguinal lymph node. Staging studies did not demonstrate distant metastases. Superficial inguinal node dissection was performed and did not identify any additional metastatic nodes of 14 retrieved for a final pathologic staging of T3bN1aM0 (stage IIIB) cutaneous melanoma. He received 12 months of adjuvant high-dose interferon alfa-2b. Two years later, he developed a 1.2-cm subcutaneous focus of in-transit recurrence approximately 4 cm proximal to the original melanoma site in the right thigh, which was treated with surgical resection followed by adjuvant radiotherapy. Over the next 4 years, he underwent six additional surgeries for isolated in-transit recurrences affecting the same limb. He was referred for therapeutic options at the time of his latest in-transit recurrence. Examination revealed three palpable subcutaneous nodules in the right thigh in the setting of lymphedema. A core biopsy confirmed recurrent melanoma (Fig 1). Whole-body fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography imaging revealed at least 17 hypermetabolic cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules in the right thigh, four fluorodeoxyglucose-avid nodules below the right knee, but no distant metastases (Fig 2A). Brain magnetic resonance imaging was normal. His serum chemistry profile, including lactate dehydrogenase, was normal. Molecular analysis demonstrated presence of BRAF V600E mutation in the tumor. After multidisciplinary evaluation, an isolated limb infusion procedure of the right lower extremity was not believed to be feasible, secondary to the proximal extent of the recurrence. Therapy was initiated with pembrolizumab at 2 mg/kg intravenously every 3 weeks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0560_16842", "title": "Hip deformity in symptomatic adult Perthes' disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Only a limited number of patients that suffered from Legg-Calvé-Perthes' disease (LCPD) develop pain in early adulthood. Classical hinged abduction is well known and is thought to be responsible for secondary lateral insufficiency of the acetabulum, which may become painful. Another possible explanation, which was put forward more recently, is anterior femoroacetabular impingement. We collected information about the exact morphology of the proximal femur and the acetabulum of 15 hips in 15 young adults (mean age: 25.3 years) who had hip surgery consequent to childhood Perthes' disease in our hospital between 1974 and 2001. In addition to the well known lateral bulging of the femoral head, averaging 112% of the functional radius, we found an even larger anterior bulging, averaging 115% of the functional radius. The mean torsion of the femoral head was -3.6 degrees, which in fact corresponds to a retrotorsion. Retroversion of the acetabulum was found in at least 5 of the 15 hips in which the version could be adequately assessed (33%). Since any of the above deformities favours anterior femoroacetabular impingement and thus hinged flexion, this could well be a contributor to the development of the classic sequelae of LCPD and to the later development of osteoarthritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0498_18136", "title": "A two- stage surgery for severe femoral neck deformity due to fibrous dysplasia: a case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Various kinds of surgical treatments have been reported for varus deformity of the proximal femur due to fibrous dysplasia. We report a case of two-stage corrective osteotomy for severe varus-retroversion deformity of the femoral neck due to monostotic fibrous dysplasia. The patient was an 18 year-old man. On initial examination, the spina malleollar distance was 88 cm on the right side and 83 cm on the left. Plain radiography showed prominent varus deformity of his left proximal femur. The morphology was 130 degrees on the right side and 85 degrees on the left. Computed tomography revealed 60 degree retroversion of the femoral neck. A two-stage surgery was performed, consisting of curettage and bone grafting followed by corrective osteotomy 16 months later. A 55 degree valgus osteotomy was performed in the subtrochanteric region. After osteotomy and 40 degree internal rotation of the shaft, a 130 degree angle plate was used for osteosynthesis. Postoperative radiological examination showed a morphology of 140 degrees and computed tomography revealed a 20 degree retroversion of the femoral neck. No recurrence or varus deformity was seen at four years after surgery. Although the leg length discrepancy was 2.5 cm, the patient had no difficulty in one foot standing and no restriction of ADL (activity of daily living). The well-known progressive varus Shepherd's crook deformity in the polyostotic form of fibrous dysphasia is associated with limb shortening, limping, and occasionally chronic fatigue fractures with disabling pain. Various kinds of surgical treatments have been reported for this type of varus deformity. Curettage and bone grafting is one of the most common and simple treatments. However, this method often gives bad results as the grafted bones are absorbed and that the progress of varus deformity van not to be prevented. We report a case of two-stage corrective osteomy forsevere varus-retroversion deformity of the femoral neck due to monostotic fibrous dysplasia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0122_10510", "title": "[Results of the follow-up of varus osteotomy in Perthes disease with reference to the hip value].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A total of 89 patients with 105 hip joints affected by Perthes' disease at Catterall's stages II to IV, which had been treated by varus osteotomy, were re-examined clinically and radiologically between two and ten years after surgery. The clinical and subjective results of treatment were generally good. The best clinical and radiologic results were found in patients who contracted the disease before the age of seven and in whom necrosis was not yet at an advanced stage. The results in children who did not undergo treatment until after the age of eight and those with the disease at Catterall's stage IV were significantly poorer as far as arthrotic deformation of the hip joint was concerned. Radiologic evaluation of the hips examined, with regard to severity of arthrosis, epiphyseal index, and hip value show that the hip value is the best means of distinguishing prearthrotically deformed hip joints from normal findings. For example, at the time of follow-up severe prearthrotic changes were found in 40 of 105 hip joints when the hip values were analyzed. Therefore, in cases of Perthes' disease also, the hip value is of special importance in prognostic counseling of patients as regards the extent to which the hip joint can be subjected to stress either at work or in sports." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en061_23501", "title": "Slipped capital femoral epiphysis", "score": 0.009238318754000427, "content": "SCFE is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. One in five cases involves both hips, resulting in pain on both sides of the body. SCFEs occurs slightly more commonly in adolescent males, especially young black males, although it also affects females. Whilst it can occur in any child, the major risk factor is childhood obesity. Symptoms include the gradual, progressive onset of thigh or knee pain with a painful limp. Hip motion will be limited, particularly internal rotation. Running, and other strenuous activity on legs, will also cause the hips to abnormally move due to the condition and can potentially worsen the pain. Stretching is very limited." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_110056", "title": "Coxa vara", "score": 0.0091791406134866, "content": "Clinical feature: presents after the child has started walking but before six years of age. Usually associated with a painless hip due to mild abductor weakness and mild limb length discrepancy. If there is a bilateral involvement the child might have a waddling gait or trendelenburg gait with an increased lumbar lordosis. The greater trochanter is usually prominent on palpation and is more proximal. Restricted abduction and internal rotation. X-ray: decreased neck shaft angle, increased cervicofemoral angle, vertical physis, shortened femoral neck decrease in femoral anteversion. HE angle (Hilgenriener epiphyseal angle- angle subtended between a horizontal line connecting the triradiate cartilage and the epiphysis); normal angle is <30 degrees. Treatment: HE angle of 45–60 degrees: observation and periodic follow up. Indication for surgery: HE angle more than 60 degrees, progressive deformity, neckshaft angle <90 degrees, development of Trendelenburg gait" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0892_4743", "title": "Clinical Case of the Month: A 49 Year-Old Man Who Presents with Left Sided Weakness: An Update on Ischemic Stroke.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 49 year-old man with a past medical history significant for essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease status post percutaneous coronary intervention and stent placement in the right coronary artery in 2010 presented for evaluation of left hemiplegia. He was feeling well until three hours prior to presentation, at which time he fell while walking from his bedroom into the kitchen. After falling, he noticed that his left upper and lower extremities felt weak. He denied any symptoms preceding the fall or any loss of consciousness. On initial exam, the temperature was 99°F, the pulse was 93 beats per minute, the blood pressure was 191/100 mmHg, the respiratory rate was 22 breaths per minute, and the oxygen saturation was 100% while breathing room air. His neurological exam revealed diminished strength in the left upper extremity: 4/5 arm abduction and adduction of the left shoulder; 4/5 elbow and wrist extension and flexion; and 4/5 extension, abduction, and adduction of the digits. The patient also exhibited slight left upper extremity pronator drift. The strength was also diminished in the left lower extremity: 2/5 hip flexion, extension, and rotation; 3/5 knee flexion and extension; and 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. Initial NIH stroke scale score was 5, otherwise, there were no focal neurological deficits and the remainder of his exam was unremarkable. Initial computed tomography (CT) of the head was negative for any acute intracranial hemorrhage or infarct. A subsequent CT cerebral perfusion scan (Figure 1) was notable for areas of ischemia in the right cingulate gyrus as well as the medial frontal and parietal lobes. CT angiogram of the neck revealed bilateral atherosclerotic plaque in the carotid arteries; however, there was no evidence of any flow-limiting stenosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0114_13440", "title": "[Long-term development of primary osteochondritis of the hip (Legg-Perthes-Calvé). Apropos of 60 hips with a follow-up of more than 30 years].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "This study concerns 60 hips in 57 patients aged between 33 and 56 years with a follow-up of 30 to 44 years since the onset of the disease. The progress of the condition was assessed by objective and subjective clinical criteria and radiographic criteria including roundness of the head, head height, head cover, abnormal head shape and the presence of arthrosis. The main prognostic feature was found to be the eventual shape of the femoral head. Normal heads (7 cases) and round heads with some flattening (20 cases) had few problems at the time of follow-up. Irregular heads (7 cases) and, most of all, very irregular heads (20 cases) progressed badly. Pain was common, often severe and the patients were disabled. Fourteen of them had consulted a doctor and seven had already been treated surgically. Arthrosis as a consequence of osteochondritis seemed to be due to joint incongruence. We consider that the prognosis can be made at the end of the progressive phase of the disease, since remodelling plays no part in the roundness of the head. These findings indicate the need for care in recommending treatment in the residual phase of the disease and suggest that it is difficult to determine what surgical treatment should be considered in adult life." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en491_27457", "title": "Hip pain", "score": 0.009134134134134133, "content": "Figure 1. X-ray in pediatrics X-ray of infants should be obtained with the pelvis in neutral position with the lower limbs held in neutral rotation and slight flexion. Hip dysplasia Despite the widespread of ultrasound, pelvis X-ray is still frequently used to diagnose and/or monitor hip dysplasia or for assessing other congenital conditions or bone tumors. The most useful lines and angles that can be drawn in the pediatric pelvis assessing DDH are as follows: Joint effusion Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) Most cases of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) develop between the ages of 4 and 10 years (Figure 3). Classification of its severity can be assessed by radiographs. Herring or lateral pillar classifications and the patient’s age strongly correlate with the outcome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1037_14393", "title": "SubcapitalNeck of Femur Fracture in a Case of Osteonecrosis of Femoral Head - Rare Presentation.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Osteonecrosis of femoral head is a common debilitating condition affecting young males most commonly. It is endpoint of a series of events leading to disturbance in the blood supply of femoral head. Rarely, these cases present with acute pain following trivial trauma due to pathological fracture in the neck of femur. We present a rare case of pathological subcapital neck of femur fracture in a case of osteonecrosis of femoral head. These cases should not be confused with post-traumatic neck of femur fracture. A 28-year-old male student presented with history of acute pain in right hip and inability to walk after a squatting event. He was diagnosed to have osteonecrosis of bilateral femoral head 1 year back, for which he denied further treatment. On clinical examination, right hip examination was painful with flexion, adduction, and external rotation deformity. Radiological examination revealed fracture at subcapital region in neck of right femur with osteonecrosis of femoral head. After discussing treatment options with the patient, we performed total hip arthroplasty (THA). Harris hip scores improved from 17.1 to 83.5. The presentation of osteonecrosis of femoral head with pathological fractures is rare. Furthermore, it is not included in the commonly used classifications. Osteosynthesis of pathological fracture of neck of femur with osteonecrosis of femoral head rarely has good results.THAcan be a good option in these cases with good functional results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0614_1232", "title": "[Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease--diagnostics and contemporary treatment].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease represents avascular necrosis of the femoral head in a growing child. It commonly affects children aged 2-14 years, mostly boys, and has familiar pattern. The etiology of this disease is unknown. It is based on avascular necrosis due to variations of the femoral head vascular supply, trauma, coagulation of endocrine disturbances. The disease presents with limping and pain localized in the hip with projection to thigh and knee, frequently accompanied by the limitation of abduction and internal rotation, as well as slight limitation in flexion of about 20 degrees. Plain radiography is most informative additional diagnostic procedure, enabling assessment of the stage of disease, containment of the femoral head within the acetabulum, acetabular coverage and the extent of disease. Main treatment goal is obtaining the spherical congruity of the hip joint. This can be achieved by abduction bracing, varization femoral osteotomies and various innominate osteotomies (sometimes combined with femoral osteotomies). Children younger than four years of age, with minimal femoral head involvement, do not need any treatment. These children with a larger involvement, older than four years of age, with possible containment in hip abducion, should be treated by one of the following procedures: Salter innominate osteotomy, Salter innominate osteotomy with femoral shortening, or triple pelvic osteotomy. The patients with containment of the hip is not possible in abduction (related to subluxation and femoral head crush), should be treated by Chiari pelvic osteotomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1032_1619", "title": "Proximal Femoral Rotational Osteotomy for Symptomatic Femoral Retroversion : A Case Report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The Rotational osteotomy for femoral retroversion has been extremely rare despite the known association between femoral neck retroversion, hip pain, and osteoarthritis. Here, we describe a case of femoral neck retroversion for which proximal femoral rotation osteotomy. A 16-year-old boy with a past history of developmental dysplasia of the both hip treated conservatively presented with a complaint of pain in left hips. On physical examination, flexion of the left hip was limited to 90° with terminal pain. Internal rotation was also limited to 10°. Computed tomography (CT) showed -7.1° anteversion of the left femur. We performed rotational osteotomy to increase femoral anteversion because conservative treatment was not effective. The postoperative course was uneventful. At 12 postoperative months, his left hip pain was completely disappeared and femoral anteversion was 34° on CT scans. Retroversion of the femur is a distinct dynamic factor that should be considered in the evaluation of mechanical causes of hip pain. Restoring the normal rotational alignment of the hip resulted in cure of the impingement due to femoral retroversion. J. Med. Invest. 67 : 214-216, February, 2020." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0604_7651", "title": "Unilateral hip osteoarthritis: can we predict the outcome of the other hip?", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The objective of this study was to define, in unilateral hip osteoarthritis (OA), factors predicting the outcome of the other hip. We examined the anteroposterior radiographs of the pelvis of 95 white patients with unilateral idiopathic (56 patients) or secondary to congenital hip diseases (39 patients) OA. The other hip was free from symptoms (pain or limping) at the initial examination and without radiographic evidence of OA; it was what we call a \"normal\" hip. Two parameters were evaluated: (1) the type of osteoarthritis of the involved hip and (2) the range of four radiographic indices of the contralateral hip: the sourcil inclination (weight-bearing surface), the acetabular angle, the Wiberg's center-edge angle, and the neck-shaft angle. Follow-up radiographs for the hips that remained OA-free were available for 10 to 35 years and for those that developed OA, at the time of initial symptoms, range 2 to 31 years. Logistic regression analysis showed that the presence of idiopathic OA in one hip had a statistically significant effect on the development of OA on the other hip (p &lt; 0.001). Minor deviations of radiographic indices of the contralateral hip is not a predictive factor for its outcome. When the radiographic indices are examined together with the pathology of the involved hip, only WBS was shown to have a significant effect to the development of OA and its type (p &lt; 0.001). The following conclusions can be drawn from this study: 1. Patient with idiopathic OA of one hip is at increased risk of developing OA in the other hip. 2. The outcome of the other hip cannot be predicted only on the basis of the evaluation of its radiographic indices. 3. Among the different indices, WBS seems to have a strong influence toward the development of OA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_21150", "title": "External rotational positioning of the leg after intertrochanteric combined varus-derotational osteotomy in Perthes' disease.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 13-year-old boy underwent an intertrochanteric combined varus derotational osteotomy (VDO) for Perthes' disease of his right hip. After surgery he walked with his right leg externally rotated. Computed tomography scans of both knees and hips were obtained with the legs in their spontaneous position to evaluate rotation and anteversion. The femoral condyles were in 28 degrees of external rotation on the operated side compared with 2 degrees on the non-operated side. The angle between the femoral neck and the horizontal plane was 32 degrees on both sides. We conclude that there may be a risk that a derotational osteotomy may produce an external rotational position of the leg instead of altering the angle between the femoral neck and the horizontal plane." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1068_23485", "title": "[A case of proximal-type Hirayama disease associated with neck axial rotation].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Hirayama disease is characterized by juvenile onset of unilateral muscular atrophy of a distal upper extremity. The pathogenic mechanism of Hirayama disease is cervical cord compression by the posterior dura with forward displacement in the neck flexion position. A few cases of 'proximal-type Hirayama disease' have been described as showing muscular weakness and atrophy of the proximal upper extremities caused by the pathogenic mechanism similar to that of Hirayama disease. We report herein the case of a 16-year-old boy with proximal-type Hirayama disease, who developed symptoms after he began kyudo (Japanese traditional archery). Neurological examination revealed bilateral weakness of the muscles innervated by C5 and C6 segments (the deltoid, biceps brachii, brachioradialis), bilateral mild sensory disturbance in the radial side of the forearm, absent tendon reflexes of the biceps brachii and brachioradialis with preserved triceps reflex, pyramidal signs of the bilateral lower extremities (pathologically brisk reflexes of lower extremities, Babinski's signs). MR images in the neck flexion position showing expansion of the posterior extradural space and forward displacement of the spinal cord at the C3/4, C4/5, C5/6 and C6/7 disk levels. CT myelogram revealed spinal cord compression not only in neck flexion but also in neck left axial rotation. His symptoms improved after the restriction of neck flexion and axial rotation. Weakness of the upper extremities improved after 2 months. Pyramidal signs of the lower extremities disappeared after 18 months. The pathogenic mechanism in this case may be associated with not only neck flexion but also neck axial rotation." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 314 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 57 ] ], "text": "The mother should be isolated for the first 2-4 weeks of treatment, after which she would no longer be contagious. If the result of the repeat PT is still negative, the child should not be tested again. If it is positive, the X-ray (or pulmonary CT in younger children) should be repeated." } }

{ "1": "Only separate him from the mother until her treatment is completed (at least 6 months).", "2": "Perform a high-resolution CT scan of the lung, and if normal, repeat PT at 8-12 weeks.", "3": "Chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid (INH) until the mother's smear test is negative.", "4": "Chemoprophylaxis with INH 6-9 months. New PT and chest X-ray at the end of treatment, to decide whether or not to conclude treatment.", "5": "Chemoprophylaxis with INH, 8-12 weeks. Repeat PT. If negative, stop treatment. If positive, perform chest X-ray to decide whether or not there is disease." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0589_11030", "title": "[Tuberculosis in the mother and child].", "score": 0.017419787091491105, "content": "Tuberculosis is a scourge in our region; it is particularly dangerous in young children, above all those of tuberculous mothers. The object of this study is to evaluate the prevalence of tuberculosis in the children of tuberculous mothers and to determine how to increase their chances of survival and healthy development. Between 1 January and 31 July 2002, 45 women were admitted to hospital with a child of less than 5 years. They received (mothers and children) an intradermal tuberculin test (IDTT) of 10 i.u., chest x-ray, and sputum examination for the mothers. 45 women (aged from 18 to 45 years) were hospitalised for sputum positive tuberculosis, an average IDTT of 13 mm and a high bacterial load (1 to&gt;10 bacilli/hpf). Almost all (96%) presented with cavitating parenchymatous disease. We found no cases positive for HIV. Progress was satisfactory in 43 mothers treated with SRHZ. There were 2 deaths. In the children who were systematically examined, 82% (37) were less than 20 months old, there were 23 boys (51%), and 26 children (58%) were symptomatic at the first consultation. All the children were breast fed, explaining their admission with their mother. Evidence of tuberculous contact was found, 6 times with the father and 4 times with the grandparents. The most common physical signs were fever (92%) cough and weight loss (77%), malnutrition (69%). The IDTT was positive in 38/45 (84.5%) and pustular in 16/38 (42%). The chest x-ray was normal in 16/45 (35.6%), revealed mediastinal adenopathy in 19/29 (65.5%), accompanied by ipsilateral ventilatory problems in 11/29 (38%) and by parenchymal involvement in 3/29 (10.3%). Progress was satisfactory in 44 children on antituberculous treatment (RHE). There was one death on account over severe malnutrition. Treatment of tuberculosis in the mother and child is a guarantee of recovery for the mother and healthy development for the child. S: streptomycin, R: rifampicin, H: isoniazid, E: ethambutol, Z: pyrazinamide." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0585_15199", "title": "[Should pulmonary computed tomography be performed in children with tuberculosis infection without apparent disease?].", "score": 0.01611875637104995, "content": "During early childhood, in particular, there is a continuum between tuberculosis infection and disease. When establishing the diagnosis in a child with suspected tuberculosis, the distinction between infection and disease frequently depends on the interpretation of the chest X-ray. Some studies have shown hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathies on computed tomography (CT) in children with tuberculosis infection without apparent disease, i.e., asymptomatic children with a positive tuberculin skin test and normal chest X-ray. These observations raise the issue of whether pulmonary CT should be performed in children with tuberculosis infection without apparent disease and whether different types of therapy should be administered depending on the results. We reviewed the physiopathology of tuberculosis infection and disease, diagnostic methods and treatment, and the literature on the use of pulmonary CT scan in pediatric tuberculosis. Modern CT scanners indicate hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathies in many of the children with tuberculosis infection with no apparent disease on chest X-rays. However, neither the size nor the morphology of these adenopathies allows active tuberculosis to be diagnosed. The natural history of childhood tuberculosis indicates that most children show hilar lymphadenopathies after the primary infection, although progression to disease is rare and is characterized by the presence of clinical symptoms. The exceptions are children younger than 4 years old and those with immune alterations who more frequently show progression of infection to disease and who require close follow-up. In addition, the experience accumulated over many years in the treatment of tuberculosis infection with isoniazid has shown this drug to be effective in both short- and long-term prevention of active disease. Official guidelines and expert opinion do not recommend systematic pulmonary CT scan in these children or modification of treatment according to the results. Hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes are frequently found in the CT scans of children with tuberculosis infection without apparent disease but there is no evidence that these adenopathies indicate active disease or that these children require different treatment. Consequently, until demonstrated otherwise, pulmonary CT scanning and changes in chemoprophylaxis are not justified in children with tuberculosis infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0007_2489", "title": "[Chemotherapy of the source and the risk of infection in home contacts].", "score": 0.01497587220589051, "content": "An attack treatment with 3 drugs during 4-6 months and a consolidation treatment with 2 drugs then INH was applied in 595 cases detected between July 1, 1968 and June 30, 1972, i.e. 264 group A (positive), 200 group B (negative cultures) and 131 group C (pleuretics). The contacts had been in close contact with the source for at least three months before establishing the diagnosis; 549 had been vaccinated at birth with BCG and 209 revaccinated; 413 had undergone chemoprophylaxis with INH. The control group comprised 1008 subjects, the mean age of the groups being very close; they were followed up for 2 years and 1 month and 2 years and 7 months. Testing was done every year with 1 u PPD IC 65. The contacts were controlled annually by radiophotography and X-ray and the controls only in case of shifting of the test. Among the contacts there were 44 conversions in the subjects with an initial tuberculin reaction of 0-5 mm and 4 in those with an initial tuberculin reaction of 6-9 mm, representing 15.1% (group A 27.7%, group B 9,8%, group C 10.5%). Three months after the initiation of chemotherapy the proportion of conversions in the three groups (group A 12.3%, group B 5.9%, group C 10.5%) was equal to that of the controls (8.8%). The next year there were 11.2% conversions among the contracts (group A 11.4%, group B 9.6% and C 17.7%) as against 11.9% among the controls. In the first year 8.3% of the contacts contracted tuberculosis (A 15.6%, B 2.4%, C 4.0%) and 0.32% of the controls. The next year 2.8% of the contacts fell ill (A 4.3%, B 2%, C 0%) and 0.5% of the controls. Among group A contacts aged 0 to 6 years there were 31.7% conversions and 30.7% cases of tuberculosis in the first year, and 7.1% and 1.8% respectively in the following year. Group B and C presented 10.9% conversions and 6% cases of disease in the first year, and no case of tuberculosis in the second year. Chemotherapy reduced conversions and sickness in this group three months after the diagnosis was established." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0710_1260", "title": "Lack of adherence to isoniazid chemoprophylaxis in children in contact with adults with tuberculosis in Southern Ethiopia.", "score": 0.014374454540787514, "content": "Hawassa, Southern Region of Ethiopia. To determine compliance to isoniazid (INH) preventive therapy (IPT) and its effectiveness in preventing (TB) disease in children in contact with adults with pulmonary TB (PTB). This was a prospective cohort study of children &lt;15 years old in contact with adults with smear-positive PTB. Asymptomatic children ≤5 years were provided IPT independently of their Tuberculin Skin Test (TST) status and children &gt;5 years old were given advice but did not receive IPT, as recommended by the National TB control programme. Compliance to IPT and incidence of clinical TB were determined monthly for six months and then quarterly for up to 30 months. One hundred and eighty four children in contact with 83 smear-positive PTB cases were identified. Eighty two were ≤5 and 102&gt;5 years old. Only 27 (33%) of 82 children given IPT took it for &gt;4 months and 10 (12%) completed the 6-month course. The main reason for non-compliance was the perception that drugs were not necessary when the child was healthy. Eleven children (all except one &gt;5 years old) developed symptoms of TB disease and initiated treatment, resulting in an incidence of 28.6 cases for all and 53.5 for children &gt;5 years old per 1000 children-year. Compliance to IPT in children is poor in Southern Region of Ethiopia and this was associated with the parents' perception of the low importance of chemoprophylaxis in asymptomatic children. Poor compliance might be an important barrier for the wider implementation of IPT. Clinicaltrials.gov NCT00456469." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_16816", "title": "Tuberculosis in children and its management.", "score": 0.013303378705783886, "content": "Children with tuberculosis (TB) in the United States are generally asymptomatic, 60% are under 5 years, 80% belong to racial/ethnic minorities or are foreign born, and most are diagnosed during the investigation of contacts of known cases of pulmonary TB. A presumptive diagnosis of primary TB is made on the basis of a positive tuberculin reaction and a characteristic chest roentgenogram, usually showing hilar adenopathy. Treatment may be with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RIF), largely twice weekly for 9 months, or INH, RIF, and pyrazinamide for 2 months followed for 4 months by INH and RIF. Four drugs are needed in cases of infection with drug-resistant organisms or in tuberculous meningitis. All therapy must be closely monitored for toxicity and compliance. In noncompliant families, all medication should be directly administered. This is now possible with short-course therapy, largely twice weekly. Preventive therapy for the tuberculin positive, but disease-free child, is provided more cost-efficiently with 6 months than with 12 months of treatment with INH; less than 6 months is not adequate. All tuberculin reactive children should receive INH for 6 months. More diligence in providing INH prophylaxis to adult reactors will decrease future infectious TB cases, and thus prevent transmission to other children." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_38455", "title": "Latent tuberculosis", "score": 0.01317995710664847, "content": "A person who has taken the complete course of Isoniazid (or other full course prescription for tuberculosis) on a regular, timely schedule may have been cured. \"Current standard therapy is isoniazid (INH) which reduce the risk of active TB by as much as 90 per cent (in patients with positive LTBI test results and fibrotic pulmonary lesions compatible with tuberculosis) if taken daily for 9 months.\" [Emphasis added] However, if a person has not completed the medication exactly as prescribed, the \"cure\" is less likely, and the \"cure\" rate is directly proportional to following the prescribed treatment specifically as recommended. Furthermore, \"[I]f you don't take the medicine correctly and you become sick with TB a second time, the TB may be harder to treat if it has become drug resistant.\" If a patient were to be cured in the strictest definition of the word, it would mean that every single bacterium in the system is removed or dead, and that person cannot get tuberculosis (unless" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_38450", "title": "Latent tuberculosis", "score": 0.012350545263434503, "content": "There are several treatment regimens currently in use: 9H — isoniazid for 9 months is the gold standard (93% effective, in patients with positive test results and fibrotic pulmonary lesions compatible with tuberculosis). 6H — Isoniazid for 6 months might be adopted by a local TB program based on cost-effectiveness and patient compliance. This is the regimen currently recommended in the UK for routine use. The U.S. guidance excludes this regimen from use in children or persons with radiographic evidence of prior tuberculosis (old fibrotic lesions) (69% effective). 6 to 9H2 — An intermittent twice-weekly regimen for the above 2 treatment regimens is an alternative if administered under Directly observed therapy (DOT). 4R — rifampicin for 4-months is an alternative for those who are unable to take isoniazid or who have had known exposure to isoniazid-resistant TB. 3HR — Isoniazid and rifampin may be given daily for three months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0048_14585", "title": "[Active tuberculosis in children who received INH chemoprophylaxis].", "score": 0.012059973924380704, "content": "Twelve children who developed active tuberculosis even after receiving isoniazid (INH) chemoprophylaxis were seen at Tokyo Metropolitan Children's Hospital from 1982 through 1991. All cases received INH more than 9 mg/kg/day, except for one case in which the amount of INH administered at the referring hospital was unknown and Streptomycin was administered together with INH. The age of starting INH prophylaxis ranged from 2 months to 13 years, and the age at which clinical symptoms and/or laboratory evidences of active tuberculosis were first manifested ranged from 4 months to 18 years. Five patients developed active tuberculosis after the completion of chemoprophylaxis and patients during chemoprophylaxis, with the first presentation ranging from primary complex (seven), chronic pulmonary tuberculosis (two), tuberculous meningitis (two), and tuberculous pleuritis (one). None of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to INH was isolated. Reviewing these patients, eleven cases had at least one of the following factors: (1) age less than two years old (2) infectious sources expectorated more Mycobacterium tuberculosis (3) delay in starting INH. Above factors should be considered in initiating INH chemoprophylaxis and subsequent follow-up of the patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_38452", "title": "Latent tuberculosis", "score": 0.011104368932038835, "content": "Evidence for treatment effectiveness A 2000 Cochrane review containing 11 double-blinded, randomized control trials and 73,375 patients examined six and 12 month courses of isoniazid (INH) for treatment of latent tuberculosis. HIV positive and patients currently or previously treated for tuberculosis were excluded. The main result was a relative risk (RR) of 0.40 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.31 to 0.52) for development of active tuberculosis over two years or longer for patients treated with INH, with no significant difference between treatment courses of six or 12 months (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.27 to 0.73 for six months, and 0.38, 95% CI 0.28 to 0.50 for 12 months)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13447", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01047200167552027, "content": "It is estimated that about 2 billion people, or nearly one-third of the human population, have been infected with M. tuberculosis. Although only a small fraction of these infections will progress toward active disease, new active cases will continue to emerge from this pool of “latently” infected individuals. Unfortunately, there is no diagnostic test at present that can predict which individuals with LTBI will develop active TB. Treatment of selected persons with LTBI aims at preventing active disease. This intervention (also called preventive chemotherapy or chemoprophylaxis) is based on the results of a large number of randomized, placebo-controlled clinical trials demonstrating that a 6to 9-month course of isoniazid reduces the risk of active TB in infected people by up to 90%. Analysis of available data indicates that the optimal duration of treatment is ~9 months. In the absence of reinfection, the protective effect is believed to be lifelong. Clinical trials have shown that" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79872", "title": "Tuberculosis management", "score": 0.010025062656641603, "content": "A 2000 Cochran review containing 11 double-blinded, randomized control trials and 73,375 patients examined six and 12 month courses of isoniazid (INH) for treatment of latent tuberculosis. HIV positive and patients currently or previously treated for tuberculosis were excluded. The main result was a relative risk (RR) of 0.40 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.31 to 0.52) for development of active tuberculosis over two years or longer for patients treated with INH, with no significant difference between treatment courses of six or 12 months (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.27 to 0.73 for six months, and 0.38, 95% CI 0.28 to 0.50 for 12 months)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_3455", "title": "Tuberculosis in neonates and infants: epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, and management issues.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Tuberculosis is one of the leading infectious causes of death and as such represents a major global health problem. Infants may develop congenital tuberculosis from an infectious mother or, most commonly, they may acquire postnatal disease by contact with an infectious adult source. Important epidemiologic, pathogenetic, and clinical data regarding the management of infantile disease are reviewed. Diagnostic evaluation includes tuberculin skin tests, chest radiography and other imaging studies, smears and cultures, examination of the cerebrospinal fluid, and polymerase chain reaction, as well as the more recent interferon-gamma assay. Pregnant women with a positive Mantoux skin test but normal chest x-ray should either start chemoprophylaxis during gestation or after delivery depending on the likelihood of being recently infected, their risk of progression to disease, as well as their clinical evidence of disease. Pregnant women with a positive Mantoux skin test and chest x-ray or symptoms indicative of active disease should be treated with non-teratogenic agents during gestation; all household contacts should also be screened. When tuberculosis is suspected around delivery, the mother should be assessed by chest x-ray and sputum smear; separation of mother and offspring is indicated only if the mother is non-adherent to medical treatment, needs to be hospitalized, or when drug-resistant tuberculosis is involved. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, treatment of latent infection is highly effective with isoniazid administration for 9 months. This regimen may be extended to 12 months for immunocompromised patients. When drug resistance is suspected, combination therapies, which usually consist of isoniazid with rifampin (rifampicin), are administered until the results of susceptibility tests become available. Organisms resistant to isoniazid only may be treated with rifampin alone for a total of 6-9 months. All infants with tuberculosis disease should be started on four agents (isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol or streptomycin) until drug susceptibility is assessed. For susceptible intrathoracic tuberculosis, isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are administered for a total of 2 months, at which point pyrazinamide is withdrawn and the other two agents are continued for another 4-10 months depending on the severity of the disease. The same regimen may be applied in extrapulmonary tuberculosis with the exception of skeletal, miliary, and CNS disease, which require daily administration of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin for 1-2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin daily or twice weekly for another 10 months. When drug-resistant tuberculosis is suspected, a regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide plus either streptomycin or ethambutol should be initially prescribed, until the results of susceptibility tests become available. HIV-seropositive infants with pulmonary tuberculosis should receive isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol or an aminoglycoside for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin for a total of at least 12 months. Apart from conventional antimycobacterial agents, novel therapeutic modalities, which stimulate the host immune system such as interleukin-2 (IL-2), IL-12, interferon-gamma, and tumor necrosis factor antagonists have been tested with promising results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0735_15688", "title": "Adherence to and outcome of isoniazid chemoprophylaxis among household contact children of adults having pulmonary tuberculosis in Alexandria, Egypt.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Current international guidelines recommend 6-9 months of isoniazid (INH) preventive chemotherapy to prevent the development of active tuberculosis (TB) in susceptible children exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. However, this is dependent on good adherence, as shown by previous studies. This study was conducted to describe the outcome of screening of contact children aged 5 years or less with household exposure to an adult pulmonary TB index case to determine the prevalence and possible risk factors of infection among contact children and to determine the extent and outcome of adherence of contact children to unsupervised INH chemoprophylaxis for 6 months. A descriptive facility-based cross-sectional study was conducted from March 2009 to August 2010. Research settings were three of the National TB control program chest dispensaries (primary care facilities) in Alexandria, Egypt. Facility-based TB treatment registers of the previous 3 months were used to identify all new adult pulmonary TB cases. All children aged 5 years or less living in the same house as the index cases were identified and screened for TB. The contact children were given unsupervised INH preventive chemotherapy once active TB was excluded. Adherence to and outcome of preventive chemotherapy were followed up. Preventive chemotherapy consisted of unsupervised INH monotherapy for 6 months with monthly collection of tablets from the clinic. Adherence was documented after completion of the 6-month preventive treatment period. Adherence was considered reasonable if tablets were collected for more than 4 months, poor if collected for 2-4 months, and very poor if collected for less than 2 months. (a) Prevalence of infection and disease and the possible risk factors among contacts. (b) The extent and outcome of adherence to unsupervised INH chemoprophylaxis among contact children. (c) Factors behind poor adherence. In total, 197 adult TB index cases from 187 households were identified. In all, 297 children aged 5 years or less experienced household exposure, of whom 252 (84.9%) were fully evaluated. Tuberculin test was positive in 136 of the 252 child contacts (54.0%), of whom 130 were contacts of sputum-positive patients and six were contacts of sputum-negative patients. The important risk factors for transmission of TB infection were younger age, male sex, severe malnutrition, absence of BCG vaccination, contact with a sputum-positive adult who was a source case, household overcrowding, and exposure to environmental tobacco smoke. Thirty-three children were diagnosed and treated for TB at the baseline screening and 217 received preventive INH chemotherapy. Of the children who received preventive chemotherapy, only 36 (16.6%) completed at least 4 months of unsupervised INH monotherapy. During the subsequent follow-up period, eight children developed TB (secondary attack rate for TB disease was 3.7%), of whom four received no preventive chemotherapy and four were poorly adherent. The prevalence of TB infection and clinical disease among children in household contact with adult patients is high, and risk is significantly increased because of child contact, index patients and environmental factors. Adherence to 6 months of unsupervised INH chemoprophylaxis was very poor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_3916", "title": "[Efficacy of tuberculosis contacts investigation and treatment, especially of preventive therapy in infants and young children].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Although large clinical trials reported in 1960s suggested that preventive therapy in subjects with tuberculosis (TB) infection reduces the risk of developing TB by 70-90%, the therapy in our TB clinic seems to be more effectiveness. We retrospectively evaluated the efficacy of the present contacts investigation, especially of preventive therapy for further improvement of TB control for children. We examined 273 asymptomatic infants and children younger than five years who had household contacts with active TB patients and visited our clinic for contact investigation. After the diagnosis at the first visit to our TB clinic, they were treated and/or observed for at least two years to assess whether contact investigations and following treatment are appropriate. Since infants less than a year are underdeveloped in cell-mediated immunity and their tuberculous lymphadenopathy can be overlooked on standard chest radiographs, chest CT scans were added. At their first visit, 60 (22%) out of 273 subjects were diagnosed as TB, and 37 (14%) were suspected as TB. We treated them by combinations of anti-TB medicines including isoniazid and rifampin for six to 12 months, and they did not relapse during the observation period. Twenty-six subjects (9%) were diagnosed uninfected. However, a three-year-old girl developed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy two months later when the reexamination was done. A hundred and fifty subjects (55%) were diagnosed to have TB infection. They received preventive therapy with isoniazid (10 mg/kg/day) for six months. Among them, a four-month-old boy developed TB disease soon after starting to take isoniazid and was treated by the combination of anti-TB medicines. Other 149 subjects completed the therapy, and none of them developed disease during the observation period. There was no increase in serum GOT and/or GPT to &gt; 100 IU/L within one month after starting to take isoniazid. The present contacts investigations and treatments in our TB clinic are useful ways to find out and control TB diseases and infections, and it might be suggested to start the six-months preventive therapy after active TB has been ruled out in all infants and children who had close contacts with active TB patients for preventing TB disease and latent TB infection in the future even their clinical and laboratory examinations do not suggest infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_751", "title": "Outcome of neonates exposed to active pulmonary tuberculosis.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To determine the incidence of tuberculosis infection and disease in neonates exposed to an active pulmonary tuberculosis patient in a nursery and maternity ward. Descriptive cohort study was carried out in Srinagarind Hospital, Khon Kaen University, North-East Thailand. A smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis mother with productive cough was diagnosed on the fifth day of admission. The authors urged parents of all exposed neonates to accept isoniazid (INH) prophylaxis for their infants for six months. All neonates underwent chest x ray (AP, lateral view) and tuberculin skin test on the 24 months follow-up. The 48 neonates were identified as exposed. The age of follow-up ranged from 30 to 32 months. Only three were lost to follow-up. Of the remaining 45 neonates, six refused to take INH prophylaxis. Complete six months of LNH prophylaxis were observed in 27 (60%) of 39 contacts. Tuberculin skin tests (TST) were performed in all of 45 contacts. No cases were positive for TST. Abnormal chest radiographies were found in nine of INH group, three patients had hilar lymphadenopathy and six had pneumonia. The repeat chest x ray, two weeks later was normal in all cases. After 30 to 32 months follow-up, none of the 39 neonates who received INH prophylaxis or the six neonates progressed to have active tuberculosis. In exposed neonate identified as the high-risk group, appropriate INH prophylaxis, and long-term follow-up, especially in the first-2 years, seemed to be effective in preventing the development of active tuberculosis." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_133", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "DOTS was clearly effective for most uncomplicated cases of drug-susceptible TB, but a number of shortcomings were soon identified. First, the diagnosis of TB based solely on sputum smear microscopy— a method dating from the late nineteenth century—is not sensitive. Many cases of pulmonary TB and all cases of exclusively extrapulmonary TB are missed by smear microscopy, as are most cases of active disease in children. Second, passive case-finding relies on the availability of health care services, which is uneven in the settings where TB is most prevalent. Third, patients with multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) are by definition infected with strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to isoniazid and rifampin; thus exclusive reliance on these drugs is unwarranted in settings in which drug resistance is an established problem." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0265_16892", "title": "Smear-negative pulmonary tuberculosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Diagnostic difficulties arise when sputum smears are negative for acid-fast bacilli in tuberculin-positive patients with compatible symptoms and chest radiographs for tuberculosis. Many of these smear-negative patients yield positive cultures for M tuberculosis, whereas others remain culturally negative. Several studies have shown that many smear-negative/culture-negative patients will develop bacteriologically positive disease later. Often, physicians are unable to decide whether to initiate chemotherapy or to wait for the culture results. Also, if treatment is initiated in smear negative patients, what should be the drug regimen and duration of therapy. A positive smear signifies a very large bacterial population in the lung lesions whereas several negative smears suggest a smaller bacterial load. Such smear-negative cases do not require the same intensity and duration of treatment as smear-positive cases. Therapy should be initiated for tuberculosis after other causes for abnormal chest x-ray have been excluded. However, duration of therapy may be shortened in these cases. The British Medical Research Council (BMRC) study has shown that intensive treatment of smear-negative/culture-positive disease with streptomycin (SM), isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), and pyrazinamide (PZA) for 4 months was uniformly successful. This regimen is routinely recommended in Hong Kong. Because primary drug resistance is low (&lt; 3%) in Arkansas, we treated these cases with INH and RIF for 6 months with good results. This is now a routine drug regimen. For smear-negative/culture-negative cases, the BMRC study has shown that daily or thrice weekly treatment with SM, INH, RIF, and PZA for 4 months is effective.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0259_5116", "title": "[Effectiveness of isoniazid in tuberculosis chemoprophylaxis in children with rising tuberculin sensitivity].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "70 children aged 4-15 with growing tuberculin sensitivity received preventive treatment with isoniazid in children's sanatorium. The drug was taken for 2 or 3 months in a dose 10 mg/kg daily (19 and 51 children, respectively). Preventive isoniazid course proved effective as none of the children treated developed tuberculosis within 3 years. The 3-month course is preferable as it is more potent in relation to tuberculin sensitivity immediately after the treatment termination and 1, 2 years after it." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0263_22009", "title": "[Tuberculosis in patients after kidney transplantation].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis is common among population in Poland. We analyzed the effect of tuberculosis (TB) on patients and graft survival in the group of renal allograft recipients (RAR), treated in our center. Among 1669 renal allograft recipients transplanted from 1981 to 1992, tuberculosis developed in 33 (2%) patients (16 M/17F, age: 22-57 years). The patients were on following immunosuppressive regiments\" Pred+Aza+CsA (12 pts), Pred+Aza (12), Pred+CsA (6) and Pred+Aza+CsA+ATG (3). Acute rejection was diagnosed in 27 of them and was treated with methyloprednisone pulses, and in a few cases additionally with ATG (2 pts) or OKT3 (1 pt). In two pts TB had been diagnosed and successfully treated in the past. In 6 pts, on chest X-ray done immediately before transplantation, healed primary lesion (Ghon complex) had been seen. In 16 pts TB developed in the early posttransplant period (median: 3.8 +/- 1.8, range: 1-6 months) and in 17--late after transplantation (median: 31.2 +/- 1.8, range: 13-156 months). In 19 pts symptoms developed soon after treatment of acute rejection. Clinical manifestations include pulmonary TB (30 pts) and extrapulmonary lesions (15 pts): pleural TB (3 pts), miliary TB (5 pts), tuberculous lymphadenitis (1 pt), uveitis (1 pt), renal allograft (2 pts), skeletal (2 pts) and GI tract (1 pt). Diagnosis of TB was made based on clinical presentation and radiologic findings and it was confirmed by positive cultures in 18 pts, by tissue biopsy in 4 pts and by autopsy examination in 9 pts. Treatment regimen included one of the following drug combinations: INH+EMB+RMP (20 pts), INH+RMB+RMP+PZA (10 pts) or INH+EMB+SM (3 pts). Three pts died before TB was recognized and 4 deaths occurred after treatment was started. All these pts developed renal failure. 26 pts were treated for 3-12 months (median, range: 7.8 +/- 2.9) and in 24 of them complete remission was achieved. In this group renal function remained stable in 16 pts and 6 pts developed terminal failure due to chronic rejection. Authors conclude: 1. TB remains a frequent complication in RAR but can be successfully treated when diagnosed early. 2. Extrapulmonary TB is common in RAR. 3. TB deteriorates one year patients (75%) and graft (49%) survivals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0424_15523", "title": "[Tuberculosis: diagnosis of contact persons and chemoprophylaxis in children].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Every doctor must participate in each step of tuberculosis control including BCG vaccination and focused screening, diagnosis of contact subjects. The last is mandatory in children, due to rapid ongoing illness from primary infection (PI). The two strategies of management are the search for secondary cases around a recently diagnosed contagious tuberculosis and the search for a contaminator in front of a recent PI or illness in a child. To suppress the anonymity of notification helps. The screening relies on a \"stone in the water\" strategy, from close to more occasional contacts. The search for contaminators (family, collectivity) relies on chest radiography (CR) and if positive, is extended to the contaminated surroundings. The search for secondary cases relies on tuberculin intra-dermal test (IDR); if positive, a CR is asked for and always performed in aged or immunodepressed persons, and children under 5 years of age. For them, a thoracic scan is easily done because of small mediastinal adenopathies undiagnosed by plain CR. Despite imperfect sensitivity and specificity, IDR is pivotal for diagnosis in children. Any PI in children has to be treated. In France, bitherapy isoniazide-rifampicine is given before 3 years of age and often up to 10 years. A duration of 6 months is common. Patent forms receive a tri or quadri-therapy for the first 2 months followed by a 4 months bitherapy. A cornerstone of success is an adequate organisation and coordination of motivated health care workers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_17501", "title": "Preventing tuberculosis in children receiving anti-TNF treatment.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) treatment has been a breakthrough in the management of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). However, they are associated with a significant risk of tuberculosis. We evaluated JIA patients who received etanercept treatment from an eastern Mediterranean country with moderate tuberculosis frequency. JIA patients under anti-TNF treatment, etanercept, were enrolled to the study. Chest X-rays, Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), clinical histories, family screening, and physical examinations were reviewed retrospectively. If TST was above 10 mm in a patient with one Bacillus Calmette-Guerin, cultures and, if needed, thorax computerized tomography were obtained. These patients received 1-2 months of isoniazid (INH) treatment which was followed by an INH prophylaxis for a period of 9 months while etanercept treatment was started. All were re-evaluated within 3 months intervals. A total of 36 patients under etanercept treatment were enrolled to the study. Mean age of the patients was 14.00 years (range 4-22 years). Median duration of disease was 36.00 months (range 4-216 months). Median duration of etanercept therapy was 11.5 months (3-48 months) at final evaluation. Seven patients had an initial TST score above 10 mm. All received INH treatment as outlined above. They had normal examinations and X-rays during followup. With proper initial evaluation, anti-TNF treatment is safe even in countries where tuberculosis is moderately frequent. An initial 1-2 months of INH treatment followed by chemoprophylaxis for 9 months is suggested for children with a TST of &gt;10 mm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0062_793", "title": "[Yield from studying the contacts of patients with tuberculosis].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Between march '88 and august '89 a total number of 437 contacts (CT) with 69 patients with tuberculosis were analyzed. According to the bacteriological status of the index case the observations were distributed into: Group I (197) CT with patients with positive sputum AFB stain test; Group II (24) CT with cases with positive sputum culture but negative AFB stain; and Group III (216) CT with cases with histologic diagnosis or cases in children. Following identical criteria and according to the bacteriologic situation of the Source case, we grouped the contacts on groups A (246), B (17), and C (174). A clinical history, thorax radiography, and tuberculin test with 2 UT of PPD-RT 23 were performed in all CT cases. Tuberculin reaction was equal or greater than 6 mm in 45% (88/197), 25% (6/24), and 36% (77/216) of groups I, II, and III respectively. This reaction was also positive in 49% (121/246), 23% (4/17), and 26% (46/174) of groups A, B, and C respectively. Sixteen new cases of tuberculosis were discovered among which we identified 5 new source cases. A second tuberculin test was performed in 44% (116/266) of CT with a previous negative test, and in this population we observed 16 conversions. It is demonstrated: 1) a high yield in the detection of infection/tuberculous disease; 2) the analysis of CT in group A provided the highest index of tuberculous infection, and 3) revision of CT of groups II and III provided most of the new cases of disease as well as the identification of 5 new source cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_9426", "title": "Variability in the intradermal and in vitro lymphocyte responses to PPD in patients receiving isoniazid chemoprophylaxis.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Much attention has been focused on problems related to the interpretation of the tuberculin (Tb) skin test in terms of the \"booster\" phenomenon observed with repeated skin testing. However, relatively little attention has been given to the problem of the interpretation of repeat Tb skin tests in patients who have been given isoniazid (INH) chemoprophylaxis. Sixteen female hospital workers who were receiving INH for asymptomatic recent conversion of their Tb skin test, and 1 male physician under treatment with INH and rifampin for active tuberculosis as a result of a patient exposure, were studied over a 1-yr period. Intradermal skin tests with 5 tuberculin units purified protein derivative (PPD) and assessment of in vitro lymphocyte proliferation and production of leukocyte inhibitory factor on exposure to PPD were performed on 4 occasions at 3-month intervals-3 during therapy and 1 after completion of therapy. Four of 10 patients tested on all occasions showed at least 1 negative Tb skin test. In 2 of 4, the reversions were not stable. Considerable variability was observed between results of skin tests and in vitro lymphocyte responses, and no one in vitro lymphocyte response to PPD was adequate to identify the presence of delayed hypersensitivity to PPD. On the basis of these data, it is concluded that the presence of a single negative PPD skin test during or shortly after the completion of INH chemoprophylaxis does not constitute sufficient evidence to conclude that a patient has had a stable skin test reversion. Confirmation of the loss of tuberculin reactivity requires the in vitro assessment of lymphocyte responses to PPD both in terms of proliferation and the production of a lymphokine(s)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0077_11872", "title": "[Chemoprophylaxis of tuberculosis].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Chemoprophylaxis of tuberculosis may be primary or secondary. Primary chemoprophylaxis is intended for infants and children with negative tuberculin tests and exposed to contagion, in order to avoid primary tuberculosis. It lasts for three months and consists of oral isoniazide in one single daily dose of 5 to 10 mg/kg. Secondary chemoprophylaxis applies to all subjects, but principally to children, with a tuberculin test that has recently become positive in the absence of BCG vaccination. Its purpose is to protect against clinical tuberculosis. It lasts for six months and consists of isoniazid combined with rifampicin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_12816", "title": "[Outbreak of pulmonary tuberculosis in which tuberculosis developed from QuantiFERON-TB second generation (QFT-2G) test negative persons].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To clarify the points to be considered when QFT-2G tests are used in the contacts examination by public health center. We analyzed the results of contacts examination on 43 workplace colleagues (39 y/o and younger) of a pulmonary tuberculosis patient (bII2, Gaffky 9, cough for 1.5 months). After two months of the last contact with the index case, tuberculin skin tests, QFT-2G tests and chest X-rays were undertaken. After 6 months, chest X-rays were taken, and after 9 months, QFT-2G tests and chest CT scans were also undertaken. The tuberculin skin tests after two months showed a bimodal distribution, and 10 were QFT-2G positive and 2 showed doubtful reaction. The latter 12 persons underwent chemoprophylaxis. After 6 months, however, out of 31 QFT-2G negative persons, 2 developed pulmonary tuberculosis. Moreover, after 9 months, chest CT scans revealed 5 pulmonary tuberculosis patients. Three out of 7 new patients showed positive or doubtful reactions in QFT-2G tests undertaken after 9 months. The sensitivity of QFT-2G tests is reported to be 80 to 90%, and the possibility of false negative is not negligible. We propose measures for public health center to conduct the contacts examination as follows; In case of high QFT-2G positive (including doubtful reaction) rate and/or a bimodal distribution of tuberculin skin test result, many infected persons are likely to be included in the group; and the following measures are recommended; 1) Necessity of chemoprophylaxis should be judged considering both tuberculin skin test results and the situation of contact with the index case, and not only by QFT-2G test results. 2) QFT-2G negative persons also need to be followed with chest X-rays." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1160_22266", "title": "[Primary isoniazid preventive therapy : A strategy still relevant in the era of test and treat ; literature review].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Tuberculosis remains a public health threat responsible as recently as 2018 for more than one million deaths. Chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid is one of the strategies implemented to control the disease. Although it is not yet widely prescribed, its utilization raises additional questions in the \"test and treat\" era of for anti-retroviral therapy. The objective of this study is to review the different randomized controlled trials of antitubercular Isoniazid Preventive Therapy (IPT). We have distinguished (a) \"efficacy trials\" (ET) comparing IPT to a placebo or the absence of chemoprophylaxis and (b) \"IPT regimen trials\" (RT) comparing IPT to one or several other regimens. Literature search (keywords from published articles found in the Medline and Scopus data bases: \"tuberculosis\", \"prophylaxis\", \"HIV\", \"randomized controlled trial\") and standardized reading of selected articles reporting results from randomized trials of IPT in HIV-infected people. Eighteen selected trials (11 ET and 7 RT), including 19,725 participants. The regimens studied were 3H, 6H, 9H, 12H, 12H, 36H/2RZ, 3RH, 3RZ, 3RHZ, and 3HP [H: Isoniazid, R: Rifampicin, Z: Pyrazinamide, P: Rifapentine]. Ten in Africa, three in Haiti, one in India, one in the USA, one in the Americas and two multi-continental trials. In ET with or without antiretrovirals (ART), IPT significantly reduces the risk of tuberculosis, by 32 to 71%. In ET prior to ART, IPT does not appear to reduce mortality. In ET in patients receiving ART, on the other hand, IPT reduces mortality. As regards RT, there seems to be no reason to prefer other regimens to IPT. Tolerance is good. Importantly, IPT may reduce (rather than worsen) the risk of multidrug-resistant bacilli selection by decreasing the number of TB episodes and, consequently, the number of curative tuberculosis treatments. Far from becoming obsolete due to ARV treatment, IPT has remained a timely and relevant intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_6034", "title": "[Estimation of the possibilities of using unified chemotherapy regimens in new cases of pulmonary tuberculosis in old-age children and adolescents].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A hundred and forty children aged 13 to 17 who had new-onset active pulmonary tuberculosis were examined. There was a predominance of infiltrative tuberculosis (63.6%) in the pattern of its clinical forms. The processes were more frequently disseminated (79.3%) with lung tissue decay in every two patients (55.1%) and bacterial discharge in every three patients (39.3%). Among the new cases of pulmonary tuberculosis, the proportion of its multidrug resistance was 7.9%. The routine regimens were used for treatment. The efficiency of intensive-phase (IF) treatment was evaluated in 85 patients, including 18 patients receiving chemotherapy (CT) (HRZ/E/S) regimen 3 (Group 1), 45 having CT (HRZ/E/S) regimen 1 (Group 2), and 22 having CT (HRZE[A][Fq]/[Pt]) regimen 2B (Group 3). Clinical laboratory, Xray, and microbiological findings were criteria for evaluating the efficiency of IP CT. Abacillation occurred in all cases by month 4 of therapy. By and large, the efficiency of IF CT was 90.6% in new cases of pulmonary tuberculosis among old-age children and adolescents. In patients with disseminated processes, it ranged from 81.8% (Group 3) to 91.1% (Group 2) depending on the extent of lung tissue damage. The efficiency of therapy was as high as 100% in patients with circumscribed processes. Polyresistant resistance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MBT) to chemical agents, including multidrug resistance (7.9%), was a main reason of ineffective IF treatment (9.4%) in new cases of pulmonary tuberculosis among old-age children and adolescents. Overall, the actual use rate of routine CT regimens was 65.9% in new cases of pulmonary tuberculosis and adolescents. Uncontrolled adverse reactions to antituberculous drugs and drug resistance in MBT were reasons for deviations of routine regimens (modifications, use of individual regimes)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1080_2348", "title": "Low uptake of isoniazid window prophylaxis in patients exposed to a health-care worker with pulmonary tuberculosis in a paediatric ward.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A nurse on a paediatric multidisciplinary ward was diagnosed with smear-positive pulmonary tuberculosis. Children &lt;2 years old, immunocompromised, or &gt;40 h of contact (n = 173) were contact-traced. Children received clinical review, chest X-ray, tuberculin skin test (TST; &lt;5 years old) and/or an interferon-gamma release assay (Quantiferon TB-Gold, ≥5 years old). Infants &lt;6 months old or children &lt;5 years old screened &lt;2 months from exposure were recommended isoniazid window prophylaxis (WP) until a repeat TST at 6 months old or 8-10 weeks after the last exposure to the index case, respectively. Empiric treatment for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) was individually considered for immunocompromised patients. Of 173 children (135 immunocompetent, 38 immunocompromised), two were uncontactable, seven refused screening and two immunocompromised children excluded. Eight of 126 immunocompetent children were diagnosed with LTBI (initial TST positive n = 7, TST conversion n = 1); seven started isoniazid. Thirty-two of 36 immunocompetent children were recommended WP; 15 accepted (one non-compliant after 1 month). Six of seven immunocompromised children accepted empiric LTBI treatment due to severe immunosuppression/initial indeterminate Quantiferon TB-Gold result. Of 15 immunocompromised children offered WP, only five accepted. There was high acceptance of screening but low uptake of isoniazid WP in high-risk children exposed to pulmonary tuberculosis. Perception of exposure risk and chemoprophylaxis should be explored further." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0916_17559", "title": "A community-based isoniazid preventive therapy for the prevention of childhood tuberculosis in Ethiopia.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Although children in contact with adults with tuberculosis (TB) should receive isoniazid (INH) preventive therapy (IPT), this is rarely implemented. To assess whether a community-based approach to provide IPT at the household level improves uptake and adherence in Ethiopia. Contacts of adults with smear-positive pulmonary TB (PTB+) were visited at home and examined by health extension workers (HEWs). Asymptomatic children aged &lt;5 years were offered IPT and followed monthly. Of 6161 PTB+ cases identified by HEWs in the community, 5345 (87%) were visited, identifying 24 267 contacts, 7226 (29.8%) of whom were children aged &lt;15 years and 3102 (12.7%) were aged &lt;5 years; 2949 contacts had symptoms of TB and 1336 submitted sputum for examination. Ninety-two (6.9%) were PTB+ and 169 had TB all forms. Of 3027 asymptomatic children, only 1761 were offered (and accepted) IPT due to INH shortage. Of these, 1615 (91.7%) completed the 6-month course. The most frequent reason for discontinuing IPT was INH shortage. Contact tracing contributed to the detection of additional TB cases and provision of IPT in young children. IPT delivery in the community alongside community-based TB interventions resulted in better acceptance and improved treatment outcome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0657_77", "title": "Development of interstitial pneumonia in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis induced by isoniazid for tuberculosis chemoprophylaxis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Here, we report a 56-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who had been treated with methotrexate and sulfuasalazine, but the disease activity remained high. Therefore, we planned TNF-blocker treatment for this patient. A tuberculin skin test was positive, we started anti-tuberculosis (TB) chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid (INH). However, liver dysfunction was appeared after 2 weeks from the start of INH. Therefore, we discontinued INH transiently and tried the desensitization of INH. However, interstitial pneumonia was developed 2 weeks after the re-start of INH, we decided to stop the INH prophylaxis. Interstitial pneumonia was improved by corticosteroid treatments. This case report shows that INH-induced IP can be occurred during the course of anti-TB chemoprophylaxis in patients with RA." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_142", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Infants, children, and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories 10 mm of induration is a positive test. For HIV-positive patients,those with recent tuberculosis contacts, patients with evidenceof old healed tuberculosis on chest film, or immunosuppressedpatients, 5 mm is a positive test (see Chapter 124). The CDC hasapproved (in adults) the QuantiFERON-TB Gold Test, whichhas the advantage of needing one office visit only." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0408_5234", "title": "[Preventive therapy in middle-aged and elderly persons selected from the population-based screening by mass miniature radiography--methodological aspect and adverse reactions].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The notification rate of tuberculosis in Japan was 31.0 per 100,000 in 2000. The rate was especially high among the elderly population, reaching 85.5 per 100,000 among those over 65 years of age. We conducted a study of preventive therapy in middle-aged and elderly persons selected from the population-based screening by the mass miniature radiography. The eligible criteria were 50-79 years of age, fibrous lesion which were compatible with healed tuberculosis and showed no change for at least one year, no previous treatment for tuberculosis, normal liver function tests, and no serious disease at the time of study. The eligible criteria for liver function tests in this study was less than 50 IU/L of AST and ALT value, and less than 1.5 mg/dl of T-bil level. A total of 13,219 people underwent TB screening in 4 cities in 1997 and 2 cities in 1998. Among them, 440 persons fulfilled the above criteria based on the screening records and chest X-ray films. The municipal offices sent letters to 418 people, except 22 whose addresses were unknown, to obtain permission to use their addresses and results of screening in our study. Permission was obtained from 137 persons and we sent them invitation letters for cost-free physical checkup service. Ninety-five persons visited us, and we offered them physical checkup and explained about our study. After obtaining the informed consent, we performed chest X-ray and sputum examination for 3 consecutive days. Finally 29 people were enrolled in the study. They were divided into 4 groups by sex and age, and were randomly assigned to one of two treatment groups. One group took 300 mg of INH per day for 6 months and the other group was only followed up by chest X-ray. Fourteen out of 29 persons began to take INH and received monthly liver function test. All the subjects were scheduled to follow by medical checkup every 6 months for 5 years. The proportion of taking INH tablets was estimated to range from 94% to 100%, based on the calendar for record of taking medication and the number of remaining tablets each month. Six (42.9%) of 14 persons reported adverse reactions. Two of 6 persons complained some of diarrhea, vomiting and gastrointestinal disturbance within 2 weeks, and discontinued taking INH, although none of them showed abnormal liver function tests. Two of 6 persons who reported some kinds of symptoms and 2 of 8 persons who did not complain of any symptoms showed abnormal liver function tests. The abnormal liver function tests had developed from 2 months after the beginning of INH taking in most of the persons and the abnormality improved after the completion of 6-month treatment. We have followed them for a maximum duration of 2.5 years, and 3 cases dropped out from the study. These defaulted cases had completed 6 months of INH. One person (69 y.o. male) was diagnosed as active TB by his chest X-ray film at the 6th month medical checkup, although it was not confirmed bacteriologically. One person (62 y.o. female) had the mastectomy for breast cancer 7 months before the entry to this study and relapsed at the 8th month after the entry. One person (73 y.o. female) was diagnosed as lung cancer at the medical checkup on 2.5 years. Besides them, 4 persons were suspected of worsening the abnormal shadows on chest X-ray films; one was from the INH group and three were from the follow-up group. However none of them was diagnosed clinically and bacteriologically as active tuberculosis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 60 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 7 ] ], "text": "Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). VIPoma-diarrhea. The 3." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Insulinoma.", "2": "PPoma.", "3": "VIPoma.", "4": "Glucagonoma.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1018_125", "title": "[Use of a somatostatin analog to improve a patient's condition and the subsequent diagnosis of pancreatic VIPoma:a case report].", "score": 0.018129614438063987, "content": "A 68-year-old woman with an 11-day history of sudden abdominal pain and severe watery diarrhea was transferred to our hospital due to an exacerbation of renal function despite hydration. After treatment for dehydration and acidemia was provided in our intensive care unit, patient's renal function improved. Contrast-enhanced abdominal computed tomography was finally performed, revealing a hypervascular pancreatic mass with multiple hepatic masses. This imaging finding along with her clinical symptoms indicated watery diarrhea hypokalemia achlorhydria (WDHA) syndrome caused by a pancreatic VIPoma. Somatostatin analog was administered immediately leading to the improvement of her diarrhea and her general condition. As a result, endoscopic ultrasonography-guided fine-needle aspiration could be performed. Consequently, she was diagnosed with a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor. She then underwent surgical resection of the pancreatic tumor and liver metastasis. As revealed in the immunohistochemical analysis of the excised tumor tissue, VIP was highly expressed, resulting in the final diagnosis of pancreatic VIPoma. Therefore, the immediate use of a somatostatin analog is crucial for improving the patient's general condition and achieving a definitive diagnosis pathologically when a patient is suspected of having a pancreatic VIPoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en454_6869", "title": "Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor", "score": 0.017721320473614053, "content": "Functional tumors are often classified by the hormone most strongly secreted, for example: gastrinoma: the excessive gastrin causes Zollinger–Ellison syndrome (ZES) with peptic ulcers and diarrhea insulinoma: hypoglycemia occurs with concurrent elevations of insulin, proinsulin and C peptide glucagonoma: the symptoms are not all due to glucagon elevations, and include a rash, sore mouth, altered bowel habits, venous thrombosis, and high blood glucose levels VIPoma, producing excessive vasoactive intestinal peptide, which may cause profound chronic watery diarrhea and resultant dehydration, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria (WDHA or pancreatic cholera syndrome) somatostatinoma: these rare tumors are associated with elevated blood glucose levels, achlorhydria, cholelithiasis, and diarrhea less common types include ACTHoma, CRHoma, calcitoninoma, GHRHoma, GRFoma, and parathyroid hormone–related peptide tumor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0352_97", "title": "Diagnosis of non-Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, non-carcinoid syndrome, enteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumours.", "score": 0.017073525138041265, "content": "The diagnosis of entero-neuropancreatic tumours different from Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and carcinoid syndrome require an high index of suspicion and even when they are associated to virulent syndromes such as VIPoma or insulinoma syndrome the mean delay in diagnosis is of 4 years. Symptomatic hypoglycaemia due to inappropriate insulin release from insulinoma and watery diarrhoea leading to dehydration caused by elevated circulant vaso-intestinal peptide levels are present in the 90% and 100% of the patients at presentation of the respective syndrome. Somatostatinoma syndrome has a far more subtle presentation and it tends to present much later during the disease course. The diagnosis is based on the presence of gallstones, diabetes, weight loss, diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. Growth hormone releasing factor neuroendocrine tumours (GRFoma) present with acromegaly and account for less than 2% of the acromegalic patients in which the growth hormone is from an ectopic source located in the pancreas. The Cushing's syndrome diagnosis due to rare ectopic neuroendocrine tumour adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion can be made only with selective angiography, whereas non-functional and pancreatic polypeptide producing neuroendocrine tumours (PPoma) present without any symptoms. Finally, multiple endocrine neoplasia type one occurs more commonly with somatostatinoma or GRFoma, conversely patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type one can develop insulinoma (20%) or PPoma (60%)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0399_10897", "title": "[An unusual case of multiple endocrine neoplasia].", "score": 0.017042606516290727, "content": "The patient A.M., woman, presented Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia, associating hyperparathyroidism, an adrenal tumor and pancreatic tumor; one can observe that the disease had features of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type-1 (pancreatic tumor), as well as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type-2 (MEN-2, pheochromocytoma), while the hyperparathyroidism is common for both two types of the syndrome. The development of the disease is extended over approximate forty years of life and finally led to death. The first symptoms appeared during pregnancy, at age 26, when the severe hyperparathyroidism determined bone mass acute loose, with decrease in height by affecting columnary vertebrae, severe bone pain due to bone resorption and soon after symptoms of renal stone disease. The patient suffered two surgical interventions for renal lithiasis. The biliary symptoms required also the surgical removal of the gall bladder, putting the diagnosis of active metabolic stone disease. At age 56, was established the diagnosis of carcinoma of the adrenal cortex, which was solved with surgical therapy. At age 66, digestive symptoms suggested the presence of a carcinoid tumor. Abdominal ultrasonography revealed a well-lined pancreatic tumor of 2-3 centimeters in diameter, probably adenoma. The malignant evolution of this tumor was rapid, leading to death in less than two years. The constant refuse of other investigations, by the patient, made us incapable to determine the type of secretion of the pancreatic tumor; we rather suspected a VIPoma, because of the watery diarrhea and severe weight loss. The most difficult to treat was anyway the hyperparathyroidism and its complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1138_25625", "title": "A clinical analysis on functioning pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (focusing on VIPomas): a single-center experience.", "score": 0.016758241758241758, "content": "VIPomas are generally rare functioning pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (PanNETs) that cause watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria. Due to their extreme rarity, the clinicopathological features and outcomes of VIPomas have not been well reported. This study aimed to determine the diagnostic and therapeutic characteristics and prognosis of VIPomas and to compare them with other PanNETs at a Japanese reference hospital. Medical records of 293 patients with PanNETs were collected. Patient and tumor characteristics and outcomes were retrospectively reviewed. This cohort had only 1.4% (four patients) of patients with VIPomas, and three of these patients changed from non-functioning (NF-) PanNETs during their disease course. Recurrences of hormonal symptoms were observed in all patients despite the initial controls, and all of them died from their disease, more specifically mainly from hormonal symptoms. Compared to the other PanNETs, VIPomas were all located at the pancreatic tail, were larger, and had a higher Ki-67 index and more metastasis. The median survival time was significantly shorter for patients with VIPoma than for those with NF-PanNET (5.9 vs. 26.7 years, p &lt; 0.0001), insulinoma (21.8 years, p &lt; 0.0001), and gastrinoma (12.3 years, p = 0.0325). This study presents the possibility of shifting from non-symptomatic to symptomatic VIPomas as they grow or of transforming from NF-PanNETs to VIPomas. VIPomas should be considered in patients with relatively large NF-PanNETs, especially those located in the pancreatic tail, when diarrhea is continuously observed. As hormonal symptoms are an important cause of death in VIPomas, long-term symptomatic control, which is relatively difficult, is of great significance." }, { "id": "article-17794_11", "title": "APUDoma -- History and Physical -- Pancreatic NETs", "score": 0.0161509900990099, "content": "Pancreatic NETs cause different variable clinical syndromes depending on the type of hormones secreted. For example, beta-cell neoplasm or insulinoma, the most common GI NETs, secretes excess insulin causing hypoglycemia, with the relief of symptoms after glucose administration (Whipple triad) and hypokalemia. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by gastrinoma secreting gastrin hormone characterized by multiple peptic ulcers in atypical sites such as the duodenum and jejunum, typically resistant to proton pump inhibitors, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Glucagonomas produce excess glucagon hormone, typically cause diabetes, dermatitis (necrolytic migratory erythema), deep vein thrombosis, and depression. VIPoma produces excess vasoactive intestinal peptide associated with voluminous watery diarrhea (10–15 L/day) and flushing. [13]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1011_23506", "title": "Successful Treatment of Hypokalemic Rhabdomyolysis Caused by a Pancreatic VIPoma: A Case Report.", "score": 0.01568133691981915, "content": "BACKGROUND VIPomas are rare neuroendocrine tumors typically located in the pancreas. The majority of cases autonomously secret vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP), which can result in profuse, refractory, watery diarrhea. The fluid and electrolyte imbalance can progress to dehydration and profound hypokalemia, resulting in the watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria (WDHA) syndrome. One previous case of a pancreatic VIPoma progressing to hypokalemic rhabdomyolysis has been described. CASE REPORT A 33-year-old woman presented with 3 months of progressive, refractory diarrhea and weakness. Her serum VIP level was elevated and imaging discovered a mass in the region of the pancreatic tail. Laparoscopic partial pancreatic resection was performed and a 3.7-cm diameter, solitary stage T2 N0 M0, well-differentiated carcinoma was removed. CONCLUSIONS A high index of suspicion is important when diagnosing chronic diarrhea. Minimally invasive surgery is an option in the surgical treatment of pancreatic VIPoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en072_35433", "title": "VIPoma", "score": 0.015639481000926783, "content": "Symptoms and signs The major clinical features are prolonged watery diarrhea (fasting stool volume > 750 to 1000 mL/day) and symptoms of hypokalemia and dehydration. Half of the patients have relatively constant diarrhea while the rest have alternating periods of severe and moderate diarrhea. One third have diarrhea < 1yr before diagnosis, but in 25%, diarrhea is present for 5 yr or more before diagnosis. Lethargy, muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting and crampy abdominal pain are frequent symptoms. Hypokalemia and impaired glucose tolerance occur in < 50% of patients. Achlorhydria is also a feature. During attacks of diarrhea, flushing similar to the carcinoid syndrome occur rarely. Diagnosis Besides the clinical picture, fasting VIP plasma level may confirm the diagnosis, and CT scan and somatostatin receptor scintigraphy are used to localise the tumor, which is usually metastatic at presentation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_11822", "title": "[Vipoma of the pancreas. Apropos of a case and review of the literature].", "score": 0.015575757575757576, "content": "Pancreatic endocrine tumors are uncommon; of this type of tumors, the Verner-Morrison's syndrome, WDHA or vipoma is diagnosed very rarely. The present paper is a report of a pancreatic vipoma in a 60 year-old female; she presented with watery diarrhea, facial flushing, hypokalemia, hypochlorhydria, metabolic acidosis and reversible renal failure; these are the usual manifestations of the syndrome. The diagnosis was made on the basis of radiological imaging, CAT and arteriography as well as the finding or elevated levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). The surgical resection of the tumor was followed by the remission of the symptoms and normalization of the plasmatic levels of VIP. It is necessary to recognize this type of tumors because the only way to achieve a curative surgical resection is after an early diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en072_35432", "title": "VIPoma", "score": 0.0154524089306698, "content": "A VIPoma or vipoma () is a rare endocrine tumor that overproduces vasoactive intestinal peptide (thus VIP + -oma). The incidence is about 1 per 10,000,000 per year. VIPomas usually (about 90%) originate from the non-β islet cells of the pancreas. They are sometimes associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Roughly 50–75% of VIPomas are malignant, but even when they are benign, they are problematic because they tend to cause a specific syndrome: the massive amounts of VIP cause a syndrome of profound and chronic watery diarrhea and resultant dehydration, hypokalemia, achlorhydria, acidosis, flushing and hypotension (from vasodilation), hypercalcemia, and hyperglycemia. This syndrome is called Verner–Morrison syndrome (VMS), WDHA syndrome (from watery diarrhea–hypokalemia–achlorhydria), or pancreatic cholera syndrome (PCS). The eponym reflects the physicians who first described the syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_22798", "title": "VIPomas: an update in diagnosis and management in a series of 11 patients.", "score": 0.015425531914893617, "content": "VIPoma is a rare pancreatic endocrine tumor (PET) which secretes excessive amounts of VIP (Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide) that causes a special clinical syndrome characterized by secretory diarrhea, hypokalemia and achlorhydria. Among a total number of 76 patients (pts) with PETs, we present in this study 11 pts with VIPoma syndrome focusing on our diagnostic and therapeutic approach, in parallel with a brief review of the literature. Eleven pts (7 males and 4 females), aged from 2 to 83 years (mean age 53.1 years) were included. The diagnosis was based upon compatible clinical features and serum VIP values and was supported by the estimation of other peptides and neuroendocrine markers such as gastrin, pancreatic polypeptide and chromogranin-A (CgA). In 10/11 pts, diagnosis was confirmed histopathologically. The primary or metastatic lesions were located by conventional imaging methods or by OCTREOSCAN or Endoscopic Ultrasound (EUS). The follow-up period ranged from 2.5-13.5 years (mean 4.8 years). Chronic secretory diarrhea, which persisted despite fasting, was the main symptom in all pts of our study. VIP levels at the time of diagnosis were more than 3 or 10 times the upper normal limit in 7/11 (63.6%) or 4/11 (36.4%) pts, respectively. The primary lesion was detected by CT scan or MRI in 6/11 (54.5%), with EUS or abdominal angiography in 4/11 (36.4%). OCTREOSCAN revealed a solitary lesion in the right hepatic lobe, not detected by all the previous studies, while it detected, as a whole, the primary lesion in 10/11 (91%), and the metastases in 3/4 (75%) pts. In 7/11 (63.6%) the primary lesion was located in the pancreas, whereas in the rest it was in the duodenum or retroperitoneum. A surgical resection was possible in 7/11 (63.6%) pts, while pts with metastatic disease already or poorly differentiated tumors also received additional treatment with somatostatin analogues and chemotherapy. Liver metastases and poor differentiation of tumors seemed to be negative prognostic factors. Clinical suspicion, early diagnosis and precise management may affect survival and improve the quality of life of patients. Also, surgical treatment, as extensive as possible, in combination with somatostatin analogues or chemotherapy when necessary, may also result in prolonged survival, also in patients with advanced disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0792_24148", "title": "Sporadic pancreatic vasoactive intestinal peptide-producing tumor (VIPoma) in a 47-year-old male.", "score": 0.014981483559645382, "content": "VIPoma is an exceedingly unusual neuroendocrine neoplasm that autonomously secretes vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP). Its reported incidence is approximately 1 per 10 million individuals per year. Herein, we report the case of sporadic pancreatic VIPoma in a 47-year-old male who presented with a six-month history of chronic, plentiful, watery diarrhea. On physical examination, the patient looked sick, lethargic and had signs of dehydration. Laboratory investigations revealed high VIP hormone level (989pg/mL), hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, high blood urea nitrogen, high creatinine, and metabolic acidosis on arterial blood gas. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scan showed a 3.1×3.3×4.7cm, well-defined, enhancing lesion involving the pancreatic tail with a cystic component. Moreover, a 5.7×6.1×6.8cm metastatic hepatic lesion was identified. The patient underwent distal pancreatectomy with splenectomy, hepatic lesion resection, and lymph node dissection. Histopathological and immunohistochemical examination of the pancreatic and hepatic lesions revealed neuroendocrine tumor (VIPoma). Postoperatively, the patient received radiofrequency ablation for the hepatic lesion. A post-operative six-month follow-up showed significant symptomatic relief, reduced VIP hormone level (71pg/mL) and normalized electrolyte and acid-base profiles. However, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan showed a small residual metastatic liver lesion which was considered for hepatic artery embolization (HAE). The patient is still alive with a residual hepatic disease at 18months. We also present a brief literature review on VIPoma. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1099_7168", "title": "Pancreatic VIPoma as a Differential Diagnosis in Chronic Pediatric Diarrhea: A Case Report and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.014944769330734242, "content": "Chronic diarrhea is a common chief complaint in the pediatric population with a wide range of diagnostic differentials; as such, whilst suspecting common causes, less prevalent conditions tend to be overlooked, such as neuroendocrine tumor pathologies. VIPomas are characterized by hypersecretion of the vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), causing watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria. Nonetheless, its low incidence rate in children makes it an easily unnoticed pathology. Herein, we report a case of a 14-year-old female patient and a review of relevant literature. The patient complained of 7-month history of watery diarrhea, multiple emetic episodes, and relevant past medical history of multiple hospitalizations. Chronic diarrheal disease work-up studies, including a high VIP scintigram, showed a lesion suggestive of a VIPoma-type neuroendocrine pancreatic tumor. A distal pancreatectomy was performed with a complete resolution of the symptoms. When faced with a pediatric patient presenting with chronic secretory diarrhea and whose work-up studies rule out the most common pathologies, the possible presence of a neuroendocrine tumor as VIPoma should be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0864_13506", "title": "Ventricular fibrillation resulting from electrolyte imbalance reveals vipoma in MEN1 syndrome.", "score": 0.014910163582729955, "content": "Sporadic VIPoma is an exceedingly rare tumor with an annual incidence of 1:10 million people worldwide, yet it is described in approximately 5 % of MEN1 patients. The majority of VIPomas are malignant and radical surgery is the best therapeutic option. A 58-year-old man presented with cardiocirculatory arrest due to ventricular fibrillation. The patient had a 3-month history of epigastric pain with diarrhea. After reanimation, laboratory data revealed severe hypokalemia and hypercalcemia. Further investigations showed hyperparathyroidism, left adrenal adenoma and pituitary microprolactinoma and genetic diagnosis of MEN1 syndrome was made. Abdominal computed tomography revealed a 45 × 30 mm mass of the pancreatic head and two hepatic lesions, which proved to be neuroendocrine after 68 Ga PET and needle biopsy. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) serum level had increased. Subsequently the patient underwent pylorus-preserving pancreaticoduodenectomy and hepatic resection. Intraoperative VIP returned to normal values. Histopathology confirmed a pancreatic VIPoma metastatic to the liver. The postoperative course was unremarkable and the patient is well with no evidence of disease at a 48 months follow-up. Even in case of anusual presentation, when two or more main clinical findings of MEN1 related tumors are present, unrespectively to the presence of MEN1 mutation, MEN1 syndrome should be suspected. Surgery in MEN1 pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors is indicated both to treat symptoms and to avoid oncological progression even in advanced cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1159_5081", "title": "Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide Tumor as the Cause of Persistent Diarrhea: A Diagnostic Challenge.", "score": 0.014723740133576198, "content": "Although chronic diarrhea is frequent, some of its causes are rare, namely, neuroendocrine tumors (NETs). Due to their rarity and non-specific symptoms, such as diarrhea, they are often underdiagnosed. An 80-year-old woman presented to the emergency department due to emesis and watery diarrhea. Blood tests showed acute kidney injury, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis. An abdominal computed tomography revealed a 51 mm pancreatic lesion. An endoscopic ultrasound-guided biopsy raised the hypothesis of a NET. The patient refused surgery and was lost to follow-up. At the eighth hospitalization, 11 months later, the suspicion of a vasoactive intestinal peptide tumor (VIPoma) was raised and confirmed by assessing the vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) levels (&gt;100 pmol/L). Octreotide was started with the resolution of the symptoms. 68Ga-DOTANOC positron emission tomography/computed tomography excluded metastatic disease. After six months of octreotide therapy, the tumor shrunk 13 mm in maximum diameter. At the last follow-up, one year later, she remained asymptomatic. The delayed diagnosis of VIPoma led to multiple life-threatening episodes. This case highlights the importance of considering all potential differential diagnoses of common symptoms such as diarrhea. Although VIPomas are rare, clinicians should be aware of this entity and suspect this diagnosis in patients with chronic diarrhea with a poor response to standard antidiarrheal agents. Somatostatin analogs should be promptly prescribed for symptom control and tumor progression prevention in patients who refuse surgery or have unresectable tumors. Tumor shrinkage might also be observed in these cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0055_10211", "title": "Giant metastatic VIPoma in the liver.", "score": 0.01407147726166131, "content": "A case of giant metastatic liver VIPoma manifesting WDHA syndrome is described. The patient was a 33-year-old Japanese male who was admitted because of persisting watery diarrhea and weight loss. Laboratory examinations revealed marked hypokalemia, mild hypercalcemia and highly elevated plasma vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and glucagon levels. Intensive imaging examinations disclosed two large tumors in the liver but not in other organs, including the pancreas. Laparoscopy disclosed a slightly elevated purplish-colored large tumor on the surface of the apparently normal liver. At operation, however, a small hard nodule was observed in the tail of the pancreas. Histologically, it was revealed to be a VIPoma resembling a carcinoid or an islet cell tumor, and was identical to the liver tumors. Thus, this neoplasm was considered to be a VIPoma of pancreatic origin, with metastatic lesions in the liver." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_12649", "title": "Pancreatic VIPomas: subject review and one institutional experience.", "score": 0.014041633935585232, "content": "VIPomas are rare pancreatic endocrine tumors associated with a well-defined clinical syndrome characterized by watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis. The objective of this study was to review a single institution's experience with VIPomas, as well as to review the English literature. A retrospective review of the Johns Hopkins pancreatic database revealed four cases of VIPoma, with three patients being male. All patients presented with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, and acidosis. All patients had no family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia. Computed tomography revealed the primary pancreatic tumor in all patients, with three tumors located in the tail of the pancreas. One tumor involved the entire pancreas. Computed tomography and/or octreotide radionuclide scans identified hepatic metastasis in three patients. Mean serum vasoactive intestinal polypeptide levels were 683 pg/ml (range 293 to 1,500 pg/ml). All patients underwent resection of the pancreatic primary tumor. Two patients also had simultaneous liver resections. All patients had evidence of malignancy as defined by the presence of metastatic lymph nodes and/or hepatic metastases. Two patients had complete resolution of symptoms after surgical resection. One patient required radioablation of liver metastases and adjuvant octreotide therapy for control of symptoms. One patient died of progressive metastatic disease 96 months after surgery, whereas the other three remain alive. Extended, meaningful survival can be achieved for VIPoma patients, combining an aggressive surgical approach with additional strategies for treatment of unresected disease." }, { "id": "article-26563_10", "title": "Pancreatic Islet Cell Cancer -- History and Physical", "score": 0.013061250558855464, "content": "Insulinoma presents with hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia in patients. The disease is manifested as the Whipple triad. This includes symptoms of low blood glucose, along with the symptoms of hypoglycemia. Moreover, the symptoms should settle with glucose intake. [9] VIPoma in a patient can cause watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria. This is called VIPoma syndrome or WDHA syndrome. [10]" }, { "id": "article-22082_23", "title": "Physiology, Gastrin -- Pathophysiology", "score": 0.01297671172028682, "content": "A normal fasting serum gastrin level virtually excludes ZES. 70% to 75% of gastrinomas are sporadic; however, 25% to 30% of these tumors are associated with type 1 multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN1). [20] In patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (MEN1), an autosomal-dominant disorder, there is a clustering of the pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic tumors. Patients diagnosed with gastrinoma must be evaluated for MEN1 symptoms by asking about family history, hyperparathyroidism symptoms (hypercalcemia, nephrolithiasis), or symptoms of pituitary tumors (most commonly a prolactinoma, which causes galactorrhea in females while causing headache and bitemporal hemianopia in males). Labs are necessary to measure serum calcium, parathyroid hormone, and prolactin. [21] Instead of gastrinoma, they can also present with insulinoma (symptoms of hypoglycemia), glucagonomas (necrotizing migratory erythema (NME), diabetes, weight loss, anemia), or VIPoma (watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, hypochlorhydria). [22] Multiple imaging modalities are available to delineate the tumor, including CT, MRI, and somatostatin-receptor scintigraphy. Patients diagnosed with gastrinoma must be evaluated for MEN1 regarding family history, history of hypercalcemia, nephrolithiasis, or pituitary tumors, and labs are necessary to measure serum calcium, parathyroid hormone, and prolactin." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7180", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012337662337662338, "content": "Endocrine Tumors of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Pancreas Abbreviations: ACTH, adrenocorticotropic hormone; GRFoma, growth hormone–releasing factor secreting pancreatic endocrine tumor; IGF-II, insulin-like growth factor II; MEN, multiple endocrine neoplasia; pNET, pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor; PPoma, tumor secreting pancreatic polypeptide; PTHrP, parathyroid hormone–related peptide; VIPoma, tumor secreting vasoactive intestinal peptide; WDHA, watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria syndrome. aPancreatic polypeptide–secreting tumors (PPomas) are listed in two places because most authorities classify these as not associated with a specific hormonal syndrome (nonfunctional); however, rare cases of watery diarrhea proposed to be due to PPomas have been reported. Because a large proportion of nonfunctional pNETs (60–90%) secrete PP, these tumors are often referred to as PPomas (Table 113-2)." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_9771", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.012318966014655819, "content": "have the worst prognosis.Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide-Secreting TumorIn 1958, Verner and Morrison first described the syndrome associated with a pancreatic neoplasm secreting VIP. The clas-sic clinical syndrome associated with this pancreatic endocrine neoplasm consists of severe intermittent watery diarrhea leading to dehydration, and weakness from fluid and electrolyte losses. Large amounts of potassium are lost in the stool. The vasoac-tive intestinal peptide-secreting tumor (VIPoma) syndrome is also called WDHA syndrome due to the presence of watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria. The massive (5 L/d) and episodic nature of the diarrhea associated with the appropriate electrolyte abnormalities should raise suspicion of the diagnosis. Serum VIP levels must be measured on multiple occasions because the excess secretion of VIP is episodic and single measurements might be normal and misleading. A CT scan localizes most VIPomas, although as with all islet cell tumors, EUS is" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3113", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011714151165528607, "content": "clinical manifestation in 10%. While other secretagogues released with gastrin may play a role, the diarrhea most often results from fat maldigestion owing to pancreatic enzyme inactivation by low intraduodenal pH. The watery diarrhea hypokalemia achlorhydria syndrome, also called pancreatic cholera, is due to a non-β cell pancreatic adenoma, referred to as a VIPoma, that secretes VIP and a host of other peptide hormones including pancreatic polypeptide, secretin, gastrin, gastrin-inhibitory polypeptide (also called glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide), neurotensin, calcitonin, and prostaglandins. The secretory diarrhea is often massive with stool volumes >3 L/d; daily volumes as high as 20 L have been reported. Life-threatening dehydration; neuromuscular dysfunction from associated hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, or hypercalcemia; flushing; and hyperglycemia may accompany a VIPoma. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid may present with watery diarrhea caused by calcitonin, other" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0991_13797", "title": "Clinicopathological data and treatment modalities for pancreatic vipomas: a systematic review.", "score": 0.010866072732583613, "content": "Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) secreting tumor (VIPoma) constitutes a rare functional neuroendocrine tumor that most often originates from pancreatic islet cells and presents as a sporadic, solitary neoplasm of the pancreas. The purpose of this study was to systematically review the literature of pancreatic VIPomas and report clinicopathologic data and treatment modalities for this rare entity. A systematic literature search was performed. The reviewed clinical series and case reports were included if they reported surgical treatment and also analyzed oncological outcomes on individual patients. Data extraction was performed using a standard registry pro-forma. The search resulted in 53 case reports and 2 case series including 65 patients in total. Median age reported was 54 years. The predominant pancreatic location was the pancreatic tail. The most common clinical symptom was watery diarrhea. Serum VIP levels were remarkably elevated in all patients. Distal pancreatectomy with or without splenectomy was the most commonly applied surgical procedure. Overall survival associated with pancreatic VIPoma was 67.7%, recurrence rate 40.4% and relevant median disease-free interval was 16 months. VIPomas are functional tumors that secrete excessive amounts of VIP. Clinically, production of VIP causes refractory watery diarrhea, hypokalemia and achlorydria. As far as diagnosis is concerned, elevated VIP plasma levels are required. Moreover, the majority of VIPomas are malignant or have already metastasized on diagnosis. Despite recent research on the therapeutic strategies against pancreatic VIPoma, surgical resection appears as the only potentially curative approach." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en454_6868", "title": "Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor", "score": 0.010706932052161977, "content": "Signs and symptoms Some PanNETs do not cause any symptoms, in which case they may be discovered incidentally on a CT scan performed for a different purpose. Symptoms such as abdominal or back pain or pressure, diarrhea, indigestion, or yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes can arise from the effects of a larger PanNET tumor, either locally or at a metastasis. About 40% of PanNETS have symptoms related to excessive secretion of hormones or active polypeptides and are accordingly labeled as \"functional\"; the symptoms reflect the type of hormone secreted, as discussed below. Up to 60% of PanNETs are nonsecretory or nonfunctional, in which there is no secretion, or the quantity or type of products, such as pancreatic polypeptide (PPoma), chromogranin A, and neurotensin, do not cause a clinical syndrome although blood levels may be elevated. In total, 85% of PanNETs have an elevated blood marker." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0317_16365", "title": "Somatic mutations of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 gene in the sporadic endocrine tumors.", "score": 0.010589421783953383, "content": "Endocrine tumors of the parathyroid and pancreas are encountered either as sporadic type or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1). A high frequency of the loss of heterozygosity (LOH) has been observed in tumors of the sporadic type in the locus of the MEN 1 gene, which has recently been cloned and designated the menin gene. It would be of great interest to determine whether somatic mutations in the menin gene are responsible for the sporadic endocrine tumors. For this purpose, we have investigated the menin gene mutations in 21 sporadic parathyroid adenomas, 2 parathyroid carcinomas, 4 sporadic insulinomas, and 1 malignant VIP (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide)oma with WDHA (watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria) syndrome, using PCR-single strand conformation polymorphism analysis and DNA sequencing. In none of these cases did the patient have a family history or other possible association with MEN 1. We have discovered somatic point mutations in two parathyroid adenomas (A340T and A541T), in one insulinoma (T429K), and in the malignant VIPoma (W198X). In addition, we have found two polymorphisms (D418D and V367V) in two parathyroid carcinomas and two parathyroid adenomas. Of these mutations and polymorphisms, three (A340T, T429K, and V367V) are first reported here, in the present article. Our results indicate that somatic mutations of the menin gene are responsible for a proportion of the sporadic parathyroid adenomas and pancreatic islet cell tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0616_12366", "title": "Cervical metastases of glucagonoma in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1: report of a case.", "score": 0.010509031198686371, "content": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) is a syndrome characterized by tumors of the parathyroid glands, pancreatic islet cells, duodenum, and pituitary gland. We report a case of cervical metastases of glucagonoma with MEN 1. The patient was a 34-year-old woman admitted to our hospital with epigastric pain. Her medical history included two resections of prolactinoma and two upper GI hemorrhages secondary to duodenal ulcers. Computed tomography (CT) showed two hypervascular lesions in the tail of the pancreas and cervical ultrasound showed multiple hypoechogenic ovoid images in the neck. A cervical CT scan confirmed two 15-mm lymph nodes in the left cervical region and 111In-DOTATOC imaging showed focal abnormal somatostatin expression in the pancreatic tail and the cervical nodes. The patient had asymptomatic hypoglycemic episodes, with blood sugar levels as low as 30 mg/dl, which raised our suspicion of MEN 1 associated with pancreatic insulinoma. Thus, we performed a distal pancreatectomy with bilateral cervical dissection and parathyroid gland resection. Histopathological examination revealed 12 pancreatic tumors as well as metastases in four cervical lymph nodes. The resected parathyroid glands had normal structure, suggesting parathyroid hyperplasia. A follow-up CT scan, 18 months after surgery, showed new tumors in the head of the pancreas and in the duodenal wall. A pancreatoduodenectomy was performed and histopathological examination revealed nine nonfunctioning endocrine tumors in the pancreas, one tumor in the duodenal wall, and metastases in two peripancreatic lymph nodes. The patient recovered well and remains asymptomatic." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7297", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010471418345434094, "content": "Pancreatic tumors are frequently (70–92%) metastatic at presentation, whereas 30–69% of SI somatostatinomas have metastases. Surgery is the treatment of choice for those without widespread hepatic metastases. Symptoms in patients with the somatostatinoma syndrome are also improved by octreotide treatment. VIPomas are NETs that secrete excessive amounts of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), which causes a distinct syndrome characterized by large-volume diarrhea, hypokalemia, and dehydration. This syndrome also is called Verner-Morrison syndrome, pancreatic cholera, and WDHA syndrome for watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria, which some patients develop. The mean age of patients with this syndrome is 49 years; however, it can occur in children, and when it does, it is usually caused by a ganglioneuroma or ganglioneuroblastoma." }, { "id": "article-31169_2", "title": "ViPoma -- Introduction", "score": 0.010451505016722408, "content": "Vasoactive intestinal peptide tumors (VIPoma) are neuroendocrine tumors secreting vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) in an unregulated manner. Werner and Morrison first described them in 1958 as a pancreatic tumor resulting in watery diarrhea and hypokalemia [1] . In 1973, the team of Bloom, Polak, and Pearse confirmed that the mediator was VIP [2] . The VIPoma syndrome is also known as Verner-Morrison syndrome, watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria (WDHA) syndrome, and pancreatic cholera syndrome [3] . This review highlights the clinical presentation, diagnosis, and management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_67738", "title": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1", "score": 0.009918157858232765, "content": "A severe secretory diarrhea can develop and cause fluid and electrolyte depletion with non–β-cell tumors. This complex, referred to as the watery diarrhea, hypokalemia and achlorhydria syndrome (VIPoma) has been ascribed to vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, although other intestinal hormones or secretagogues (including prostaglandins) may contribute. Hypersecretion of glucagon, somatostatin, chromogranin, or calcitonin, ectopic secretion of ACTH resulting in Cushing's syndrome, and hypersecretion of somatotropin–releasing hormone (causing acromegaly) sometimes occur in non–β-cell tumors. All of these are rare in MEN 1.Nonfunctioning pancreatic tumors also occur in patients with MEN 1 and may be the most common type of pancreatoduodenal tumor in MEN 1. The size of the nonfunctioning tumor correlates with risk of metastasis and death." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_23000", "title": "Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumor Secreting Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide and Dopamine With Pulmonary Emboli: A Case Report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The vasoactive intestinal peptide-secreting neuroendocrine tumor (VIPoma) is a very rare pancreatic tumor. We report the first case of a patient with VIPoma that co-secreted dopamine and had pulmonary emboli. A 67-year-old woman presented with 2 months of watery diarrhea, severe generalized weakness,6.8 kg of weight loss, a facial rash, and hypokalemia. Colonoscopy did not reveal the cause of the chronic diarrhea. Initial biochemical testing showed markedly elevated serum vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and pancreatic polypeptide. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis revealed a 5.4-cm distal pancreatic mass. Octreoscan showed an intense uptake in the area of the pancreatic mass. Incidental pulmonary emboli were found and treated. Additional biochemical testing revealed a markedly elevated urinary dopamine level. The patient received preoperative α-blockade and octreotide. She underwent a successful laparoscopic distal pancreatectomy. Postoperative urinary dopamine and pancreatic polypeptide were within normal limits. Serum VIP decreased by half but remained elevated. Pathology confirmed a grade 1 pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor without lymph node metastasis. The patient's symptoms resolved and no longer required octreotide. Metastatic workup including computed tomography, F18-fluorodeoxglucose positron emission tomography, and Ga68-DOTATATE scans were negative during 4 years of follow-up. VIPoma is a rare subtype of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that can secrete dopamine and can be associated with thromboembolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0994_22658", "title": "Life-threating diarrhea and acute renal failure secondary to pancreatic VIPoma treated by surgery.", "score": 0.009760488972068892, "content": "Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors represent less than 5% of all pancreatic tumors. They are a heterogeneous group of neoplasms with a diverse behavior and prognosis. Pancreatic vasoactive intestinal polypeptide tumor (VIPoma) is an exceptional tumor within this group due to its low incidence. The presence of pancreatic VIPoma should be clinically suspected in all patients with watery diarrhea, particularly when accompanied by a loss of potassium and bicarbonate and a pancreatic mass on imaging. There are other pathologies with similar symptoms; therefore, a correct differential diagnosis with an adequate treatment is essential for its management. We present the case of a 46-year-old patient who developed a prerenal kidney failure secondary to severe watery diarrhea after a diagnosis of pancreatic VIPoma. Thus, a resection was performed as the patient was rapidly deteriorating and required an intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0880_26117", "title": "Necrolytic migratory erythema and pancreatic glucagonoma.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Necrolytic migratory erythema is a rare paraneoplastic dermatosis that may be the first clinical manifestation of the glucagonoma syndrome, a disorder characterized by mucocutaneous rash, glucose intolerance, hypoaminoacidemia, hyperglucagonaemia and pancreatic glucagonoma. The clinical case of a 45-year-old woman is presented. She had been experiencing weight loss, polydipsia, polyphagia, postprandial emesis, excessive hair loss and abdominal pain for two months. Erythematous, scaly and migratory plaques with 20 days of evolution were found on her trunk, perineum, elbows, hands, feet, inframammary and antecubital folds. The skin biopsy revealed noticeable vacuolar changes in high epidermal cells, extensive necrosis and thin orthokeratotic cornified layer. These findings pointed to a diagnosis of necrolytic migratory erythema. A suggestion was made to investigate a pancreatic glucagonoma. Laboratory tests showed moderate anemia, hyperglycemia and marked hyperglucagonaemia. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a mass in the tail of the pancreas measuring 6 x 5 x 5 cm which was resected. The histopathological findings were compatible with a diagnosis of glucagonoma, as confirmed by immunohistochemistry. Skin symptoms disappeared 10 days after the tumor resection. We can conclude that the histological changes defined may be clues that can lead the search for a distant skin disease and allow for its diagnosis. The histological pattern of vacuolation and epidermal necrosis should arouse suspicion of pancreatic glucagonoma. " } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Treatment with cloxacillin and ceftriaxone should be initiated pending the result of the fluid culture.", "2": "It is advisable to perform daily arthrocentesis to relieve symptoms and prevent joint destruction.", "3": "If the culture is negative, it is likely to be reactive arthritis.", "4": "Negative Gram stain rules out septic arthritis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0705_7704", "title": "Approach to septic arthritis.", "score": 0.019417475728155338, "content": "Prompt diagnosis and treatment of infectious arthritis can help prevent significant morbidity and mortality. The acute onset of monoarticular joint pain, erythema, heat, and immobility should raise suspicion of sepsis. Constitutional symptoms such as fever, chills, and rigors are poorly sensitive for septic arthritis. In the absence of peripheral leukopenia or prosthetic joint replacement, synovial fluid white blood cell count in patients with septic arthritis is usually greater than 50,000 per mm3. Isolation of the causative agent through synovial fluid culture is not only definitive but also essential before selecting antibiotic therapy. Synovial fluid analysis is also useful to help distinguish crystal arthropathy from infectious arthritis, although the two occasionally coexist. Almost any microorganism can be pathogenic in septic arthritis; however, septic arthritis is caused by nongonococcal pathogens (most commonly Staphylococcus species) in more than 80 percent of patients. Gram stain results should guide initial antibiotic choice. Vancomycin can be used for gram-positive cocci, ceftriaxone for gram-negative cocci, and ceftazidime for gram-negative rods. If the Gram stain is negative, but there is strong clinical suspicion for bacterial arthritis, treatment with vancomycin plus ceftazidime or an aminoglycoside is appropriate. Evacuation of purulent material with arthrocentesis or surgical methods is necessary. Special consideration should be given to patients with prosthetic joint infection. In this population, the intraarticular cutoff values for infection may be as low as 1,100 white blood cells per mm3 with a neutrophil differential of greater than 64 percent." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60828", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.019334952363160844, "content": "Diagnosis Septic arthritis should be considered whenever a person has rapid onset pain in a swollen joint, regardless of fever. One or multiple joints can be affected at the same time. The diagnosis of septic arthritis is based on physical exam and prompt arthrocentesis which yields synovial fluid from within the affected joint. This fluid should be collected before the administration of antibiotics and should be sent for gram stain, culture, leukocyte count with differential, and crystal studies. This can include NAAT testing for N. gonorrhoeae if suspected in a sexually active person." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60834", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.018311036789297658, "content": "The Gram stain can rule in the diagnosis of septic arthritis, however, cannot exclude it. Synovial fluid cultures are positive in over 90% of nongonoccocal arthritis; however, it is possible for the culture to be negative if the person received antibiotics prior to the joint aspiration. Cultures are usually negative in gonoccocal arthritis or if fastidious organisms are involved. If the culture is negative or if a gonococcal cause is suspected, NAAT testing of the synovial fluid should be done. Positive crystal studies do not rule out septic arthritis. Crystal-induced arthritis such as gout can occur at the same time as septic arthritis. A lactate level in the synovial fluid of greater than 10 mmol/l makes the diagnosis very likely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1048_2763", "title": "[Arthrocentesis in the Emergency Department].", "score": 0.017564043564963952, "content": "Arthrocentesis in the Emergency Department <bAbstract.</b Acute joint swelling is a common presentation to the emergency department. Although routine investigations like clinical exam, labs and eventually x-ray are usually obtained, definitive diagnosis must be established since timely recognition of septic arthritis in particular is crucial. Definitive diagnosis is achieved by performing an arthrocentesis of the affected joint. While arthrocentesis of larger joints and large effusions (e. g. knee) are relatively easy to perform using the landmark-technique, smaller and less accessible joints (shoulder, elbow, hip) are more difficult to access and it is therefore recommended to use ultrasound guidance. Compared with the landmark-technique, ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis is more successful and less painful. Synovial fluid should be analyzed for cell count with differential, crystals as well as for microbiological analysis such as Gram-stain and culture. Once the diagnosis of septic arthritis has been established, irrigation of the joint should be performed by orthopedic surgery. Antibiotic therapy should be withheld until the sampling of synovial fluid has been completed. After exclusion of septic arthritis, acute arthritis due to crystal arthropathy (CPPD or gout) is treated with either glucocorticoid-infiltration of the joint or with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. In this article, the different technical aspects of arthrocentesis are discussed, including asepsis, landmark- and ultrasound-guided access, preanalytics and interpretation of the laboratory results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0565_6409", "title": "Does this adult patient have septic arthritis?", "score": 0.016083376222336594, "content": "In patients who present with an acutely painful and swollen joint, prompt identification and treatment of septic arthritis can substantially reduce morbidity and mortality. To review the accuracy and precision of the clinical evaluation for the diagnosis of nongonococcal bacterial arthritis. Structured PubMed and EMBASE searches (1966 through January 2007), limited to human, English-language articles and using the following Medical Subject Headings terms: arthritis, infectious, physical examination, medical history taking, diagnostic tests, and sensitivity and specificity. Studies were included if they contained original data on the accuracy or precision of historical items, physical examination, serum, or synovial fluid laboratory data for diagnosing septic arthritis. Three authors independently abstracted data from the included studies. Fourteen studies involving 6242 patients, of whom 653 met the gold standard for the diagnosis of septic arthritis, satisfied all inclusion criteria. Two studies examined risk factors and found that age, diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, joint surgery, hip or knee prosthesis, skin infection, and human immunodeficiency virus type 1 infection significantly increase the probability of septic arthritis. Joint pain (sensitivity, 85%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 78%-90%), a history of joint swelling (sensitivity, 78%; 95% CI, 71%-85%), and fever (sensitivity, 57%; 95% CI, 52%-62%) are the only findings that occur in more than 50% of patients. Sweats (sensitivity, 27%; 95% CI, 20%-34%) and rigors (sensitivity, 19%; 95% CI, 15%-24%) are less common findings in septic arthritis. Of all laboratory findings readily available to the clinician, the 2 most powerful were the synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count and percentage of polymorphonuclear cells from arthrocentesis. The summary likelihood ratio (LR) increased as the synovial fluid WBC count increased (for counts &lt;25,000/microL: LR, 0.32; 95% CI, 0.23-0.43; for counts &gt; or =25,000/microL: LR, 2.9; 95% CI, 2.5-3.4; for counts &gt;50,000/microL: LR, 7.7; 95% CI, 5.7-11.0; and for counts &gt;100,000/microL: LR, 28.0; 95% CI, 12.0-66.0). On the same synovial fluid sample, a polymorphonuclear cell count of at least 90% suggests septic arthritis with an LR of 3.4 (95% CI, 2.8-4.2), while a polymorphonuclear cell count of less than 90% lowers the likelihood (LR, 0.34; 95% CI, 0.25-0.47). Clinical findings identify patients with peripheral, monoarticular arthritis who might have septic arthritis. However, the synovial WBC and percentage of polymorphonuclear cells from arthrocentesis are required to assess the likelihood of septic arthritis before the Gram stain and culture test results are known." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_620", "title": "Septic arthritis caused by Granulicatella adiacens: diagnosis by inoculation of synovial fluid into blood culture bottles.", "score": 0.01490596238495398, "content": "Granulicatella species, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci, cause a variety of infections, primarily endocarditis. We report the first culture-proven case of a Granulicatella species causing septic arthritis. A 68-year-old female presented with knee pain and swelling. She was initially evaluated with arthrocentesis and arthroscopy, but no organism was identified. Her pain improved after a brief course of antibiotics but recurred 3 months later. She underwent repeat arthrocentesis, with direct inoculation of synovial fluid into blood culture bottles. Granulicatella adiacens was recovered from both bottles. She was treated with cefazolin for 4 weeks combined with gentamicin for the first 2 weeks. Her knee pain and swelling resolved without evidence of recurrence. Granulicatella should be considered in cases of septic arthritis with initially negative synovial fluid cultures. Inoculation of blood cultures bottles with synovial fluid may increase the diagnostic yield for these species." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0529_20435", "title": "[Diagnosis of septic arthritis and initial antibiotic treatment].", "score": 0.01435472739820566, "content": "This study was designed to determine the similarities and differences in clinical, laboratory and radiographic presentation of septic arthritis in childhood and at adult ages, to find out its etiological profile, and to establish an antibiotic treatment protocol for the initial period and for patients in whom the causative agent could not be identified. Thirty-four patients (age range 15 months to 85 years) who underwent surgery with a diagnosis of septic arthritis were retrospectively studied in two groups, namely, children-adolescents (age = or &lt; 15 years ; 16 patients) and adults (age &gt;15 years; 18 patients). Clinical and laboratory findings of septic arthritis were compared with operation findings. The etiological profile and sensitivity patterns were investigated. Unflatering features in both groups were clinical findings of decreased range of motion and tenderness, laboratory findings of elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein, and domination of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in the joint fluid. Gram staining of the joint fluid was highly informative in terms of probable bacteria. During the first two years of life, the most common bacteria were H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae, and after two years, staphylococci and streptococci. Ciprofloxacin and sulbactam-ampicillin were found effective against most of the Gram-positive microorganisms isolated in both groups. The most useful test for septic arthritis is arthrosynthesis and macroscopic and microscopic analyses of the material. Gram staining is of great help in the planning of initial antibiotic treatment. For patients older than two years of age, treatment with sulbactam-ampicillin is effective against staphylococci and streptococci, and amikacin against Gram-negative bacteria. Detection of Gram-negative bacteria in patients younger than two years should bring H. influenzae in mind, for which ampicillin must be the first choice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_23546", "title": "Gram Stain is Not Clinically Relevant in Treatment of Pediatric Septic Arthritis.", "score": 0.01406116844995739, "content": "The diagnosis of pediatric septic arthritis (SA) can be challenging due to wide variability in the presentation of musculoskeletal infection. Synovial fluid Gram stain is routinely obtained and often used as an initial indicator of the presence or absence of pediatric SA. The purpose of this study was to examine the clinical utility of the Gram stain results from a joint aspiration in the diagnosis and management of pediatric SA. All patients with suspected SA who underwent arthrocentesis and subsequent surgical irrigation and debridement at an urban tertiary care children's hospital between January 2007 and October 2016 were identified. Results of the synovial fluid Gram stain, as well as synovial cell count/differential and serum markers, were evaluated. A total of 302 patients that underwent incision and drainage for suspected SA were identified. In total, 102 patients (34%) had positive synovial fluid cultures and 47 patients (16%) had a microorganism detected on Gram stain. Gram stain sensitivity and specificity for the detection of SA were 0.40 and 0.97, respectively. This yielded a number needed to misdiagnose of 4.5 (ie, every fifth patient was misdiagnosed by Gram stain). For gram-negative organisms, the sensitivity dropped further to 0.13, with only 2/16 gram-negative organisms identified on Gram stain. Stepwise regression showed that age, serum white blood cell, and absolute neutrophil count were significant independent predictors for having a true positive Gram stain result. Elevated synovial white blood cell count was a significant predictor of having an accurate (culture matching the Gram stain) result. The Gram stain result is a poor screening tool for the detection of SA and is particularly ineffective for the detection of gram-negative organisms. The clinical relevance of the Gram stain and cost-effectiveness of this test performed on every joint aspiration sent for culture requires additional evaluation. Patients with gram-negative SA may be at high risk for inadequate coverage with empiric antibiotics due to poor detection of gram-negative organisms on initial Gram stain. Level III-case-control study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_4643", "title": "[Two cases of pneumococcal septic arthritis complicating rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.01393188854489164, "content": "It is reported that most of the causative organisms of suppurative arthritis complicating rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is Staphylococcus aureus and that Streptococcus pneumoniae is rare, representing less than 5% of cases of suppurative arthritis complicating RA. We here report two cases of pneumococcal septic arthritis complicating RA. Both were female, and 68 and 64 years old, respectively. They had active, long-standing RA with destructed changes. Infected joints included both knees (case 1) and right knee (case 2). Pain and loss of motion in the septic joints were prominent. On admission, the physical examination showed severe redness, swelling and tenderness of the septic joints and the range of motion of those was markedly decreased. The radiograph of affected joints showed stage III. Laboratory data showed markedly elevated ESR of 127 mm/hr (case 1) and 142 mm/hr (case 2) and C-reactive protein of 49.91 mg/dl (case 1) and 30.36 mg/dl (case 2). Aspirate of the left knee of case 1 showed numerous neutrophils. Cultures of the joint fluid grew S. pneumoniae. Grossly purulent material was aspirated from the right knee of case 2 and cultures also grew S. pneumoniae. They were started on intravenous antibiotics with a good response and the function of involved joints returned to preseptic condition. The source of infection on case 1 was presumed to be otitis media because she had discharge from left ear concurrently with the exacerbation of joint symptoms. Case 2 had productive cough and cultures of sputum also disclosed S. pneumoniae when pain of right knee joint developed. The suggested source of infection was upper respiratory tract.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_11075", "title": "How sensitive is the synovial fluid white blood cell count in diagnosing septic arthritis?", "score": 0.013682493657122145, "content": "This study was conducted to determine the sensitivity of the current standard for synovial fluid leukocytosis analysis in diagnosing infectious arthritis or a septic joint. How accurate is the standard synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) cutoff of 50,000 WBC/mm3 to rule out septic arthritis? We conducted a retrospective study at an urban tertiary care medical center with 50,000 adult emergency department visits per year. The study population consisted of patients with infectious arthritis confirmed by synovial fluid culture growth of a pathogenic organism. The study period lasted from January 1996 to December 2002. Extracted data included synovial fluid leukocyte count, Gram's stain, culture, past medical history, and discharge diagnosis. Fisher exact test was used to compare proportions. Sensitivity and means were calculated with 95% confidence intervals (CI). There were 49 culture-positive synovial fluid aspirates in the 6-year study period. Nineteen (39%) of 49 patients (95% CI, 25%-52%) had a synovial WBC of less than 50,000/mm3 and 30 (61%) of 49 patients (95% CI, 48%-75%) had a synovial WBC of more than 50,000/mm3. The sensitivity of the 50,000 synovial WBC/mm3 cutoff was 61% (95% CI, 48%-75%). Twenty-seven (55%) of 49 patients had a negative Gram's stain (95% CI, 41%-69%) and 15 (56%) of 27 patients (95% CI, 37%-74%) with negative Gram's stain had a synovial WBC of less than 50,000/mm3. A synovial fluid WBC cutoff of 50,000/mm3 lacks the sensitivity required to be clinically useful in ruling out infectious arthritis." }, { "id": "article-17857_17", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.013554463554463554, "content": "Treatment of septic arthritis comprises antimicrobial therapy and joint fluid drainage (arthrotomy, arthroscopy, or daily needle aspiration). Empiric intravenous antimicrobial therapy should be initiated promptly after joint aspiration is complete and cultures obtained. Empiric antibiotic coverage includes antistaphylococcal coverage (nafcillin, oxacillin, or vancomycin) for all age and risk categories. Empiric antibiotics for nongonococcal septic arthritis usually involves the use of intravenous vancomycin directed against gram-positive organisms especially if there is a suspicion of MRSA based on community and institutional data. If the patient is immunocompromised, abuses intravenous drugs or the gram stain is negative, then a third-generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone, ceftazidime or cefotaxime should be added for the additional gram-negative coverage. [4] [6] Age, risk factors, and gram stain result should direct additional antibiotics (e.g., a third-generation cephalosporin for suspected Salmonella or N. gonorrhea ). Blood and synovial fluid cultures and sensitivities should direct prolonged antimicrobial treatment. Early involvement by an orthopedic surgeon is essential. The procedure used to drain joint fluid depends on multiple factors and is determined by the orthopedic surgeon." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0815_18878", "title": "Preliminary results of a new test for rapid diagnosis of septic arthritis with use of leukocyte esterase and glucose reagent strips.", "score": 0.013333857772183762, "content": "Most currently used tools to diagnose septic arthritis are either not readily available or fail to provide real-time results. Reagent strip tests have identified infections in various body fluids. We hypothesized that combined leukocyte esterase and glucose strip tests can aid in diagnosing septic arthritis in native synovial fluid because (1) leukocyte esterase concentrations would be elevated at the infection site because of secretion by recruited neutrophils, and (2) glucose concentrations would be reduced because of bacterial metabolism. We prospectively investigated synovial fluid from consecutive patients with an atraumatic joint effusion who underwent arthrocentesis in our emergency department during a one-year period. Leukocyte esterase and glucose strip tests were performed on the synovial fluid. Synovial fluid leukocyte count, crystal analysis, Gram staining, culture, and glucose concentration results were also assessed. Nineteen fluids were classified as septic and 127 as aseptic. Considering septic arthritis to be present when the leukocyte esterase reading was positive (++ or +++) and the glucose reading was negative (-) yielded a sensitivity of 89.5% (95% confidence interval [CI], 66.9% to 98.7%), specificity of 99.2% (95% CI, 95.7% to 99.9%), positive predictive value of 94.4% (95% CI, 72.7% to 99.9%), negative predictive value of 98.4% (95% CI, 94.5% to 99.8%), positive likelihood ratio of 114, and negative likelihood ratio of 0.11. The synovial leukocyte counts and polymorphonuclear cell percentages were consistent with the semiquantitative readings on the leukocyte esterase strip tests, and the glucose concentrations were consistent with the glucose strip test results. Combined leukocyte esterase and glucose strip tests can be a useful additional tool to help confirm or rule out a diagnosis of septic arthritis." }, { "id": "article-23916_15", "title": "Knee Effusion -- Evaluation -- Septic Arthritis", "score": 0.013212248377155596, "content": "Joint fluid appears cloudy or purulent. A cell count with WBC greater than 50,000 is considered diagnostic for septic arthritis. However, lower counts may still indicate infection (not sensitive). [9] A prosthetic joint with WBC greater than 1100 is considered septic. Gram stains only identify infective organisms one-third of the time. Glucose will be less than 50% of the serum level." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_21129", "title": "Arthrocentesis", "score": 0.012907702984038861, "content": "Arthrocentesis, or joint aspiration, is the clinical procedure performed to diagnose and, in some cases, treat musculoskeletal conditions. The procedure entails using a syringe to collect synovial fluid from or inject medication into the joint capsule. Laboratory analysis of synovial fluid can further help characterize the diseased joint and distinguish between gout, arthritis, and synovial infections such as septic arthritis. Uses In general, arthrocentesis should be strongly considered if there is suspected trauma, infection, or effusion of the joint. Diagnostic Arthrocentesis can be used to diagnose septic arthritis or crystal arthropathy. In the case of a septic joint, arthrocentesis should preferably be performed prior to starting treatment with antibiotics, in order to ensure a proper sample of synovial fluid is obtained." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0407_10692", "title": "Gram staining in the diagnosis of acute septic arthritis.", "score": 0.012901912901912903, "content": "This study aimed at determining the sensitivity and specificity of Gram staining of synovial fluid as a diagnostic tool in acute septic arthritis. A retrospective study was made of 22 patients who had arthroscopic lavage following a provisional diagnosis of acute septic arthritis of the knee joint. Gram stains and cultures of the knee aspirates were compared with the clinical and laboratory parameters, to evaluate their usefulness in diagnosing acute arthritis. All patients who had septic arthritis had pain, swelling and limitation of movement. CRP was elevated in 90% of patients. The incidence of elevated white blood cell count was higher in the group of patients with a positive Gram stain study (60%) as compared to patients with a negative Gram stain study (33%). Gram staining sensitivity was 45%. Its specificity was however 100%. Gram staining is an unreliable tool in early decision making in patients requiring urgent surgical drainage and washout." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0991_14358", "title": "Primary Meningococcal Septic Arthritis Case Report and Literature Review of an Unusual Manifestation of Meningococcal Disease.", "score": 0.012735505781515322, "content": "Primary meningococcal septic arthritis (PMSA) is an unusual manifestation of meningococcal disease. It is defined as the presence of acute septic arthritis without association with meningitis or the classic meningococcemia and isolation of Neisseria meningitidis in synovial fluid and blood culture. Diagnosis and early treatment, combining antibiotic and joint drainage, are fundamental. We present the case of a healthy 17-year-old male who presented with history of an acute onset, painful knee accompanied by fever. N. meningitidis was cultured from the synovial fluid. He was treated with arthroscopic lavage and intravenous ceftriaxone for 2 weeks. He was discharged 7 days after admission receiving outpatient intravenous ceftriaxione for 6 days and was ultimately transitioned to oral ciprofloxacin for 2 weeks thereafter. At the final follow-up visit, he had returned to sports activity with a normal knee joint. We have done an exhaustive literature review in PubMed. Forty-four articles were included, with a total of 46 patients, to which we added ours. We collected the available demographic data, analytical values, culture tests, treatment, and evolution. This case illustrates an unusual presentation of N. meningitidis infection. Diagnostic suspicion is essential. Joint washing and antibiotics are the mainstays of treatment. Early and proper treatment prevents complications and mortality. Our main objective was to evaluate the diagnostics tools and treatment in PMSA. As a secondary objective, we evaluated the cases with negative cultures in order to evaluate the criteria for the diagnostic suspicion of PMSA." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60833", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.012658730158730157, "content": "In the joint fluid, the typical white blood cell count in septic arthritis is over 50,000-100,000 cells per 10−6/l (50,000-100,000 cell/mm3); where more than 90% are neutrophils is suggestive of septic arthritis. For those with prosthetic joints, white cell count more than 1,100 per mm3 with neutrophil count greater than 64% is suggestive of septic arthritis. However, septic synovial fluid can have white blood cell counts as low as a few thousand in the early stages. Therefore, differentiation of septic arthritis from other causes is not always possible based on cell counts alone. Synovial fluid PCR analysis is useful in finding less common organisms such as Borrelia species. However, measuring protein and glucose levels in joint fluid is not useful for diagnosis. The Gram stain can rule in the diagnosis of septic arthritis, however, cannot exclude it." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0998_11735", "title": "Bilateral septic arthritis of the knee caused by group B streptococci: a case report.", "score": 0.01259644150527476, "content": "Septic arthritis (SA) remains to be a critical diagnosis for a swollen knee at the emergency department. Here, we report a rare case of bilateral knee arthritis in a 59-year-old diabetic woman who had been immobilized 5 months prior to admission. Her right knee swelling exacerbated in 10 days leading to left knee involvement. In 5 days the clear synovial tap in the first hospital turned purulent in the second hospital and empirical antibiotics get started with high WBC count, dominant neutrophils, and Gram-positive cocci in smear. Knee arthrotomy was performed after 6 days in the third hospital with the same smear results but negative blood and synovial cultures of both knees. When followed in retrograde, two positive blood cultures were reported for <iStreptococcus agalactiae</i in the second hospital. Vancomycin was changed to ampicillin and symptoms were resolved in 4 weeks. Despite improvement, mobility was not retained. Uncommon etiologic agents of knee arthritis should be in mind specifically in debilitated patients. Timely initiation of proper antibiotics hinders permanent sequels, hence clinicians should be suspicious of such organisms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_58319", "title": "Reactive arthritis", "score": 0.012518793531956675, "content": "Reactive arthritis usually manifests about 1–3 weeks after a known infection. The mechanism of interaction between the infecting organism and the host is unknown. Synovial fluid cultures are negative, suggesting that reactive arthritis is caused either by an autoimmune response involving cross-reactivity of bacterial antigens with joint tissues or by bacterial antigens that have somehow become deposited in the joints. Diagnosis There are few clinical symptoms, but the clinical picture is dominated by arthritis in one or more joints, resulting in pain, swelling, redness, and heat sensation in the affected areas. The urethra, cervix and the throat may be swabbed in an attempt to culture the causative organisms. Cultures may also be carried out on urine and stool samples or on fluid obtained by arthrocentesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0397_14562", "title": "Pneumococcal septic arthritis of the shoulder. Case report and literature review.", "score": 0.012298794509093443, "content": "Septic arthritis due to Streptococcus Pneumoniae appears to be relatively uncommon. Single- or clustered-case histories constitute the majority of reports on pneumococcal septic arthritis. A 70-year-old man presented with a 7-day history of pain, erythema and swelling of the left shoulder. Physical examination of the left shoulder revealed a warm, swollen, erythematous, and markedly tender to light palpation. The patient was unable to elevate his arm more than 30 degrees without pain. Arthrocentesis performed on admission produced 30 cc of grossly purulent fluid whose culture demonstrated S. Pneumoniae. The septic arthritis was treated with intravenous vancomycin and imipenem. The antibiotics were substituted when the sensitivities were known with oral ciprofloxacin and rifampycin to complete 8 weeks' total treatment. On follow-up examination 1 year later, the patient has remained afebrile and asymptomatic without evidence of increasing joint effusion or acute joint inflammation. Pneumococcal arthritis is classically described as a painful monoarticular arthritis complicating an active pneumococcal infection, generally a primary pulmonary infection. Pneumococcal arthritis appears to be predominantly a disease affecting the elderly. Clinical presentation ranges from septicemia to indolent infection with few systemic symptoms. With adequate antibiotic therapy and aspiration or drainage of the joint, the prognosis for return of normal joint function appears to be excellent. Although pneumococcal organisms are not likely causes, this bacteria should certainly be considered as a possible cause of arthritis or prosthetic infection." }, { "id": "article-23916_14", "title": "Knee Effusion -- Evaluation -- Synovial Fluid Aspirate Analysis", "score": 0.012260765550239234, "content": "Complete cell count with differential (white blood cell [WBC], polymorphonuclear leukocytes) Crystal examination of synovial fluid Bacterial Culture and Gram staining of synovial fluid Viscosity (RA: expect decreased viscosity and poor mucin clot formation) [8] Glucose A low level of synovial-fluid glucose is suggestive of an infected joint, but low glucose levels are present in only about 50% of patients with septic joints and can also occur in rheumatoid arthritis. Fasting glucose levels are usually reduced to less than half of the simultaneously obtained blood levels. The presence of crystals cannot exclude septic arthritis with certainty.[8] Septic arthritis occurs concurrently with gout or pseudogout in less than 5% of cases." }, { "id": "article-17857_14", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Evaluation -- Laboratory Studies", "score": 0.01186020913593836, "content": "The most useful diagnostic laboratory test for identifying septic arthritis is an evaluation of the synovial fluid from the affected joint (culture, Gram stain, crystals analysis, white blood cell count with differential). Synovial fluid with a white blood cell (WBC) count greater than 50,000 and 90% neutrophil predominance suggests a bacterial source. [5] Identification of a bacterial organism in the synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis. Other useful laboratory tests include a complete blood count, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), and blood cultures. The peripheral blood WBC count is typically elevated with a left shift. An elevated ESR and CRP support the diagnosis but are not definitive. A low synovial fluid WBC count may occur in peripheral leukopenia, early infection, disseminated gonococcal arthritis, and the presence of joint prosthesis. [3] [4] [5] [6]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60838", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.011727363848980956, "content": "Empiric antibiotics for suspected bacteria should be started. This should be based on Gram stain of the synovial fluid as well as other clinical findings. General guidelines are as follows: Gram positive cocci – vancomycin Gram negative cocci – Ceftriaxone Gram negative bacilli – Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ceftazidime Gram stain negative and immunocompetent – vancomycin Gram stain negative and immunocompromised – vancomycin + third generation cephalosphorin IV drug use (possible pseudomonas aeruginosa) – ceftazidime +/- an aminoglycoside" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26030", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011701582679500661, "content": "An algorithm for synovial fluid aspiration and analysis is shown in Fig. 393-6. Synovial fluid should be analyzed immediately for appearance, viscosity, and cell count. Monosodium urate crystals (observed in gout) are seen by polarized microscopy and arelong,needle-shaped,negativelybirefringent,andusuallyintracellular. In chondrocalcinosis and pseudogout, calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are usually short, rhomboid-shaped, and positively birefringent. Whenever infection is suspected, synovial fluid should be Gram stained and cultured appropriately. If gonococcal arthritis is suspected, nucleic acid amplification tests should be used to detect either Chlamydia trachomatis or N. gonorrhoeae infection. Synovial fluid from patients withchronicmonarthritisshouldalsobeculturedfor M. tuberculosis and fungi. Last, it should be noted that crystal-induced arthritis and septic arthritis occasionally occur together in the same joint." }, { "id": "article-17857_15", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Evaluation -- Laboratory Studies", "score": 0.011645962732919254, "content": "In prosthetic joint infections, synovial fluid WBC count of 1100 with a neutrophil differential of 64% suggests septic arthritis. [6] Two sets of blood cultures should be obtained to rule out bacteremia. If Neisseria is suspected, one should obtain cultures from the cervix, rectum, and throat." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_21130", "title": "Arthrocentesis", "score": 0.011610413396127683, "content": "Synovial Fluid Analysis Patients with a fever, suspected flare of existing arthritis, or unknown cause of joint effusion should undergo arthrocentesis with synovial fluid analysis. Samples of synovial fluid can be analyzed for gross appearance, presence of crystals, white blood cell count with differential, red blood cell count, and bacterial culture. Normal synovial fluid should not have any cells or crystals present and should appear colorless and clear." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10397", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011605764282038085, "content": "Laboratory Findings Specimens of peripheral blood and synovial fluid should be obtained before antibiotics are administered. Blood cultures are positive in up to 50–70% of S. aureus infections but are less frequently positive in infections due to other organisms. The synovial fluid is turbid, serosanguineous, or frankly purulent. Gram-stained smears confirm the presence of large numbers of neutrophils. Levels of total protein and lactate dehydrogenase in synovial fluid are elevated, and the glucose level is depressed; however, these findings are not specific for infection, and measurement of these levels is not necessary for diagnosis. The synovial fluid should be examined for crystals, because gout and pseudogout can resemble septic arthritis clinically, and infection and crystal-induced disease occasionally occur together. Organisms are seen on synovial fluid smears in nearly three-quarters of infections with S. aureus and streptococci and in 30–50% of infections due to" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10398", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010890573892358013, "content": "disease occasionally occur together. Organisms are seen on synovial fluid smears in nearly three-quarters of infections with S. aureus and streptococci and in 30–50% of infections due to gram-negative and other bacteria. Cultures of synovial fluid are positive in >90% of cases. Inoculation of synovial fluid into bottles containing liquid media for blood cultures increases the yield of a culture, especially if the pathogen is a fastidious organism or the patient is taking an antibiotic. NAA-based assays for bacterial DNA, when available, can be useful for the diagnosis of partially treated or culture-negative bacterial arthritis." }, { "id": "article-29494_15", "title": "Sternoclavicular Joint Infection -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010734400267662968, "content": "The gold standard for diagnosing sternoclavicular joint septic arthritis remains arthrocentesis. Aspirated joint fluid should undergo evaluation for crystals, cell count, percentage of neutrophils, and the presence of bacteria using gram stain and culture. A total nucleated cell count greater than 50000 with over 90% neutrophils with no crystals is concerning for infection. A positive gram stain or culture is virtually diagnostic regardless of the other synovial fluid analyses." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_21132", "title": "Arthrocentesis", "score": 0.010592167667916347, "content": "Therapeutic Aspiration of synovial fluid in cases of joint effusion or hemarthrosis can help reduce pressure around the joints, thus providing pain relief. Corticosteroid medications may also be injected into the joint capsule to provide pain relief and anti-inflammatory effects, especially for rheumatoid arthritis and less commonly osteoarthritis. Care should be taken to ensure sepsis has been ruled out before injecting corticosteroids, as doing so may worsen the joint infection. Less commonly, recurrent joint aspirations may be performed for cases of septic arthritis. Procedure Ultrasound is often used in conjunction with arthrocentesis to help identify appropriate anatomic markers of the joint. Typically, a 22 gauge needle is used along with a 5 mL syringe, but the sizes can be modified depending on the size of the joint that the procedure is being performed on." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10399", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010430301047120418, "content": "Prompt administration of systemic antibiotics and drainage of the involved joint can prevent destruction of cartilage, postinfectious degenerative arthritis, joint instability, or deformity. Once samples of blood and synovial fluid have been obtained for culture, empirical antibiotics should be given that are directed against the bacteria visualized on smears or the pathogens that are likely in light of the patient’s age and risk factors. Initial therapy should consist of IV administration of bactericidal agents; direct instillation of antibiotics into the joint is not necessary to achieve adequate levels in synovial fluid and tissue. An IV third-generation cephalosporin such as cefotaxime (1 g every 8 h) or ceftriaxone (1–2 g every 24 h) provides adequate empirical coverage for most community-acquired infections in adults when smears show no organisms. IV vancomycin (1 g every 12 h) is used if there are gram-positive cocci on the smear. If methicillin-resistant S. aureus is an" }, { "id": "article-90321_29", "title": "Arthrocentesis -- Clinical Significance -- Fluid Analysis", "score": 0.010225385527876631, "content": "Septic synovial fluid will have the following characteristics: Cloudy/opaque appearance, greater than 50,000 leukocytes per microL, greater than 90% neutrophils, and a positive gram stain between 30% to 80% of the time." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 218, 424 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 67 ] ], "text": "They tell us that the estrogen level is low. In this case we should suspect early ovarian failure. For its diagnosis we will ask for a basal FSH (in cases of premature ovarian failure it would be elevated)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hypothalamohypophyseal MRI.", "2": "Karyotype.", "3": "Basal FSH.", "4": "Chorionic gonadotropin stimulation.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0071_2794", "title": "[Hypothalamo-hypophyseal amenorrhea. I. The clinical and laboratory manifestations].", "score": 0.01745598057073467, "content": "This study included 15 women 18-36 years old with primary or secondary amenorrhea, low FSH and LH, a negative response to clormadinone and serum prolactin (Prl) levels less than 20.0 ng/ml. The following tests were performed on alternate days: LH and FSH determinations every 20 minutes (pulses) during 2-4 hours (n = 15); LH and FSH response to a single dose of GnRH 100 micrograms IV (n = 15) and after administration of 100 micrograms IM of GnRH daily during four consecutive days (n = 7); TRH test 200 micrograms IV (n = 9); oral metoclopramide-Prl induced response (10 mg) (n = 2); one to three basal determinations of cortisol, estradiol (E2), T3, T4, and TSH (n = 15). All patients had serum E2 levels less than 10.0 pg/ml and none showed a regular LH or FSH pulsatility. In seven patients (group A) serum LH had a 10-30 fold increase above basal levels in response to GnRH, while the other eight patients (group B) showed no response at all; serum FSH changes were most irregular in both group. In group A no other hormonal deficiencies were detected, while in group B only three patients had an isolated LH-FSH deficiency, and in the other five this deficiency was accompanied by Prl, TSH, and/or ACTH lack. The present results suggest that: 1) group A represents isolated GnRH deficiency and the amenorrhea has hypothalamic etiology; 2) group B had LH-FSH deficiency of pituitary origin, in most cases associated to other pituitary hormone deficiencies; 3) the lack of LH response to an initial single dose of GnRH is not an absolute indicator of hypophyseal amenorrhea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0367_8089", "title": "Evolution of clinical symptoms in a young woman with a recurrent gonadotroph adenoma causing ovarian hyperstimulation.", "score": 0.016511458952513044, "content": "To demonstrate the clinical course in a young female with gonadotroph adenoma causing ovarian stimulation. Our patient was a 23-year-old woman with a history of oligomenorrhea who had previously undergone bilateral ovarian wedge resection owing to the clinical appearance of polycystic ovaries. Two years later, she sought treatment for headache, galactorrhea, history of spotting and lower abdominal distension. FSH, LH, beta-LH, inhibin A and B, estradiol, prolactin (PRL), and beta-chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-CG) were measured, and the responses of FSH, LH and beta-LH to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) were documented. Immunohistochemical analysis of the tumor tissue was performed after surgery. Five years after the trans-sphenoidal surgery, the patient again became oligomenorrheic. A large recurrent adenoma was diagnosed on CT one year later. Transvaginal ultrasound showed ovaries of normal size with multiple small cystic formations simulating a polycystic pattern, While the patient was awaiting surgery, a pituitary apoplexy occurred. Emergency decompressive surgery was performed and the patient fully recovered. Enlarged ovaries were found on ultrasound examination simulating a hyperstimulation-like pattern. At that time, elevated levels of FSH (13.4IU/l) and marginally elevated levels of beta-LH (1.43ng/ml) were found, whereas the level of LH (0.5IU/l) was subnormal. Plasma estradiol was markedly supranormal (6150pmol/l). Levels of inhibin A and B were elevated (326pg/ml and 588pg/ml respectively). The prolactin level (70ng/ml) was increased, whereas beta-chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-CG) was normal. Significantly increased FSH, LH, and beta-LH responses to TRH stimulation were documented. Pituitary macroadenoma was found on MRI scan and removed by trans-sphenoidal surgery. Immunohistochemical examination showed high positivity for beta-CG and LH, and slight positivity for FSH. Five years after the surgery, estradiol was elevated (1160pmol/l), whereas basal levels of LH (4.65IU/l) and FSH (3.98IU/l) were not suppressed. After the second operation, immunostaining of the adenoma tissue confirmed the previous findings. Measurement of gonadotrophins in our case did not prove to be a method for identifying a large recurrent gonadotroph pituitary adenoma. The sonographic ovarian imaging varied from a polycystic- to an ovarian hyperstimulation-like pattern during the evolution of the tumour." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0362_21666", "title": "[Androgen-producing steroid cell ovarian tumor. Report of a case].", "score": 0.012849140126140949, "content": "Ovarian Tumors with Endocrine Repercussion make-up 5% of neoplasms in this gland, occupying the first place are the estrogen-producing tumors, in the second place are the androgen-producing tumors, progesterone, corticosteroids and renin are exceptional. In these tumors' nomenclature has existed a kind of synonyms that create confusion about their histogenesis and their difficult use in the literature. A 23 yr-old woman with opsomenorrhea of several years evolution, secondary amenorrhea, deep voice and progressive hirsutism. Weight: 98.500 kg. Height: 1.74 m. Body Mass Index (BMI): 32.61 (kg/m2). Vellus hair in the face (beard and moustache), android distribution in abdomen, forearms, thighs and legs (Ferriman score of 20), acne and bilateral breast involution. All paraclinic exams were negative. Human chorionic gonadotropin quantification in urine of 24 hours was negative. X-Ray: Right ovarian tumor was demonstrated with pelvic ultrasound and computerized axial tomography of abdomen. Cytogenetic study expressed 46 XX chromosomes. Presurgery endocrinologic studies were: total and free testosterone: 3.55 ng/mL and 14.30 pg/mL, respectively. Insulin: 43.3 microU/mL and C peptide: 5.7 ng/mL. The glucose tolerance test demonstrate intolerance to carbohydrates. During operation, the hormone levels in the right ovarian vein were: total and free testosterone of 2.70 ng/mL and 12.70 pg/mL respectively, which normalized after 12 hours of surgery. Other steroid hormones were normal. After six months of surgery the patient had Ferriman score of 10 and eumenorrhea. Weight: 98.100 kg, glucose tolerance test and basal hormone levels were normal. Electron Microscopy showed characteristic data of a steroid producing tumor without crystalloids of Reinke." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_811", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.012807966843195948, "content": "Anatomic: Generally requires surgical intervention. Defned as the absence of menses for six consecutive months in women who have passed menarche. First step: Get a pregnancy test. Second step: β-hCG: Measure TSH and prolactin. ■↑ TSH: Indicates hypothyroidism. ■↑ prolactin (inhibits the release of LH and FSH): Points to a thy roid pathology. Order an MRI of the pituitary to rule out tumor. ■↑↑ prolactin: Suggests a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma. Normal β-hCG: Initiate a progestin challenge (10 days of progestin). progestin challenge (withdrawal bleed): Indicates anovulation that is likely due to noncyclic gonadotropin secretion, pointing to PCOS or idiopathic anovulation. Check LH levels, and if LH is moderately high, the etiology is likely PCOS. Marked elevation of LH can indicate premature menopause. progestin challenge (no bleed): Indicates uterine abnormality or estrogen defciency. Check FSH levels. ■↑ FSH: Indicates hypergonadotropic hypogonadism/ovarian fail ure." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_810", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.01268836648583484, "content": "F IGU R E 2.1 2-3. Causes of primary and secondary amenorrhea. Ultrasound may be needed to evaluate the ovaries. Normal breast development and no uterus: Obtain a karyotype to evalu- The f rst step in the workup of 1° or 2° amenorrhea is a pregnancy test! ate for androgen insensitivity syndrome. Stigmata of Turner’s syndrome: Obtain a karyotype. Normal breast development and uterus: Measure prolactin and obtain a cranial MRI. Constitutional growth delay: No treatment is needed. Hypogonadism: Begin HRT with estrogen alone at the lowest dose. Twelve to eighteen months later, begin cyclic estrogen/progesterone therapy (if the uterus is present). Anatomic: Generally requires surgical intervention. Defned as the absence of menses for six consecutive months in women who have passed menarche. First step: Get a pregnancy test." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0360_16324", "title": "Growth hormone deficiency as the only identifiable cause for primary amenorrhea", "score": 0.012487956718298377, "content": "Background: There is much evidence that growth hormone plays an important role in the development and function of the reproductive system of both males and females. Growth hormone exerts its effects on the ovarian follicular cycle directly or by local production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). It is known that growth hormone deficiency during childhood may delay pubertal development, but there is limited data about primary amenorrhea in GH-deficient girls with sufficient stimulated gonadotropin levels.Methods: Case series.Results: In the evaluation of primary amenorrhea and delayed puberty, 3 cases of adolescent females aged 17-19 years were identified as isolated GH-deficiency. Among the 3 patients, 2 had history of intracranial surgery due to hydrocephalus (shunt operation) or prolactin-secreting pituitary macro-adenoma (transphenoidal surgery, one year before). 17-year-old patient with shunted hydrocephalus and 19-year-old patient with primary amenorrhea showed short statue (&lt; 5%) and delayed bone maturation. The patient undertaken transphenoidal surgery for prolactinoma showed normal height and bone maturation. There was no familial history of delayed puberty. On physical examination, 3 patients showed variable degree of breast development from Tanner stage II to IV without sex-steroid replacement. In sella MRI, small pituitary gland were identified in 2 patients with short statue and delayed bone maturation. All of the 3 patients underwent combined pituitary function test. After insulin-induced hypoglycemia, peak growth hormone levels of the 3 patients were 0.08, 1.4 and 1.4 ng/ml and were compatible with growth hormone deficiency. Peak LH after intravenous gonadrelin (FACTREL) were 19.0 to 56.1 mIU/ml and LH % responses were 217 to 1100% and were hence defined as not being gonadotropin deficiency. Other anterior pituitary functions were normal in all of the 3 patients.Conclusions: We found isolated growth hormone deficiency as the only identifiable cause for primary amenorrhea in three patients with sufficient gonadotropins secretion. These findings suggest a complementary role of GH to gonadotropins in the occurrence of menarche." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en203_18624", "title": "Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea", "score": 0.012335580132190303, "content": "normal in FHA patients. No single E2 value can confirm FHA as each reflects only a certain time point, but in individuals whose E2 is <20 pg/mL persistently, an acute gonadotropin response to GnRH stimulation may distinguish FHA from hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Testosterone and prolactin are expected to be in low normal ranges, and gonadotropins will be in a range lower than that which is characteristic of PCOS. In cases of stress-induced FHA, cortisol secretion, both basal and pulsatile, may be altered—increased concentrations are greatest in the early morning hours and overnight. However, these values may still be in the normal range. If clinical hyperandrogenism is evident, total testosterone and DHEA-S levels may also be obtained. 17α-hydroxyprogesteone levels should be evaluated if late onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia is suspected." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_5364", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.011499336576735956, "content": "2. Prolactin is most accurately obtained in a patient who is fasting and who has not had any recent breast stimulation to avoid concluding that a patient is hyperprolactinemic on the basis of a transient prolactin elevation. If a patient still has some menstrual cycles, it is advisable to obtain the prolactin level in the follicular phase. Assessment of serum FSH levels is required to determine whether the patient has hypergonadotropic, hypogonadotropic, or eugonadotropic amenorrhea. A circulating FSH level of greater than 25 to 40 mIU/mL indicated on at least two blood samples is indicative of hypergonadotropic amenorrhea. Hypergonadotropism implies that the cause of amenorrhea is ovarian insufficiency. The history should establish whether the cause of ovarian insufficiency is chemotherapy or radiation therapy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en203_18623", "title": "Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In all cases of amenorrhea, pregnancy should be excluded. This can be done by obtaining serum B-hCG levels. In cases of suspected FHA, screening laboratory tests include a complete blood count (CBC), electrolytes, glucose, bicarbonate, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, liver panel, and when appropriate, sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein levels. Liver function tests may be abnormal in females with extreme energy restriction. The initial endocrine evaluation includes testing for levels of TSH and free T4, prolactin, LH, FSH, estradiol (E2), and anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH). FHA patients may display a combination of the following: FSH concentrations that are normal but lower than LH levels, low or low normal LH, E2 <50 pg/mL, and progesterone <1 ng/mL. LH and FSH are often normal in FHA patients. No single E2 value can confirm FHA as each reflects only a certain time point, but in individuals whose E2 is <20 pg/mL persistently, an acute gonadotropin response to GnRH" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_5256", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009858206848630926, "content": "The anatomic causes of amenorrhea are relatively few, and the majority may be diagnosed by history and physical examination. The most important elements in the diagnosis of amenorrhea include physical examination for secondary sexual characteristics and anatomic abnormalities, measurement of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to rule out pregnancy, serum prolactin and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels, and assessment of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels to differentiate between hypergonadotropic and hypogonadotropic forms of hypogonadism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_16046", "title": "Multiple ovarian cysts and oligomenorrhea as the initial manifestations of a gonadotropin-secreting pituitary macroadenoma.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To report a case of a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)-secreting pituitary adenoma, which manifested with oligomenorrhea, dysmenorrhea, and multiple bilateral ovarian cysts. We present a case report of a 29-year-old woman, including detailed laboratory, radiologic, and pathologic findings, who was diagnosed as having an FSH-secreting pituitary tumor. The pertinent literature is also reviewed. A 29-year-old woman, after experiencing oligomenorrhea and increasing abdominal girth for &gt;1 year, presented with an acute abdomen. Ultrasonography revealed multicystic ovaries &gt;15 cm in maximal diameter, causing bilateral adnexal torsion. After bilateral ovarian cystectomies, ultrasound study showed recurrence of the cysts. Relevant laboratory data were as follows: serum FSH 6.8 mIU/mL, luteinizing hormone 0.1 mIU/mL, prolactin 67 ng/mL, human chorionic gonadotropin &lt;2 mIU/mL, progesterone 3.5 ng/dL, estradiol 237 pg/mL, thyrotropin 1.8 microIU/mL, testosterone &lt;4 ng/dL, insulin 8.0 microIU/mL, and fasting plasma glucose 87 mg/dL. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain revealed a 2.5-cm pituitary mass, although the patient had no symptoms of pituitary dysfunction. Transsphenoidal removal of the mass was performed, and pathology studies were positive for FSH-secreting adenoma. Repeated MRI at 3 months showed an 0.8-cm residual tumor. The patient refused adjuvant radiotherapy. Regular menses resumed within 2 months postoperatively, and she later successfully became pregnant. Almost 3 years after treatment, the patient remained asymptomatic, results of pituitary function tests were normal, and follow-up MRI showed no signs of tumor regrowth. Although very uncommon, gonadotropin-secreting pituitary adenomas should be considered in the differential diagnosis of new-onset oligomenorrhea and dysmenorrhea, especially if associated with multicystic ovaries on ultrasound study, even in the absence of elevated levels of serum gonadotropins. Furthermore, we propose that it may be acceptable to withhold adjuvant radiotherapy in patients who are asymptomatic after transsphenoidal surgical excision of these tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0134_16373", "title": "[Evolution of plasma levels of SHBG (sex-hormone binding globulin) during ovulation induction using gonadotrophins].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The plasma levels of proteins bound to steroids come under the influence of the levels of estrogens. This is why we have studied the changes in plasma SHBG in sterile women who were being treated by gonadotropins (HMG-HCG). The plasma level of SHBG was worked out using Laurell's electroimmunoassay technique with an autoradiographic display using estradiol labeled with I.125. It only takes 48 hours contact with radio films. Out of 12 patients 9 responded to the treatment as demonstrated by the plasma levels of estradiol (E2) and progesterone (P). We have found that in these women there was a rise in plasma SHBG which was significant from the 7th day of the treatment onwards (3.7 +/- 1.7 mg/l as against 5.9 +/- 2.6 mg/l, p less than 0.01) and this reached nearly twice the base level when E2 reached its maximum level (6.4 +/- 2.7 mg/l). When treatment was stopped the plasma level of SHBG dropped to that of the follicular phase, but it was out of step with the plasma E2 levels. The index of free E2 as compared with E2/TEBG showed a close superimposition when compared with the levels of E2 obtained using a radioimmunological method. This fact reinforces the value of plasma E2 as the way of monitoring the effect of induction of ovulation. Our overall conclusion is that a marked and rapid change in the level of plasma E2 directly influences the level of plasma SHBG. The consequences for treatment are that it is important to respect as far as possible the physiological conditions that are present when induction of ovulation is undertaken." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0026_11234", "title": "[Clinical evolution of LH-RH reactivity in gynecology (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Impaired LH response to LH-RH has been found in 2/4 cases of primary amenorrhoea, in 2/8 cases of psychogenic secondary amenorrhoea, in 2/4 cases of secondary amenorrhoea associated to a pituitary tumour and in 1/5 cases of iatrogenic secondary amenorrhoea post hormonal contraception. Therefore, this test appears not to differentiate these pathologic conditions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0409_9937", "title": "Diagnostic role of inhibin B in resistant ovary syndrome associated with secondary amenorrhea.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To report two rare cases of gonadotropin-resistant ovary syndrome associated with secondary amenorrhea and normal levels of inhibin B. Case report. Two university teaching hospitals. Two women presenting with secondary amenorrhea and infertility. The control group for the inhibin B levels consisted of 30 cycling women of reproductive age. Medical history, physical examination, laboratory data, histologic findings, and IVF results. Diagnosis and treatment of resistant ovary syndrome. Case 1 was a 25-year-old woman with secondary amenorrhea and primary infertility. She had high serum levels of FSH and LH, low E(2) levels, and normal inhibin B levels (62 pg/mL). Karyotype was 46,XX, and ovarian biopsy showed primordial follicles with oocytes. Administration of GnRH analogue with hMG for 15 days did not affect E(2) levels. She had a successful pregnancy with IVF using donor oocytes. Case 2 was a 24-year-old woman with secondary amenorrhea. She had elevated serum levels of FSH and LH, low E(2) levels, and normal inhibin B levels (57 pg/mL). Karyotype was 46,XX and ovarian biopsy showed primordial follicles. Administration of GnRH analogue with hMG for 12 days did not affect E(2) levels. Both women were given estrogen-progestin replacement therapy. Inhibin B has a diagnostic role in women with gonadotropin-resistant ovary syndrome associated with secondary amenorrhea. A review of the literature confirms the uniqueness of the diagnostic role of inhibin B in these cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_15536", "title": "[Menometrorrhagia: to whom, why, on which criteria to propose a hormonal exploration?].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The hormonal exploration of menometrorrhagia concerns only the patients throughout their reproductive life, it is not indicated outside this period. In first intention at the woman in age to procreate, will be realized a determination of hCG, an inescapable determination to eliminate a pregnancy and a measure of serum TSH in the case of personal or family history for the screening of subclinical hypothyroidism. Further investigations can be carried out in second-based signs of appeal under the differential diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), as a measure serum prolactin, 17-hydroxyprogesterone and total testosterone and not bound to its binding protein the SHBG." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en164_39637", "title": "Poor ovarian reserve", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pretreatment with 50 mcg ethinylestradiol three times a day for two weeks, followed by recombinant FSH 200 IU/day subcutaneously. Ethinylestradiol treatment was maintained during FSH stimulation. When at least one follicle reached 18mm in diameter and serum estradiol was greater or equal to 150 pg/ML ovulation was induced with an intramuscular injection of 10,000 IU of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin hormone). For luteal phase support 5,000 IU of hCG was administered every 72 hours. Out of 25 patients 8 ovulated and 4 became pregnant. In the control group there were no ovulations. The patients ranged in age between 24 and 39 years with an average age of 32.7. All women had amenorrhea for at least 6 months (average 16.75 months) and FSH levels greater or equal than 40 mIU/mL (average FSH 68 mIU/ML). The researchers believe this protocol would work for women in early post menopause as well." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_10224", "title": "The effect of gonadotropin-releasing hormone on ovarian estradiol secretion.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The present study was undertaken to determine if more than one dose of GnRh is necessary to induce luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion that is sufficient to cause a significant increase in circulating estradiol (E2) levels. Thirty-four women were studied. Of these, eight control women were studied in the early follicular phase (baseline E2, 48 +/- 4.5 pg/ml); eight patients had secondary amenorrhea caused by hypothalamic dysfunction (baseline E2, 52.0 +/- pg/ml), seven had secondary amenorrhea caused by hypothalamic pituitary failure (baseline E2, 21 +/- 2.5 pg/ml), and 11 women had amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and hyperprolactinemia (baseline E2, 16.5 +/- 3 pg/ml and baseline prolactin, 443 +/- 98 ng/ml). An initial intravenous bolus of 150 microgram of gonadotropin-releasing hormone was followed 2 hours later by a smaller dose of 50 microgram. Thirty minutes following the first and second doses of GnRH, plasma LH and FSH increased significantly in all subjects. The initial increase of LH and FSH did not result in an increase in the plasmma E2 levels in any of the subjects. However, following the second gonadotropin peak, a significant increase in plasma E2 values was observed at 4 hours in all subjects (P less than 0.01). It can be concluded that (1) GnRH can be used to induce ovarian stimulation in normal women as well as in amenorrheic patients with low or normal baseline E2 levels as long as a sequential increase in LH and FSH can be elicited and (2) hyperprolactinemia does not interfere with ovarian E2 synthesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0098_12007", "title": "[Rational hormonal diagnosis of secondary amenorrhea].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The usefulness of the guideline recommended in 1976 by the World Health Organization (WHO) for the differential diagnosis of ovarian sterility needs critical reevaluation, since it does not take into account new aspects such as the pulsatility of GnRH secretion, androgen excess, or thyroid disorders and other phenomena related to ovarian dysfunction. In order to demonstrate the relative frequency of such phenomena, the authors examined 183 women with secondary amenorrhea of more than three months' duration (mean +/- SD = 12.7 +/- 18.4 months). The endocrine status of these women was examined under standardized conditions in two clinical endocrinology units in the cities of Hamburg and Berlin. The percentages of abnormal hormonal data (greater than mean +/- SD + gray zone) were as follows: testosterone (T) 39.9%; DHEA sulfate (DS) 29.5%; prolactin (PRL) 18.0%; TSH 11.5%; FSH or LH 26.8%; estradiol (E2) 30.1%. Among 96 patients with increased T and/or DS (52.5% of all patients), 53 patients (55.2%) did not show any clinical signs of androgenization (hirsutism, acne). Retrospective evaluation of all data revealed that a stepwise diagnostic procedure would have resulted in the following cumulative percentages of hormonal abnormalities: (1) T = 39.9%; (2) +DS = 52.5%; (3) +PRL = 60.2%; (4) +LH/FSH = 82.0%; (5) +E2 = 91.2%; (6) +TSH = 92.3%. Only in 7.7% of all patients were all hormonal parameters within normal ranges. Individual case analysis showed that 52.5% of all patients had hyperandrogenemia, while 18% had hypothalamic amenorrhea without any other pathologic condition; 17.5% had hyperprolactinemia and 3.3% primary ovarian insufficiency. Another 4.9% had hypothyroidism only, while 1.1% had exclusively hyperthyroidism. Combined hormonal deviations were found in 24% of all patients. Considering the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhea from an economic point of view, one comes to the conclusion that direct and indirect expenditures are similar in magnitude, no matter whether one prefers a conventional stepwise procedure or a one-step hormonal analysis encompassing all potentially relevant hormones (DM 859.00 + 10 weeks waiting time vs. DM 827.50 + 1 week waiting time). Androgen excess is much more frequent than was believed; hirsutism and/or acne by no means necessarily occur in cases of androgen excess. Hyperprolactinemia is less frequent than hyperandrogenemia. Thyroid status should be evaluated in all women with functional amenorrhea. The stepwise diagnostic procedure as recommended by the WHO is time-consuming, complicated, and sometimes incomplete in the diagnostic work-up, with obvious potential disadvantages for therapy.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0893_19191", "title": "Turner syndrome and pituitary adenomas: a case report and review of literature.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Turner syndrome (TS) is the most common sex chromosome abnormality in females, typically associated with primary amenorrhea and premature ovarian failure due to gonadal dysgenesis. The association of TS with hypopituitarism is an uncommon finding. The objective of the study was to describe an adolescent with TS with hypergonadotropic hypogonadism and subsequent hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. A 16-year-old female with primary amenorrhea was diagnosed with TS based on karyotype 45,XO. Other laboratory values included FSH 45.52 IU/L, LH 17.4 IU/L, undetectable estradiol, and prolactin 1.08 nmol/L. Two months later and before treatment, she presented with severe headache and a new left cranial nerve VI palsy. Brain MRI showed a 2.7-cm hemorrhagic pituitary macroadenoma expanding the sella. Laboratory evaluation showed FSH 5.9 IU/L, LH 0.9 IU/L, prolactin 0.09 nmol/L, and GH 1.03 ng/mL. She underwent transphenoidal hypophysectomy, and pathology revealed pituitary adenoma with immunohistochemical staining positive for growth hormone and prolactin. She subsequently developed multiple pituitary hormone deficiencies. Review of the literature identified eight case reports of women with TS who developed pituitary adenomas. This case illustrates an uncommon co-occurrence of TS and pituitary macroadenoma. Sequential gonadotropin measurements demonstrate the evolution of hypergonadotropic hypogonadism into hypogonadotropic hypogonadism due to hemorrhagic pituitary macroadenoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0061_9251", "title": "[Rational hormone diagnosis in normocyclic functional sterility].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Functional infertility in women with a normal menstrual cycle is the first symptom of a pathophysiological sequence of multiple different endocrinopathies. It usually progresses and leads to secondary amenorrhoea which is the most severe symptom of ovarian insufficiency. The percentage of abnormal hormonal parameters will increase with the duration and extent of the endocrinological aberration. The aim of this study is to examine the frequency of the different potential changes in hormone levels of an unselected group of female patients in a fertility clinic. 307 patients suffering from functional sterility (menstrual cycle 25-34 days) were investigated via basal hormone laboratory tests (including TRH test) under standardised conditions. 73 patients had pathological changes of the Fallopian tubes and in 116 patients their husbands had severe andrological problems. Excluded from this study were patients with bilateral occlusion of the Fallopian tubes and patients whose partners had a sperm count of less than 1 million/ml. The percentage of abnormal hormone levels (greater than mean + standard deviation + grey area) was 32.2% for prolactin (PRL), 7.8% for TSH, 20.9% for Delta-TSH, 18.4% for DHEA-sulfate (DS), 9.8% for testosterone (T), 18.9% for LH, and 11.5% for FSH (LH and FSH were specifically calculated only in 87 patients). In 65.5% of the patients the midluteal oestradiol (E2) and progesterone (P) levels were below normal, as sign of a corpus luteum insufficiency (CLI). A step- by-step diagnostic procedure would have yielded the following cumulative abnormal hormone levels retrospectively: (1) PRL (n = 99) = 32.2% (2) +TSH/delta TSH (n = 85) = 48.9% (3) +DS (n = 56) = 58.0% (4) +T (n = 30) = 59.3% (5) +LH/FSH (n = 28) = 62.2% [(6) +E2/P (n = 201) = 82.7%.] Only in 37.8% (116 patients) all hormone levels were within normal limits during the early follicular phase (FP); if the patients with signs of CLI are added, the percentage would be only 17.8% (n = 53). Case analysis demonstrated that functional sterility was accompanied by hyperprolactaemia in 32.4% of all patients, by abnormalities of the thyroid function (hypothyroidism 16.0%, hyperthyroidism 7.8%) in 23.8%, by hypothalamic and/or pituitary dysfunction in 28.7%, and by hyperandrogenaemia in 22.5%. Primary ovarian insufficiency was diagnosed in 4.6%. 31.3% of all patients (n = 307) had a combination of different hormonal abnormalities. The average duration of infertility among this group of patients was 6.3 years.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1110_22646", "title": "Gender Incongruity in a Person with 46,XY and Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome Raised as a Female.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We present the case of a patient with female sex assignment at birth whose parents consulted with a pediatrician when the child was 12 years old, indicating that despite female sex assignment, she felt that she (henceforth \"he\") had a male gender identity and was gynephilic. Medical examination revealed a 46XY karyotype, a primary amenorrhea and an appropriate testosterone increase after HCG stimulation test. The patient was diagnosed then with a 46,XY disorder of sex development with androgen insensitivity syndrome, but then he missed subsequent appointments. At the age of 24, he resumed medical follow-up to reaffirm his male gender identity through sex reassignment surgery. His physical examination showed a Tanner stage III-IV breast development, vulva, clitoris, normal-sized vagina, absence of uterus and ovaries on transvaginal ultrasound, bilateral cryptorchidism on abdominal-pelvic MRI and osteoporosis on bone densitometry. The results of the blood tests were LH 24.5 mIU/mL [normal range, 1.7-8.6 mIU/mL for men] and testosterone 8.8 nmol/L [8.7-33 nmol/L]; conversely, FSH, estradiol, progesterone, and prolactin levels were normal. The molecular genetic analysis revealed an androgen receptor gene mutation associated with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome. At present, the patient has undergone bilateral orchiectomy and has initiated treatment with topical testosterone and bisphosphonates. We have yet to evaluate the effects and decide the best therapy taking into account that he has a male gender identity but complete androgen insensitivity syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1053_1179", "title": "Anti-goat antibodies as a rare cause of high gonadotropin levels during menopausal transition.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "<bObjective:</b To understand the origin of extremely high gonadotropin levels in a perimenopausal woman.<bMethods:</b A 52-year-old woman with a 2 months of amenorrhea followed spontaneous menstrual cycles recovery was referred to our outpatient clinic with elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH, 483 mUI/ml), luteinizing hormone (LH, 475 mUI/ml) and prolactin (PRL, 173 ng/ml). She was known to take levosulpiride. The gonadotropin levels did not fit with the clinical features.<bResults:</b A gonadotroph tumor was ruled out. Further analysis confirmed constantly high FSH, LH and PRL levels. The measurements were repeated using different analytical platforms with different results. After serial dilutions, nonlinearity was present suggesting an immunoassay interference. After post-polyethylene glycol recovery, hormone levels appeared in the normal range. Anti-goat antibodies were recognized in the serum of the patient.<bConclusions:</b This case report shows a case of falsely abnormal high gonadotropin and PRL levels in a woman during menopause transition. In the clinical practice the evaluation of gonadotropin profile is not recommended at this age, but the abnormal levels stimulated further evaluation. An interference in the assay due to anti-goat antibodies resulted in abnormally high level of FSH and LH. A strict collaboration between clinicians and the laboratory is needed, when laboratory findings do not correspond to clinical findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_2428", "title": "[Treatment with LH-RH in female sterility].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The discovery that LH/RH was secreted in a pulsatile manner has made it possible to use the substance therapeutically in certain endocrine conditions of female sterility. 29 patients had sterility because of ovarian dysfunction. 3 of these were polycystic ovaries, 13 unexplained malfunction of ovulation and 30 hypothalamic in cause. They were treated with LH/RH intravenously. The dose used with each pulse was 6-18 micrograms. The patients were treated for between 18 and 30 days. In the 9 pregnancies that occurred (30%) one was in a patient with polycystic ovaries, 8 (70%) were in patients with hypothalamic ovarian failure. In each case the dose of LH/RH had been administered either at a level of less than 10 micrograms/pulse throughout the follicular phase with an injection of 5000 IU of HCG after ovulation or throughout the whole cycle. 77% of the pregnancies were obtained during the two first cycles of treatment. This work shows that hypothalamic female sterility is the proper indication for treatment using LH/RH. The protocol of dosage should be as economical as possible by administering 5-10 micrograms pulses intravenously up to the time that ovulation has been achieved. This takes note of the difficulties of obtaining supplies of the substance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0776_6296", "title": "A rare case report of 46XY mixed gonadal dysgenesis.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 16-year-old person, reared as female presented with complaints of genital ambiguity and primary amenorrhoea along with lack of secondary sexual characters, but without short stature and Turner's stigmata. She was taking steroids after being misdiagnosed as congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). Karyotype analysis revealed 46XY karyotype. There was no evidence of hypocortisolemia (cortisol 9.08 μg/dl, adrenocorticotropic hormone [ACTH] 82.5 pg/ml) or elevated level of 17-OH-progesterone (0.16 ng/ml). Pooled luteinizing hormone (LH) was 11.79 mIU/ml and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) was 66.37 mIU/ml. Serum estradiol level was 25 pg/ml (21-251). Basal and 72 h post beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels of androstenedione and testosterone levels were done (basal testosterone of 652 ng/dl and basal androstenedione of 1.17 ng/ml; 72 h post hCG testosterone of 896 ng/dl and androstenedione of 1.34 ng/ml). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvis (with ultrasonogrphy [USG] correlation) revealed uterus didelphys with obstructed right moiety and bilateral ovarian-like structures. Right sided gonads and adjacent tubal structures were visualized laparoscopically and removed. Left sided gonads were not visualized and Mullerian remnants were adhered to sigmoid colon. Histopathological examination revealed presence of testicular tissue showing atrophic seminiferous tubules with hyperplasia of Leydig cells. No ovarian tissue was seen. Based on these results a diagnosis of 46XY mixed gonadal dysgenesis (MGD) was made, which is rare and is difficult to distinguish from 46XY ovotesticular disorder of sexual differentiation (OT-DSD). The patient was managed with a multidisciplinary approach and fertility issues discussed with the patient's caregivers. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0103_12571", "title": "[Clinical use of Gonadorelin as a diagnostic agent in one- and two-step tests].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Synthetic LH/RH Gonadorelin, produced by VEB Berlin-Chemie, was given to 11 women with a normal menstrual cycle during the middle of the follicle phase. It was proved as a very effective drug, which provoked a typical gonadotropin release. Also 10 patients with a secondary amenorrhea responded already to the first intravenous injection of 80 micrograms Gonadorelin with a peak level of gonadotropins, in particular with LH levels, after 30 to 60 minutes (delta 1 = 1 st peak level--0' level). The relative ascent of gonadotropins (delta 2 = 2nd peak level--120' level) after the second step i.v. administration of 80 micrograms Gonadorelin at a 120 minutes interval was not significantly higher than delta 1. The reaction of pituitary on LH/RH does not immediately depend on the basal level of gonadotropin values. It reflects the severity of the hypothalamic-pituitary functional disturbance. The \"Gonadorelin-test\" ist a good complement to the progesterone- and clomiphene-test." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_104912", "title": "Hypopituitarism", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Basal tests Levels of LH/FSH may be suppressed by a raised prolactin level, and are therefore not interpretable unless prolactin is low or normal. In men, the combination of low LH and FSH in combination with a low testosterone confirms LH/FSH deficiency; a high testosterone would indicate a source elsewhere in the body (such as a testosterone-secreting tumor). In women, the diagnosis of LH/FSH deficiency depends on whether the woman has been through the menopause. Before the menopause, abnormal menstrual periods together with low estradiol and LH/FSH levels confirm a pituitary problem; after the menopause (when LH/FSH levels are normally elevated and the ovaries produce less estradiol), inappropriately low LH/FSH alone is sufficient. Stimulation tests with GnRH are possible, but their use is not encouraged." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0132_17852", "title": "The natural history of idiopathic hyperprolactinemia.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Idiopathic hyperprolactinemia (IH) can be defined as the presence of elevated serum PRL levels in a patient in the absence of demonstrable pituitary or central nervous system disease and of any other recognized cause of increased PRL secretion. This study examined the long term clinical outcome of 41 patients (mean age, 26 yr) with IH followed for up to 11 yr (mean, 5.5 yr). Initial and final PRL levels were determined by RIA in the same laboratory. A correction factor was used to obviate periodic changes in the potency of the NIH standards used in the PRL assay, so that all results are expressed in terms of the original VLS no. 1 standard. The initial serum PRL levels ranged from 27.2-243 ng/ml, with a mean of 57 ng/ml. Only three patients had initial serum PRL levels greater than 100 ng/ml. All had a normal skull x-ray and/or brain computed tomographic scan during their initial visit. All 41 patients had galactorrhea and/or amenorrhea. Serum PRL levels remained the same, decreased, or returned to normal in 34 of 41 patients. The mean PRL level at the time of reevaluation was 35 ng/ml. Thirty-four percent of the patients had a normal serum PRL level. Only 17% of the patients had serum PRL levels that were significantly higher (greater than 50% of their original value). Six of 9 patients with an initial serum PRL level less than 40 ng/ml had normal levels. One patient developed a pituitary tumor (initial PRL, 150 ng/ml). All patients reevaluated with brain computed tomographic scans had normal pituitary size. No patient reported a worsening of signs or symptoms, and in many, improvement (n = 16) or complete resolution (n = 8) of the amenorrhea and/or galactorrhea occurred. Twenty-seven spontaneous or bromocriptine-induced normal pregnancies and deliveries occurred without development of a pituitary tumor. Therefore, our data clearly challenge the use of ablative pituitary therapy for IH and raises questions of the benefit of chronic medical therapy for this condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0558_19930", "title": "Menstrual abnormalities in a woman with ACTH-dependent pituitary macroadenoma mimicking polycystic ovary syndrome.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Here, we present a case of ACTH-dependent pituitary macroadenoma (Cushing's disease) resulting in secondary amenorrhea mimicking polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). A 20-year-old nulligravid woman had been suffering from oligomenorrhea, amenorrhea, and moderate hirsutism since the age of 18 years. She visited a gynecologic clinic where PCOS was impressed according to the clinical manifestation and ultrasound finding. The patient responded to medication in the 1st year, but gradually failed to induce menses. She was advised to visit the endocrinology department for secondary amenorrhea and endocrine survey. Physical examination revealed central obesity, supraclavicle fatpad, abdominal striae, and myopathy of four limbs. Endocrine studies revealed: serum prolactin 21 ng/mL (3.0-20 ng/mL), FSH 5.69 mIU/mL (3.4-10.0 mIU/mL), LH 1.01 mIU/mL (1.1-11.6 mIU/mL), E2 &lt; 20 pg/mL (follicular phase 53-258 pg/mL), ACTH 110 pg/mL (0-46.0 pg/mL), cortisol 26.7 microg/dL at 8 a.m. (5.0-25 microg/dL), cortisol 21.3 microg/dL at 11 p.m. (half of normal morning value). Right pituitary macroadenoma was diagnosed through a series of dexamethasone tests and MRI. The patient received staging surgery including transsphenoidal adenomectomy and right frontotemporal craniotomy. As a result, the patient's physical condition gradually improved, and her menstrual cycle became regular with medication after the operation in the outpatient follow-up. PCOS is a common disease resulting in secondary amenorrhea. However, Cushing's syndrome resulting from pituitary macroadenoma should also be considered. Therefore, a careful history, observation, physical examination, and endocrine studies can differentiate between patients with PCOS and Cushing's disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_23187", "title": "Etiological diagnosis of hyperprolactinemia.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "There are numerous etiologies of hyperprolactinemia, a common reason for consultation. Diagnostic measures must be capable of identifying the tumors, the most frequent of which are prolactin adenomas. Hypothalamic-pituitary MRI is the reference morphological examination. In clinical practice, it is usually performed very early, following the discovery of increased plasma concentrations of PRL. This approach is warranted for marked increase in PRL in the absence of drugs with hyperprolactinemic effects (&gt;10 x upper limit of normal) since a diagnosis of PRL adenoma is extremely likely under such circumstances. When hyperprolactinemia is moderate, which is the most common finding in practice, all etiologies are possible in theory and it is important to follow a rational diagnostic plan (history-taking to identify use of any drugs with hyperprolactinemic effects paying attention to renal and hepatic history, investigation for endocrine diseases occasionally associated with hyperprolactinemia such as hypothyroidism or polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), confirmation of hyperprolactinemia by a second assay when the initial level is less than five times the upper normal limit, pregnancy testing for women of childbearing age) in order to rule out all non-tumoral causes of hyperprolactinemia before proceeding with imaging. Absence of any consequences of hyperprolactinemia on gonadic function or the existence of a concomitant disease that could account for the clinical signs, demonstration of wide variations in PRL from one assay to another in a single patient could prompt screening for macroprolactinemia before MRI is ordered. Macroprolactinoma could also occur in the case of normal or doubtful MRI or discrepancy in response to medical or surgical treatment. T1- and T2-weighted coronal sections (with or without T1 after gadolinium injection) are generally sufficient for diagnosis of microprolactinoma. Dynamic tests may be useful if MRI is normal or unclear. Gadolinium injection with sagittal and axial sections is essential for examination of large lesions. In this case, when the increase of PRL is moderate (&lt;150 mg/ml), a non-lactotropic lesion may be suspected without misdiagnosing a hook effect. Careful analysis of the images allows differentiation between tumoral lesions and pituitary hyperplasia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_22712", "title": "Hypoestrogenism", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea (FHA) is diagnosed based on findings of amenorrhea lasting three months or more, low serum hormone of gonadotropins and estradiol. Since common causes of FHA include exercising too much, eating too little, or being under too much stress, diagnosis of FHA includes assessing for any changes in exercise, weight, and stress. In addition, evaluation of amenorrhea includes a history and physical examination, biochemical testing, imaging, and measuring estrogen level. Examination of menstrual problems and clinical tests to measure hormones such as serum prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) can help rule out other potential causes of amenorrhea. These potential conditions include hyperprolactinemia, POI, and polycystic ovary syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0233_8629", "title": "[Restricted importance of LRH test in clinical routine diagnosis (author's transl)].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The pituitary responsiveness to luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LRH) was studied in 68 women aged between 15 and 30 years. The patients suffered from primary and secondary amenorrhoea or anovulatory cycles in combination with hirsutism, primary sterility, oligo-amenorrhoea, adrenogenital syndrome, and nervous anorexia. Eleven women without any discernible endocrinological disorders were used as controls. Double stimulation was performed by two intravenous injections of 25 microgram LRH each, spaced by one two-hour interval. Blood samples were taken repeatedly prior to, between, and after the injections at intervals set beforehand. Luteinising hormone (LH) plasma concentrations were determined by radio-immuno-assay. The mean difference between the two basic values measured ten and five minutes before LRH application was as low as 20.1 per cent. In most cases, the maximum values occurred 30 minutes after both injections. A positive correlation (r = 0.91, p &lt; 0.001) was found to exist between the level recordable 30 minutes after the first injection and the integral of all values included. Dependence of response to LRH application on the height of the basic values was more strongly pronounced than that on the underlying category of disease. The LRH test, perhaps, may be indicated in cases of low basic LH values (&lt; 2 ng/ml) to verify suspicion of a hypogonadotrophic situation. Simplification of the test procedure to only one withdrawal of blood each immediately before and 30 minutes after LRH injection seems to be justified." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0863_18638", "title": "Juvenile granulosa cell tumour of the ovary presenting with hyperprolactinaemic amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea represent a common endocrine presentation. We report a case of an oestrogen-producing juvenile granulosa cell tumour (JGCT) of the ovary in a 16-year-old post-pubertal woman with hyperprolactinaemia amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea which resolved following surgical resection of the tumour. This patient presented with a 9-month history of secondary amenorrhoea and a 2-month history of galactorrhoea. Elevated serum prolactin at 7081 mIU/l and suppressed gonadotropins (LH &lt;0.1 U/l; FSH &lt;0.1 U/l) were detected. Serum oestradiol was significantly elevated at 7442 pmol/l with undetectable β-human chorionic gonadotropin. MRI showed a bulky pituitary with no visible adenoma. MRI of the abdomen showed a 4.8 cm mass arising from the right ovary with no evidence of metastatic disease. Serum inhibin B was elevated at 2735 ng/l. A right salpingo-oophorectomy was performed, and histology confirmed the diagnosis of a JGCT, stage International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics 1A. Immunohistochemical staining for prolactin was negative. Post-operatively, oestrogen and prolactin levels were normalised, and she subsequently had a successful pregnancy. In summary, we present a case of an oestrogen-secreting JGCT with hyperprolactinaemia manifesting clinically with galactorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea. We postulate that observed hyperprolactinaemia was caused by oestrogenic stimulation of pituitary lactotroph cells, a biochemical state analogous to pregnancy. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first report of hyperprolactinaemia as a result of excessive oestrogen production in the context of a JGCT. Hyperprolactinaemia with bilateral galactorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea has a wide differential diagnosis and is not always caused by a prolactin secreting pituitary adenoma.Significantly elevated serum oestradiol levels in the range seen in this case, in the absence of pregnancy, are indicative of an oestrogen-secreting tumour.JGCTs are rare hormonally active ovarian neoplasms mostly secreting steroid hormones.Serum inhibin can be used as a granulosa cell-specific tumour marker.JGCTs have an excellent prognosis in the early stages of the disease." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 40, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 35 ] ], "text": "I usually start with the least invasive and most cost-effective tests, and in the case described, an ischemic problem in the lower limbs is the ankle-brachial index." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Venous echo-Doppler of lower limbs.", "2": "Angioresonance of lower limbs.", "3": "Arteriography.", "4": "Ankle-brachial index.", "5": "AngioCT." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0535_11111", "title": "Does the clinical examination predict lower extremity peripheral arterial disease?", "score": 0.017216117216117217, "content": "Lower extremity peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is common and associated with significant increases in morbidity and mortality. Physicians typically depend on the clinical examination to identify patients who need further diagnostic testing. To systematically review the accuracy and precision of the clinical examination for PAD. MEDLINE (January 1966 to March 2005) and Cochrane databases were searched for articles on the diagnosis of PAD based on physical examination published in the English language. Included studies compared an element of the history or physical examination with a reference standard of ankle-brachial index, duplex sonography, or angiogram. Seventeen of the 51 potential articles identified met inclusion criteria. Two of the authors independently extracted data, performed quality review, and used consensus to resolve any discrepancies. For asymptomatic patients, the most useful clinical findings to diagnose PAD are the presence of claudication (likelihood ratio [LR], 3.30; 95% confidence interval [CI], 2.30-4.80), femoral bruit (LR, 4.80; 95% CI, 2.40-9.50), or any pulse abnormality (LR, 3.10; 95% CI, 1.40-6.60). While none of the clinical examination features help to lower the likelihood of any degree of PAD, the absence of claudication or the presence of normal pulses decreases the likelihood of moderate to severe disease. When considering patients who are symptomatic with leg complaints, the most useful clinical findings are the presence of cool skin (LR, 5.90; 95% CI, 4.10-8.60), the presence of at least 1 bruit (LR, 5.60; 95% CI, 4.70-6.70), or any palpable pulse abnormality (LR, 4.70; 95% CI, 2.20-9.90). The absence of any bruits (iliac, femoral, or popliteal) (LR, 0.39; 95% CI, 0.34-0.45) or pulse abnormality (LR, 0.38; 95% CI, 0.23-0.64) reduces the likelihood of PAD. Combinations of physical examination findings do not increase the likelihood of PAD beyond that of individual clinical findings. However, when combinations of clinical findings are all normal, the likelihood of disease is lower than when individual symptoms or signs are normal. A PAD scoring system, which includes auscultation of arterial components by handheld Doppler, provides greater diagnostic accuracy. Clinical examination findings must be used in the context of the pretest probability because they are not independently sufficient to include or exclude a diagnosis of PAD with certainty. The PAD screening score using the hand-held Doppler has the greatest diagnostic accuracy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0286_15366", "title": "Assessment of noninvasive lower extremity arterial testing versus pulse exam.", "score": 0.016073829605182742, "content": "Palpation of pedal pulses was compared to noninvasive testing in 100 patients referred to a vascular laboratory. Subjects were 65 +/- 13 (mean +/- s.d.) years old. The right dorsalis pedis (DP) artery served as the reference artery for comparison of Doppler studies with physical examination of the pulses. Absolute Doppler pressures in the right DP were 129 +/- 50 mm Hg. The right ankle:brachial index (ABI) was 0.86 +/- 0.32. There were significant differences in ABI in those with (0.68 +/- 0.28) vs without (0.95 +/- 0.31) claudication in either extremity (p &lt; 0.001). Rest pain was also associated with lower ABI (P &lt; 0.04). Diabetics, hypertensives, claudicants and those with ischemic rest pain were less likely to have palpable pulses (P &lt; 0.035). With right DP pressure &gt;/= 118 mm Hg, 63 per cent of subjects had a palpable DP pulse, whereas 68 per cent with ABI &gt; 0.82 had a palpable right DP. Of those (n = 35) with a right DP pressure &lt; 118 mm Hg, only 6 per cent (n = 2) had a palpable pulse, whereas 5 per cent (2/40) with ABI &lt;/= 0.82 had palpable DP pulses. Based on these findings, it was predicted that a pulse would likely not be palpable in the left DP with a pressure &lt; 118 mm Hg or with AB &lt;/= 0.82. The prediction based on systolic ankle pressures was correct, with 66 per cent sensitivity and 91 per cent specificity. The predication that a left DP pulse would not be palpable with AB &lt;/= 0.82 was more accurate (78% sensitive, 97% specific). Presence of a palpable DP pulse suggests the presence of a Doppler pressure &gt;/= 188 mm Hg and ABI &gt; 0.82. The range of ankle pressures with palpable right DP pulses was 64-220 mm Hg, whereas the range with nonpalpable DP was 42-300 mm Hg. Given the frequent disparity of pulse exam and ankle pressures, noninvasive Doppler testing may be necessary for many patients to accurately assess the vascular status of the leg." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0881_1002", "title": "Ankle brachial index for the diagnosis of lower limb peripheral arterial disease.", "score": 0.01404394825447457, "content": "Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) of the lower limb is common, with prevalence of both symptomatic and asymptomatic disease estimated at 13% in the over 50 age group. Symptomatic PAD affects about 5% of individuals in Western populations between the ages of 55 and 74 years. The most common initial symptom of PAD is muscle pain on exercise that is relieved by rest and is attributed to reduced lower limb blood flow due to atherosclerotic disease (intermittent claudication). The ankle brachial index (ABI) is widely used by a variety of healthcare professionals, including specialist nurses, physicians, surgeons and podiatrists working in primary and secondary care settings, to assess signs and symptoms of PAD. As the ABI test is non-invasive and inexpensive and is in widespread clinical use, a systematic review of its diagnostic accuracy in people presenting with leg pain suggestive of PAD is highly relevant to routine clinical practice. To estimate the diagnostic accuracy of the ankle brachial index (ABI) - also known as the ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) - for the diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease in people who experience leg pain on walking that is alleviated by rest. We carried out searches of the following databases in August 2013: MEDLINE (Ovid SP),Embase (Ovid SP), the Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL) (EBSCO), Latin American and Caribbean Health Sciences (LILACS) (Bireme), Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects and the Health Technology Assessment Database in The Cochrane Library, the Institute for Scientific Information (ISI) Conference Proceedings Citation Index - Science, the British Library Zetoc Conference search and Medion. We included cross-sectional studies of ABI in which duplex ultrasonography or angiography was used as the reference standard. We also included cross-sectional or diagnostic test accuracy (DTA) cohort studies consisting of both prospective and retrospective studies.Participants were adults presenting with leg pain on walking that was relieved by rest, who were tested in primary care settings or secondary care settings (hospital outpatients only) and who did not have signs or symptoms of critical limb ischaemia (rest pain, ischaemic ulcers or gangrene).The index test was ABI, also called the ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) or the Ankle Arm Index (AAI), which was performed with a hand-held doppler or oscillometry device to detect ankle vessels. We included data collected via sphygmomanometers (both manual and aneroid) and digital equipment. Two review authors independently replicated data extraction by using a standard form, which included an assessment of study quality, and resolved disagreements by discussion. Two review authors extracted participant-level data when available to populate 2×2 contingency tables (true positives, true negatives, false positives and false negatives).After a pilot phase involving two review authors working independently, we used the methodological quality assessment tool the Quality Assessment of Diagnostic Accuracy Studies-2 (QUADAS-2), which incorporated our review question - along with a flow diagram to aid reviewers' understanding of the conduct of the study when necessary and an assessment of risk of bias and applicability judgements. We screened 17,055 records identified through searches of databases. We obtained 746 full-text articles and assessed them for relevance. We scrutinised 49 studies to establish their eligibility for inclusion in the review and excluded 48, primarily because participants were not patients presenting solely with exertional leg pain, investigators used no reference standard or investigators used neither angiography nor duplex ultrasonography as the reference standard. We excluded most studies for more than one reason.Only one study met the eligibility criteria and provided limb-level accuracy data from just 85 participants (158 legs). This prospective study compared the manual doppler method of obtaining an ABI (performed by untrained personnel) with the automated oscillometric method. Limb-level data, as reported by the study, indicated that the accuracy of the ABI in detecting significant arterial disease on angiography is superior when stenosis is present in the femoropopliteal vessels, with sensitivity of 97% (95% confidence interval (CI) 93% to 99%) and specificity of 89% (95% CI 67% to 95%) for oscillometric ABI, and sensitivity of 95% (95% CI 89% to 97%) and specificity of 56% (95% CI 33% to 70%) for doppler ABI. The ABI threshold was not reported. Investigators attributed the lower specificity for doppler to the fact that a tibial or dorsalis pedis pulse could not be detected by doppler in 12 of 27 legs with normal vessels or non-significant lesions. The superiority of the oscillometric (automated) method for obtaining an ABI reading over the manual method with a doppler probe used by inexperienced operators may be a clinically important finding. Evidence about the accuracy of the ankle brachial index for the diagnosis of PAD in people with leg pain on exercise that is alleviated by rest is sparse. The single study included in our review provided only limb-level data from a few participants. Well-designed cross-sectional studies are required to evaluate the accuracy of ABI in patients presenting with early symptoms of peripheral arterial disease in all healthcare settings. Another systematic review of existing studies assessing the use of ABI in alternative patient groups, including asymptomatic, high-risk patients, is required." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_59106", "title": "Peripheral vascular examination", "score": 0.01227682486232418, "content": "Special maneuvers Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) assesses peripheral vascular disease. It may however be unreliable in patients with calcified arteries in the calf (often diabetic patients) or those with extensive oedema, in which case toe pressure or Toe-brachial pressure index (TBPI) should be measured to aid in the diagnosis. Venous refill with dependency (should be less than 30 seconds) – the vein should bulge outward within 30 seconds of elevation for one minute. Buerger's test (assessment of arterial sufficiency):With the patient supine, note the colour of the feet soles. They should be pink. Then elevate both legs to 45 degrees for more than 1 minute. Observe the soles. If there is marked pallor (whiteness), ischemia should be suspected. Next check for rubor of dependency. Sit the patient upright and observe the feet. In normal patients, the feet quickly turn pink. If, more slowly, they turn red like a cooked lobster, suspect ischemia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19761", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01145372418879056, "content": "Noninvasive Testing The history and physical examination are often sufficient to establish the diagnosis of PAD. An objective assessment of the presence and severity of disease is obtained by noninvasive techniques. Arterial pressure can be recorded noninvasively in the legs by placement of sphygmomanometric cuffs at the ankles and the use of a Doppler device to auscultate or record blood flow from the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial arteries. Normally, systolic blood pressure in the legs and arms is similar. Indeed, ankle pressure may be slightly higher than arm pressure due to pulse-wave amplification. In the presence of hemodynamically significant stenoses, the systolic blood pressure in the leg is decreased. Thus, the ratio of the ankle and brachial artery pressures (termed the ankle:brachial index, or ABI) is 1.00–1.40 in normal individuals. ABI values of 0.91–0.99 are considered “borderline,” and those <0.90 are abnormal and diagnostic of PAD. ABIs >1.40 indicate" }, { "id": "article-20440_30", "title": "Diabetic Foot Care -- Technique or Treatment", "score": 0.011329486717153503, "content": "Clinical evaluation of vascularity and PAD starts with a thorough medical history (e.g., PAD risk factors, claudication, rest pain, history of non-healing wounds). Palpation of dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial arteries are the baseline for diabetic foot exams, but palpation of popliteal and femoral pulses can further assess the level of PAD. A decrease in pedal pulses may warrant evaluation with a Doppler ultrasound or further non-invasive testing for PAD. A Doppler ultrasound of pedal arteries can reveal triphasic flow (normal), biphasic flow (some arterial disease), monophasic flow (PAD with risk for limb ischemia), or absent (severe PAD and high risk for ischemia and limb loss). Non-invasive vascular tests include vascular labs (i.e., ankle-brachial index (ABI), segmental pressures, pulse volume recording, toe pressures, and transcutaneous partial pressure of oxygen [TcPO2]) and treadmill functional testing. The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends a screening ABI in patients with diabetes greater than 50 years old, and if normal, a repeat ABI should take place every five years. Screening ABI in patients with diabetes less 50 years old should be a consideration if they also have PAD risk factors (e.g., smoking, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes greater than ten years). If any indications of PAD are present during these exams, a referral to vascular surgery should follow. [22] [21]" }, { "id": "article-27004_14", "title": "Peripheral Arterial Disease -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010503871619346874, "content": "On physical exam, patients with PAD may have diminished or absent lower extremity pulses. This finding can be confirmed with the ankle-brachial index (ABI), an objective, bedside measure of lower extremity arterial perfusion. As its name implies, the ABI compares the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the systolic pressure in the arm. A manual blood pressure cuff should be placed just above the ankle while locating the posterior tibial artery or dorsalis pedis artery with a handheld Doppler probe. While listening to the Doppler signal, the blood pressure cuff is inflated until it obliterates the Doppler signal. As the cuff slowly deflates, the pressure at which the Doppler signal returns is recorded as the systolic ankle pressure. The same steps are repeated for the other pedal artery and the other leg. Likewise, the brachial pressure can be measured with a blood pressure cuff on the upper arm and a Doppler probe positioned over the radial or ulnar artery at the wrist. The ABI is the highest systolic pressure measured at each ankle divided by the higher of the two systolic brachial pressures. A normal ABI ranges from 0.9 to 1.3. PAD is defined as an ABI less than 0.9 and most patients with claudication have an ABI between 0.5 and 0.9. Patients with extremely low ABI’s (less than 0.5) usually have ischemic rest pain or tissue loss. An ABI greater than 1.3 indicates arterial wall stiffening which can occur in patients with diabetes or renal failure. If a cuff pressure of 250mmHg does not obliterate the Doppler signal, the ABI is classified as “non-compressible.” Patients with falsely elevated (greater than 1.3) or non-compressible ABI’s require alternative imaging or physiologic studies to confirm the diagnosis of PAD. [10]" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_81", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009922367782629792, "content": "Femoropopliteal disease: Calf claudication; pulses below the femoral artery are absent. Acute ischemia: Most often caused by embolization from the heart; acute occlusions commonly occur at bifurcations distal to the last palpable pulse. May also be 2° to cholesterol atheroembolism (“blue toe syndrome”). ■Severe chronic ischemia: Lack of blood perfusion leads to muscle atrophy, pallor, cyanosis, hair loss, and gangrene/necrosis. Carefully palpate pulses and auscultate for bruits. Measurement of ankle and brachial systolic BP (ankle-brachial index, or ABI) can provide objective evidence of atherosclerosis (rest pain usually occurs with an ABI < 0.4). A high ABI can indicate calcification of the arteries. Doppler ultrasound helps identify stenosis and occlusion. Doppler ankle systolic pressure readings that are > 90% of brachial readings are normal. Arteriography and digital subtraction angiography are necessary for surgical evaluation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0409_21402", "title": "Leg ulcers and hydroxyurea: report of three cases with essential thrombocythemia.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "CASE 1: A 65-year-old woman with essential thrombocythemia (ET) had been taking oral hydroxyurea (HU), 1,000 mg daily, for 7 years. Six months ago, she developed an ulcer on the outer part of her left ankle, which healed spontaneously within 2 months. She presented with a new, tender, shallow ulcer, 2 cm x 2 cm in size, at the same site. Doppler examination revealed thrombosis of the left common femoral vein and a calcified atheroma plaque of the left common femoral artery. The dosage of HU was decreased to 500 mg daily when the platelet counts were found to be within normal levels. The ulcer completely healed within 2 months with occlusive wound dressings, and has not recurred within the follow-up period of 1 year. CASE 2: A 56-year-old women presented with multiple, painful, leg ulcers of 1 year duration. She had been diagnosed as having ET and had been on HU therapy, 1,500 mg/day, for the past 5 years. Interferon-alpha-2b was started 3 months ago, in addition to HU, which was tapered to 1,000 mg daily. She had suffered from hypertension for 20 years treated with nifedipine and enalapril, and had recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus which was controlled by diet. Examination revealed three ulcers located on the lateral aspects of both ankles and right distal toe. Arterial and venous Doppler examinations were within normal limits. Histopathology of the ulcer revealed nonspecific changes with a mixed inflammatory cell infiltrate around dermal vessels. The ulcers completely healed within 10 weeks with topical hydrocolloid dressings. After healing, she was lost to follow-up. A year later, it was learned that she had developed a new ulcer at her right heel, 3 months after her last visit (by phone call). This ulcer persisted for 8 months until HU was withdrawn. CASE 3: A 64-year-old woman with ET presented with a painful leg ulcer of 6 months' duration. She had been taking oral HU for 5 years. She had a 20-year history of hypertension treated with lisinopril. Examination revealed a punched-out ulcer of 2 cm x 2 cm over the right lateral malleolus. Doppler examination of the veins revealed insufficiency of the right greater saphenous and femoral veins. Angiography showed multiple stenoses of the right popliteal and femoral arteries. As her platelet count remained high, HU was continued. During the follow-up period of 13 months, the ulcer showed only partial improvement with local wound care." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_25294", "title": "Antiphospholipid Syndrome and Acute Postpartum Limb Ischemia.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The diagnosis of Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) implies the identification of antiphospoholipid antibodies and arterial/venous thrombosis or pregnancy loss. During pregnancy, there is an increased risk of thrombotic complications. Present a case of acute lower limb ischemia in a patient with APS during postpartum period Materials/ Methods: review of a clinical case and available literature Results: Patient diagnosed with APS (triple antibody positive and antecedent of 3 previous abortions) underwent cesarean at 29 weeks of gestation. She was medicated with aspirin 00mg/day and enoxaparin 60mg/day and had discharge on the second postoperative day. After 3 days she came to the emergency department with acute limb ischemia. AngioCT revealed thrombosis of the right iliac axis and pulmonary thromboembolism. Endovenous hypocoagulation with unfractionated heparin was immediately started. Due to the high thrombotic risk associated with any type of surgical intervention and improvement of ischemia with hypocoagulation, it was decided to postpone surgical revascularization. At the 10th day of hospitalization angioCT was repeated with maintenance of the iliac thrombosis and clinically the patient had severe claudication and ankle-arm index of 0.26. On the 16th day of hospitalization (after 5 plasmapheresis sessions), she was submitted to trans-femoral thrombectomy, with a good femoral pulse at the end of the procedure. On the 3rd postoperative day we detected pulse loss and angioCT confirmed re-thrombosis of the iliac axis and an oclusion of the popliteal artery. A new attempt at revascularization was made and a new transfemoral thrombectomy was performed, with immediate pulse recovery. We performed intraoperative angiography that confirmed occlusion of the popliteal artery and we proceeded trans-popliteal thrombectomy. Intraoperative control angiography revealed permeability of ilio- -femoro-popliteal axes with some defects of filling of the crural arteries (anterior tibial and peroneal arteries). After the procedure the patient become assymptomatic, with an ankle-arm index of 0.55 (with normal flow in femoral and popliteal artery but monophasyc flow in distal arteries) and had discharged medicated with aspirin, antivitaminik K and corticoid. The beneficial/risk of revascularization surgery should be well considered as well as the timing in which it should be performed. Plasmapheresis is important to minimize the thrombotic risk associated with the surgical procedure. Intra-operative angiography is essencial since arterial thrombosis can occur in several sectors, which can conditionate the success of revascularization procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_3593", "title": "[Early diagnosis of arteriopathy of the legs using measures adapted to general practitioners: the systolic index and pulse perception].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Atherosclerotic lower-limb arteriopathy is a serious disease. Its prevalence often underestimated when relying only on questioning the patient. A simple early detection method is the systolic index, i.e. the ratio of systolic ankle over brachial pressure. This ratio should normally be greater than 0.9. Lower values indicate detectable arterial obstruction as revealed by reduced peripheral perfusion. Under 0.75 patients are considered as suffering from peripheral vascular disease and require further investigations and specialist opinion. With an index between 0.75 and 0.90 patients are classified as stage I or II of the disease. In a survey by 180 General Practitioners, which were trained by angiologists to measure ankle pressure, more than 1,400 patients, between 40 and 75-years old, with at least one vascular risk factor (hypertension, diabetes, lipids, tobacco) were selected. Tobacco was the most prevalent vascular risk factor, then diabetes (particularly in men). 23.8% of patients recorded values between 0.90 and 0.75 and thus suffering from peripheral vascular disease (certainly age dependent). Clinically absent pulses at the posterior tibial and the dorsalis pedis artery were found is 19 and 27% of patients respectively. Most of the patients received a pharmacological substance allowing to check this index sensitivity. Thus systolic index is a simple low cost method for early detection and care and more general utilisation is proposed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1079_16910", "title": "Popliteal Entrapment Syndrome as a Cause of Chronic Lower Extremity Pain in a 16-Year Old.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Popliteal entrapment syndrome is an uncommon cause of intermittent claudication in young patients lacking atherosclerotic risk factors. ZS is a 16-year-old cisgender female with type 1 diabetes complicated by microalbuminuria, obesity (body mass index (BMI) = 45.86 kg/m²), and a history of perinatal stroke with residual right-sided hemiparesis, who presented with six months of worsening bilateral, exertional lower extremity pain. Common causes of chronic bilateral lower extremity pain include peripheral vascular disease and diabetic neuropathy. Less common etiologies include trauma, infection, or juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Given her risk factors, the patient's pain was initially managed as a diabetic neuropathy with pregabalin. Symptoms failed to improve, and she re-presented with positional coolness of the right lower extremity, diminished pulses of the bilateral lower extremities, and weakness in her toes. CT angiography demonstrated occlusion of the right distal superficial femoral and popliteal arteries and diffused tibial disease. Ultimately, the patient was discovered to have right-sided femoral-popliteal occlusion, and she required urgent femoral-tibial bypass. Despite an initial improvement in symptoms postoperatively, she continued to have lower extremity pain and recurrent arterial thrombi, even with antiplatelet and anticoagulation therapy. Eventually, the patient required a right-sided below the knee amputation. This case highlights the high index of suspicion that clinicians must have in young patients with lower extremity pain, both with and without atherosclerotic risk factors, as early intervention facilitates better outcomes. Introduction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_16061", "title": "[Asymptomatic arteriopathy of the lower limbs. Prevalence and risk factors in a population of southern Italy].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Peripheral vascular diseases, both symptomatic and asymptomatic, are strong predictors of total and cardiovascular mortality. The commonly used Rose questionnaire, although highly specific, has a low sensitivity to detecting peripheral vascular disease and is not adequate for asymptomatic subjects. Doppler ultrasound measurement of the ankle/brachial systolic blood pressure ratio is a non-invasive, reproducible and accurate method of assessment of peripheral vascular disease and has been validated by angiography. METHODS. Five hundred and ten subjects, corresponding to fifty percent of the people working as civil servants in the Catanzaro city hall, were invited to join the study by a letter. Three hundred and eighty four participated. Exclusion criterion was claudicatio intermittens as detected by Rose questionnaire. All the subjects filled a questionnaire to assess coronary heart disease risk factors and underwent a full clinical examination. Brachial blood pressure was measured on both arms with participants in supine position, just before ECG. The systolic ankle blood pressure was measured with ultrasonic technique. The blood pressure cuff was placed just proximal to the medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial systolic pressure index (Winsor Index) was determined by dividing the highest of the posterior tibial or dorsalis pedis pressures by the highest brachial pressure. A limit of 0.95 was chosen to identify subjects with peripheral arterial disease. Venous blood for serum cholesterol and triglycerides, apolipoprotein AI and B and blood glucose, was collected after an overnight fasting, into Vacutainer Tubes (Becton &amp; Dickinson). RESULTS. No subject had claudicatio intermittens. Sixteen subjects were excluded from the statistical analysis because of missing data. Two hundred and sixty-three were males and 105 females. Twenty-one (5.7%) out of 368 participants had a Winsor Index &lt; 0.95 in at least one leg. These subjects had higher values of systolic and diastolic blood pressure compared to normal subjects whereas no differences were observed with regard to age, BMI, lipid profile and blood glucose. Furthermore the prevalence of hypertension was higher in the group of subjects with asymptomatic peripheral arterial disease. The prevalence of other risk factors for atherosclerosis (cigarette smoking, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, obesity) was similar in subjects with or without peripheral arterial disease. DISCUSSION. In the present study the prevalence of Winsor Index &lt; 0.95 was 5.7%, similar to that reported by other authors. Hypertension was the only risk factor for atherosclerosis associated with peripheral arterial disease. Other authors also reported a higher prevalence of cigarette smoking among subjects with peripheral disease. In our population this association was not found but the participants were younger and consequently the exposure to this risk factor was shorter. CONCLUSION. The measurement of systolic ankle blood pressure by Doppler ultrasounds is a non-invasive, well accepted, highly specific and sensitive method to detect asymptomatic peripheral arterial disease. It might be of value in better defining the cardiovascular risk profile both in epidemiologic studies and clinical practice, especially in subjects with hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_34783", "title": "Aortoiliac occlusive disease", "score": 0.009628851540616247, "content": "Diagnosis The physical examination usually shows weakened femoral pulses and a reduced ankle-brachial index. The diagnosis can be verified by color duplex scanning, which reveals either a peak systolic velocity ratio ≥2.5 at the site of stenosis and/or a monophasic waveform. MRA and multidetector CTA are often used to determine the extent and type of obstruction. Another technique is digital subtraction angiography which allows verification of the diagnosis and endovascular treatment in a single session. Angiography provides important information regarding the perfusion and patency of distal arteries (e.g. femoral artery). The presence of collateral arteries in the pelvic and groin area is important in maintaining crucial blood flow and lower limb viability. However, angiography should only be used if symptoms warrant surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_16174", "title": "Popliteal artery pseudoaneurysm after total knee replacement.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We report the case of a popliteal pseudoaneurysm following total knee replacement. A 70-year-old woman underwent total left knee replacement because of severe osteoarthritis. Eight days later she presented with oedema and pain in her left calf She had palpable foot pulses on the left leg and the ankle-brachial index was 0.98. The patient was treated for deep vein thrombosis. Two days later her calf pain and oedema deteriorated and her distal pulses were no longer palpable, while she developed limb coldness and paraesthesia, and the ankle-brachial index dropped to 0.4. Sonography was urgently performed indicating a large popliteal artery aneurysm (5.8 x 6.9 x 7.2 cm), confirmed by angiography. The patient was managed with removal of a 3.5 cm long segment of the popliteal artery and reconstruction with synthetic graft (PTFE 6 mm). Her condition soon improved and the patient is capable of walking approximately 1 km per day at 18-month follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0329_14684", "title": "Distal pulse palpation: is it reliable?", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The aim of this study was to evaluate the reliability of distal pulse palpation. The dorsalis pedis and the tibialis posterior arteries of 25 patients with suspected lower limb arterial disease were independently palpated by three vascular surgeons and three medical students in the outpatient clinic and by two vascular nurses and one physician in the vascular laboratory. The palpation findings were compared to the ankle/brachial index (ABI). Palpable and unpalpable pulses were best separated with ABI 0.76 as the cutoff point. The degree of misdiagnosis was unacceptably high, with an underdiagnosis of more than 30%. The agreement was highest (kappa 0. 68, good) among the vascular laboratory personnel in the peaceful vascular laboratory and lowest (kappa 0.38, fair) among the vascular surgeons in the busy outpatient clinic. The poor agreement and the high proportion of misdiagnosis obtained in the outpatient clinic argue against the use of pulse palpation as a single diagnostic method. Palpable pulses with low ABIs clearly state the need for more objective measurements whenever ischemia is suspected. Yet, by carefully palpating both pedal arteries under good, nonhurried conditions the reproducibility and accuracy of pulse palpation can be tolerable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_20310", "title": "Acute compartment syndrome of the foot following fixation of a pilon variant ankle fracture.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Acute traumatic compartment syndrome of the foot is a serious potential complication after fractures, crush injuries, or reperfusion injury after vascular repair. Foot compartment syndrome in association with injuries to the ankle is rare. This article presents a case of acute compartment syndrome of the foot following open reduction and internal fixation of an ankle fracture. A 16-year-old girl presented after sustaining a left ankle injury. Radiographs demonstrated a length-stable posterior and lateral malleolar ankle fracture. Initial treatment consisted of a bulky splint and crutches pending the improvement of her swelling. Over the course of a week, the soft tissue environment of the distal lower extremity improved, and the patient underwent open reduction and internal fixation of both her fibula and distal tibia through 2 approaches. Approximately 2 hours from the completion of surgery, the patient reported worsening pain over the medial aspect of her foot and into her calcaneus. Physical examination of the foot demonstrated a swollen and tense abductor hallicus and heel pad. Posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses were palpable and her sensation was intact throughout her foot. Emergently, fasciotomy of both compartments was performed through a medial incision. Postoperatively, the patient reported immediate pain relief. At 18-month follow-up, she reported no pain and had returned to all of her preinjury athletic activities." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en082_15100", "title": "Blunt trauma", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Injury to extremities (like arms, legs, hands, feet) is extremely common. Falls are the most common etiology, making up as much as 30% of upper and 60% of lower extremity injuries. The most common mechanism for solely upper extremity injuries is machine operation or tool use. Work related accidents and vehicle crashes are also common causes. The injured extremity is examined for four major functional components which include soft tissues, nerves, vessels, and bones. Vessels are examined for expanding hematoma, bruit, distal pulse exam, and signs/symptoms of ischemia, essentially asking, “Does blood seem to be getting through the injured area in a way that enough is getting to the parts past the injury?” When it is not obvious that the answer is “yes”, an injured extremity index or ankle-brachial index may be used to help guide whether further evaluation with computed tomography arteriography. This uses a special scanner and a substance that makes it easier to examine the vessels in" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1073_8599", "title": "[Use of the ankle-brachial index in the detection of peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities in general medicine].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities (PAD) is a serious condition, frequently under-evaluated. Long asymptomatic, it is easily detected by measuring the ankle-brachial index (ABI), a reference tool that is reliable, reproducible, simple and inexpensive. The objective of this thesis was to determine the rate of achievement of ABI in French Haute Autorité de santé indications, identify the associated factors and prioritize the obstacles to achieving ABI. Descriptive and analytical epidemiological study, with analysis of practices, prospectively addressed by postal questionnaire to a randomized sample of 220 general practitioners practicing in the European Metropolis of Lille between December 15, 2016 and February 15, 2017. Our sample consisted of 92 GPs (42% participation). Among them, only 6 practiced ABI, notably for: intermittent claudication (n=5: 5%, IC95% [1; 10]), the existence of at least 2 cardiovascular risk factors (n=2: 2%, IC95% [0; 5]), diabetic patients over 40 years of age (n=2: 2%, IC95% [0; 5]), patients with diabetes (n=2: 2%, IC95% [0; 5]), patients with diabetes (n=2: 1%, IC95% [0; 5]), patients with diabetes (n=2: 1%, IC95% [0; 5]), and patients with diabetes (n=2: 1%, IC95% [0; 5]): 2%, CI95% [0; 5]), patients over 50 years of age with a history of diabetes or smoking (n=2: 2%, CI95% [0; 5]), or those with an unhealed lower extremity skin lesion (n=5: 5%, CI95% [1; 10]). The most frequently cited barriers were: the prescription of a routine echo-doppler (61%, 95% CI [51; 71]), lack of control (46%, 95% CI [36; 56]), time considered too long (17%, 95% CI [10; 25]), and equipment purchase or maintenance (19%, 95% CI [10.5; 26.4]). ABI is few used in our sample, mainly due to delegation to angiologists." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_80", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009413919413919414, "content": "Hospitalized patients should receive DVT prophylaxis consisting of exercise as tolerated, anti-thromboembolic stockings, and SQ unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin. Occlusion of the blood supply to the extremities by atherosclerotic plaque. The lower extremities are most commonly affected. Clinical manifestations depend on the vessels involved, the extent and rate of obstruction, and the presence of collateral blood fl ow. Presents with intermittent claudication (reproducible leg pain that occurs with walking and is always relieved with rest). As the disease progresses, pain occurs at rest and affects the distal extremities. Dorsal foot ulcerations may develop 2° to poor perfusion. A painful, cold, numb foot is characteristic of critical limb ischemia. Aortoiliac disease: Associated with Leriche’s syndrome (buttock claudication, ↓ femoral pulses, male impotence). Femoropopliteal disease: Calf claudication; pulses below the femoral artery are absent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0408_16878", "title": "Spontaneous auto-amputation of the foot in a case of diabetes, atherosclerosis and gangrene.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Auto-amputation is the spontaneous separation of non-viable tissue from viable tissue, and is usually associated with dry gangrene, occurring in the distal portions of the lower extremities. A 68-year-old female presented with dry gangrene of both feet and subsequent loss of the right foot and digits on the left foot over a period of one and half years. After about six months disarticulation of the right foot from the ankle joint resulted. She gradually lost the digits of the left foot two months later. She had pallor and showed absence of popliteal and distal pulses on both sides. The left foot showed absence of the digits with exposed 3rd and 4th metatarsals and some areas of gangrene and sloughing. Her Hb was 5.4 g/dl and random blood sugar was 340 mg%. Doppler study of the lower limbs showed blockage at the level of the superficial femoral artery on the right side and a patent popliteal artery on the left. She was managed conservatively as she was unwilling for surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0980_24481", "title": "High prevalence of exercise-induced ischemia in the asymptomatic limb of patients with apparently strictly unilateral symptoms and unilateral peripheral artery disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The prevalence of exercise-induced ischemia in the asymptomatic limb of patients with unilateral claudication based on history and treadmill evaluation, and with unilateral ipsilateral peripheral artery disease (i.e ankle-to-brachial systolic pressure index &lt;0.90) is unknown. We detected exercise-induced ischemia in the asymptomatic limb of patients with apparently unilateral claudication. Among 6059 exercise-oximetry tests performed in 3407 nondiabetic and 961 diabetic patients. We estimated the intensity of ischemia in the both limb (buttocks and calves) using the lowest minimum value of the decrease from rest of oxygen pressure (DROP; limb changes minus chest changes from rest), with significant ischemia defined as DROP lower than -15 mmHg. We found 152 tests performed in 142 nondiabetic patients and 40 tests performed in 38 diabetic patients. The asymptomatic limb showed significant ischemia in 46.7% and 37.5% of the tests. Strictly unilateral exercise-induced claudication with apparently unilateral peripheral artery disease was rare (&lt;4% of all tests). However, among these highly selected tests, significant ischemia was found in the asymptomatic limb in more than one-third of cases. The asymptomatic limb of patients with peripheral artery disease should not be considered a normal limb." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0739_20930", "title": "Stenting for peripheral artery disease of the lower extremities: an evidence-based analysis.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In January 2010, the Medical Advisory Secretariat received an application from University Health Network to provide an evidentiary platform on stenting as a treatment management for peripheral artery disease. The purpose of this health technology assessment is to examine the effectiveness of primary stenting as a treatment management for peripheral artery disease of the lower extremities. CONDITION AND TARGET POPULATION Peripheral artery disease (PAD) is a progressive disease occurring as a result of plaque accumulation (atherosclerosis) in the arterial system that carries blood to the extremities (arms and legs) as well as vital organs. The vessels that are most affected by PAD are the arteries of the lower extremities, the aorta, the visceral arterial branches, the carotid arteries and the arteries of the upper limbs. In the lower extremities, PAD affects three major arterial segments i) aortic-iliac, ii) femoro-popliteal (FP) and iii) infra-popliteal (primarily tibial) arteries. The disease is commonly classified clinically as asymptomatic claudication, rest pain and critical ischemia. Although the prevalence of PAD in Canada is not known, it is estimated that 800,000 Canadians have PAD. The 2007 Trans Atlantic Intersociety Consensus (TASC) II Working Group for the Management of Peripheral Disease estimated that the prevalence of PAD in Europe and North America to be 27 million, of whom 88,000 are hospitalizations involving lower extremities. A higher prevalence of PAD among elderly individuals has been reported to range from 12% to 29%. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) estimated that the prevalence of PAD is 14.5% among individuals 70 years of age and over. Modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors associated with PAD include advanced age, male gender, family history, smoking, diabetes, hypertension and hyperlipidemia. PAD is a strong predictor of myocardial infarction (MI), stroke and cardiovascular death. Annually, approximately 10% of ischemic cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events can be attributed to the progression of PAD. Compared with patients without PAD, the 10-year risk of all-cause mortality is 3-fold higher in patients with PAD with 4-5 times greater risk of dying from cardiovascular event. The risk of coronary heart disease is 6 times greater and increases 15-fold in patients with advanced or severe PAD. Among subjects with diabetes, the risk of PAD is often severe and associated with extensive arterial calcification. In these patients the risk of PAD increases two to four fold. The results of the Canadian public survey of knowledge of PAD demonstrated that Canadians are unaware of the morbidity and mortality associated with PAD. Despite its prevalence and cardiovascular risk implications, only 25% of PAD patients are undergoing treatment. The diagnosis of PAD is difficult as most patients remain asymptomatic for many years. Symptoms do not present until there is at least 50% narrowing of an artery. In the general population, only 10% of persons with PAD have classic symptoms of claudication, 40% do not complain of leg pain, while the remaining 50% have a variety of leg symptoms different from classic claudication. The severity of symptoms depends on the degree of stenosis. The need to intervene is more urgent in patients with limb threatening ischemia as manifested by night pain, rest pain, ischemic ulcers or gangrene. Without successful revascularization those with critical ischemia have a limb loss (amputation) rate of 80-90% in one year. Diagnosis of PAD is generally non-invasive and can be performed in the physician offices or on an outpatient basis in a hospital. Most common diagnostic procedure include: 1) Ankle Brachial Index (ABI), a ratio of the blood pressure readings between the highest ankle pressure and the highest brachial (arm) pressure; and 2) Doppler ultrasonography, a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses a combination of ultrasound and wave form recordings to evaluate arterial flow in blood vessels. The value of the ABI can provide an assessment of the severity of the disease. Other non invasive imaging techniques include: Computed Tomography (CT) and Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA). Definitive diagnosis of PAD can be made by an invasive catheter based angiography procedure which shows the roadmap of the arteries, depicting the exact location and length of the stenosis / occlusion. Angiography is the standard method against which all other imaging procedures are compared for accuracy. More than 70% of the patients diagnosed with PAD remain stable or improve with conservative management of pharmacologic agents and life style modifications. Significant PAD symptoms are well known to negatively influence an individual quality of life. For those who do not improve, revascularization methods either invasive or non-invasive can be used to restore peripheral circulation. TECHNOLOGY UNDER REVIEW: A Stent is a wire mesh \"scaffold\" that is permanently implanted in the artery to keep the artery open and can be combined with angioplasty to treat PAD. There are two types of stents: i) balloon-expandable and ii) self expandable stents and are available in varying length. The former uses an angioplasty balloon to expand and set the stent within the arterial segment. Recently, drug-eluting stents have been developed and these types of stents release small amounts of medication intended to reduce neointimal hyperplasia, which can cause re-stenosis at the stent site. Endovascular stenting avoids the problem of early elastic recoil, residual stenosis and flow limiting dissection after balloon angioplasty. In individuals with PAD of the lower extremities (superficial femoral artery, infra-popliteal, crural and iliac artery stenosis or occlusion), is primary stenting more effective than percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) in improving patency?In individuals with PAD of the lower extremities (superficial femoral artery, infra-popliteal, crural and iliac artery stenosis or occlusion), does primary stenting provide immediate success compared to PTA?In individuals with PAD of the lower extremities (superficial femoral artery, infra-popliteal, crural and iliac artery stenosis or occlusion), is primary stenting associated with less complications compared to PTA?In individuals with PAD of the lower extremities (superficial femoral artery, infra-popliteal, crural and iliac artery stenosis or occlusion), does primary stenting compared to PTA reduce the rate of re-intervention?In individuals with PAD of the lower extremities (superficial femoral artery, infra-popliteal, crural and iliac artery stenosis or occlusion) is primary stenting more effective than PTA in improving clinical and hemodynamic success?Are drug eluting stents more effective than bare stents in improving patency, reducing rates of re-interventions or complications? A literature search was performed on February 2, 2010 using OVID MEDLINE, MEDLINE In-Process and Other Non-Indexed Citations, OVID EMBASE, the Cochrane Library, and the International Agency for Health Technology Assessment (INAHTA). Abstracts were reviewed by a single reviewer and, for those studies meeting the eligibility criteria, full-text articles were obtained. Reference lists were also examined for any additional relevant studies not identified through the search. The quality of evidence was assessed as high, moderate, low or very low according to GRADE methodology. English language full-reports from 1950 to January Week 3, 2010Comparative randomized controlled trials (RCTs), systematic reviews and meta-analyses of RCTsProven diagnosis of PAD of the lower extremities in all patients.Adult patients at least 18 years of age.Stent as at least one treatment arm.Patency, re-stenosis, re-intervention, technical success, hemodynamic (ABI) and clinical improvement and complications as at least an outcome. Non-randomized studiesObservational studies (cohort or retrospective studies) and case reportFeasibility studiesStudies that have evaluated stent but not as a primary intervention The primary outcome measure was patency. Secondary measures included technical success, re-intervention, complications, hemodynamic (ankle brachial pressure index, treadmill walking distance) and clinical success or improvement according to Rutherford scale. It was anticipated, a priori, that there would be substantial differences among trials regarding the method of examination and definitions of patency or re-stenosis. Where studies reported only re-stenosis rates, patency rates were calculated as 1 minus re-stenosis rates. Odds ratios (for binary outcomes) or mean difference (for continuous outcomes) with 95% confidence intervals (CI) were calculated for each endpoint. An intention to treat principle (ITT) was used, with the total number of patients randomized to each study arm as the denominator for each proportion. Sensitivity analysis was performed using per protocol approach. A pooled odds ratio (POR) or mean difference for each endpoint was then calculated for all trials reporting that endpoint using a fixed effects model. PORs were calculated for comparisons of primary stenting versus PTA or other alternative procedures. Level of significance was set at alpha=0.05. Homogeneity was assessed using the chi-square test, I(2) and by visual inspection of forest plots. If heterogeneity was encountered within groups (P &lt; 0.10), a random effects model was used. All statistical analyses were performed using RevMan 5. Where sufficient data were available, these analyses were repeated within subgroups of patients defined by time of outcome assessment to evaluate sustainability of treatment benefit. (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_104888", "title": "Peripheral artery disease", "score": 0.009191338930623067, "content": "High risk populations Peripheral arterial disease is more common in these populations: All people who have leg symptoms with exertion (suggestive of claudication) or ischemic rest pain All people aged 65 years and over regardless of risk factor status All people between 50 and 69 and who have a cardiovascular risk factor (particularly diabetes or smoking) Age less than 50 years, with diabetes and one other atherosclerosis risk factor (smoking, dyslipidemia, hypertension, or hyperhomocysteinemia) Individuals with an abnormal lower extremity pulse examination Those with known atherosclerotic coronary, carotid, or renal artery disease All people with a Framingham risk score of 10%–20% All people who have previously experienced chest pain Mechanism" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_12101", "title": "[Radiation arteritis- and radiodermitis-induced leg ulcer: surgical revascularization].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A forty-four-year old man was hospitalized for diagnosis and treatment of a left leg ulcer which did not heal despite good compliance with a three-month medical regimen. Twenty years before he had undergone surgical curettage and radiotherapy (81 gy) for an osteosarcoma of the upper third of the left tibia. He was considered completely cured with regular findings. On examination he had a 5 X 7 cm deep ulcer with raised margins and no signs of infection, localized on the radiodermatitis on the medial aspect of his left leg. Arterial examination confirmed the left arteriopathy with absence of distal pulses; the Ankle Brachial Pressure Index was 0.69 and the foot TcPO2 27 mmHg. Arteriography confirmed the localized left lesions with three distal popliteal and proximal arterial occlusions, all other arteries being strictly normal. Arterial and dermatological radiation leg ulcer was retained as the etiological diagnosis. As the ulcer was very painful, extensive and limited walking distance, surgical revascularisation was undertaken because endoluminal revascularization was impossible. A femoroperoneal saphenous bypass was performed with surgical incisions beyond the radiodermatitis area. Two months after a split skin graft, the ulcer was considered healed and the patency of the by-pass confirmed on duplex examination. This is the first case report of a successful distal by-pass performed for radiation arteritis and ulcer healing. Long-term follow up should be reported." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0406_11297", "title": "Variability of ankle-arm index in general population according to its mode of calculation.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Ankle-arm index (AAI) is commonly used in epidemiological studies on peripheral arterial disease but its mode of calculation varies throughout the literature. We aimed to study the variance of the different measurements required to calculate the AAI according to different formulas, in order to find out the best way of AAI calculation, based on its lesser variability. A sample of 222 subjects from the general population was prospectively studied. Ten persons were excluded because of the presence of intermittent claudication or due to a lack of a Doppler posterior tibial artery (PT) signal. The systolic pressures of both arms, the dorsalis pedis arteries (DP) and the PT were finally measured in 212 healthy persons (mean age 49.9, range 18-101). Methods using the lowest ankle artery pressure were excluded, as an absent pedal pulse may not be abnormal. The mode using the lowest variance was the choice of the highest pressure between PT and DP of each leg divided by the mean of the systolic pressures of both arms. We recommend this mode of AAI calculation in epidemiological studies. As the variances of the measurements used are the lowest, it would be easier thereafter to determine normal ranges and cutoff points." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en340_261", "title": "Cardiovascular examination", "score": 0.00909804424084189, "content": "From head to toe, there are several places in the body where arterial pulses can be felt for their strength and quality. Many arteries that are on both sides of the body (bilateral) may be palpated at the same time for the sake of comparison, except for the carotid arteries; deep palpation of both carotid arteries can cut off blood flow to the brain. The carotid arteries, should be auscultated to listen for bruits, as this can indicate the buildup of plaque inside of the vessel (also known as atherosclerosis). The brachial arteries may be palpated underneath the biceps tendon. The radial pulses can be found on the forearm, above the wrists. Femoral pulses can be palpated below the inguinal ligament, about halfway between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. The popliteal arteries are harder to palpate, but can be found by pressing deeply with the knee slightly bent. If the femoral pulse is strong, but the popliteal pulse is weak, this can indicate" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_22371", "title": "Tourniquets revisited.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Controversy swirls about optimal control of life-threatening hemorrhage from an injured extremity whether in combat in the Middle East or in trauma care at home. Left unanswered are four critical questions: (1) What is the simplest tourniquet available? (2) Can it be used below the elbow and the knee? (3) Is pain a factor? (4) What data support so called \"Pressure Points?\" To address these questions, we measured the effects of three common tourniquets on arterial pulses (Doppler signals) at wrist and ankle of 10 healthy adult volunteers of either sex. We recorded ease of application (1-3, with 3 easiest) by the applicant and pain experienced by the subject (none, light, moderate, severe). Tourniquets were applied sequentially to arm, forearm, thigh, and leg. Tourniquet success was defined as sustained elimination of distal pulse. Pressure points were brachial artery in arm and cubital fossa, common femoral artery (groin), and popliteal artery (knee). The same criteria defined success. All numerical data were meaned and standard error (SE) computed. Significance of apparent differences was assessed with Student's t test for paired observations. Mean age was 36.5 +/- 6.0 years; blood pressure was 123 +/- 6/72 +/- 4 mm Hg. All three tourniquets (sphygmomanometer, 1/2 inch rubber tubing, cloth and windlass) were successful in all patients in all four locations with two exceptions. Thighs of two subjects were too large for the sphygmomanometer and one person experienced test terminating pain with the rubber tube on arm and thigh and with the cloth and windlass on the thigh. Manual (digital) occlusion of the brachial artery in the arm was possible in all but one subject; however, the Doppler signal at the wrist returned within 40.6 +/-6.5 seconds in all but one of the other nine subjects. Pressure point control of the common femoral artery resulted in identical findings except that the pulse returned within 20.6 +/- 4.7 seconds despite sustained pressure. Attempts at control of the brachial artery at the elbow and the popliteal artery at the knee were less successful. Our data indicate that all tourniquets can be used successfully below the knee or elbow. The cloth and windlass is the easiest to apply. It is probably the most readily available or simplest to procure/improvise. Pain is irrelevant. \"Pressure Point Control\" of extremity arterial hemorrhage is a euphemistic misnomer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0333_1193", "title": "Exertional leg symptoms other than intermittent claudication are common in peripheral arterial disease.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Epidemiological data show that most community-dwelling men and women with lower-extremity peripheral arterial disease (PAD) do not have typical symptoms of intermittent claudication. We compared the prevalence of intermittent claudication, leg symptoms other than intermittent claudication, and absence of exertional leg symptoms between patients with PAD identified from a blood flow laboratory (group 1), patients with PAD in a general medicine practice (group 2), and control patients without PAD (group 3). Numbers of participants in groups 1, 2, and 3 were 137, 26, and 105, respectively. Patients with previously diagnosed PAD were excluded from groups 2 and 3. All participants underwent ankle-brachial index measurement and were administered the San Diego claudication questionnaire to assess leg symptoms. Within groups 1, 2, and 3, prevalences of intermittent claudication were 28.5% (n = 39), 3.8% (n = 1), and 3.8% (n= 4), respectively. Prevalences of exertional leg symptoms other than intermittent claudication were 56.2% (n= 77), 42.3% (n= 11), and 19.0% (n = 20), respectively. Absence of exertional leg symptoms was reported by 15.3% (n= 21), 53.8% (n= 14), and 77.1% (n=81), respectively. Among patients with PAD, older age, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and group 2 vs group 1 status were associated independently with absence of exertional leg symptoms in multivariable regression analysis. Lower ankle-brachial index levels and group 1 vs group 2 status were associated with intermittent claudication. Clinical manifestations of PAD are diverse, particularly among patients identified by ankle-brachial index screening. Exertional leg symptoms other than intermittent claudication are common in PAD. Patients with PAD who are older, male, diabetic, or identified with ankle-brachial index screening in a primary care setting are more likely to have asymptomatic PAD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_59105", "title": "Peripheral vascular examination", "score": 0.00907258064516129, "content": "Arterial pulses Dorsalis pedis artery pulse – on dorsal surface of the foot, running lateral to the tendon of the first toe Posterior tibial artery pulse – posterior and inferior to the medial malleolus Popliteal artery pulse – behind the knee, typically done with both hands Femoral artery pulse – in the femoral triangle / halfway between the ASIS and pubic tubercle Auscultation For femoral artery bruits" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0706_12498", "title": "Persistent sciatic artery aneurysm: a case report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "In early embryologic development the sciatic artery provides the blood supply to the lower limb bud. When the femoral artery develops, the sciatic artery involutes. However, in rare cases, the sciatic artery persists. It can be visualised as a prolongation of the inferior gluteal artery (branch of the internal iliac artery) and it accompanies the sciatic nerve at the posterior side of the hip. We present the case of a 47-year old woman who consulted because of a numb right foot which presented colder and paler than the left foot. She also had a right painful calf, especially after exercise. Upon physical examination and doppler ultrasound there were no popliteal nor pedal artery pulses in the right leg. CT angiography showed bilateral persistent sciatic arteries with aneurysm formation and the presence of an embolus in the popliteal artery at the right side. Treatment involved thrombolysis of the popliteal occlusion, followed by intra-aneurysmatic stent placement and embolectomy of the popliteal artery and its distal branches. Postoperative clinical results were remarkably good and the patients symptoms dissolved. A persistent sciatic artery is a rare vascular anomaly. It is more prone to vasculopathies such as aneurysm formation. In cases of acute ischemia, correct diagnosis and treatment of this anomaly can avoid serious medical consequences." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0535_6889", "title": "Get the LEAD out: noninvasive assessment for lower extremity arterial disease using ankle brachial index and toe brachial index measurements.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Lower extremity arterial disease affects approximately one third of individuals 66 years of age and older and has a high risk for nonhealing wounds, infection, and limb loss. Much wound care is given by or under the direction of nurses. Therefore, the assessment and management of these patients presents many opportunities and challenges. Assessment is the cornerstone of effective care, but traditional methods of lower extremity arterial assessment, such as pulse palpation and pain history, are insufficient to determine the presence and extent of ischemia. Recently published national guidelines for assessment and management of patients with lower extremity wounds have recommended using noninvasive tests such as the ankle brachial index and toe brachial index to rule out lower extremity arterial disease, which complicates wound healing. However, the ankle brachial index can be falsely elevated in patients with diabetes and renal failure because of calcification of the arteries, which causes them to be incompressible. In these situations, it has been advised to obtain a toe pressure or toe brachial index because digital arteries are usually less affected by calcification. There is a paucity of data about the knowledge of principles and performance of the ankle brachial index/toe brachial index by nurses, particularly in the United States, using pocket-sized portable Doppler equipment. Therefore, the purpose of this article is to provide an overview and synthesis of relevant studies and published expert opinion regarding noninvasive arterial assessment using ankle brachial and toe brachial indexes as a basis for developing protocols for performing the tests and identifying gaps in research where further investigation is needed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 112 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "The fact of being a photoinduced picture, the histology and the age make the diagnosis of PCT more probable (3)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 113, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 35 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers do not fit with the clinical picture or the histology." } }

{ "1": "Familial benign pemphigus.", "2": "Pemphigoid.", "3": "Porphyria cutanea tarda.", "4": "Pemphigus vulgaris.", "5": "Scalded skin syndrome." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0102_840", "title": "[The morphology of skin damage in porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)].", "score": 0.01951637471439452, "content": "Skin biopsies (fresh and old blisters) of the back of the hand and lower arm, respectively, obtained from 24 patients with clinically and biochemically established porphyria cutanea tarda have been examined light and electron microscopically, 15 out of them also by immunofluorescence microscopy (occurrence of IgG, IgM and C3). Light microscopically there were subepidermal blisterings and typical corial broadenings of the capillary wall with deposits of diastase-resistant PAS-positive material in and around the walls of the vessels. Electron microscopically, replications of the capillary basement membrane with deposits of amorphous material were observed. IgG and C 3 on the dermoepidermal junction and in the capillaries could be identified by means of the direct immunofluorescence method in a number of cases. The pathogenesis of the lesions of the vessel walls and that of the subepidermal blistering, hitherto interpreted as their consequence, is not yet clarified sufficiently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0870_4714", "title": "Reflectance confocal microscopy in the diagnosis of vesicobullous disorders: case series with pathologic and cytologic correlation and literature review.", "score": 0.017011197243755383, "content": "Vesicobullous disorders are characterized by intraepidermal or subepidermal blistering resulting from different pathogenetic mechanisms. The diagnosis is generally based on clinical examination and semi-invasive/invasive procedures such as cytology and histopathology. In vivo reflectance confocal microscopy (RCM) is a non-invasive technique for real-time, en face imaging of the epidermis and upper dermis with high resolution close to conventional histopathology. To evaluate RCM features of different vesicobullous diseases and correlate with cytologic and histopathologic examination. Ten patients (6M/4F, age range: 9-81 years) affected by blistering diseases, such as herpes simplex, herpes zoster, Kaposi's varicelliform eruption, pemphigus vulgaris, Hailey-Hailey disease, bullous pemphigoid, and porphyria cutanea tarda were evaluated using a handheld RCM device. In our study, a clear correlation between RCM and Tzanck's test and/or histopathology was observed. RCM allowed in all cases an easy identification of the blister spaces and of the split levels, and in some cases specific features were detected, such as giant keratinocytes in herpes infections and acantholytic cells in pemphigus vulgaris and Hailey-Hailey disease. Reflectance confocal microscopy may support the clinical diagnosis of vesicobullous disorders and indicate to the physician the appropriate patient management and/or the need for further investigation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_13353", "title": "Mixed connective tissue disease. A clinical, histologic, and immunofluorescence study of eight cases.", "score": 0.014968082764692935, "content": "A study of the cutaneous eruptions of eight patients with mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) was performed to better characterize its dermatopathology and to explore a role for the membrane attack complex of complement C5b-9 in lesional pathogenesis. Nine lesional skin biopsies were obtained from eight patients with MCTD and analyzed by conventional light microscopy. Direct immunofluorescence (IF) and indirect IF using a monoclonal antibody to C5b-9 were applied in six and five cases respectively. The biopsied cutaneous eruptions were characterized clinically as photo-distributed erythematosus annular and/or papulosquamous lesions mimnicking subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE) in five of eight patients as an ill-defined, telangiectatic, scaly patch on the face in one patient, palpable purpura in one patient, and dorsal hand blisters resembling porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) in another. With the exception of the latter two patients, the histology appeared similar, comprising a cell poor and/or lichenoid interface dermatitis with suprabasilar exocytosis around necrotic keratinocytes in the absence of deep periadnexal or perivascular extension or conspicuous follicular plugging, a pattern similar to that of SCLE. However, the lesions differed from SCLE by virtue of vasculopathic alterations comprising vascular ectasia, hypovascularity, and/or luminal thrombosis confined to the superficial vascular plexus and a sclerodermoid tissue reaction, the latter seen in two cases. One biopsy showed a pustular leukocytoclastic vasculitis (LCV). In another case, a biopsied hand blister demonstrated a PCT-like appearance histologically, namely, pauci-inflammatory subepithelial blister formation with hyalinization of dermal papillae capillaries accompanied by an LCV. There was nuclear keratinocyte decoration with IgG and C5b-9 in all cases studied, accompanied by a positive lupus band test in two cases and homogenous deposition of immunoreactants along the dermoepidermal junction and within vessels in the PCT-like eruption. Granular vascular decoration with immunoreactants including C5b-9 was seen in two LCV cases and in two biopsies from rashes clinically mimicking SCLE. Although the epidermal pathology of MCTD mimicks that of SCLE, a concomitant vasculopathy paralleling that seen in skin lesions of dermatomyositis distinquishes the dermatopathology of MCTD from that of SCLE. Corroborating the role of microangiopathy in the pathogenesis of the skin lesions of MCTD was the demonstration of C5b-9 in blood vessels. The deposition of C5b-9 in keratinocytes may explain the pattern Of IgG decoration of keratinocytes; the formation of plasmalemmal pores may permit binding of immunoglobulin to antigens in the nucleus and/or cytosol. The C 5b-9 complex may be the effector mechanism of epithelial and/or endothelial cell injury in MCTD or may serve to augment the effects of antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0005_4852", "title": "Porphyria-like cutaneous changes induced by tetracycline hydrochloride photosensitization.", "score": 0.014337101747173689, "content": "Five patients manifested cutaneous changes indistinguishable from those noted in some porphyric disorders, consisting of fragility, denudation, and blister formation of sun-exposed skin. Microscopical examination showed subepidermal bulla formation and the desposition of PAS-positive, diastase-resistant material and IgG in or around the upper dermal blood vessel walls. There was also electron microscopical evidence of vascular basal lamina reduplication and the deposition of a fine fibrillar material in and around these vessels. However, no abnormal porphyrin formation was noted. All five patients had been receiving 250 mg of tetracycline hydrochloride twice a day for at least six months and had had extensive sun exposure prior to the onset of the condition. For four patients, discontinuing the medication led to complete remission, despite subsequent sun exposure; the fifth patient was much improved, but her skin was still somewhat fragile seven months later. We concluded that these cutaneous changes resulted from a low-grade photosensitization by tetracycline hydrochloride." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_45350", "title": "Nikolsky's sign", "score": 0.013725807757713175, "content": "Nikolsky's sign is almost always present in Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, caused by the exfoliative toxin of Staphylococcus aureus. It is also associated with pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus. It is useful in differentiating between the diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris or mucous membrane pemphigoid (where the sign is present) and bullous pemphigoid (where it is absent). The Nikolsky sign is dislodgement of intact superficial epidermis by a shearing force, indicating a plane of cleavage in the skin epidermal-epidermal junctions (e.g., desmosomes). The histological picture involves thinner, weaker attachments of the skin lesion itself to the normal skin – resulting in easier dislodgement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58281", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.013645815283313118, "content": "Pemphigus vulgaris is a rare chronic blistering skin disease and the most common form of pemphigus. Pemphigus was derived from the Greek word pemphix, meaning blister. It is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction in which antibodies are formed against desmosomes, components of the skin that function to keep certain layers of skin bound to each other. As desmosomes are attacked, the layers of skin separate and the clinical picture resembles a blister. These blisters are due to acantholysis, or breaking apart of intercellular connections through an autoantibody-mediated response. Over time the condition inevitably progresses without treatment: lesions increase in size and distribution throughout the body, behaving physiologically like a severe burn." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0933_4982", "title": "Bullosis Diabeticorum: A Rare Presentation with Immunoglobulin G (IgG) Deposition Related Vasculopathy. Case Report and Focused Review.", "score": 0.013480341169128354, "content": "BACKGROUND Bullosis diabeticorum (BD) is a condition characterized by recurrent, spontaneous, and non-inflammatory blistering in patients with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. While etiopathogenesis remains unclear, roles of neuropathy, vasculopathy and UV light are hypothesized. Most literature reports negative direct and indirect immunofluorescence findings in diabetics with bullous eruptions. Porphyria cutanea tarda, bullous pemphigoid, epidermolysis bullosa, and pseudoporphyria are other differential diagnoses of bullous lesions, and they must be excluded. CASE REPORT We present a 42-year-old African American male with long standing poorly controlled insulin dependent diabetes mellitus with blisters on his left hand and feet. The blisters were noticed three weeks prior to presentation and, thereafter, rapidly increased in size and spontaneously ruptured. Physical examination revealed a multitude of both roofed and unroofed bullous painless skin lesions. Hematoxylin and eosin (H&amp;E) staining dramatized the dermal-epidermal blistering and re-epithelization process. Direct Immunofluorescence (DIF) was positive for 2 + IgG deposition in the already thickened basement membrane of the capillaries of the superficial vascular plexus. After debridement, his wounds greatly improved with over three months of aggressive wound care. CONCLUSIONS Primary immunologic abnormality likely plays no role in the onset of BD. To date, only one article has reported nonspecific capillary-associated immunoglobulin M and C3. This is the first case of BD with IgG deposition in the superficial capillary basement membrane. Positive findings on DIF suggest vasculopathy. Dermal microangiopathy, secondary to immunologic abnormality, is a possible underlying pathogenesis to bullae formation. Punch biopsy with DIF can be an additional diagnostic modality in the management of such cases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_27537", "title": "Pemphigus", "score": 0.01324629714460223, "content": "and eye doctors, as lesions can affect the eyes and mucous membranes of the oral cavity. Intraorally, it resembles the more common diseases lichen planus and mucous membrane pemphigoid. Definitive diagnosis requires examination of a skin or mucous membrane biopsy by a dermatopathologist or oral pathologist. The skin biopsy is taken from the edge of a blister, prepared for histopathology and examined with a microscope. The pathologist looks for an intraepidermal vesicle caused by the breaking apart of epidermal cells (acantholysis). Thus, the superficial (upper) portion of the epidermis sloughs off, leaving the bottom layer of cells on the \"floor\" of the blister. This bottom layer of cells is said to have a \"tombstone\" appearance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_2324", "title": "Pseudoporphyria and sunbeds.", "score": 0.011596638655462184, "content": "Five cases of pseudoporphyria with recurrent blistering and skin fragility especially of the hands are described. Porphyrin studies were normal. The histopathological investigations in three of these cases showed subepidermal bullae consistent with porphyria cutanea tarda. All patients had considerable sunbed exposure before symptoms appeared. One patient was taking naproxen, a weak photosensitizer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0475_9214", "title": "Blistering disorders: diagnosis and treatment.", "score": 0.011407919547454431, "content": "Blistering diseases are a heterogeneous group of disorders that can affect either skin and mucous membrane, or both, varying in presentation, clinical course, pathohistology, immunopathology and treatment. Not infrequently the diagnosis is delayed. This can result in severe, and sometimes fatal consequences. Although these diseases are rare, it is very important to make an accurate diagnosis based on a combination of clinical profile and laboratory observations. A brief review is presented of the following bullous diseases: pemphigus, paraneoplastic pemphigus, bullous pemphigoid, cicatricial pemphigoid, epidermolysis bullosa acquisita, dermatitis herpetiformis, linear IgA bullous disease, porphyria cutanea tarda, and subcorneal pustular dermatitis. Their clinical, pathohistologic and immunopathologic features and recommendations for therapy are discussed." }, { "id": "Pathology_Robbins_5248", "title": "Pathology_Robbins", "score": 0.011329652634000459, "content": "Fig. 24.8 Levelsofblisterformation.(A)Subcorneal(asinpemphigusfoliaceus).(B)Suprabasal(asinpemphigusvulgaris).(C)Subepidermal(asinbullouspemphigoidordermatitisherpetiformis). mechanisms, but differ in their clinical presentation and course due to variation in the location of the target antigen (hemidesmosomes in bullous pemphigoid, desmosomes in pemphigus). Fig.24.12B ).Theoverlyingepidermischaracteristicallylacksacantholysis.Earlylesionsshowvariablenumbersofeosinophilsatthedermal-epidermaljunction,occasionalneutrophils,superficialdermaledema,andassociatedbasalcelllayervacuolization.Thevacuolatedbasalcelllayereventuallygivesrisetoafluid-filledblister( Fig.24.12C ).Theblisterroofconsistsoffull-thicknessepidermiswithintactintercellularjunctions,akeydistinctionfromtheblistersseeninpemphigus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58285", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.011298037275276266, "content": "Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against both desmoglein 1 and desmoglein 3 present in desmosomes. Loss of desmosomes results in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in the epidermis, and a disruption of the barrier function served by intact skin. The process is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction (in which antibodies bind to antigens on the body's own tissues). On histology, the basal keratinocytes are usually still attached to the basement membrane leading to a characteristic appearance called \"tombstoning\". Transudative fluid accumulates in between the keratinocytes and the basal layer (suprabasal split), forming a blister and resulting in what is known as a positive Nikolsky's sign. This is a contrasting feature from bullous pemphigoid, which is thought to be due to anti-hemidesmosome antibodies, and where the detachment occurs between the epidermis and dermis (subepidermal bullae). Clinically, pemphigus vulgaris is characterized" }, { "id": "article-27441_18", "title": "Porphyria Cutanea Tarda -- Histopathology", "score": 0.01116038433111604, "content": "Cutaneous pathologic findings: Sub-epidermal bullae and thick hyalinized blood vessels in the upper dermis are seen. Caterpillar bodies, which are linear globules that stain PAS-positive, are present at the roof of the blisters and represent disintegrating keratinocytes and basement membrane material. Dermal sclerosis may also be present, which can be histologically identical to scleroderma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_27503", "title": "Pemphigoid", "score": 0.01094855612927902, "content": "Other potential contributory factors including genetic factors, environmental exposures to infections and drugs as well as the phenomenon of epitope spreading are also known to cause bullous pemphigoid. Diagnosis Diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid includes clinical assessment, skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence, indirect immunofluorescence and ELISA test. Among all, direct immunofluorescence is the gold standard for diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid. Clinical assessment For patients greater than 70 years old Blistering skin disease characterized by the presence of tense blisters and erosions that occur without another identifiable cause and rarely on mucosa. Unexplained pruritus, pruritic eczematous eruptions, or urticarial plaques Histopathology Lesional tissue, preferably of an intact vesicle or the edge of an intact bulla is obtained using punch biopsy for Haemotoxylin and Eosin (H&E)staining. Typical histopathologic findings include:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58282", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.010583407816689688, "content": "Before the advent of modern treatments, mortality for the disease was close to 90%. Today, the mortality rate with treatment is between 5-15% due to the introduction of corticosteroids as primary treatment. Nevertheless, in 1998, pemphigus vulgaris was the fourth most common cause of death due to a skin disorder. The disease mainly affects middle-aged and older adults between 50–60 years old. There has historically been a higher incidence in women. Signs and symptoms Pemphigus vulgaris most commonly presents with oral blisters (buccal and palatine mucosa, especially), but also includes cutaneous blisters. Other mucosal surfaces, the conjunctiva, nose, esophagus, penis, vulva, vagina, cervix, and anus, may also be affected. Flaccid blisters over the skin are frequently seen with sparing of the skin covering the palms and soles." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_58288", "title": "Pemphigus vulgaris", "score": 0.010442752679555243, "content": "Diagnosis Because it is a rare disease, diagnosis is often complicated and takes a long time. Early in the disease patients may have erosions in the mouth or blisters on the skin. These blisters can be itchy or painful. Theoretically, the blisters should demonstrate a positive Nikolsky's sign, in which the skin sloughs off from slight rubbing, but this is not always reliable. The gold standard for diagnosis is a punch biopsy from the area around the lesion that is examined by direct immunofluorescent staining, in which cells are acantholytic, that is, lacking the normal intercellular connections that hold them together. These can also be seen on a Tzanck smear. These cells are basically rounded, nucleated keratinocytes formed due to antibody mediated damage to cell adhesion protein desmoglein." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0634_3597", "title": "Broad histopathologic patterns of non-glabrous skin and glabrous skin from patients with a new variant of endemic pemphigus foliaceus-part 1.", "score": 0.010419210419210418, "content": "A prospective, controlled epidemiologic survey performed in El Bagre, Colombia revealed a new variant of endemic pemphigus disease, occurring in a gold mining region. The disease resembled Senear-Usher syndrome, and occurred in an endemic fashion. The aim of this study is to describe the most frequent histopathologic patterns in non-glabrous skin and in glabrous skin observed in these patients, and their clinical correlation. The study was performed on non-glabrous skin biopsies of 30 patients from the dominantly clinical affected areas (either on the chest, arms or face). Simultaneously, biopsies from the palms were obtained in 10 randomly chosen patients of the 30 total patients. The specimens were examined following hematoxylin and eosin (H&amp;E) staining. The most common blisters observed were subcorneal, although in some cases intraspinous and subepidermal blisters were visualized. Our results showed a very heterogeneous pattern of histopathologic patterns in non-glabrous skin, which seemed to correlate with the clinical features. The most common pattern was typical pemphigus foliaceus-like, with some lupus erythematosus-like features. A non-specific, chronic dermatitis pattern prevailed in the clinically controlled patients taking daily corticosteroids. In the patients who have had the most severe and relapsing pemphigus, early sclerodermatous changes and scleredermoid alterations prevailed in their reticular dermis. In addition to the scleredermoid alterations, the reticular dermis showed a paucity of appendageal structures. On the contrary, in the palms, a similar pattern was seen in all cases, including thickening of the stratum corneum, hypergranulosis, edema in the papillary and reticular dermis and a dermal perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. The direct immunofluorescence of the glabrous vs. the non-glabrous skin also showed some differences. We conclude that the histopathologic features of this new variant of endemic pemphigus are complex, therefore, classical histopathologic features previously described for superficial, endemic pemphigus cannot be used alone to diagnose this disease." }, { "id": "Pathoma_Husain_493", "title": "Pathoma_Husain", "score": 0.01041401621169714, "content": "3. Thin-walled bullae rupture easily (Nikolsky sign), leading to shallow erosions with dried crust. 4. Immunofluorescence highlights IgG surrounding keratinocytes in a 'fish net' pattern. II. BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID A. Autoimmune destruction ofhemidesmosomes between basal cells and the underlying basement membrane B. Due to IgG antibody against hemidesmosome components (BP180) of the basement membrane C. Presents as blisters of the skin (Fig. 19.SA), usually in the elderly; oral mucosa is spared. 1. Basal cell layer is detached from the basement membrane (Fig. 19.SB). 2. D. Immunofluorescence highlights IgG along basement membrane (linear pattern). III. DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS A. Autoimmune deposition of IgA at the tips of dermal papillae B. Presents as pruritic vesicles and bullae that are grouped (herpetiform, Fig. 19.6) C. Strong association with celiac disease; resolves with gluten-free diet" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_27536", "title": "Pemphigus", "score": 0.010046665895329553, "content": "Pemphigus defines a group of autoimmune intraepithelial blistering diseases that are characterized by loss of normal cell-cell adhesion (acantholysis), and by the presence of pathogenic (predominantly IgG) autoantibodies reacting against epithelial adhesion molecules. Pemphigus is further divided in two major subtypes: pemphigus vulgaris (PV) and pemphigus foliaceus (PF). However, several other disorders such as IgA pemphigus, IgE pemphigus, pemphigus herpetiformis, drug-induced pemphigus, Senear Usher syndrome, and endemic pemphigus foliaceus exist, and are recognized by a dermatologist from the appearance and distribution of the skin lesions. It is also commonly diagnosed by specialists practicing otolaryngology- head and neck surgery, periodontists, oral and maxillofacial surgeons, and eye doctors, as lesions can affect the eyes and mucous membranes of the oral cavity. Intraorally, it resembles the more common diseases lichen planus and mucous membrane pemphigoid. Definitive" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_11207", "title": "Polymorphous light eruption", "score": 0.009994044517233678, "content": "Differential diagnosis The photosensitivity connected with lupus erythematosus is the main condition that may appear like PLE. However, the rash of lupus is inclined to be more persistent. PLE does not increase the risk of lupus. Other similar appearing conditions are solar urticaria, which has a shorter duration, the eczema-like condition, photosensitive dermatitis, and photosensitivity drug reaction. Prickly heat, which is caused by warm weather or heat is not the same as PLE. Photosensitivity is also found in some of the porphyrias. Nearly all cases of porphyria cutanea tarda exhibit blister formation on the skin within 2–4 days of light exposure. Variegate porphyria and hereditary coproporphyria can also exhibit symptoms of light-induced blisters. Classification Sunlight has been documented to trigger numerous skin conditions and the confusing terminology and categorisation previously has made the correct diagnosis and subsequent treatment difficult." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_6389", "title": "List of dog diseases", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Lick granuloma also known as acral lick dermatitis, is a skin disorder in dogs resulting from an urge to lick the lower portion of the leg. The lesion from the incessant licking is a thickened, firm, oval plaque. Pemphigus is an uncommon autoimmune skin disease. The most common form in dogs is pemphigus foliaceus, which manifests as erosions and crusting of the skin and mucocutaneous junctions. Pemphigus vulgaris is more rare and manifests as blister-like lesions in the mouth and at mucocutaneous junctions. Bullous pemphigoid is most commonly seen in Dobermanns and Collies and appears as a scald-like lesion of the groin. Sebaceous adenitis is an uncommon autoimmune skin disease. Most commonly found in Akitas and Standard Poodles. Dermal fragility syndrome, also known as Ehlers–Danlos-like syndrome, is a rare condition in dogs characterized by increased skin elasticity and poor wound healing. There appears to be a genetic basis for the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0583_2018", "title": "Porphyria cutanea tarda in pre-existent lupus erythematosus--is there an association?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In lupus erythematosus (LE), vesicles and bullae are only rarely seen. However, in some instances such efflorescences might suggest an association with distinct cutaneous diseases, including erythema multiforme, toxic epidermal necrolysis or autoimmune blistering disorders such as bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, and dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring. Another blistering disease that has been described in association with cutaneous and systemic LE is porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT). PCT is a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of the fifth enzyme in heme biosynthesis, uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. Here, we report on a 57-year-old Caucasian woman of Dutch origin with a medical history of mild cutaneous LE who developed skin fragility, blistering skin lesions, milia, and facial hypertrichosis. Subsequent porphyrin analysis in urine and feces confirmed the suspected simultaneous manifestation of LE and PCT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0028_5405", "title": "[Pseudo-late onset cutaneous parphyria in haemodialysis patients. Clinical and histological features. 9 cases (author's transl)].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In the context of a study of cutaneous problems seen in chronic renal failure patients on intermittent haemodialysis, the authors noted bullous eruptions very similar to late onset cutaneous porphyria. The bullae occur during the summer and are situated on exposed areas, in particular the head and neck. There is skin fragility and the bullae are transient, giving place to erosions and later to atrophic scarring. Even pseudo-miliary cysts have been observed. Histology reveals a sub-epidermal bulla, the basis of which consists of spiky papillary dermis. Immunofluorescence show immunoglobulin deposits in the vessels and basal membrane. All porphyrin measurements are negative. This disorder may be due to the presence of a non-porphyrinogenic photo-sensitising substance, found in certain types of plastic tubing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0251_7564", "title": "Interstitial collagenase is expressed by keratinocytes that are actively involved in reepithelialization in blistering skin disease.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Migrating keratinocytes actively involved in reepithelialization in dermal wounds acquire a collagenolytic phenotype upon contact with the dermal matrix. To determine whether this phenotype is associated with repair in other forms of wounds, we assessed collagenase expression in 50 specimens representing a variety of blistering skin diseases, including subtypes of epidermolysis bullosa, porphyria cutanea tarda, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus, transient acantholytic dermatosis, and suction blisters. Distinct from that seen in chronic ulcers or in normal healing by second intention, reepithelialization in these blistering conditions was not necessarily associated with a complete loss of basement membrane, as determined by immunostaining for type IV collagen. Collagenase mRNA was detected in the basal keratinocytes of several specimens of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (six of 10) and of pemphigus (three of seven), as well as in one quarter of transient acantholytic dermatosis samples in the presence of an intact basement membrane. In contrast, three of nine porphyria cutanea tarda, one third of epidermolysis bullosa acquisita, and one of 10 bullous pemphigoid samples had collagenase-positive basal keratinocytes with the basement membrane disrupted. The collagenase-positive lesions generally represented older blisters with evidence of epithelial regeneration. Collagenase was also expressed in suction blisters at 2 and 5 d after induction of the blister, but was shut off when the epidermis had healed. Other metalloproteinases were expressed occasionally, if at all. Our results suggest that keratinocyte migration is associated with collagenase expression and that contact of keratinocytes with the dermal matrix is not necessarily needed for collagenase induction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_9217", "title": "Direct Immunofluorescence of Mechanobullous Epidermolysis Bullosa Acquisita, Porphyria Cutanea Tarda and Pseudoporphyria.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Mechanobullous epidermolysis bullosa acquisita (mEBA) can have a clinical presentation that is very similar to other blistering diseases, such as porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) and pseudoporphyria. Direct immunofluorescence is an important feature in the diagnosis of mEBA, although features that overlap with PCT and pseudoporphyria have been reported. This retrospective observational study investigated whether direct immunofluorescence can discriminate mEBA from PCT and pseudoporphyria. Biopsies of 13 patients with mEBA, 10 with PCT and 10 with pseudoporphyria were included. In 7 cases of PCT and 4 of pseudoporphyria, direct immunofluorescence showed a pattern at the dermal-epidermal junction that appeared similar to the u-serrated pattern in mEBA. Vessel wall depositions were observed in all 3 diseases, but were more frequent and more intense in PCT and pseudoporphyria than in mEBA. Careful examination of direct immunofluorescence of mEBA vs. PCT and pseudoporphyria revealed different staining patterns, although overlapping features were present. Therefore, integrating all clinical and laboratory data is essential to differentiate between mEBA, PCT and pseudoporphyria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0603_14919", "title": "Cutaneous pemphigus vulgaris with skin features similar to the classic mucocutaneous type: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is a life-threatening autoimmune blistering skin disease that specifically involves oral mucosa. It was recently shown that a very small number of patients with PV show no mucous membrane involvement although they have circulating autoantibodies directed against both desmoglein (Dsg)1 and Dsg3 that are associated with histopathological suprabasal acantholysis. These cases are classed as cutaneous-type PV. We report here a case of cutaneous-type PV that occurred in a 50-year-old man. Clinical examination revealed numerous tense and spreading blisters and erosions over the patient's entire body, similar to the classic mucocutaneous-type PV. Interestingly, none of the previously reported patients with cutaneous PV had shown skin features like those of mucocutaneous PV, whereas the present case clearly demonstrated very typical clinical features similar to those in mucocutaneous PV." }, { "id": "article-27441_21", "title": "Porphyria Cutanea Tarda -- History and Physical -- Cutaneous Manifestations", "score": 0.009539161348731423, "content": "Photosensitivity, along with the formation of skin blisters, vesicles, bullae, and increased fragility of the skin, is seen on sun-exposed parts of the body. This most commonly involves the back of the hands, forearms, neck, face, and feet. These repeated insults to the skin later resolve, leaving behind hyper- and hypopigmented scars and milia, which are small yellowish-white keratin filled papules. [10] Since PCT is delayed blistering photosensitivity, most patients do not associate sun exposure with their skin lesions. [4] These skin lesions arise from minor trauma and sometimes may get infected, causing intense pain and inflammation. [18] The scarring may lead to contractures mimicking the skin findings of a patient with scleroderma, thus labeling this phenomenon as \"pseudoscleroderma.\" [19] Scarring alopecia on the scalp can lead to a diffuse hair loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0286_14246", "title": "A case of autoimmune bullous dermatosis with features of pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pleomorphic blisters, including tense bullae and annularly arranged vesicles around the erythema as well as erosive eruptions in the oral cavity, appeared on a 61-year-old woman 5 years after surgery for cholangiocellular carcinoma. A biopsy specimen from the oral cavity showed intraepidermal blisters, and those from skin lesions showed subepidermal blisters with infiltrates of eosinophils and neutrophils. The early-stage vesicles showed infiltrates along the epidermal-dermal junction, where electron microscopy disclosed disruption of the lamina densa, basal cells remaining on the dermis, and acantholytic keratinocytes among the infiltrates, but there was no cleavage of the epidermal-dermal junction at the lamina lucida. Direct immunofluorescence studies showed immune deposition at the intercellular space (ICS) and along the basement membrane zone (BMZ). Indirect immunofluorescence studies confirmed coexistence of IgG class anti-ICS and anti-BMZ antibodies. Although this case showed immunohistochemical features of bullous pemphigoid, the presence of suprabasal cleavage in the oral mucosa, acantholytic cells in the blister cavity, the deposition of IgG at the ICS of the perilesional epidermis, and circulating anti-ICS antibodies strongly suggested that this case was primarily pemphigus. The strong inflammation along the epidermal-dermal junction due to unknown factors may have modified the clinical appearance and the histopathology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0015_3769", "title": "[Pseudoporphyria cutanea tarda in hemodialysis patients].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A bullous disease very similar to late onset cutaneous porphyria has been found in approximately 16 percent of the patients on intermittend hemodialysis. The bullae occur during the summer and are situated on exposed areas, particularly hands, head and neck. There is skin fragility and the bullae are transient, giving place to erosions and later to atrophic scarring. Even milia have been observed. Histology reveals a subepidermal bulla, the basis of which consists of spiky papillary dermis. Immunofluorescence shows immunoglobulin depoits in the vessels and basal membrans. All porphyrin measurements are negative. This disorder may be due to the precence of a non porphyrinogenic photosensitizing substance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5554", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C17)", "score": 0.009511510157226902, "content": "– skin diseases, vascular – angiomatosis, bacillary – Behçet syndrome – mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome – polyarteritis nodosa – pyoderma gangrenosum – Sneddon syndrome – Takayasu's arteritis – temporal arteritis – urticaria – angioneurotic edema – vasculitis, allergic cutaneous – skin diseases, vesiculobullous – acantholysis – blister – dermatitis herpetiformis – eczema, dyshidrotic – epidermolysis bullosa – epidermolysis bullosa acquisita – epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica – epidermolysis bullosa, junctional – epidermolysis bullosa simplex – erythema multiforme – Stevens–Johnson syndrome – hydroa vacciniforme – pemphigoid, benign mucous membrane – pemphigoid, bullous – pemphigoid gestationis – pemphigus – pemphigus, benign familial – skin manifestations – skin neoplasms – sebaceous gland neoplasms – sweat gland neoplasms" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0908_1253", "title": "Atypical Clinical and Serological Manifestation of Pemphigus Vegetans: A Case Report and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Pemphigus vegetans (PVeg) is a rare variant of pemphigus vulgaris characterized by pustules and/or papillomatous vegetations, preferentially affecting intertriginous and periorificial areas. Exceptional manifestations may be misdiagnosed resulting in delayed diagnosis and treatment. Diagnosis is confirmed by immunofluorescence and detection of anti-desmoglein (Dsg) 3 and/or anti-Dsg1 antibodies. We herein report an unusual manifestation of PVeg. At the time of first presentation, lesions were restricted to the right ring finger's tip. Although mucous membranes were initially not affected, high levels of anti-Dsg3 antibodies were detected while anti-Dsg1 and anti-desmocollin (Dsc) 1, 2, and 3 antibodies were absent. To compare our immunological findings with previous reports, all accessible Anglophone literature published since December 1988 was evaluated. We identified 52 patients suffering from PVeg, 7 of these showed anti-Dsg3 antibodies without any mucous membrane involvement. Notably, the detection of anti-Dsg1 and anti-Dsg3 antibodies does not necessarily correlate with the involvement of skin and/or mucous membranes. This might be due to more specific and complex antibody constellations in nonclassical or atypical pemphigus." }, { "id": "article-27441_26", "title": "Porphyria Cutanea Tarda -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009390756302521008, "content": "Skin Biopsy: This is not needed for diagnosis and may only help in excluding some other skin conditions from the cutaneous porphyrias. Subepidermal blisters and depositions in vessel walls are some of the biopsy findings seen in porphyrias. [21]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 206, 412 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 61 ] ], "text": "Radical amputation surgery has not been shown to improve survival being reserved for selected cases (invasion of neurovascular structures, pathologic fracture...). Therefore, we discard both option 1 and 4;" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 413, 494 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 61, 76 ] ], "text": "option 3 is also discarded, because it is a smaller margin than the extended one;" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 206, 412 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 61 ] ], "text": "Radical amputation surgery has not been shown to improve survival being reserved for selected cases (invasion of neurovascular structures, pathologic fracture...). Therefore, we discard both option 1 and 4;" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hip disarticulation.", "2": "Treatment with ifosfamide and tamoxifen for 6 cycles prior to resection surgery to reduce the size of the lesion.", "3": "Marginal surgery removing the pseudocapsule that these tumors usually form in response to their rapid growth.", "4": "Modified right hemipelvectomy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0260_17595", "title": "[Adamantinoma of the proximal end of the tibia. A case].", "score": 0.014558022622538752, "content": "Adamantinoma is a rare primary tumour of long bones containing mesenchymatous and epithelial cells. There has been some controversy over the pathogenesis. We observed a localization in the right tibia. A 22-year-old patient from Algeria was seen for spontaneous progressively increasing pain in the upper part of the right tibia. The patient's general health had deteriorated somewhat, with fever. On examination there was ulceration of the skin, costal and pelvic pain and inflammatory right inguinal lymph nodes. Radiography revealed lateral metaphyseal lytic image with interruption of the cortex also seen on magnetic resonance imaging which revealed invasion of the soft tissue and multiple bilateral pulmonary nodules. Bone scintigraphy showed several zones of hyperfixation. The diagnosis of adamantinoma was confirmed by pathology examination of the biopsy specimen. On surgical exeresis, the capsule of the knee joint was found to be involved without invasion of the knee joint. Node dissection showed inguinal and popliteal invasion. Macroscopically, the surgical specimen was a red-whitish osteolytic tumour. Microscopically, the tumour was composed of hyperchromatic epithelial cells in an abondant fibrous stroma. Immunohistochemical studies were negative for vimentine, cytokeratin and factor VIII. Adjuvant chemotherapy was based on a sarcoma protocol. Unfortunately, after two cycles, white cell counts fell sharply and multiple skin nodules appeared together with progression of the bone metastases. The chemotherapy was modified without any therapeutic effect and the patient died in February 1993. An epithelial origin would appear most probable, but at least two groups of adamantinoma can be described: one with typical epithelial differenciation and one overlapping to the differential diagnosis of osteofibrous dysplasia. Although considered as a low grade malignant tumour, we emphasize the aggressive forms with local relapse or metastatic resistance to chemotherapy. Treatment relies on wide surgery and prognosis is generally good. Neither chemotherapy nor radiotherapy has stood the test of time in cases with metastasis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_24025", "title": "Femoral nerve compression caused by a hibernoma in the right thigh: a case report and literature review.", "score": 0.014071870425461586, "content": "A hibernoma, also known as a brown fat tumor, is a rare benign soft tissue tumor, which originates from brown adipose tissue remaining in the fetus after the gestational period. It is often detected in adult men, presenting as a painless slow-growing mass. Hibernomas of the thigh have been reported; however, motor and sensory disorders caused by the tumors compressing the femoral nerve have not been reported. We report a case of a histopathologically proven hibernoma that induced femoral mononeuropathy. A 26-year-old man was admitted to the hospital due to a mass, approximately 11.0 × 9.0 × 4.0 cm in size, that had developed 5 years ago in the anterolateral aspect of the proximal thigh. Furthermore, he had a history of hypoesthesia 1 month prior to his admission. He had signs and symptoms of both a motor and sensory disorder, involving the anterior aspect of the right thigh and the medial aspect of the calf, along the distribution of the femoral nerve. During surgery, the femoral nerve was found to be compressed by the giant tumor. The resultant symptoms probably caused the patient to seek medical care. Marginal resection of the mass was performed by careful dissection, and the branches of the femoral nerve were spared. Histopathology examination showed findings suggestive of a hibernoma. At the 4-month follow-up, no femoral nerve compression was evident, and local tumor recurrence or metastasis was not found. Asymptomatic hibernomas do not require treatment; however, in cases of hibernomas with apparent symptoms, complete marginal surgical excision at an early stage is a treatment option because it is associated with a low risk of postoperative tumor recurrence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0866_778", "title": "[Synovial sarcoma. Case report].", "score": 0.01361858753163101, "content": "In 2013 there were 94,770 new cancer patients reported in Hungary. Synovial sarcoma accounts for 0.05-0.1% of all cancers and, therefore its incidence is predicted to be 47-94 patients/year in Hungary. The authors report the history of a 18-year-old man who was operated on a right upper abdominal wall tumor with R1 resection. During the next 5 months the tumor grew up to 8 cm in largest diameter. Histology revealed monophasic synovial sarcoma. Immunohistochemistry showed bcl2, focal CD99 and high molecular weight cytokeratin positivity, while smooth muscle actin, S100 and CD34 immunostainings were negative. Becose of this reoperation was not possible, curative six cycles of doxorubicine and ifosfamide with granulocyte colony stimulating factor support and 60 Gy radiotherapy was given to the tumor bed. After these treatments computed tomography scan was negative and the patient attended regular imaging every 3 months. At the age of 20 years the patient developed two neoplastic lesions in the surgical scar measuring 10 mm and 45 × 10 mm in size. R0 resection, partial rib resection and abdominal wall reconstruction were performed. Histology confirmed residual monophasic synovial sarcoma. Radiotherapy was not given because of a risk of intestinal wall perforation. Staging positron emission tomography-computed tomography proved to be negative. At the age of 22 years magnetic resonance imaging scans indicated no tumor recurrence, but after one month a rapidly growing tumorous lesion was found on ultrasound in the surgical scar measuring 20 × 20 × 12 mm in size. Cytology confirmed local recurrence and fluorescence in situ hibridization indicated t(x;18). R0 exstirpation and partial mesh resection were performed and histology showed the same monophasic synovial sarcoma. Because of the presence of vascular invasion and a close resection margin (1 mm) the patient underwent 3 cycles of adjuvant chemotherapy (doxorubicine and ifosfamide) with granulocyte colony stimulating factor support and 3 cycles of ifosfamide. After 2 years follow up at the age of 24 years, imaging studies did not reveal any local or distant recurrence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0508_12913", "title": "Five-year evolution of a telangiectatic osteosarcoma initially managed as an aneurysmal bone cyst.", "score": 0.012952101661779082, "content": "We present the clinical, radiographic, and pathologic features of a telangiectatic osteosarcoma (TOS) of the right femoral neck in a 20-year-old man which was initially diagnosed and managed as an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). The lesion recurred twice. At the second recurrence TOS was diagnosed. The first local recurrence was recognized 4 years 8 months after the first operation. The clinical diagnosis for the recurrent lesion was recurrent ABC, and curettage and bone graft with internal fixation were performed. The second local recurrence was observed 8 months after the second surgery. The right lesser trochanter appeared destroyed on the radiograph, and a large medial soft tissue mass was demonstrated by computed tomography. The patient underwent wide resection of the tumor with prosthetic replacement of the right proximal femur. The histologic section for this lesion showed a blood-filled cystic lesion, and its wall contained sarcomatous cells with atypical mitoses and tumor osteoid. The histologic diagnosis for the second recurrent lesion was high-grade TOS. The retrospective review of the histologic section for the primary lesion showed similar features to ABC except for a few bizarre cells without mitosis in the tissue of cystic wall. The patient demonstrates no evidence of disease 13 months after the last surgery without adjuvant therapy (he declined chemotherapy)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7674", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011707700366684129, "content": "AJCC stage I patients are adequately treated with surgery alone. Stage II patients are considered for adjuvant radiation therapy. Stage III patients may benefit from adjuvant chemotherapy. Stage IV patients are managed primarily with chemotherapy, with or without other modalities. Soft tissue sarcomas tend to grow along fascial planes, with the surrounding soft tissues compressed to form a pseudocapsule that gives the sarcoma the appearance of a well-encapsulated lesion. This is invariably deceptive because “shelling out,” or marginal excision, of such lesions results in a 50–90% probability of local recurrence. Wide excision with a negative margin, incorporating the biopsy site, is the standard surgical procedure for local disease. The adjuvant use of radiation therapy and/or chemotherapy vascular structures are involved so that resection will result in serious functional consequences to the limb." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_13896", "title": "[A malignant lymphoma (non-hodgkin lymphoma, follicular type) patient who achieved complete remission by radiochemotherapy].", "score": 0.01091715976331361, "content": "A 54-year-old female patient visited our hospital as an outpatient in August 2008 for her growing mass thigh, without pain, redness or fever. She had suffered discomfort from that swelling since she had been diagnosed with erysipelas by a dermatologist she had visited 6 months before and received some medication. Suspicious of a subcutaneous soft tissue tumor, we performed a biopsy, and histological examination of the lesion indicated malignant lymphoma (follicular lymphoma grade 2). PET-CT (as of September, 2008) showed abnormal migration at the right inguinocrural and right external iliac lymph nodes. In view of her age and the that rapid exacerbation, we considered chemotherapy (rituximab, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin, vincristine and prednisolone: R-CHOP) and involved field radiotherapy (IFRT) better to perform than 'watchful wait'. PET-CT (as of November, 2008) after 3 courses of R-CHOP therapy showed abnormal migration had been significantly improved (complete remission on PET-CT) and completely disappeared in the right external iliac lymph nodes. For long-term prognosis and prophylaxis of recurrence, we then added 2 courses of chemotherapy (rituximab alone) and IFRT (30 Gy/20 Fr) as radical therapy. She is now doing well and visits our hospital once a month for follow-up after achieving CR with RECIST guideline." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1159_1311", "title": "From Morphea to Dermatofibrosarcoma Protuberans.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Dear Editor, Morphea profunda (MP) is a chronic autoimmune disease, a subtype of localized scleroderma that presents clinically as local discomfort due to the impairment of skin motility (1). Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is a rare soft tissue neoplasm that not only infiltrates the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, but can also affect the muscles and bones with finger-like extensions, usually present on the trunk and the proximal extremities (2). DFSP is known for its indolent clinical course, locally aggressive behavior, and high local recurrence rates, but relatively low risk of metastatic spread (2). DFSP frequently arises in middle-aged adults, affecting both sexes equally with an incidence of 4 per 1,000,000 people (3). We report the case of a 39-year-old female patient who first presented to our clinic at the age of 20 years due to a brownish atrophic coin-sized lesion appearing on the left side of the abdomen. Medical reports indicated that biopsies had been performed previously on 3 occasions, and histopathologic findings confirmed the diagnosis of MP. The aforementioned lesion on the abdomen had been growing slowly over the years, and the patient finally visited our clinic 15 years later after noticing two palpable nodules developing within the affected skin (Figure 1, A, B). Clinical examination revealed an indurated ill-defined plaque measuring 10 cm with partially atrophic surface and 2 centrally located palpable nodules measuring between 3 and 5 mm. A deep biopsy of the lesion was performed, and histopathology and immunohistochemical analysis of CD34 expression confirmed the diagnosis of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (Figure 1, C, D). Computed tomography scans of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvic region were subsequently performed, revealing no further disease progression. Complete excision of the tumor was performed and followed by wide scar re-excision due to narrow surgical margins of only 1 mm. No further disease progression or recurrences have been noted during the follow-up, and the patient has been disease-free for one year postoperatively. Although the etiology of DFSP is unknown, trauma has been hypothesized as a predisposing factor. It usually presents on the trunk and the proximal extremities (4). Patients usually report disease progression over a long period of time, ranging from several months to years. The tumor is associated with variable color changes, even proximal skin discoloration, and often presents with a slowly growing indurated dermal plaque or firm nodule attached to the skin (4). Clinically, it can be difficult to distinguish DFSP from a wide number of diagnoses, including morphea, idiopathic atrophoderma, atrophic scar, anetoderma, lipoatrophy, cellular dermatofibroma, fibrosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, atypical fibroxanthoma, desmoplastic melanoma, Kaposi sarcoma, and solitary fibrous tumors (5). Immunohistochemistry staining for CD34 cells can be helpful in differentiation, since spindle cells stain positively in DFSP (6). Due to alteration of dermal collagen, histopathological differential diagnoses of DFSP includes lichen sclerosus, atrophic scars and keloids, as well as morphea (7), atrophic dermatofibroma, and undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (6). The mainstay of DFSP treatment is tumor excision performed either by wide local excision or Mohs surgery and having surgical margins between 1 and 5 cm. Several studies have confirmed that patients treated with the Mohs technique have significantly lower recurrence rates (8). Due to the high number of unsatisfactory primary excisions, wide free surgical margins are important for disease control (3). Radiotherapy might be considered as a therapeutic option for inoperable tumors or relapses, as well as an adjuvant therapy after primary excision or re-excision with positive margins (8). Furthermore, recent findings indicate positive therapeutic efficacy after administration of imatinib mesilat - a tyrosine kinase inhibitor due to over expression of PDGFβ (9). Clinical follow-up of patients with DFSP after tumor excision should be performed every six months for the first five years, followed by yearly intervals thereafter for up to 10 years (3). Previous case reports have claimed that the diagnosis of DSFP is commonly delayed as a result of slow tumor growth and nonspecific initial clinical findings (10). To the best of our knowledge, our case is the first description in the literature of DFSP developed within a MP plaque. We speculate that trauma from repeated punch biopsies taken from the sclerotic morpheaform plaque may represent the trigger for the development of the DFSP. Another notable clinical challenge was the surgical excision itself, since the majority of cases presented in literature mentioned unsatisfactory resection margins and a high risk of local disease recurrence. Although complete excision of the neoplasm was performed, re-excision was performed in order to provide wider resection margins. Surgical resection remains the main treatment for dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, with the main challenge being the achievement of clean excision margins. Proper management of the disease and continuous follow-up are important in order to prevent local recurrence of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans or its potential metastases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1100_20245", "title": "[Treatment of a patient with giant solitary fibrous tumor of the left hip].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The authors report surgical treatment of a 59-year-old female with a giant solitary-fibrous tumor of the left hip. Previous excision of hip hemangioma was performed in 2016. Recurrent tumor with fast growth has occurred since 2018. The neoplasm consisted of 2 tumors connected by vascular structures. CT revealed soft tissue neoplasms in the upper third of the left thigh (anterior, medial and dorsal regions). Large tumors with an isthmus along the inner surface had tuberous contours and internal septa. The last ones and walls accumulated contrast agent. No structural damage to femoral muscles was observed. The patient underwent resection of tumor and vascular ligation (great saphenous vein and its tributaries along the anterior surface, arteries from the deep femoral artery system along the posterior surface of tumor). There were no early postoperative complications. There are no complaints within 6 month after surgery. There is no lower limb dysfunction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_17555", "title": "Hemipelvectomy to treat sarcoma of the proximal portion of the femur in a rabbit.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 7-year-old sexually intact female rabbit was admitted to the hospital because of a 6-month history of chronic right pelvic limb lameness. Clinical examination revealed a prominent right pelvic limb lameness and signs of pain on manipulation of the right hip joint, with a focal, well-defined soft tissue mass palpable in the right pelvic area. Pelvic radiography revealed a lytic hip joint lesion and CT detailed an expansile lesion within the proximal portion of the femur with an appearance consistent with a soft tissue mass. Histologic evaluation of incisional biopsy samples of the soft tissue mass revealed a poorly differentiated sarcoma. A hemipelvectomy was performed, and histologic evaluation of the soft tissue mass confirmed the diagnosis, with tumor-free margins achieved. The patient recovered well from surgery and had good mobility. The patient survived 21 months after surgery and died of a non-cancer-related disease. Anatomic dissection was described in a cadaver rabbit to aid future surgeries. To the authors' knowledge, this was the first report of a hemipelvectomy performed in a rabbit. Hemipelvectomy is more routinely performed in canine and feline patients, but with the right candidate and owner commitment to aftercare, it may be safely and successfully performed in rabbits." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0016_2218", "title": "[Methods of treatment of tumors of the soft parts and bones of the limbs and extremities. Analysis of case records].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "218 patients examined for localized cancer of the extremities (50% benign, 50% malignant) are reported. The incidence is considered by sex and age. Demolition surgery was carried out in 35 patients and 27 locoregional treatment with antiblastics and radioactive isotopes was employed. Conservative surgery was used in 158. Operative mortality was less than 1% (2 cases out of 218) and did not reach 6% if amputations and disarticulations alone are considered. There were no deaths in cases submitted to radiochemotherapy and inguinocrural hymphadenectomy. The series includes a 15-years survival for giant-cell tumour of the femur treated with radioactive microsphores, an 11-years survival for a popliteal melanoma submitted to radiocolloid infiltration, a 9-year survival for femoral osteosarcoma for which hip disarticulation was carried out and a 4-year survival for a recurrent rhabdomyosarcoma of the hip operated by hemipelvectomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0951_12459", "title": "Current and Emerging Therapies for HER2-Positive Women With Metastatic Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b DE, a 31-year-old premenopausal woman with a nonsignificant medical history, noticed a right breast mass after playing basketball in September 2011. She initially attributed the mass to slight trauma, but after 2 weeks, she realized the mass was increasing in size. Her primary care physician ordered a bilateral screening mammogram and ultrasound. Mammography revealed no evidence of malignancy in the left breast. In the right breast, at the 7 o'clock position, a loose cluster of faint calcifications spanned a 2.2-cm area. Ultrasound confirmed an irregular hypoechoic mass in the right breast measuring 3.5 × 2.7 × 2.8 cm. Ultrasound of the right axilla identified two enlarged right axillary lymph nodes. Ultrasound core-needle biopsy of the suspicious right breast mass confirmed invasive ductal carcinoma, nuclear grade 2, Ki67 index of 55%, estrogen receptor-positive (H score of 180), progesterone receptor-positive (H score of 135), HER2-positive (3+ on immunohistochemistry). Utilizing the TNM (tumor, node, metastasis) staging system, she was clinically staged with a stage IIB (cT2, cN1, M0) invasive breast tumor. The computerized axial tomography (CT) scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the known right breast mass and two enlarged right axillary lymph nodes; however, no metastatic disease was noted. Nuclear bone scan revealed no bone metastases. Her medical oncologist recommended she receive neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The patient was treated with 6 cycles of neoadjuvant docetaxel at 75 mg/m², carboplatin at an AUC (area under the curve) of 6, and trastuzumab (Herceptin) at 6 mg/kg (TCH), which she tolerated well. She then underwent a right segmental mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection and was found to have a residual 1.0-cm invasive ductal carcinoma, representing a 60% tumor volume reduction. None of 13 axillary lymph nodes were positive for disease. Pathologic staging confirmed a stage IA (ypT1, ypN0, M0) tumor. DE completed 33 fractions of radiation therapy to the right breast. She initiated endocrine therapy with tamoxifen at 20 mg daily and received 1 year of maintenance trastuzumab (6 mg/kg). Due to vaginal discharge and weight gain, endocrine therapy was switched from tamoxifen to toremifene (Fareston), which she tolerated relatively well. She continued routine follow-up, with no evidence of disease. In September 2014, DE presented to her primary care physician complaining of left hip pain. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the left hip revealed T2 hyperintense masses within the right anterior superior iliac crest, right sacrum, and left iliac body consistent with skeletal metastases. She was referred back to her medical oncologist, and per National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines, a biopsy of the suspicious lesion was obtained. The bone biopsy of the lytic lesion was consistent with metastatic breast cancer, which was estrogen receptor-positive, progesterone receptor-positive, and HER2-positive (3+ on immunohistochemistry). Restaging CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis revealed new 4- to 6-mm pulmonary nodules, hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy, new liver lesions, and bone lesions. Nuclear bone scan confirmed multiple bone metastases of the right and left iliac bones and sternum. Complete blood cell count with differential and complete metabolic panel were within normal ranges. The CA 27-29 tumor marker for breast cancer was elevated at 495 U/mL (normal range, &lt; 37 U/mL). DE was understandably devastated by the new diagnosis. She questioned how the treatment plan was to be established. Her medical oncologist struck a somewhat optimistic tone. He explained that metastatic breast cancer was not yet considered to be curable, but periods of disease stability and chronicity were possible. He explained that the HER2 positivity was perhaps the most important factor in delineating her treatment options. He told her that current treatment options were numerous and increasing in number." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0608_12124", "title": "[The analysis of the treatment of giant cell tumor of the pelvis and sacrum].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To discuss the surgical management, local recurrence rate and complications of giant cell tumor (GCTs) of the pelvic and sacrum. From December 1997 to December 2005 the data of 46 patients of GCTs of pelvic and sacrum treated were reviewed. There were 25 men and 21 women with the average age of 32 years old ranging from 17 to 64. Out of 46 patients,there were 24 tumors involved the sacrum and the others at the pelvis. According to the site of the tumors on the bone, they was classified into three regions: 8 patients involved region I (ilium), 10 region II (acetabulum) and 4 region III (ischiopubic). Two patients had lesions located at S(1-5), 4 at S(1-4), 12 at S(1-3), 5 at S(1-2) and 1 at S(3-5). Surgical management: 2 patients received 3 times of operations and 7 underwent 2 operations. There were 19 patients managed with intralesional marginal excision and 2 patients with intralesional marginal excision and adjuvant radiotherapy, another 3 patients with widely marginal excision as the treatment of sacral lesions. Nineteen patients underwent the enbloc excision except 2 involved ischium and 1 involved ilium for the managements of pelvic lesions. One recurrent patient with the large, ragged tumor died of serious infection in 2 weeks after the second surgery. The remain 45 patients had followed-up durations ranging from 12 months to 8 years. One patient of malignant giant cell tumor of sacrum died at 15 months after surgery. One patient with postoperation sarcoma underwent reoperation and radiotherapy but died at the 13th month. One patient with sacral lesion occurred pulmonary metastases in two years after surgery, and received chemotherapy with ADM, DDP and IFO. One year later there was no much change in metastatic tumor. One patient with acetabular lesion underwent curettage before local recurrence and pulmonary metastases were found in 2 years. The patient was treated with pulmonary radiation, widely marginal excision and hemi-pelvic prostheses reconstruction. There was no progression in metastatic lesion during the following up. The local recurrence rate of GCT at sacrum was 9/24 (37.5%), and at pelvis was 2/22 (9.1%). However, 2 patients with ischium lesions both recurred after curettage. Nineteen lesions with enbloc excision showed no recurrence at all. The treatment for GCT of the pelvic and sacrum should be more aggressive because of high incidence of local recurrence after intralesional excision. Although it might induce sacral nerve deficit, widely marginal excision is the best surgical procedure because of its low recurrence rate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0934_25536", "title": "Duration of Anti-Programmed Death-1 Therapy in Advanced Melanoma: How Much of a Good Thing Is Enough?", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The Oncology Grand Rounds series is designed to place original reports published in the Journal into clinical context. A case presentation is followed by a description of diagnostic and management challenges, a review of the relevant literature, and a summary of the authors' suggested management approaches. The goal of this series is to help readers better understand how to apply the results of key studies, including those published in Journal of Clinical Oncology, to patients seen in their own clinical practice. A 53-year-old healthy man presented with recurrent in-transit melanoma of the right lower extremity. Eight years prior he had undergone wide local excision and sentinel lymph node biopsy for invasive melanoma of the anteromedial aspect of the distal right thigh. Pathology revealed an ulcerated melanoma, Breslow depth 3.5 mm, and with one involved micrometastatic inguinal lymph node. Staging studies did not demonstrate distant metastases. Superficial inguinal node dissection was performed and did not identify any additional metastatic nodes of 14 retrieved for a final pathologic staging of T3bN1aM0 (stage IIIB) cutaneous melanoma. He received 12 months of adjuvant high-dose interferon alfa-2b. Two years later, he developed a 1.2-cm subcutaneous focus of in-transit recurrence approximately 4 cm proximal to the original melanoma site in the right thigh, which was treated with surgical resection followed by adjuvant radiotherapy. Over the next 4 years, he underwent six additional surgeries for isolated in-transit recurrences affecting the same limb. He was referred for therapeutic options at the time of his latest in-transit recurrence. Examination revealed three palpable subcutaneous nodules in the right thigh in the setting of lymphedema. A core biopsy confirmed recurrent melanoma (Fig 1). Whole-body fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography imaging revealed at least 17 hypermetabolic cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules in the right thigh, four fluorodeoxyglucose-avid nodules below the right knee, but no distant metastases (Fig 2A). Brain magnetic resonance imaging was normal. His serum chemistry profile, including lactate dehydrogenase, was normal. Molecular analysis demonstrated presence of BRAF V600E mutation in the tumor. After multidisciplinary evaluation, an isolated limb infusion procedure of the right lower extremity was not believed to be feasible, secondary to the proximal extent of the recurrence. Therapy was initiated with pembrolizumab at 2 mg/kg intravenously every 3 weeks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0526_9053", "title": "Outcome after disarticulation of the hip for sarcomas.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To review the oncological and functional outcome in 80 patients who underwent disarticulation of the hip as part of their treatment. Eighty patients had disarticulation, of whom 46 had a bone sarcoma and 34 a soft tissue sarcoma. In 42 patients the operation was done as the first definitive surgical procedure for that patient. In 38 patients the disarticulation followed local recurrence after unsuccessful limb salvage, three of these patients had palliative amputations already having metastatic disease. All patients had adjuvant therapy when appropriate. The overall survival of the patients following the amputation was 56% at 1 year, 39% at 2 years, 27% at 5 years and 21% at 10 years. The 5-year survival of patients having the amputation as a primary procedure was 32%, for those with local recurrence it was 25% whilst for those with a palliative amputation it was nil. Local recurrence developed in 10 patients following the amputation, and was related to close margins of excision; all of these patients subsequently died. Function was on the whole poor, with only one surviving patient regularly using an artificial limb. Disarticulation of the hip remains a disabling procedure usually carried out for high grade sarcomas with extensive involvement of bone and soft tissues in the thigh. Long term survival is possible if wide margins of excision can be achieved." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1127_15449", "title": "Pleomorphic Liposarcoma of Femur: A Rare Soft Tissue Sarcoma Metastasized to the Bone-Case Report and Review of Literature.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pleomorphic liposarcoma (PLPS) accounts for less than 5% of liposarcoma, and its metastasis to bone is rare. As a high-grade tumor, PLPS is reported to be more invasive with high local recurrence and distant metastasis. Here, we report a case of PLPS of the femur and undertake a review of the literature. <iCase Presentation</i. A 58-year-old man presented with a big mass at posterior aspect of his left thigh. The computed tomography of the chest for staging revealed two nodules at the left upper lung field. Wide resection of the soft tissue mass at the left thigh was performed by a general surgeon. Thoracotomy and wedge resection of the lung nodules was carried out by a cardiothoracic surgeon. Pathologic diagnosis suggested PLPS. Three years later, he was presented with sudden right hip pain after he slipped. The plain radiograph revealed an osteolytic lesion at the right proximal femur with minimally displaced pathological fracture. The MRI showed the presence of a tumor at the proximal part of the right femur and its soft tissue invasion. The patient underwent en bloc proximal femur wide resection followed by cemented long-stem bipolar hemiarthroplasty. The final histopathology report from definite surgery specimen revealed pleomorphic spindle, round, and polygonal cells arranged in sheets, short fascicles, and storiform arrays. There were no complications, adverse outcomes, or recurrence reported at six months after surgery. The patient could walk without gait aid and had good functional outcomes according to the TESS questionnaire. PLPS is a highly aggressive tumor with a high distant metastatic rate. The definite diagnosis of PLPS is made on the basis of histopathology. Surgical treatment involving wide resection that aims to achieve a negative margin is the best option currently available, and we recommend treating bone metastasis from PLPS as the primary site of the tumor. The effect of chemotherapy and radiotherapy in preventing postoperative recurrence is still unclear and requires further studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0730_5551", "title": "[Partial pelvic resection (internal hemipelvectomy) and endoprosthetic replacement in periacetabular tumors].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Treatment of tumors of the pelvic girdle by resection of part or all of the innominate bone with preservation of the extremity. Implantation and stable fixation using a custom-made megaprosthesis to restore painless joint function and loading capacity. The surgical goal is to obtain a wide surgical margin and local tumor control. Primary bone and soft tissue sarcomas, benign or semi-malignant aggressive lesions, metastatic disease (radiation resistance and/or good prognosis). Limited life expectancy and poor physical status, extensive metastatic disease, persistent deep infection or recalcitrant osteomyelitis, poor therapeutic compliance, local recurrence following a previous limb-sparing resection, extensive infiltration of the neurovascular structures and the intra- and extrapelvic soft tissues. Levels of osteotomy are defined preoperatively by a CT-controlled manufactured three-dimensional 1:1 model of the pelvis. Using these data, the custom-made prosthesis and osteotomy templates are then constructed by the manufacturer. The anterior (internal, retroperitoneal) and posterior (extrapelvic, retrogluteal) aspects of the pelvis are exposed using the utilitarian incision surgical approach. The external iliac and femoral vessels are mobilized as they cross the superior pubic ramus. The adductor muscles, the rectus femoris and sartorius muscle are released from their insertions on the pelvis and the obturator vessels and nerve are transected. If the tumor extends to the hip joint, the femur is transected at a level distal to the intertrochanteric line to ensure hip joint integrity and to prevent tumor contamination. A large myocutaneous flap with the gluteus maximus muscle is retracted posteriorly. The pelvitrochanteric and small gluteal muscles are divided near their insertion in the upper border of the femur. To release the hamstrings and the attachment of the sacrotuberous ligament, the ischial tuberosity is exposed. After osteotomy using the prefabricated templates, the pelvis is released and the specimen is removed en bloc. The custom made prosthesis can either be fixed to the remaining iliac bone or to the massa lateralis of the sacrum. The released muscles are refixated on the remaining bone or the implant. Time of mobilization and degree of weight-bearing depends on the extent of muscle resection. Usually partial loading of the operated limb with 10 kg for a period of 6-12 weeks, then increased loading with 10 kg per week. Thrombosis prophylaxis until full weight bearing. Physiotherapy and gait training. At follow-up, patients are monitored for local recurrence and metastases using history, physical examination, and radiographic studies. Between 1994 and 2008, 38 consecutive patients with periacetabular tumors were treated by resection and reconstruction with a custom-made pelvic megaprosthesis. The overall survival of the patients was 58% at 5 years and 30% at 10 years. One or more operative revisions were performed in 52.6% of the patients. The rate of local recurrence was 15.8%. Deep infection (21%) was the most common reason for revision. In two of these cases (5.3%), a secondary external hemipelvectomy had to be performed. There were four cases of aseptic loosening (10.5%) in which the prosthesis had to be revised. Six patients had recurrent hip dislocation (15.8%). In four of them a modification of the inserted inlay and an implantation of a trevira tube had to be performed respectively. Peroneal palsy occurred in 6 patients (15.8%) with recovery in only two. There were 4 operative interventions because of postoperative bleeding (10.5%). The mean MSTS score for 12 of the 18 living patients was 43.7%. In particular, gait was classified as poor and almost all patients were reliant on walking aids. However, most patients showed good emotional acceptance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_7473", "title": "A case of quadruple primary malignancies including breast, tongue, and thyroid cancers and osteosarcoma in a young female without karyotype abnormality.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The patient was a 41-year-old, premenopausal woman with a chief complaint of well-circumscribed palpable, right breast mass without nipple discharge. Although she noticed the lump 3 months previously, the size of the tumor (1.1 × 0.9 cm(2)) had been stable. The patient's mother suffered from gastric cancer. Her previous history of the triple different malignancies was as follows: (1) left osteosarcoma [amputation of left lower leg at 15 years old (y/o)]. After the operation, she was treated with various kinds of anticancer drugs including a total of 45 g ifosphamide and 342 g methotrexate; (2) tongue cancer (right radical neck resection; 23 y/o); and (3) thyroid cancer (right lobectomy; 40 y/o). There was no evidence of recurrence of these malignancies at the present consultation. At the time of tongue cancer operation, chromosome abnormality was investigated, but the results were normal. Physical examination showed a well-delimited, elastic-firm, mobile tumor in the central outer right breast. Regional lymph nodes were not palpable. Mammography showed a focal asymmetry in the right upper breast on the mediolateral oblique view. Ultrasonography revealed a hypoechoic mass with irregular margins. Distant metastases could not be detected by whole-body computed tomography scan. The histology of the Mammotome(®) (vacuum-assisted core needle biopsy) specimen revealed that this tumor was low-grade ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). She underwent breast-conserving surgery with sentinel lymph node biopsy. On permanent histopathological examination, the diagnosis of the tumor was intracystic papilloma with low-grade DCIS. Surgical margin was negative, and sentinel lymph node metastases could not be observed. Estrogen and progesterone receptor (ER/PR) were strongly positive, but human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 (HER-2) overexpression was not tested because the lesion was DCIS. She has received no adjuvant therapy and is currently disease free 3 months after surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0090_20902", "title": "Primary reexcision for patients with 'microscopic residual' tumor following initial excision of sarcomas of trunk and extremity sites.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Among 404 patients with primary tumors of extremity-trunk sites entered in the Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study (IRS) (1972 to 1984), 154 were placed in clinical group IIa, ie, with negative nodes but with \"microscopic residual\" (MR) disease, following the initial excisional (not biopsy) procedure. An elective reexcision of the area of the primary tumor (PRE) was performed in 41 of these patients within 35 days (mean interval, 14 days; SE, 0.9) with no intervening therapy. These procedures consisted of wider excision of the tumor \"bed,\" resulting in a technical transfer of these patients from group IIa to group I, ie, complete excision. This reduced intensity of nonsurgical therapy (irradiation and chemotherapy). Among the 41 patients who underwent PRE, the 3-year survival estimate (Kaplan-Meier) was 91% (SE, 4%). This may be compared with the results in 113 patients who remained in group IIa, in which the 3-year survival estimate was 74% (SE, 4%). A second group for comparison consisted of the 73 patients with trunk/extremity tumors who were placed in group I after a single excisional procedure, ie, no PRE, in whom the 3-year survival estimate was 74% (SE, 5%). Recognized prognostic factors influencing survival in these groups were comparable, with the exception of tumor size, ie, the largest tumors (greater than or equal to 10 cm in diameter) were concentrated in groups I and IIa. When patients with tumors greater than or equal to 10 cm in diameter (9.7% of the total) were removed from all three study groups, patients undergoing PRE had longer survival duration estimates than patients in the control groups." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0296_1246", "title": "Fibromyxoid sarcoma in a four-year-old child: case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We present a child with a rare and chemotherapy-resistant form of soft-tissue cancer, low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma, first noted when he was 4 years old. He is the youngest patient reported to date. An 11-year-old white male presented to. The University of Texas M.D. Anderson Cancer Center's Department of Pediatrics with a 7-year history of right thigh mass and pulmonary nodules, confirmed on examination. He had undergone extensive prior chemotherapy and surgery. He received chemotherapy with high-dose cyclophosphamide (7 g/m2) and later etoposide (150 mg/m2/day x 5), with only slight shrinkage of the thigh mass and none in the lungs. Subsequently the tumor in his proximal thigh and his lung metastases were resected, and radiation therapy was administered to the thigh. His disease remained stable for 12 months, but he then developed a pleural-based metastasis on the left side and new bilateral lung metastases also. The tumors on the left side were removed; residual disease is stable after treatment for 6 months with subcutaneous alpha-interferon-2b. Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma is very uncommon in children. It grows slowly and metastasizes to distant organs, chiefly to the lungs. It is resistant to conventional chemotherapy, and thus far only surgery seems to have a life-prolonging effect. Newer chemotherapeutic and possibly biologic agents should be tried in future patients, in order to find an effective way to control the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0285_6963", "title": "[Tuberculosis of the greater trochanter. Apropos of 2 cases].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The authors report two cases of tuberculosis of the greater trochanter as an uncommon localization in osseous tuberculosis. 1st case: A 77 year old male presented with hip pain and swelling. Laboratory studies revealed an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The patient had a positive skin test reaction for tuberculosis. Radiographs showed greater trochanter remodeling. M.R.I. demonstrated a bilobed abscess. There were enough arguments to initiate medical treatment, before surgery: excision of the abscess and partial trochanteric resection. 2nd case: In a 51 year old male, a large lytic lesion of the whole greater trochanter suggesting benign bone tumors was found an radiographs after a traumatism. Curettage and grafting were undertaken. The final diagnosis was made with the results of the intra-operative samples culture of and led to appropriate medical treatment. The outcome was good in both cases with four years follow-up for the first case, and two years for the second one. Trochanteritis Tuberculosis occurs in 1.8 per cent of bony tuberculosis cases. Local symptoms are discrete and the diagnosis is belatedly made when the tuberculous abscess appears. Radiographs and CT scan show the bony lesions: unevenness of the contours of the trochanter and several gaps in it. MRI shows the abscess and its spread. The microbiological test (when antibiotic therapy has not been initiated) and anatomo-pathological tests confirm the diagnosis. General treatment is based on a six month long specific antibiotic therapy. Local treatment concerns the abscess and the bony lesions. As the case may be; careful curettage is undertaken, or wide excision is performed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0839_22160", "title": "Giant malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor with cauda equina syndrome and subarachnoid hemorrhage: Complications in a case of type 1 neurofibromatosis.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF1), which mainly involves ectodermal tissue arising from the neural crest, can increase the risk of developing malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPNSTs), soft tissue sarcomas and subarachnoid hemorrhage. We describe a patient with neurofibromatosis type 1 who developed soft tissue sarcoma, MPNST, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. A 22-year-old male reported right focal seizures consequence to severe headache. He had a weakness in both legs, could walk only with the support of a stick for the last 3 months and suffered from constipation and intermittent urinary retention for the past 1 week. The patient had a history of swelling in the back of left thigh for which surgical resection was done 6 months back. Cutaneous examination revealed multiple nodules of varying sizes all over the body, along with many café-au-lait spots and Lisch nodule in iris. Patient had weakness in bilateral hip abduction, extension, knee flexion, extension and ankle dorsiflexion and plantiflexion. Bilateral ankle reflexes were absent while other deep tendon reflexes were sub-optimal. A noncontrast computed tomography brain indicated subarachnoid hemorrhage in left perisylvian region. Ultrasound of left thigh showed a hypoechoic solid lesion in the posterior aspect of left thigh in muscle plane. Histopathology of the lesion following resection showed features suggestive of a low-grade pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma. Histology of cutaneous nodules was consistent with neurofibroma. Magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbosacral spine demonstrated a tumor arising from cauda equina. Histopathological examination of the tumor suggested high-grade MPNST. Unfortunately, the patient's MPNST was inoperable, and he received palliative radiotherapy for local control of the disease. The care of a patient with neurofibromatosis requires a comprehensive multisystem evaluation. MPNST occurs in 8-13% patients with neurofibromatosis. Early diagnosis and surgical resection are key to prolong survival. Though rare, rhabdomyosarcoma can occur with a higher frequency in NF1, necessitating through clinical investigation. Subarachnoid hemorrhage can occur due to aneurismal rupture or vascular friability in NF1 patients. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0836_6006", "title": "A novel surgical approach for the treatment of tumors in the lesser trochanter.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The proximal femur is a common location for the development of primary benign bone tumors. However, there is currently no surgical technique designed specifically for treating tumors located in the lesser trochanter. In the present study, a novel procedure was developed for directly exposing the lesser trochanter for surgical intervention. This technique may be particularly suited to treating tumors that extend toward the lateral and anterior forward of the lesser trochanter. The new approach involved passing through the femoral triangle, separating the femoral nerve and femoral vessels (artery and vein) and resecting the tumor between the iliopsoas and pectineal muscles. The procedure was performed on six patients with various types of tumor, including one case with osteoid osteoma, one case with non-osteogenic fibroma, one case with osteoma, one case with liposarcoma and two cases of osteochondroma. The preliminary results indicated that the surgical durations were short (60-100 min), blood loss was minimal (30-200 ml) and that pain relief was achieved following surgery. Only one patient continued to experience mild pain, scoring 18 mm on a visual analog scale. The other patients were fully relieved of pain. Sensory dysfunction was experienced by one patient following surgery, with persistent numbness and paresthesias in the distribution of the femoral nerve. No cases of deep vein thrombosis, femur head necrosis, hip joint degeneration disease or local recurrence were identified in any patients during the follow-up period. In order to clarify the virtual tissue, such vessels, nerves and the available space in our approach area, we collected 20 cadaveric specimens and performed anatomical examinations in and around the formal triangle. The spaces between the femoral artery and femoral nerve were measured and analyzed, with the results demonstrating that a definite space existed. Therefore, the novel approach presented in the study may be useful in the resection of benign tumors and the preoperative palliative resection of malignant tumors. The technique may be particularly suited to tumors extending toward the lateral and anterior of the lesser trochanter." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0940_10820", "title": "Radiation recall pneumonitis induced by ifosfamide for malignant soft tissue tumor arising from the chest wall: A case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The present study reports a rare case of radiation recall pneumonitis attributed to ifosfamide that was used as a single antitumor agent for a recurrent malignant soft tissue tumor, arising from the chest wall. A 74-year-old man, who had a mass in his right upper chest wall, underwent surgical excision under the diagnosis of chronic expanding hematoma. He was referred to the present hospital with a recurrent tumor as the excised tumor was diagnosed as undifferentiated high-grade sarcoma. The extension of the tumor following previous surgery was aggressive and the tumor margins were unclear on magnetic resonance imaging. Wide excision was done with adequate margins for the new recurrent tumor as it was difficult to set sufficient tumor margins following the previous surgery. Radiotherapy (60 Gy) on his right subclavicular area and chemotherapy with ifosfamide (3.5 g × 4 days/cycle) was started 1 month following surgery to control the growth of residual tumors and to prevent metastases. The third cycle of chemotherapy with ifosfamide (3 g × 4 days) was started 80 days following the final surgery and 15 days following termination of radiotherapy. Following administration, he felt short of breath and dyspnea gradually increased. This condition was diagnosed as interstitial pneumonitis induced by ifosfamide following radiotherapy. Although corticosteroid pulse therapy was performed, he died due to respiratory failure. To the best of the author's knowledge, this is the first case report of radiation recall pneumonitis induced by ifosfamide used as a single anti-tumor agent. Caution is needed when ifosfamide is planned for patients who have undergone previous radiotherapy to the chest." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0084_22480", "title": "[Clinical treatment of 37 cases of soft tissue sarcomas in the past 6 years].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Since 1981, 37 cases of soft tissue sarcomas have been treated in our clinic. There were 20 males and 17 females with an average age of 43.5 years old. Histopathological classifications were liposarcomas 9 cases, MFH 8 cases, synovial sarcoma 5 cases, rhabdomyosarcoma 3 cases etc. Twenty-four cases (65%) were located in lower extremity, 11 cases (30%) in upper extremity, and 2 cases (5%) in trunk. All cases were treated with surgical intervention. Postoperative radiation was undertaken in 4 cases and adjuvant chemotherapy in 12 cases, respectively. There were 28 cases (76%) of excisional surgery; i.e., so-called limb salvage operation, and 9 cases (24%) of amputation or disarticulation. In August 1987, 10 cases had died of disease (DOD) and 27 cases were alive, but 4 cases were alive with disease (AWD). Each of the DOD and AWD cases were in stage III (by Enneking's surgical staging system) at first arrival to our clinic, or multioperated cases or cases with rapid distant metastases soon after operation. In conclusion, it was emphasized that in order to improve the clinical results, the soft tissue sarcomas must be treated earlier and that more effective chemotherapeutical protocols should be developed in the future." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0908_6614", "title": "Carcinosarcoma of the Tunica Vaginalis Following Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Spermatic cord tumors (SCTs) are rare neoplasms with 80% exhibiting benign pathology. Of the malignant SCTs, 90% are sarcomas. To date there has only been one documented case of primary CS of the spermatic cord which occurred in a 40 year old with no reported medical history. A 76-year-old male with a history of biopsy proven Gleason score 7 (3 + 4) prostatic adenocarcinoma underwent external beam radiation therapy (7920 cGy) in 44 fractions in 2004. He presented with a 3 year history of an asymptomatic right hydrocele. Several scrotal ultrasounds had been performed confirming a hydrocele, with the most recent revealing a hydrocele measuring 10 × 14 cm and several epididymal cysts. During the hydrocelectomy a firm suspicious mass was noted inside the tunica vaginalis and involving the spermatic cord. Given the intraoperative findings, decision was made to proceed with radical orchiectomy. Final pathologic examination revealed the tumor to have a biphasic pattern composed of spindled cells and also cells with an epithelioid morphology. Five months following orchiectomy he patient presented with a painful, enlarging right upper scrotal mass. A CT scan revealed new soft tissue lesions suspicious for necrotic lymph nodes within the right inguinal canal. Additional metastatic evaluation revealed multiple new pleural and parenchymal lung nodules. CT guided needle biopsy of a left lung nodule demonstrated spindle cells with high cellularity and areas of necrosis which were histomorphologically similar to the previous scrotal CS. Gemcitabine therapy was subsequently started. Four months following the diagnosis of metastatic CS, the patient expired. Dedifferentiation of prostatic adenocarcinoma to prostatic CS should be considered as a treatment outcome after localized radiation therapy to the prostate due to the highly aggressive nature of metastatic CS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0448_2098", "title": "[Extra-abdominal desmoid tumors: 7-year outcome after surgical treatment in 12 patients].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The purpose of this study was to report the clinical course and outcome in 12 patients with extra-abdominal desmoid tumors. This retrospective series included 12 patients with extra-abdominal desmoid tumors treated between 1987 and 1996. Female gender predominated (8/12) and age ranged from 4 months to 60 years. The tumors were identified in the thoracic wall (n=2), the upper limb (n=4), and the lower limb (n=6) with a bony localization in the upper femoral metaphysis. Magnetic resonance imaging was highly contributive to the search for extension. Surgical treatment was given in all cases. All patients were living at last follow-up. Complete resection was achieved in three patients and incomplete resection in nine. Mean follow-up was seven years. There was one case of sarcomatous transformation and nine cases of recurrence. Mean time to recurrence was one year (range 6 months-4 years). Two tumors, in the forearm and the leg, did not recur. Secondary surgery was not attempted in four patients whose clinical situation has remained stable after recurrence. A second resection was performed for recurrence in four other patients who then remained recurrence-free to last follow-up. One tumor recurred three times after surgical resection. Functional outcome was good in nine patients. The poorly limited nature of extra-abdominal desmoid tumors makes resection a difficult task, particularly when located in the girdles or the most proximal part of the limbs. Wide first-intention surgical resection is recommended but mutilation must be avoided due to the benign nature of the tumor, its slow progression, and the possibility of regression or stability after recurrence. Nevertheless, surgical treatment of recurrent tumors is difficult and often insufficient, compromising functional outcome. Complementary treatment (radiotherapy) has been advocated for better control tumor growth." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0591_11643", "title": "Primary great saphenous vein leiomyosarcoma: report of a case.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Leiomyosarcomas rarely arise in primary veins, especially the great saphenous vein. We have found only 20 case reports of leiomyosarcoma arising in the great saphenous vein, most of which manifested as nonspecific symptoms of advanced disease, such as a palpable mass, swelling, and back or abdominal pain. We report the case of greater saphenous vein leiomyosarcoma diagnosed in a 48-year-old man with a 4-month history of an inguinal mass. Ultrasonography and computed tomography showed a 6-cm mass attached to the right superficial femoral vein. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy confirmed that it was a vascular sarcoma. At the time of surgery there was no evidence of distant metastasis; therefore, we removed the tumor en bloc along with the sartorius muscle, inguinal lymph nodes, and 10 cm of the common femoral vein, and replaced the femoral vein with a polytetrafluoroethylene graft. A pathological examination revealed poorly differentiated leiomyosarcoma of the great saphenous vein, involving the deep femoral vein, without lymph node involvement. During follow-up, a thrombosis of the prosthesis developed, followed by proximal stenosis, which was treated successfully with percutaneous transluminal angioplasty. The patient was found to have lung metastases 25 months after surgery and he died about 5 months later." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0906_11661", "title": "Surgery of a Rare Case of Multiple Synovial Osteochondromatosis of the Hip Joint.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Primary synovial osteochondromatosis of the hip is a benign disorder, which is not frequently seen clinically. The characteristic of this disease is proliferation of synovium and formation of loose bodies inside the joint. It is known that only the loose bodies derived from synovium were called synovial osteochondromatosis. Although it can take place in any joint, the knee is most commonly affected, involvement of the hip joint is relatively rare. We report a young man who has multiple synovial osteochondromatosis in his left hip. A 21-year-old young man, who had progressive pain and functional impairment of his left hip, came to our hospital. He complained that 2 years ago, he began to feel painful of his left hip joint when walking and squatting. Physical examination found that the motion range of the hip was obviously limited, with internal rotation, abduction in particular. The Harris hip score was just 38 points. X-ray shew multiple osteochondromatosis with mild degenerative osteoarthritis existing inside the hip joint. Magnetic resonance imaging shew that the synovial osteochondromatosis intersperse inside the hip joint. During the operation, posterolateral incision of the hip was chosen with dislocation of the femoral head for total exposure of the hip joint to debride extensive loose bodies and proliferative synovial tissue. Pulse irrigation was applied to flush out the residuals. More than 872 of osteochondromatosis were removed out of the hip joint (some small ones were sucked during the operation). The size of the loose bodies ranged from 3 cm × 3 cm × 2.5 cm to 0.2 cm × 0.2 cm × 0.15 cm. Post-operation radiography shew most pathological tissues were taken out. After the operation, the patient rehabilitated fast. The pain relieved and he could bear weight and walked 3 days postoperatively. 1 and 3 months postoperatively, the patient came to us for visit, and he said that he just had a relatively satisfactory function of his affected hip. He could walk, slowly run, and squat freely. But sometimes he could feel a bit painful on his left hip joint after long walking and fatigue. And sometimes he could feel and hear mild crepitus on the left hip joint. 12 months later, the patient came again and complained that the pain of his operated hip became a bit more serious than before since about 20 days ago. The range (internal rotation, abduction in particular) of this hip joint could not live up to normal, compared with the uninvolved hip in physical examination. X-ray shew osteoarthritis had become a bit severer. The patient accepted the suggestion of prospective total hip replacement. Multiple synovial osteochondromatosis is not a very uncommon condition. However, there may be unusual presentations. It can take place in any joint, the knee is most commonly affected, however, involvement of the hip joint is relatively rare as was seen in our patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1073_20466", "title": "Retroperitoneal dendritic cell sarcoma: A case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma (IDCS) is a rare sarcoma that originates from interdigitating dendritic cells in lymphoid tissue, the imaging characteristics of which are poorly defined. Pathological examination can identify the tumor, but reports on the imaging characteristics of IDCS are limited. Here, we report a case of IDCS in a 48-year-old female involving the retroperitoneal area. The patient had a lumbar mass on her right lower back for 4 years, and which started increasing in size 1 year before. An irregular soft tissue mass (10.1cm × 8.5 cm in size) in the right lower back of retroperitoneum was detected by CT examination with unclear borders, uneven density, and necrosis. The solid components of the mass were significantly enhanced on postcontrast imaging. The soft tissue was irregular and uneven. Cystic solid masses were observed on MRI examination in the right retroperitoneum, lateral abdominal wall, waist, and back. Necrosis, hemorrhage, and cystic transformation were observed inside the lesion. The cyst wall, separation, and wall nodules were significantly enhanced on the postcontrast image. No distant metastasis was observed. Postoperative pathology confirmed the diagnosis of IDCS. The patient underwent surgical resection. The resected margin was positive, and the patient received adjuvant radiotherapy 2 months after the surgery. Twelve months after radiotherapy, the patient's chest CT showed multiple metastases in both lungs. The patient was started on combination chemotherapy of doxorubicin and ifosfamide, and the follow-up is still ongoing. Imaging provides a unique advantage to determine the extent of the IDCS, the invasion of adjacent tissues, and the presence or absence of distant metastases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0058_352", "title": "Epithelioid sarcoma in the upper extremity.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Eighteen patients who had epithelioid sarcoma in the upper extremity were divided into two groups on the basis of treatment: marginal resection of the tumor or wide or radical resection of the tumor. Historical, demographic, histological, and staging data were recorded and were correlated with the type of treatment and the outcome. Marginal resection (excision through the reactive zone or pseudocapsule surrounding the tumor, with confirmation of a negative margin by a pathologist), with or without adjuvant therapy, led to a dismal outcome in patients who had been treated in this manner initially or secondarily (fifteen failures after seventeen procedures). Disease-free survival at ten years was significantly improved when wide resection (intracompartmental en bloc excision with a cuff of normal tissue of more than three centimeters) or radical resection was either the initial or the secondary treatment; success then was noted in nine of thirteen operations. Of twelve patients in whom a marginal resection had been done initially, three had had a recurrence, three had had a metastasis, and five had died, at a mean follow-up of seven years (range, twenty-seven months to sixteen years). At a mean follow-up of six years (range, two to fifteen years), only one of five patients in whom a secondary lesion had been treated with marginal resection was free of disease. Of the six patients who had been treated with wide or radical resection initially, none had died, one had had a recurrence, and one had had a metastasis, at a mean follow-up of seven years (range, twenty-two months to fourteen years).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1110_3627", "title": "Radiation-Associated Sarcoma of the Breast in a Patient With a Germline Tumor Protein p53 Mutation.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Radiation-induced sarcoma of the breast is a rare complication that is primarily treated with surgical resection but in patients with advanced disease, a multimodality treatment approach is often required. This case report discusses a 37-year-old female with a history of a pT3N3M0, estrogen receptor (ER)+, progesterone receptor (PR)+, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)+, right breast cancer, and a germline tumor protein (TP) p53 mutation who underwent right modified radical mastectomy, adjuvant systemic therapy, and radiation therapy, and subsequently developed a radiation-induced sarcoma. The patient is a 37-year-old female who has a history of pT3N3M0, ER/PR+, HER2+, and right breast cancer diagnosed in 2014. At the time of diagnosis, she had locally advanced disease and underwent right modified radical mastectomy followed by adjuvant chemotherapy, radiation, delayed right breast implant-based reconstruction, and left breast augmentation with mastopexy. Upon completion of adjuvant chemotherapy, she was started on hormonal therapy. In February 2020, she underwent genetic testing given her early onset of breast cancer and was found to have a germline TP53 mutation. Routine MRI for breast implant evaluation showed two irregular enhancing masses with an additional satellite lesion in the right breast. Right breast ultrasound (US)-guided biopsy revealed two separate foci of high-grade pleomorphic fibroblastic/myofibroblastic sarcoma. Further staging workup with a whole-body MRI was negative for evidence of metastatic disease. Her case was discussed in multidisciplinary sarcoma tumor board and consensus was for surgical resection. She underwent radical resection of the right chest wall masses and subcutaneous tissue, removal of right breast implant and capsulectomy, and left breast mastectomy with left breast implant removal and capsulectomy. The final pathology revealed two separate foci of high-grade pleomorphic fibroblastic/myofibroblastic sarcoma, 1.2 cm and 1.1 cm in their greatest dimensions with negative margins. Her case was re-discussed in multidisciplinary sarcoma tumor board and due to T1 size of the tumors and the negative resection margins, close surveillance with annual whole-body MRI and quarterly chest MRI imaging was recommended. In patients with a germline TP53 mutation and breast cancer, the utilization of adjuvant radiotherapy should be considered cautiously given the increased risk of radiation-associated sarcoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0112_16646", "title": "[Surgical treatment for malignant soft tissue tumors of the hip].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Surgical treatment for malignant soft tissue tumors has resulted in a marked improvement in the grading of lesions, utilizing the surgical staging system introduced by Enneking. We attempted to divide malignant soft tissue tumors of the hip into four compartments; the anterior compartment, medial compartment including the neovascular bundle, posterior compartment including the sciatic nerve, and intra-bony lesions with tumors. A lesion localized in the anterior compartment would be resected with a wide margin. For resection of a lesion localized in the medial compartment, vascular reconstruction must be performed with replacement using artificial vessels for the femoral vein and the saphena magna femoral artery. As for the posterior compartment, for the lesions are easily resected with or without the sciatic nerve. In the last compartment of intra-bony lesions, disarticulation or endoprosthesis replacement after wide-resection surgery must be performed. In such cases, musculocutaneous reconstruction may be needed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 242, 433 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 62 ] ], "text": "We are told of a patient who, within minutes of starting a transfusion, presented with an acute and very serious condition (with shock). Such an acute and severe situation only fits option 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Bacterial contamination of the blood.", "2": "Febrile reaction secondary to transfusion.", "3": "Febrile reaction due to plasma contaminating red blood cells.", "4": "Hemolytic transfusion reaction.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en004_26469", "title": "Blood transfusion", "score": 0.018706293706293706, "content": "Acute hemolytic reactions are defined according to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT) as \"fever and other symptoms/signs of haemolysis within 24 hours of transfusion; confirmed by one or more of the following: a fall of Hb, rise in lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT), positive crossmatch\" This is due to destruction of donor red blood cells by preformed recipient antibodies. Most often this occurs because of clerical errors or improper ABO blood typing and crossmatching resulting in a mismatch in ABO blood type between the donor and the recipient. Symptoms include fever, chills, chest pain, back pain, hemorrhage, increased heart rate, shortness of breath, and rapid drop in blood pressure. When suspected, transfusion should be stopped immediately, and blood sent for tests to evaluate for presence of hemolysis. Treatment is supportive. Kidney injury may occur because of the effects of the hemolytic reaction (pigment nephropathy). The severity of the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en254_15036", "title": "Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction", "score": 0.015568931589304318, "content": "Signs and symptoms Early acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are typically characterized by fever, which may be accompanied by rigors (chills). Mild cases are also typically characterized by abdominal, back, flank, or chest pain. More severe cases may be characterized by shortness of breath, low blood pressure, hemoglobinuria, and may progress to shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation. In anesthetized or unconscious patients, hematuria (blood in the urine) may be the first sign of AHTR. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and wheezing. Causes The most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is ABO incompatibility, which is typically due to human error that results in a recipient receiving the incorrect blood product. Rarely, other blood type incompatibilities can cause AHTR, the most common of which is Kidd antigen incompatibility. Rh, Kell, and Duffy antigen incompatibility have also been implicated in AHTR." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_15456", "title": "Acute gram-negative urosepsis mimicking an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.", "score": 0.014917071197411001, "content": "The acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) is one of the most feared complications of blood transfusion. Over the years, several clinical conditions, as well as errors in blood component preparation and administration, that mimic AHTR have been identified. This report describes a novel variation on the theme of pseudo-AHTR. A 47-year-old diabetic man with drug-induced pancytopenia suddenly manifested severe shaking chills, flank pain, and back pain during a red cell transfusion. The passage of bright red urine immediately after the transfusion virtually confirmed for the clinicians administering the transfusion that an AHTR had occurred. In the laboratory, the hematuria was shown to be due principally to red cells and not to free hemoglobin. Further posttransfusion work-up showed a urinary tract infection and overwhelming bacterial sepsis with Escherichia coli. As a pseudo-AHTR, gram-negative bacterial sepsis of urinary tract origin may surpass other forms of sepsis. Urosepsis should be considered in the work-up of a suspected AHTR in a pancytopenic patient with a urinary tract infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0413_20020", "title": "Yersinia septic shock following an autologous transfusion in a pediatric patient.", "score": 0.014459087892291646, "content": "Although the literature on infections transmitted via transfused blood focuses on viruses, Yersinia enterocolitica can also cause severe infections in patients receiving transfusions. A 13-year-old patient developed severe sepsis after an autologous blood transfusion contaminated with Y. enterocolitica. The patient was an otherwise healthy female undergoing posterior spinal fusion for congenital scoliosis. Prior to surgery, the patient donated blood for perioperative and postoperative use. A few days before the donation, she had complained of abdominal pain and was experiencing mild diarrhea. The patient received four units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) during the surgery. Intraoperatively, the patient developed fever up to 103.6 degrees F, became hypotensive requiring epinephrine and dopamine, and developed metabolic acidosis with serum bicarbonate concentration dropping to 16 mmol/l. The surgery team believed the patient was experiencing malignant hyperthermia and attempted to cool patient during the procedure. Postoperatively, the patient was transferred to the pediatric intensive care unit and treated for severe shock of unknown etiology. The patient further developed disseminated intravascular coagulation. The patient received supportive care and was started on ampicillin/sulbactam on postoperative day (POD) one which was changed to clindamycin, ciprofloxacin and tobramycin on POD two when blood cultures grew gram-negative bacilli. On POD three, cultures were identified as Y. enterocolitica and antibiotics were changed to tobramycin and cefotaxime based on susceptibility data. Sequelae of the shock included adult respiratory distress syndrome requiring intubation and a tracheostomy and multiple intracranial hemorrhagic infarcts with subsequent seizure disorder. Due to severe lower extremity ischemia, she required a bilateral below the knee amputation. The cultures of the snippets from the bags of blood transfused to the patient also grew Y. enterocolitica. This case illustrates the importance of considering transfusion related bacterial infections in patients receiving PRBCs. All patients in shock following any type of transfusion may require aggressive antibiotic therapy, until the diagnosis and etiology are known." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0068_5577", "title": "Transfusion reactions due to bacterial contamination of blood and blood products.", "score": 0.01401243424198948, "content": "Bacterial infections transmitted by blood or blood products, although rare, remain a serious threat to the recipient of a transfusion. We report on five cases of adverse reactions due to bacterial contamination of blood products, and we review 76 similar cases reported in the English-language literature. Most cases (70%) have been reported from the United States. Various sources of contamination have been suggested, including infection in the donor and invasion of the blood product during the process of collection, preparation, and storage. Frequent clinical manifestations are fever (80%), chills (53%), hypotension (37%), and nausea or vomiting (26%). The overall mortality is 35% (28 of 81 patients). In 38 patients (47%) the adverse reactions have appeared during transfusion; in the others the interval between completion of the transfusion and appearance of symptoms has ranged from 15 minutes to 17 days. A wide spectrum of bacteria have been implicated as causes of adverse reactions, with Pseudomonas species involved in 28% of episodes. Many such reactions are probably misdiagnosed or overlooked, the result being underestimation of the extent of the problem." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_19240", "title": "Humoral immunity", "score": 0.013804713804713804, "content": "An incompatible blood transfusion causes a transfusion reaction, which is mediated by the humoral immune response. This type of reaction, called an acute hemolytic reaction, results in the rapid destruction (hemolysis) of the donor red blood cells by host antibodies. The cause is usually a clerical error, such as the wrong unit of blood being given to the wrong patient. The symptoms are fever and chills, sometimes with back pain and pink or red urine (hemoglobinuria). The major complication is that hemoglobin released by the destruction of red blood cells can cause acute kidney failure. Antibody production In humoral immune response, the B cells first mature in the bone marrow and gain B-cell receptors (BCR's) which are displayed in large numbers on the cell surface." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en254_15023", "title": "Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction", "score": 0.01349517198588436, "content": "Fever must be at least 38 °C/100.4 °F oral and a change of at least 1 °C/1.8 °F from pre-transfusion value OR chills and/or rigors must be present. The UK hemovigilance system (SHOT) categorizes the severity of the reaction. Mild Fever of at least 38 °C/100.4 °F oral and a change of between 1 and 2 °C from pre-transfusion values but no other symptoms or signs. Moderate Fever of at least 39 °C, OR a rise in temperature of at least 2 °C from pre-transfusion values AND/OR other symptoms or signs, including chills (rigors), painful muscles (myalgia), or nausea that are severe enough that the transfusion is stopped. Severe Fever of at least 39 °C, OR a rise in temperature of at least 2 °C from pre-transfusion values AND/OR other symptoms or signs, including chills (rigors), painful muscles (myalgia), or nausea that are severe enough that the transfusion is stopped AND requires immediate medical treatment, admission to hospital, or lengthens the duration of hospital admission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0237_999", "title": "Febrile transfusion reaction: what blood component should be given next?", "score": 0.013126183508349114, "content": "Reports of febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTR) occurring at hospitals served by a regional blood center supplying 99,658 units of blood during 1980 were analyzed to determine if leukocyte-poor red blood cells prepared by the inverted centrifugation technique (LP RBCs) were adequate to prevent subsequent reactions. FNHTR occurred following 0.5% of units transfused. The records of transfusions given to patients who had a FNHTR were reviewed in a subgroup of hospitals. Of 253 such patients, 161 received subsequent transfusions, 140 received red cells or LP RBCs without a reaction. The remaining 21 had a second reaction following transfusion of packed red cells. 12 of the 21 received further red cell transfusions. Only one experienced a third febrile reaction after receiving LP RBCs. We conclude that LP RBCs are adequate to prevent recurrence of FNHTR and question the need for costly saline-washed, leukocyte-poor red blood cells for this purpose." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en254_15022", "title": "Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction", "score": 0.012546492744512546, "content": "Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) is the most common type of transfusion reaction. It is a benign occurrence with symptoms that include fever but not directly related with hemolysis. It is caused by cytokine release from leukocytes within the donor product as a consequence of white blood cell breakdown .These inflammatory mediators accumulate during the storage of the donated blood, and so the frequency of this reaction increases with the storage length of donated blood. This is in contrast to transfusion-associated acute lung injury, in which the donor plasma has antibodies directed against the recipient HLA antigens, mediating the characteristic lung damage. Definition Symptoms must manifest within 4 hours of cessation of the transfusion, and should not be due to another cause such as an underlying infection, bacterial contamination of the blood component, or another type of transfusion reaction, e.g. acute hemolytic transfusion reaction." }, { "id": "article-142864_14", "title": "Infectious Complications of Blood Transfusion -- Issues of Concern -- Bacterial Transfusion-Transmitted Infections", "score": 0.0124716841864135, "content": "Regarding transfusion complications, bacterial septicemia remains the fourth leading cause of death in the United States. Presentation tends to be in the form of severe sepsis and usually presents as rapid onset fever and circulatory collapse. [4] Septic reactions should be suspected if the following occur: Temperature greater than 102 degrees Fahrenheit (or higher than 2 degrees Fahrenheit or 3 degrees Celsius above baseline temperature)* Chills Rigors* Tachycardia (heart rate greater than 40 beats over baseline)* Shock/falling systolic blood pressure (30 mm Hg below systolic) Backache Nausea/vomiting Unexplained bleeding from mucous membranes or the infusion site Renal failure may follow [7] [10] (*In 75% of cases, fever, rigors, or tachycardia were present within 4 hours of transfusion.) [3] The following steps should occur if suspected:" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_851", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.01204477457959352, "content": "resulting in tubu-lar necrosis and precipitation of hemoglobin within the tubules.Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions occur 2 to 10 days after transfusion and are characterized by extravascular hemolysis, mild anemia, and indirect (unconjugated) hyperbili-rubinemia. They occur when an individual has a low antibody titer at the time of transfusion, but the titer increases after trans-fusion as a result of an anamnestic response. Reactions to non-ABO antigens involve immunoglobulin G-mediated clearance by the reticuloendothelial system.If the patient is awake, the most common symptoms of acute transfusion reactions are pain at the site of transfusion, facial flushing, and back and chest pain. Associated symptoms include fever, respiratory distress, hypotension, and tachycardia. In anesthetized patients, diffuse bleeding and hypotension are the hallmarks. A high index of suspicion is needed to make the diag-nosis. The laboratory criteria for a transfusion reaction are" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_392", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.011753264795776604, "content": "Nonhemolytic febrile reactions: Involve cytokine formation during the storage of blood, and WBC antibodies. Minor allergic reactions: Involve antibody formation (usually IgA) against donor proteins. Usually occur following transfusion of plasma-containing product. Hemolytic transfusion reactions: Entail the development of antibodies against donor erythrocytes. Usually result from ABO incompatibility or from antibody against minor antigens. Nonhemolytic febrile reactions: Present with fever, chills, rigors, and malaise. Symptom onset is 1–6 hours following transfusion. Minor allergic reactions: Characterized by urticaria. Hemolytic transfusion reactions: Present with fever, chills, nausea, fl ushing, apprehension, back pain, burning at the IV site, tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Symptoms begin following the transfusion of only a small amount of blood. Diagnosed by clinical impression." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_5474", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.011644644967236007, "content": "Of serious known risks, transfusion of an incompatible blood component may result in acute hemolysis. If severe, this can cause DIC, acute kidney injury, and death. Preventable errors responsible for most of such reactions frequently include mislabeling of a specimen or incorrectly transfusing a patient not slated for those products. The rate of such errors in the United States is estimated to be 1 in 14,000 units, but these events are likely underreported (Lerner, 2010). A transfusion reaction is characterized by fever, hypotension, tachycardia, dyspnea, chest or back pain, lushing, severe anxiety, and hemoglobinuria. Immediate supportive measures include stopping the transfusion, treating hypotension and hyperkalemia, provoking diuresis, and alkalinizing the urine." }, { "id": "article-23518_14", "title": "Informed Consent -- Issues of Concern -- Informed Consent for Blood Transfusion", "score": 0.011160491361230401, "content": "Acute hemolytic reaction The recipient's antibodies attack transfused red blood cells whether caused by a reaction to the ABO blood group or antibodies produced from previous transfusions. Acute hemolytic transfusions occur within 24 hours of transfusion. Symptoms include fever, nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, hypotension, bleeding, pain at the infusion site, oliguria, anuria, dyspnea, or chest or back pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en259_31061", "title": "Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction", "score": 0.01114313550377527, "content": "PROBABLE DIAGNOSIS Newly identified red blood cell alloantibody demonstrated between 24 hours and 28 days after cessation of transfusion BUT incomplete laboratory evidence to meet definitive case definition criteria. Epidemiology Delayed blood transfusion reaction occurs more frequently (1 in 20,569 blood components transfused in the USA in 2011) when compared to acute haemolytic transfusion reaction. References Transfusion reactions Complications of surgical and medical care Transfusion medicine" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0252_4545", "title": "Transfusion reaction due to Yersinia enterocolitica and review of other reported cases.", "score": 0.011080417434008595, "content": "A 26 yr old woman was transfused after her baby was delivered by Caesarian section. During transfusion of the second pack of concentrated erythrocytes, she became acutely febrile. She then became shocked and gravely ill. Yersinia enterocolitica serogroup O:3 was recovered by blood culture from the patient and from the remnant of the bag of blood (but not the segments). The blood donor had suffered no illnesses. The patient received intensive treatment including antibiotics and made a slow recovery. Yersinia enterocolitica contaminated blood is a rare cause of potentially fatal post transfusion septicemia. Prompt recognition of the endotoxemia with cessation of the transfusion of the contaminated blood, although desirable does not seem to alter the outcome. There is no known effective measure to prevent such reactions." }, { "id": "article-135620_10", "title": "Noninfectious Complications of Blood Transfusion -- Clinical Significance -- Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (HTR)", "score": 0.010921516951802386, "content": "HTR can have a wide spectrum of symptoms, including fever, chills, rigors, chest/back/abdominal pain, infusion site pain, nausea/vomiting, shock, dyspnea, hemoglobinuria, oliguria/anuria, and diffuse bleeding. The severity of the reaction varies and can depend on the amount and how rapidly the incompatible blood is transfused. In severe cases, it can lead to acute kidney failure, shock, DIC, or death. Some of these symptoms are difficult to assess in certain populations, such as pediatric and unconscious patients. [2]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0117_3359", "title": "Escherichia coli sepsis from contaminated platelet transfusion.", "score": 0.0107554711989187, "content": "Transfusion of pooled platelet concentrate (PC) caused a septic reaction characterized by sustained hypotension, high cardiac output, and low systemic vascular resistance. Investigation demonstrated the same strain of Escherichia coli in the patient's blood, the transfused pooled PC, and recalled packed red blood cells separated from the same unit of whole blood as one of the platelet units in the contaminated pool. Five hundred other units of PC from the same supplier were cultured prospectively, and 7% were bacterially contaminated. The level of contamination was 20 or fewer colony-forming units per milliliter in all except one unit, the only one associated with a febrile transfusion reaction. This episode illustrates the continuing importance of sepsis as a cause of platelet transfusion reactions and demonstrates the usefulness of appropriate cultures and epidemiologic information in assessing the source." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0964_12792", "title": "The first case of severe acute hemolytic transfusion reaction caused by anti-Sc2.", "score": 0.010725787899700943, "content": "Alloantibodies to the low-frequency antigen Scianna-2 (Sc2) have been implicated in cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn but never in hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTRs); thus, the clinical significance of anti-Sc2 has yet to be fully addressed. A 26-year-old woman with thalassemia presented rigors, fever, nausea, abdominal pain, and hemolytic biochemistry after exposure to 75 mL of plasma-reduced red blood cells (RBCs). The RBC unit was issued by electronic crossmatch but was 3+ incompatible on recrossmatch by gel indirect antiglobulin test (IAT). The patient had anti-Sc2 previously identified, but considered to be clinically insignificant. The transfusion history was reviewed and a monocyte monolayer assay (MMA) was performed. The patient was investigated for a RBC reaction 9 years prior, when she developed symptoms of HTR. The RBC unit was crossmatched by immediate spin due to consistent screen negativity. Full crossmatch found the RBC 1+ incompatible by gel IAT with both pre/post samples, while direct antiglobulin test was negative (pre) and 1+ immunoglobulin G positive (post). The antibody remained unidentified and she was committed to gel IAT crossmatch. Two-years later, the specificity to Sc2 was deduced when one RBC unit was found 3+ incompatible. Finally, the transfusion reaction reported herein occurred when she received by happenstance RBCs from the same donor who was associated with the remote reaction 9 years earlier. MMA yielded highly positive phagocytic indices only for Sc2+ RBCs, including the donor's RBCs that triggered the severe HTR. This is the first case of HTR caused by anti-Sc2 confirmed by clinical findings and MMA." }, { "id": "article-145888_27", "title": "Managing Fresh-Frozen Plasma Transfusion Adverse Effects: Allergic Reactions, TACO, and TRALI -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010473873247595876, "content": "Hemolytic transfusion reactions can manifest with a range of symptoms, including fever, abdominal pain, and the presence of red or brown-colored urine. Patients experiencing these reactions may also exhibit chills, hypotension, and back pain. In severe cases, patients may exhibit signs of renal failure or disseminated intravascular coagulation, reflecting the systemic consequences of red blood cell destruction and hemoglobin release. Early recognition and immediate intervention are essential to prevent further complications in these cases. [24]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_24992", "title": "Two septic transfusion reactions presenting as transfusion-related acute lung injury from a split plateletpheresis unit.", "score": 0.01034777303233679, "content": "We report two simultaneous cases of Staphylococcus aureus sepsis initially consistent with and diagnosed as transfusion-related acute lung injury. The sepsis in both cases resulted from transfusion of two split products from a single contaminated plateletpheresis unit. In each case, the platelets were given along with numerous other blood products during posterior spine surgery. The discussion includes presentation, clinical course, diagnosis, and similarities between sepsis and transfusion-related acute lung injury. The cases and discussion highlight the importance of considering sepsis as part of the differential for any patient believed to have transfusion-related acute lung injury with clinical features of sepsis. Data were collected from the patients' electronic medical records and the hospital laboratory medicine database. Our cases highlight the importance of vigilant investigation in patients suspected of transfusion-related acute lung injury, as septic transfusions are easily missed and may mimic or coexist with transfusion-related acute lung injury. Sepsis should be strongly considered whenever clinical features such as hypotension, leucopenia, and fever are noted in patients with suspected transfusion-related acute lung injury. In comparison to patients receiving red blood cells or plasma, platelet transfusion recipients are at a greater risk for sepsis from a contaminated unit. Patients developing sepsis from a contaminated blood product may meet the clinical definition of transfusion-related acute lung injury. In such cases, if the clinical syndrome is attributed solely to transfusion-related acute lung injury and bacterial sepsis is not suspected, the correct diagnosis may be missed or delayed. Consequently, appropriate treatment for sepsis would also be delayed or not provided and likely result in increased morbidity and mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0380_19660", "title": "Mechanisms of severe transfusion reactions.", "score": 0.010127166444467234, "content": "Serious adverse effects of transfusion may be immunologically or non-immunologically mediated. Currently, bacterial contamination of blood products, particularly platelets, is one of the most significant causes of transfusion-related morbidity and mortality. Septic transfusion reactions can present with clinical symptoms similar to immune-mediated hemolytic transfusion reactions and transfusion-related acute lung injury. Extremely high fever and/or gastrointestinal symptoms, in a transfusion recipient, may be indicative of sepsis. The diagnosis is based upon culturing the same organism from both the patient and the transfused blood component. Numerous organisms have been implicated as the cause of septic transfusion reactions. Due to different storage conditions, gram negative organisms are more often isolated from red blood cell components; gram positive organisms are more often isolated from platelets. Prevention of septic transfusion reactions is primarily dependent on an adequate donor history and meticulous preparation of the donor phlebotomy site. Visual inspection of blood components prior to transfusion is also vital to preventing these reactions. Several methods of detection of bacterial contamination and inactivation of pathogens are currently under active investigation." }, { "id": "article-23213_49", "title": "Immediate Hypersensitivity Reactions -- Complications -- Post-Transfusion Reaction", "score": 0.009934248141795311, "content": "This is a hypersensitivity reaction that occurs within 24 hours of a blood transfusion. Hemoglobinuria that appears during or after the procedure becomes an alarming sign. Other manifestations include back pain, fever, chills, dizziness, and dyspnea. [44]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en254_15024", "title": "Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction", "score": 0.00986235277423017, "content": "Treatment Paracetamol has been used in treatment, and leukoreduction of future transfusions is sometimes performed. References External links Transfusion reactions Complications of surgical and medical care Transfusion medicine" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_26472", "title": "Blood transfusion", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Febrile nonhemolytic reactions are, along with allergic transfusion reactions, the most common type of blood transfusion reaction and occur because of the release of inflammatory chemical signals released by white blood cells in stored donor blood or attack on donor's white blood cells by recipient's antibodies. This type of reaction occurs in about 7% of transfusions. Fever is generally short lived and is treated with antipyretics, and transfusions may be finished as long as an acute hemolytic reaction is excluded. This is a reason for the now-widespread use of leukoreduction – the filtration of donor white cells from red cell product units." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_10053", "title": "A multistate cluster of red blood cell transfusion reactions associated with use of a leucocyte reduction filter.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In 2000, the American Red Cross (ARC) received reports of unusual transfusion reactions of unknown aetiology among patients receiving leucocyte-reduced (LR) red blood cell (RBC) units in multiple distribution regions. We evaluated potential risk factors of reactions among patients who received LR-RBC transfusions. A case-patient was defined as any patient with onset of back pain while receiving an LR-RBC transfusion from 1 January to 25 May 2000. Controls were chosen randomly and selected in a 1:3 case : control ratio from healthcare facilities in which case-patients were transfused. Product-specific risk factors of reactions were further determined through nested case-control study, procedural review of blood collection facility and quality-control-testing record review of product processing. Reaction incidence rates were determined through ARC blood product distribution data by region of blood collection and processing. There were 29 reactions detected in patients who received transfusions in 13 healthcare facilities in five states. Eighteen case-patients and 78 controls were included in the case-control study. In univariate analysis, case-patients were more likely than controls to have a haematologic malignancy, to have received the transfusion as an outpatient, to have received an RBC transfusion within the previous 3 months, to have received medication used to prevent reactions or to diminish their intensity upon transfusion (i.e. premedication) or to have received LR-RBC units prepared with the HemaSure r\\LS System(HS) rather than two other filters used. In multivariate analysis limited to recipients of HS-filtered RBC units, transfusion premedication [adjusted odds ratio (AOR) = 7; 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.4-37; P = 0.02] and transfusion as an outpatient (AOR = 5; 95% CI 1.1-20; P = 0.03) were independently associated with reactions. The rate of reported transfusion reactions was 2.0 reactions per 10 000 RBC units distributed. A multistate cluster of transfusion reactions was significantly associated with leucocyte filtration of RBC units prepared with a specific product, the HS filter. The reactions also were independently associated with premedication and transfusion as an outpatient; these may be surrogates for an increased risk of reaction or for greater likelihood of detection. The mechanism for these reactions has not been elucidated. This cluster of reactions underscores the importance of surveillance efforts to detect adverse events after transfusion, particularly when new methods to modify blood products are introduced." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en102_21509", "title": "Beta thalassemia", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Long-term transfusion therapy (in those with transfusion dependent beta thalassemia) is a treatment used to maintain hemoglobin levels at a target pre-transfusion hemoglobin level of 9-10.5 g/dL (11-12 g/dL in those with concomitant heart disease). To ensure quality blood transfusions, the packed red blood cells should be leucoreduced. By having leucoreduced blood packets, the patient is at a lower risk to develop adverse reactions by contaminated white cells and preventing platelet alloimmunisation. Patients with allergic transfusion reactions or unusual red cell antibodies must receive washed red cells or cryopreserved red cells. Washed red cells have been removed of plasma proteins that would have become a target of the patient's antibodies allowing the transfusion to be carried out safely. Cryopreserved red cells are used to maintain a supply of rare donor units for patients with unusual red cell antibodies or missing common red cell antigens. These regular transfusions promote" }, { "id": "article-39308_29", "title": "Massive Transfusion -- Complications -- Additional Complications", "score": 0.009646502364948966, "content": "Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction: This reaction is characterized by symptoms such as fever, chills, flank pain, and oozing from IV sites, resulting from acute intravascular hemolysis of transfused red blood cells. The leading cause is typically ABO incompatibility or a reaction to other RBC antigens. Transfusion-associated sepsis: This sepsis occurs when a patient is transfused with blood containing a microorganism, causing symptoms such as fever, chills, and hypotension. Anaphylactic transfusion reaction: This is a severe allergic reaction characterized by angioedema, wheezing, and hypotension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0890_5349", "title": "[Hemovigilance: State 2007-2013 Tunis].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Despite its lifesaving role, blood transfusion still has risks associated with it. Hemovigilance is a set of surveillance procedures of the transfusion chain intended to promote safe and effective use of blood components. This work aims to present a descriptive analysis of adverse reactions, which were notified over a period of 5 years (incidence and etiology); to identify malfunctions and to propose corrections. All transfusion adverse reactions accidents reported to the blood bank of the hospital La Rabta (n=120) are explored (clinical and laboratory tests). The average age of patients with transfusion reaction was 51.2 years (25 days to 89 years). The transfusion accident rates ranged from 0.59 to 2.19 accidents/1000 labile blood products (LBP) distributed. The investigations were used to classify 71 % of accidents in different categories. The most prevalent reaction is the hemolytic reaction, n=24 (19.8 %), followed by allergic reactions, n=21 (17.5 %) and non-hemolytic feverish reaction, n=19 (15.8 %). Transfusion reactions of grade 1 severity were the most frequent (n=94); followed by those of grade 3 severity (n=16), accidents grade 4 (n=4) including two cases of acute pulmonary edema, one case of hyperkalemia, and the last case classified undetermined. These data are particularly rich in learning lessons. This study identified several levels failures: under-reporting of certain transfusion accidents, malfunctions at certain stages of the transfusion chain. In order to achieve an accurate statement of each transfusion reaction, it is important to plan in-service training." }, { "id": "article-142041_15", "title": "ABO Blood Group System -- Clinical Significance", "score": 0.009578781860311155, "content": "A hemolytic transfusion reaction is one type of reaction that can occur with the transfusion of blood products. Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions most commonly occur with transfusion of red blood cells, although they can develop with transfusions of other blood products. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs within 24 hours of the transfusion. Acute hemolytic reactions are most often caused by incompatibility between the donor product and recipient blood group system, most commonly the ABO blood group system. The classic presentation of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction includes fever, red/brown urine, and back/flank pain. However, not all patients will present in this way; other symptoms that may be noted include hypotension, chills, renal failure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. [17]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en259_31059", "title": "Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR) is a type of transfusion reaction. According to the Centers for Disease Control's (CDC) National Healthcare Safety Network's (NHSN) Hemovigilance Module, it is defined as: Mechanism If a person without a Kidd blood antigen (for example a Jka-Jkb+ patient) receives a Kidd antigen (Jka-antigen for example) in a red blood cell transfusion and forms an alloantibody (anti-Jka); upon subsequent transfusion with Jka-antigen positive red blood cells, the patient may have a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction as their anti-Jka antibody hemolyzes the transfused Jka-antigen positive red blood cells. Other common blood groups with this reaction are Duffy, Rhesus and Kell." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1096_12623", "title": "Is it an acute pain transfusion reaction?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 40-year-old male patient presented to the emergency department with complaints of anasarca, mild dyspnea, orthopnea, vomiting, and decreased urine output. A provisional diagnosis of chronic kidney disease was made and planned for hemodialysis. In view of severe anemia, 1 packed red blood cell (PRBC) was requested and after pretransfusion testing one unit of buffy coat-poor, nonleucofiltered, coombs cross-match compatible, fresh (&lt;7-days old) saline-adenine-glucose-mannitol PRBC unit was issued. After transfusion of around 20 ml of red cells patient developed sudden onset of excruciating pain in the lower back and hip joints, tachypnea, and breathlessness with oxygen saturation dropping to 82%. Vitals were normal and patient remained afebrile. After stopping transfusion, supplemental oxygen and opioid analgesic were given. Once the symptoms subsided, transfusion was completed. A complete work-up was done to rule out other adverse reactions. Thus, this patient experienced what is known as an acute pain transfusion reaction." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 187 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 32 ] ], "text": "All breast carcinomas should be accompanied by the study of hormone receptors and HER-2 for the prognostic implications of the tumor, as well as the adequacy of the treatment of the same," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 251, 363 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 64 ] ], "text": "The study of relatives and the BCRA gene is not indicated since she does not have a family history of neoplasia." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 251, 363 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 64 ] ], "text": "The study of relatives and the BCRA gene is not indicated since she does not have a family history of neoplasia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Complete phenotypic study by flow cytometry.", "2": "Study of hormone receptors and HER2.", "3": "Study of hormone receptors, e-cadherin and study of first-degree relatives.", "4": "BRCA 1-2 study and study of first-degree relatives.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0267_6734", "title": "The significance of family history for patients with carcinoma of the breast.", "score": 0.015238095238095238, "content": "Since the risk of carcinoma of the breast is increased in women with a family history of the disease, new primary carcinomas of the breast may be increased after treatment. Women with several relatives with carcinoma of the breast are thought to be at higher risk of having a second primary carcinoma of the breast develop and mastectomy is more frequently recommended. The computerized registry of the Mount Sinai Medical Center Breast Service was used to identify 1,337 patients with complete information concerning family history. Three hundred fifty-nine patients with a family history of carcinoma of the breast were compared with women with no family history. Compared with patients with no family history of carcinoma of the breast, patients with a family history of carcinoma of the breast were significantly younger (54.0 versus 55.8 years of age, p &lt; 0.01), were significantly more likely to have used oral contraceptives (26 versus 13 percent, p &lt; 0.001), had significantly more ductal carcinoma in situ (10 versus 4 percent, p &lt; 0.01), and were significantly more often treated with breast conservation (42 versus 31 percent, p &lt; 0.001). Simultaneous contralateral carcinoma of the breast was diagnosed more frequently in patients with a family history (3 versus 1 percent, p &lt; 0.025), but metachronous contralateral carcinomas were not increased. In comparing the two groups, there were no significant differences in proportion premenopausal, parity, use of postmenopausal hormones, tumor size, tumor differentiation, nodal involvement, TNM stage, estrogen receptor status, or use of adjuvant radiation, chemotherapy, or tamoxifen. Complete five-year follow-up evaluation for 748 patients, 179 with a family history, found no differences in local, distant, or disease-free survival rates for mastectomy or breast conservation in relation to family history. Outcome for patients with first-degree affected relatives and those with more than one affected relative was the same as those with no family history. These results indicate that women with a family history of carcinoma of the breast should be treated no differently than women with no family history." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1012_9657", "title": "Clinical features and first degree relative breast cancer, their correlation with histological tumor grade: a 5-year retrospective case study of breast cancer in Mizoram, India.", "score": 0.014369426751592357, "content": "The aim was to assess the association of histological tumor grade with other clinical features and epidemiological factors of women with invasive breast carcinoma. A retrospective study of 103 Mizo breast cancer patients visiting hospitals was made in Aizawl, Mizoram, Northeast India. With a prior consent, information on epidemiological factors and family history in relation to cancer was obtained. Clinical reports were obtained from their medical records. The frequency of distribution was calculated for age at diagnosis and tumor characteristics. Statistical analysis for different variables was done using a chi-square test. p &lt; 0.05 was considered significant. The histological tumor grades in our studies were found to be associated with lymph node invasion (p &lt; 0.021), different subtype of hormone receptor such as ER status (p &lt; 0.004), ER/PR status (p &lt; 0.007), HER2/neu status (p &lt; 0.014), and ER/PR/HER2 status (p &lt; 0.025). A patient with a family history of breast cancer in their 1st degree relative is also seen to have association in determining the tumor grade (p &lt; 0.003). Reproductive history, lifestyle and dietary habits, tobacco, and alcohol consumption were found to have no influence on breast cancer tumor grade. Our results showing significant correlation between status of lymph node, ER, PR, and HER2/neu oncoprotein and family history with 1st degree relative breast cancer are the first time report to target and focus on the possible role of biomarkers for diagnosis among the Mizo tribal breast cancer patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en304_20305", "title": "BRCA mutation", "score": 0.0139136484194965, "content": "Relative indications for testing for a mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 for newly diagnosed or family members include a family history among 1st (FDR), 2nd (SDR), or 3rd(TDR) degree relatives usually on the same side of the family but not limited: A known mutation (BRCA1 or BRCA2) in a cancer susceptibility gene within the family Women affected with any breast cancer diagnosed under the age of 30 Women affected with triple negative breast cancer (TNBC) (estrogen receptor negative, progesterone receptor negative, and HER2/neu negative) under the age of 50 Two relatives (FDR/SDR) diagnosed under the age of 45 Three relatives (FDR/SDR) diagnosed with average age of 50 or less Four relatives at any ages Ovarian cancer with either an additional diagnosed relative or a relative with male breast cancer A single family member with both breast and ovarian cancer Male breast cancer Pancreatic cancer with breast or ovarian cancer in the same individual or on the same side of the family" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_5828", "title": "Influence of young age at diagnosis and family history of breast or ovarian cancer on breast cancer outcomes in a population-based cohort study.", "score": 0.013478668541959681, "content": "The objective of this study was to examine the association of: (i) diagnosis at age &lt;/=35, (ii) first-degree family history of breast or ovarian cancer (BOC) and (iii) a research based definition of genetic risk, with tumor characteristics, treatment and survival in breast cancer (BC). Consenting female participants in the population-based Ontario Familial Breast Cancer Registry diagnosed with primary invasive BC between 1996 and 1998 were followed prospectively until 2005. Among 967 women, 105 were &lt;/=35 years old at diagnosis and 686 were classified as genetic risk cases, including 349 with a first-degree family history. Individuals diagnosed at age &lt;/=35 were more likely to self-detect tumors, to present with inflammatory BC, to have invasive ductal carcinoma of no special type, high T stage, and tumors with lymphovascular invasion (LVI), high grade and negative estrogen receptors. Younger women were more likely to receive chemotherapy and less likely to receive hormonal therapy. Diagnosis &lt;/=35 years old was associated with significantly reduced distant recurrence free survival, an effect that did not persist after adjustment for tumor and treatment related variables. Poor outcomes were restricted to younger women with hormone responsive BC. Family history was associated with increased rates of mammographic detection of BC, lower tumor stage and less frequent inflammatory BC, but had no association with BC outcomes. Women diagnosed with BC at age &lt;/=35 have more aggressive tumors; these adverse tumor characteristics, rather than age, lead to poor outcomes. Family history was not associated with survival." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0657_19800", "title": "Four new cases of double heterozygosity for BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene mutations: clinical, pathological, and family characteristics.", "score": 0.013063775318123635, "content": "Double heterozygosity (DH) for BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations is a very rare finding, particularly in non-Ashkenazi individuals, and only a few cases have been reported to date. In addition, little is known on the pathological features of the tumors that occur in DH cases and on their family history of cancer. Four carriers of pathogenic mutations in both BRCA1 and BRCA2 were identified among women who underwent genetic counseling for hereditary susceptibility to breast and ovarian carcinoma at three different Italian institutions. Clinical, pathological, and family history data were collected from medical records and during genetic counseling sessions. All identified DH cases developed breast carcinoma and three of them were also diagnosed with ovarian carcinoma. Mean ages of breast and ovarian cancer diagnosis were 42.7 and 48.6 years, respectively. The majority of breast cancers showed a BRCA1-related phenotype, being negative for hormone receptors and HER2. Two cases reported different gastrointestinal tumors among relatives. Although the individuals described in this study show more severe clinical features in comparison to previously reported BRCA1 and BRCA2 DH cases, our observations support the hypothesis of a non specific phenotype of DH cases in terms of age of disease onset. In addition, our observations indicate that in DH patients breast carcinogenesis appears to be driven mainly by the mutations in BRCA1. The possible association of DH for BRCA gene mutations with gastrointestinal tumors is in keeping with previous reports, but needs to be confirmed by further analyses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0671_14807", "title": "Family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives and triple-negative breast cancer risk.", "score": 0.013043478260869566, "content": "Triple-negative breast cancer accounts for less than 20% of breast cancers overall, but is the predominant subtype among carriers of mutations in BRCA1. However, few studies have assessed the association between breast cancer family history and risk of triple-negative breast cancer. We examined the relationship between having a family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives and risk of triple-negative breast cancer, and risk of two other breast cancer subtypes defined by tumor marker expression. We evaluated data collected by the Breast Cancer Surveillance Consortium from 2,599,946 mammograms on 1,054,466 women, among whom 15% reported a first-degree family history of breast cancer. Using Cox regression in this cohort, we evaluated subtype-specific associations between family history and risk of triple-negative (N = 705), estrogen receptor-positive (ER+, N = 10,026), and hormone receptor-negative/HER2-expressing (ER-/PR-/HER2+, N = 308) breast cancer among women aged 40-84 years. First-degree family history was similarly and significantly associated with an increased risk of all the subtypes [hazard ratio (HR) = 1.73, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.43-2.09, HR = 1.62, 95% CI: 1.54-1.70, and HR = 1.56, 95% CI: 1.15-2.13, for triple-negative, ER+, and ER-/PR-/HER2+, respectively]. Risk of all the subtypes was most pronounced among women with at least two affected first-degree relatives (versus women with no affected first-degree relatives, HR(triple-negative) = 2.66, 95% CI: 1.66-4.27, HR(ER+) = 2.05, 95% CI: 1.79-2.36, HR(ER)-(/PR)-(/HER2+) = 2.25, 95% CI: 0.99-5.08). Having a first-degree family history of breast cancer was associated with an increased risk of triple-negative breast cancer with a magnitude of association similar to that for the predominant ER+ subtype and ER-/PR-/HER2+ breast cancer." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en377_32343", "title": "Cancer biomarker", "score": 0.013043478260869565, "content": "Similarly, additional laboratory research has shown that tumor cells undergoing apoptosis can release cellular components such as cytochrome c, nucleosomes, cleaved cytokeratin-18, and E-cadherin. Studies have found that these macromolecules and others can be found in circulation during cancer therapy, providing a potential source of clinical metrics for monitoring treatment. Recurrence Cancer biomarkers can also offer value in predicting or monitoring cancer recurrence. The Oncotype DX® breast cancer assay is one such test used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer recurrence. This test is intended for women with early-stage (Stage I or II), node-negative, estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) invasive breast cancer who will be treated with hormone therapy. Oncotype DX looks at a panel of 21 genes in cells taken during tumor biopsy. The results of the test are given in the form of a recurrence score that indicates likelihood of recurrence at 10 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0715_5826", "title": "Negative/low HER2 expression alone or combined with E-cadherin positivity is predictive of better prognosis in patients with breast carcinoma.", "score": 0.012636753912200526, "content": "The loss of E-cadherin expression leads to absence of tissue integrity, an essential step in tumor progression. Methylation of CpG islands in the promoter region of the CDH1 gene coding E-cadherin might be an alternative for gene silencing. In the present study, we investigate the expression of E-cadherin and hormone receptors in invasive ductal breast carcinoma (IDCs). Protein expression was analysed immunohistochemically in 87 cases, including 26 familial tumors. The most interesting results revealed a significantly reduced E-cadherin expression in cases with familial history compared to sporadic tumors (p=0.009), as well as with tumors ≤5 cm (p=0.022). Moreover, HER2 over-expression was associated with distant metastasis (p=0.011) and overall survival (p log rank=0.028). Tumors displaying negative/low HER2 expression combined with E-cadherin positivity confer better patient survival (p=0.052). Triple Negative tumors (TN) were more frequently found in patients with advanced grade (GIII) (p=0.001) and TNM (III+IV) (p=0.018) which supports the aggressive behavior of TN tumors. On the other hand, hypermethylation of CDH1 gene promoter was observed in 46% of hereditary cases and strongly associated with loss of E-cadherin expression (p=0.002). Furthermore, patients with unmethylated CDH1 pattern have a better 5-year disease free survival (p=0.021). In conclusion, in patients with hereditary breast cancer, the CpG methylation event contributes to the loss of E-cadherin expression. On the other hand, HER2 over-expression is predictive of worse prognosis, either alone or combined with loss of E-cadherin expression in Tunisian patients with breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0887_4130", "title": "Seven-year survey of classical and pleomorphic invasive lobular breast carcinomas in women from southeastern Serbia: Differences in clinicopathological and immunohistochemical features.", "score": 0.012559696160643778, "content": "The occurrence of different variants of invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) of the breast is variable. For example, the pleomorphic variant of ILC has an incidence of around 5%; however, the number of analyzed cases of ILC is shadowed by the number of ductal type carcinoma (IDC). Thus, we aimed to analyze the classical and pleomorphic ILCs in women from southeastern Serbia. Analyzed were 296 cases (11.91%) diagnosed with ILC, out of 2486 cases of all breast cancers (BCs), during a 7-year period (2005-2011) from southeastern Serbia. The differences in clinicopathological and immunohistochemical features (estrogen receptor/ER, progesterone receptor/ PR, HER-2, Ki-67, BRCA-1, p53 and E-cadherin) of these cases of ILCs were assessed and compared. Pleomorphic ILC occurred relatively rarely compared to other variants, however almost one fifth of the ILC cases were pleomorphic. No statistically significant correlation was found between patient age, tumor stage and the presence/absence of multifocality (MFC), multicentricity (MCC) and bilaterality (BL) on one side, and ILC variant on the other. Only the expression of two prognostic and predictive immunohistochemical markers, important for endocrine therapy, ER and PR, showed significant correlation with the ILC variant. Although higher tumor stage, incidence of multicentricity, overexpression of HER2 and higher p53 positivity were deemed to be characteristic of pleomorphic ILC, in our study that included a much larger number of cases than previous studies did, such correlations were not observed. Thus, it appears that the only two features of pleomorphic ILCs is absence of ER and PR positivity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_14463", "title": "Breast cancer and family history: a multivariate analysis of levels of tumor HER2 protein and family history of cancer in women who have breast cancer.", "score": 0.012365626854844028, "content": "The HER2 gene, located on the long arm of chromosome 17, codes for a protein with the characteristics of a growth factor receptor. In a preliminary study, we reported that high levels of tumor HER2 (erbB-2/neu) protein are associated with a family history of breast cancer (that is, one or more female blood relatives with breast cancer). We have now collected a larger number of subjects (94) and performed a multivariate analysis of the independent variables family history of breast cancer, tumor estrogen receptor, age, and tumor DNA index. Family history of breast cancer was assessed by questioning the patient, in many cases by telephone. HER2 levels were significantly higher in women with a family history of breast cancer (p = 0.015, two-tailed t-test). The 27 women with family history were predominantly postmenopausal, mean age 61 +/- 2.3 (mean +/- SEM), versus a mean age of 56 +/- 1.7 for the 67 women with no family history. Of the 27 women with a family history of breast cancer, 13 had a first-degree relative (mother or sister) with the disease. The remaining 14 women had other relatives (grandmothers, aunts, cousins, or a niece) with breast cancer. The results of multiple linear regression analysis, with HER2 as the dependent variable, showed that family history of breast cancer was significantly associated with elevated HER2 levels in the tumors (p = 0.0038), after controlling for the effects of age, tumor estrogen receptor, and DNA index. The association of family history of breast cancer and elevated tumor HER2 protein suggests that postmenopausal familial breast cancer may be associated with altered HER2 expression." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0976_164", "title": "BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations in Japanese women with ductal carcinoma in situ.", "score": 0.01216715976331361, "content": "Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is considered a component of the clinical spectrum of breast cancer even in those with BRCA1/2 mutation. The aim of this study was to report the feature of DCIS raised in Japanese women with BRCA1/2 mutations. A total of 325 Japanese women with breast cancer (BC) (with or without invasive cancer) were referred for genetic counseling and underwent genetic testing for mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes in Showa University Hospital between December 2011 and August 2016. And 49 of them who were pathologically diagnosed as DCIS were included in this study. Logistic regression models were fit to determine the associations between potential predictive factors and BRCA status. A Cox proportional hazards model is used to predictive value of parameters for Ipsilateral breast tumor recurrence (IBTR) and contralateral breast tumor recurrence (CBTR). (a) Of 325 patients (with or without invasive cancer), 19.1% (62/325) tested positive for BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations. And 18.4% (9/49) was positive for BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations in DCIS, compared with 19.2% (53/276) in IDC (p = 1.000). Among BRCA mutations, 14.5% (9/62) had DCIS compared with nonmutations (15.2%, 40/263). Incidence of DCIS was 3.0% (1/33) of BRCA1 mutations and 27.5% (8/29) of BRCA2 mutation (p = 0.009). (b) Median age of diagnosis in BRCA mutation carriers was 39 years, compared with 46 years in noncarriers. Age, Family history (FH) of BC, FH of first or second BC and total number of relatives with BC diagnosis (DX) has significant difference between BRCA mutation carriers and noncarriers in univariate analysis. In a multivariate logistic model, total relatives with BC DX ≥ 2 (odds ratio [OR], 5.128; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.266-20.763; p = 0.022), age at diagnosis ≤35 years (OR 0.149, 95% CI 0.023-0.954, p = 0.045) and ER+/HER2+ status (OR 5.034, 95% CI 1.092-23.210, p = 0.038) remained as independent significant predictors for BRCA mutation. Ki67 index (cut off by 14% or 30%) did not differ between BRCA mutation carriers and noncarriers (p = 0.459 and p = 0.651). (c) There was a significant difference in ER-positive tumors among BRCA2 carriers and noncarriers (p = 0.042). Subgroup analysis showed BRCA2 carriers tend to be of higher grade (Grade 2 and 3), more frequently ER+/PR+ (p = 0.041) and lower proliferation (Ki67 index) than noncarriers, whereas differences in nuclear grade and ki67 index were not found significantly in our study. (d) BRCA mutation was not associated with an increased risk of IBTR and CBTR. DCIS is equally as prevalent in patients who were BRCA mutation carriers as in high familial-risk women who were noncarriers, but occurs at earlier age. BRCA2 carriers have higher incidence in DCIS than that of BRCA1 carriers, and tend to be higher grade and more frequently ER positive and lower proliferation. Total relatives with BC DX ≥2, age at diagnosis ≤35 years and ER+/HER2+ might be independent predictors for BRCA mutation in Japanese women with DCIS and patients of these risk factors should be recommended to receive genetic counseling and BRCA testing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en192_25057", "title": "Basal-like carcinoma", "score": 0.011279631502078419, "content": "The most common histopathological type is invasive ductal carcinoma. It can also be metaplastic carcinoma, medullary carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma, with high grade, high mitosis count. Central necrosis, apoptotic cells, and stroma lymphocyte reaction and a small amount of interstitial components can be seen through microscopic examination. In BLBC, p53 mutations are usually found and the expression epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or HER-1) and c-kit are usually positive. Through the genetic hybridization techniques, BLBC is verified to have the most complex gene phenotypes. The relationship between BLBC and familial BRCA1-associated breast cancer has been discussed in recent years. Several studies have demonstrated that BRCA1-associated breast cancer is more likely to be a BLBC. However, there are few BRCA1 mutations in BLBC, indicating that it is likely to be epigenetic changes. Studies have reported that the negative regulatory factor of BRCA1 gene, ID4, is often" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_9178", "title": "Metaplastic carcinoma", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Metaplastic carcinoma, otherwise known as metaplastic carcinoma of the breast (MCB), is a heterogeneous group of cancers that exhibit varied patterns of metaplasia and differentiation along multiple cell lines. This rare and aggressive form of breast cancer is characterized as being composed of a mixed group of neoplasms containing both glandular and non-glandular patterns with epithelial and/or mesenchymal components. It accounts for fewer than 1% of all breast cancer diagnoses. It is most closely associated with invasive ductal carcinoma of no special type. (IDC), and shares similar treatment approaches. Relative to IDC, MCB generally has higher histological grade and larger tumor size at time of diagnosis, with a lower incidence of axillary lymph node involvement. MCB tumors are typically estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor-2 (HER-2) negative, meaning hormone therapy is generally not an effective treatment option, which correlates to" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_18737", "title": "Breast cancer expression of E-cadherin does not differ between patients with positive and negative oncological history.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The question of whether or not non-sporadic breast malignancies have different immunohistochemical features than sporadic malignancies has not been investigated previously. Consequently, the purpose of this study was to compare the expression of E-cadherin (EC) in breast cancer patients with positive and negative oncologic histories. The study included 98 breast cancer patients divided into two groups: 1) without the personal or familial history of previous malignancies, and 2) with the personal history of previous malignancies and/or with the data on cancer episodes in first- and/or second-degree relatives. There were no significant differences in the expression of EC between breast malignancies of the two groups. Moreover, statistical relationships were not observed between the positive or negative oncologic history, the age, and the menopausal status of patients, or histological tumor grade. Although the results of our series revealed no significant differences in the expression of EC between assumed sporadic and assumed non-sporadic malignancies, there is a need for further comparative studies on the immunohistochemistry of both the breast carcinoma types in order to find the other biological markers that could suggest or exclude cancer susceptibility in a given patient. Nevertheless, the results of our study suggest that EC immunohistochemistry cannot be used as a surrogate marker for screening for hereditary breast cancer." }, { "id": "article-18576_4", "title": "Male Breast Cancer -- Etiology", "score": 0.00984343153603854, "content": "Similarly to women, males have a higher risk of breast cancer if they have a first- or second-degree relative with breast cancer. Studies have shown that an affected sibling or parent of either gender may increase the risk of breast cancer in either the males or females in the family. Bevier et al. (2012) noted in their study that the relative risk (RR) of breast cancer was similar in either offspring when the father or mother was affected (RR = 1.73 and 1.74, respectively), but the risk was slightly higher in the females when the brother is affected as opposed to when the sister is affected (RR = 2.48 and 1.39, respectively). [3] Also, in addition to a family history of breast cancer, males with a BRCA mutation appear to have increased risk for breast cancer as well. Although rare for a male to have a BRCA mutation, those with BRCA2 carrier mutation have a 6% increased risk and BRCA1 with a 4% risk of developing the disease. [4] Other genetic disorders have been implicated in increasing the risk of MBC, including Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY), Cowden syndrome ( PTEN tumor suppressor gene), Li-Fraumeni syndrome ( TP53 ), Lynch syndrome ( PALB2 and mismatch repair genes). [2] [4]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en188_32824", "title": "Somatostatin receptor 2", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "other components of the endocrine system and nervous system, so it can be drawn that the receptor family has great influence among these systems. The family was first discovered in a segment of a rat's pituitary gland known as the tumor cell line. A cell line is grown as a culture under controlled conditions, so the first discovery was found by culturing these cells in controlled conditions and in an environment outside of its norm. There, researchers found that the tumor cell line expresses a cell dividing inhibitor known as the transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) and also acts as an inhibitor to the milk producing hormone in female mammals, prolactin, and growth hormones. Researchers studied the activity of the receptors by conducting an assay with Ligand binding studies, which basically means they were conducting studies to see how prevalent the binding of the receptors occurred. Differences in how prevalently they receptors bonded revealed the existence of multiple" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_8364", "title": "Does family history influence survival in breast cancer cases?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A few studies have suggested a relatively better prognosis for breast cancer (BC) cases reporting a positive family history (FH). We aimed at comparing the survival of patients according to FH in a large hospital-based series of 1,278 BC cases. Information on FH for BC was obtained at diagnosis by interview. All cases reporting a first- or second-degree FH for breast carcinoma were compared with cases without FH. Overall survival was estimated using a product-limit method. Hazard ratios (HRs) and the corresponding 95% confidence intervals (95% CIs), adjusted for confounding factors, were computed using proportional hazard models. Overall, 240 (18.8%) cases reporting, at diagnosis, a positive FH (156 with at least 1 first-degree relative and 84 with at least 1 second-degree relative) were compared with 1,038 patients without FH for BC. No significant differences were found in terms of distribution of age at diagnosis, tumor stage, nodal involvement, receptor status and histology. Cumulative survival rates at 5 years for cases without FH and with first-degree and second-degree FH for BC were 79.8 (95% CI 77.0-83.0), 78.6 (95% CI 70.0-88.0) and 80.2 (95% CI 68.0-92.0), respectively (log-rank test, chi(2) (2) = 0.02, p = 1.0). After adjustment for age, pathologic size and nodal involvement, the HR among cases of invasive cancer with a first-degree FH of BC was 0.91 (95% CI 0.55-1.48); however, the HR for cases with second-degree FH was 1.18 (95% CI 0.62-2.25) compared to cases without FH. Our study, based on a large series of consecutive invasive BC cases, did not find any significant survival differences associated with a positive FH for breast carcinoma, suggesting the existence of a large heterogeneity among BC cases with FH." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en301_10160", "title": "Combined small-cell lung carcinoma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Pemetrexed has been shown to improve survival in non-squamous cell NSCLC, and is the first drug to reveal differential survival benefit in large cell lung carcinoma. C-SCLC appear to express female hormone (i.e. estrogen and/or progesterone) receptors in a high (50–67%) proportion of cases, similar to breast carcinomas. However, it is at present unknown whether blockade of these receptors affects the growth of c-SCLC. Prognosis Current consensus is that the long-term prognosis of c-SCLC patients is determined by the SCLC component of their tumor, given that \"pure\" SCLC seems to have the worst long-term prognosis of all forms of lung cancer. Although data on c-SCLC is very sparse, some studies suggest that survival rates in c-SCLC may be even worse than that of pure SCLC, likely due to the lower rate of complete response to chemoradiation in c-SCLC, although not all studies have shown a significant difference in survival." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_15364", "title": "Clinical characteristics of breast cancer patients with family history.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "This study was conducted to acquire information as to the clinicopathological characteristics of breast cancer patients with family history. Of 583 patients with breast cancer, 60 (10.3%) had family history in at least one relative within the second-degree. The affected family member was most frequently a sister (43%), followed by the mother (23%) and an aunt (20%). Comparison of the data for the patients between with and without family history revealed no significant differences for any of mean age, menopausal status, histological type, histological staging, and estrogen receptor status. Although the sample size was small, neither the survival rate nor the bilaterality of disease was influenced by the family history of breast cancer." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en034_42642", "title": "Selective estrogen receptor modulator", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Tamoxifen is a first-line hormonal treatment of ER-positive metastatic breast cancer. It is used for breast cancer risk reduction in women at high risk, and as adjuvant treatment of axillary node-negative and node-positive, ductal carcinoma in situ. Tamoxifen treatment is also useful in the treatment of bone density and blood lipids in postmenopausal women. Adverse effects include hot flushes and more serious is two to three times higher relative risk of developing endometrial cancer compared to women of an age-matched population. Toremifene, a chlorinated tamoxifen derivative, causes fewer DNA adducts in liver than seen with tamoxifen in preclinical studies and was developed to avoid hepatic carcinomas. It is used as endocrine therapy in women with ER/PR-positive stage 4 or recurrent metastatic breast cancer and has demonstrated similar efficacy compared to tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and in the treatment of metastatic breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_12555", "title": "Prognosis of breast cancer patients with familial history classified according to their menopausal status.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Breast cancer patients were classified in the family history positive (FHP) group when they had at least one second-degree relative who was a breast cancer patient. The results of a comparative study with patients classified in the family history negative (FHN) group showed the prognosis of the FHP group was significantly better than that of the FHN group. However, when those patients were classified according to their menopausal status at onset, there were no significant differences in survival rates between the FHP and FHN groups with onset before menopause, whereas the survival rate of the FHP group was significantly higher than that of the FHN group with onset after menopause. The same results were found when the FHP group was subgrouped into the FHP group with first-degree relatives and the FHP group with second-degree relatives. Further investigations on background factors revealed that the patients with onset before menopause showed no significant differences between the FHP and FHN groups in age at surgery, diameter of the tumor, histologic grade, the number of metastatic lymph nodes, body weight, estrogen receptor (ER) status, and the values of CEA and CA15-3 before surgery. On the other hand, the FHP patients with onset after menopause showed significantly lower numbers of metastatic lymph nodes and trends showing higher ER values and lower CA15-3-values. Therefore the favorable prognosis in the FHP group seems to be attributable to the higher survival rate of the FHP patients with onset after menopause." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en188_32364", "title": "Parathyroid hormone 1 receptor", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Interactions Parathyroid hormone 1 receptor has been shown to interact with Sodium-hydrogen exchange regulatory cofactor 2 and Sodium-hydrogen antiporter 3 regulator 1. Model organisms Model organisms have been used in the study of PTH1R function. A conditional knockout mouse line called Pth1rtm1a(EUCOMM)Hmgu was generated at the Wellcome Trust Sanger Institute. Male and female animals underwent a standardized phenotypic screen to determine the effects of deletion. Additional screens performed: - In-depth immunological phenotyping See also Parathyroid hormone receptor References Further reading External links G protein-coupled receptors" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en615_20221", "title": "Karen E. Knudsen", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Research Knudsen is an oncology researcher whose studies are focused on precision medicine in advanced prostate cancer, with an emphasis on understanding therapeutic relapse and designing new means of clinical intervention. Her translational studies have resulted in new clinical trials targeting DNA repair, cell cycle, and hormonal regulation pathways in patients with advanced disease. Knudsen and her colleagues discovered the mechanisms by which androgen signaling impacts cancer cell proliferation and DNA repair processes, and identified novel strategies for therapeutic intervention. Notable discoveries include identification of RB tumor suppressor loss as a major mechanism of therapeutic bypass, discovery of the androgen-DNA repair axis, and elucidation of androgen receptor function in the mitotic cell cycle. Her discoveries were amongst the first to propose utilization of PARP 1/2 inhibitors for advanced disease, now an FDA-approved agent for selected prostate cancers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0263_11157", "title": "A clinicopathological analysis of breast cancer in patients with a family history.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A study was conducted to investigate the clinical and pathological characteristics of breast cancer in patients with a family history (FH). Among 4,481 primary breast cancer patients, 394 (8.8%) had families which included two or more breast cancer patients within three generations (FH(+)group). This group was compared with the remaining 3,969 patients (FH(-) group) with the following results: (1) The tumor diameter in the FH(+) group was slightly less than that in the FH(-) group [not significant (NS)], with fewer lymph node metastases (P &lt; 0.05); (2) the positive rates for the estrogen receptor were 52% (138/266) and 49% (1,216/2,481), respectively (NS); (3) expression of the c-erbB-2 protein was observed in 14 out of 40 (35%) and 32 out of 100 cases (32%), respectively (NS); (4) the relative risk of bilateral occurrence in the FH(+) group was 1.4, with a 95% confidence interval of 0.9-2.4; (5) the 15-year survival rate was 72% and 60%, respectively, suggesting a better prognosis for the FH(+) group (P &lt; 0.01); and (6) multivariate analysis showed that the contribution of FH to postoperative survival was marginal (P = 0.07). Factors related to the hormonal environment such as age at menarche (P = 0.08) and age at menopause (P = 0.08) made a greater but non-significant contribution to the prognosis of the FH(+) group than to that of the FH(-) group. However, further genetic and molecular biological analyses of familial breast cancer are needed in order to clarify the mechanisms of cancer accumulation within families." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en490_9660", "title": "Abemaciclib", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "As of early 2016, abemaciclib was involved in 3 Phase III clinical trials: The JUNIPER Study is comparing abemaciclib against erlotinib in patients with stage IV non-small-cell lung carcinoma Due to collect data until September 2017. The MONARCH 2 study is investigating the effectiveness of abemaciclib in combination with fulvestrant for women with breast cancer. It is due to end in Feb 2017. In March 2017, Eli Lilly announced that it had met its primary endpoint of superior progression-free survival (PFS) over placebo plus fulvestrant in patients with estrogen receptor positive and HER2 negative advanced or metastatic breast cancer. This result led to the September 2017 FDA approval. The MONARCH 3 study is investigating the effectiveness of abemaciclib, plus either anastrozole or letrozole, as a first-line treatment for women with breast cancer. The trial is expected to end in June 2017." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0759_12700", "title": "Retrospective analysis of clinicopathological characteristics and family history data of early-onset breast cancer: a single-institutional study of Hungarian patients.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Patients at young age (≤ 35 years) diagnosed with breast cancer (BC) are considered to have poor prognosis. The aim of the present study was to retrospectively analyse clinicopathological characteristics and prognosis in a group of young BC patients. We included women diagnosed with invasive breast carcinoma younger than/or at the age of 35 years. Between 1999 and 2009, 107 women with early-onset BC were selected from the database of the 2nd Department of Pathology at Semmelweis University. For clinicopathological comparison, 55 women (36-45 years), 214 women (46-65 years), 110 women (66-75 years) and 58 women (76 ≤ years) were also included in the analysis. Family history, clinicopathological and follow-up data were analysed. The tissue specimens were reviewed for histological type, nuclear grade, and estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PgR), Ki67 and HER2 status (IHC4). The mean age in the study group was 31.6 years at the time of diagnosis. Histology showed a high incidence of grade III tumours in this group of patients (67.9 %), while only four cases (3.8 %) were considered grade I. According to the immunohistochemical results, 35.3 % of the study cases were considered as Luminal B (LumB: either being higly proliferative or co-expressing HER2) and 33.3 % as triple negative breast carcinomas (TNBC). The detailed questionnaire related to family history was completed and received in 49/107 cases (45.8 %). Analysis of these data revealed an affected family history of breast or ovarian carcinoma in first and second degree relatives in 51.0 %. A high proportion (52.0 %) of TNBC was observed among young women with a family history of the disease. Survival analysis of the 107 patients showed that 25 (23.3 %) women died until 31 December 2012. No significant difference in survival was detectable considering the regimen of systemic treatment (p = 0.188). Regarding clinicopathological parameters, the immunophenotypes, grade, pT and pN values differred substantially between the age groups (p = 0.001, for all), and the shortest relapse-free survival was seen among the youngest BC patients. This analysis illustrates that breast cancer arising in young women is characterized by the presence of less favorable subtypes such as LumB and TNBC. The increased proportion of TNBC was especially remarquable in the group of patients presenting with family history of the disease. The fact that a high rate of death occurred and no significant difference in OS were notable regarding the scheme of systemic therapies (neoadjuvant vs. adjuvant) highlight the necessity of the development of new treatment strategies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en406_12297", "title": "Dynamic angiothermography", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "DATG is able to detect changes in blood flow that are indicative of breast cancer, may be used for younger patients, is completely non-invasive (no need for radiation or contrast agent, no need for compression of the breast) and is lower cost than alternatives requiring minimal facilities. This technology, performed quickly (5–6 minutes for visit) and very precise, is useful for screening and is also able to detect precancerous lesions. Studies have been conducted that have shown how it is possible, by means of this methodology, to diagnose invasive ductal carcinoma and infiltrating lobular carcinoma with the same accuracy. DATG can be strategic for young patients, or patients with dense breasts where the contrastive performance of mammography is challenged. Another application of DATG is the monitoring of at-risk patients with increased changes of breast cancer who take hormone replacement therapy (sometimes taken to reduce menopause symptoms) and participate in in-vitro" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_10753", "title": "Prevalence of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations in women diagnosed with ductal carcinoma in situ.", "score": 0.009223057644110275, "content": "The distribution of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations in women diagnosed with noninvasive breast carcinoma is unknown. To estimate the BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation prevalence in women with ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), unselected for age, family history, or ethnicity. The data were 369 DCIS cases diagnosed among female residents aged 20 to 79 years from the state of Connecticut between September 15, 1994, and March 14, 1998. These women were participants in a large population-based case-control study of breast carcinoma in situ. Telephone interviews were used to collect risk factor information and blood or buccal specimens were collected for BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation testing. Prevalence of disease-associated mutations of BRCA1 and BRCA2 in women diagnosed with DCIS. Three (0.8%) and 9 (2.4%) of 369 DCIS cases had disease-associated mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2, respectively. One woman had a mutation in both genes (BRCA1 W321X and BRCA2 3398del5). Carriers were significantly more likely than noncarriers to report a first-degree (mother, sister, or daughter) family history of breast cancer (odds ratio [OR], 3.7; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.1-12.4), as well as a personal history of ovarian cancer. In addition, carriers were more likely than noncarriers to be diagnosed at an early age (&lt;50 years) (OR, 3.4; 95% CI, 1.0-11.7), as well as to report at least 1 first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before 50 years (OR, 10.6; 95% CI, 3.0-37.0). Ductal carcinoma in situ is a part of the breast/ovarian cancer syndromes defined by BRCA1 and BRCA2, with mutation rates similar to those found for invasive breast cancer. These findings suggest that patients with breast cancer with an appropriate personal or family history of breast and/or ovarian cancer should be screened and followed according to high-risk protocols, regardless of whether they are diagnosed with in situ or invasive breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0933_10246", "title": "Family History and Risk of Second Primary Breast Cancer after <i>In Situ</i> Breast Carcinoma.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "<bBackground:</b Incidence rates of <iin situ</i breast carcinomas have increased due to widespread adoption of mammography. Very little is known about why some women with <iin situ</i breast cancer later develop second primary breast cancers.<bMethods:</b In this population-based nested case-control study among <iin situ</i breast cancer survivors, including 539 cases with a second primary breast cancer and 994 matched controls, we evaluated the association between first-degree family history of breast cancer and risk of developing a second primary breast cancer.<bResults:</b First-degree family history of breast cancer was associated with an increased risk of developing a second primary breast cancer among women with a previous <iin situ</i breast cancer [odds ratio (OR) = 1.33, 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.05-1.69] and those with two or more affected first-degree relatives had an even higher risk (OR = 1.94; 95% CI, 1.15-3.28). Those whose relative was diagnosed at less than 50 years old were more likely to develop a second primary breast cancer (OR = 1.78; 95% CI, 1.24-2.57). No difference in risks associated with number or age of affected relatives was observed by menopausal status.<bConclusions:</b Results from this study suggest that first-degree family history of breast cancer may be an important risk factor for development of a second primary breast cancer among women with a previous <iin situ</i breast cancer.<bImpact:</b Given the growing population of <iin situ</i breast cancer survivors, a better understanding of risk factors associated with development of a second primary breast cancer is needed to further understand risk. <iCancer Epidemiol Biomarkers Prev; 27(3); 315-20. ©2018 AACR</i." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_23268", "title": "Linking Histopathology and Family History in Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "In order to assess the prognostic value of family history (FH) of malignancies in patients afflicted with breast cancer (BC), we examined FH and histopathologic characteristics of 542 Iranian primary BC patients. Cases with distant metastasis at the time of diagnosis were excluded. Mean age of the studied population was 49 and the most common presenting stage was stage IIA followed by stage IIB. Data on a total of 6089 relatives (1st to 4th generations with the assumption of probands as the 3rd generation) were gathered. FH of BC and other malignancies (OM) was positive in 29 and 54% of cases, respectively. The most common OM's were gastric (67), lung (52) and uterus (47) cancers. We found that a FH of BC does not have any significant correlation with proven prognostic factors but a history of BC among relatives at or before the age of 36 is associated with more aggressive tumours. On the other hand, although FH of OM was associated with an older age of the probands (which is generally associated with a favourable prognosis), tumours of the cases with FH of OM had higher grades, lymphatic invasion being detected more frequently. Also we noted that the younger the age of the relatives diagnosed with cancer, the higher the stage of the probands themselves. All together our study indicates the possibility of a relation between FH of BC and OM, and histopathologic characteristics of the probands' tumours which would put forward FH as a prognostic factor rather than a simple risk factor in BC." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en200_7950", "title": "CDH1 (gene)", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Clinical significance Loss of E-cadherin function or expression has been implicated in cancer progression and metastasis. E-cadherin downregulation decreases the strength of cellular adhesion within a tissue, resulting in an increase in cellular motility. This in turn may allow cancer cells to cross the basement membrane and invade surrounding tissues. E-cadherin is also used by pathologists to diagnose different kinds of breast cancer. When compared with invasive ductal carcinoma, E-cadherin expression is markedly reduced or absent in the great majority of invasive lobular carcinomas when studied by immunohistochemistry. E-cadherin and N-cadherin temporal-spatial expression are tightly regulated during cranial suture fusion in craniofacial development. Interactions CDH1 (gene) has been shown to interact with CBLL1, CDC27, CDON, CDH3, C-Met, CTNND1, CTNNB1, CTNNA1 FOXM1, HDAC1, HDAC2, IQGAP1, FYN, NEDD9, Plakoglobin, Vinculin, PTPmu(PTPRM) PTPrho(PTPRT)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0284_12194", "title": "Epidemiologic and genetic follow-up study of 544 Minnesota breast cancer families: design and methods.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "In 1944, a case-control family study was initiated at the Dight Institute for Human Genetics at the University of Minnesota to study the influences of childbearing breastfeeding, and hereditary susceptibility on the occurrence and age-of-onset of breast cancer. Index cases (probands) were women ascertained at the Tumor Clinic of the University of Minnesota Hospital. Medical history and life style information were obtained on probands and relatives, and all cancers were histologically verified. A total of 544 families were studied, with probands diagnosed between 1931 and 1952. All of the records and pathology slides have been maintained from the original study; for most probands this includes the original tissue blocks. We are conducting a historical cohort study of selected of selected first- and second-degree female relatives (sisters, daughters, nieces, granddaughters) of the probands and a group of control women identified as the spouses of all male first- and second-degree relatives (brothers, sons, grandsons, and nephews). The subsequent development of breast cancer is being determined to quantify the absolute risk associated with a positive family history. Current disease status is ascertained with mammography, and stromal density is measured using digital imaging. Segregation analysis will be applied to examine how non-genetic factors such as diet, exogenous hormone use, and body fat distribution influence risk in women at high risk because of family history. A subset of families are being selected for molecular analysis of the BRCA1 gene or for linkage analyses to identify putative susceptibility loci other than BRCA1. Documented cancer histories were known for at least three generations, and the current study extends the pedigrees up to four or five generations for every family, allowing a detailed description of familial risk. This cohort study of breast cancer families is likely to be important in both quantity and quality of data and will serve as a major genetic epidemiologic resource, being free of selection bias and having relevant non-genetic exposure determined in at least four generations." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 18 ] ], "text": "The symptoms and signs described are the biological findings associated with anorexia nervosa." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Suspect anorexia nervosa and inquire about intake, body image, etc.", "2": "Suspect hypothyroidism and request TSH and thyroid hormones.", "3": "Suspect cardiomyopathy and request echocardiography.", "4": "I would suspect celiac disease and request anti-transglutaminase IgA antibodies.", "5": "Suspect panhypopituitarism and request a cranial CT scan." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0858_15352", "title": "[Anorexia with sinus bradycardia: a case report].", "score": 0.01837336704593342, "content": "As anorexia patients always go to the psychiatric clinic, little is concerned about the occurrence of sinus bradycardia in these patients for cardiologists and psychiatrists. The aim of this paper is to discuss the relationship between anorexia and sinus bradycardia, and the feature analysis, differential diagnosis and therapeutic principles of this type of sinus bradycardia. We report a case of sinus bradycardia in an anorexia patient with the clinical manifestations, laboratory exams, auxiliary exams, therapeutic methods, and her prognosis, who was admitted to Peking University Third Hospital recently. The patient was a 19-year-old female, who had the manifestation of anorexia. She lost obvious weight in a short time (about 15 kg in 6 months), and her body mass index was 14.8 kg/m(2). The patient felt apparent palpitation, chest depression and short breath, without dizziness, amaurosis or unconsciousness. Vitals on presentation were notable for hypotension, and bradycardia. The initial exam was significant for emaciation, but without lethargy or lower extremity edema. The electrocardiogram showed sinus bradycardia with her heart rate being 32 beats per minute. The laboratory work -up revealed her normal blood routine, electrolytes and liver function. But in her thyroid function test, the free thyroid (FT) hormones 3 was 0.91 ng/L (2.3-4.2 ng/L),and FT4 was 8.2 ng/L (8.9-18.0 ng/L), which were all lower; yet the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) was normal 1.48 IU/mL (0.55-4.78 IU/mL). Ultrasound revealed her normal thyroid. Anorexia is an eating disorder characterized by extremely low body weight, fear of gaining weight or distorted perception of body image, and amenorrhea. Anorexia patients who lose weight apparently in short time enhance the excitability of the parasympathetic nerve, and inhibit the sympathetic nerve which lead to the appearance of sinus bradycardia, and functional abnormalities of multiple systems such as hypothyroidism. But this kind of sinus bradycardia and hypothyroidism have good prognosis. And asymptomatic sinus bradycardia with reversible causes, because of the great prognosis, they do not need special treatment. Multiple medical and psychiatric disciplines were consulted, and then, family care, nutritional support and psychiatric therapy were given, and she did not need thyroid hormone replacement therapy. The patient's overall clinical status improved gradually during her hospital stay and her heart rate was recovered to 55 beats per minute." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_4952", "title": "Case Report.", "score": 0.013595814033281866, "content": "Thyroid hormone resistance (RTH) is defined as a decrease in response to thyroid hormones in the target tissue. Most patients present with nonspecific findings. In this article, we aimed to represent a 22-year-old female patient who presented with palpitation, fatigue, and heat intolerance. She was thought to have thyroid hormone resistance and her genetic examination revealed NM_001128177.1 (THRβ): c.1034G &gt; A (p.Gly345Asp) pathogenic variation in the THRβ gene. A 22-year-old female patient presented with complaints of fatigue, heat intolerance and palpitations. She was taking Propranolol twice daily at admission. Her family history revealed hypothyroidism in her grandmother. Her physical examination results were as follows: height 160 cm, weight 65 kg, body mass index 25.4kg/m<sup2</sup, body temperature 36.5°C, respiratory rate 18/min, heart rate 86 beats/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg. Her palms were sweaty. The heart sounds were normal, and no heart murmur was auscultated. The laboratory results were TSH: 5.31uU/mL, fT3: 6.83 pg/mL, and fT4: 2.43 ng/dL. THRβ gene mutation analysis was requested for our patient whose clinical history and laboratory results were compatible with thyroid hormone resistance. The pathogenic variation NM_001128177.1(THRβ):c.1034G&gt;A (p.Gly345Asp) was detected after analysis. A diagnosis of RTH requires high clinical suspicion and a genetic mutation analysis should be requested in the case of clinical suspicion. In this way, unnecessary anti-thyroid treatment can be prevented." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0049_3605", "title": "[Anorexia nervosa in boys--a case report].", "score": 0.012936507936507937, "content": "In contrast to female adolescents, anorexia nervosa is rarely seen in male adolescents. In consequence, more comprehensive investigations are often carried out in the latter in a search of organic disease. A boy of thirteen-and-a-half years was referred for investigation of anorexia, loss of weight, constipation, loss of concentration and depression. Physical examination revealed bradycardia, low blood pressure, hypothermia and various endocrinological disturbances: reduced somatomedin C, tri-iodine thyronine and subnormal thyroxine levels, and delayed TSH peaking after TRH stimulation. Examination of peripheral blood revealed leukopenia with underlying hyperplastic bone marrow. A CT scan revealed widening of the ventricles of the brain, and echocardiography a mitral valve prolapse. Anorexia nervosa is accompanied by numerous pathological findings which, however, when weight is regained, return to normal without the need for further treatment. Before instituting invasive diagnostic measures in boys or male adolescents, consideration should be given to anorexia nervosa, and a psychiatric consultation sought." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1125_14951", "title": "Thyroid and Parathyroid Conditions: Hypothyroidism.", "score": 0.011742424242424242, "content": "Hypothyroidism is caused by deficient thyroid hormone production secondary to autoimmune disease or insufficient iodine consumption or as a complication of hyperthyroidism management. Signs and symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, dry skin, constipation, and cold intolerance. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force found insufficient evidence to recommend for or against screening for hypothyroidism, but some organizations support screening in special populations. If hypothyroidism is suspected, initial laboratory evaluation consists of a serum thyrotropin (TSH) measurement with reflex testing of free thyroxine (T<sub4</sub). Thyroid function tests must be interpreted carefully because acute illness, diet, and drugs may alter values. Overt hypothyroidism occurs when a patient has an elevated TSH level and a low free T<sub4</sub level with symptoms of hypothyroidism. Management includes thyroid hormone replacement, ideally levothyroxine. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by an elevated TSH level with a normal T<sub4</sub value. The decision to treat subclinical hypothyroidism should be based on patient characteristics and shared decision-making discussions. Special consideration should be taken in treating patients with high-risk conditions, including heart disease, pregnancy, and myxedema coma, and in patients requiring high-dose levothyroxine. Thyroid hormone should be titrated based on goal TSH values, symptoms, and potential treatment adverse effects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0618_11315", "title": "Referral letters for 2-week wait suspected colorectal cancer do not allow a 'straight-to-test' pathway.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Some clinicians have argued that 2-week wait suspected colorectal cancer patients can go 'straight-to-test' to facilitate time to diagnosis and treatment. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether the currently used referral letters are reliable enough to allow that pathway. General practitioner (GP) letters referring patients under the Two Week-Wait Rule for suspected colorectal cancer were prospectively reviewed over a 6-month period. Three examining consultants were asked to outline the tests they would perform having only read the letter, and then again after a clinical consultation with the patient. The outcome of these tests was tracked. A total of 217 referral letters of patients referred under Two Week Wait Rule for suspected colorectal cancer were studied. Having just read the referral letter, the most frequently requested test was colonoscopy (148), then CT scan (48), barium enema (44), followed by gastroscopy (23) and flexible sigmoidoscopy in 15 patients (some patients would have had more than one test requested). After consultation with the patients, tests requested as guided by the GP letter were changed in 67 patients (31%), where 142 colonoscopies, 61 CT scans, 37 barium enemas, 23 flexible sigmoidoscopies and 19 gastroscopies were organised. The referral indication which had tests changed most often was definite palpable rectal mass (67%), while patients referred with definite palpable right-sided abdominal mass had their tests least often changed (9%). A total of 22 patients were found to have colorectal cancers (10%) and 30 patients were diagnosed with polyps (14%). Out of 142 colonoscopies performed, 19 (13%) showed some pathology beyond the sigmoid colon and of the 23 patients who had flexible sigmoidoscopy initially, only three went on to have colonoscopy subsequently. During the 6-month period of the study, only five breaches of the waiting time targets were recorded (1 to the 31-day target and 4 to the 62-day target). A significant number of patients would have had tests changed after a clinical consultation. However, only a small number required further investigations having had a consultation prior to their initial investigations. We conclude that 2-week wait suspected colorectal cancer patients should be seen in the clinic first and should not proceed 'straight-to-test'." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0316_16369", "title": "[The heart of anorexic adolescents].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Anorexia nervosa (AN) is often associated with cardiac changes, such as thinning of the left ventricle (LV), reduction of LV mass, abnormalities of mitral valve function and systolic dysfunction. Some authors have reported QT interval prolongation and sudden death in these patients. We studied 23 adolescent females, aged 14.7 +/- 2 years (mean +/- SD), with AN. Serum electrolytes, proteins and albumin were measured in all patients. Electrocardiogram, Doppler-echocardiogram and chest X-rays were also performed on the same day. Eighteen patients were also examined via indirect calorimetry (difference from basal metabolic rate) and 21 underwent dosage of thyroid hormones. The patients, who were of normal height (159 +/- 7.4 cm), were underweight (36 +/- 4.8 kg) and had a body mass index (BMI) of less than 19 (14.2 +/- 1.3). Serum electrolytes, proteins, albumin and chest X-rays were substantially normal in all patients; 74% of them showed reduction of FT3. The calorimetry was reduced (-27.1 +/- 10.6%) with the exception of one patient. Resting heart rate was 58 +/- 12 bpm. We found normal values for PR, QRS, QT (0.41 +/- 0.03 s1/2) and QTc intervals (0.40 +/- 0.03 s1/2) and QT dispersion (40.9 +/- 14.1 ms). Echocardiography showed a reduction in the dimensions of the interventricular septum (52% of patients), LV free wall (61%), left atrium (31%) and LV mass (61%). Fractional shortening was normal in all but one patient. In 61% of cases, there was mild or moderate pericardial effusion that was clinically silent and inversely related to BMI (r = -0.38, p 0.08, ns), to calorimetry (r = -0.56, p &lt; 0.0055), to FT3 (r = -0.53, p &lt; 0.05) and to sodium concentration (r = -0.43, p 0.04). Teen-agers with AN often show a reduction in LV thickness and mass, as well as clinically silent pericardial effusion that is inversely related to BMI, calorimetry, FT3 and sodium serum concentrations. We did not find any prolongation of QTc interval or of QT dispersion." }, { "id": "article-27408_17", "title": "Polyglandular Autoimmune Syndrome Type I -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009804606941871439, "content": "Autoimmune hypothyroidism or Hashimoto hypothyroidism, characterized by the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies anti-thyroglobulin antibodies may also be present. Clinical features include weight gain, loss of appetite, cold intolerance, and constipation. Diagnosis is by measuring thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4) levels." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_13573", "title": "[Case report: recently diagnosed celiac disease as aggravating factor of osteoporosis in an old woman].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Sixty-three-year-old woman requested medical attention for osteoporosis. Bone densitometry revealed: T(spine (L1-L4))= -3.5 SD [Bone mineral density (BMD): 0.766 g/cm(2)]. T(femoral neck) = -2.4 SD (BMD: 0.716 g/cm(2)). She has been in calcium and vitamin D supplementation for 2 years. She informed a 5-year-history of hypothyroidism in levothyroxine replacement. Alendronate sodium 70 mg/week was initiated with significant increase in BMD in the first year (6.1% equally in spine and femoral neck). After a 5-year follow-up, the patient presented with weight loss, anemia and decrease in BMD (12.6% in spine and 20.9% in femoral neck). Clinical history revealed intermittent diarrhea episodes for 2 years and the hypothesis of celiac disease was suspected. Anti-gliadin and anti-endomysium antibodies were positive: 25.3 U/mL (&lt; 20) e 1/5 U/mL (RV: negative), respectively. Bone biochemical parameters revealed normal levels of calcium and phosphate, increased parathyroid hormone: 283 pg/mL (10-65) and increased levels of bone reabsortion markers, consistent with secondary hyperparathyroidism in response to malabsorptive syndrome. One year after gluten-free diet, patient improved of malabsorptive symptoms and gained BMD (47.3% in spine and 31.6% in femoral neck), confirming the hypothesis of celiac disease as aggravating factor of osteoporosis in this patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0107_11200", "title": "[Clinical study of 105 cases of isolated weight loss in internal medicine].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We arbitrarily define \"isolated weight loss\" as the loss of at least 10 p. 100 of body weight over less than one year, without any single cause being disclosed by questioning, physical examination and such paraclinical examinations as blood electrolytes, blood count and differential, routine dipstick urinalysis and X-ray of the chest. Among the 105 patients we studied, the causes of isolated weight loss were: (1) psychic disorders (chiefly depression) in 60 p. 100 of the cases; (2) a variety of organic diseases in 29 p. 100, including gastrointestinal diseases (8 p. 100), cardiovascular and respiratory diseases (6 p. 100), Horton's disease (4 p. 100), Portuguese amyloidosis (1 p. 100), unexplained inflammatory syndrome (1 p. 100), endocrine disease (hyperthyroidism, 4 p. 100) and intoxication with medicines, alcohol or heroin (5 p. 100); (3) no definite cause could be found in 11 p. 100 of the cases. We suggest a diagnostic approach involving a limited number of examinations, viz.: erythrocyte sedimentation rate, measurement of transaminases, gamma GT and alkaline phosphatase enzymes, abdominal ultrasonography and ultra-sensitive TSH assay. We consider it important to switch from useless paraclinical tests to the detection and management of psychic disorders. Weight loss is a frequent motive of consultation, but its diagnostic value is often misunderstood. The purpose of this study was to provide data for the artiological diagnosis of isolated weight loss--a relatively frequent problem in internal medicine." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en072_8772", "title": "Thyroid disease", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Diagnosis starts with a history and physical examination. Screening for thyroid disease in patients without symptoms is a debated topic although commonly practiced in the United States. If dysfunction of the thyroid is suspected, laboratory tests can help support or rule out thyroid disease. Initial blood tests often include thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4). Total and free triiodothyronine (T3) levels are less commonly used. If autoimmune disease of the thyroid is suspected, blood tests looking for Anti-thyroid autoantibodies can also be obtained. Procedures such as ultrasound, biopsy and a radioiodine scanning and uptake study may also be used to help with the diagnosis, particularly if a nodule is suspected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0363_20021", "title": "[First diagnosis of celiac disease in a 67-year old female patient].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 67 year old female patient presented herself to our emergency room with paraesthesia in both hands, chronic diarrhea and continuous weight loss. From the past medical history, only an autoimmune hypothyroidism was known. On initial, examination leading features were carpopedal spasms and a pulse deficit. Her general condition, especially the nutritional status was low. Serum levels of potassium (2.2 mmol/l) and calcium (1.45 mmol/l) were low, as well as the levels of total protein (5.1 g/dl) and albumin (2.94 g/dl). Clotting time was prolonged (Quick 51%). The ECG showed a ventricular bigeminus and a prolonged QT-period (120% rel). Endoscopy and biopsy showed a total villous atrophy suggesting celiac disease as probable cause. This was emphasized by the high antibody levels against gliadin (1:80) and endomyosin (1:40). Furthermore, the Human Leukocyte Antigen molecules HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3 showed increased expression. After normalizing the electrolyte imbalance intravenously the neurological symptoms disappeared as well as the arrhythmia. The QT-period went back to normal. Under initial drip feeding and a strict gluten-free diet the general condition improved quickly and the diarrhea stopped. A follow-up investigation 3 months later showed the woman in a good condition having gained 10 kg weight and an improvement in histological findings, so that diagnosis of celiac disease could be proved. The possibility of ventricular arrhythmia and a prolonged QT-period in the ECG should be taken into account for patients diagnosed with celiac disease, especially in case of electrolyte imbalance. In these cases addition to a strict gluten free diet a rapid correction of the electrolyte imbalance is necessary because of the risk of sudden cardiac death. Furthermore associated disorders like autoimmune diseases expressing the same HLA-antigens (HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3) must be considered. Combined incidence of celiac disease and autoimmune hypothyroidism is well documented. For patients with celiac disease we therefore recommend a routine testing of thyroid hormone levels." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60541", "title": "Hypothyroidism", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Diagnosis Laboratory testing of thyroid stimulating hormone levels in the blood is considered the best initial test for hypothyroidism; a second TSH level is often obtained several weeks later for confirmation. Levels may be abnormal in the context of other illnesses, and TSH testing in hospitalized people is discouraged unless thyroid dysfunction is strongly suspected, as the cause of the acute illness. An elevated TSH level indicates that the thyroid gland is not producing enough thyroid hormone, and free T4 levels are then often obtained. Measuring T3 is discouraged by the AACE in the assessment for hypothyroidism. In England and Wales, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends routine T4 testing in children, and T3 testing in both adults and children if central hypothyroidism is suspected and the TSH is low. There are a number of symptom rating scales for hypothyroidism; they provide a degree of objectivity but have limited use for diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0605_22721", "title": "'Great tan but I feel awful'. Diagnosis: Autoimmune primary hypoadrenalism.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "'Everyone says I look great but I feel awful. I've lost weight, I feel sick all the time, I don't have any energy and I struggle just to get through the day'. Andrew is lean and tanned, but he has lost 8 kg since his last visit 3 months ago. He seems a bit flat in mood and listless in manner. He doesn't have a temperature, his blood pressure (BP) is 105/65, and examination of his chest and abdomen is normal. When the results of Andrew's tests come back the following day you are surprised to see abnormalities in his electrolytes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en475_31253", "title": "Choosing Wisely Canada", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A quality improvement initiative based on CWC principles was launched under the supervision of Dr. Danielle Martin at the Women's College Hospital (WCH) in Toronto. The American Thyroid Association and Choosing Wisely Canada recommends testing only Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) levels rather than testing both TSH and free thyroid hormones (such as T4) for assessment of suspected hypothyroidism, since majority of patients with hypothyroidism will present with abnormal TSH levels. A baseline audit at Women's College Hospital revealed that 60% of all free thyroid hormones tests were performed in patients who had normal TSH levels, amounting to approximately $50,000 annually in additional laboratory testing expenditure. A \"Reflex T4\" approach was implemented at WCH, wherein free T4 tests would not be conducted unless TSH levels are abnormal, or if there are clinical indications of situations when measurement of free thyroid hormones would be necessary. When it is found that TSH levels" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1084_518", "title": "Electrocardiograms Revealing Epsilon Waves Following Use of Hormone Supplements in Young Cardiac Arrest Patient.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "An underlying cardiomyopathy should be suspected in young patients presenting with ventricular arrhythmias and sudden cardiac arrest. Electrocardiograms revealing epsilon waves are associated with many serious conditions such as arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy, posterior myocardial infarction, right ventricular infarction, infiltration disease, sarcoidosis, Brugada Syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, and hypothermia. This case report features epsilon waves in a young cardiac arrest patient suspected of having an unrecognized cardiomyopathy that resulted in a fatal arrhythmia in the setting of exogenous bovine thyroid hormone and steroid use.  Case presentation: A previously healthy 33-year-old male with a history of anabolic steroid use and bovine thyroid hormone use presented to the emergency department following witnessed cardiac arrest with bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Upon emergency medical service (EMS) arrival, the patient was in ventricular fibrillation and received defibrillation with the return of spontaneous circulation. In the emergency department, he was unresponsive and required norepinephrine to maintain blood pressure. An epsilon wave and a prolonged QTc interval were noted on his electrocardiogram (ECG). CT angiogram of the chest and CT head were negative for acute abnormalities. Pertinent laboratory work-up included a lactate level of 12.0 mmol/L, thyroid-stimulating hormone of 0.02 ulU/L, and a free thyroxine level of 0.04 ng/dL. Cardiac ultrasound showed globally decreasedleft ventricular function with an ejection fraction of 25-30% and mild dilation of the right ventricle. A cardiac MRI was ordered but the patient had recurrent ventricular fibrillation and was too unstable to complete. He suffered anoxic brain injury with no improvements in neurologic function and was transitioned to comfort care. The patient died two months later in hospice care. The cause of cardiac arrest was attributed to the patient's steroid and bovine thyroid supplementation, but autopsy results revealed histologic evidence of possible arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy.  Discussion: Epsilon waves are widely known to be associated with structural abnormalities of the heart, most notably, arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathies. Epsilon waves may be present in a variety of other medical conditions including posterior myocardial infarction, right ventricular infarction, infiltration disease, sarcoidosis, Brugada Syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, and hypothermia. This case report describes an epsilon wave found in a patient with suspected arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy that suffered a fatal arrhythmia triggered by bovine thyroid hormone and steroid use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0004_6072", "title": "[Hyperthyroidism: diagnosis (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In hyperthyroidism we differentiate two main forms: (1) hyperthyroidism due to Basedow's (Graves') disease, always characterized by endocrine eye signs, frequently with goiter; (2) hyperthyroidism due to nodular goiter or to Plummers' disease, without endocrine exophthalmos. The clinical diagnosis includes typical complaints (e.g., weight loss, heat intolerance, sweating) and findings (e.g., tachycardia, tremor, soft-warm skin). The technical diagnosis includes in vivo (scintigraphy, RI-uptake, X-ray examination) and in vitro (T3-RIA, T4-assay, TRH response to TRH) tests." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27208", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009382603406326033, "content": "Screening tests for thyroid disease can include anti–thyroid peroxidase (TPO) or anti-thyroglobulin autoantibodies or anti-TSH receptor antibodies for Graves’ disease. Yearly measurements of TSH can then be used to follow these individuals. Celiac disease can be screened for using the anti–tissue transglutaminase (tTg) antibody test. For those <20 years of age, testing every 1–2 years should be performed, whereas less frequent testing is indicated after the age of 20 because the majority of individuals who develop celiac disease have the antibody earlier in life. Positive tTg antibody test results should be confirmed on repeat testing, followed by small-bowel biopsy to document pathologic changes of celiac disease. Many patients have asymptomatic celiac disease that is nevertheless associated with osteopenia and impaired growth. If left untreated, symptomatic celiac disease has been reported to be associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy, especially lymphoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_4345", "title": "Positive tissue transglutaminase antibodies with negative endomysial antibodies: low rate of celiac disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Screening for celiac disease is based on the sequential evaluation of serologic tests and intestinal biopsy; an optimal screening protocol is still under investigation. The screening policy of one of the main healthcare providers in Israel (Maccabi) consists of measuring total immunoglobulin A and tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies and confirming positive results by endomysial antibodies. For IgA-deficient patients antigliadin IgG is measured. To evaluate the use of tTGA as a first-level screening test in patients suspected of having celiac disease The results of tTGA and EMA tests over a 3 month period were obtained from the laboratory computer. Letters were sent to the referring physicians of patients with positive tests, requesting clinical information and small intestinal biopsy results. tTGA was performed using an anti-guinea pig tTG-IgA enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay kit. Overall, 2,505 tTGA tests were performed: 216 (8.6%) were tTGA-positive of which 162 (75%) were EMA-negative (group 1) and 54 (25%) EMA-positive (group 2.) Clinical information was obtained for 91 patients in group 1 and 32 in group 2. Small intestinal biopsy was performed in 33 (36%) and 27 patients (84%) in groups 1 and 2, respectively. Celiac disease was diagnosed in 4 biopsies (12%) in group 1 and 23 (85%) in group 2 (P &lt; 0.0001). The positive predictive value was 45% for tTGA and 85% for EMA. Symptomatic patients with positive tTGA and negative EMA have a low rate of celiac disease compared to those who are tTGA-positive and EMA-positive. Confirmation with EMA is advised when tTGA is performed as a first-level screening for suspected celiac disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0058_9680", "title": "[Heart involvement in anorexia nervosa: an electrocardiographic, functional and morphological study].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Mental anorexia (MA) is the most frequent condition of malnutrition in industrialized countries. Sudden death in MA is not infrequent. Furthermore, the role of nutritional state as an important determinant of myocardial function is known. Cardiovascular function was studied in 9 patients with MA. Blood electrolytes and thyroid function were assessed, basal and dynamic ECG, chest roentgenogram, M-mode echocardiography, ergometric test, cardiac output measurement and, in two cases, magnetic nuclear resonance (MNR) were performed. Our data confirm the ECG changes which were preeminent in the clinical context, as predictors of possible major, life-threatening arrhythmic events. The correct QT interval was normal in all patients. In 4 cases with heart rate less than 40 b/min, Holter ECG showed ventricular and atrial extrasystolic beats. In one case S-A blocks with idioventricular substitutive beats were recorded; the normal performance under maximal strain stands for a normal functional reserve. Blood electrolytes were in the normal range. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis can be considered as a cocausal factor by means of autonomic nervous system modulations. Echocardiography revealed only a mild reduction of ventricular wall thickness. Scattered degenerative myocardial involvement as shown by MNR imaging, could be the anatomical counterpart of a clinically emerging cardiomyopathy with potentially severe arrhythmias." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_11514", "title": "[Thyroid dysfunction in women with suspected fibromyalgia].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Due to its prevalence, morbidity, and frequency rate, fibromyalgia (FM) represents a health problem and produces high healthcare resource utilization. Serum thyrotropin (TSH) measurement is recommended as a first-line laboratory test to exclude hypothyroidism as a cause of FM syndrome. The aim of this study was to analyze the prevalence of thyroid dysfunction (TD), the frequency of TSH measurement, the effect of levothyroxine treatment, and whether screening for TD is justified in women with suspected FM. A cross-sectional descriptive study was performed in 400 consecutive female outpatients with suspected FM and in 384 controls from January 2001 to October 2004. TSH measurement was used as the first line test to detect TD. The prevalence of TD in patients with suspected FM (40/400; 10%; 95% CI: 7-13%) and controls was similar (46/384; 12%; 95% CI: 9-15%). No differences were found in the types and grades of TD. The prevalence of TD was higher in patients with suspected FM and connective tissue diseases (12%) than in those without these diseases (5%). The most frequent TD was subclinical hypothyroidism (5.5% in suspected FM and 6.7% in controls), and in 93% of these cases TSH concentrations were &lt;10 mIU/L. FM persisted in all women with hypothyroidism even after euthyroidism was achieved with levothyroxine. A total of 870 TSH determinations were performed in 360 euthyroid patients with suspected FM. The prevalence of TD in women with suspected FM does not differ from that in the general population. Screening for TD does not appear to be justified in women without diseases that increase their risk. In many cases the request for thyroid function tests is excessive. Treatment for hypothyroidism does not affect FM." }, { "id": "article-68503_9", "title": "Pituitary Hyperplasia in Primary Hypothyroidism -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The physical examination needs to include a head-to-toe approach. Starting with the head, inspect for typical facies such as a \"peaches and cream\" complexion or loss of the lateral third of the eyebrow in those with hypothyroidism. A comprehensive eye examination should be performed, inspecting for periorbital edema, including testing visual fields and performing fundoscopy. Neck examination should include examining the thyroid for goiter or palpable nodules. Examining the extremities should include looking for dry skin, nail changes such as onycholysis or brittle nails, proximal muscle weakness, and checking reflexes that can show a delayed relaxation in patients with hypothyroidism. Moving on to the chest, the clinician should evaluate for breast discharge, check the pulse for an irregularly irregular rhythm suggestive of atrial fibrillation, or bradycardia in severe hypothyroidism, evaluate for a very soft or inaudible heart sounds that may suggest the presence of a pericardial effusion and finally check for reduced breath sounds at the lung base with dullness to percussion that may suggest the presence of a pleural effusion. For children specifically, the clinician should include the height and weight growth charts, calculation of body mass index (BMI), and Tanner classification." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0765_15911", "title": "Diagnostic utility of coeliac disease: a descriptive study in a tertiary care hospital, oman.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The prevalence of coeliac disease in Oman is unknown. We aim to estimate the prevalence of coeliac disease in at-risk subjects, describe the clinical characteristics and laboratory findings associated with coeliac disease and the validity of serological testing for coeliac disease at the Royal Hospital, Oman over a period of three years. This is a retrospective case finding study. The medical and laboratory records were reviewed for patients for whom serum antiendomysium IgA antibodies were requested at the Royal Hospital during a 3-year period (1(st) Jan 2006-31(st) Dec 2008). The data were extracted in order to assess the following: a) Prevalence rate of coeliac disease among at-risk subjects; b) Clinical characteristics in patients with coeliac disease and clinical manifestations for which the requesting clinicians considered coeliac disease as a possible diagnosis, including their specialties; c) Laboratory tests results in patients with coeliac disease; and d) Validity of antiendomysium antibodies testing in comparison with histopathology of jejunal biopsies for diagnosing coeliac disease. The study included 431 patients (250 females, 181 males) who were suspected of having (or screened for) coeliac disease. The median of age was 15 years (range: 9 months-74 years) with mean ± SD 18.95 ± 14.1 years. Of these, 15 (3.5%) patients (10 females, 5 males) with a median age of 19 years and mean 21.4 ± 13.0 years (range: 2.5-38 years), had positive antiendomysium antibodies results with median (range) of 160 (40-320) IU/L and mean± SD 204.5 ± 160 IU/L. Of these 15 patients, 13 had positive jejunal histopathological changes indicative of coeliac disease; the remaining 2 patients had no biopsy examination. Of the 44 patients with negative antiendomysium antibodies &lt;10 IU/L who had jejunal biopsy, 41 were negative and 3 had histopathological changes suggestive of mild coeliac disease. All the 3 patients had serum total IgA levels within the reference range. The calculated validity indicators for antiendomysium antibodies were: sensitivity 81.3%, specificity 100%, positive predictive value 100%, negative predictive value 93.2% and efficiency 94.7%. The most common mode of presentation in patients with coeliac disease was gastrointestinal features, type 1 diabetes mellitus, anemia, short stature and hypothyroidism. The seropositivity in tye 1 diabetics was 4.9%. Investigations for coeliac disease were most frequently made by endocrinologists (pediatric and adult) who accounted for 53.8% followed by gastroenterologists (pediatric and adult) with 40.6% with less consideration by the other clinicians (5.6%). The availability of highly specific and sensitive serological test and increased awareness for coeliac disease among some medical specialties has increased the number of diagnosed cases of coeliac disease. The requesting for serological test is being made mainly by endocrinologists and gastroenterologists." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en049_15548", "title": "Failure to thrive", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Based on the information gained from the history and physical examination, a workup can then be conducted, in which possible sources of FTT can be further probed through blood work, x-rays, or other tests. Laboratory workup should be done in response to specific history and physical examination findings. Medical providers should take care not to order unnecessary tests, especially given estimates that the usefulness of laboratory investigations for children with failure to thrive is 1.4%. Initial bloodwork may include a complete blood count (CBC) with differential to see if there are abnormalities in the number of blood cells, a complete metabolic panel to look for electrolyte derangements, a thyroid function test to assess thyroid hormone activity, and a urinalysis to test for infections or diseases related to the kidneys or urinary tract. If indicated, anti-TTG IgA antibodies can be used to assess for celiac disease, and a sweat chloride test can be used to screen for cystic" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0756_20485", "title": "Liver failure unmasks celiac disease in a child.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Liver involvement in celiac disease (CD) varies from asymptomatic mild non-specific hepatitis to liver failure. Here we report the first child with liver failure due to a sclerosing cholangitis associated with CD. An 11 year old girl presented with fatigability for 1 year and jaundice and abdominal distension for 3 weeks. On examination, the growth parameters were below 3rd percentile; she had splenomegaly and severe ascites. Liver function tests revealed elevated liver enzymes (ALT 84 U/L, total bilirubin 98.7 μmol/L, and direct 58.3 μmol/L, gamma-glutamyltransferase 111 U/L, INR 2.7, and albumin 16 g/L). Extensive investigations excluded infectious, metabolic, structural, and endocrine causes of chronic liver disease. Because of the short stature and anemia, CD was suspected, and serological evaluation revealed increased IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminase (385 units; normal, 0-20 units). Histopathological examination of small intestinal biopsies showed total villous atrophy consistent with celiac disease. Liver biopsy showed bridging fibrosis, portal tract expansion by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and neutrophils, bile ductular proliferation, and periductular fibrosis. Magnetic resonance cholangiography revealed beading and narrowing appearance of intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts. The histopathological and imaging findings are diagnostic of sclerosing cholangitis. The child was initiated on ursodeoxycholic acid, gluten free diet for life, and steroid that was tapered over 3 months. At 3 month follow up, liver function tests completely normalized. CD is a potentially treatable cause of liver failure. All patients with severe unexplained liver disease should undergo serological screening for CD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0510_12452", "title": "[Diagnosis of thyreopatic diseases by laboratory examinations--possibility for rational economy].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "This paper is oriented on the possibility of racional economy of laboratory diagnostical process of thyreopathies. The study was based on analysis of 29,683 examinations made at biochemical department in hospital Trencín. The overuse--mostly of antibodies and also, but less of thyreoidal hormones was discovered, mostly in the group of physicians in general practise and less in hospital and internal practise. The absence of initial algoritmus in thyreoidology is documented. The followed approach was formulated as new proposal: the first step is the examination of TSH (by ultrasensitive method) with possibility for all groups of physicians. Clinical and biochemical department should have responsibility to add fT4 in the case of pathological TSH. The endokerinologist should have responsibility for all other thyreoidal examinations, but in reasonable case also the internists in ambulatory and hospital care, and other relevant hospital physicians could order these examinations. Probability of cost saving was about 34% of expanditures on thyreoidology. To make the recount for Slovak republic the saving cost could be about 42,500,000 Sk." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en166_43252", "title": "Gluten-related disorders", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Diagnosis A literature review of 2014 found that non-coeliac gluten sensitivity diagnosis can be reached only by excluding celiac disease (CD) and wheat allergy. Persons suspected of having celiac disease may undergo serological testing for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (abbreviated anti-tTG antibodies or anti-TG2 antibodies) and anti-endomysial antibodies (abbreviated EMA) provided the IgA-level is high, and if IgA is low, testing for certain IgG antibodies; in case of positive serological indication, a duodenal biopsy may confirm active celiac disease." }, { "id": "article-23304_15", "title": "Hypothyroidism -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A careful physical examination may reveal some clues since the signs of hypothyroidism are very subtle. Physical examination may be significant for the following: Enlarged thyroid gland Weight gain The slowness of speech and movements Dry skin Coarse and brittle hair Pallor and jaundice Dull facial expressions Macroglossia Bradycardia Pericardial effusion Prolonged ankle reflex relaxation time [2] However, most of the patients have normal thyroid examinations." }, { "id": "article-21591_25", "title": "Failure to Thrive -- Evaluation", "score": 0.008967391304347826, "content": "In patients who are ill-appearing, have severe weight loss or other red flags suggesting underlying organic medical conditions, have not gained weight with initial dietary interventions, or in patients where follow-up cannot be ensured, an initial laboratory evaluation is warranted. [17] If not done previously, observing a feed and formula preparation, if applicable, is a helpful assessment in younger infants. Laboratory evaluation should screen for the most likely organic causes based on the patient's history and physical examination. Results may guide the clinician to more specific tests if needed. Initial labs include a complete blood count (CBC) to assess for anemia, an iron panel because the most common type of anemia in this age group is iron deficiency, and a metabolic panel to assess electrolyte and hydration status and liver and kidney function. If there is a concern for severe malnutrition and risk of refeeding syndrome, the metabolic panel should include a baseline phosphorus and magnesium level in addition to the standard electrolytes included on the basic metabolic panel. [24] An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can be useful to identify nonspecific underlying inflammation. [5] Assessing thyroid function with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 should be considered. Ensure a normal newborn metabolic screen is documented; if not, sending one can provide clues to less common organic causes of FTT, such as inborn errors of metabolism. A urinalysis and urine culture help assess for kidney diseases and screen for a common chronic infection. If there is a prominent history of abnormal stool patterns or blood/mucus in the stool, obtain stool studies including culture, guaiac, fecal calprotectin, and reducing substances. A celiac panel including tissue transglutaminase immunoglobulin A (IgA) and total IgA may also be helpful if the patient is experiencing gastrointestinal symptoms. [5] Low prealbumin can be a marker of more severe malnutrition, although consensus on its clinical utility remains lacking. [25] Pending results of the first set of basic labs, more specific labs may be indicated, such as a chloride sweat test, pancreatic function testing, or other metabolic-specific testing such as an ammonia level. While imaging is not routinely indicated initially, a chest radiograph, ECG, abdominal radiograph, and an upper GI series may be useful if the patient has a positive review of systems. In consultation with pediatric subspecialists, endoscopy or echocardiography may be warranted if other findings are concerning for underlying disease within these body systems. [4]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0004_8321", "title": "Neonatal hypothyroidism detected by the Northwest Regional Screening Program.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The Northwest Regional Screening Program to detect congenital hypothyroidism in infants born in Oregon, Montana, Alaska, and Idaho (combined birthrate of 69,000/ yr) was added to our ongoing screening program in 1975. The program utilizes dried blood filter paper specimens collected routinely in the first few days of life in all four states and again at about 6 weeks of age in Oregon only. The screening test consist of an initial thyroxine (T4) measurement; a thyroid-stimulating hormore (TSH) determination is performed on those specimens with T4 concentrations in the lowest 3% group. Serum samples obtained by venipuncture are requested for confirmation of the diagnosis. In the first two years of the program, 25 infants with primary hypothyroidism were detected amont 110,667 infants screened, a frequency of 1:4,430. Fourteen cases of thyroxine-binding globulin deficiency were also detected, a frequency of 1:7,900. Using the T4 followed by TSH testing approach, the frequency of request for repeat specimens was 0.4% in Oregon and 0.05% in the other states. The cost per specimen was $1.96. The majority of infants lacked clinical signs or symptoms of hypothyroidism; only one infant was clinically suspected of having hypothyroidism prior to detection. The most common neonatal symptoms were constipation, lethargy, and prolonged jaundice, while the most common physical signs were hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and large fontanels. Thyroid scans showed the most common etiology to be thyroid aplasia, followed by an ectopic gland, hypoplasia, and goiter. Serum T4 concentrations were lowest in those infants with aplasia, intermediate in infants with an ectopic gland or hypoplasia, and normal in the infant with the goiter. Neonatal hypothyroidism varies in degree and has several different causes; the capacity to secrete thyroid hormone, the duration before hypothyroidism becomes clinically manifest, and possibly the eventual prognosis for intellectual function depend on the nature of the underlying cause. While the mean age at treatment was 59 days, the goal of diagnosing congenital hypothyroidism and treating affected infants by 1 month of age seems realistic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0281_16348", "title": "[Involuntary weight loss].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Involuntary weight loss is a clinical situation with unknown incidence, significance and prognosis. We present a retrospective study of 68 patients hospitalized due to involuntary weight loss. The most frequent individual cause was neoplasia; however, globally, non-neoplastic causes were most frequent. None of the symptoms was significantly associated to the diagnosis of a neoplastic or non-neoplastic disease. The mean age of the patients with neoplasia (71.36 +/- 17.19) differed from the mean age of the patients without neoplasia (63.39 +/- 17.19 years) (p &lt; 0.05). The patients with neoplastic and infectious diseases needed a higher number of analysis than the other patients, being the most valuable data the presence of anemia, cholestasis and determination of thyroid hormones. The most useful evaluations were clinical and endoscopical assessments, thoracic radiography and abdominal echography." }, { "id": "article-30167_30", "title": "Thyrotoxicosis -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Most patients will present with symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, weight loss, diaphoresis, heat intolerance. These patients are generally stable for outpatient workup for the underlying etiology.  A careful history and physical exam can aid in the diagnosis, but further laboratory studies and imaging is often warranted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0992_1056", "title": "Justification of whole-body CT in polytrauma patients, can clinical examination help selecting patients?", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Whole-body computed tomography (WBCT) is used indiscriminately in trauma cases, just on the suspicion of them being polytrauma cases. A good clinical examination done pre-emptively could prevent the need for this investigation and its undesirous effects. We did this study with an overall aim to assess, if WBCT can be limited to subgroup of trauma patients without compromising clinical safety. Retrospective database analysis of 150 cases of polytrauma who underwent WBCT in 2017 was performed. We recorded age, gender, radiation dose and CT findings in all cases and calculated mean age, number of total patients and female patients less than 25 years of age, number of normal WBCT scans, mean radiation dose in the normal and total scans. We also compared pre-test clinical requests with whole-body CT findings, and categorised them in following seven categories: Category 1-Normal Scans; Category 2-Clinically expected Major Injuries; Category 3-Clinically expected Minor Injuries (low risk injuries with no risk of morbidity or mortality if remained undiagnosed), Category 4-Clinically expected CT findings with unexpected Minor (non-serious) injuries; Category 5-Clinically expected CT findings with unexpected Major (serious) injuries, Category 6-Unexpected Minor (non-serious) injuries; Category 7-Unexpected Major (serious) injuries. Categories 2 &amp;3 of clinically expected major and minor injuries included patients with fewer injuries than expected. On the other hand, Category 4 &amp; 5 consist of clinically expected findings with other unexpected injuries, including minor and major injuries respectively. Body injuries were reported in seven areas as per our institutional reporting protocol- Head (including face), Cervical Spine, Thoracolumbar Spine, Chest, Abdomen, Pelvis and Appendicular Skeleton (if asked for). Overall, we found statistically significant correlation between clinical suspicion raised and WBCT findings with good clinical correlation noticed in 106 (70.66%) cases (including 61 cases of clinically suspected major injuries, 15 cases of clinically suspected minor injuries and 25 nearly normal scans with no obvious clinical concern). Isolated unexpected serious injury without any clinical suspicion was seen in only 1 case. Surprisingly, 25 scan requests were made due to high risk mechanism of injury with no obvious clinical concern and were found normal in 20 cases and showed very subtle injuries in 5. Notably, 30 cases of expected major and minor injuries showed highly accurate clinical findings with no injury other than the region of concern and in these cases, limited scan requests would have been sufficient. Mean radiation dose of the entire study group was 22.45 mSv and those to normal patients was 21.19 mSv. This study re-emphasizes the significance of good clinical examination in the era of evidence based medicine, which would reduce the high number of unnecessary high dose WBCT (25 scans with no positive findings on clinical examination were nearly normal and in 30 cases limited CT would have been sufficient), thereby, decreasing radiation exposure and its potential side effects on polytrauma patients without affecting their survival." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 22, 153 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 2, 23 ] ], "text": "This is hypertension that is detected before pregnancy or before the 20th week of pregnancy and/or persists at 12 weeks postpartum." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Moderate pre-eclampsia.", "2": "Pregnancy-induced hypertension.", "3": "Chronic hypertension.", "4": "Eclampsia.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20969", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.018447998646018447, "content": "Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension occurs when a pregnant woman with chronic hypertension develops signs of pre-eclampsia, typically defined as new onset of proteinuria ≥30 mg/dL (1+ in the dipstick) in at least 2 random urine specimens that were collected ≥4 h apart (but within a 7-day interval) or 0.3 g in a 24-h period. Like ordinary pre-eclampsia, superimposed pre-eclampsia can also occur with severe features, which are defined as: systolic blood pressure ≥160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mmHg despite escalation of antihypertensive therapy; thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/microL); impaired liver function; new-onset or worsening renal insufficiency; pulmonary edema; or persistent cerebral or visual disturbances. As a result, superimposed pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed without proteinuria when a sudden increase in previously well-controlled blood pressure is accompanied by severe features of pre-eclampsia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_87777", "title": "Eclampsia", "score": 0.01730769230769231, "content": "Vital signs One of the core features of pre-eclampsia is high blood pressure. Blood pressure is a measurement of two numbers. If either the top number (systolic blood pressure) is greater than 140 mmHg or the bottom number (diastolic blood pressure) is greater than 90 mmHg, then the blood pressure is higher than the normal range and the person has high blood pressure. If the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 or the diastolic pressure is greater than 110, the hypertension is considered to be severe. Laboratory testing Another core feature of pre-eclampsia is proteinuria, which is the presence of excess protein in the urine. To determine if proteinuria is present, the urine can be collected and tested for protein; if there is 0.3 grams of protein or more in the urine of a pregnant woman collected over 24 hours, this is one of the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia and raises the suspicion that a seizure is due to eclampsia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0937_14908", "title": "Home blood-pressure monitoring in a hypertensive pregnant population.", "score": 0.01665774685576666, "content": "The majority of patients with chronic or gestational hypertension do not develop pre-eclampsia. Home blood-pressure monitoring (HBPM) has the potential to offer a more accurate and acceptable means of monitoring hypertensive patients during pregnancy compared with traditional pathways of frequent outpatient monitoring. The aim of this study was to determine whether HBPM reduces visits to antenatal services and is safe in pregnancy. This was a case-control study of 166 hypertensive pregnant women, which took place at St George's Hospital, University of London. Inclusion criteria were: chronic hypertension, gestational hypertension or high risk of developing pre-eclampsia, no significant proteinuria (≤ 1+ proteinuria on dipstick testing) and normal biochemical and hematological markers. Exclusion criteria were maternal age &lt; 16 years, systolic blood pressure &gt; 155 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure &gt; 100 mmHg, significant proteinuria (≥ 2+ proteinuria on dipstick testing or protein/creatinine ratio &gt; 30 mg/mmol), evidence of small-for-gestational age (estimated fetal weight &lt; 10<supth</sup centile), signs of severe pre-eclampsia, significant mental health concerns or insufficient understanding of the English language. Pregnant women in the HBPM group were taught how to measure and record their blood pressure using a validated machine at home and attended every 1-2 weeks for assessment depending on clinical need. The control group was managed as per the local protocol prior to the implementation of HBPM. The two groups were compared with respect to number of visits to antenatal services and outcome. There were 108 women in the HBPM group and 58 in the control group. There was no difference in maternal age, parity, body mass index, ethnicity or smoking status between the groups, but there were more women with chronic hypertension in the HBPM group compared with the control group (49.1% vs 25.9%, P = 0.004). The HBPM group had significantly fewer outpatient attendances per patient (6.5 vs 8.0, P = 0.003) and this difference persisted when taking into account differences in duration of monitoring (0.8 vs 1.6 attendances per week, P &lt; 0.001). There was no difference in the incidence of adverse maternal, fetal or neonatal outcome between the two groups. HBPM in hypertensive pregnancies has the potential to reduce the number of hospital visits required by patients without compromising maternal and pregnancy outcomes. Copyright © 2018 ISUOG. Published by John Wiley &amp; Sons Ltd." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_22842", "title": "Gestational hypertension", "score": 0.016133035492678083, "content": "Diagnosis Conditions There exist several hypertensive states of pregnancy: Gestational hypertension Gestational hypertension is usually defined as having a blood pressure higher than 140/90 measured on two separate occasions, more than 6 hours apart, without the presence of protein in the urine and diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation. Pre-eclampsia Pre-eclampsia is gestational hypertension plus proteinuria (>300 mg of protein in a 24-hour urine sample). Severe pre-eclampsia involves a blood pressure greater than 160/110, with additional medical signs and symptoms. HELLP syndrome is a type of pre-eclampsia. It is a combination of three medical conditions: hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes and low platelet count. Eclampsia This is when tonic-clonic seizures appear in a pregnant woman with high blood pressure and proteinuria. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia are sometimes treated as components of a common syndrome. Treatment" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_22840", "title": "Gestational hypertension", "score": 0.014780577001219016, "content": "Gestational hypertension or pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is the development of new hypertension in a pregnant woman after 20 weeks' gestation without the presence of protein in the urine or other signs of pre-eclampsia. Gestational hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure greater than 140/90 on two occasions at least 6 hours apart. Signs and symptoms No single diagnostic test currently exists to predict the likelihood of developing gestational hypertension. High blood pressure is the major sign in diagnosing gestational hypertension. Some women with gestational hypertension may present asymptomatic, but a number of symptoms are associated with the condition. Symptoms Edema Sudden weight gain Blurred vision or sensitivity to light Nausea and vomiting Persistent headaches Increased blood pressure" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69073", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.014359900654775343, "content": "Immune factors may also play a role. Diagnosis Testing for pre-eclampsia is recommended throughout pregnancy via measuring a woman's blood pressure. Diagnostic criteria Pre-eclampsia is diagnosed when a pregnant woman develops: Blood pressure ≥140 mmHg systolic or ≥90 mmHg diastolic on two separate readings taken at least four to six hours apart after 20 weeks' gestation in an individual with previously normal blood pressure. In a woman with essential hypertension beginning before 20 weeks' gestational age, the diagnostic criteria are an increase in systolic blood pressure (SBP) of ≥30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure (DBP) of ≥15 mmHg. Proteinuria ≥ or more of protein in a 24-hour urine sample or a SPOT urinary protein to creatinine ratio ≥0.3 or a urine dipstick reading of 1+ or greater (dipstick reading should only be used if other quantitative methods are not available)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20965", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.014185367633643496, "content": "Preeclampsia can also be diagnosed if a woman has both increased blood pressure and 1 or more signs of significant organ damage. Signs of significant organ damage include: Severely elevated blood pressure (blood pressure > 160/110) Thrombocytopenia Increased or rapidly elevating levels of creatinine in the blood Increased liver enzymes Pulmonary edema New or persistent headaches that do not respond to pain medication Blurred or altered vision If a woman with preeclampsia has any of these signs of significant organ damage, then her condition is classified as preeclampsia with severe features. This diagnosis can be made even if the patient does not have proteinuria. Women with preeclampsia with severe features are encouraged to deliver the child after 34 weeks of gestation to minimize the risks of the severe complications. Preeclampsia can also present with seizures in the pregnant mother. In this case, the patient would be diagnosed with eclampsia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1077_9235", "title": "Transient gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia: Two case reports and literature review on the need for stringent monitoring.", "score": 0.01412512218963832, "content": "Transient gestation hypertension is a contributor to adverse pregnancy outcomes particularly when it progresses to pre-eclampsia (PE). This requires frequent monitoring. We illustrate the need for stringent monitoring of gestational hypertension, transient gestational hypertension (TGH) and PE without severe features and conducted a brief rapid review of the literature. Two cases are presented: Firstly, a 25-year-old primigravida at 30 gestational weeks who had an isolated TGH with high blood pressure (BP) of 141/87 mmHg, which was not investigated. Four weeks later, she presented with a BP of 202/128 mmHg, imminent eclampsia and intrauterine foetal death and had an uncomplicated induction of labour and delivered a 1400 g macerated male stillborn. Secondly, a 30-year-old primigravida at 30 gestational weeks who developed PE but her monitoring was compromised initially by inadequate healthcare capacity including unavailability of hospital bed-space for inpatient care and later by poor clinic attendance as a result of poor finances. At 32 gestational weeks, she presented with decreased foetal movement and was diagnosed as haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome and intrauterine foetal death. She was stabilised, had induction of labour and delivered a 1400 g male macerated stillborn. Thereafter, the need for her to go home to complete the cultural burial rites of her baby and the pressure from her workplace resulted in an inadequate postpartum follow-up care. In conclusion, transient gestational hypertension is associated with adverse maternal and foetal outcomes, including foetal demise. Unavailability of hospital bed-space and poor personal finances interfere with stringent monitoring of hypertensive disorders and can be associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes. Stringent laboratory monitoring in these cases is defined by the authors as testing at least blood levels of serum Creatinine, Haemoglobin concentration, Alanine transaminase and Platelet count (abbreviated as 'CHAP') weekly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_9078", "title": "[Atypical preeclampsia and perinatal success: a case report].", "score": 0.01332921392946992, "content": "Preeclampsia is a multi systemic syndrome of variable severity, pregnancy specific, consequence of an abnormal vascular response to placentation, with increase in peripheral vascular resistance, stimulation of platelet aggregation, activation of the coagulation cascade, and endothelial dysfunction. In the majority of cases, it will present with gestational hypertension and proteinuria, after 20 weeks, nevertheless, in other cases, it has presented as an atypical form (with absence of hypertension and/or proteinuria) behaving like severe preeclampsia. We report the case of a patient, 32 year old primigravida, with a 26.6 weeks gestation, that comes to the office with postprandial projectile vomiting. At the time of admission, she presents with sudden headache, phosphenes, and tinnitus, associated to epigastric pain, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; fetal heart rate of 146 bpm, normal lower limbs and reflexes. The Complete Blood Count and liver function tests are within normal values, urinalysis with proteinuria. Normal hepatic ultrasound. Obstetric ultrasound; with fetal measurements of 2.6 weeks below, with flattening of the growth curve, Doppler flowmetry with an increase in placental resistance and oligohydramnios. Given the clinical manifestations compatible with severe preeclampsia, magnesium sulfate, and antenatal corticosteroid therapy are initiated, and abdominal termination of pregnancy is decided. A female newborn is obtained, of 595 g, Apgar 4/7. On immediate puerperium, she presents with an increase in blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, discharged with normal blood pressure 96 hours later. The newborn girl was discharged when she reached a weight of 2000 g. Today, she is neurologically unimpaired." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20964", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.013069908814589666, "content": "Because chronic hypertension can progress to more severe forms of disease, it is important to accurately diagnose the condition early, ideally prior to pregnancy, and initiate management to control parental blood pressure. This is often difficult, as many reproductive individuals may not regularly visit the doctor and, when pregnant, may initially present for prenatal care in the second trimester. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia Preeclampsia is a medical condition which usually develops after 20 weeks of gestation and traditionally involves both newly increased blood pressure (blood pressure > 140/90 mmHg) and proteinuria. Preeclampsia is a leading cause of fetal complications, which include low birth weight, preterm birth, and stillbirth. Women with preeclampsia are encouraged to deliver the child after 37 weeks of gestation to minimize the risks of the severe complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_5196", "title": "Does a predisposition to the metabolic syndrome sensitize women to develop pre-eclampsia?", "score": 0.012928194993412384, "content": "This study aimed to identify those factors in the non-pregnant state that distinguished women who developed pre-eclampsia from those who had normotensive pregnancies. This was a retrospective analysis of anthropometry, blood pressure, biochemical and haematological variables in 62 women with pre-eclampsia and 84 normotensive pregnant women who took part in studies of the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia. Pregnant volunteers were seen, after admission to hospital or in the outpatient clinic, and followed-up at 6 weeks and 6 months post-partum in the outpatient clinic or their home. Participants Proteinuric pre-eclampsia was defined as blood pressure &gt; or = 140/90 mmHg with proteinuria of at least 300 mg/24 h after 20 weeks gestation, in women with no history of hypertension and whose blood pressure returned to normal levels by 6 months post-partum. Normotensive pregnancy was defined as blood pressure &lt; 130/90 mmHg without proteinuria. The primary outcome measures were blood pressure, body mass index (BMI), triglycerides, total cholesterol, low density lipoprotein (LDL) and high density lipoprotein cholesterol and markers of severity of pre-eclampsia. Regardless of parity, women with pre-eclampsia had elevated BMI before, during and after pregnancy compared with women who had normotensive pregnancies. Triglycerides were significantly elevated in women who had pre-eclampsia both before and after delivery, while total and LDL cholesterol were elevated significantly at both visits after delivery. Systolic and diastolic blood pressure, which by definition were elevated antepartum in women with pre-eclampsia, remained higher at post-partum visits compared with women who had normotensive pregnancies. Women with pre-eclampsia reported a greatly increased frequency of both maternal hypertension and pre-eclampsia. Markers of severity of pre-eclampsia, which normalized by 6 months postpartum, included plasma creatinine, uric acid, albumin, endothelin 1 and urinary protein, 2,3, dinor-6-keto-PGF1alpha, blood platelet and neutrophil counts. The relative elevation of blood pressure, BMI and lipids in the non-pregnant state are features of the metabolic syndrome and may be important sensitizing factors contributing to the pathogenesis of pre-eclampsia. A familial predisposition to pre-eclampsia may operate partly through these mechanisms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69074", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.012650427722198057, "content": "Suspicion for pre-eclampsia should be maintained in any pregnancy complicated by elevated blood pressure, even in the absence of proteinuria. Ten percent of individuals with other signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia and 20% of individuals diagnosed with eclampsia show no evidence of proteinuria. In the absence of proteinuria, the presence of new-onset hypertension (elevated blood pressure) and the new onset of one or more of the following is suggestive of the diagnosis of pre-eclampsia: Evidence of kidney dysfunction (oliguria, elevated creatinine levels) Impaired liver function (noted by liver function tests) Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/microliter) Pulmonary edema Ankle edema (pitting type) Cerebral or visual disturbances" }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_4871", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.01238974601020679, "content": "C, FIGURE 40-1 Schematic shows normal reference ranges for mean arterial blood pressure changes across pregnancy. Patient A (blue) has mean blood pressures near the 20th percentile throughout pregnancy. Patient B (red) has a similar pattern with mean pressures at the 25th percentile until approximately 36 weeks when her blood pressure begins to rise. By term, it is substantively higher and in the 75th percentile, but she is still considered \"normotensive.\" 25th percentile until 32 weeks. These begin to rise in patient B, who by term has substantively higher blood pressures. However, her pressures are still < 140/90 mm Hg, and thus she is considered to be \"normotensive.\" We use the term delta hypertension to describe this rather acute rise in blood pressure. Some of these women will go on to have obvious preeclampsia, and some even develop eclamptic seizures or HELLP (hemolysis, devatedliver enzyme levels, low 2latelet count) syndrome while still normotensive." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_43551", "title": "Hypertensive emergency", "score": 0.012299291777044925, "content": "Diagnosis The term hypertensive emergency is primarily used as a specific term for a hypertensive crisis with a diastolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 120 mmHg or systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 180 mmHg. Hypertensive emergency differs from hypertensive urgency in that, in the former, there is evidence of acute organ damage. Both of these definitions had collectively been known as malignant hypertension, although this medical term is replaced. In the pregnant patient, the definition of hypertensive emergency (likely secondary to pre-eclampsia or eclampsia) is only a blood pressure exceeding 160 mmHg systolic blood pressure or 110 mmHg diastolic blood pressure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20960", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.012264365205541677, "content": "Risks Some women have a greater risk of developing hypertension during pregnancy. These are: Women with chronic hypertension (high blood pressure before becoming pregnant). Women who developed high blood pressure or preeclampsia during a previous pregnancy, especially if these conditions occurred early in the pregnancy. Women who are obese prior to pregnancy. Pregnant women under the age of 20 or over the age of 40. Women who are pregnant with more than one baby. Women with diabetes, kidney disease, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or scleroderma. Diagnosis There is no single test to predict or diagnose preeclampsia. Key signs are increased blood pressure and protein in the urine (proteinuria). Other symptoms that seem to occur with preeclampsia include persistent headaches, blurred vision or sensitivity to light, and abdominal pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69045", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.012260731679691925, "content": "Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include obesity, prior hypertension, older age, and diabetes mellitus. It is also more frequent in a woman's first pregnancy and if she is carrying twins. The underlying mechanism involves abnormal formation of blood vessels in the placenta amongst other factors. Most cases are diagnosed before delivery. Commonly, pre-eclampsia continues into the period after delivery, then known as postpartum pre-eclampsia. Rarely, pre-eclampsia may begin in the period after delivery. While historically both high blood pressure and protein in the urine were required to make the diagnosis, some definitions also include those with hypertension and any associated organ dysfunction. Blood pressure is defined as high when it is greater than 140 mmHg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic at two separate times, more than four hours apart in a woman after twenty weeks of pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia is routinely screened for during prenatal care." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20961", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.01218078505649533, "content": "All of these sensations can be caused by other disorders; they can also occur in healthy pregnancies. Regular visits are scheduled to track blood pressure and level of protein in urine, to order and analyze blood tests that detect signs of preeclampsia, and to monitor fetal development more closely. Classification A classification of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy uses 4 categories as recommended by the U.S. National High Blood Pressure Education Program Working Group on High Blood Pressure in Pregnancy: Chronic hypertension; Preeclampsia-eclampsia; Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension; Gestational hypertension (transient hypertension of pregnancy or chronic hypertension identified in the latter half of pregnancy)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0296_2925", "title": "Hypertension in pregnancy: maternal and fetal outcomes according to laboratory and clinical features.", "score": 0.012125220458553791, "content": "To determine the predictive value of clinical and laboratory parameters for maternal and fetal complications in pregnant women with hypertension. Prospective data collection. Two primary referral hospitals in the southern suburbs of Sydney between March 1987 and July 1994. 1183 pregnant women with hypertension managed conjointly by a physician and obstetrician. Uniform management protocol, plus antihypertensive medications if systolic blood pressure was persistently &gt; or = 160 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure &gt; or = 90 mmHg. Maternal and fetal complications, as defined by the Australasian Society for the Study of Hypertension in Pregnancy Consensus Statement. Of 825 women with pre-eclampsia (502 mild; 323 severe), univariate analysis showed that hyperuricaemia, proteinuria and severe hypertension were significantly associated with a higher rate of maternal and fetal complications. In multivariate analyses without confounders, only primiparity, low serum albumin levels and absence of diabetes were significantly associated with severe pre-eclampsia. Severe pre-eclampsia, high haemoglobin levels and low platelet count were associated with higher rates of small-for-gestational-age babies, but only low serum albumin levels were associated with increased perinatal mortality rates. Low birthweight was associated with severe hypertension and severe pre-eclampsia. Simple clinical and laboratory parameters are useful predictors for maternal and fetal outcomes in pregnancies complicated by hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69075", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.01211522633744856, "content": "Pre-eclampsia is a progressive disorder and these signs of organ dysfunction are indicative of severe pre-eclampsia. A systolic blood pressure ≥160 or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 and/or proteinuria >5g in a 24-hour period is also indicative of severe pre-eclampsia. Clinically, individuals with severe pre-eclampsia may also present epigastric/right upper quadrant abdominal pain, headaches, and vomiting. Severe pre-eclampsia is a significant risk factor for intrauterine fetal death. A rise in baseline blood pressure (BP) of 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic, while not meeting the absolute criteria of 140/90, is important to note but is not considered diagnostic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20963", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.012096310768877142, "content": "The diagnostic criteria for chronic hypertension are typically considered to be at least two separate blood pressure readings taken at least four hours apart with systolic blood pressure ≥ 140mmHg, diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg, or both, identified before pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or persisting at least 12 weeks after giving birth. However, there is some controversy over the utility of adopting lower thresholds for diagnosis of chronic hypertension, which is more consistent with recent recommendations from the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association for the diagnosis of hypertension in adults. Chronic hypertension in pregnancy is now considered mild if blood pressures do not exceed 159 mmHg systolic and 109 mmHg diastolic and severe if pressures are ≥ 160 mmHg systolic or 110 mmHg diastolic, although controversy also exists as to the most appropriate cutoffs for this definition." }, { "id": "article-23221_10", "title": "Hypertension In Pregnancy -- Evaluation", "score": 0.01206140350877193, "content": "The criteria for pre-eclampsia can also be met in the absence of proteinuria if one has new-onset hypertension with thrombocytopenia(platelets less than 100,000 x10(9)/L, renal insufficiency(double of baseline serum creatine or serum creatine >1.1mg/dL), pulmonary edema, impaired liver function (AST/ALT greater than twice upper limit of normal), or new-onset headache unresponsive to medications with no alternative cause.Pre-eclampsia can be superimposed with chronic hypertension, or as advancement along the spectrum of gestational hypertensive disease. Per ACOG guidelines, systolic blood pressure of greater than 160mmHg or diastolic blood pressure greater than 110mmHg on two separate readings 4 hours apart or any severe range pressure that requires antihypertensive medication which by treatment guidelines is severe pressures seperated by minutes(10-30 minutes). [15]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20970", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.011810916971420832, "content": "Gestational hypertension Gestational hypertension is a provisional diagnosis that involves newly increased blood pressure in a pregnant woman that usually develops after 20 weeks of gestation, but does not currently show any signs of proteinuria or other features associated with preeclampsia. Up to 50% of gestational hypertension patients go on to develop some form of preeclampsia. Gestational hypertension will normally resolve by 12 weeks postpartum. In this case, the diagnosis of gestational hypertension will be updated to be transient hypertension of pregnancy. If the increased blood pressure does not resolve by 12 weeks postpartum, then the diagnosis of gestational hypertension will be updated to be chronic hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155228", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.011765069169960474, "content": "Pregnancy Hypertension occurs in approximately 8–10% of pregnancies. Two blood pressure measurements six hours apart of greater than 140/90 mm Hg are diagnostic of hypertension in pregnancy. High blood pressure in pregnancy can be classified as pre-existing hypertension, gestational hypertension, or pre-eclampsia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20975", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.01146021699819168, "content": "There is limited evidence to suggest that calcium supplementation may reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia or stillbirth but it is unclear if it has other benefits. Prognosis The effects of high blood pressure during pregnancy vary depending on the disorder and other factors. Preeclampsia does not in general increase a woman's risk for developing chronic hypertension or other heart-related problems. Women with normal blood pressure who develop preeclampsia after the 20th week of their first pregnancy, short-term complications, including increased blood pressure, usually go away within about six weeks after delivery. Some women, however, may be more likely to develop high blood pressure or other heart disease later in life. More research is needed to determine the long-term health effects of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy and to develop better methods for identifying, diagnosing, and treating women at risk for these conditions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69079", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.011453996784070133, "content": "Differential diagnosis Pre-eclampsia can mimic and be confused with many other diseases, including chronic hypertension, chronic renal disease, primary seizure disorders, gallbladder and pancreatic disease, immune or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, antiphospholipid syndrome and hemolytic-uremic syndrome. It must be considered a possibility in any pregnant woman beyond 20 weeks of gestation. It is particularly difficult to diagnose when pre-existing conditions such as hypertension are present. Women with acute fatty liver of pregnancy may also present with elevated blood pressure and protein in the urine, but differ by the extent of liver damage. Other disorders that can cause high blood pressure include thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma, and drug misuse." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_9706", "title": "Hemodynamic measurements with Swan-Ganz catheter in women with severe proteinuric gestational hypertension (pre-eclampsia).", "score": 0.011392986282500142, "content": "Ten women with severe pre-eclampsia, i.e. a blood pressure greater than or equal to 150/110 mmHg or 140/90 mmHg and proteinuria greater than 3 g/24 h were, after initial antihypertensive treatment, centrally monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz). All had been normotensive in early pregnancy. Mean age was 29 years (range 23-37). Mean gestational age upon admission was 29 weeks (range 23-36) and 7 of the women were nulliparous. Nine of the 10 patients had subjective symptoms, e.g. headache and/or epigastric pain. All were considered in need of intensive care. Two patients were found to have an abnormal coagulation and liver function. All patients had normal serum creatinine values despite proteinuria. Hypertension was treated with dihydralazine and/or labetalol. Volume substitution was carried out with plasma and albumin. The women could be divided into two groups: 5 patients where progress of the disease despite therapy led to delivery within 24 h, and 5 patients whose diastolic blood pressure could be stabilized around 100 mmHg after treatment and pregnancy could be prolonged by 5-13 days. Common for all patients was a hyperkinetic circulation with an increased cardiac output despite a variety of central pressures. Invasive monitoring of central pressures with a Swan-Ganz catheter demonstrated that the clinical status could be stabilized and the pregnancy prolonged in 5 of the 10 women with severe pre-eclampsia. The variety of the central hemodynamic values illustrates clearly that treatment has to be individualized regarding antihypertensive medication, fluids and diuretics.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en533_5281", "title": "Maternal mortality in the United States", "score": 0.011300762083724814, "content": "Pre-eclampsia: at about 20 weeks until after delivery, pregnant women can have an increase in blood pressure which could indicate pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia involves the liver and kidneys not working properly which is indicated by protein in the urine as well as having hypertension. Pre-eclampsia can also become eclampsia, the mother seizes or is in a coma, which is rare but fatal. Due to this risk, blood pressure is closely monitored at every routine obstetric visit, and patients with increased blood pressure may be referred to a high-risk specialist." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20966", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.011167156690853181, "content": "Preeclampsia can also present with seizures in the pregnant mother. In this case, the patient would be diagnosed with eclampsia. There is no proven way to prevent preeclampsia/eclampsia. Most women who develop signs of preeclampsia, however, are closely monitored to lessen or avoid related problems. The only way to \"cure\" preeclampsia/eclampsia is to deliver or abort the baby. Eclampsia Eclampsia is one particularly concerning form of preeclampsia in which a pregnant woman who previously presented with signs of newly increased blood pressure begins to experience new generalized seizures or coma. Up to 70% of patients with eclampsia experience complications associated with pregnancy. These complications can include HELLP syndrome, acute kidney injury, and disseminated intravascular coagulation among others." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en107_1588", "title": "Hypertensive encephalopathy", "score": 0.011142322097378277, "content": "Hypertensive encephalopathy (HE) is general brain dysfunction due to significantly high blood pressure. Symptoms may include headache, vomiting, trouble with balance, and confusion. Onset is generally sudden. Complications can include seizures, posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome, and bleeding in the back of the eye. In hypertensive encephalopathy, generally the blood pressure is greater than 200/130 mmHg. Occasionally it can occur at a BP as low as 160/100 mmHg. This can occur in kidney failure, those who rapidly stop blood pressure medication, pheochromocytoma, and people on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) who eat foods with tyramine. When it occurs in pregnancy it is known as eclampsia. The diagnosis requires ruling out other possible causes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155229", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.011061507936507935, "content": "Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition of the second half of pregnancy and following delivery characterised by increased blood pressure and the presence of protein in the urine. It occurs in about 5% of pregnancies and is responsible for approximately 16% of all maternal deaths globally. Pre-eclampsia also doubles the risk of death of the baby around the time of birth. Usually there are no symptoms in pre-eclampsia and it is detected by routine screening. When symptoms of pre-eclampsia occur the most common are headache, visual disturbance (often \"flashing lights\"), vomiting, pain over the stomach, and swelling. Pre-eclampsia can occasionally progress to a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, which is a hypertensive emergency and has several serious complications including vision loss, brain swelling, seizures, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (a blood clotting disorder)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_20114", "title": "Outline of cardiology", "score": 0.011059714045416317, "content": "Complications of hypertension Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy – Increased pressure results in hypertrophy of the myocardium, particularly left ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary hypertension — which is separate from \"hypertension\" described above — can result in right ventricular hypertrophy. Hypertensive crisis – Generally considered to be a systolic blood pressure over 180. If there is no organ dysfunction it is called a hypertensive urgency, but if there is (e.g., confusion, breathlessness) then it is called hypertensive emergency. Pre-eclampsia (PreE) / Eclampsia – PreE is a disease of pregnancy that results in hypertension and proteinuria. PreE has negative consequences for both the mother and fetus/baby. Progression to eclampsia involves seizures. Currently, the only definitive treatment is delivery of the fetus. Hemorrhagic stroke – Infarction of the brain due to internal bleeding from Charcot–Bouchard aneurysms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69090", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.011009066289885787, "content": "The goal of treatment of severe hypertension in pregnancy is to prevent cardiovascular, kidney, and cerebrovascular complications. The target blood pressure has been proposed to be 140–160 mmHg systolic and 90–105 mmHg diastolic, although values are variable. Prevention of eclampsia The intrapartum and postpartum administration of magnesium sulfate is recommended in severe pre-eclampsia for the prevention of eclampsia. Further, magnesium sulfate is recommended for the treatment of eclampsia over other anticonvulsants. Magnesium sulfate acts by interacting with NMDA receptors. Epidemiology Pre-eclampsia affects approximately 2–8% of all pregnancies worldwide. The incidence of pre-eclampsia has risen in the U.S. since the 1990s, possibly as a result of increased prevalence of predisposing disorders, such as chronic hypertension, diabetes, and obesity." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, radiotherapy and trastuzumab.", "2": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, radiotherapy and tamoxifen.", "3": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, and radiotherapy.", "4": "Chemotherapy based on anthracyclines and taxanes, radiotherapy and aromatase inhibitors, since it is postmenopausal.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1035_20793", "title": "Clinical Characteristics and Outcome Trends of Adjuvant Anthracycline and Taxane Regimen for Early Stage Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.01770050125313283, "content": "The anthracycline and taxane-based chemotherapy treatment regimen remains the gold standard for treatment of early stage breast cancer. However, studies examining the effectiveness and use of this treatment regimen in Indian context are limited. This study examined patients treated with anthracycline and taxane-based chemotherapy at a tertiary care cancer center in India. Patients with confirmed early stage breast cancer who had undergone primary breast surgery followed by treatment with anthracycline and taxane-based chemotherapy between 2009 and 2015 were included in the study. Data on clinical characteristics and treatment details were collected from the patients' medical records. Two hundred sixty-four women were included in the analysis. The median age at presentation was 50 years. Among the 264 women, 40.5% were premenopausal, 1.2% were perimenopausal, and 58.3% were postmenopausal. The number of patients undergoing breast-conserving surgery (BCS) and modified radical mastectomy (MRM) were 35.2% and 64.7%, respectively. Patients with a tumor grade of 1, 2, and 3 were 7.2%, 53.1%, and 39.7%, respectively. Tumors were unifocal in 81.1% and multifocal in 18.2% of patients. Estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 (HER-2) positivity was detected in 58.3%, 54.2%, and 3.1% of patients, respectively and 38.6% of patients were triple negative. With a median follow-up of 36.2 months, the invasive disease-free survival rate was 90.9% and mean disease-free survival time was 65.4 ± 1.13 months. The results of this study confirm the clinical utility of anthracycline and taxane-based chemotherapy regimen as the adjuvant chemotherapy treatment of early stage breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0728_3658", "title": "Biological characterization and selection criteria of adjuvant chemotherapy for early breast cancer: experience from the Italian observational NEMESI study.", "score": 0.01626651050816579, "content": "International treatment guidelines recommend administration of adjuvant chemotherapy in early breast cancer based on clinical, prognostic and predictive parameters. An observational study (NEMESI) was conducted in 63 Italian oncology centres in patients with early breast cancer. Age, performance status, concomitant disease, menopausal status, histology, tumor dimension (pT), axillary lymph node status (pN), grading (G), estrogen and progesterone receptor (ER and PgR), proliferative index (ki67 or MIB-1), human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) and type of adjuvant treatment were recorded. The primary objective of the study was to define parameters influencing the decision to prescribe adjuvant chemotherapy and the type of chemotherapy. Data for 1894 patients were available. 69.0% postmenopausal, 67.0% pT1, 22.3% pTmic/pT1a/pT1b, 61.0% pN0, 48.7% luminal A, 18.1% luminal B, 16.1% HER2 positive, 8.7% triple negative, 8.4% unknown. 57.8% received adjuvant chemotherapy: 38.1% of luminal A, 67.3% luminal B, 88.2% HER2-positive, 97.6% triple negative. Regimens administered: 9.1% CMF-like, 48.8% anthracyclines, 38.4% anthracyclines plus taxanes, 3.7% taxanes alone. Increasing pT/pN and, marginally, HER2-positive were associated with the prescription of anthracyclines plus taxanes. Suboptimal schedules (CMF-like or AC/EC or FEC-75) were prescribed in 37.3% receiving chemotherapy, even in HER2-positive and triple negative disease (36.5% and 34.0%, respectively). This study showed an overprescription of adjuvant chemotherapy for early breast cancer, particularly referred to luminal A. pT, pN and, marginally, HER2 were the principal determinants for the choice of chemotherapy type. Suboptimal chemotherapy regimens were adopted in at least one third of HER2-positive and triple negative." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_13391", "title": "Retrospective analysis of neoadjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer in Turkish patients.", "score": 0.015838509316770187, "content": "Neoadjuvant systemic chemotherapy is the accepted approach for women with locally advanced breast cancer. Anthracycline- and taxane-based regimens have been extensively studied in clinical trials and consequently are widely used. In this study aimed to research the complete response (pCR) rates in different regimens for neoadjuvant setting and determine associated clinical and biological factors. This study included 63 patients diagnosed with breast carcinoma among 95 patients that had been treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy between 2007 and 2010. TNM staging system was used for staging. The histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy was characterized as a pCR when there was no evidence of residual invasive tumor in the breast or axillary lymph nodes. Biologic subclassification using estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), HER2 were performed. Luminal A was defined as ER+, PR+, HER2-; Luminal B tumor was defined as ER+, PR-, HER2-; ER+, PR-, HER2+; ER-, PR+, HER2-; ER+, PR+, HER2+, HER2 like tumor ER-, PR+, HER2+; and triple negative tumor ER, PR, HER2 negative. Patients median age was 54.14 (min-max: 30-75). Thirty-two patients (50.8%) were premenopausal and 31 (49.2%) were postmenopausal. Staging was performed postoperatively based on the pathology report and appropriated imaging modalities The TNM (tumor, lymph node, metastasis) system was used for clinical and pathological staging. Fifty-seven (90.5%) were invasive ductal carcinomas, 6 (9.5%) were other subtypes. Thirty nine (61.9%) were grade II and 24 (38.1%) were grade III. Seven (11.1%) patients were stage II and 56 (88.9) patients were stage III. The patients were classified for ER, PR receptor and HER2 positivity. Seventeen patients had complete response to chemotherapy. Forty patients (63.5%) were treated with dose dense regimen (cyclophosphamide 600 mg/m2 and doxorubicine 60 mg/m every two weeks than paclitaxel 175 mg/m2 every two weeks with filgrastim support) 40 patients (48%) were treated anthracycline and taxane containing regimens. Thirteen patients (76%) from 17 patients with pCR were treated with the dose dense regimen but without statistical significance (p=0.06). pCR was higher in HER2(-), ER(-), grade III, premenopausal patients. pCR rate was higher in the group that treated with dose dense regimen, which should thus be the selected regimen in neoadjuvant setting. Some other factors can predict pCR in Turkish patients, like grade, menopausal status, triple negativity, percentage of ER positivity, and HER2 expression." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1079_3478", "title": "The Role of Postmastectomy Radiotherapy in Locally Advanced Breast Cancer After Pathological Complete Response to Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy.", "score": 0.015306395504415307, "content": "The Case A previously healthy woman, aged 32 years, presented to the oncology clinic with a 6-month history of left-breast tumor, mastalgia, and swollen axillary nodes. Physical examination was relevant for a 6-cm palpable mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast and an ipsilateral 2-cm, nonfixed axillary lymph node. Mammography showed a 1-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant, a 5.2-cm mass in the lower outer quadrant, and enlarged pathologic lymph nodes (BI-RADS category 5 disease). Breast ultrasound revealed 3 axillary lymph nodes with cortical thickening and loss of normal morphology (the largest with a 2.6-cm length in the long axis) (Figure 1A-B). The breast´s core biopsy revealed a grade 3 apocrine invasive carcinoma with lymphovascular invasion; immunohistochemistry testing showed HER2-negative, hormone receptor-negative disease (estrogen receptor, 0%; progesterone receptor, 0%; HER2-negative, Ki67, 50%) (Figure 2A-B). A fine-needle aspiration biopsy of the axillary lymph nodes showed invasive breast carcinoma as well. Bone scintigraphy and a chest/abdomen CT scan ruled out metastatic disease. Upon initial diagnosis, clinical stage was deemed as cT3N1M0 (American Joint Committee on Cancer 8th edition: anatomic stage IIIA, clinical prognostic stage IIIC). After a multidisciplinary tumor board discussion, the patient underwent neoadjuvant chemotherapy with weekly paclitaxel, followed by 4 cycles of dose-dense doxorubicin plus cyclophosphamide. After completing neoadjuvant treatment, clinical examination was relevant for a residual 1-cm palpable left breast mass and no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography and breast ultrasound showed a 77% partial response in the primary tumors, and axillary nodes with normal morphology and size (Figure 1C-D). Due to multicentric tumor disease, breast-conserving surgery would not confer satisfactory cosmetic results on her, and a modified radical mastectomy with intraoperative sentinel lymph node biopsy (and second-stage breast reconstruction) was planned. However, during surgery, the surgeons failed to identify the mapped lymph node, and level I-III axillary lymph node dissection was performed. The pathology report described complete pathological response: Miller and Payne criteria grade 5 response with the absence of malignant cells within the mastectomy specimen and in 24 lymph nodes (Figure 2C-E). Pathological staging after neoadjuvant treatment concluded ypT0N0M0 disease. Subsequent treatment for this patient was discussed in another tumor board." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0997_25653", "title": "Taxane-based combinations as adjuvant chemotherapy for node-positive ER-positive breast cancer based on 2004-2009 data from the Breast Cancer Registry of the Japanese Breast Cancer Society.", "score": 0.014646464646464647, "content": "Adding taxane to an anthracycline-based regimen improves survival in node-positive breast cancer patients, as shown by clinical trials and meta-analyses. However, no studies have analyzed the number of metastatic lymph nodes in patients with estrogen receptor (ER)-positive cancer. This study investigated whether adding a taxane to an anthracycline-based regimen improved prognosis in node-positive, ER-positive, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-negative breast cancer patients in a real-world setting. Using Japanese Breast Cancer Society registry data, we compared disease-free survival (DFS) of patients with ER-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer, excluding those receiving neoadjuvant chemotherapy, between those who received an anthracycline-based regimen followed by a taxane-based regimen (A + T) and those who received only an anthracycline-based regimen (A w/o T), stratified by lymph node status. A Cox proportional hazards model was used to evaluate DFS in both groups. There were 4566 eligible patients with ER-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer. During the median follow-up period of 60 months, there were 481 recurrences and 149 deaths. There was no significant difference in DFS between the A + T and A w/o T groups among patients with 1-3 positive nodes, while there was a significant difference among patients with ≥ 4 positive nodes. In patients with ER-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer, adding taxane to an anthracycline regimen did not improve DFS in patients with metastasis in 1-3 lymph nodes. We considered that the group without the addition of taxane might be present in patients with ER-positive, HER2-negative lymph node metastases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0803_25396", "title": "[Influencing factors of pathologic complete response after neoadjuvant chemotherapy in locally advanced breast cancer patients: results of a single-center 10-year retrospective study].", "score": 0.014344997182232696, "content": "To analyze the influencing factors of pathologic complete response (PCR) to neoadjuvant chemotherapy in locally advanced breast cancer patients. A retrospective study was conducted to analyze the clinical data of 620 locally advanced breast cancer patients at Henan Cancer Hospital between April 2003 to February 2013. After neoadjuvant chemotherapy, 94 patients achieved PCR. The correlation between clinicopathological factors and PCR was analyzed. No significant correlations existed between PCR with patient age, menstrual status or pretherapeutic lymph node status. Increased chemotherapeutic cycles could improve the rate of PCR (14.1% or 19.5 %), but it had no statistical difference. The rate of PCR achieved by regimens of anthracycline plus taxane was higher (20.1%)than that by anthracycline-based regimens (12.7%). And the rate of PCR had significant difference between two regimens. In terms of biological indicators, PCR rate after neoadjuvant chemotherapy was associated with estrogen/progesterone receptor, but it had no correlation with Ki-67 index or the status of epidermal growth factor receptor. Logistic multifactorial analysis showed that tumor size ≤ 5 cm were significantly correlated with PCR. Trastuzumab could obviously increase the PCR rate (15.7% or 41.7 %) and there was statistical difference (P = 0.031). The regimens of anthracycline plus taxane can achieve a higher PCR rate. Patient age, menstrual status and pretherapeutic lymph node have no significant correlation with PCR. PCR rate is associated with the expression of ER/PR negative in breast cancer. Trastuzumab increase the PCR rate in the HER-2 positive patients. Tumor size ≤ 5 cm is a significant influencing factor of PCR rate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_8053", "title": "Clinical outcome of breast cancer patients with N3a (≥10 positive lymph nodes) disease: has it changed over years?", "score": 0.013836596385542169, "content": "It has been shown that breast cancer patients with N3a (10 positive lymph nodes) had a poor prognosis. We planned to investigate the clinical outcome BC patients who presented with N3a disease and had no evidence of systemic metastasis at the time of diagnosis. We made a retrospective chart review of breast cancer patients who had ≥10 positive lymph nodes and received adjuvant systemic therapy in Marmara University Hospital between 1998 and 2008. We recorded clinical, pathologic and treatment characteristics of the patients and analyzed the survival outcome. We identified 73 patients with N3a disease who were treated in Marmara University Hospital between 1998 and 2008. The median age was 52. Most (75%) of the patients had invasive ductal histology, 75% had T2/T3 tumors, 36% had grade 3 tumors. The median number of metastatic lymph nodes was 15. Estrogen and progesterone receptors were both positive in 61% and both negative in 16+ tumors. Her-2/neu status was assessed in 68% of the tumors; 18% of patients had 3+ and 50% had negative scores. Six patients had triple negative tumors. All patients except one received adjuvant chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Seventy-four percent of patients received anthracycline/taxane-based chemotherapy. Fifty-nine patients received adjuvant endocrine therapy, 42% them received aromatase inhibitors. Five of the 13 Her-2 positive patients received adjuvant trastuzumab. With a median follow-up of 47 months, 5-year disease and overall survival rates were 66 and 81%, respectively. Twenty-four patients had relapsed and 14 patients died. Her-2 status and the number of lymph nodes (&lt;20 vs. ≥20) had significant impact on disease-free survival in the univariate analysis (P=0.03 and 0.05, respectively) and Her-2 retained its significant impact on disease-free survival in the multivariate analysis (P=0.05). The prognosis of BC patients with N3a disease has changed favorably in the past decade with the current standards of care." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_3834", "title": "Results of two randomized trials evaluating adjuvant anthracycline-based chemotherapy in 1146 patients with early breast cancer.", "score": 0.01228307414919991, "content": "Two randomized trials evaluated the effect of 6 courses of anthracycline-based chemotherapy in early breast cancer. A total of 1146 patients were included: 311 high-risk node-negative premenopausal patients and 835 high-risk node-negative or node-positive postmenopausal patients. Patients were randomized after surgery to receive either no chemotherapy (control group) or 6 courses of anthracycline-based chemotherapy (CT group). Postmenopausal patients received adjuvant tamoxifen for at least two years. Radiotherapy was delivered after completion of chemotherapy in the CT group. The 10-year disease-free survival (DFS) rates were 60% in the control group and 65% in the CT group (log-rank test, p = 0.01). The 10-year distant metastasis rates were 28% and 23% (p = 0.02), and the 10-year local recurrence rates were 12% and 10%, respectively (p = 0.24). Chemotherapy was significantly less effective in post-menopausal patients with estrogen receptor-positive tumors. Adjuvant anthracycline-based chemotherapy yielded a significant benefit for DFS by lowering the risk of distant metastases. After up to 10 years of follow-up, deferring radiotherapy after chemotherapy did not compromise local control." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en179_25122", "title": "Triple-negative breast cancer", "score": 0.011952853951808375, "content": "Treatment Standard treatment is surgery with adjuvant chemotherapy and radiotherapy. As a variation, neoadjuvant chemotherapy is very frequently used for triple-negative breast cancers as they are more susceptible to platinum-based regimen, allowing for a higher rate of breast-conserving surgeries. Important details on the individual responsiveness of particular cancers can be gained from evaluating the response to this form of chemotherapy. However, the improvement in breast conservation is only 10–15% and the clues to individual responsiveness have conclusively proven to make an improvement in outcomes. TNBCs are generally very susceptible to chemotherapy. In some cases, however, early complete response does not correlate with overall survival. This makes it particularly complicated to find the optimal chemotherapy. Adding a taxane to the chemotherapy appears to improve outcome substantially." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en423_10852", "title": "Eric Winer", "score": 0.01148989898989899, "content": "Berry DA, Cirrincione C, Henderson IC, et al. Estrogen-Receptor Status and Outcomes of Modern Chemotherapy for Patients with Node-Positive Breast Cancer. JAMA. 2006;295:1658-67. Muss HB, Berry DA, Cirrincione CT, et al. Adjuvant chemotherapy in older women with early-stage breast cancer. New England Journal of Medicine. 2009;360:2055-2065. Sikov WM, Berry DA, Perou CM, et al. Impact of the Addition of Carboplatin and/or Bevacizumab to Neoadjuvant Once-per-Week Paclitaxel Followed by Dose-Dense Doxorubicin and Cyclophosphamide on Pathologic Complete Response Rates in Stage II to III Triple-Negative Breast Cancer: CALGB 40603 (Alliance). Journal of Clinical Oncology. 2015;33:13-21. Tolaney SM, Barry WT, Dang CT, et al. Adjuvant Paclitaxel and Trastuzumab for Node-Negative, HER2-Positive Breast Cancer. New England Journal of Medicine. 2015;372:134-41." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_6879", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010613741775428755, "content": "Data on postmenopausal women are also controversial. The impact of adjuvant chemotherapy is quantitatively less clear-cut than in premenopausal patients, particularly in estrogen receptor– positive cases, although survival advantages have been shown. The first decision is whether chemotherapy or endocrine therapy should be used. While adjuvant endocrine therapy (aromatase inhibitors and tamoxifen) improves survival regardless of axillary lymph node status, the improvement in survival is modest for patients in whom multiple lymph nodes are involved. For this reason, it has been usual to give chemotherapy to postmenopausal patients who have no medical contraindications and who have more than one positive lymph node; hormone therapy is commonly given subsequently. For postmenopausal women for whom systemic therapy is warranted but who have a more favorable prognosis (based more commonly on analysis such as the Oncotype DX methodology), hormone therapy may be used alone. Large clinical" }, { "id": "article-111445_28", "title": "Inflammatory Breast Cancer -- Treatment / Management -- Nonmetastatic IBC-stage III", "score": 0.010209983653967056, "content": "Anthracycline and taxane-based chemotherapy regimens are commonly used in neoadjuvant therapy. For inflammatory breast cancer with HER-2 overexpression, trastuzumab with or without pertuzumab is used in addition to neoadjuvant chemotherapy. Trastuzumab should be continued for a total period of 1 year. To minimize the cardiotoxicity, anthracyclines are given first, followed by taxanes and trastuzumab. For hormone receptor-positive, postmenopausal women, aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole is used for 5 years. (Grade 2 A). For premenopausal women that are hormone receptor-positive, ovarian function suppression plus tamoxifen for a period of 10 years (grade 2B) is used." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en239_9459", "title": "Male breast cancer", "score": 0.010105798981934325, "content": "Treatment Treatment largely follows patterns that have been set for the management of postmenopausal breast cancer. The initial treatment is surgical and consists of a modified radical mastectomy with axillary dissection or lumpectomy and radiation therapy with similar treatment results as in females. Also, mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy is a treatment option. In males with node-negative tumors, adjuvant therapy is applied under the same considerations as in females with node-negative breast cancer. Similarly, with node-positive tumors, males increase survival using the same adjuvants as affected females, namely both chemotherapy plus tamoxifen and other hormonal therapy. There are no controlled studies in males comparing adjuvant options. In the vast majority of males with breast cancer hormone receptor studies are positive, and those situations are typically treated with hormonal therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0629_6402", "title": "Breast cancer (non-metastatic).", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Breast cancer affects at least 1 in 10 women in the UK, but most present with primary operable disease, which has an 80% 5-year survival rate overall. We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions after breast-conserving surgery for ductal carcinoma in situ? What are the effects of treatments for primary operable breast cancer? What are the effects of interventions in locally advanced breast cancer (stage IIIB)? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library and other important databases up to February 2006 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically, please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). We found 79 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: adding chemotherapy (cyclophosphamide/methotrexate/ fluorouracil and/or anthracycline and/or taxane-based regimens), or hormonal treatment to radiotherapy; adjuvant treatments (aromatase inhibitors, adjuvant anthracycline regimens, tamoxifen); axillary clearance; axillary dissection plus sentinel node dissection; axillary radiotherapy; axillary sampling; combined chemotherapy plus tamoxifen; chemotherapy plus monoclonal antibody (trastuzumab); extensive surgery; high-dose chemotherapy; hormonal treatment; less extensive mastectomy; less than whole breast radiotherapy plus breast conserving surgery; multimodal treatment; ovarian ablation; primary chemotherapy; prolonged adjuvant combination chemotherapy; radiotherapy (after breast-conserving surgery, after mastectomy, plus tamoxifen after breast-conserving surgery, to the internal mammary chain, and to the ipsilateral supraclavicular fossa, and total nodal radiotherapy); sentinel node biopsy; and standard chemotherapy regimens." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0699_3779", "title": "Breast cancer (non-metastatic).", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Breast cancer affects at least 1 in 10 women in the UK, but most present with primary operable disease, which has an 80% 5-year survival rate overall. We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions after breast-conserving surgery for ductal carcinoma in situ? What are the effects of treatments for primary operable breast cancer? What are the effects of interventions in locally advanced breast cancer (stage 3B)? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to April 2009 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically, please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). We found 83 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: adding chemotherapy (cyclophosphamide/methotrexate/fluorouracil and/or anthracycline and/or taxane-based regimens), or hormonal treatment to radiotherapy; adjuvant treatments (aromatase inhibitors, adjuvant anthracycline regimens, tamoxifen); axillary clearance; axillary dissection plus sentinel node dissection; axillary radiotherapy; axillary sampling; combined chemotherapy plus tamoxifen; chemotherapy plus monoclonal antibody (trastuzumab); extensive surgery; high-dose chemotherapy; hormonal treatment; less extensive mastectomy; less than whole-breast radiotherapy plus breast-conserving surgery; multimodal treatment; ovarian ablation; primary chemotherapy; prolonged adjuvant combination chemotherapy; radiotherapy (after breast-conserving surgery, after mastectomy, plus tamoxifen after breast-conserving surgery, to the internal mammary chain, and to the ipsilateral supraclavicular fossa, and total nodal radiotherapy); sentinel node biopsy; and standard chemotherapy regimens." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_17142", "title": "[San Antonio Breast Cancer Symposium -- highlights 2004].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The adjuvant therapy of postmenopausal, hormonereceptor positive breast cancer patients with aromatase inhibitors in ATAC, ABCSG 8/ ARNO 95 and IES trial revealed just a benefit in terms of disease-free survival, but not for over-all survival. Thus MA-17 trial is so far the only study which could demonstrate a survival benefit for node positive disease by \"extended adjuvant\" therapy with letrozole. Node- and receptorpositive, postmenopausal women show a higher benefit by anthracycline containing chemotherapy in combination with tamoxifen, than by endocrine therapy alone. But tamoxifen should given sequentially to chemotherapy (Intergroup 0100/ SWOG-8814 trial). Adjuvant chemotherapy with three cycles FEC followed by three cycles docetaxel reveals a survival benefit compared to six cycles FEC, especially in women older than 50 years (PACS 01 trial). Furthermore there is evolving evidence that dose-dense, interval shortened chemotherapy is superior to standard chemotherapy in adjuvant setting. The impaired survival of receptornegative, nodalpositive breast cancer patients seems to be converted to a survival improvement compared with receptorpositive patients by modern adjuvant cytotoxic regimens (metaanalysis CALGB 8541, 9344, 9741). In primary systemic chemotherapy survival is strongly associated with the rate of pathohistological complete remissions (NSABP B-27). The combination of cytotoxic drugs has no further influence on survival, but the sequential administration of taxane increases the rate of pCR. A difference in survival stratified by pCR and non-pCR in breast and positive nodal status could not be detected, so that the number of involved lymph nodes seems to be the strongest prognostic factor and is independent of tumor response in the breast. The sentinel node biopsy is a safe and reliable method, but the rate of false negative findings depends on the pathohistological methods (NSABP B-32). The morbidity of this method is low compared with conventional axillary dissection in multicenter studies. Local tumor control is an important parameter which offers a significant survival benefit in all age cohorts." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0911_8278", "title": "Maximizing the Clinical Benefit of Anthracyclines in Addition to Taxanes in the Adjuvant Treatment of Early Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The Oncology Grand Rounds series is designed to place original reports published in the Journal into clinical context. A case presentation is followed by a description of diagnostic and management challenges, a review of the relevant literature, and a summary of the authors' suggested management approaches. The goal of this series is to help readers better understand how to apply the results of key studies, including those published in Journal of Clinical Oncology, to patients seen in their own clinical practice. A healthy 56-year-old postmenopausal woman discovered a palpable mass at the one o'clock position of the left breast. After an initial biopsy confirmed breast cancer, she underwent mastectomy and axillary node dissection for a left-sided breast cancer that measured 3.5 cm. There was extensive lymphovascular invasion. Pathology review indicated a poorly differentiated, grade 3 invasive ductal carcinoma and ductal carcinoma in situ (largest focus, 3.5 cm). The margins were negative. Two of the 11 axillary lymph nodes contained metastatic carcinoma. Immunohistochemical studies previously obtained on the core biopsy indicated that the tumor was positive for estrogen receptor expression (50%), negative for progesterone receptor expression, and had a Ki-67 score of 60%. There was no amplification of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2/ neu gene. Staging scans were negative for metastatic disease. Our multidisciplinary tumor board recommended adjuvant chemotherapy, postmastectomy radiation therapy, and endocrine therapy. A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman presented with a palpable mass of the right breast. An initial core biopsy confirmed carcinoma in the breast. She underwent quadrantectomy and axillary node dissection. The final pathology report disclosed a moderately differentiated invasive ductal carcinoma (diameter, 2.5 cm). The margins were negative. None of the three sentinel lymph nodes contained metastatic carcinoma. Immunohistochemical studies showed that the tumor was positive for estrogen receptor expression (90%) and for progesterone receptor expression (40%) and had a Ki-67 score of 20%. There was no amplification of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2/ neu gene. Staging scans were negative for metastatic disease. A genomic assay was obtained and suggested an intermediate to high risk of recurrence. Her past medical history was notable for hypertension and moderately overweight status (body mass index, 39 kg/m<sup2</sup). Our multidisciplinary tumor board recommended adjuvant chemotherapy, postsurgical radiation therapy, and endocrine therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0908_3565", "title": "Adjuvant endocrine therapy alone in patients with node-positive, luminal A type breast cancer.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Luminal A breast cancer has a much better prognosis than other subtypes, with a low risk of local or regional recurrence. However, there is controversy around under- versus overtreatment with regard to adjuvant treatment of node-positive, luminal A breast cancer. The purpose of this study was to identify whether adjuvant systemic chemotherapy has any benefit in node-positive, luminal A breast cancer and to evaluate feasibility of endocrine therapy without chemotherapy in this group.This was a retrospective study of 11,025 patients who were surgically treated for invasive breast cancer at Samsung Medical Center between January 2004 and December 2013. Luminal A subtype was defined as ER+, HER2-, and Ki-67 &lt; 14%. We compared AC based (AC: doxorubicin or epirubicin, plus cyclophosphamide) adjuvant chemotherapy versus endocrine therapy without chemotherapy in patients with node-positive, luminal A breast cancer.We performed 1: n matching, with a maximum n of 8 on endocrine therapy group (n = 50) to chemotherapy group (n = 642). The median age of the patients in each group at the time of surgery was 58.3 ± 9.5 years in the chemotherapy group and 58.7 ± 11.7 in the endocrine therapy only group. The median follow-up time was 51.9 months (range, 1-125 months). In multivariable analysis, omission of adjuvant chemotherapy in luminal A cancer had no influence on OS and DFS. Axillary lymph node metastasis and progesterone receptor (PR) status were significantly different between the endocrine therapy alone group and the chemotherapy group in terms of OS. Nuclear grade, PR status, and adjuvant radiotherapy were significantly different between the endocrine therapy alone group and the chemotherapy group with regard to DFS. In survival analysis, there were no differences in OS (P = .137) and DFS (P = .225) between the 2 groups.Adjuvant chemotherapy could provide little benefit to postmenopausal patients with luminal A, node-positive breast cancer, and endocrine therapy alone may help reduce morbidity. Future studies with a large number of patients and longer follow-up time are necessary to determine whether chemotherapy might be avoided in this patient population." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_15201", "title": "Adjuvant therapy of primary breast cancer: a review of key findings from the 7th international conference, St. Gallen, February 2001.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Breast cancer research has developed at a rapid pace over the last decades. Recent discoveries promise to provide individualized treatment options, increased long-term survival for women with breast cancer, and the possibility of moving toward curative intent in the treatment of advanced breast cancer. Age, race, tumor size, histological tumor type, axillary nodal status, standardized pathological grade, and hormone-receptor status are accepted as established prognostic and/or predictive factors for selection of systemic adjuvant treatment of breast cancer. The role of other promising new factors, such as p53 mutations, HER-2 status, plasminogen activator system, histological evidence of vascular invasion, and quantitative parameters of angiogenesis will be determined in ongoing prospective studies. Currently, 5 years' treatment with adjuvant tamoxifen in women with hormone-positive receptor status, is regarded as the optimal duration of treatment. Long-term follow-up on the randomized trials will determine the added benefit of treatment beyond 5 years. Ovarian ablation has shown a reduction in recurrence and death, and the exact role and extent of adjuvant chemotherapy in premenopausal women with hormone-responsive tumors is under discussion. Combination hormonal and chemo-hormonal therapies are also being evaluated. There are no convincing data on the survival impact of tamoxifen as a preventative therapy for breast cancer: longer-term follow-up is required, and the planned meta-analyses in 2005 should help shed light on this issue. Statistically significant benefits have been observed with adjuvant chemotherapy (particularly with anthracycline-containing regimens in premenopausal women) versus no adjuvant chemotherapy. The optimal length of adjuvant anthracycline/cyclophosphamide (AC) regimens needs further evaluation as do randomized comparisons of AC to cyclophosphamide/ doxorubicin/5-fluorouracil (5-FU) and cyclophosphamide/epirubicin/5-FU. Although taxanes promise to provide an additive benefit to adjuvant chemotherapy regimens, the Cancer and Leukemia Group B 9344 and the National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project B-28 studies evaluating paclitaxel in the adjuvant setting have not yet demonstrated statistically significant benefits on disease-free survival and overall survival. In the year 2000, all adjuvant therapy studies conducted by the Co-operative Groups in both node-negative and node-positive disease involve a taxane. High-dose chemotherapy evaluations are still ongoing. The numerous prospective adjuvant therapy trials (hormonal; selective estrogen-receptor modulators; aromatase inhibitors; chemotherapy, involving anthracyclines/taxanes/platinum/trastuzumab; biological factors; elderly women (&gt;70 years); high-risk patients; radiotherapy in 1-3 positive lymph nodes), and neoadjuvant studies might further define the chances to enhance cure rates in the treatment of primary breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0402_12913", "title": "Patterns of failure in a randomized trial of adjuvant chemotherapy in postmenopausal patients with early breast cancer treated with tamoxifen.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We studied the effect of adjuvant anthracycline-based chemotherapy in postmenopausal patients with resected early breast cancer treated with adjuvant tamoxifen. The trial included 835 patients with either axillary lymph node involvement, or tumors with histological grade II or III. They were randomized after local surgery to receive either tamoxifen (TAM group) or tamoxifen plus chemotherapy (TAM-CT group) consisting of six courses of 5-fluorouracil, doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide (FAC), or 5-fluorouracil, epidoxorubicin and cyclophosphamide (FEC). Radiotherapy was given after completion of adjuvant chemotherapy in the TAM-CT group and after surgery in the TAM group. The 5-year disease-free survival (DFS) rates were 73% in the TAM group and 79% in the TAM-CT group (log-rank test, P = 0.06). The 5-year overall survival rates were 82% and 87%, respectively (P = 0.06). The 5-year distant metastasis rates were 22% and 16% (P = 0.02), and the 5-year local recurrence rates were 6% and 4%, respectively (P = 0.23). There were no significant differences for contralateral breast cancer or other new primary malignancies. Chemotherapy tended to be more effective for patients who had tumors without estrogen receptors (trend test, P = 0.05). Anthracycline-based chemotherapy administered to postmenopausal patients receiving adjuvant tamoxifen gave a borderline significant benefit on overall and DFS, mainly by a reduction in distant metastases. Delaying radiotherapy after six courses of chemotherapy did not affect local control after up to 10 years of follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0493_23416", "title": "The curability of breast cancer and the treatment of advanced disease.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Breast cancer represents a major health problem, with more than 1,000,000 new cases and 370,000 deaths yearly worldwide. In the last decade, in spite of an increasing incidence, breast cancer mortality has been declining in the majority of developed countries. This is the combined result of better education, widespread screening programmes and more efficacious adjuvant treatments. Better knowledge of breast cancer biology now allows the cosmetic, physical and psychological consequences of radical mastectomy to be spared in the majority of breast cancer patients. Use of the sentinel node technique is rapidly expanding and this will further reduce the extent and the consequences of surgery. Several clinico-pathological factors are used to discriminate between patients at low (&lt;10%), average (10-40%) and high risk of relapse. Nodal status, tumour size, tumour grade and age are accepted universally as important factors to define risk categories. Newer factors such as uPA/PAI-1, HERer2-neu, proliferative indices and gene expression profile are promising and will allow better discrimination between patients at different risk. Endocrine manipulation with tamoxifen, ovarian ablation or both is the preferred option in the case of endocrine-responsive tumours. Tamoxifen administered for 5 years is the standard treatment for postmenopausal patients; tamoxifen plus ovarian ablation is more effective than tamoxifen alone for premenopausal women. Recent data demonstrate that, for postmenopausal patients, the aromatase inhibitors are superior to tamoxifen, with a different safety profile. At present, anastrozole can be used in the adjuvant setting in cases of tamoxifen intolerance or toxicity. Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice for steroid receptor-negative tumours. Polychemotherapy is superior to single agents and anthracycline-containing regimens are superior to CMF. Six courses of FEC or FAC or the sequential administration of four doses of anthracycline followed by four of CMF are the recommended regimens. New regimens including the taxanes have produced a further improvement in risk reduction and are reasonable therapeutic options. The taxanes have been approved for adjuvant therapy in the USA, while European approval is pending. Combined endocrine-chemotherapy is the standard adjuvant treatment in high-risk patients with endocrine-responsive tumours. Endocrine manipulation is usually administered after completion of the chemotherapy programme. For HER2-neu overexpressing tumours, several rapidly accruing trials are exploring the potential additive effect of trastuzumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against the extramembrane portion of the HER2 receptor. Primary chemotherapy is increasingly used in the treatment of locally advanced and operable breast cancer, with increased rates of breast-conserving surgery. A proportion of patients achieve a pathological complete response and these patients have significantly better long-term outcomes. Twenty-five to forty percent of breast cancer patients develop distant metastases. At this stage the disease is incurable; however, treatments can assure a significant prolongation of survival, symptomatic control and maintenance of quality of life. In the case of hormone receptor positivity and in the absence of visceral, life-threatening disease, endocrine manipulation is the treatment of choice. Active treatments include tamoxifen, ovarian ablation, aromatase inhibitors, pure anti-oestrogens and progestins. Aromatase inhibitors are the most active agents, but the choice and the sequence of endocrine therapies are also dictated by prior adjuvant treatment. Chemotherapy has to be preferred in cases of receptor-negative tumours, acquired resistance to hormones and aggressive visceral disease. Combination regimens are usually associated with higher response rates and sometimes survival prolongation, and this approach should be recommended in young patients with good performance status and visceral disease. On the other hand, single agents have a better tolerability profile and should be tand should be the treatment of choice when a careful balance between activity and tolerability is needed. For HER2-neu positive tumours, the combination of trastuzumab and chemotherapy is significantly superior to chemotherapy alone in terms of both response rates and survival. Other useful palliative treatments include bisphosphonates for the control of metastatic bone disease and radiotherapy for painful bone lesions or local relapses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1106_19005", "title": "Axillary Lymph Node Dissection Rates and Prognosis From Phase III Neoadjuvant Systemic Trial Comparing Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy With Neoadjuvant Endocrine Therapy in Pre-Menopausal Patients With Estrogen Receptor-Positive and HER2-Negative, Lymph Node-Positive Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In this study, we aimed to evaluate axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) rates and prognosis in neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NCT) compare with neoadjuvant endocrine therapy (NET) in estrogen receptor-positive (ER+)/human epidermal growth factor receptor 2-negative (HER2-), lymph node (LN)-positive, premenopausal breast cancer patients (NCT01622361). The multicenter, phase 3, randomized clinical trial enrolled 187 women from July 5, 2012, to May 30, 2017. The patients were randomly assigned (1:1) to either 24 weeks of NCT including adriamycin plus cyclophosphamide followed by intravenous docetaxel, or NET involving goserelin acetate and daily tamoxifen. ALND was performed based on the surgeon's decision. The primary endpoint was ALND rate and surgical outcome after preoperative treatment. The secondary endpoint was long-term survival. Among the 187 randomized patients, pre- and post- neoadjuvant systemic therapy (NST) assessments were available for 170 patients. After NST, 49.4% of NCT patients and 55.4% of NET patients underwent mastectomy after treatment completion. The rate of ALND was significantly lower in the NCT group than in the NET group (55.2% <ivs.</i 69.9%, P=.046). Following surgery, the NET group showed a significantly higher mean number of removed LNs (14.96 <ivs.</i 11.74, P=.003) and positive LNs (4.84 <ivs.</i 2.92, P=.000) than the NCT group. The axillary pathologic complete response (pCR) rate was significantly higher in the NCT group (13.8% <ivs.</i 4.8%, P=.045) than in the NET group. During a median follow-up of 67.3 months, 19 patients in the NCT group and 12 patients in the NET group reported recurrence. The 5-year ARFS (97.5%<ivs.</i 100%, P=.077), DFS (77.2% <ivs.</i 84.8%, P=.166), and OS (97.5% <ivs.</i 94.7%, P=.304) rates did not differ significantly between the groups. In conclusion, although survival did not differ significantly, more NCT patients might able to avoid ALND, with fewer LNs removed with lower LN positivity. https://clinicaltrials.gov/ct2/show/NCT01622361, identifier NCT01622361." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en054_78747", "title": "Invasive carcinoma of no special type", "score": 0.00951326433768699, "content": "Overall, the five-year survival rate of invasive ductal carcinoma was approximately 85% in 2003. Treatment Treatment of invasive carcinoma of no special type (NST) depends on the size of the mass (size of the tumor measured in its longest direction): <4 cm mass: surgery to remove the main tumor mass and to sample the lymph nodes in the axilla. The stage of the tumor is ascertained after this first surgery. Adjuvant therapy (i.e., treatment after surgery) may include a combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, hormonal therapy (e.g., tamoxifen) and/or targeted therapy (e.g., trastuzumab). More surgery is occasionally needed to complete the removal of the initial tumor or to remove recurrences. 4 cm or larger mass: modified (a less aggressive form of radical mastectomy) radical mastectomy (because any malignant mass in excess of 4 cm in size exceeds the criteria for a lumpectomy) along with sampling of the lymph nodes in the axilla." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0615_17654", "title": "Adjuvant extension of chemotherapy after neoadjuvant therapy may not improve outcome in early-stage breast cancer.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NAC) is equivalent to adjuvant therapy (AdC) in terms of survival and disease-free interval. Many institutions add AdC after NAC and surgery. However, such extended chemotherapy (ExC) is not evidence based. Study aim was to investigate if ExC improved disease-free (DFS) and overall survival (OS). From 1998 to 2006 356 consecutive patients received NAC (45 pts), AdC (221 pts) or ExC (90 pts). We analysed these 3 groups to determine effects of ExC and to identify patients who might benefit. NAC consisted in 93% of 3-6 cycles of epirubicin+docetaxel, AdC comprised EC+/-taxanes in 72%. Median age in the NAC, AdC, and ExC-groups was 54, 56 and 52 years with follow-up of 30, 57, and 55 months. After NAC, 35% achieved downstaging and 10% pathologic complete remission. Surprisingly ExC seemed to result in reduction of 5-year DFS: compared to 85% and 82% after NAC and AdC, DFS was 61% after ExC (p=0.001). OS was not significantly affected (79, 91, and 78% after NAC, AdC and ExC, p=0.13). In multivariate analysis after correction for age, menopausal status, stage, grading, hormone receptors, her2-status, radiotherapy and surgery, ExC seemed to adversely affect DFS (HR 2.15, p=0.008), loco-regional and distant recurrence-rates (HR 3.0, p=0.03 and HR 2.0, p=0.02). In this single-center analysis ExC could not show advantages in terms of DFS and OS. Because multivariate analyses of retrospective data cannot account for all potential biases, these data require confirmation in randomized clinical trials. Until then, extended chemotherapy should be considered carefully. As in previous studies, no differences were found between NAC and AdC groups." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en202_20712", "title": "Breast International Group", "score": 0.009391534391534392, "content": "BIG clinical trials and research programmes Over the years, BIG has developed and successfully run numerous large, phase 3 clinical trials involving thousands of international investigators and institutions. These clinical trials include HERA (HERceptin Adjuvant), MINDACT (Microarray In Node-Negative and 1 to 3 Positive Lymph Node Disease May Avoid Chemotherapy), and ALTTO (Adjuvant Lapatinib and/or Trastuzumab Treatment Optimisation). Many BIG studies have been practice-changing, for example, putting aromatase inhibitors on the map (BIG 1-98), changing how we treat young women with breast cancer (SOFT), leading to a major breakthrough in treating HER2-positive breast cancer (HERA), or helping physicians evaluate which women with early breast cancer could be spared chemotherapy after surgery (MINDACT). Most BIG trials incorporate a substantial translational research component and emphasise the collection and banking of biological specimens for the purpose of future research." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_58114", "title": "Endometrial cancer", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Chemotherapy Adjuvant chemotherapy is a recent innovation, consisting of some combination of paclitaxel (or other taxanes like docetaxel), doxorubicin (and other anthracyclines), and platins (particularly cisplatin and carboplatin). Adjuvant chemotherapy has been found to increase survival in stage III and IV cancer more than added radiotherapy. Mutations in mismatch repair genes, like those found in Lynch syndrome, can lead to resistance against platins, meaning that chemotherapy with platins is ineffective in people with these mutations. Side effects of chemotherapy are common. These include hair loss, low neutrophil levels in the blood, and gastrointestinal problems. In cases where surgery is not indicated, palliative chemotherapy is an option; higher-dose chemotherapy is associated with longer survival. Palliative chemotherapy, particularly using capecitabine and gemcitabine, is also often used to treat recurrent endometrial cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0791_17409", "title": "[A case of postmenopausal breast cancer becoming HER2 positive after neoadjuvant hormone therapy].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 75-year-old woman presented to a local doctor with a lump in the right breast. On physical examination, a tumor measuring 24mm was palpable in the BD area of her right breast. Mammography showed category 5 disease, and ultrasonography revealed a tumor measuring 24×16 mm. A mammotome biopsy provided a diagnosis of invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast(ER 7/PgR 4/HER2 1+), and the tumor was classified as stage IIA(T2N0M0)according to the UICC-TNM classification. She was recommended surgery but she rejected this option and underwent hormone therapy with anastrozole (1mg/day). One year and 8months after beginning the treatment, ultrasonography showed the tumor to measure 7.0×5.7 mm, and hormone therapy resulted in a partial response(PR). The patient hoped to undergo an operation, so she was referred to our hospital, and a right partial mastectomy and sentinel node biopsy was performed. A histopathological exami- nation indicated scirrhous carcinoma, 18mm, nuclear grade 1, f, ly1, v0, n0, ER 3/PgR 3/HER2 3+. The curative effect was grade 1a. The tumor had become HER2 positive, so the patient was then administered radiotherapy and trastuzumab and anastrozole as adjuvant therapy. Herein, we report our experience with a case of breast cancer that only became HER2 positive after hormone therapy, and also provide some bibliographic comments on this occurrence. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0860_16961", "title": "Is Estradiol Monitoring Necessary in Women Receiving Ovarian Suppression for Breast Cancer?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The Oncology Grand Rounds series is designed to place original reports published in the Journal into clinical context. A case presentation is followed by a description of diagnostic and management challenges, a review of the relevant literature, and a summary of the authors' suggested management approaches. The goal of this series is to help readers better understand how to apply the results of key studies, including those published in Journal of Clinical Oncology, to patients seen in their own clinical practice.A 36-year-old premenopausal woman had been diagnosed with stage III breast cancer. After an initial biopsy confirmed breast cancer, she underwent mastectomy and axillary node dissection for a left-sided breast cancer, measuring 7 cm. The tumor had lobular histology and was considered grade 2 of 3. Metastatic carcinoma was identified in 10 of 13 axillary nodes. Immunohistochemical studies showed that the tumor was strongly positive for estrogen and progesterone receptor expression and had a Ki-67 score of 15% (&gt; 20% is considered high according to a Swedish quality control study and the St Gallen Expert Consensus).(1,2) There was no amplification of the HER2/neu gene. Staging scans were negative for metastatic disease. In the adjuvant setting, she received three cycles of anthracycline-cyclophosphamide combination chemotherapy followed by three cycles of taxane chemotherapy and then locoregional radiotherapy. After completion of chemotherapy, she developed amenorrhea. As adjuvant endocrine therapy, she began monthly goserelin administration to achieve ovarian function suppression (OFS), in combination with the aromatase inhibitor (AI) exemestane. She experienced menopausal symptoms including hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and sexual dysfunction. After two monthly treatments with goserelin and exemestane, a sensitive assay for serum estradiol was checked and returned at 16 pg/mL (61 pmol/L); postmenopausal range for sensitive assay is less than 15 pg/mL (&lt; 50 pmol/L). The patient has now been referred to our unit to discuss further management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1041_10233", "title": "The Influence of Histologic Grade on Outcomes of Elderly Women With Early Stage Breast Cancer Treated With Breast Conserving Surgery With or Without Radiotherapy.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Two large randomized trials, CALGB 9343 and PRIME II, support omission of radiotherapy after breast conserving surgery (BCS) in elderly women with favorable-risk early stage breast cancer intending to take endocrine therapy. However, patients with grade 3 histology were underrepresented on these trials. We hypothesized that high-grade disease may be unsuitable for treatment de-escalation and report the oncologic outcomes for elderly women with favorable early stage breast cancer treated with BCS with or without radiotherapy. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database was queried for women between 70 and 79 years of age with invasive ductal carcinoma diagnosed between 1998 and 2007. This cohort was narrowed to women with T1mic-T1c, N0, estrogen receptor-positive, invasive ductal carcinoma treated with BCS with or without external beam radiation (EBRT). The primary endpoints were 5- and 10-year cause-specific survival (CSS). Univariate and multivariate analyses were performed. Propensity-score matching of T-stage, year of diagnosis, and age was utilized to reduce selection bias while comparing treatment arms within the grade 3 subgroup. A total of 12,036 women met inclusion criteria, and the median follow-up was 9.4 years. EBRT was omitted in 22% of patients, including 21% with grade 3 disease. Patients in the EBRT cohort were slightly younger (median, 74 vs. 75 years; P &lt; .01) and had fewer T1a tumors (11% vs. 13%; P = .02). Histologic grades 1, 2, and 3 comprised 36%, 50%, and 14% of the cohort, respectively, and there were no differences in EBRT utilization by grade. Utilization of EBRT decreased following the publication of the CALGB trial in 2004 decreasing from 82% to 85% in 1998 to 2000 to 73% to 75% in 2005 to 2007 (P &lt; .01). Unadjusted outcomes showed that in grade 1 disease, there were no differences in CSS with or without EBRT at 5 (99%) and 10 years (95%-96%). EBRT was associated with an improvement in CSS in grade 2 histology at 5 years (97% vs. 98%) and 10 years (92% vs. 95%) (P = .004). The benefit was more pronounced in grade 3 disease with CSS increasing from 93% to 96% at 5 years and from 87% to 92% at 10 years (P = .02) with EBRT. In the grade 3 subgroup, propensity-score matching confirmed EBRT was associated with superior CSS compared with surgery alone (hazard ratio, 0.58; 95% confidence interval, 0.34-0.98; P = .043). In this database analysis, omission of radiotherapy after BCS in elderly women with favorable-risk, early stage, grade 3 breast cancer was associated with inferior CSS. Further prospective data in this patient population are needed to confirm our findings and conclusions." }, { "id": "article-24564_22", "title": "Breast Lymphatics -- Medical Oncology", "score": 0.009212305611899932, "content": "Adjuvant therapy recommendations are based on the prognostic stage of the disease. Cytotoxic chemotherapy can reduce mortality by about 25%. The primary agents used are anthracyclines such as doxorubicin and epirubicin, and taxanes such as paclitaxel and docetaxel. Tamoxifen and aromatase inhibitors are used in patients with hormone receptor-positive disease to decrease locoregional recurrence, reduce contralateral disease, and improve survival. Trastuzumab and pertuzumab are agents administered in patients with positive HER2 receptors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0524_22517", "title": "Tumor parameters, clinical and pathological responses, medical management, and survival through time on 710 operable breast cancers.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The aim of the current study is an analysis of tumor parameters, clinical and pathological responses, medical management, and survival on 710 operable breast cancer patients who received neoadjuvant chemotherapy from 1982 to 2004 and were grouped into four successive periods according to diagnosis date: (1) 1982-1989; (2) 1990-1994; (3) 1995-1999; and (4) 2000-2004. Patients were treated by different neoadjuvant chemotherapies combinations: AVCF/M, TNCF, NEM, NET, TAXOTERE, FEC 50, 75, 100, FAC 50, and TAXOTERE-TNCF, mainly in successive prospective phase II trials. They received a median number of six cycles (range, 1-9). After primary chemotherapy, patients underwent a surgery and a radiotherapy. In case of significant residual disease, some patients received additional courses of chemotherapy. In addition, menopausal patients with hormonal receptor-positive tumors received tamoxifen for 5 yr. Clinical factors had some remarkable variations with time. The median age of the patients was 49.5 yr (range, 26-81). The size of the tumor was significantly greater from 1995; conversely, clinical lymph-node involvement was lower in period 4 than in the first period. The percentage of invasive ductal carcinoma and of SBR III tumors increased about 20% from 1982-1989 to 2000-2004. The number of positive hormonal receptors increased from 38.3% in period 1 to 74% in period 4. The clinical response rate improved recently from before 1990. The pathological response rate was greater in periods 2 and 3 than in periods 1 and 4. An adjuvant hormonotherapy became progressively more frequently given (44.7 for period 1 and 73.3% for period 4). Finally, no significant difference was found when we compared overall and disease-free survival through the four periods. It appears that the progressive increase of tumor burden was compensated by more effective treatments." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_18293", "title": "Improved disease-free survival with epirubicin-based chemoendocrine adjuvant therapy compared with tamoxifen alone in one to three node-positive, estrogen-receptor-positive, postmenopausal breast cancer patients: results of French Adjuvant Study Group 02 and 07 trials.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The purpose was to compare disease-free survival (DFS) between epirubicin-based chemoendocrine therapy and tamoxifen alone in one to three node-positive (N1-3), estrogen-receptor-positive (ER+), postmenopausal early breast cancer (EBC) patients. We analyzed, retrospectively, 457 patients randomized in FASG 02 and 07 trials who received: tamoxifen alone (30 mg/day, 3 years); or FEC50 (fluorouracil 500 mg/m2, epirubicin 50 mg/m2, cyclophosphamide 500 mg/m2, six cycles every 21 days) plus tamoxifen started concurrently. Radiotherapy was delivered after the third cycle in FASG 02 trial, and after the sixth in FASG 07 trial. The 9-year DFS rates were 72% with tamoxifen and 84% with FEC50-tamoxifen (P = 0.008). The multivariate analysis showed that pathological tumor size &gt;2 cm was an independent prognostic factor (P = 0.002), and treatment effects remained significantly in favor of chemoendocrine therapy (P = 0.0008). The 9-year overall survival rates were 78% and 86%, respectively (P = 0.11). In the multivariate model, there was a trend in favor of chemoendocrine therapy (P = 0.07). The addition of FEC50 adjuvant chemotherapy to tamoxifen significantly improves long-term DFS in N1-3, ER+ and postmenopausal women. Chemoendocrine therapy seems to be more effective than tamoxifen in terms of long-term survival." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 469 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 71 ] ], "text": "Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 469 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 71 ] ], "text": "Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 231 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 37 ] ], "text": "The SEGO in its 2006 protocol \"Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy\" refers that this is chronic hypertension, although diagnosed in pregnancy. This is because it has been diagnosed at 10 weeks of gestation." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 469 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 71 ] ], "text": "Above 20 weeks' gestation, we would be talking about preeclampsia (if HT + proteinuria or uterine artery pulsatility index above the 95th percentile), pregnancy-induced hypertension (only HT) or eclampsia (a form of severe preeclampsia)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Moderate preeclampsia.", "2": "Pregnancy-induced hypertension.", "3": "Chronic hypertension.", "4": "Eclampsia.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20969", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.017652928083506027, "content": "Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension occurs when a pregnant woman with chronic hypertension develops signs of pre-eclampsia, typically defined as new onset of proteinuria ≥30 mg/dL (1+ in the dipstick) in at least 2 random urine specimens that were collected ≥4 h apart (but within a 7-day interval) or 0.3 g in a 24-h period. Like ordinary pre-eclampsia, superimposed pre-eclampsia can also occur with severe features, which are defined as: systolic blood pressure ≥160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mmHg despite escalation of antihypertensive therapy; thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/microL); impaired liver function; new-onset or worsening renal insufficiency; pulmonary edema; or persistent cerebral or visual disturbances. As a result, superimposed pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed without proteinuria when a sudden increase in previously well-controlled blood pressure is accompanied by severe features of pre-eclampsia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_87777", "title": "Eclampsia", "score": 0.01623521891978268, "content": "Vital signs One of the core features of pre-eclampsia is high blood pressure. Blood pressure is a measurement of two numbers. If either the top number (systolic blood pressure) is greater than 140 mmHg or the bottom number (diastolic blood pressure) is greater than 90 mmHg, then the blood pressure is higher than the normal range and the person has high blood pressure. If the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 or the diastolic pressure is greater than 110, the hypertension is considered to be severe. Laboratory testing Another core feature of pre-eclampsia is proteinuria, which is the presence of excess protein in the urine. To determine if proteinuria is present, the urine can be collected and tested for protein; if there is 0.3 grams of protein or more in the urine of a pregnant woman collected over 24 hours, this is one of the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia and raises the suspicion that a seizure is due to eclampsia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_22842", "title": "Gestational hypertension", "score": 0.01571294559099437, "content": "Diagnosis Conditions There exist several hypertensive states of pregnancy: Gestational hypertension Gestational hypertension is usually defined as having a blood pressure higher than 140/90 measured on two separate occasions, more than 6 hours apart, without the presence of protein in the urine and diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation. Pre-eclampsia Pre-eclampsia is gestational hypertension plus proteinuria (>300 mg of protein in a 24-hour urine sample). Severe pre-eclampsia involves a blood pressure greater than 160/110, with additional medical signs and symptoms. HELLP syndrome is a type of pre-eclampsia. It is a combination of three medical conditions: hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes and low platelet count. Eclampsia This is when tonic-clonic seizures appear in a pregnant woman with high blood pressure and proteinuria. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia are sometimes treated as components of a common syndrome. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0937_14908", "title": "Home blood-pressure monitoring in a hypertensive pregnant population.", "score": 0.01532878344708049, "content": "The majority of patients with chronic or gestational hypertension do not develop pre-eclampsia. Home blood-pressure monitoring (HBPM) has the potential to offer a more accurate and acceptable means of monitoring hypertensive patients during pregnancy compared with traditional pathways of frequent outpatient monitoring. The aim of this study was to determine whether HBPM reduces visits to antenatal services and is safe in pregnancy. This was a case-control study of 166 hypertensive pregnant women, which took place at St George's Hospital, University of London. Inclusion criteria were: chronic hypertension, gestational hypertension or high risk of developing pre-eclampsia, no significant proteinuria (≤ 1+ proteinuria on dipstick testing) and normal biochemical and hematological markers. Exclusion criteria were maternal age &lt; 16 years, systolic blood pressure &gt; 155 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure &gt; 100 mmHg, significant proteinuria (≥ 2+ proteinuria on dipstick testing or protein/creatinine ratio &gt; 30 mg/mmol), evidence of small-for-gestational age (estimated fetal weight &lt; 10<supth</sup centile), signs of severe pre-eclampsia, significant mental health concerns or insufficient understanding of the English language. Pregnant women in the HBPM group were taught how to measure and record their blood pressure using a validated machine at home and attended every 1-2 weeks for assessment depending on clinical need. The control group was managed as per the local protocol prior to the implementation of HBPM. The two groups were compared with respect to number of visits to antenatal services and outcome. There were 108 women in the HBPM group and 58 in the control group. There was no difference in maternal age, parity, body mass index, ethnicity or smoking status between the groups, but there were more women with chronic hypertension in the HBPM group compared with the control group (49.1% vs 25.9%, P = 0.004). The HBPM group had significantly fewer outpatient attendances per patient (6.5 vs 8.0, P = 0.003) and this difference persisted when taking into account differences in duration of monitoring (0.8 vs 1.6 attendances per week, P &lt; 0.001). There was no difference in the incidence of adverse maternal, fetal or neonatal outcome between the two groups. HBPM in hypertensive pregnancies has the potential to reduce the number of hospital visits required by patients without compromising maternal and pregnancy outcomes. Copyright © 2018 ISUOG. Published by John Wiley &amp; Sons Ltd." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_9078", "title": "[Atypical preeclampsia and perinatal success: a case report].", "score": 0.014867237217467633, "content": "Preeclampsia is a multi systemic syndrome of variable severity, pregnancy specific, consequence of an abnormal vascular response to placentation, with increase in peripheral vascular resistance, stimulation of platelet aggregation, activation of the coagulation cascade, and endothelial dysfunction. In the majority of cases, it will present with gestational hypertension and proteinuria, after 20 weeks, nevertheless, in other cases, it has presented as an atypical form (with absence of hypertension and/or proteinuria) behaving like severe preeclampsia. We report the case of a patient, 32 year old primigravida, with a 26.6 weeks gestation, that comes to the office with postprandial projectile vomiting. At the time of admission, she presents with sudden headache, phosphenes, and tinnitus, associated to epigastric pain, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; fetal heart rate of 146 bpm, normal lower limbs and reflexes. The Complete Blood Count and liver function tests are within normal values, urinalysis with proteinuria. Normal hepatic ultrasound. Obstetric ultrasound; with fetal measurements of 2.6 weeks below, with flattening of the growth curve, Doppler flowmetry with an increase in placental resistance and oligohydramnios. Given the clinical manifestations compatible with severe preeclampsia, magnesium sulfate, and antenatal corticosteroid therapy are initiated, and abdominal termination of pregnancy is decided. A female newborn is obtained, of 595 g, Apgar 4/7. On immediate puerperium, she presents with an increase in blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, discharged with normal blood pressure 96 hours later. The newborn girl was discharged when she reached a weight of 2000 g. Today, she is neurologically unimpaired." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20965", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.014733863492218374, "content": "Preeclampsia can also be diagnosed if a woman has both increased blood pressure and 1 or more signs of significant organ damage. Signs of significant organ damage include: Severely elevated blood pressure (blood pressure > 160/110) Thrombocytopenia Increased or rapidly elevating levels of creatinine in the blood Increased liver enzymes Pulmonary edema New or persistent headaches that do not respond to pain medication Blurred or altered vision If a woman with preeclampsia has any of these signs of significant organ damage, then her condition is classified as preeclampsia with severe features. This diagnosis can be made even if the patient does not have proteinuria. Women with preeclampsia with severe features are encouraged to deliver the child after 34 weeks of gestation to minimize the risks of the severe complications. Preeclampsia can also present with seizures in the pregnant mother. In this case, the patient would be diagnosed with eclampsia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69073", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.014042257195026518, "content": "Immune factors may also play a role. Diagnosis Testing for pre-eclampsia is recommended throughout pregnancy via measuring a woman's blood pressure. Diagnostic criteria Pre-eclampsia is diagnosed when a pregnant woman develops: Blood pressure ≥140 mmHg systolic or ≥90 mmHg diastolic on two separate readings taken at least four to six hours apart after 20 weeks' gestation in an individual with previously normal blood pressure. In a woman with essential hypertension beginning before 20 weeks' gestational age, the diagnostic criteria are an increase in systolic blood pressure (SBP) of ≥30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure (DBP) of ≥15 mmHg. Proteinuria ≥ or more of protein in a 24-hour urine sample or a SPOT urinary protein to creatinine ratio ≥0.3 or a urine dipstick reading of 1+ or greater (dipstick reading should only be used if other quantitative methods are not available)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_22840", "title": "Gestational hypertension", "score": 0.013847209122867188, "content": "Gestational hypertension or pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is the development of new hypertension in a pregnant woman after 20 weeks' gestation without the presence of protein in the urine or other signs of pre-eclampsia. Gestational hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure greater than 140/90 on two occasions at least 6 hours apart. Signs and symptoms No single diagnostic test currently exists to predict the likelihood of developing gestational hypertension. High blood pressure is the major sign in diagnosing gestational hypertension. Some women with gestational hypertension may present asymptomatic, but a number of symptoms are associated with the condition. Symptoms Edema Sudden weight gain Blurred vision or sensitivity to light Nausea and vomiting Persistent headaches Increased blood pressure" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0034_5365", "title": "Blood pressure, edema and proteinuria in pregnancy. 9. Proposal for classification.", "score": 0.013267993466013268, "content": "The frequency distributions of blood pressures in large populations fail to show two groups, one normotensive and the other hypertensive. In the spectrum of pressures, some people merely have higher levels than others and division of abnormal from normal is artificial and arbitrary, although it is useful for prognosis. The blood pressure of 140/90 as the conventional dividing line does not seem to be appropriate in pregnant women. From the standpoint of fetal prognosis, a level of 125/75 before the thirty-second week and 125/85 thereafter seems more reasonable. Moreover, those levels are close to the 120/80 that Robinson and Brucer specified as the upper limit of normal for all adults and are close to the 130/70 and 120/80 that the eminent British authority, F.J. Browne, used successively in the diagnosis of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy. If the standard of 125/75 were adopted, however, a quarter of all pregnant women would be hypertensive in the second trimester and half in the last month, which are disturbingly high proportions. For the diagnosis of preeclampsia, a rise in blood pressure probably is more significant than an arbitrary level. The usual blood pressure in midpregnancy merely defines the patient's place in the spectrum. Figure 9-1 indicates that in white nulliparas the diastolic pressure rises an average of 10 mm. Hg in the middle of the third trimester. If the mean and median are close together, greater increases would occur in half of the women. The classification of the American Committee on Maternal Welfare and of the Committee on Terminology of the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists specify increases of 30 mm. Hg or more in the systolic or 15 mm. Hg or more in the diastolic pressures as criteria of preeclamptic hypertension. pperhaps the rise in diastolic pressure should be set at some greater value. Our analysis of data made thus far cannot decide that issue. The next phase of the study will include analyses in individual women of the times, magnitudes, persistence or transience, and the like of changes in blood pressure, edema, and proteinuria. Such data will afford much more information than can be derived from the preliminary studies reported here. Although edema of the hands and face may be more common in preeclamptic than in normal women, such edema is so common in normal pregnancy as to suggest that it usually is normal. In our data, edema seems to bear no relation to hypertension or proteinuria. The triad of signs -- hypertension, proteinuria, and edema -- is generally accepted as characteristic, though far from specific for preeclampsia. Our data support Hytten's conclusion that edema should by dropped from the triad. There is some indication, however, that some edema is abnormal and that it is associated with an adverse effect when it coincides with proteinuria late in pregnancy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20964", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.013170924935630818, "content": "Because chronic hypertension can progress to more severe forms of disease, it is important to accurately diagnose the condition early, ideally prior to pregnancy, and initiate management to control parental blood pressure. This is often difficult, as many reproductive individuals may not regularly visit the doctor and, when pregnant, may initially present for prenatal care in the second trimester. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia Preeclampsia is a medical condition which usually develops after 20 weeks of gestation and traditionally involves both newly increased blood pressure (blood pressure > 140/90 mmHg) and proteinuria. Preeclampsia is a leading cause of fetal complications, which include low birth weight, preterm birth, and stillbirth. Women with preeclampsia are encouraged to deliver the child after 37 weeks of gestation to minimize the risks of the severe complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0403_5191", "title": "Prognostic value of office and ambulatory blood pressure measurements in pregnancy.", "score": 0.013035315787609365, "content": "With the objective to assess the prognostic value of office values as compared with ambulatory monitoring in pregnancy, we analyzed 2430 blood pressure series systematically sampled from 403 untreated pregnant women for 48 consecutive hours every 4 weeks from the first visit to the hospital until delivery. Women were divided into 5 groups: \"detected\" gestational hypertension, women with office blood pressures &gt;140/90 mm Hg after 20 weeks of gestation and hyperbaric index (area of blood pressure excess above the upper limit of a time-specified tolerance interval) consistently above the threshold for diagnosing hypertension in pregnancy; \"undetected\" gestational hypertension, office values &lt;140/90 mm Hg but hyperbaric index above the threshold for diagnosis; normotension, both office values and hyperbaric index below the thresholds for diagnosis; white coat hypertension, women with recorded diagnosis of gestational hypertension but hyperbaric index consistently below the threshold for diagnosis; and preeclampsia, defined as gestational hypertension and proteinuria. Results indicate small and nonsignificant differences in 24-hour mean of ambulatory pressures between \"detected\" and \"undetected\" gestational hypertension at all stages of pregnancy, in contrast with highly significant differences between these two groups and normotensive pregnancies. Average office blood pressure values were similar for preeclampsia, \"detected,\" and \"undetected\" gestational hypertension. The hyperbaric index was, however, significantly higher for women with preeclampsia after 20 weeks of gestation as compared with all other groups and higher for women with either \"detected\" or \"undetected\" gestational hypertension as compared with normotensive pregnant women. The incidence of preterm delivery and intrauterine growth retardation were similar for \"detected\" and \"undetected\" gestational hypertension but significantly lower for normotensive women. In pregnancy, the hyperbaric index derived from ambulatory monitoring is markedly superior to office measurements for diagnosis of what should be truly considered gestational hypertension, as well as for prediction of the outcome of pregnancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0818_25015", "title": "Preeclampsia: an update.", "score": 0.013026932084309134, "content": "Preeclampsia was formerly defined as a multisystemic disorder characterized by new onset of hypertension (i.e. systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥ 140 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥ 90 mmHg) and proteinuria (&gt; 300 mg/24 h) arising after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman. Recently, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists has stated that proteinuria is no longer required for the diagnosis of preeclampsia. This complication of pregnancy remains a leading cause of maternal morbidity and mortality. Clinical signs appear in the second half of pregnancy, but initial pathogenic mechanisms arise much earlier. The cytotrophoblast fails to remodel spiral arteries, leading to hypoperfusion and ischemia of the placenta. The fetal consequence is growth restriction. On the maternal side, the ischemic placenta releases factors that provoke a generalized maternal endothelial dysfunction. The endothelial dysfunction is in turn responsible for the symptoms and complications of preeclampsia. These include hypertension, proteinuria, renal impairment, thrombocytopenia, epigastric pain, liver dysfunction, hemolysis-elevated liver enzymes-low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome, visual disturbances, headache, and seizures. Despite a better understanding of preeclampsia pathophysiology and maternal hemodynamic alterations during preeclampsia, the only curative treatment remains placenta and fetus delivery. At the time of diagnosis, the initial objective is the assessment of disease severity. Severe hypertension (SBP ≥ 160 mm Hg and/or DBP ≥ 110 mmHg), thrombocytopenia &lt; 100.000/μL, liver transaminases above twice the normal values, HELLP syndrome, renal failure, persistent epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, visual or neurologic symptoms, and acute pulmonary edema are all severity criteria. Medical treatment depends on the severity of preeclampsia, and relies on antihypertensive medications and magnesium sulfate. Medical treatment does not alter the course of the disease, but aims at preventing the occurrence of intracranial hemorrhages and seizures. The decision of terminating pregnancy and perform delivery is based on gestational age, maternal and fetal conditions, and severity of preeclampsia. Delivery is proposed for patients with preeclampsia without severe features after 37 weeks of gestation and in case of severe preeclampsia after 34 weeks of gestation. Between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation, conservative management of severe preeclampsia may be considered in selected patients. Antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to less than 34 gestation week preeclamptic women to promote fetal lung maturity. Termination of pregnancy should be discussed if severe preeclampsia occurs before 24 weeks of gestation. Maternal end organ dysfunction and non-reassuring tests of fetal well-being are indications for delivery at any gestational age. Neuraxial analgesia and anesthesia are, in the absence of thrombocytopenia, strongly considered as first line anesthetic techniques in preeclamptic patients. Airway edema and tracheal intubation-induced elevation in blood pressure are important issues of general anesthesia in those patients. The major adverse outcomes associated with preeclampsia are related to maternal central nervous system hemorrhage, hepatic rupture, and renal failure. Preeclampsia is also a risk factor for developing cardiovascular disease later in life, and therefore mandates long-term follow-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20960", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.01301865775549986, "content": "Risks Some women have a greater risk of developing hypertension during pregnancy. These are: Women with chronic hypertension (high blood pressure before becoming pregnant). Women who developed high blood pressure or preeclampsia during a previous pregnancy, especially if these conditions occurred early in the pregnancy. Women who are obese prior to pregnancy. Pregnant women under the age of 20 or over the age of 40. Women who are pregnant with more than one baby. Women with diabetes, kidney disease, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or scleroderma. Diagnosis There is no single test to predict or diagnose preeclampsia. Key signs are increased blood pressure and protein in the urine (proteinuria). Other symptoms that seem to occur with preeclampsia include persistent headaches, blurred vision or sensitivity to light, and abdominal pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20961", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.012771929824561403, "content": "All of these sensations can be caused by other disorders; they can also occur in healthy pregnancies. Regular visits are scheduled to track blood pressure and level of protein in urine, to order and analyze blood tests that detect signs of preeclampsia, and to monitor fetal development more closely. Classification A classification of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy uses 4 categories as recommended by the U.S. National High Blood Pressure Education Program Working Group on High Blood Pressure in Pregnancy: Chronic hypertension; Preeclampsia-eclampsia; Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension; Gestational hypertension (transient hypertension of pregnancy or chronic hypertension identified in the latter half of pregnancy)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_4599", "title": "[Hypertensive disorders in pregnancy].", "score": 0.012470225584979684, "content": "Hypertension in pregnancy is defined by a systolic blood pressure &gt; or = 140 mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure of &gt; or = 90 mm Hg or by a rise in blood pressure of systolic &gt; or = 30 mm Hg and diastolic &gt; or = 15 mm Hg. High blood pressures are found in 5-10% of all pregnancies. The outcome of pregnancy is influenced by the fact whether there occurs a proteinuria in addition to hypertension. While the prognosis of an isolated hypotension is good, the combination of hypertension and proteinuria leading to preeclampsia is the primary cause of maternal death in many countries and is responsible for 20-25% of perinatal mortality. A simple classification divides between chronic hypertension, preeclampsia, preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension and transient hypertension. With chronic hypertension pregnancy outcome is determined by a preexisting nephropathy and the occurrence of a superimposed preeclampsia. Preeclampsia and superimposed preeclampsia are pregnancy induced multiorganic diseases, endangering both the mother and the fetus. Transient hypertension is a benign pathology, which occurs toward the end of pregnancy usually on the basis of a latent essential hypertension, which is laid open through pregnancy. While a severe chronic hypertension in pregnancy must be treated to prevent a hypertensive maternal encephalopathy, a less severe chronic hypertension should not be treated as the risk of a superimposed preeclampsia and the maternal and fetal outcome cannot be influenced by antihypertensive therapy. The incidence of preeclampsia is 3-5% in nulliparae and 0.5% in multiparae. Preeclampsia is a severe and dangerous pathology with an unknown etiology. Pregnancy termination is the only causal therapy. At present it is still recommended to terminate a severe preeclampsia after stabilizing the mother, irrespective of gestational age. In less severe preeclampsia occurring before 32 weeks of gestation, termination of pregnancy can be postponed under intensive monitoring and a prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate in order to accelerate the fetal lung maturation with glucocorticoids. A conservative management in the case of a HELLP-syndrome (Haemolyis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), which is a very severe form of preeclampsia, is not recommended because it hasn't been validated in prospective controlled studies. The most dangerous complication of preeclampsia is eclampsia, which is defined by general tonic-clonic convulsions before or after birth. The most effective prophylaxis of eclamptic attacks is the intravenous therapy with magnesium sulfate. A primary prohylaxis for preeclampsia doesn't exist. Treatment with low-dose aspirin in high-risk patients, i.e. after a severe preeclampsia, in cases of chronic hypertension, in cases of nephropathy and in cases with antiphospholipid-syndrome++ can be recommended. The prophylactic use of low-dose heparin, which has lead to a significant decreased incidence of preeclampsia in retrospective analysis, is now the object of a randomized, controlled trial in our hospital. All women who suffered from a preeclampsia should have a check-up after 3-6 months. Preexisting pathologies are found in up to 40% of patients, mostly in multiparae, i.e. chronic hypertension, nephropathy, endocrine pathologies, anomalies of blood coagulation and antiphospolipid-syndrome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20970", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.012348797395526367, "content": "Gestational hypertension Gestational hypertension is a provisional diagnosis that involves newly increased blood pressure in a pregnant woman that usually develops after 20 weeks of gestation, but does not currently show any signs of proteinuria or other features associated with preeclampsia. Up to 50% of gestational hypertension patients go on to develop some form of preeclampsia. Gestational hypertension will normally resolve by 12 weeks postpartum. In this case, the diagnosis of gestational hypertension will be updated to be transient hypertension of pregnancy. If the increased blood pressure does not resolve by 12 weeks postpartum, then the diagnosis of gestational hypertension will be updated to be chronic hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20963", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.012234815460621912, "content": "The diagnostic criteria for chronic hypertension are typically considered to be at least two separate blood pressure readings taken at least four hours apart with systolic blood pressure ≥ 140mmHg, diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg, or both, identified before pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or persisting at least 12 weeks after giving birth. However, there is some controversy over the utility of adopting lower thresholds for diagnosis of chronic hypertension, which is more consistent with recent recommendations from the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association for the diagnosis of hypertension in adults. Chronic hypertension in pregnancy is now considered mild if blood pressures do not exceed 159 mmHg systolic and 109 mmHg diastolic and severe if pressures are ≥ 160 mmHg systolic or 110 mmHg diastolic, although controversy also exists as to the most appropriate cutoffs for this definition." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_4871", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.012214137214137215, "content": "C, FIGURE 40-1 Schematic shows normal reference ranges for mean arterial blood pressure changes across pregnancy. Patient A (blue) has mean blood pressures near the 20th percentile throughout pregnancy. Patient B (red) has a similar pattern with mean pressures at the 25th percentile until approximately 36 weeks when her blood pressure begins to rise. By term, it is substantively higher and in the 75th percentile, but she is still considered \"normotensive.\" 25th percentile until 32 weeks. These begin to rise in patient B, who by term has substantively higher blood pressures. However, her pressures are still < 140/90 mm Hg, and thus she is considered to be \"normotensive.\" We use the term delta hypertension to describe this rather acute rise in blood pressure. Some of these women will go on to have obvious preeclampsia, and some even develop eclamptic seizures or HELLP (hemolysis, devatedliver enzyme levels, low 2latelet count) syndrome while still normotensive." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20966", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.01198759073521882, "content": "Preeclampsia can also present with seizures in the pregnant mother. In this case, the patient would be diagnosed with eclampsia. There is no proven way to prevent preeclampsia/eclampsia. Most women who develop signs of preeclampsia, however, are closely monitored to lessen or avoid related problems. The only way to \"cure\" preeclampsia/eclampsia is to deliver or abort the baby. Eclampsia Eclampsia is one particularly concerning form of preeclampsia in which a pregnant woman who previously presented with signs of newly increased blood pressure begins to experience new generalized seizures or coma. Up to 70% of patients with eclampsia experience complications associated with pregnancy. These complications can include HELLP syndrome, acute kidney injury, and disseminated intravascular coagulation among others." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_43551", "title": "Hypertensive emergency", "score": 0.011808300395256916, "content": "Diagnosis The term hypertensive emergency is primarily used as a specific term for a hypertensive crisis with a diastolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 120 mmHg or systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 180 mmHg. Hypertensive emergency differs from hypertensive urgency in that, in the former, there is evidence of acute organ damage. Both of these definitions had collectively been known as malignant hypertension, although this medical term is replaced. In the pregnant patient, the definition of hypertensive emergency (likely secondary to pre-eclampsia or eclampsia) is only a blood pressure exceeding 160 mmHg systolic blood pressure or 110 mmHg diastolic blood pressure." }, { "id": "article-23221_10", "title": "Hypertension In Pregnancy -- Evaluation", "score": 0.011618795428139102, "content": "The criteria for pre-eclampsia can also be met in the absence of proteinuria if one has new-onset hypertension with thrombocytopenia(platelets less than 100,000 x10(9)/L, renal insufficiency(double of baseline serum creatine or serum creatine >1.1mg/dL), pulmonary edema, impaired liver function (AST/ALT greater than twice upper limit of normal), or new-onset headache unresponsive to medications with no alternative cause.Pre-eclampsia can be superimposed with chronic hypertension, or as advancement along the spectrum of gestational hypertensive disease. Per ACOG guidelines, systolic blood pressure of greater than 160mmHg or diastolic blood pressure greater than 110mmHg on two separate readings 4 hours apart or any severe range pressure that requires antihypertensive medication which by treatment guidelines is severe pressures seperated by minutes(10-30 minutes). [15]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20975", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.011368449209781323, "content": "There is limited evidence to suggest that calcium supplementation may reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia or stillbirth but it is unclear if it has other benefits. Prognosis The effects of high blood pressure during pregnancy vary depending on the disorder and other factors. Preeclampsia does not in general increase a woman's risk for developing chronic hypertension or other heart-related problems. Women with normal blood pressure who develop preeclampsia after the 20th week of their first pregnancy, short-term complications, including increased blood pressure, usually go away within about six weeks after delivery. Some women, however, may be more likely to develop high blood pressure or other heart disease later in life. More research is needed to determine the long-term health effects of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy and to develop better methods for identifying, diagnosing, and treating women at risk for these conditions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69074", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.011273448773448772, "content": "Suspicion for pre-eclampsia should be maintained in any pregnancy complicated by elevated blood pressure, even in the absence of proteinuria. Ten percent of individuals with other signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia and 20% of individuals diagnosed with eclampsia show no evidence of proteinuria. In the absence of proteinuria, the presence of new-onset hypertension (elevated blood pressure) and the new onset of one or more of the following is suggestive of the diagnosis of pre-eclampsia: Evidence of kidney dysfunction (oliguria, elevated creatinine levels) Impaired liver function (noted by liver function tests) Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/microliter) Pulmonary edema Ankle edema (pitting type) Cerebral or visual disturbances" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en059_2554", "title": "Complications of pregnancy", "score": 0.011260775862068965, "content": "High blood pressure Potential severe hypertensive states of pregnancy are mainly: Preeclampsia – gestational hypertension, proteinuria (>300 mg), and edema. Severe preeclampsia involves a BP over 160/110 (with additional signs). It affects 5–8% of pregnancies. Eclampsia – seizures in a pre-eclamptic patient, affect around 1.4% of pregnancies. Gestational hypertension HELLP syndrome – Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes and a low platelet count. Incidence is reported as 0.5–0.9% of all pregnancies. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is sometimes included in the preeclamptic spectrum. It occurs in approximately one in 7,000 to one in 15,000 pregnancies. Venous thromboembolism Deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a form of venous thromboembolism (VTE), has an incidence of 0.5 to 7 per 1,000 pregnancies, and is the second most common cause of maternal death in developed countries after bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1077_9235", "title": "Transient gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia: Two case reports and literature review on the need for stringent monitoring.", "score": 0.011253561253561254, "content": "Transient gestation hypertension is a contributor to adverse pregnancy outcomes particularly when it progresses to pre-eclampsia (PE). This requires frequent monitoring. We illustrate the need for stringent monitoring of gestational hypertension, transient gestational hypertension (TGH) and PE without severe features and conducted a brief rapid review of the literature. Two cases are presented: Firstly, a 25-year-old primigravida at 30 gestational weeks who had an isolated TGH with high blood pressure (BP) of 141/87 mmHg, which was not investigated. Four weeks later, she presented with a BP of 202/128 mmHg, imminent eclampsia and intrauterine foetal death and had an uncomplicated induction of labour and delivered a 1400 g macerated male stillborn. Secondly, a 30-year-old primigravida at 30 gestational weeks who developed PE but her monitoring was compromised initially by inadequate healthcare capacity including unavailability of hospital bed-space for inpatient care and later by poor clinic attendance as a result of poor finances. At 32 gestational weeks, she presented with decreased foetal movement and was diagnosed as haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome and intrauterine foetal death. She was stabilised, had induction of labour and delivered a 1400 g male macerated stillborn. Thereafter, the need for her to go home to complete the cultural burial rites of her baby and the pressure from her workplace resulted in an inadequate postpartum follow-up care. In conclusion, transient gestational hypertension is associated with adverse maternal and foetal outcomes, including foetal demise. Unavailability of hospital bed-space and poor personal finances interfere with stringent monitoring of hypertensive disorders and can be associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes. Stringent laboratory monitoring in these cases is defined by the authors as testing at least blood levels of serum Creatinine, Haemoglobin concentration, Alanine transaminase and Platelet count (abbreviated as 'CHAP') weekly." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20959", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.01123372323990289, "content": "Signs and symptoms Although many pregnant women with high blood pressure have healthy babies without serious problems, high blood pressure can be dangerous for both the mother and baby. Women with pre-existing, or chronic, high blood pressure are more likely to have certain complications during pregnancy than those with normal blood pressure. However, some women develop high blood pressure while they are pregnant (often called gestational hypertension). Chronic poorly-controlled high blood pressure before and during pregnancy puts a pregnant woman and her baby at risk for problems. It is associated with an increased risk for maternal complications such as preeclampsia, placental abruption (when the placenta separates from the wall of the uterus), and gestational diabetes. These women also face a higher risk for poor birth outcomes such as preterm delivery, having an infant small for his/her gestational age, and infant death." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69079", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.011053779679503314, "content": "Differential diagnosis Pre-eclampsia can mimic and be confused with many other diseases, including chronic hypertension, chronic renal disease, primary seizure disorders, gallbladder and pancreatic disease, immune or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, antiphospholipid syndrome and hemolytic-uremic syndrome. It must be considered a possibility in any pregnant woman beyond 20 weeks of gestation. It is particularly difficult to diagnose when pre-existing conditions such as hypertension are present. Women with acute fatty liver of pregnancy may also present with elevated blood pressure and protein in the urine, but differ by the extent of liver damage. Other disorders that can cause high blood pressure include thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma, and drug misuse." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_69045", "title": "Pre-eclampsia", "score": 0.01103454591241043, "content": "Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include obesity, prior hypertension, older age, and diabetes mellitus. It is also more frequent in a woman's first pregnancy and if she is carrying twins. The underlying mechanism involves abnormal formation of blood vessels in the placenta amongst other factors. Most cases are diagnosed before delivery. Commonly, pre-eclampsia continues into the period after delivery, then known as postpartum pre-eclampsia. Rarely, pre-eclampsia may begin in the period after delivery. While historically both high blood pressure and protein in the urine were required to make the diagnosis, some definitions also include those with hypertension and any associated organ dysfunction. Blood pressure is defined as high when it is greater than 140 mmHg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic at two separate times, more than four hours apart in a woman after twenty weeks of pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia is routinely screened for during prenatal care." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en107_1588", "title": "Hypertensive encephalopathy", "score": 0.011020254711217634, "content": "Hypertensive encephalopathy (HE) is general brain dysfunction due to significantly high blood pressure. Symptoms may include headache, vomiting, trouble with balance, and confusion. Onset is generally sudden. Complications can include seizures, posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome, and bleeding in the back of the eye. In hypertensive encephalopathy, generally the blood pressure is greater than 200/130 mmHg. Occasionally it can occur at a BP as low as 160/100 mmHg. This can occur in kidney failure, those who rapidly stop blood pressure medication, pheochromocytoma, and people on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) who eat foods with tyramine. When it occurs in pregnancy it is known as eclampsia. The diagnosis requires ruling out other possible causes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20974", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.011012183692596064, "content": "For all hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, a major component of care is management of the associated hypertension. This involves use of antihypertensive medication as well as restricting activity to lower blood pressure to reduce the risk of stroke. In women with preeclampsia or eclampsia, magnesium sulfate is often prescribed to prevent the occurrence of seizures in the gestational parent. Treatment should be continued from the time of diagnosis to several weeks postpartum given the increased risk of medical complications immediately following delivery of the fetus. Prevention Blood pressure control can be accomplished before pregnancy. Medications can control blood pressure. Certain medications may not be ideal for blood pressure control during pregnancy such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin II (AII) receptor antagonists. Controlling weight gain during pregnancy can help reduce the risk of hypertension during pregnancy." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_4875", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.010989224724783132, "content": "TABLE 40-1. Classification and Diagnosis of Pregnancy-Associated Hypertension Gestational hypertension Preeclampsia: Hypertension plus • 2300 mg/24 h, or Urine protein: creatinine ratio 20.3, or Platelet count < 1 OO,OOO/.LL 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of baselineb Headache, visual disturbances, convulsions aRecommended only if sole available test. bNo prior renal disease. CAST (aspartate transaminase) or ALT (alanine transaminase). BP = blood pressure. Modified with permission from American College ofObstetricians and Gynecologists; Task Force on Hypertension in Pregnancy: Hypertension in pregnancy. Report ofthe American College ofObstetricians and Gynecologists'Task Force on" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en464_20962", "title": "Hypertensive disease of pregnancy", "score": 0.010950854700854702, "content": "This terminology is preferred over the older but widely used term pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) because it is more precise. The newer terminology reflects simply relation of pregnancy with either the onset or first detection of hypertension and that the question of causation, while pathogenetically interesting, is not the important point for most health care purposes. This classification treats HELLP syndrome as a type of preeclampsia rather than a parallel entity. Chronic hypertension Chronic hypertension is a type of high blood pressure in a pregnant woman that is pre-existing before conception, diagnosed early in pregnancy, or persists significantly after the end of pregnancy. It affects about 5% of all pregnancies and can be a primary disorder of essential hypertension or secondary to another condition; it is not caused by pregnancy itself." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 589, 894 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 84, 133 ] ], "text": "Although the use of aspirin and other NSAIDs is effective for erythema nodosum, their use in patients with inflammatory bowel disease should be limited, as they may worsen the intestinal picture, the usefulness of antidepressants in this picture has not been described, so answer nº1 would not be correct." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 270, 429 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 59 ] ], "text": "When associated with inflammatory bowel disease, erythema nodosum usually resolves with treatment of the intestinal flare, and recurs with disease recurrences." } }

{ "1": "Recommend relative rest and warm cloths on both legs and add antidepressant treatment.", "2": "Biopsy areas of skin away from the injured areas and prescribe opioid analgesics for entry.", "3": "Suspect the existence of a malignant intestinal tumor lesion as a trigger of the cutaneous process.", "4": "Suspect bilateral lower extremity ischemia of drug-induced origin.", "5": "Adjustment of bowel disease treatment." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1152_8812", "title": "Atypical Forms of Pyoderma Gangrenosum in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: Report of Four Cases and Literature Review.", "score": 0.01621417797888386, "content": "Cutaneous involvement is the second-most frequent extraintestinal manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, with pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) a particularly relevant form because of its frequency, morbidity, and recurrence. The limited number of clinical trials involving PG increases the challenge to gastroenterologists in the management of this condition. Four cases of atypical presentations of PG are reported. A 25-year-old patient with ulcerative colitis presented an extensive chronic ulcerative lesion on her left leg that was associated with significant bleeding; the intestinal disease was in remission under the use of azathioprine. The patient was on long-term use of 60 mg corticosteroid with no improvement in the skin disease; however, initiation of cyclosporine induced remission. In the second case, a 52-year-old woman was a carrier of Crohn's disease, with a history of partial colectomy. The patient's skin condition had evolved with a cutaneous lesion localized in the perineal region, buttocks, and colostomy pouch, simulating a case of impetigo, and this had been treated with antibiotic cycles without improvement. Lesion biopsy suggested a diagnosis of PG. Consequently, the patient was started on biological therapy with infliximab, and the PG regressed. In the third case, a 38-year-old woman with a history of pancolitis presented a picture of PG with an extensive and deep ulcerative lesion in the right breast. The lesion regressed after treatment with oral corticosteroid. The final case was a 44-year-old woman with Crohn's disease suffering from Crohn's disease pancolitis. The patient's condition evolved with a mixed pattern with pustules, bullae, and ulcerative lesions in the vulva, oral cavity, gluteus, right auricular region, scalp, and left flank, and was resolved by administration of adalimumab. PG is an important and frequent manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, with a spectrum of clinical variants, significant morbidity, and requiring a variety of therapeutic approaches." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1073_10285", "title": "Case Report: Systemic Small-Vessel Vasculitis in an Adolescent With Active Ulcerative Colitis.", "score": 0.015394228584412632, "content": "<bIntroduction:</b Small-vessel vasculitis (SVV) is a rare immunological disease that affects arterioles, capillaries and venules. It causes purpura, but can also manifest in other organs, including the gastrointestinal tract. SVV and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) co-occur more frequently than would be expected by chance. <bCase description:</b A 16-year-old girl, who had been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 2 years earlier at a general hospital, developed purpura, progressive abdominal pain with frequent bloody diarrhea and frontotemporal headache and swelling while on azathioprine and mesalamine maintenance therapy. Serology was positive for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA) without antiprotease- or myeloperoixidase antibodies. Endoscopy revealed active left-sided UC and atypical ulcerations in the ascending colon. Biopsies of these ulcerations and of affected skin revealed leukocytoclastic vasculitis. Initially this was interpreted as an extraintestinal manifestation of UC that would subside when remission was induced, consequently infliximab was started. Over the next 3 weeks she developed severe burning pain in her right lower leg that progressed to a foot drop with numbness and the purpura progressed to bullous lesions. The diagnosis was adjusted to ANCA-associated vasculitis with involvement of skin, bowel and peripheral nerves. Infliximab was discontinued and induction treatment with high-dose prednisolone and cyclophosphamide was given until remission of SVV and UC was achieved. Subsequently, infliximab induction and maintenance was re-introduced in combination with methotrexate. Remission has been maintained successfully for over 2 years now. The foot drop only partly resolved and necessitated the use of an orthosis. <bConclusion:</b Pediatric patients with IBD who present with purpuric skin lesions and abdominal pain should be evaluated for systemic involvement of SVV, which includes endoscopic evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract. We discuss a practical approach to the diagnosis, evaluation and management of systemic SVV with a focus on prompt recognition and early aggressive therapy to improve outcome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_20437", "title": "[Cutaneous metastasis of Crohn's disease].", "score": 0.013219155304289989, "content": "Involvement of the skin in Crohn's disease is rare. We report the case of a young woman presenting cutaneous nodules revealing a Crohn's disease. R. K. a 19 year old woman was admitted the impatient clinic for a 2 week history of nodular lesions of the extremities. Simultaneously, she had watery diarrhoea and abdominal pain associated with a bad general condition and fever. Skin examination showed ulcerated lesions with a non infiltrated inflammatory bader of the left food and the right calf associated with an abscess of the left forearm. Skin biopsy showed an inflammatory infiltrate of the deep dermis with tuberculoid noncaseating granulomas. Colonoscopy demonstrated multiple ulcers, a \"globlestone appearance\" of the glow and segmental glitis. Colonoscopy was followed by a peritonitis which made steroid therapy questionable. Meanwhile, the patient underwent a colonostomy and was fed intravenously, the skin lesions resolved. A follow up colonoscopy demonstrated colon polyps, and the biopsy of the colon showed features of colitis and \"follicular\" duodenitis which was in concordance with the diagnosis of Crohn's disease. Usually, cutaneous lesions in Crohn's disease are consistent with nodules and granulomatous fissures of the grain. Involvement of the mucosa is rare. We report the case of \"metastatic\" localisation of nodular abscesses in Corhn disease. Improvement of cutaneous lesions might be explained by the nonuse of the digestive track allowed by the parenteral supplementation." }, { "id": "article-131092_5", "title": "Extraintestinal Manifestations of Inflammatory Bowel Disease -- Introduction -- Cutaneous Manifestations", "score": 0.012915714648387916, "content": "Cutaneous manifestations of IBD occur in up to 15% of IBD patients. [4] The most common conditions include EN, pyoderma gangrenosum, Sweet syndrome, and oral aphthous lesions. EN frequently arises as tender raised subcutaneous nodules on the lower extremities. These nodules appear red/purple, measuring 1-5 cm in size, and occurs more commonly in females than males. EN is a self-limited condition that coincides with intestinal-IBD activity and improves with IBD treatment. Specific treatment options for mild EN include leg elevation, compression stockings, analgesic, and anti-inflammatory medication. [7]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_39738", "title": "Crohn's disease", "score": 0.011641467782914739, "content": "Intestines The Intestines, especially the Colon and Terminal Ilium are the most commonly affected areas of the body. Abdominal pain is a common initial symptom of Crohn's disease, especially in the lower right abdomen. Flatulence, bloating, and abdominal distension are additional symptoms and may also add to the intestinal discomfort. Pain is often accompanied by diarrhea, which may or may not be bloody. Inflammation in different areas of the intestinal tract can affect the quality of the feces. Ileitis typically results in large-volume, watery feces, while colitis may result in a smaller volume of feces of higher frequency. Fecal consistency may range from solid to watery. In severe cases, an individual may have more than 20 bowel movements per day, and may need to awaken at night to defecate. Visible bleeding in the feces is less common in Crohn's disease than in ulcerative colitis, but is not unusual. Bloody bowel movements are usually intermittent, and may be bright red, dark" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_1233", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.0111579746044498, "content": "A 25-year-old Jewish man presents with pain and watery diarrhea after meals. Exam shows fistulas between the bowel and skin and nodular lesions on his tibias. Inflammatory disease of the colon with ↑ risk of colon cancer. Extraintestinal manifestations of IBD. Medical treatment for IBD. Difference between Mallory-Weiss and Boerhaave tears. Charcot’s triad. Reynolds’ pentad. Medical treatment for hepatic encephalopathy. HIDA scan. Fat, female, fertile, forty, fl atulent. Murphy’s sign, seen in acute cholecystitis. Hernia. Adhesions. S. aureus E. coli O157:H7 Bacillus cereus Salmonella Vibrio, HAV Isospora, Cryptosporidium, Mycobacterium avium complex Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis (greater risk than Crohn’s). Uveitis, ankylosing spondylitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, 1° sclerosing cholangitis. 5-ASA agents and steroids during acute exacerbations. Mallory-Weiss—superficial tear in the esophageal mucosa; Boerhaave—full-thickness esophageal rupture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0866_23650", "title": "Generalized Pyoderma Gangrenosum Associated with Ulcerative Colitis: Successful Treatment with Infliximab and Azathioprine.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is a rare ulcerative skin disease, part of the spectrum of neutrophilic and auto-inflammatory dermatoses. Its pathogenesis is unknown, although immune pathways have been implicated. Lesion biopsies show a predominantly neutrophilic infiltrate. The incidence of PG is uncertain, but it is estimated to be 3-10 per million per year, occurring at any age but most commonly between 20 and 50 years with a possible slightly higher incidence in women. Approximately 50% of patients with PG also have another disease associated with PG. The most common is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), particularly Crohn's and ulcerative colitis (UC). Local treatment may be sufficient for mild cases, while for severe cases systemic immunosuppressants are the mainstay (1,2). We report the case of a patient with bullous PG and UC successfully treated with infliximab and azathioprine. A 32-year-old male Caucasian patient presented with painful violaceous vesicles and enlarging bullae of various sizes and with acute onset, located on the trunk and bilaterally on both the lower and the upper extremities. Lesions on the trunk were composed of hemorrhagic pustules with a surrounding erythematous overhanging border. Some of the lesions had undergone central necrosis and ulceration (Figure 1, a-d). The patient reported of the lesions had appeared one week ago, simultaneously with the exacerbation of a known inflammatory bowel disease with hemorrhagic mucoid diarrhea and fever of up to 38.5°C. The patient's medical history included UC affecting the whole colon (pancolitis), diagnosed 5 months prior to the onset of the epidermal lesions, for which the patient was receiving treatment with oral prednisolone 10 mg/day and mesalazine granules. Blood tests showed severe anemia, leukocytosis, and increased inflammatory markers (C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) andtibodies, antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA), perinuclear neutrophil antibodies (p-ANCA), antiphospholipid antibodies, and tumor markers were within normal limits. The patient was negative for cryoglobulins, viral hepatitis (B, C) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Blood cultures were negative. Microscopy and cultures for mycobacteria and fungi gave negative results. Stool samples tested negative for infections agents. The Mantoux skin test was negative. Colonoscopy showed severe pancolitis, and biopsies from the rectum and sigmoid colon were consistent with chronic ulcerative colitis. Abdominal ultrasound and chest and abdominal X-rays did not result in significant findings. Because of severe anemia, the patient received 2 blood transfusions. The histopathologic examination carried out on the erythematous border of a lesion on the lower leg showed a neutrophilic infiltrate, confined to the dermis. On the basis of clinical findings, the diagnosis of PG was established. Topical wound care consisted of local wound care and a topical corticosteroid. Systemic therapy was initiated with 40 mg/day methylprednisolone for 7 days, 30 mg/day for 7 days, then 25 mg/day, and then tapered down further. The patient received an infusion of infliximab 7.5 mg/kg at weeks 0, 2, and 6 and every 8 weeks thereafter. After week 2, oral azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg daily was added to the treatment. The patient also received mesalazine tablets (2 g ×2/day) and mesalazine enema (1-2/day). The patient showed good response to treatment, with clinical remission of skin lesions. Lesions healed with characteristic thin, atrophic scars (Figure 2, a-d). At 7-month follow-up the patient was continuing with infusions of infliximab 7.5 mg/kg and azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg and was still in remission. We reported our experience with a case of generalized bullous pyoderma gangrenosum associated with ulcerative colitis. Generalized pyoderma gangrenosum is very rare. Bullous or atypical PG was first described by Perry and Winklemann in 1972 (1). Brunsting et al. coined the term pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) to describe a series of patients with recurrent ulcerations (3). The incidence of this disease is uncertain. Its pathogenesis is unknown, but an immunological background has been suggested. In approximately 50% of patients, an underlying immunological disease is present, commonly inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) (4-6). In larger series of patients with PG, approximately 50% present with a primary disorder. Ulcerative colitis is found in 10-15% of cases. Crohn's disease is associated with PG closed than UC. Less than 3% of patients with Crohn's disease or UC develop PG (6). PG is characterized by cutaneous ulcerations with mucopurulent or hemorrhagic exudate. It begins as an inflammatory pustule with a surrounding halo that enlarges and begins to ulcerate. These very painful ulcers present with undermined bluish borders with surrounding erythema. The lesions of PG most commonly occur on the legs, but they may occur anywhere on the body. The clinical picture of PG is very characteristic. Therefore the diagnosis of PG is based firstly on clinical signs and on the patient's history of underlying diseases and then supported by biopsy. PG has four distinctive clinical and histological variants. Some have morphological and histological features that overlap with other reactive neutrophilic skin conditions. There are no diagnostic serologic features (6,7). There is no evidence that the efficacy of treatment strategies for PG differs between IBD and non-IBD patients. For patients with a diffuse disease or rapidly progressive process, systemic treatment is essential. Immunosuppression is the mainstay of treatment. Traditionally, the most commonly used drugs with the best clinical experience are systemic corticosteroids. Corticosteroids have been considered as first line treatment (6,8). As reported by the European Crohn's and Colitis Organisation (ECCO) in 2008, an evidence-based consensus on the management of special situations in patients with ulcerative colitis, systemic corticosteroids are recommended (9). Treatment with corticosteroids (e.g. prednisolone 1-2 mg per kg/day or pulse therapy with 1 g of methylprednisolone) aims to prevent progression and rapidly stop inflammation (6). Additional mesalamine and corticosteroids may be effective in patients with bowel disease (10). In recent years, tumor necrosis alpha (TNF-α) inhibitors, such as infliximab and adalimumab, were reported to be effective for PG associated with IBD. These drugs block the biological activity of TNF-α, which effects regulatory T cells, restoring their capacity to inhibit cytokine production. The TNF-α inhibitors thus suppress the inflammatory processes that is involved in the pathogenesis of PG (11). Infliximab, a chimeric monoclonal antibody, is given by infusion at weeks 0, 2, and 6 and then every 8 weeks, usually at a dosage of 5 mg/kg. UC of patients with frequent disease relapse or those that are resistant or dependent on corticosteroids is often treated with purine antimetabolites, such as azathioprine (AZA) (10). AZA, a purine antimetabolite (2.5 mg per kg/day) is administered for its steroid-sparing effects. The response occurs after 2 to 4 weeks (6, 10). Infliximab can be combined with AZA. Patients with UC treated with infliximab plus AZA were more likely to achieve corticosteroid-free remission at 16 weeks than those receiving either monotherapy (10,12). " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_2213", "title": "[Ileocecal manifestation of Schoenlein-Henoch purpura as a rare differential Crohn disease diagnosis].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In the case of a 21-year-old patient gastroscopy and coloscopy were performed because of recurrent abdominal pain with diarrhea and vomiting. Colonoscopy showed moderate signs of inflammation of the rectum and aphthoid ulcerations in the terminal ileum. Since the macroscopic and clinical presentation was compatible with Crohn's disease, therapy with sulfasalacine was started. Because histology showed only lymphoid hyperplasia and the patient was asymptomatic at that time, the medication was ceased. Recurrence of abdominal pain and weight loss, proteinuria and a recurrent palpable purpura of the shanks in synopsis with the result of the previous colonoscopy led to a suspected diagnosis of Schoenlein-Henoch purpura with cutaneous, renal and abdominal manifestation which was confirmed by dermal and renal biopsies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_31489", "title": "Descending colon", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Crohn’s disease When a person has Crohn’s disease or Crohn’s colitis, they have lesions on the tissues of the intestine; this makes it hard for the intestine to absorb water and salt. The symptoms which may develop from this disease include abdominal pain, diarrhea or constipation, nausea and vomiting, fever, blood in the stool, weight loss, abscesses and fatigue. There is no cure for Crohn’s disease although many treatments are available. Symptomatic treatment with antidiarrhoeals is common in low level cases where the inflammation is reasonably under control. Steroid and/or sulphasalazine treatment are usually the first line of drug based management, although newer drugs along the TNF inhibitor line (such as infliximab and adalimumab) are becoming more widespread in the treatment of inflammatory colonic conditions. Diet and lifestyle changes can also be useful, as stress may exacerbate inflammatory processes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0918_3956", "title": "Xanthoma-like Skin Changes in an Elderly Woman with a Normal Lipid Profile.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Dear Editor, An 83-year-old woman developed yellow-brownish infiltrates, nodules, and tumors mimicking xanthomas, mostly involving the periorbital and chest area within three months (Figure 1). She had no abnormalities in serum cholesterol or triglycerides levels. A detailed laboratory analysis revealed the presence of mild monoclonal gammopathy with a presence of immunoglobulin G (IgG) kappa light chains; however, according to hematologist consultation, it did not require medical intervention. Imaging assessment and ultrasound examination did not show any specific involvement of internal organs. The skin biopsy demonstrated necrobiotic areas alternated with foci of xanthogranulomatous infiltration throughout the reticular dermis with extension into subcutaneous tissue. The granulomatous infiltrate was composed of epithelioid, foamy histiocytes in addition to conspicuous giant cells of the Touton type and foreign body type, as well as variable numbers of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and neutrophiles. Lipid vacuoles were seen within the foci of necrobiosis and xanthogranulomatous infiltration (Figure 2). Two months after first admission to our department, the first signs of necrosis within the lesions were noted, and massive necrosis of skin lesions occurred after the following 5 months (Figure 1). Based on the clinical manifestation and histological and laboratory findings, the diagnosis of necrobiotic xanthogranuloma (NXG) was established. In our patient, the extremely late onset of the disease, its very aggressive course, and the absence of malignant hematological disorder were remarkable. The general condition improved after local treatment and a low dose of prednisone. However, patient anamnesis revealed myocardial infarction in the past, congestive heart failure, and atrial fibrillation. Eventually, the patient died due to acute heart failure before alkylating agents could be administered; we consider the patient's death to have been unrelated to NXG. NXG is a rare, chronic granulomatous disorder which was first described in 1980 by Kossard and Winkelmann (1). Currently, less than one hundred fifty cases of this syndrome have been reported in the literature worldwide (2,3). The disease occurs during adulthood, slightly more frequently in women, and usually after the age of 60 years, although the youngest reported patient was 17 years old (3). The disease initially manifests as xanthoma-like eruptions of yellowish or red-orange papules and nodules that coalesce into indurated plaques (4). The size of the lesions typically increases over time or with the next recurrences. In comparison to hyperlipemic and normolipemic xanthomas, the lesions are firmer, more prominent, and more polymorphic (3) with superficial telangiectasias, sometimes erythematous and/or violaceous borders, and atrophy (5). Ulcerations of the lesions were observed in about 50% of patients and tended to be extensive and progressive (4). Skin lesions of NXG can occur anywhere on the body. However, about two-thirds of patients had periorbital involvement, particularly on the upper and/or lower eyelids or elsewhere on the face. The second most commonly affected site was the trunk, predominantly the chest (3-6). However, many skin lesions first appear on the trunk or extremities and subsequently involve the periorbital area (4). More than one body area was affected in about 90% of the published cases (3,4). In individual cases, the occurrence of NXG was noted within scars, after trauma, or in a previously X-ray irradiated area (5). Lesions may be asymptomatic; however, over half of patients asked reported various symptoms, predominantly itching but also burning, tenderness, and even pain (4,5). Periorbital skin lesions are often accompanied by ophthalmic manifestations, mainly scleritis, choroiditis, or conjunctivitis (3), and with complications such as blepharoptosis, restricted ocular motility, and proptosis (4,5). Extracutaneous lesions are most commonly seen in the respiratory tract, including the lungs and larynx, followed by the myocardium, oral cavity, skeletal muscles, kidneys, ovaries, intestine, and other sites (5,6). Extracutaneous involvement was reported in less than 20% of cases (3), but its frequency seems to have increased in recent years (5). Regarding laboratory abnormalities, the majority of patients with NXG (70% and up to 90% depending on the studied population) have a monoclonal gammopathy (more often IgG-kappa than IgG-lambda). Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, anemia, leukopenia, low C1 and C4 levels, and cryoglobulinemia are also frequently present (3-6). Incisional biopsy is recommended to confirm the diagnosis of NXG, but correlations between the clinical presentation and specific histopathologic findings have been poorly characterized so far. The histopathology shows an inflammatory infiltrate composed of macrophages, foam cells, plasma cells, and other inflammatory cells as well as Touton and foreign body-type giant cells in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Necrobiosis is usually present, and nodular lymphoid aggregates are common. Cholesterol clefts or asteroid bodies are rare or absent. The epidermis may be atrophic or normal. Special stains are not helpful in establishing the diagnosis of NXG, but immunohistochemistry for CD68 is positive while it is always for CD1a and PS100 negative, like in non-X histiocytosis (4,5). In patients without a known myeloproliferative disorder, bone marrow biopsy may reveal atypical or increased plasma cells and, very rarely, true multiple myeloma (5). As mentioned above, NXG can be a manifestation of multiple myeloma. However, chronic lymphocyte leukemia, B-cell lymphoma, and other lymphoproliferative diseases have also been reported in patients with NXG (3). Remarkably, hematological disorders may emerge many years before or after the onset of skin lesions (even up to 11 years) (4). According to available literature data, the course of the disease is usually chronic and slowly progressive, and the prognosis is relatively good in the absence of co-occurrence of malignant hematological disorders ([5-7). Aside from hyperlipemic and normolipemic xanthomas, the differential diagnosis of NXG includes multifocal necrobiosis lipoidica, granuloma annulare, foreign-body granuloma, juvenile xanthogranuloma, rheumatoid nodules, and amyloidosis (4). In 5 cases from the literature, xanthoma and NXG were present at the same time (3). Despite several hypotheses, the etiopathogenesis of NXG remains unknown (3,4,8). For that reason and due to the rarity of the disease, the optimal therapy has not been not defined. Frequently, chlorambucil or melphalan have been used alone or in combination with prednisone (4). Treatment may result in remission of symptoms on the skin, but it does not provide a permanent cure (8). There are also single reports of the successful use of thalidomide, lenalidomide, cyclophosphamide, dexamethasone, interferon 2a and 2b, plasmapheresis and hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, infliximab, and autologous bone marrow transplantation (3). Methotrexate seems to be ineffective (9). Local therapy, including local steroids, laser CO2, or radiotherapy, results in partial improvement (3,4). Skin lesions which relapsed or were unresponsive to treatment could be excised surgically and the defects resurfaced with skin grafts. [2]." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_3972", "title": "[Cutaneous complications in idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 29-year-old male patient with the anamnesis of inflammatory bowel disease and Grave-Basedowov disease was hospitalized because of rapidly spreading skin defect with affected muscle on the left shin. This skin defect appeared after the significant decreasing of corticoids. The small skin trauma preceded the pyoderma gangrenosum. First the skin disease was not right diagnosed and patient was cured by the excision of the defect. It caused tissue disintegration, muscle necrosis and extension of the defect. The whole leg was endangered. Patient was cured with corticoids and cyclosporin A after the right diagnosis. The defect healed and laboratory inflammatory markers decreased. The immunosuppresive therapy was changed to azathioprin, the corticoid therapy was interrupted. After three months the defect was healed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_18550", "title": "An unusual cutaneous manifestation of Crohn's disease.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 61-year-old man with a 12-year history of quiescent Crohn's disease on mesalamine presented to his gastroenterologist in April 2009, complaining of abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and a 25-lb weight loss over 6 weeks. He did not respond to prednisone 50 mg and 6-mercaptopurine 100 mg daily. Abdominal computed tomography findings revealed diffuse submucosal edema consistent with extensive colitis. Colonoscopy demonstrated diffuse inflammation with erythema, friability, and shallow ulcerations in the rectum and colon. Biopsies were consistent with Crohn's colitis. He was admitted for infliximab infusion for his unremitting diarrhea. Five days before admission, the patient noted mild swelling and redness of the left lower eyelid, which progressed to involve the right lower eyelid with frank pus draining from both eyes. He had no visual impairment or eye pain. Two days before admission, an ophthalmologist prescribed a steroid eyedrop with no relief. He also complained of seropurulent painful skin lesions on his face and scalp, which spread to involve his upper trunk and proximal arms. On admission to the hospital, dermatology, ophthalmology, and infectious disease consultations were obtained to rule out disseminated infection before initiation of infliximab therapy. The patient was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His oral mucosa was normal. He had prominent bilateral lower eyelid edema, erythema, and superficial erosions with hemorrhagic crusting and frank green purulent drainage from both eyes, with crusting along the lower lash line and bilateral sclera injection (Figure 1). On his scalp, face, trunk, and proximal extremities, he had 25 to 30 erythematous, 4- to 8-mm papulopustules with narrow red halos, some with central necrosis and crusting (Figure 2). Cultures from the purulent ocular drainage and pustules on the trunk and arms were all negative for bacteria, virus, and fungi. Gram stain from the eye drainage showed polymorphonuclear leukocytes without organisms. Tissue cultures were negative for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial infection. Skin biopsy taken from the central upper back demonstrated subcorneal pustules with areas of eroded epidermis and collections of neutrophils in the superficial dermis (Figure 3). Special stains were negative for organisms. He received infliximab infusion 5 mg/kg for a total dose of 420 mg over 2 hours. Within 48 hours of infusion, there was notable decrease in size of lesions, in addition to reduction of purulent drainage from both eyes. The patient was discharged home following infliximab infusion. His skin lesions resolved during a period of 2 weeks, leaving small pink atrophic scars. He received his second infusion of infliximab 2 weeks after discharge with continued improvement in his gastrointestinal symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_54756", "title": "Inflammatory bowel disease", "score": 0.009538999012683222, "content": "Signs and symptoms In spite of Crohn's and UC being very different diseases, both may present with any of the following symptoms: abdominal pain, diarrhea, rectal bleeding, severe internal cramps/muscle spasms in the region of the pelvis and weight loss. Anemia is the most prevalent extraintestinal complication of inflammatory bowel disease. Associated complaints or diseases include arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and non-thyroidal illness syndrome (NTIS). Associations with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP) have also been reported. Diagnosis is generally by assessment of inflammatory markers in stool followed by colonoscopy with biopsy of pathological lesions. Causes IBD is a complex disease which arises as a result of the interaction of environmental and genetic factors leading to immunological responses and inflammation in the intestine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0963_13087", "title": "Erythema nodosum.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Erythema nodosum can be associated with a number of systemic diseases. There is, however, a paucity of information in the pediatric literature on this condition. The purpose of this article is to familiarize pediatricians with the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of erythema nodosum. A PubMed search was completed in Clinical Queries using the key terms \"erythema nodosum\". Clinically, erythema nodosum presents with a sudden onset of painful, erythematous, subcutaneous nodules mainly localized to the pretibial areas. Lesions are usually bilateral and symmetrical, ranging from 1 to 5 cm in diameter. Erythema nodosum may be associated with a variety of conditions such as infection, medications, sarcoidosis, pregnancy, inflammatory bowel disease, vaccination, autoimmune disease, malignancy, and miscellaneous causes. The condition is idiopathic in approximately 50% of cases. The diagnosis is mainly clinical with biopsy reserved for atypical cases. To evaluate for the underlying cause, some basic laboratory screening studies are worthwhile in most cases and include a complete blood cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein, throat swab culture, antistreptococcal O titers, and a chest radiograph. Other tests should be individualized, guided by the history and physical examination results. Most cases of erythema nodosum are self-limited and require no treatment. Bed rest and leg elevation are generally recommended to reduce the discomfort. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first-line treatment for pain management. As erythema nodosum is often a cutaneous manifestation of a systemic disease, a thorough search should be performed to reveal the underlying cause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0372_9396", "title": "[Value of abdominal-pelvic computed tomography in adult rheumatoid purpura].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a rare eventuality in adulthood. Abdominal involvement can worsen the short-term prognosis and justify medical treatment to avoid surgery. Abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) was performed in six adult patients (four men and two women; age range, 19-74 years) with Henoch-Schonlein purpura before any treatment. Abdominal symptoms were concomitant with the purpuric rash in two cases and followed it in the other cases. The small bowel was always involved with a parietal thickening, and the target sign was observed in three patients. The lesions were located in the duodenum in two patients, the jejunum in two and the ileum in five. Two segments were involved in one patient and three segments in another patient. A peritoneal effusion was always present. No colonic lesion was discovered on CT. Once the results were known, all patients received steroids with initially intravenous methylprednisolone in five patients at doses ranging from 80 to 1,000 mg/day. On follow-up, none of the patients underwent surgery. Abdominopelvic CT scan demonstrated signs suggestive of intestinal vasculitis. An underlying neoplasia or an eventual other cause of abdominal pain were explored and a steroid therapy was then began with a good outcome. Abdominal CT can be helpful in the diagnosis of abdominal involvement in Henoch-Schonlein purpura." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1079_11362", "title": "Parallel disease activity of Behçet's disease with renal and entero involvements: a case report.", "score": 0.009470446055811911, "content": "Behçet's disease (BD) is a systemic inflammatory vasculitis with both autoimmune and autoinflammatory properties. Renal involvement in BD and its spontaneous remission have been rare. We herein describe a case of parallel disease activity of BD with entero and renal involvements, followed by a spontaneous remission without corticosteroid treatment. A 54-year-old woman who had a 4-year history of BD, maintained with colchicine treatment, suffered abdominal pain, hemorrhagic stool and diarrhea. Physical examination revealed strong tenderness in the entire abdomen. Laboratory test results showed increased levels of inflammation, and a computed tomography scan revealed edematous intestinal wall thickening with ascites. Blood and stool cultures showed no specific findings. Since she was suspected to have developed panperitonitis with acute enterocolitis, she started treatment with an antibacterial agent under bowel rest. Her abdominal symptoms gradually improved, while diarrhea and high levels of inflammatory reaction persisted. Colonoscopy revealed discontinuous abnormal mucosal vascular patterns and ulcerations in the whole colon except for the rectum, and histological analyses of the intestine demonstrated transmural mucosal infiltration of inflammatory cells without epithelioid granuloma or amyloid deposition. Based on these findings, she was diagnosed with entero BD. Meanwhile, pedal edema appeared during her hospitalization. Urinalysis results were consistent with nephrotic syndrome, thus a renal biopsy was performed. Light microscopy showed no obvious glomerular and interstitial abnormalities, whereas electron microscopy revealed foot process effacement without immune complex deposition or fibrillary structure, compatible with minimal change disease (MCD). Only with conservative therapy, her proteinuria decreased, followed by a complete remission in 3 weeks from the onset of edema. The coincident episode of MCD was finally diagnosed as renal BD that paralleled disease activity to entero BD. She started adalimumab administration, resulting in the further improvement of diarrhea and inflammatory levels. This is the first report to demonstrate MCD as renal involvement of BD along with the disease activity of entero BD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_1472", "title": "[Atypical recurrent aseptic cutaneous abscesses as the presenting manifestation of Crohn's disease].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We report here a case of chronic inflammatory bowel disease revealed by multiple large cutaneous aseptic distal necrotic ulcers. A 44-year-old male presented with high fever at 40°C associated with multiple necrotic abcesses located on the distal part of his limbs. They were treated successfully by debridment and dressings associated with antibiotics allowing complete healing after 1 month. Six months later, the patient relapsed on his left hand with a short episode of diarrhoea. A total coloscopy revealed a Crohn's disease. Systemic corticotherapy and azathioprine were administered and complete remission was obtained with a 1-year follow-up. Skin manifestations that this patient presented were atypical because of their number, size, and location, exclusively distally on the limbs. This report illustrates an unusual presentation of Crohn's disease with multiple necrotic ulcers only located on the patient extremities." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_8452", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009356792838677316, "content": "is poorly understood. Medical and surgical treatment of the colonic disease does not impact symptoms.51Erythema nodosum is seen in 5% to 15% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease and usually coincides with clini-cal disease activity. Women are affected three to four times more frequently than men. The characteristic lesions are raised, red, and predominantly on the lower legs. Pyoderma gangreno-sum is an uncommon but serious condition that occurs almost exclusively in patients with inflammatory bowel disease. The lesion begins as an erythematous plaque, papule, or bleb, usu-ally located on the pretibial region of the leg and occasionally near a stoma. The lesions progress and ulcerate, leading to a painful, necrotic wound. Pyoderma gangrenosum may respond to resection of the affected bowel in some patients. In others, this disorder is unaffected by treatment of the underlying bowel disease. One of the challenges in managing pyoderma is that this manifestation of IBD exhibits" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1100_17413", "title": "Indurated Plaques on the Legs: Think Lymphoma.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Dear Editor, Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg-type (PCDLBCL-LT) is a rare and aggressive neoplasm. A timely diagnosis may prevent fatal outcomes; physicians should take this entity into consideration when assessing non-specific lesions on the lower limbs. We present a 69-year-old woman with a 1-month history of a firm plaque on her left leg. Physical examination revealed an asymptomatic, indurated, smooth, and erythematous plaque on the pretibial region of her left extremity (Figure 1, a). The rest of the physical examination was normal. Histological examination revealed cohesive sheets of a dense cell infiltrate in the dermis, composed of large round immunoblast-type cells with prominent nucleoli, and the presence of mitoses. Immunohistochemical stains were positive for CD20, Bcl2, and MUM1 (Figure 1, b-d). Additionally, c-MYC and Ki67 exhibited a 20% positivity; CD3 and CD10 were negative. The diagnosis of PCDLBCL-LT was established. Imaging and blood workup ruled out systemic involvement. Treatment with R-CHOP chemotherapy was initiated, with complete tumor regression by the third cycle. The patient completed 6 cycles and has remained disease-free after 18 months. Primary cutaneous B-cell lymphomas (CBCL) are lymphoproliferative disorders that appear on the skin without evidence of extracutaneous manifestations at the time of diagnosis (1). They represent 25 to 35% of all primary cutaneous lymphomas (2). In 2018, an updated version of the 2008 WHO-EORTC classification divided CBCLs into 5 subtypes: PCDLBCL-LT, primary cutaneous marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (PCMZL), primary cutaneous follicle center lymphoma (PCFCL), Epstein-Barr virus-positive mucocutaneous ulcer (EBVMCU), and intravascular large B-cell lymphoma (3). PCDLBCL-LT is the least common subtype, representing approximately 10% of all CBCLs and only 4% of all cutaneous lymphomas (2,3). Although the pathogenesis for most CBCLs is still unknown, positive serology for Lyme disease in a significant number of patients has been recognized as a probable etiologic association (4). PCDLBCL-LT is more frequent in women, and the mean age of presentation is 76 years. It usually presents as erythematous or bluish nodules, and up to 75% of the cases appears on one or both legs (1). Although infrequent, other locations have been reported, including the head, neck, trunk, and upper extremities (5). Workup should include a complete physical exam, skin biopsy, blood tests, and imaging (2,3). Histopathology shows a diffuse infiltrate in the dermis composed of large B-cells (centroblasts and/or immunoblasts) with extension to subcutaneous cellular tissue. These cells have round nuclei that are more than twice the size of normal lymphocytes, with prominent nucleoli. The immunophenotype of PCDLBCL-LT is CD20+, CD79a+, CD10-, and Bcl-6+/-, and strongly expresses Bcl-2, MUM1/IRF4, and FOX-P1 (1-3). Unlike the other indolent subtypes, PCDLBCL-LT is generally more aggressive with a poor prognosis. The 5-year disease survival rate is of approximately 50% (5). Management depends on the body surface area, location, and the patient's age and general health. To date, chemotherapy with R-CHOP remains the first line of therapy for PCDLBCL-LT, resulting in complete remission in up to 92% of cases (2). The prognostic characteristics of most PCDLBCL-LTs require timely and appropriate diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0407_14718", "title": "[Clinical features of Crohn's disease: its diagnosis and treatment].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To enhance our understanding of Crohn's disease and improve its early diagnostic accuracy and therapeutic efficacy. Thirty-one patients with active Crohn's disease were studied. All their diagnostic and therapeutic results were analyzed. Most patients were young adults, with a 1.14:1 female predominance in prevalence. The disease affects any segment or a combination of segments of the alimentary tract from the mouth to the anus. However, the colon and the small bowel were the major sites involved. Recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and watery diarrhea were the most common symptoms. In addition, low grade fever, emaciation, anemia, and symptoms with skin, joints or perianal complications could be discovered if attention was paid. An endoscopy combined with histologic examination in biopsy specimens provided characteristic features with a diagnostic accuracy of 62.9%. Granulomas were identifiable in 30.8% of all biopsy specimens. Transabdominal bowel sonography (TABS) accurately detected intestinal complications. Factors causing misdiagnosis were: insufficient attention of the disease, diverse clinical presentations, or over emphasis of the diagnostic value of granulomas. Oral prednisone therapy for mild to moderate disease was more rapid to receive clinical remission when compared to oral aminosalicylates (SASP or 5-ASA). Nutrition support therapy was given in 20 cases with active disease and received beneficial effects on host nutritional status. Immunosuppressives were used on an individual basis, and showed variable effects with limited experience. Sixteen patients had operations due to intestinal obstruction or failure to respond to drug therapies. Rapid improvement after operations was achieved. Crohn's diseases not uncommon in China. Abdominal pain and watery diarrhea are two hallmark symptoms. Endoscopy (with biopsy), and TABS were both valuable procedures for diagnosis. Prednisone and SASP/5-ASA were effective as inductive therapies. Surgery, as an alternative and effective treatment, provided another choice in well selected patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en595_17829", "title": "Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type (PCDLBCL, LT) (also termed PCDLBCL, leg type or primary cutaneous DLBCL, leg type) is a cutaneous lymphoma skin disease that occurs mostly in elderly females. In this disease, B-cells (a type of lymphocyte) become malignant, accumulate in the dermis (i.e. the layer under the epidermis) and subcutaneous tissue below the dermis to form red and violaceous skin nodules and tumors. These lesions typically occur on the lower extremities but in uncommon cases may develop on the skin at virtually any other site. In ~10% of cases, the disease presents with one or more skin lesions none of which are on the lower extremities; the disease in these cases is sometimes regarded as a variant of PCDLBL, LT termed primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, other (PCDLBC-O). PCDLBCL, LT is a subtype of the diffuse large B-cell lymphomas (DLBCL) and has been thought of as a cutaneous counterpart to them. Like most variants and subtypes of the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en386_23020", "title": "Abdominal migraine", "score": 0.009221696005718882, "content": "Diagnostic criteria from the International Classification of Headache Disorders are: A. At least 5 attacks fulfilling criteria B-D. B. Attacks of abdominal pain lasting 1–72 hours (untreated or unsuccessfully treated) C. Abdominal pain has all of the following characteristics: 1. midline location, periumbilical or poorly localized 2. dull or \"just sore\" quality 3. moderate or severe intensity D. During abdominal pain at least 2 of the following: 1. loss of appetite 2. nausea 3. vomiting 4. pallor E. Not attributed to another disorder Differential diagnosis Abdominal migraine must be distinguished from other causes of chronic or recurrent abdominal pain, such as irritable bowel syndrome, peptic ulcer disease, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. It must also be distinguished from causes of acute abdominal pain, such as appendicitis - wrong diagnosis may lead to unnecessary appendectomy. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0794_16304", "title": "Subcutaneous histiocytoid sweet syndrome associated with crohn disease in an adolescent.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We report a case of subcutaneous histiocytoid Sweet syndrome in an adolescent with Crohn disease. A 14-year-old boy with a 1-year history of ileocolonic and perianal Crohn disease, treated with infliximab and azathioprine, was admitted to the Pediatrics Department with malaise, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and fever (39°C) from 15 days ago. Two days later, he developed cutaneous lesions consisting of tender, erythematous, and violaceous papules and nodules scattered over his legs, soles, and upper extremities. Laboratory studies revealed neutrophilia, microcytic anemia, and elevation of both erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein rate. A skin biopsy specimen showed deep dermal and predominantly septal inflammatory infiltrate in the subcutaneous tissue composed of polymorphonuclears, eosinophils, and mononuclear cells of histiocytic appearance. These histiocytoid cells stained positive for myeloperoxidase. Subcutaneous Sweet syndrome is a rare subtype of acute neutrophilic dermatosis, in which the infiltrate is exclusively or predominantly located in the subcutaneous tissue, causing lobular or septal panniculitis. It is often described in patients with an underlying haematological disorder or caused by drugs, but very rare in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, especially in childhood or adolescence. To our knowledge, this is the first case of subcutaneous histiocytoid type in a paediatric patient. " }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22929", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Up to one-third of IBD patients have at least one extraintestinal disease manifestation. Erythema nodosum (EN) occurs in up to 15% of CD patients and 10% of UC patients. Attacks usually correlate with bowel activity; skin lesions develop after the onset of bowel symptoms, and patients frequently have concomitant active peripheral arthritis. The lesions of EN are hot, red, tender nodules measuring 1–5 cm in diameter and are found on the anterior surface of the lower legs, ankles, calves, thighs, and arms. Therapy is directed toward the underlying bowel disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_21239", "title": "Hardness and Painful Lesion of the Breast.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Dear Editor, Lupus panniculitis or lupus profundus is a rare inflammatory complication found in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), or discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) (1). When the breast is involved, the term lupus mastitis (LM) is used. This disease involving the breast is rare, and the lesions may precede, coincide with, or occur later than the onset of other lupus lesions. Tissue biopsy is required to confirm the suspected diagnoses of LM. We report a case of a patient with lupus mastitis due to the important differential diagnosis. A 60-year-old woman presented with a painful nodular lesion in her left breast that had appeared 15 days ago (Figure 1, a). She had been previously diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus 3 years ago. Physical examination revealed a deep and firm erythematous subcutaneous nodule without overlying skin involvement in the lower-central portion of the left breast. Laboratory findings were positive for antinuclear antibodies (1:80) and double-stranded deoxynucleic acid antibodies (1:10). Mammography and ultrasounds showed an area of increased density and irregular breast tissue along with an important thickening of the overlying skin (Figure 1, b). On suspicion of malignancy, a needle biopsy of the breast lesion was performed and showed vacuolar alteration and lymphocytic infiltrate in the basal layer. Subcutaneous fat showed a lobular panniculitis with a prominent lymphocytic infiltrate and hyalinization of the fat lobules (hyaline fat necrosis). Direct immunofluorescence of the face biopsy revealed IgA, IgG, IgM, and C3 granular deposition. Based on these results, a diagnosis of lupus mastitis associated with DLE was established. Antimalarial therapy resulted in complete resolution of the clinical features. Three years later, the patient presented with a disfiguring atrophy with retraction in the damaged areas of the breast (Figure 2). Lupus mastitis is a very unusual disease that most commonly affects middle-aged women. The first case of LM was described by Tuffanelli in 1971. The lesions usually present following the diagnosis of SLE/DLE; however, on rare occasions they may be observed earlier (2). The histophysiology of this disease remains unclear, but the predominant theory suggests an autoimmune-related etiology. Corroborating evidence for this theory includes the finding of immune complexes, both at the basement membrane of the dermal-epidermal junction and in the blood vessels in the areas of panniculitis (3). Lupus mastitis may be present in the breast as single or multiple subcutaneous nodules that may be tender or painful and can progress to chronic ulcers over time or resolve, leaving atrophic scars. The overlying skin can be normal, erythematous, poikilodermic or ulcerated. When skin changes are prominent, the lesion may clinically and radiologically mimic inflammatory breast carcinoma. Mammographic and ultrasounds findings include an ill-defined breast density with or without associated microcalcifications (4). Histologically, this disease is characterized by lobular lymphocytic panniculitis and predominantly involves the fat lobule and the presence of anucleated adipocytes in a background of a glassy-appearing collagenous stroma (hyaline fat necrosis). Fibrinoid necrosis of the vessel wall has also been reported, but is usually absent (5). Differential diagnosis of lupus mastitis includes inflammatory breast carcinoma, primary medullary carcinoma, and other immune-mediated inflammatory conditions such as diabetic mastopathy. The first line of treatment the use of antimalarial drugs such as hydroxychloroquine. Systemic steroids and cyclophosphamide have also been used. Surgical treatment should be considered only in patients who do not respond to management with medications. In summary, we reported a case of lupus mastitis in a patient with discoid lupus erythematosus. This dermatosis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of breast lesions in lupus patients, and a biopsy of the breast lesion is essential to reject suspected malignancy. If the disease is left untreated, unsightly atrophy will appear; it is thus important to diagnose early on. The course of the disease tends to be chronic with remission and flares, so patients should be followed-up regularly due to the risk of recurrences in the same area or in a different location." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22930", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is seen in 1–12% of UC patients and less commonly in Crohn’s colitis. Although it usually presents after the diagnosis of IBD, PG may occur years before the onset of bowel symptoms, run a course independent of the bowel disease, respond poorly to colectomy, and even develop years after proctocolectomy. It is usually associated with severe disease. Lesions are commonly found on the dorsal surface of the feet and legs but may occur on the arms, chest, stoma, and even the face. PG usually begins as a pustule and then spreads concentrically to rapidly undermine healthy skin. Lesions then ulcerate, with violaceous edges surrounded by a margin of erythema. Centrally, they contain necrotic tissue with blood and exudates. Lesions may be single or multiple and grow as large as 30 cm. They are sometimes very difficult to treat and often require IV antibiotics, IV glucocorticoids, dapsone, azathioprine, thalidomide, IV cyclosporine, or infliximab." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en601_24580", "title": "Checkpoint inhibitor induced colitis", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Grading colitis and diarrhea The extent of diarrhea is graded based on severity, from 1 to 5. Grade 1 diarrhea is defined by an increase in the number of stools below four per day (compared with baseline). Grade 2 diarrhea is defined by an increase of 4–6 bowel movements per day. Grade 3 diarrhea is defined by an increase by 7 or more bowel movements per day. Grade 4 diarrhea involves life-threatening consequences, such as shock, whereas grade 5 results in death. The extent of colitis is also graded based on severity, from 1 to 5. Grade 1 colitis does not result in any symptoms, while grade 2 colitis leads to abdominal pain, mucous and blood in the stools. Grade 3 colitis is defined by severe pain, peritoneal signs and ileus. Grade 4 colitis is defined by life-threatening consequences, including perforation, ischemia, necrosis, bleeding, or toxic megacolon. Grade 5 colitis results in death." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1096_24641", "title": "[Metastatic Crohn's disease of the umbilicus: An exceptional location].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Cutaneous manifestations of Crohn's disease are frequent and include metastatic lesions. These are separated from the digestive tract and affect particularly the limbs and major folds. Umbilical involvement is exceptional. A 93-year-old woman followed for 6 years for Crohn's disease, in remission on infliximab, 5mg/kg every 8 weeks, consulted for a fissured and painful omphalitis. Histology revealed epithelioid granulomas without necrosis in the dermis, leading to the diagnosis of umbilical cutaneous metastasis of Crohn's disease. Infliximab intensification every 6 weeks led to a positive outcome. We report a unique case of umbilical metastatic localization of Crohn's disease occurring during treatment with anti-TNF alpha. The diagnosis was based on skin biopsy and histology which found epithelioid granulomas without caseous necrosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1157_2880", "title": "Painful lower limb nodules as first symptom of resectable pancreatic acinar cell cancer: a case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Pancreatic panniculitis is characterized by subcutaneous fat necrosis and is a rare presentation of an underlying pancreatic disease, appearing in approximately 2-3% of all patients with a pancreatic disease. The nodules usually involve the lower extremities. Pancreatic panniculitis is commonly associated with acute or chronic pancreatitis, and occasionally with pancreatic cancer, especially acinar cell carcinoma. A 77-year-old Caucasian woman with no significant medical history was referred to our center with multiple painful, itchy, and warm red/blue cutaneous nodules on the left lower leg. These skin lesions were consistent with the clinical diagnosis of panniculitis. The skin biopsy obtained showed a predominantly lobular panniculitis with fat necrosis of which the aspect was highly suspicious for pancreatic panniculitis. Further analysis revealed high lipase serum of &gt; 3000 U/L (normal range &lt; 60 U/L), and on computed tomography scan a mass located between the stomach and the left pancreas was seen. Endoscopic ultrasonography-guided fine-needle biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of acinar cell carcinoma. After discussing the patient in the pancreatobiliary multidisciplinary team meeting, laparoscopic distal pancreatectomy including splenectomy and en bloc wedge resection of the stomach due to tumor in-growth was performed. The cutaneous nodules on both legs disappeared 1-2 days after surgery. No long-term complications were reported during follow-up. One year after surgery, the patient presented with similar symptoms as preoperatively. Computed tomography scan showed local recurrence and distal metastases, which were subsequently confirmed by biopsy. She started with palliative folinic acid-fluorouracil-irinotecan-oxaliplatin chemotherapy but stopped after two cycles because of disease progression. The patient died 2 months later, 13 months after surgical resection. This case illustrates the importance of clinically recognizing cutaneous nodules and pathological recognizing the specific microscopic changes as sign of a (malignant) pancreatic disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0373_178", "title": "Cutaneous manifestations in inflammatory bowel disease.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Numerous extraintestinal manifestations in various organ systems have been reported to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Aim of the present paper was to evaluate the frequency of cutaneous manifestations in Crohn's disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC) with respect to their location, the activity and location of the underlying disease, the treatment options and the time to remission. The medical records of 1043 inpatients with CD and UC were screened retrospectively for extraintestinal symptoms with special regard to cutaneous manifestations. The prevalence of cutaneous manifestations in IBD was 22/1043 (2.1%; 18 women, 4 men; age: 31.41 +/- 9.9 [21-51] yrs.). In 15/22 patients (68.2%) the cutaneous manifestations were associated with CD, in 7/22 patients (31.8%) UC was confirmed. In 6/22 patients (27.3%) pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) was diagnosed, in 16/22 patients (72.7%) erythema nodosum (EN). EN and PG predominately occurred at the lower legs: in 68.1% the tibia was the main affection site. Other locations like breast or anus were rare. In 16/22 patients (72.7%) an acute phase of the underlying disease was evident, in 6/22 patients (27.3%) CD or UC were in remission. In patients with CD a colonic involvement was found in 86.7%. Arthritis was the most frequent coexisting extraintestinal manifestation in CD (53.3%) and UC (28.8%). Drug treatment was performed with high doses of glucocorticoids and salicylates. The time to remission in patients with EN was significantly shorter as compared to PG (5.3 +/- 1.8 vs. 19.6 +/- 14.2 weeks; p &lt; 0.001). In 5/22 patients (22.7%) cutaneous manifestations reoccurred after a symptom-free interval. All efflorescenses reoccurred during an active phase of the underlying disease at the same manifestation site as the initial presentation. In this series the prevalence of cutaneous manifestations in IBD was 22/1043 (2.1%). EN and PG were more frequent in women with IBD, in CD, and during the acute phases of the underlying disease. EN and PG predominately affect the lower legs. Cutaneous manifestations respond well to an acute phase therapy of the underlying disease. The time to remission was significantly shorter in EN as compared to PG. However, relapses have to be considered in a relevant subgroup of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_9237", "title": "Sister Mary Joseph's nodule as a presenting sign of internal malignancy.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "CASE 1: A 64-year-old, otherwise healthy woman was referred to the surgery clinic for a presumed umbilical hernia. On physical examination, a cutaneous nodule was noted on the umbilical region and the patient was referred to the dermatology clinic. The patient was reexamined and an erythematous nodule was observed in the umbilicus measuring 2.5 cm in diameter. The patient denied pain, change in bowel habits, or weight loss. There were no other abdominal masses, no sign of ascites, and no regional lymphadenopathy. A skin biopsy from the nodule showed mucinous adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining was positive for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negative for cytokeratin (CK)7 and CK20. These results were consistent with a Sister Mary Joseph's nodule and led to the diagnosis of an occult colon carcinoma. The patient had no risk factors for colorectal carcinoma. The patient underwent surgery in another hospital, and died 3 months after the initial diagnosis of Sister Mary Joseph's nodule. CASE 2: A 73-year-old woman was referred to the dermatology clinic for evaluation of a painful, ulcerated, 3-cm lesion in the umbilicus (Figure 1). She was otherwise asymptomatic. A skin biopsy showed neoplastic glandular cells infiltrating among collagen bundles (Figure 2). Stainings for mucin and for CK7 were positive, while staining for CK20 was negative. An abdominopelvic CT scan demonstrated a 3.5-cm space-occupying lesion in the liver. Results of gastroscopy, colonoscopy, chest computed tomographic (CT) scan, and mammography were normal. Serum levels of the tumor-associated protein CA125 were elevated to 164 units, while those of CA 19-9 and carcinoembryonic antigen were within normal range. A gynecologic examination and a transvaginal ultrasound were normal. The patient had no personal or family history of any malignancy or any risk factors for developing a carcinoma. The patient was scheduled for a palliative resection of the umbilical nodule, combined with a laparoscopic inspection in search of the undetected primary tumor. She refused surgery and was lost to follow-up. She died 4 months after the initial diagnosis of umbilical metastasis. CASE 3: A 51-year-old man was aware of a silent mass in his umbilicus for 2 years without seeking medical advice. Following 2 weeks of increasing pain in this area, he was referred to the emergency room for a suspected incarcerated umbilical hernia. Surgery revealed a mass attached to the fascia and peritoneal fat. The mass was removed and diagnosed as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, staining positively for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negatively for CK20, CK7, prostate-specific antigen, and prostatic acid phosphatase. Both gastroscopy and colonoscopy failed to detect the primary tumor. An abdominopelvic CT scan was normal, but a CT scan of the chest disclosed a nodule measuring 2.5 x 1.5 cm in the lower lobe of the right lung. On bronchoscopy, it was found to be an invasive adenocarcinoma, consistent with a primary tumor of the lung. The patient was a heavy smoker (45 pack-years). The patient received 4 cycles of combined chemotherapy with carboplatine and gemcitabine, with no improvement. A month later, the patient complained of abdominal pain. Following demonstration of intra-abdominal spread of disease by CT scan, a second line chemotherapy was instituted with paclitaxel. A month later the patient's condition deteriorated and he complained of cough, sweating, and pain along the right leg. A bone scan revealed bone metastases in the right femur and left tibia. Two weeks later he was admitted to the hospital with intestinal obstruction and underwent laparotomy. He had massive intra-abdominal spread of cancer and ascites. Only a palliative colostomy was performed. The patient died 3 weeks later, 9 months after the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the lung. The clinical data on the three patients are summarized in Table I." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0383_13328", "title": "[Gastroduodenal Crohn's disease - report of 4 cases and review of the literature].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Crohn's disease can affect all the gastrointestinal tract, but gastroduodenal involvement is rarely seen (0.5 to 13%). Report clinical, radiological and endoscopic findings and treatment of four patients with gastroduodenal Crohn's disease and review the literature. Four patients (one male of 24 years old three females of 37, 66 and 74 years old) with epigastric pain, weight loss and low grade fever were referred to the University Hospitals of Federal University of Rio de Janeiro and Fluminese Federal University. Two had also mild intermittent diarrhea and arthritis/arthralgia and the third developed pyloric obstruction and received surgical treatment. Anemia was observed in only one (the young female). Barium x-ray studies showed aphthous ulcers in stomach and duodenum with distal ileum lesions and deformity in both. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy revealed aphthous ulcers in stomach and geographic duodenal ulcers. Polypoid lesions and serpiginous ulcers within gastric antrum were observed in the young female. Colonoscopy was performed in two patients and disclosed an ulcerated ileitis in one and ulcerated pancolitis in other. Histopathology findings of biopsy specimens were inconclusive (granulomas were not found) and other causes of granulomatous disease were ruled out. Corticosteroids and proton pump inhibitors were started and two patients had their disease controlled. The other patient developed pyloric obstruction and had to be operated. Gastroduodenal Crohn's disease has distinct clinical, therapeutic and prognostic features. Advances in endoscopic methods and recognition of new histopathologic criteria for diagnosis have revealed an incidence higher than previously reported." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 64, 118 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 23 ] ], "text": "out. 1 cannot be, because there would be infectious signs." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 577, 644 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 105, 116 ] ], "text": "scan, but a bone metastasis would be more destructive than sclerotizing." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 192, 322 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 55 ] ], "text": "3 seems unlikely to me because the radiotherapy that the patient received would be oriented on the breast and not on the mandible." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 323, 458 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 55, 81 ] ], "text": "I rule out number 4, as it is not a case of dental root involvement. 5 is possible; after all, the patient already has bone metastases." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 577, 644 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 105, 116 ] ], "text": "scan, but a bone metastasis would be more destructive than sclerotizing." } }

{ "1": "Odontogenic abscess.", "2": "Osteonecrosis due to bisphosphonates.", "3": "Osteoradionecrosis.", "4": "Dental root included.", "5": "Metastasis of breast carcinoma." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0941_1822", "title": "Successful conservative treatment of jaw osteonecrosis caused by denosumab in patients with multiple bone metastasis.", "score": 0.01916024935826916, "content": "We report a case of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) associated with denosumab therapy in a 62-year-old female patient being treated for bone metastases from breast cancer. Upon initial presentation at the Department of Oral Medicine, Hokkaido University Hospital, the patient's mandibular molar teeth were extracted because of severe periodontal disease. Two months later, epithelialization of the sockets was observed and treatment with anti-resorptive drugs was started for bone metastases. One year after tooth extraction, bone exposure in the right lower first molar region was observed, and stage 2 medication-related ONJ (MRONJ) was diagnosed. Up to this time, the patient had received zoledronic acid twice and denosumab 22 times. Denosumab was discontinued by the oncologist, and oral antibiotics with rinsing of the exposed bone area were prescribed. By 36 weeks after discontinuation of denosumab, a sequestrum in the posterior part of the mandible was naturally shed, and the site was healed. Bisphosphonate is deposited in bones, whereas denosumab functions extracellularly and circulates in the blood. The effect of denosumab on bone remodeling is reversed shortly after the drug has been discontinued." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0605_6457", "title": "A case of osteonecrosis of the jaw in a breast cancer patient with bone metastases receiving long-term treatment with bisphosphonates.", "score": 0.018433571185864764, "content": "Bisphosphonates (BPs) are often used for the treatment of several diseases such as osteoporosis, cancer-associated hypercalcemia, and osteolytic bone metastasis. Recently, there have been reports of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) in cancer patients whose treatment regimens include BPs. In this case report, we describe complications and treatment of ONJ in a breast cancer patient with bone metastases who received long-term treatment with BPs. A 70-year-old woman underwent modified radical mastectomy on her left breast cancer and received oral 5-fluorouracil derivatives for 2 years in another hospital. Eleven years after the surgery, she came to our hospital complaining of spinalgia and was diagnosed with recurrent breast cancer with multiple metastases to the stomach, liver, multiple lymph nodes, and spine. After surgery for spine metastases, she was given a combination therapy of trastuzumab (initial bolus: 170 mg/body, followed by two or more cycles of 85 mg/body) every week, docetaxel (100 mg/body) every 3 weeks, and BPs (90 mg/body) every 4 weeks. About 1 year and 4 months later, she complained of pain in her right maxilla; biopsy revealed ONJ. Medical oncologists need to recognize ONJ as a serious side effect of BP treatment; dentists and oral and maxillofacial surgeons need to thoroughly consult patients regarding the administration of BPs and have them make an informed consent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0672_10894", "title": "[A case of bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw in a patient with bone metastasis of breast cancer].", "score": 0.017170228445099484, "content": "A 5 6-year-old woman underwent modified radical mastectomy for left breast cancer in 2002. Bone metastases developed in November 2005, and she received pamidronate from February 2006. Pamidronate was changed to zoledronate in November 2006. In November 2007, she was referred to a dentist for pain and swelling of the right lower gum. Conservative therapy with local irrigation and antibiotics was performed, but the lesion progressed and showed ulceration with exposed bone. She was diagnosed as bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaws, and zoledronate was withdrawn in January 2008. Conservative therapy was continued but the necrotic lesion caused pathological fracture and fistula. In February 2009, surgical intervention was performed for the improvement of her QOL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0858_2860", "title": "Bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw in metastatic breast cancer patients: a review of 25 cases.", "score": 0.016102756892230577, "content": "Intravenous bisphosphonates have been used in metastatic breast cancer patients to reduce pathologic bone fracture and bone pain. However, necrosis of the jaw has been reported in those who received intravenous bisphosphonates. Bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ) is caused by dental extraction, dental implant surgery, and denture wearing; however, it occurs spontaneously. The purpose of this study was to report BRONJ in metastatic breast cancer patients. Consecutive 25 female patients were referred from the Department of Oncology from 2008 to 2014 for jaw bone discomfort. Staging of breast cancer, history of bisphosphonate infusion, etiology of BRONJ, and treatment results were reviewed. Average age of the patients was 55.4 years old (38-74). Twelve maxillae and 16 mandibles were involved. Conservative treatments such as irrigation, antibiotic medication, analgesics, and oral gargle were applied for all patients for the initial treatment. Patients who had sequestrum underwent debridement and primary closure. The etiologies of BRONJ were dental extraction (19 cases), dental implant (2 cases), and endodontic treatment (1 case). However, three patients did not have any risk factors to cause BRONJ. Three patients died of progression of metastasis during follow-up periods. Surgical debridement was performed in 21 patients with success in 18 patients. Three patients showed recurred bone exposure and infection after operation. Prevention of the BRONJ is critical in metastatic breast cancer patients. Conservative treatment to reduce pain, discomfort, and infection is recommended for the initial therapy. However, if there is a sequestrum, surgical debridement and primary closure is the key to treat the BRONJ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0842_16582", "title": "Metastatic Breast Cancer in Medication-Related Osteonecrosis Around Mandibular Implants.", "score": 0.015772478887232988, "content": "Many authors have considered dental implants to be unrelated to increased risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ). Nevertheless, more recently, more cases of peri-implant MRONJ (PI-MRONJ) have been described, thus becoming a challenging health problem. Also, metastatic cancer deposits are not infrequently found at peri-implant sites and this may represent an additional complication for such treatments. We present the case of a breast cancer patient with PI-MRONJ, presenting a clinically and radiologically undetected metastasis within the necrotic bone, and highlight the necessity of an accurate histopathological analysis. A 66-year-old female patient, who had received intravenous bisphosphonates for bone breast cancer metastases, came to our attention for a non-implant surgery-triggered PI-MRONJ. After surgical resection of the necrotic bone, conventional and immunohistochemical examinations were performed, which showed breast cancer deposits within the necrotic bone. Cancer patients with metastatic disease, who are undergoing bisphosphonate treatment, may develop unusual complications, including MRONJ, which is a site at risk for hosting additional metastatic deposits that may be clinically and radiologically overlooked. Such risk is increased by previous or concomitant implant procedures. Consequently, clinicians should be prudent when performing implant surgery in cancer patients with advanced-stage disease and consider the possible occurrence of peri-implant metastases while planning adequate treatments in such patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0977_12480", "title": "Use of bone scintigraphy in the early diagnosis of bisphosphonate related osteonecrosis of the jaw. Case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.015356661391477639, "content": "The main aim of the present report is to show the potential utility of bone scintigraphy for the diagnosis of jaw osteonecrosis. We report the history of a 62-year-old woman underwent breast cancer surgery in 2010. Moreover, patient received postoperative radiotherapy and chemotherapy. Intravenous bisphosphonates were also added to the treatment strategy to reduce the risk of bone metastasis. However, a hypermetabolic focus on left hemimandible was evidenced with a bone scintigraphy during follow up. After a careful study, the diagnosis of Bisphosphonate Related Ostneonecrosis of the Jaw (BRONJ) was carried out. This case highlights that bone scintigraphy may be extremely helpful for the early detection of BRONJ in high risk patient. <bKey words:</bBone scintigraphy, mandibular osteonecrosis, bisphosphonates." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0550_17556", "title": "Bisphosphonates and jaw osteonecrosis in patients with advanced breast cancer.", "score": 0.014836316723109177, "content": "In recent years, several cases of mandibular necrosis associated with long-term use of bisphosphonates have been reported. The estimated incidence varies from 1% to 4.6%. We conducted an observational study with the aim of determining the incidence of jaw osteonecrosis in advanced breast cancer patients with bone metastases under bisphosphonate treatment and to identify subjects at higher risk of developing this complication evaluating preclinical signs. We considered two groups of patients. All the patients complaining of odontostomatological symptoms underwent maxillary CT scan and maxillo-surgeon clinical examination. Asymptomatic patients were asked to perform a standard orthopantomography (OPT). From February 2005 to October 2005, we observed five patients with jaw bone necrosis (6%). Diagnosis was radiological and clinical. In two patients a confirmatory biopsy was performed. In the same time interval, OPTs were collected from 76 asymptomatic patients. Three OPTs revealed radiological features of suspicious mandibular necrosis. Maxillary CT scan confirmed the presence of an osteolityc area with signs of periosteal reaction. All the three patients were referred to maxillo-surgeon and two out of three patients underwent mandibular biopsy, but histopathological results were not conclusive. In our experience, the incidence of jaw bone necrosis in breast cancer patients seems to be higher than in other reports (6%). Radiological features of suspicious jaw necrosis were observed in three asymptomatic patients. We do not know how these findings should be considered. Anyway, standard OPT is a simple procedure, and may allow identification of periodontal conditions that in some way can predispose to the development of this uncommon event." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1048_4435", "title": "Spontaneous regeneration of the mandible following hemimandibulectomy for medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw: A case report.", "score": 0.014464168310322156, "content": "Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw decreases quality of life of patients with cancer. The debate about it continues regarding the risk factors, etiology, and treatment methods, and so on. Also, spontaneous regeneration of the mandible is clinically rare. A 67-year-old woman presented to the authors' department complaining of pain, swelling, and pus discharge from a fistula. She previously had breast cancer bone metastases and had received antiresorptive intravenous bisphosphonate. The patient was diagnosed with medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw. She received conservative therapy with antibiotics and surgical therapy as sequestrectomy under general anesthesia; however, the lesion did not heal. Thirty months after the MRONJ diagnosis, when she was 70 years' old, she underwent a left hemimandibulectomy without reconstruction under general anesthesia. Spontaneous regeneration of the mandible was observed by follow-up imaging examinations. The patient has no current subjective or objective symptoms. This is the first case report of the spontaneous mandibular regeneration after surgery for medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw. Additionally, this case was the oldest patient among the published mandibular regeneration cases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en235_13221", "title": "Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw", "score": 0.014365275813295615, "content": "There is no known prevention for bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw. Avoiding the use of bisphosphonates is not a viable preventive strategy on a general-population basis because the medications are beneficial in the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis (including prevention of bony fractures) and treatment of bone cancers. Current recommendations are for a 2-month drug holiday prior to dental surgery for those who are at risk (intravenous drug therapy, greater than 4 years of by-mouth drug therapy, other factors that increase risk such as steroid therapy). It usually develops after dental treatments involving exposure of bone or trauma, but may arise spontaneously. Patients who develop MRONJ may experience prolonged healing, pain, swelling, infection and exposed bone after dental procedures, though some patients may have no signs/symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0615_15787", "title": "[A case of osteonecrosis of the lower jaw due to bisphosphonates in a breast cancer patient with bone metastasis].", "score": 0.014203129672082128, "content": "Recently, osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) with bisphosphonates is frequently reported. ONJ due to bisphosphonate is an adverse event in the treatment of breast cancer with bone metastasis. We report a case of ONJ due to bisphosphonates. A 66-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital due to right advanced breast cancer with bone metastasis. She received neo-adjuvant chemotherapy consisting of paclitaxel 70 mg/m2, qw, trastuzumab 2 mg/m2, qw. After chemotherapy, we performed modified mastectomy for local control. Postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy was added with bisphosphonate for bone metastasis of breast cancer. After bisphosphonate was used 14 times, she had a pain and pus-discharge in her lower jaw. The dentists' diagnosis was ONJ. We treated her with antibiotics and local minor curettage. The inflammatory symptoms almost disappeared. In this case, the administration of bisphosphonates was thought to be a major risk factor for ONJ. We think that special precautions for ONJ should be taken in patients administered bisphosphonates for bone metastasis of breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0572_18063", "title": "Avascular mandibular osteonecrosis in association with bisphosphonate therapy: a report on four patients.", "score": 0.01411764705882353, "content": "Over the past three years, several reports have been published on jaw osteonecrosis possibly being associated with the administration of bisphosphonates. Bisphosphonates are highly active inhibitors of osteoclasts. These drugs are used for the treatment of multiple myeloma, bone resorption in the case of metastatic malignant diseases, tumor-associated hypercalcaemia, and in the treatment of osteoporosis. Due to the importance of this presumed side-effect of bisphosphonates for the dentist and the maxillofacial surgeon, we report four cases. Four patients (two women and two men aged 56, 62, 67 and 75 years, respectively) were diagnosed with osteonecrosis of the mandible. These osteonecroses did not react adequately to local treatment and systemic therapy with antibiotics. One patient suffered from non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, one from breast cancer, one from prostate cancer and one from sarcoidosis. Besides cytostatic chemotherapies, all patients received bisphosphonates over an extended period. Bisphosphonates are considered an established standard in the treatment of multiple myeloma and bone metastases. Over the past few years, a rapidly increasing number of reports have been published describing patients with a history of bisphosphonate therapy in whom therapy-resistant osteonecrosis of jaw bones occurred either after dental extractions or spontaneously. Since then, bisphosphonate therapy has come under scrutiny as a cause of osteonecrosis. However, the multiplicity of drugs prescribed for the treatment of cancer requires caution when determining a cause-and-action effect. Since patients with malignant diseases receive cytostatic therapy and a range of other drugs, including bisphosphonates, enhancement of the side-effects may be presumed. The case report of an osteonecrosis of the jaw following multi-drug therapy for sarcoidosis adds a further and non-cancerous condition to the newly described entity of bisphosphonate-associated jaw necrosis. The probable association of the therapeutic use of bisphosphonates and the development of jaw necrosis has to be studied in further investigations. Patients who will undergo bisphosphonate therapy should receive a careful dental check-up prior to drug application. Patients receiving bisphosphonates should be followed up carefully to avoid the occurrence of extended osteonecrotic lesions. Moreover, established jaw lesions must be diagnosed precisely in order to exclude metastatic disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0958_54", "title": "Descending necrotizing mediastinitis after sequestrectomy in a patient with bisphosphonate-induced osteonecrosis of the jaw: A case report.", "score": 0.014004196697381625, "content": "An 83-year-old woman underwent mastectomy for breast cancer of the right breast in 2008. In addition to hormone therapy and irradiation, zoledronate was started for bone metastasis 6 months postoperatively. Five years after the operation, the patient developed osteonecrosis of the jaw, and underwent sequestrectomy because of uncontrollable pain in the mandible. The patient visited our hospital for a 1-week history of fever and right facial swelling with pain, and was diagnosed with right mandibular cellulitis. Despite antibiotic therapy, the patient fell into shock. Follow-up computed tomography showed gas formation extending down to the posterior mediastinum, which was compatible with descending necrotizing mediastinitis (DNM). The patient succumbed to septicemia on the third hospital day. The mortality rate of DNM greatly increases in patients with advanced cancer because clinicians cannot perform radical treatment due to the impaired general condition and limited life expectancy. DNM advances by the hour; therefore, repeated computed tomography is essential when antibiotic therapy does not improve the patient's condition. Attention must be paid to detect signs of DNM in such patients. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first report in English regarding DNM caused by bisphosphonate-induced osteonecrosis of the jaw." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0760_19750", "title": "Prevalence of bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw after intravenous zoledronate infusions in patients with early breast cancer.", "score": 0.013919925512104282, "content": "The definite incidence rate of bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (BRONJ) is still unknown. The aim of this study was to investigate prevalence of BRONJ in a group of breast cancer patients applying the classification of the Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons 2009. Between 2000 and 2008, 63 premenopausal early breast cancer patients who were free of metastases were treated with 4 mg zoledronic acid every 6 months over 3 years as participants of a multicenter, randomized, controlled, adjuvant breast cancer medication trial. Patients were not informed about the risk of jaw necrosis. None reported tooth or jaw complaints during the breast cancer follow-up examinations. In 2010, 48 patients of this cohort were investigated concerning BRONJ by clinical and radiological examinations. No advanced stages (AAOMS 2009)were detected. However, five patients (10.4%) presented purulent (2) and nonpurulent (3) fistulas and radiological signs correlating to BRONJ stage 0. Although no case of advanced BRONJ was detected, the study revealed a high prevalence of BRONJ stage 0. This supports the need for tight cooperation between dentists and medical specialists prescribing bisphosphonates including dental pre-therapeutic and follow-up examinations. Adaption of the BRONJ classification taking account to bone exposure via fistulas is recommended. BRONJ is said to be a complication linked to high-dosage bisphosphonate therapy. The study demonstrates that even after application of zoledronate in a low-dose protocol, early BRONJ occurred. Radiological signs solely are not sufficient to confirm BRONJ; clinical signs are mandatory." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1016_23698", "title": "Medication-related osteonecrosis (MRONJ) of the mandible and maxilla.", "score": 0.013848071956541098, "content": "In 2003, Marx reported the first case of osteonecrosis of the jaw in 36 cases related to zoledronic acid or pamidronate. Painful bone exposure in the mandible or maxilla unresponsive to medical or surgical management was observed. In 2014, the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons proposed the term 'medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw' (MRONJ). However, a non-exposed variant may also occur. MRONJ can lead to debilitating clinical sequelae with limited treatment options. We present the case of a 73-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer and MRONJ of her mandible and maxilla following treatment with intravenous zoledronic acid and denosumab. Six months following dental extractions, she was referred to the Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery for assessment of extensive necrosis of her maxilla and mandible. Extraoral draining sinuses were observed. A CT mandible showed cortical destruction with an ill-defined mixed sclerotic-lucent pattern in keeping with osteonecrosis. Due to her metastatic breast cancer, the extent of her necrosis and poor performance status, free flap reconstruction of her mandible was ruled out. She was treated conservatively." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0887_24495", "title": "Osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) and atypical femoral fracture (AFF) in an osteoporotic patient chronically treated with bisphosphonates.", "score": 0.013812544045102185, "content": "The aim of the study is to report the rare association of two complications of long-term treatment of osteoporosis with bisphosphonates in the same Caucasian elderly patient. A female patient of Italian descent, age 87 years, consulted in February 2013. She had a history of osteoporosis and had taken alendronate weekly for 7 years (1999-2006). Due to low back pain, an orthopedist had indicated i.v. zoledronic acid, 5 mg/year for 3 years (2006-2008). She received occasional supplements of ergocalciferol. In 2009, she suffered a fall and sustained a subtrochanteric fracture of the left femur. She was operated on and recovered uneventfully. In 2012, she consulted a dentist due to loose teeth. She underwent the removal of a molar and was given a denture. She had discomfort when using the prosthesis, and developed an ulceration in the gum of the mandible, which exposed the bone and did not heal for 2 months. After radiologic studies, the diagnosis was osteonecrosis of the jaw. She improved after surgical debridement and local and systemic antibiotics. In early 2013, laboratory tests were normal except for a slight elevation of serum PTH and CTX-I. Calcitriol 0.25 mcg/day was prescribed; after 3 months serum calcium, phosphate, PTH, and CTX-I showed no variation. Two years later, she experienced acute low back pain after a fall; MRI showed recent crushing of D12, and chronic deformities of D11 and L1. Bone densitometry of her right hip (DXA) showed a T-score of -2.3 at the femoral neck. An X-ray film of the right femur showed diffuse thickening of both cortices. She was treated with nasal calcitonin and analgesics. After the back pain subsided, she was treated with s.c. denosumab. Although the association of ONJ and AFF was known in cancer patients treated with high doses of bisphosphonates, it is very rare in patients with osteoporosis receiving these drugs at usual doses. Only three cases have been reported, all in oriental women. This appears to be the first reported case in a Caucasian woman." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0366_15418", "title": "[Two bedridden patients with bone metastases from breast cancer effectively treated with pamidronate therapy].", "score": 0.012888642131979695, "content": "Case 1: A 43-year-old woman underwent mastectomy because of locally advanced breast cancer with multiple bone metastases. She was treated with CMF therapy but developed a compression fracture of a thoracic vertebra after 10 months and received pamidronate therapy. Pamidronate administration relived her back pain after 2 months and she was able to walk again after 3 months. However, she developed a resistance to the treatment, and then refused another treatment. She was found to have hypercalcemia 6 months later and received pamidronate again, but died 9 months after the treatment. Case 2: A 52-year-old woman underwent mastectomy because of breast cancer (T2) and was diagnosed as having multiple bone metastases 24 months after the operation. She could not turn over in bed due to progressing bone pain and received pamidronate therapy with CMF therapy at home 23 months after the diagnosis. After 2 months, pamidronate administration relieved her bone pain and she was free of pain after 4 months. After 5 months, X-rays revealed that lytic lesions showed sclerosis, and the pamidronate therapy was assessed as producing a PR. Pamidronate therapy improved her quality of life and activities of daily living, and she continues to receive it this time as an outpatient. Pamidronate therapy is promising as an effective treatment for bedridden patients with bone metastasis from breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0699_6818", "title": "Metastatic breast carcinoma in the mandible presenting as a periodontal abscess: a case report.", "score": 0.012535367644425345, "content": "Tumors can metastasize to the oral cavity and affect the jaws, soft tissue and salivary glands. Oral cavity metastases are considered rare and represent approximately 1% of all oral malignancies. Because of their rarity and atypical clinical and radiographic appearance, metastatic lesions are considered a diagnostic challenge. The purpose of this report is to present a rare case of a metastatic breast carcinoma mimicking a periodontal abscess in the mandible. A 55-year-old Caucasian woman was referred to our clinic for evaluation of bisphosphonate-induced jaw osteonecrosis. She had undergone modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection for invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast. Her clinical examination showed diffuse swelling and a periodontal pocket of 6 mm exhibiting suppuration in the posterior right mandible. Moreover, paresthesia of the lower right lip and chin was noted. There were no significant radiographic findings other than alveolar bone loss due to her periodontal disease. Although the lesion resembled a periodontal abscess, metastatic carcinoma of the breast was suspected on the basis of the patient's medical history. The area was biopsied, and histological analysis confirmed the final diagnosis of metastatic breast carcinoma. The general dentist or dental specialist should maintain a high level of suspicion while evaluating patients with a history of cancer. Paresthesias of the lower lip and the chin should be considered ominous signs of metastatic disease. This case highlights the importance of the value of a detailed medical history and thorough clinical examination for the early detection of metastatic tumors in the oral cavity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1094_3003", "title": "¹⁸F-Fluoride PET/CT Imaging of Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw in Conservative Treatment-A Case Report.", "score": 0.01215738284703802, "content": "Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) is a serious side effect in antiresorptive treatment. Treatment of MRONJ is considered primarily conservative with oral mouth rinses and antibiotics but may demand surgery, depending on the complaints and general condition of the patient, the extent of the necrosis, and the overall prognosis with respect to the underlying disease. A 77 year old female patient with invasive ductal breast cancer and bone metastases was treated with intravenous bisphosphonate (BP) zoledronic acid. During therapy, she developed MRONJ in the mandible with severe pain. Clinical examination revealed confluent exposed bone of the lower left jaw and a fistula at the right molar region. The panoramic radiograph revealed a mandibular osseous involvement with diffuse radiopaque areas between radiolucent areas. For preoperative planning, <sup18</supF-fluoride positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) of the jaw was performed, showing substantially increased <sup18</supF-fluoride uptake in regions 38 to 47 of the mandible with a focal gap in region 36 (area of clinically exposed bone). CT revealed medullary sclerosis and cortical thickening with confluent periosteal reaction and focal cortical erosion in the regions 37 to 42, whereas the regions 43 to 47 were only subtly sclerotic without cortical thickening. After systemic antibiotic therapy with sultamicillin following significant symptom and pain relief, <sup18</supF-fluoride PET/CT imaging was performed again after 5 months. No changes in either CT and PET were observed in regions 38 to 42, whereas the bony sclerosis was slightly increased in regions 43 to 47 with a slight reduction of <sup18</supF-fluoride uptake. <sup18</supF-fluoride PET/CT showed no significant changes assessing the extent of MRONJ prior and after systemic antibiotic therapy, providing no evidence that conservative treatment reduced the extent of the MRONJ-affected jawbone. The additional information of <sup18</supF-fluoride PET enables to identify the true extent of MRONJ which may be underestimated by CT imaging alone. Patients with MRONJ undergoing conservative treatment could benefit because additional imaging may be avoided as the pre-therapeutic <sup18</supF-fluoride PET/CT delivers all information needed for further treatment. Our findings support the recommendation of a surgical approach as long-term antibiotics cannot downsize the extent of MRONJ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1050_1313", "title": "Risk factors for bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw in the prospective randomized trial of adjuvant bisphosphonates for early-stage breast cancer (SWOG 0307).", "score": 0.0121013304173501, "content": "Bisphosphonates reduce bone metastases in postmenopausal women with early-stage breast cancer but carry the risk of bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ). We describe risk factors for BRONJ and compare BRONJ provoked by infection or trauma with spontaneous lesions, which carry a better prognosis. SWOG 0307 randomized women with stage I-III breast cancer to receive zoledronic acid (ZA), clodronate (CL), or ibandronate (IB) for 3 years, implemented BRONJ prevention guidelines, and collected information about dental health and development of BRONJ. All statistical tests were two-sided. Of 6018 women, 48 developed BRONJ. Infection was present in 21 (43.8%). Median time to BRONJ was 2.1 years for ZA, 2.0 years for IB, and 3.4 years for clodronate (p = 0.04). BRONJ was associated with bisphosphonate type (28/2231 (1.26%) for ZA, 8/2235 (0.36%) for CL, 12/1552 (0.77%) for IB), dental calculus (OR 2.03), gingivitis (OR 2.11), moderate/severe periodontal disease (OR 2.87), and periodontitis &gt; 4 mm (OR 2.20) (p &lt; 0.05). Of 57 lesions, BRONJ occurred spontaneously in 20 (35.1%) and was provoked by dental extraction in 20 (35.1%), periodontal disease in 14 (24.6%), denture trauma in 6 (10.5%), and dental surgery in 2 (3.5%). Spontaneous BRONJ occurred more frequently at the mylohyoid ridge. There were no differences in dental disease, infection, or bisphosphonate type between spontaneous and provoked BRONJ. ZA and worse dental health were associated with increased incidence of BRONJ, with a trend toward additive risk when combined. BRONJ incidence was lower than in similar studies, with prevention strategies likely linked to this. NCT00127205 REGISTRATION DATE: July 2005." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0784_26049", "title": "Synchronous antiresorptive osteonecrosis of the jaws and breast cancer metastasis.", "score": 0.012003101925216628, "content": "Antiresorptive osteonecrosis of the jaws (ARONJ) is a significant and poorly understood oral complication that may affect patients receiving antiresorptive agents, such as intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. There are scarce reports of the coexistence of ARONJ and metastasis at the same jaw site in the English-language literature. In the present case, a 60-year-old white woman was referred for the evaluation of a nonhealing extraction socket. The patient was undergoing treatment with intravenous zoledronic acid to metastatic breast cancer in bone, and her medical history and clinical characteristics led to the diagnosis of ARONJ. Nevertheless, histologic analysis showed a fragment of necrotic bone and bacterial colonies associated with malignant epithelial cells that were confirmed to be metastatic breast adenocarcinoma. This case showed that jaw metastasis can occur at the same time and site of ARONJ, making diagnosis and management challenging. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1006_25806", "title": "Metastatic breast cancer to bilateral mandibular ramus regions.", "score": 0.011579651941097724, "content": "Metastatic carcinomas to the jaw bones are uncommon and comprise to about 1% of all malignant oral neoplasms. The purpose of this report is to present a rare case of metastatic breast carcinoma to bilateral mandibular ramus regions. The present case report is about a 40-year-old female patient with the complaints of a paresthesia in the right mandibular area of the last month duration. She was referred to our department by her oncologist with the differential diagnosis of osteonecrosis or metastasis. She had undergone modified radical mastectomy for invasive lobular carcinoma of the left breast. Oral cavity examination did not reveal the existence of any ulcer or fistula. Panoramic, cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT), and positron-emission tomography (PET) were used for diagnosing the lesions. In panoramic radiography and CBCT images, there were lytic lesions on the both of right and left coronoid, condyle, and ramus of the mandible. PET results showed us fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose uptake in the mandible and vertebrae. On the basis of the patient's medical history and paresthesia of the lower lip and chin, the metastatic disease was highly suspected. The patient was referred to her oncologist for further treatment since it was not amenable to the surgical management. The general dentist or dental specialist should maintain a high level of suspicion while evaluating patients with a history of cancer. Paresthesias of the lower lip and the chin should be considered ominous signs of metastatic disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en269_37543", "title": "Metastatic breast cancer", "score": 0.011572774346496974, "content": "Bone metastases. The bones are a very common site of metastatic disease from breast cancer, and bone metastases can cause severe pain, hypercalcemia and pathologic fracture. Radiotherapy is indicated to prevent pathologic fracture; it is also part of postoperative treatment following repair of a pathologic fracture. Strontium 89, a radiopharmaceutical which is injected into the bloodstream, is under investigation for the treatment of bone metastases from breast cancer; there is evidence that it can relieve pain for up to three months after its administration. It is unknown whether or not it can prevent pathologic fracture, but it should be considered in patients who have three or more sites of painful bone metastases who cannot be treated with external-beam radiotherapy. In some patients with estrogen-receptor-positive breast carcinoma metastatic to the bone only, external-beam radiotherapy followed by tamoxifen or another anti-estrogen may be sufficient to control disease, at least" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0279_16917", "title": "Hormonal therapy in the treatment of mandibular metastasis of breast carcinoma. Report of a case.", "score": 0.01112333455567779, "content": "We present the clinical history of a 39-year-old woman, who has survived for over 10 years with metastatic breast cancer. After combined surgery and radiotherapy of the primary tumor and the regional lymph nodes, all bone metastases gradually disappeared under chemotherapy and continuing hormonal treatment. This complete remission included a large mandibular metastasis, which had received additional radiotherapy of 21 Gy. Spontaneous reossification was observed in this location." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_63887", "title": "Bisphosphonate", "score": 0.01062789500772002, "content": "Bisphosphonates, when administered intravenously for the treatment of cancer, have been associated with osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ), with the mandible twice as frequently affected as the maxilla and most cases occurring following high-dose intravenous administration used for some cancer patients. Some 60% of cases are preceded by a dental surgical procedure (that involves the bone), and it has been suggested that bisphosphonate treatment should be postponed until after any dental work to eliminate potential sites of infection (the use of antibiotics may otherwise be indicated prior to any surgery). A number of cases of severe bone, joint, or musculoskeletal pain have been reported, prompting labeling changes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en235_13227", "title": "Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw", "score": 0.009972022382094325, "content": "Risk factors include: Dental treatment (e.g. dentoalveolar surgery/procedure that impacts bone) – it is possible for MRONJ to occur spontaneously without any recent invasive dental treatment Duration of bisphosphonate drug therapy – increased risk with increased cumulative dose of drug Other concurrent medication – use of chronic systemic glucocorticoid increases risk when they are taken in combination with anti-resorptive drugs Dental implants Drug holidays – no evidence to support a reduction in MRONJ risk if patients stop taking bisphosphonates temporarily/permanently, as drugs can persist in skeletal tissues for many years Treatment in the past with anti-resorptive/anti-angiogenic drugs Patient being treated for cancer – higher risk Patients being treated for osteoporosis/non-malignant bone diseases (e.g. Paget's disease) – lower risk Research findings" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0519_16553", "title": "Bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of mandibular and maxillary bone: an emerging oral complication of supportive cancer therapy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The current report presented 17 patients with cancer with bone metastases and 1 patient with osteopenia who received treatment with bisphosphonates and who subsequently developed osteonecrosis of the mandible and/or maxilla. The authors reviewed information on 18 patients who were referred to oral medicine or oral surgery specialists for evaluation and treatment of mandibular and/or maxillary bone necrosis from June 2002 to September 2004. To be included in the current review, patients must have been treated with either pamidronate or zoledronic acid to control or prevent metastatic disease, or with alendronate for osteoporosis. All patients with cancer had received chemotherapy while receiving bisphosphonate management. The 17 patients with cancer were receiving active medical care for a malignancy. Cancer treatment included a variety of chemotherapeutic agents. They presented with metastatic disease to bone and were treated intravenously with the bisphosphonates pamidronate or zoledronic acid for a mean time of 25 months (range, 4-41 mos). There were 14 females and 4 males with a mean age of 62 years (range, 37-74 yrs). Malignancies included breast carcinoma (n = 10), multiple myeloma (n = 3), prostate carcinoma (n = 1), ovarian carcinoma (n = 1), prostate carcinoma/lymphoma (n = 1), and breast/ovarian carcinoma (n = 1). One female patient with osteopenia received alendronate. The most common clinical osteonecrosis presentations included infection and necrotic bone in the mandible. Associated events included dental extractions, infection, and trauma. Two patients appeared to develop disease spontaneously, without any clinical or radiographic evidence of local pathology. Despite surgical intervention, antibiotic therapy, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, and topical use of chemotherapeutic mouth rinses, most of the lesions did not respond well to therapy. Discontinuation of bisphosphonate therapy did not assure healing. However, 1 patient with cancer healed after discontinuation of bisphosphonate therapy for 4 months. The findings in the patient population combined with recent literature reports suggested that bisphosphonates may contribute to the pathogenesis of the oral lesions. The risk factors and precise mechanism involved in the formation of the osteonecrosis are not known. This condition represents a new oral complication in patients with cancer and can be termed bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis. Lesions in patients with osteoporosis are worrisome and need to be further evaluated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0977_14243", "title": "[Drug-induced osteonecrosis of the jaw - not just bisphosphonates].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Metastatic bone disease and osteoporosis have a large impact on quality of life and are associated with the development of skeletal-related events (SREs), such as fractures and spinal cord compression. Pharmacologic managing of metastatic bone disease and osteoporosis typically involves antiresorptive agents such as bisphosphonates and RANKL inhibitors. Undesired adverse effects resulting from the use of these drugs include osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Dentoalveolar surgery, particularly tooth extraction, appears to increase the risk of ONJ. However, spontaneous events were also documented. Therefore, it is of upmost importance for the general practitioner to have updated knowledge in order to prevent and early diagnose ONJ. We present a case of a metastatic breast cancer patient who spontaneously developed ONJ following the use of Denosumab, a monoclonal RANKL antibody." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0529_812", "title": "Bisphosphonate-induced exposed bone (osteonecrosis/osteopetrosis) of the jaws: risk factors, recognition, prevention, and treatment.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Bisphosphonates inhibit bone resorption and thus bone renewal by suppressing the recruitment and activity of osteoclasts thus shortening their life span. Recently three bisphosphonates, Pamidronate (Aredia; Novartis Pharmaceuticals, East Haven, NJ), Zoledronate (Zometa; Novartis Pharmaceuticals), and Alendronate (Fosamax; Merck Co, West Point, VA) have been linked to painful refractory bone exposures in the jaws. One hundred-nineteen total cases of bisphosphonate-related bone exposure were reviewed. Thirty-two of 119 patients (26%) received Aredia, 48 (40.3%) received Zometa, 36 (30.2%) received Aredia later changed to Zometa, and 3 (2.5%) received Fosamax. The mean induction time for clinical bone exposure and symptoms was 14.3 months for those who received Aredia, 12.1 months for those who received both, 9.4 months for those who received Zometa, and 3 years for those who received Fosamax. Sixty-two (52.1%) were treated for multiple myeloma, 50 (42%) for metastatic breast cancer, 4 (3.4%) for metastatic prostate cancer and 3 (2.5%) for osteoporosis. Presenting findings in addition to exposed bone were 37 (31.1%) asymptomatic, 82 (68.9%) with pain, 28 (23.5%) mobile teeth, and 21 (17.6%) with nonhealing fistulas. Eighty-one (68.1%) bone exposures occurred in the mandible alone, 33 (27.7%) in the maxilla, and 5 (4.2%) occurred in both jaws. Medical comorbidities included the malignancy itself 97.5%, previous and/or maintenance chemotherapy 97.5%, Dexamethasone 59.7%. Dental comorbidities included the presence of periodontitis 84%, dental caries 28.6%, abscessed teeth 13.4% root canal treatments 10.9%, and the presence of mandibular tori 9.2%. The precipitating event that produced the bone exposures were spontaneous 25.2%, tooth removals 37.8%, advanced periodontitis 28.6%, periodontal surgery 11.2%, dental implants 3.4% and root canal surgery 0.8%. Complete prevention of this complication in not currently possible. However, pre-therapy dental care reduces this incidence, and non-surgical dental procedures can prevent new cases. For those who present with painful exposed bone, effective control to a pain free state without resolution of the exposed bone is 90.1% effective using a regimen of antibiotics along with 0.12% chlorohexidine antiseptic mouth." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0858_15333", "title": "[Clinical features of osteonecrosis of jaws after bisphosphonates therapy for bone metastasis of breast cancer].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To understand the clinical features of osteonecrosis of the jaw after bisphosphonates use for therapy of breast cancer patients with bone metastasis. The cases diagnosed as bisphosphonates-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (BRONJ) were retrospectively analyzed from January 2011 to August 2015 in the Peking University School and Hospital of Stomatology, and those breast cancer patients with bone metastasis were selected. The clinical symptoms, imaging characteristics and treatment results were summarized. A total of 14 cases of breast cancer patients with bone metastasis were selected, with an average age of 60.21 years. The average time of suffering from breast cancer was 9.77 years, and the average time of bone metastasis and bisphosphonates drugs use was 5.67 and 3.29 years individually. There was no patient with systemic application history of hormone therapy, and no history of diabetes. There were 9 patients with tooth extractions history, and the mean time of bone necrosis symptoms was 8.58 months. There were 10 cases with bone necrosis occurring on mandible, 3 cases on maxilla, and one case with both upper and lower jaws involved. Among the 10 patients with surgical treatment, there were 3 cases cured, and 6 cases improved. However, the clinical symptoms of 2 cases with conservative treatment were significantly aggravated. The medication time between the bisphosphonates use beginning and the occurrence of BRONJ is relatively long. The history of diabetes and long-time hormone use did not exist in this group. Tooth extraction itself does not determine the severity of BRONJ. Mandible is the most common site involved by BRONJ. Surgical treatment can alleviate the clinical symptoms of BRONJ with breast cancer to some extent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0841_5959", "title": "Mandibular osteonecrosis due to bisphosphonate use.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Due to their efficient osteoclastic inhibitor effect in bone metabolism and antiangiogenic activity, bisphosphonates are widely used in many cancer diseases particularly in prostate cancers with bone metastasis, lung cancer, breast cancer and multiple myeloma, as well as in systemic diseases such as osteoporosis, osteopenia, Paget disease and osteogenesis imperfect for the last 13 years. Prostate cancer is a common cancer in males and it is the leading cause of bone metastasis. Mandibular metastasis is rarely encountered during the course of prostate cancer. Mandibular osteonecrosis as well has begun to be observed along with the availability of more efficient and stronger formulations developed following the use of bisphosphonates. Zolendronic acid, which has been used also by our patient, has widely come into practice as a 3(rd) generation bisphosphonate. Because of prostate cancer and widespread bone metastases, our patient has been receiving zolendronic acid with maximum androgen blockage for 4 years. Tomography of the patient, who has undergone intensive treatment because of submandibular abscess, demonstrated extensive osteonecrosis in the fovea sublingual region of the mandible corpus. In large series, although, mandibular osteonecrosis was widely seen due to bisphosphonate use for the metastases of lung and breast cancers, this rate was between 9.6% and 11% for prostate cancer within the series. Although our patient had no mandibular metastasis before, mandibular necrosis was observed due to long-term bisphosphonate use. We are going to present our patient who had this rare complication with his clinical picture. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0107_1484", "title": "[Natural history and development of bone metastasis. Apropos of 429 cases].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The records of 429 patients seen at the Centre Alexis-Vautrin in 1979 and 1980 with bony metastases were retrospectively reviewed to assess their natural history and survival. Breast was the location of primary lesion in 140 patients (32.6%), lung in 95 patients (22.1%) and prostate in 33 patients (7.7%). The primary tumor was of unknown origin in 42 cases (10.9%). The median survival from time of diagnosis was 5 months. Two and 5-year survival rates were 17.5 and 5.1% respectively. According to the nature of the primary tumor, 2 and 5-year survival periods for bony metastases were 36.4 and 7.9% in breast cancer, 33.3 and 15.2% in prostatic cancer, 4.3 and 2.1% in metastases of unknown origin, 2.1 and 0% in pulmonary carcinoma. Multivariate analysis revealed four factors to be of prognostic significance for survival: the nature of the primary tumor, the absence of local relapse, the disease-free interval and the absence of metastases in other sites. Patients with hormone-sensitive lesions or slowly-growing tumors had a better prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1091_10492", "title": "Bilateral femoral head osteonecrosis in a patient with metastatic breast cancer receiving long-term zoledronic acid treatment: A case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Bone-modifying agents (BMAs), including bisphosphonate and anti-receptor activator of NF-κB ligand (RANKL) antibodies, are effective in treating bone metastases. The present study is a case report on the efficacy and side effects of long-term treatment with zoledronic acid, a BMA, in a 57-year-old woman. The patient was diagnosed with concurrent stage IV triple-negative breast cancer and stage II colon cancer. The patient experienced complete remission of both these cancers following chemotherapy, zoledronic acid treatment and irradiation for breast cancer and surgery for colon cancer. The patient received long-term zoledronic acid treatment and has survived &gt;7 years after her initial diagnosis. The patient subsequently reported bilateral hip pain that was diagnosed as osteonecrosis of the femoral head, after the presence of bone metastases was ruled out using magnetic resonance imaging. The patient underwent bilateral artificial hip joint replacements. After orthopedic surgery, the multiple distant metastases, including a brain metastasis, remained in complete remission. It is well established that BMAs, such as zoledronic acid, increase the risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw, but it is not well understood if they can increase this risk in other anatomical locations. The findings of the present case study suggested that while long-term use of BMAs may be effective in managing bone metastases, it may increase the risk of osteonecrosis in anatomical locations other than the jaw." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Herpetic esophagitis.", "2": "Eosinophilic esophagitis.", "3": "Candidiasis esophagitis.", "4": "Cytomegalovirus esophagitis.", "5": "Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en010_102251", "title": "Esophagitis", "score": 0.019424799622819428, "content": "Some lifestyle indicators for this disease include stress, unhealthy eating, smoking, drinking, family history, allergies, and immunodeficiency. Types Reflux esophagitis Although it usually assumed that inflammation from acid reflux is caused by the irritant action on the mucosa by hydrochloric acid, one study suggests that the pathogenesis of reflux esophagitis may be cytokine-mediated. Infectious esophagitis Esophagitis happens due to a viral, fungal, parasitic or bacterial infection. More likely to happen to people who have an immunodeficiency. Types include: Fungal Candida (Esophageal candidiasis) Viral Herpes simplex (Herpes esophagitis) Cytomegalovirus Drug-induced esophagitis Damage to the esophagus due to medications. If the esophagus is not coated or if the medicine is not taken with enough liquid, it can damage the tissues. Eosinophilic esophagitis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0490_13884", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis in adults: an emerging problem with unique esophageal features.", "score": 0.014453748006379585, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis is an inflammatory condition in which there is dense eosinophilic infiltration of the surface lining of the esophagus. Reports of eosinophilic esophagitis pertain almost exclusively to pediatric populations. However, eosinophilic esophagitis is emerging as a clinical affliction of adults. This report describes the clinical and endoscopic findings of eosinophilic esophagitis in the largest cohort of adult patients reported to date. Twenty-nine patients (21 men, 8 women; mean age 35 years) with documented eosinophilic esophagitis (&gt;/=15 eosinophils per high-power field in biopsy specimens) and a significant history of chronic dysphagia for solid food (24 patients) were evaluated clinically and endoscopically during a 3-year period (1999-2002). Fourteen patients (48%) had a history of asthma, environmental allergy, or atopy. In a subset of 15 patients, the diagnostic accuracy of endoscopy was compared with that of barium contrast esophagography. Twenty-seven patients (93%) had abnormal endoscopic findings; 25 (86%) had unique esophageal structural changes, associated with a preserved mucosal surface, that were highly atypical for acid reflux injury. Structural alterations seen in adult patients with eosinophilic esophagitis may occur in combination or as a primary characteristic, e.g., uniform small-caliber esophagus, single or multiple corrugations (rings), proximal esophageal stenosis, or 1 to 2 mm whitish vesicles scattered over the mucosal surface. Barium contrast radiography combined with swallow of a barium-coated marshmallow identified 10 (67%) of the primary features observed endoscopically in 15 patients. However, radiography failed to detect other features noted at endoscopy (e.g., only 3/6 patients with proximal stenosis, 5/9 patients with concentric rings and none of 4 patients with small caliber esophagus). Eight of the 29 patients (20%) had a history of chronic heartburn. Twelve patients had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor and only 3 reported some improvement in the severity of dysphagia. Relatively young age, a history of chronic dysphagia for solid food, and endoscopic detection of unique structural alterations atypical for GERD in an adult patient should prompt a suspicion of EE and subsequent biopsy confirmation. Acid reflux appears to have a secondary role in eosinophilic esophagitis. In an uncontrolled comparison, endoscopy was superior to barium contrast radiography for the diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis. The incidence of eosinophilic esophagitis in adults appears to be increasing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_78283", "title": "Heartburn", "score": 0.014446302489780752, "content": "Esophagus GERD (most common cause of heartburn) occurs when acid refluxes from the stomach and inflames the esophagus. Esophageal spasms typically occur after eating or drinking and may be combined with difficulty swallowing. Esophageal strictures Esophageal cancers Esophagitis GERD Eosinophilic esophagitis - a disease commonly associated with other atopic diseases such as asthma, food allergies, seasonal allergies, and atopic skin disease Mallory-Weis tears - tears of the superficial mucosa of the esophagus that are subsequently exposed to gastric acid commonly due to vomiting and/or retching Chemical esophagitis - related to the intake of caustic substances, excessive amounts of hot liquids, alcohol, or tobacco smoke Infections may explain heartburn symptoms. These especially include CMV and certain fungal infections, most common in immunocompromised persons Stomach" }, { "id": "article-21352_26", "title": "Esophagitis -- Evaluation", "score": 0.013115179846773146, "content": "The endoscopic appearance of the mucosal lesions can help with diagnosis. In patients with suspected eosinophilic esophagitis, endoscopy may reveal white exudates or papules, red furrows, corrugated concentric rings, and strictures; but endoscopy may be normal in up to 10% of patients. Endoscopic signs of candidiasis are small, diffuse, linear, yellow-white \"cheese-like\" plaques adherent to the mucosa. CMV esophagitis is characterized by several large, shallow, superficial ulcerations. HSV esophagitis results in multiple small, deep ulcerations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1027_9829", "title": "Infectious Esophagitis in Romanian Children: From Etiology and Risk Factors to Clinical Characteristics and Endoscopic Features.", "score": 0.013098197025288989, "content": "The aim of this study is to provide information about prevalence, etiology, risk factors, clinical characteristics and endoscopic features of various types of infectious esophagitis in children. We performed a total of 520 upper gastrointestinal tract endoscopies in Pediatric Clinic II, Emergency Hospital for Children, Cluj-Napoca. Indications for endoscopy in our cohort were gastrointestinal tract symptoms such as dysphagia, heartburn, or appetite loss. The prevalence of infectious esophagitis in the study population was 2.11% (11 patients). Candida albicans (<iC. albicans</i) was the most frequent cause. Our data illustrates that herpes simplex virus (HSV)-induced esophagitis is common in immunocompromised patients and should be systematically suspected in cases of severe dysphagia, heartburn, or hematemesis. In the present study, all cytomegalovirus (CMV) esophagitis patients were immunocompromised. Immunodeficiency (81.8%) and prolonged antibiotic therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics were by far the most important risk factors involved in the pathogenicity of the disease. Dysphagia, appetite loss, heartburn, epigastralgia, and hematemesis were the main clinical manifestations. Infectious esophagitis was associated with significant mortality. In four patients, endoscopy during life showed signs of infectious esophagitis; however, the precise etiology was only established post-mortem, in the pathological anatomy laboratory department. A risk factor involved in pathogenesis of post-mortem diagnosed infectious esophagitis is the DiGeorge syndrome for CMV and HSV patients. The study illustrates that infectious esophagitis should be considered in immunocompromised infants with prolonged antibiotic therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_96992", "title": "Esophagus", "score": 0.012990624503416495, "content": "Inflammation Inflammation of the esophagus is known as esophagitis. Reflux of gastric acids from the stomach, infection, substances ingested (for example, corrosives), some medications (such as bisphosphonates), and food allergies can all lead to esophagitis. Esophageal candidiasis is an infection of the yeast Candida albicans that may occur when a person is immunocompromised. the causes of some forms of esophagitis, such as eosinophilic esophagitis, are not well-characterized, but may include Th2-mediated atopies or genetic factors. There appear to be correlations between eosinophilic esophagitis, asthma (itself with an eosinophilic component), eczema, and allergic rhinitis, though it is not clear whether these conditions contribute to eosinophilic esophagitis or vice versa, or if they are symptoms of mutual underlying factors. Esophagitis can cause painful swallowing and is usually treated by managing the cause of the esophagitis - such as managing reflux or treating infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0590_16455", "title": "[Eosinophilic esophagitis : a cause of dysphagia].", "score": 0.012727272727272726, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis (EE) is a chronic, interleukin-5-driven inflammatory disease of the esophagus, causing dysphagia and esophageal food impactions. We analyzed the diagnostic results of patients with suspected or proven EE and in this article discuss the relevant aspects of this disease. Sixteen patients suffering from dysphagia or recurrent esophageal food impactions underwent rigid esophagoscopy to exclude EE. In six patients, 24-h pH monitoring was performed to exclude laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR). EE was diagnosed in only one patient, a boy with a history of peanut allergy and recurrent esophageal food impactions. In six patients, histological examination of biopsies revealed reflux esophagitis indicating gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Using 24-h pH monitoring, LPR was diagnosed in four of six patients. Even in patients presenting with typical symptoms of EE, this disease is rarely found. However, in male patients with asthma, allergies, or a history of recurrent esophageal food impactions, EE must be excluded. The most important differential diagnoses of EE are GERD and LPR." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_7946", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis in adults, an emerging cause of dysphagia. Description of 9 cases.", "score": 0.012531133250311332, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis is a rare condition mainly affecting children, although the number of cases reported in adults is on the increase. It is characterized by intense infiltration of eosinophilic leukocytes in the esophageal mucosa, without involvement of other sections of the alimentary canal. Over the past year, following the performance of endoscopies and biopsies, our service identified nine patients who were diagnosed with suffering from this disorder. Each patient sought medical help for episodes of long-term, self-limited dysphagia or food impaction in the alimentary canal. Endoscopy revealed esophageal stenosis in the form of simultaneous contraction rings or regular stenosis. In six cases, the manometric study showed a nonspecific motor disorder of severe intensity affecting the esophageal body, and another patient had a disorder characterized by the presence of simultaneous waves and secondary peristaltic waves in the three thirds of the organ. These disorders are presumably due to eosinophilic infiltration of the muscular layer or ganglionar cells of the esophagus, and account for symptoms in these patients. Although the etiopathogenesis of this illness is uncertain, it is clearly an immunoallergic manifestation. As the number of diagnosed cases is on the increase, eosinophilic esophagitis is in adults a specific entity within the differential diagnosis of dysphagia in young males with a history of allergies. Eosiniphilic esophagitis responds in a different number of ways to therapies used. We successfully used fluticasone propionate, a synthetic corticoid applied topically, which proved to be efficient in the treatment of this illness by acting on the pathophysiological basis of the process. It does not have any adverse effects, thus offering advantages over other therapies such as systematic corticoids or endoscopic dilations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_49021", "title": "Esophageal candidiasis", "score": 0.012495505213951815, "content": "Some patients present with esophageal candidiasis as a first presentation of systemic candidiasis. Diagnosis In most cases, the diagnosis is established based on response to therapy. Patients in whom esophageal candidiasis is suspected should receive a brief course of antifungal therapy with fluconazole. If the infection resolves after treatment with fluconazole, then the diagnosis of esophageal candidiasis is made and no further investigation is needed. However, if the infection persists or if there are other factors involved which may warrant further investigation, then patient will undergo an esophagogastroduodenoscopy if it is safe to do so. Endoscopy often reveals classic diffuse raised plaques that characteristically can be removed from the mucosa by the endoscope. Brushing or biopsy of the plaques shows yeast and pseudohyphae by histology that are characteristic of Candida species." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_2997", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012410152740341419, "content": "FIguRE 53-2 Approach to the patient with dysphagia. Etiologies in bold print are the most common. ENT, ear, nose, and throat; GERD, gastroesophageal reflux disease. agents or pills, previous radiation or chemotherapy, or associated mucocutaneous diseases may help isolate the cause of dysphagia. With accompanying odynophagia, which usually is indicative of ulceration, infectious or pill-induced esophagitis should be suspected. In patients with AIDS or other immunocompromised states, esophagitis due to opportunistic infections such as Candida, herpes simplex virus, or cytomegalovirus and to tumors such as Kaposi’s sarcoma and lymphoma should be considered. A strong history of atopy increases concerns for eosinophilic esophagitis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_36369", "title": "Esophageal dysphagia", "score": 0.012299411439207203, "content": "Esophageal rings and webs, are actual rings and webs of tissue that may occlude the esophageal lumen. Rings --- Also known as Schatzki rings from the discoverer, these rings are usually mucosal rings rather than muscular rings, and are located near the gastroesophageal junction at the squamo-columnar junction. Presence of multiple rings may suggest eosinophilic esophagitis. Rings cause intermittent mechanical dysphagia, meaning patients will usually present with transient discomfort and regurgitation while swallowing solids and then liquids, depending on the constriction of the ring. Webs --- Usually squamous mucosal protrusion into the esophageal lumen, especially anterior cervical esophagus behind the cricoid area. Patients are usually asymptomatic or have intermittent dysphagia. An important association of esophageal webs is to the Plummer–Vinson syndrome in iron deficiency, in which case patients will also have anemia, koilonychia, fatigue, and other symptoms of anemia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en264_29588", "title": "Cytomegalovirus esophagitis", "score": 0.012285311146791222, "content": "Cytomegalovirus esophagitis is a form of esophagitis associated with cytomegalovirus. Symptoms include dysphagia, upper abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and sometimes hematemesis. This condition occurs in the setting of patients with a weakened immune system who are susceptible to both infections by CMV and the manifestation of symptoms. A large majority of patient that have CMV Esophagitis are diagnosed with HIV. Another significant segment of the population have weakened immune systems through transplant surgery, diabetes, or due to medication. Diagnosis is done primarily by endoscopy with biopsy, as CMV Esophagitis has a distinctive pathology pattern of linear ulcers. Signs and Symptoms Dysphagia: Difficulty or pain while swallowing Hematemesis: Blood while vomiting Abdominal Pain: Pain in the upper abdominal area, usually exacerbated by swallowing. Pain can also manifest as heartburn symptoms Nausea/vomiting Fever" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22452", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011796536796536798, "content": "EoE is diagnosed based on the combination of typical esophageal symptoms and esophageal mucosal biopsies demonstrating squamous epithelial eosinophil-predominant inflammation. Alternative etiologies of esophageal eosinophilia include GERD, drug hypersensitivity, connective tissue disorders, hypereosinophilic syndrome, and infection. Current evidence indicates that EoE is an immunologic disorder induced by antigen sensitization in susceptible individuals. Dietary factors play an important role in both the pathogenesis and treatment of EoE. Aeroallergens may also contribute, but the evidence is weaker. The natural history of EoE is unclear, but an increased risk of esophageal stricture development paralleling the duration of untreated disease has been noted. Diseases of the Esophagus FIGURE 347-11 Endoscopic features of (A) eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE), (B) Candida esophagitis, (C) giant ulcer associated with HIV, (D) and a Schatzki ring." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_11515", "title": "Esophageal web", "score": 0.01178138010452653, "content": "Esophageal webs are thin membranes occurring anywhere along the esophagus. Presentation Its main symptoms are pain and difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia). Esophageal webs are thin membranes of normal esophageal tissue consisting of mucosa and submucosa that can partially protrude/obstruct the esophagus. They can be congenital or acquired. Congenital webs commonly appear in the middle and inferior third of the esophagus, and they are more likely to be circumferential with a central or eccentric orifice. Acquired webs are much more common than congenital webs and typically appear in the cervical area (postcricoid). Clinical symptoms of this condition are selective (solid more than liquids) dysphagia, thoracic pain, nasopharyngeal reflux, aspiration, perforation and food impaction (the last two are very rare)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en087_9075", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis", "score": 0.01164058795637743, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is an allergic inflammatory condition of the esophagus that involves eosinophils, a type of white blood cell. In healthy individuals, the esophagus is typically devoid of eosinophils. In EoE, eosinophils migrate to the esophagus in large numbers. When a trigger food is eaten, the eosinophils contribute to tissue damage and inflammation. Symptoms include swallowing difficulty, food impaction, vomiting, and heartburn. Eosinophilic esophagitis was first described in children but also occurs in adults. The condition is not well understood, but food allergy may play a significant role. The treatment may consist of removal of known or suspected triggers and medication to suppress the immune response. In severe cases, it may be necessary to enlarge the esophagus with an endoscopy procedure. While knowledge about EoE has been increasing rapidly, diagnosis of EoE can be challenging because the symptoms and histo-pathologic findings are not specific." }, { "id": "article-20237_13", "title": "Cytomegalovirus Esophagitis -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.01162907268170426, "content": "Cytomegalovirus esophagitis more commonly presents as a single, isolated large ulcer in the distal esophagus but can also manifest as diffuse esophagitis. [1] The diffuse presentation can be difficult to distinguish from other disorders such as herpes simplex virus (HSV) esophagitis and acid peptic disease. The differentiating factor is that HSV esophagitis typically presents as multiple, small, shallow ulcerations more so than large ulcerations. HSV esophagitis also affects the entire esophagus, whereas CMV esophagitis more commonly affects the mid to distal esophagus. [10] Achalasia Acid peptic disease Aphthous ulcers Barrett esophagus and Barrett ulcer Candidiasis Cryptococcosis Drug-induced dysphagia Epstein-Barr virus infection Esophageal cancer Gastroesophageal reflux disease Herpes simplex esophagitis Histoplasmosis Tuberculosis" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en184_21994", "title": "Esophageal food bolus obstruction", "score": 0.011512550756736803, "content": "Risk factors Food bolus obstruction is most commonly caused by Schatzki rings, which are mucosal rings of unknown cause in the lower esophagus. Foodstuff jams into the esophagus due to the narrowing caused by the ring. An increasingly commonly recognized cause for esophageal food bolus obstruction is eosinophilic esophagitis, which is an inflammatory disorder of the mucosa of the esophagus, of unknown cause. Many alterations caused by eosinophilic esophagitis can predispose to food boluses; these include the presence of multiple rings and narrowing of the lumen. When considering esophageal dilation to treat a patient with food bolus obstruction, care must be made to look for features of eosinophilic esophagitis, as these patients are at a higher risk of dilation-associated complications." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_101519", "title": "Dysphagia", "score": 0.011313453221033463, "content": "Differential diagnosis All causes of dysphagia are considered as differential diagnoses. Some common ones are: Esophageal atresia Paterson-Kelly syndrome Zenker's diverticulum Esophageal varices Benign strictures Achalasia Esophageal diverticula Scleroderma Diffuse esophageal spasm Polymyositis Webs and rings Esophageal cancer Eosinophilic esophagitis Hiatus hernia, especially paraesophageal type Dysphagia lusoria Stroke Fahr's disease Wernicke encephalopathy Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease Parkinson's disease Multiple sclerosis Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Rabies Cervical Spondylosis" }, { "id": "article-20721_23", "title": "Drug-Induced Esophagitis -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.01119701412956545, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis: Eosinophilic infiltration presents in drug-induced esophagitis as well as eosinophilic esophagitis. The two are separated based on the clinical picture and pathological diagnostic criteria. Herpes esophagitis: It most commonly presents in immunocompromised patients, such as acquired immune deficiency symptoms (AIDS). Esophagogastroduodenoscopy may show lesions such as small erosions or ulcers in the distal or mid esophagus. Twenty-six percent of the cases involve the entire esophagus. Diagnosis requires biopsies and a viral culture of the lesion. [19] Infectious esophagitis such as esophageal candidiasis Malignancy Gastroesophageal reflux disease and peptic ulcer disease Achalasia and esophageal motility disorder Acute coronary syndrome with atypical chest pain Acute necrotizing esophagitis (black esophagus) in the elderly [1] [18] [2]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en087_9078", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis", "score": 0.011169994060943853, "content": "Predominant symptoms in school-aged children and adolescents include difficulty swallowing, food impaction, and choking/gagging with meals- particularly when eating foods with coarse textures. Other symptoms in this age group can include abdominal/chest pain, vomiting, and regurgitation. The predominant symptom in adults is difficulty swallowing; however, intractable heartburn and food avoidance may also be present. Due to the long-standing inflammation and possible resultant scarring that may have gone unrecognized, adults presenting with EoE tend to have more episodes of esophageal food impaction as well as other esophageal abnormalities such as Schatzki ring, esophageal webs, and in some cases, achalasia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_101714", "title": "Esophageal motility disorder", "score": 0.011083743842364532, "content": "Types Dysphagia could be for solid only or for solid and liquid. Solid dysphagia is due to obstruction such as esophageal cancer, esophageal web, or stricture. Solid plus liquid dysphagia is due to esophageal motility disorder (or dysmotility) either in the upper esophagus (myasthenia gravis, stroke, or dermatomyositis) or lower esophagus (systemic sclerosis, CREST syndrome, or achalasia). The Most common dysphagia is Achalasia which is caused by degeneration of the nerves in the esophagus. This causes the muscles to stop working and prevents the valve at the bottom of the esophagus from being able to open properly. If there is a food allergy causing an EMD, then physicians recommend an elimination diet. If this fails, then physicians will prescribe special types of Medication to help resolve this problem. Diagnostics Testing to diagnose an EMD include: Barium Esophagography, Upper Endoscopy, and Esophageal Manometry. Treatments" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_102253", "title": "Esophagitis", "score": 0.011068724351193573, "content": "Lymphocytic esophagitis Lymphocytic esophagitis is a rare and poorly understood entity associated with an increased amount of lymphocytes in the lining of the esophagus. It was first described in 2006. Disease associations may include Crohn's disease, gastroesophageal reflux disease and coeliac disease. It causes similar changes on endoscopy as eosinophilic esophagitis including esophageal rings, narrow-lumen esophagus, and linear furrows. Caustic esophagitis Caustic esophagitis is the damage of tissue via chemical origin. This occasionally occurs through occupational exposure (via breathing of fumes that mix into the saliva which is then swallowed) or through pica. It occurred in some teenagers during the fad of intentionally eating Tide pods. By severity The severity of reflux esophagitis is commonly classified into four grades according to the Los Angeles Classification:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_25614", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis: a newly established cause of dysphagia.", "score": 0.011005291005291004, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis has rapidly become a recognized entity causing dysphagia in young adults. This review summarizes the current knowledge of eosinophilic esophagitis including the epidemiology, clinical presentation, diagnostic criteria, pathophysiology, treatment, and prognosis. An extensive search of PubMed/Medline (1966-December 2005) for available English literature in humans for eosinophilic esophagitis was completed. Appropriate articles listed in the bibliographies were also attained. The estimated incidence is 43/10(5) in children and 2.5/10(5) in adults. Clinically, patients have a long history of intermittent solid food dysphagia or food impaction. Some have a history of atopy. Subtle endoscopic features may be easily overlooked, including a \"feline\" or corrugated esophagus with fine rings, a diffusely narrowed esophagus that may have proximal strictures, the presence of linear furrows, adherent white plaques, or a friable (crepe paper) mucosa, prone to tearing with minimal contact. Although no pathologic consensus has been established, a histologic diagnosis is critical. The accepted criteria are a dense eosinophilic infiltrate (&gt;20/high power field) within the superficial esophageal mucosa. In contrast, the esophagitis associated with acid reflux disease can also possess eosinophils but they are fewer in number. Once the diagnosis is established, treatment options may include specific food avoidance, topical corticosteroids, systemic corticosteroids, leukotriene inhibitors, or biologic treatment. The long-term prognosis of EE is uncertain; however available data suggests a benign, albeit inconvenient, course. With increasing recognition, this entity is taking its place as an established cause of solid food dysphagia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en087_9091", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis", "score": 0.010976702508960573, "content": "Esophageal strictures and rings can be safely dilated in EoE. It is recommended to use a graduated balloon catheter for gradual dilation. The patient should be informed that after dilation they might experience chest pain and in addition risk of esophageal perforation and bleeding. Prognosis The long-term prognosis for patients with EoE is unknown. Some patients may follow a “waxing and waning” course characterized by symptomatic episodes followed by periods of remission. There have also been reports of apparent spontaneous disease remission in some patients; however, the risk of recurrence in these patients is unknown. It is possible that long-standing, untreated disease may result in esophageal remodeling, leading to strictures, Schatzki ring and, eventually, achalasia. History The first case of eosinophilic esophagitis was reported in 1978. In the early 1990s, it became recognized as a distinct disease. See also Eosinophilic gastroenteritis References External links" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22440", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010968316053061818, "content": "to the development of copy with mucosal biopsies, which are necessary tion. In terms of endoscopic appearance, infectious esophagitis is diffuse and tends to involve the proximal esophagus far more frequently than does reflux esophagitis. The ulcerations seen in peptic esophagitis are usually solitary and distal, whereas infectious ulcerations are punctate and diffuse. Eosinophilic esophagitis characteristically exhibits multiple esophageal rings, linear furrows, or white punctate exudate. Esophageal ulcerations from pill esophagitis are usually singular and deep at points of luminal narrowing, especially near the carina, with sparing of the distal esophagus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en565_5848", "title": "Lymphocytic esophagitis", "score": 0.010942760942760943, "content": "While the diagnosis of lymphocytic esophagitis depends on the biopsy results, certain changes can be visualized directly at the time of endoscopy. The esophagus may be narrow in calibre, may show multiple rings, redness, linear furrows or the mucosal lining may slide demonstrating a \"crepe-paper\" appearance. Complications such as strictures of the esophagus can also be detected with endoscopy. These changes are very similar to those found in eosinophilic esophagitis, a more common and better understood esophageal disorder thought to be of allergic origin. Narrow-band imaging with magnification endoscopy is another imaging modality that can show characteristic changes of lymphocytic esophagitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_11488", "title": "Eosinophils in the esophagus--peptic or allergic eosinophilic esophagitis? Case series of three patients with esophageal eosinophilia.", "score": 0.010867761738841878, "content": "Scattered eosinophils in the distal esophagus traditionally provide the hallmark for peptic esophagitis, but the upper limit of eosinophils and the longitudinal extent of peptic inflammation along the esophagus are unknown. Recently, adults and children with upper intestinal symptoms and &gt;20 eosinophils/high-power field (eos/HPF) have been given the diagnosis of allergic esophagitis. Standardized diagnostic criteria for allergic esophagitis are lacking and the isolated finding of large numbers of eosinophils in the squamous epithelium has been used as the defining feature. We cared for three patients with symptoms and endoscopic features of esophagitis with &gt;20 eos/HPF in their esophageal mucosa. Symptoms, endoscopic features, and histologic findings resolved after 2 months of proton pump inhibitor (PPI) treatment. The aim of this case series is to demonstrate that features thought to be consistent with a diagnosis of allergic esophagitis are also observed in peptic esophagitis. A retrospective chart review of three patients with esophagitis (&gt;20 eos/HPF) whose symptoms and eosinophilia resolved with PPI treatment was performed. Esophageal biopsies were reviewed in a blinded manner by one pathologist. Patients (aged 14, 25, and 5 yr) presented with dysphagia, food impaction, and vomiting. Endoscopic features included white exudates and linear furrows. None of the patients received antiallergic treatments or dietary eliminations prior to endoscopy. Following treatment with PPIs alone, all patients became asymptomatic and endoscopic findings reverted to normal. In all three patients, pre- and post-PPI treatment eosinophil numbers/HPF decreased to normal/near normal (37 to 1, 21 to 3, and 52 to 0 eosinophils/HPF in patients 1, 2, and 3, respectively). Large numbers of eosinophils can be seen in peptic esophagitis. This histologic finding must be interpreted in the context of the clinical setting in which it is obtained." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_36366", "title": "Esophageal dysphagia", "score": 0.010774040899104276, "content": "Esophageal stricture, or narrowing of the esophagus, is usually a complication of acid reflux, most commonly due to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). These patients are usually older and have had GERD for a long time. Esophageal stricture can also be due to other causes, such as acid reflux from Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, trauma from a nasogastric tube placement, and chronic acid exposure in patients with poor esophageal motility from scleroderma. Other non-acid related causes of peptic strictures include infectious esophagitis, ingestion of chemical irritant, pill irritation, and radiation. Peptic stricture is a progressive mechanical dysphagia, meaning patients will complain of initial intolerance to solids followed by inability to tolerate liquids. When the diameter of the stricture is less than 12 mm the patient will always have dysphagia, while dysphagia is not seen when the diameter of the stricture is above 30 mm. Symptoms relating to the underlying cause of the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en087_9080", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis", "score": 0.010595465140919687, "content": "At a tissue level, EoE is characterized by a dense infiltrate with white blood cells of the eosinophil type into the epithelial lining of the esophagus. This is thought to be an allergic reaction against ingested food, based on the important role eosinophils play in allergic reactions. The eosinophils are recruited into the tissue in response to local production of eotaxin-3 by IL-13 stimulated esophageal epithelial cells. Eosinophils are inflammatory cells that release a variety of chemical signals which inflame the surrounding esophageal tissue. This results in the signs and symptoms of pain, visible redness on endoscopy, and a natural history that may include stricturing. Diagnosis The diagnosis of EoE is typically made on the combination of symptoms and findings on diagnostic testing. To properly diagnose EoE, various diseases such as GERD, esophageal cancer, achalasia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, infection, Crohn's disease, and drug allergies need to be ruled out." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0990_12941", "title": "An uncommon case of herpetic esophagitis in a small child with allergic rhinitis: A case report and literature review (CARE compliant).", "score": 0.01054025566876571, "content": "Herpetic esophagitis (HE) is a common condition in immunosuppressed patients, but a rare entity in immunocompetent patients affecting especially male teenagers and young adults. We report the case of a 5-year-old male patient, with a history of allergic rhinitis admitted in our clinic for acute onset fever refractory to antipyretics, chest pain, anorexia, refusal of solid food, accepting only small amounts of fluids, odynophagia, and epigastric pain. The clinical exam revealed severe malaise, pallor, decreased skin turgor, abdominal epigastric tenderness, heartburn at palpation within the epigastric area. The laboratory tests showed leukocytosis, monocytosis, hypoglycaemia, and elevated inflammatory biomarkers. The serology tests for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and herpes simplex virus (HSV) were negative, except for immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-EBV which was positive. The chest radiography was normal, and the abdominal ultrasound showed abdominal bloating. The upper digestive endoscopy revealed friable esophageal mucosa, with multiple ulceration on the entire esophagus, and whitish exudates especially on the middle and lower part of the esophagus suggesting a possible eosinophilic esophagitis or caused by Candida. Despite the empirical initiated treatment, the patient's evolution was only slowly favorable. The histological exam established the diagnosis of HE. We initiated acyclovir therapy with an outstandingly favorable evolution. After 1 month, we detected the seroconversion of IgG anti-HSV. The patient's follow-up revealed no additional complaints. Despite its rarity in immunocompetent individuals, HE must be taken into account even in otherwise healthy small children. Allergic conditions might represent a predisposing factor for HE." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en282_10540", "title": "Esophageal pH monitoring", "score": 0.010351966873706004, "content": "Clinical application Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a common disease in western countries. In the United States, 7% of the population experiences heartburn daily and 44% at least once a month. Heartburn occurs when esophageal mucosa is exposed to the acidic gastric content, but the complaint of heartburn is not always a reliable guide to the presence of acid reflux in the esophagus. Further, only half of the patients with increased esophageal acid exposure will have esophagitis. Therefore, the diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) on the basis of symptoms or endoscopic findings is problematic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en565_5850", "title": "Lymphocytic esophagitis", "score": 0.01008461235733963, "content": "Prognosis There has been little studied about the natural history of lymphocytic esophagitis. The longest study of the condition involved a median follow-up of 3.3 years, wherein participants were surveyed, and demonstrated that 87% of patients were alive but that the vast majority (97%) of patients still had symptoms. There have been two reports of esophageal perforation associated with the condition, one case occurring during endoscopic treatment of complications. Epidemiology The percentage of individuals with lymphocytic esophagitis is uncertain. Early studies indicated that the prevalence was 0.1% in adults. However, reports in children indicate a higher prevalence of 8.5%, perhaps suggestive of incidental findings of lymphocytes in endoscopies performed for other reasons. The disease may occur more frequently in women over the age of 60." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "A petrosal sinus catheterization.", "2": "A gammagraphy with labeled somatostatin (Octreoscan).", "3": "A scan with Sesta-MIBI.", "4": "An abdominal ultrasound.", "5": "An adrenal CT scan." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0270_19530", "title": "[Cushing's syndrome: diagnostic exploration].", "score": 0.018672919923571306, "content": "The diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is one of the most perplexing and controversial problems in endocrinology. However, significant advances in the diagnosis procedures have been made in the past decade. The diagnostic studies involved in the evaluation of patients with suspected Cushing's syndrome fall into two categories: confirming the presence of true hypercortisolism and establishing the precise aetiology. Diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome: ambulatory screening relies on the overnight 1 mg dexamethasone test. Negative tests are confirmed by measuring cortisol in two 24-hour urine samples. If cortisol excretion is slightly above normal, a 48-hour low-dose dexamethasone suppression test or an intravenous infusion dexamethasone suppression test are required. Diagnosis of the aetiology of Cushing's syndrome: the first step is to establish if the hypercortisolism is ACTH-dependent or not. This step is solved by measuring plasma ACTH and cortisol in the late afternoon. Computed tomography scanning of the adrenal glands is required in ACTH-independent Cushing's syndrome. A unilateral tumour will be demonstrated in most of cases. If bilateral lesions are found, dynamic testing using cortisol releasing factor and/or metyrapone must be performed to confirm the ACTH-independency of the syndrome. In ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome, the major difficulty is to distinguish between a pituitary source and an ectopic source of ACTH secretion. Magnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary with gadolinium enhancement must be preferred to computed tomography scanning but its sensitivity is not better than 70-80% and false positives can occur. When no macroscopic pituitary lesion can be detected, bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling coupled to CRH injection for ACTH measurement will indicate the source of ACTH secretion. If this test indicates the patient has Cushing's disease, pituitary trans-sphenoidal surgery can be performed. If the test indicates the patient has ectopic ACTH-secretion, a cervico-thoraco-abdominal scanning is necessary to identify the tumour. In the case of occult tumour the hypercortisolism must be controlled by pharmacological agents and the imaging investigations must be repeated at appropriate intervals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0585_18295", "title": "Limitations of nocturnal salivary cortisol and urine free cortisol in the diagnosis of mild Cushing's syndrome.", "score": 0.016952759256632144, "content": "Cushing's syndrome (CS) is difficult to diagnose due to its nonspecific presentation. Diagnostic tests like 24-h urine free cortisol (UFC) and the overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test (DST) lack sufficient sensitivity and specificity. Measurement of nocturnal salivary cortisol (NSC) is an accurate and reproducible test with a high sensitivity for CS. However, its performance in mild CS has not been reported. We present 11 cases of CS with normal or mildly elevated UFC in whom NSC was helpful in making a diagnosis. All patients had at least one collection of 24-h UFC and NSC and eight had an overnight 1 mg DST. The number of NSC measurements per patient was determined by the clinical index of suspicion and the results of initial testing. Imaging studies included magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of pituitary or computer tomography scan of abdomen. Only four out of eleven patients had elevations in UFC and none were &gt;2 times the upper limit of normal. Seven out of eight had an abnormal DST. All patients had some elevated NSCs (14-100%). Out of eleven patients, six had an abnormality in the pituitary gland found by MRI and two out of eleven had adrenal masses. The remaining three had normal pituitary MRI but had inferior petrosal sinus (IPS) sampling indicating Cushing's disease. All patients had appropriate surgery, and histopathology of all except one was suggestive of either a cortisol-producing adrenal adenoma or an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma. Neither a normal UFC nor a normal NSC excludes mild CS. Multiple samples (urine/saliva) and DST are needed to make the diagnosis of mild CS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0102_11486", "title": "[Rational diagnosis of endocrine forms of hypertension].", "score": 0.01668520578420467, "content": "Primary aldosteronism, Cushing's syndrome and pheochromocytoma are the most frequent endocrine hypertensive disorders. Following biochemical confirmation of the clinical diagnosis, mainly non-invasive imaging techniques are necessary to determine the cause of the hormone excess. Diagnosis of primary aldosteronism is confirmed by analysis of aldosterone and renin in peripheral venous blood. Differentiation between adenoma and idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia usually is achieved by computed tomography and isotope scan. A reliable test for the biochemical confirmation of Cushing's syndrome is the determination of urine-free cortisol. In patients with equivocal results the dexamethasone suppression test is performed. Differential diagnosis between ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome (pituitary or ectopic) and primary adrenal disorders can be made by determination of plasma-ACTH and -cortisol. Non-invasive localization procedures include computed tomography of the abdomen, computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland, sonography and isotope scan. Diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is based on elevated catecholamine levels in urine or plasma. The tumor is localized by ultrasound, computed tomography or isotope scan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0356_4633", "title": "Subclinical Cushing's syndrome.", "score": 0.016566063044936286, "content": "Classic Cushing's syndrome is a rare disease with an estimated incidence of 1 case per 100,000 persons. With routine use of imaging techniques such as ultrasound and CT, adrenal masses are being detected with increased frequency. A substantial percentage of these incidentalomas are hormonally active, with 5% to 20% of the tumors producing glucocorticoids. Autonomous glucocorticoid production without specific signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome is termed subclinical Cushing's syndrome. With an estimated prevalence of 79 cases per 100,000 persons, subclinical Cushing's syndrome is much more common than classic Cushing's syndrome. Depending on the amounts of glucocorticoids secreted by the tumor, the clinical spectrum ranges from slightly attenuated diurnal cortisol rhythm to complete atrophy of the contralateral adrenal gland with lasting adrenal insufficiency after unilateral adrenalectomy. Patients with subclinical Cushing's syndrome lack the classical stigmata of hypercortisolism but have a high prevalence of obesity, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. All patients with incidentally detected adrenal masses scheduled for surgery must undergo testing for subclinical Cushing's syndrome to avoid postoperative adrenal crisis. The best screening test to uncover autonomous cortisol secretion is the short dexamethasone suppression test. Because the adrenal origin of a pathologic cortisol secretion is anticipated, the author prefers a higher dexamethasone dose (3 mg instead of 1 mg) to reduce false-positive results. A suppressed serum cortisol level of less than 3 micrograms/dL (80 nmol/L) after dexamethasone excludes significant cortisol secretion by the tumor. A serum cortisol level greater than 3 micrograms/dL requires further investigation, including confirmation by high-dose dexamethasone (8 mg) suppression testing, a CRH test, and analysis of diurnal rhythm. Determination of urinary free cortisol is less useful because increased values are a late finding usually associated with emerging clinical signs of Cushing's syndrome. Patients with suppressed plasma ACTH in response to CRH generally have adrenal insufficiency after surgery and require adequate perioperative and postoperative substitution therapy. Whether patients with subclinical Cushing's syndrome should undergo adrenalectomy is a matter of debate. The author performs surgery in young patients (&lt; 50 years), in patients with suppressed plasma ACTH, and in patients with a recent history of weight gain, substantial obesity, arterial hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and osteopenia. In completely asymptomatic patients with normal plasma ACTH concentrations and in patients older than 75 years, the author recommends a nonsurgical approach. A large prospective randomized study is necessary to evaluate the benefits of surgery versus conservative treatment in patients with subclinical Cushing's syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1121_2204", "title": "Coexistence of Cushing Disease With a Solitary Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone-Dependent Adrenal Adenoma.", "score": 0.014648334214701218, "content": "We report a 49-year-old woman who had minimal features of Cushing syndrome and an incidentally discovered adrenal adenoma. She was subsequently diagnosed with pituitary-dependent Cushing syndrome. Laboratory and imaging studies including serum cortisol, plasma adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), high dose dexamethasone test, corticotropin-releasing hormone test, computed tomography (CT) scan, and magnetic resonance imaging were performed. A 49-year-old woman was admitted for urosepsis. An abdominal CT scan performed during the urosepsis workup showed a 2.7-cm right adrenal adenoma. She denied any abdominal striae or other symptoms. Physical examination showed normal vital signs, minimal facial fullness without central obesity, and striae. Laboratory results were as follows: 24-hour-urine cortisol 294 μg (reference 4.0-50.0), midnight serum cortisol 23.0 μg/dL (reference &lt; 7.5), and plasma ACTH level 39 pg/mL (reference 5-27). A corticotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test showed &gt;20% rise in serum cortisol and &gt;35% rise in ACTH levels. A pituitary magnetic resonance image showed a 5 mm pituitary lesion. The patient underwent transsphenoidal pituitary surgery, which confirmed an ACTH-secreting lesion. Postoperatively, she required hydrocortisone replacement for the next 10 months. A follow-up adrenal CT performed 6 months later showed a decrease in the size of the adrenal adenoma (1.8 cm). This case highlights the importance of recognizing the coexistence of ACTH-dependent Cushing disease with an adrenal adenoma and partial ACTH dependency of the adrenal adenoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_55233", "title": "Cushing's syndrome", "score": 0.014223679546260193, "content": "When any of these tests is positive, CT scanning of the adrenal gland and MRI of the pituitary gland are performed to detect the presence of any adrenal or pituitary adenomas or incidentalomas (the incidental discovery of harmless lesions). Scintigraphy of the adrenal gland with iodocholesterol scan is occasionally necessary. Occasionally, determining the ACTH levels in various veins in the body by venous catheterization, working towards the pituitary (petrosal sinus sampling) is necessary. In many cases, the tumors causing Cushing's disease are less than 2 mm in size and difficult to detect using MRI or CT imaging. In one study of 261 patients with confirmed pituitary Cushing's disease, only 48% of pituitary lesions were identified using MRI prior to surgery. Plasma CRH levels are inadequate at diagnosis (with the possible exception of tumors secreting CRH) because of peripheral dilution and binding to CRHBP." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0376_5040", "title": "The differential diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome.", "score": 0.01380952380952381, "content": "The diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome remains one of the most challenging tasks in clinical neuroendocrinology. The diagnostic procedure can be divided into two distinct steps: diagnosis of the neuroendocrine disorder and differential diagnosis of the precise aetiology. The goal of the first laboratory tests is to obtain biochemical proof of Cushing's syndrome. Patients with Cushing's syndrome are relatively insensitive to glucocorticoid feedback and exhibit an oversecretion of cortisol devoid of a circadian cycle. In our experience, a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test provides the most reliable confirmation of steroid resistance, a cortisol level of&lt;50 nmol/l at 9 a.m. having 98% sensitivity. A cortisol level below 50 nmol/l at midnight rules out active Cushing's syndrome with, in our experience, 100% sensitivity and a specificity depending on numerous other variables. A very high level of free urinary corticol can be a useful sign. After having established the diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome, a persistently low level of ACTH (&lt;10 pg/ml), or preferentially an undetectable level unresponsive to CRH (100 microgram iv), is suggestive of an ACTH-independent disorder, and consequently of primary adrenal disease. The precise location of the lesion can identified with CT or MRI imaging, generally prior to surgical cure. If the ACTH level is detectable, patients with pituitary Cushing's syndrome, or Cushing's disease, should be differentiated from those with ectopic ACTH secretion. The secreting tumour may be difficult to localise and diagnosis is never 100% sure with dynamic tests. Catheterisation of the petrosal sinus with CRH stimulation provides the best sensitivity for differentiating the two aetiologies. We consider a central to peripheral gradient of&gt;3 to confirm the pituitary origin of the disorder with a 98% sensitivity. Chest or abdominal CT can be helpful to identify an ectopic tumour but very small tumours may go undetected. MRI can detect 60 or 70% of all pituitary adenomas but is virtually non-contributive to the diagnosis of Cushing's disease in children." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_55231", "title": "Cushing's syndrome", "score": 0.013747143945163747, "content": "When Cushing's syndrome is suspected, either a dexamethasone suppression test (administration of dexamethasone and frequent determination of cortisol and ACTH level), or a 24-hour urinary measurement for cortisol offers equal detection rates. Dexamethasone is a glucocorticoid and simulates the effects of cortisol, including negative feedback on the pituitary gland. When dexamethasone is administered and a blood sample is tested, cortisol levels >50 nmol/l (1.81 μg/dl) would be indicative of Cushing's syndrome because an ectopic source of cortisol or ACTH (such as adrenal adenoma) exists which is not inhibited by the dexamethasone. A novel approach, recently cleared by the US FDA, is sampling cortisol in saliva over 24 hours, which may be equally sensitive, as late-night levels of salivary cortisol are high in cushingoid patients. Other pituitary hormone levels may need to be ascertained. Performing a physical examination to determine any visual field defect may be necessary if a" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0050_17125", "title": "Preclinical Cushing's syndrome in adrenal \"incidentalomas\": comparison with adrenal Cushing's syndrome.", "score": 0.013729659763313608, "content": "Adrenal tumors are usually diagnosed by clinical symptoms of hormone excess. The increasing use of ultrasound and computed tomography results in the detection of a substantial number of incidentally discovered adrenal tumors. Most of these tumors are nonfunctional adrenocortical adenomas, but a few cases of subclinical cortisol production in \"incidentalomas\" have been reported. We investigated prospectively the prevalence of autonomous cortisol production in 68 patients (44 females and 24 males, aged 25-90 yr) with adrenal incidentalomas at our institution. As a screening procedure all patients with incidentalomas underwent an overnight dexamethasone suppression test (1 mg). Patients who failed to suppress serum cortisol below 140 nmol/L (5 micrograms/dL) underwent more comprehensive studies (prolonged dexamethasone suppression test, determination of the diurnal rhythm of cortisol secretion in saliva, and CRH stimulation test). Eight patients (12% of all patients with incidentalomas; 5 females and 3 males, aged 25-71 yr) were finally identified as having cortisol-producing tumors, and the findings in these patients were compared with those of overt Cushing's syndrome in 8 patients (8 females, aged 26-50 yr) suffering from cortisol-producing adrenal adenomas. The tumor size of patients with cortisol-producing incidentalomas ranged from 2-5 cm. No specific signs and symptoms of hypercortisolism were present, but arterial hypertension (seven of eight subjects), diffuse obesity (four of eight subjects), and noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM; two of eight subjects) were frequently observed. Baseline cortisol levels were in the normal to upper normal range, whereas baseline ACTH levels were suppressed in five of the eight patients. In none of the patients was serum cortisol suppressible by low dose or high dose dexamethasone. The ACTH and cortisol responses to CRH were normal in two, blunted in one, and suppressed in four patients. Unilateral adrenalectomy was performed in seven patients and resulted in temporary adrenal insufficiency in four of them. After surgery, improvement of arterial hypertension, a permanent weight loss in obese subjects, and a better metabolic control of NIDDM were noted in the majority of patients. The following conclusions were reached. Incidentally diagnosed adrenal tumors with pathological cortisol secretion in otherwise clinically asymptomatic patients are more frequently observed than previously assumed. Adrenocortical insufficiency is a major risk in these patients after adrenalectomy. After surgery, hypertension, obesity, and NIDDM may improve. Patients with asymptomatic adrenal incidentalomas, therefore, should be screened for cortisol production by means of an overnight dexamethasone suppression test." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en536_35939", "title": "Primary pigmented nodular adrenocortical disease", "score": 0.01328824212611874, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnosis usually occurs upon investigation of a cause for already suspected Cushing's syndrome. High levels of cortisol observed in patients with PPNAD are not suppressed upon administration of dexamethasone (dexamethasone suppression test), and upon MRI or CT imaging, the pituitary will show no abnormalities. Measuring ACTH will confirm that the cause of the patients Cushing's syndrome is ACTH independent. The nature of Cushing's syndrome itself is periodic, which can make diagnosing PPNAD increasingly difficult. Diagnosis of PPNAD can be difficult to determine preoperatively as CT scan findings can be variable i.e. appear normal or suggest unilateral adrenal lesions therefore impeding the correct diagnosis. NP-59 scintigraphy may be particularly useful in identifying the bilateral nature of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_6829", "title": "Assessment of cortisol and ACTH responses to the desmopressin test in patients with Cushing's syndrome and simple obesity.", "score": 0.01311883174195619, "content": "The desmopressin test has recently been introduced in clinical practice as an adjunctive tool in the differential diagnosis of ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome (CS). It has been reported that the majority of patients with pituitary-dependent CS (Cushing's disease, CD) respond to desmopressin, while no such response is usually observed in other forms of this syndrome. In the present study, the responsiveness of the HPA axis to desmopressin was studied in a group of obese subjects. In addition, the ability of desmopressin administration to differentiate between patients with obesity and the various forms of Cushing's syndrome was investigated. Cortisol and ACTH responses to the administration of desmopressin (10 microg bolus i.v.) were examined in 20 consecutive patients with obesity (14 women and six men; BMI range: 34.5-66.7 kg/m2). Obese subjects had no clinical stigmata of CS. In all obese patients, either an overnight (dex 1 mg at 2300 h) (n = 8) or a formal low-dose (dex 0.5 mg 6-hourly for 2 days) (n = 12) dexamethasone suppression test was performed for the exclusion of Cushing's syndrome. Three of eight subjects showed failure of cortisol suppression (i.e. F &gt; 28 nmol/l) to the overnight dexamethasone suppression test, but they had undetectable cortisol levels (&lt; 28 nmol/l) on further testing with the formal 2-day test. All but two of the remaining subjects had undetectable cortisol levels (&lt; 28 nmol/l) following the formal 2-day, low-dose, dexamethasone suppression test. For comparison, desmopressin responses were also tested in 33 patients with CS of varied aetiologies (25 patients with pituitary-dependent CS, three patients with occult ectopic ACTH secretion and five patients with primary adrenal CS). A positive response was considered to be an increment greater than 20% and 50% from baseline levels of cortisol and ACTH, respectively. Mean cortisol (F) and ACTH levels did not differ from the baseline at any time point following desmopressin administration in the obese group (basal F: 417 +/- 41, peak F: 389 +/- 32 nmol/l, P &gt; 0.05; basal ACTH: 33.5 +/- 4.3, peak ACTH: 50.6 +/- 16.6 ng/l, P &gt; 0.05), or in patients with occult ectopic or primary adrenal CS. In contrast, in the group of patients with CD, there was a significant rise in the mean ACTH and F levels from baseline (basal F: 725 +/- 50, peak F: 1010 +/- 64 nmol/l, P &lt; 0.01; basal ACTH: 88.6 +/- 11.8, peak ACTH: 351 +/- 64 ng/l, P &lt; 0.01). Cortisol responses greater than 20% from baseline were observed in 21/25 (84%) patients with CD, but in only 3/20 (15%) of the obese patients. With regard to ACTH, increments greater than 50% over baseline were observed in 23/25 (92%) of patients with CD, and in only 3/20 (15%) of the obese patients. As previously reported, none of the patients with occult ectopic ACTH secretion or primary adrenal CS had a positive response. The prevalence of subjects who met the criteria adopted to define positive cortisol and ACTH responses to the desmopressin test was significantly higher in the group of patients with Cushing's disease than in the group of patients with obesity. It is therefore suggested that this test may be occasionally useful in the differentiation between simple obesity and the pituitary-dependent form (but not other forms) of Cushing's syndrome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_42165", "title": "Cushing's disease", "score": 0.012612288896873877, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnosis is made first by diagnosing Cushing's syndrome, which can be difficult to do clinically since the most characteristic symptoms only occur in a minority of patients. Some of the biochemical diagnostic tests used include salivary and blood serum cortisol testing, 24-hour urinary free cortisol (UFC) testing, the dexamethasone suppression test (DST), and bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling (IPSS or BIPSS for bilateral IPSS). No single test is perfect and multiple tests should always be used to achieve a proper diagnosis. Diagnosing Cushing's disease is a multidisciplinary process involving doctors, endocrinologists, radiologists, surgeons, and chemical pathologists." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en086_19076", "title": "Dexamethasone suppression test", "score": 0.012085520419920625, "content": "Test Procedures There are several types of DST procedures: Overnight DST - An oral dose of dexamethasone is given between 11pm and midnight, and the cortisol level is measured at 8 - 9am the next morning Two-day DST - This involves giving an oral dose of dexamethasone at six-hourly intervals for 2 days, with the cortisol level measured 6 hours after the final dose was given Intravenous DST Dexamethasone-CRT test Interpretation Low-dose and high-dose variations of the test exist. The test is given at low (usually 1–2 mg) and high (8 mg) doses of dexamethasone, and the levels of cortisol are measured to obtain the results. A low dose of dexamethasone suppresses cortisol in individuals with no pathology in endogenous cortisol production. A high dose of dexamethasone exerts negative feedback on pituitary neoplastic ACTH-producing cells (Cushing's disease), but not on ectopic ACTH-producing cells or adrenal adenoma (Cushing's syndrome)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en086_19077", "title": "Dexamethasone suppression test", "score": 0.011983300690650449, "content": "Dose A normal result is a decrease in cortisol levels upon administration of low-dose dexamethasone. Results indicative of Cushing's disease involve no change in cortisol on low-dose dexamethasone, but inhibition of cortisol on high-dose dexamethasone. If the cortisol levels are unchanged by low- and high-dose dexamethasone, then other causes of Cushing's syndrome must be considered with further work-up necessary. After the high-dose dexamethasone, it may be possible to make further interpretations. †ACTH as measured prior to dosing of dexamethasone Equivocal results should be followed by a corticotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, with inferior petrosal sinus sampling. References Theodore C. Friedman, M.D., Ph.D. Professor of Medicine-UCLA Chairman, Department of Internal Medicine Charles R. Drew University (2013). http://www.goodhormonehealth.com/talks/cushings-MAGIC-13.ppt Endocrine procedures Dynamic endocrine function tests" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_55212", "title": "Cushing's syndrome", "score": 0.011945874329402053, "content": "Cushing's syndrome is caused by either excessive cortisol-like medication, such as prednisone, or a tumor that either produces or results in the production of excessive cortisol by the adrenal glands. Cases due to a pituitary adenoma are known as Cushing's disease, which is the second most common cause of Cushing's syndrome after medication. A number of other tumors, often referred to as ectopic due to their placement outside the pituitary, may also cause Cushing's. Some of these are associated with inherited disorders such as multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 and Carney complex. Diagnosis requires a number of steps. The first step is to check the medications a person takes. The second step is to measure levels of cortisol in the urine, saliva or in the blood after taking dexamethasone. If this test is abnormal, the cortisol may be measured late at night. If the cortisol remains high, a blood test for ACTH may be done." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_11118", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.011849421201349011, "content": "is diagnostic 1) Overnight DST2) 24-hour urinary free cortisol3) 11:00 pm salivary cortisol1) Plasma ACTH2) High-dose DST and urinary cortisolConfirm the diagnosisACTH gradient?Determine source of hypercortisolismDecreased ACTHLack of suppressionCT scan adrenalsIncreased ACTHPositive Increased ACTHLack of suppressionEquivocalresultsFurther testingBilateral petrosalvein samplingAdrenalsourcePituitarysourceEctopic ACTHsourceSTEPS IN DIAGNOSISDIAGNOSTIC STUDIESYesNoFigure 38-44. Diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. ACTH = adrenocorticotropic hormone; CT = computed tomography; DST = dexamethasone suppression test.Brunicardi_Ch38_p1625-p1704.indd 169001/03/19 11:22 AM 1691THYROID, PARATHYROID, AND ADRENALCHAPTER 38of a pituitary tumor. In patients suspected of having ectopic ACTH production, CT or MRI scans of the chest and anterior mediastinum are performed first, followed by imaging of the neck, abdomen, and pelvis if the initial studies are negative.Treatment Laparoscopic" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en110_50105", "title": "Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome", "score": 0.01130952380952381, "content": "Diagnosis Levels of cortisol and ACTH both elevated 24-hour urinary cortisol levels elevated Dexamethasone suppression test Late night salivary cortisol (LNSC) Loss of diurnal variation in cortisol levels (seen only in true Cushing's Syndrome) High mean corpuscular volume and gamma-glutamyl transferase may be clues to alcoholism Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome should be ruled out; PCOS may have similar symptoms" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_11113", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010999015748031495, "content": "Measurement of elevated 24-hour urinary cortisol levels is a very sensitive (95–100%) and specific (98%) modality of diagnosing Cushing’s syndrome and is particularly useful for identifying patients with pseudo-Cushing’s syn-drome. A urinary cortisol-free excretion of less than 100 μg/dL (in most laboratories) rules out hypercortisolism. Recently, salivary cortisol measurements using commercially available kits also have demonstrated superior sensitivity in diagnosing Cushing’s syndrome and are being increasingly used. Overall, 24-hour urinary tests for free cortisol and the overnight dexa-methasone suppression test at the 5 μg/dL cutoff have the high-est specificity for the diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome.103Once a diagnosis of hypercortisolism is established, further testing is aimed at determining whether it is ACTH-dependent or ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome. This is best accom-plished by measurement of plasma ACTH levels (normal 10–100 pg/mL). Elevated ACTH levels are found" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_704", "title": "Recent challenges in the diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome.", "score": 0.010727638769053782, "content": "The diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome still represents a challenge for the endocrinologist. Correct implementation and interpretation of diagnostic procedures require expertise and a high degree of clinical knowledge. The diagnosis should be established based on results of two or more concordant first-line tests (e.g., urinary free cortisol, midnight serum cortisol and low-dose dexamethasone testing); otherwise, second-line tests such as the dexamethasone-suppressed corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) test, desmopressin stimulation or later reevaluation can confirm/exclude the diagnosis. Aetiological diagnosis requires measurement of plasma corticotrophin (ACTH) to distinguish between ACTH-dependent (pituitary or extrapituitary ACTH-secreting tumors) and ACTH-independent Cushing's syndrome (adrenal cortisol-secreting lesions), and the possible detection of normal ACTH levels in patients with adrenal Cushing's syndrome must be kept in mind. Lastly, the differential diagnosis between pituitary and ectopic ACTH secretion can be performed using CRH testing, high-dose dexamethasone suppression and inferior petrosal sinus sampling. The different epidemiology of the two entities and the incomplete diagnostic accuracy of diagnostic procedures mandate careful evaluation of test results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0582_17044", "title": "Diagnostic approach to Cushing disease.", "score": 0.010714285714285714, "content": "In Cushing disease, a pituitary corticotroph neoplasm causes secondary adrenal hypercortisolism. This condition has known morbidity and mortality, underscoring the need for an efficient and accurate diagnostic approach. An 11 p.m. salivary cortisol level is a modern, simple initial screening tool for the diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. Confirmation with a 24-hour urinary free cortisol test and/or a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test may subsequently be performed. Patients with repeatedly equivocal results should be reevaluated after several months or undergo a corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulation test following low-dose dexamethasone suppression to help rule out pseudo-Cushing states. The presence of low morning serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) levels then distinguishes primary adrenal hypercortisolism from Cushing disease and the ectopic ACTH syndrome. Patients with moderate ACTH levels can undergo CRH stimulation testing to clarify the underlying disease because those with an ACTH-independent disorder have blunted subsequent ACTH levels. Once ACTH-dependent hypercortisolemia is detected, magnetic resonance (MR) imaging of the pituitary gland can be performed to detect a pituitary neoplasm. Normal or equivocal MR imaging results revealing small pituitary lesions should be followed up with inferior petrosal sinus sampling, a highly specific measure for the diagnosis of Cushing disease in experienced hands. If necessary, body imaging may be used in turn to detect sources of ectopic ACTH." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_19734", "title": "Addison's disease", "score": 0.010376602564102564, "content": "Testing In suspected cases of Addison's disease, demonstration of low adrenal hormone levels even after appropriate stimulation (called the ACTH stimulation test or synacthen test) with synthetic pituitary ACTH hormone tetracosactide is needed for the diagnosis. Two tests are performed, the short and the long test. Dexamethasone does not cross-react with the assay and can be administered concomitantly during testing. The short test compares blood cortisol levels before and after 250 micrograms of tetracosactide (intramuscular or intravenous) is given. If one hour later, plasma cortisol exceeds 170 nmol/l and has risen by at least 330 nmol/l to at least 690 nmol/l, adrenal failure is excluded. If the short test is abnormal, the long test is used to differentiate between primary adrenal insufficiency and secondary adrenocortical insufficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0554_765", "title": "Ectopic ACTH-secreting syndrome: a single center experience report with a high prevalence of occult tumor.", "score": 0.01029808863239265, "content": "Differentiation between the two forms of ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome is a challenging task. Although the majority of these cases will be diagnosed as Cushing's disease secondary to an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma, 10-15% result from the ectopic ACTH secretion syndrome (EAS), which is usually due to neuroendocrine tumors. In the present study we report our experience with EAS in eight patients evaluated and treated during the past 10 years. Our experience in the evaluation and management of EAS was retrospectively reviewed. The latter included a standard biochemical assessment (urinary free cortisol, low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests), petrosal sinus sampling when indicated and imaging techniques such as pituitary MRI, total body CT and somatostatin receptor scintigraphy. The ectopic nature of the ACTH hypersecretion was confirmed with inferior petrosal sinus samplings in all cases. CT scanning localized a putative tumor in 6/8 patients, whereas octreotide scintigraphy was positive in only five. In all cases, the source was traced to the lungs. However, upon performing thoracotomy, a documented ACTH-secreting bronchial carcinoid tumor was found in only four patients. Thus, 4/8 patients with EAS remained \"occult.\" All of these patients underwent adrenalectomy for hypercortisolism control. EAS is a rare cause of ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome. Truly \"occult\" tumors were frequent and these patients need to be under close surveillance for the detection of neuroendocrine tumors." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en162_4831", "title": "Adrenal tumor", "score": 0.010074801309022908, "content": "In these cases, a dexamethasone suppression test is often used to detect cortisol excess, and metanephrines or catecholamines for excess of these hormones. Tumors under 3 cm are generally considered benign and are only treated if there are grounds for a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome or pheochromocytoma. Radiodensity gives a clue in estimating malignancy risk, wherein a tumor with 10 Hounsfield units or less on an unenhanced CT is probably a lipid-rich adenoma. Hormonal evaluation includes: 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test 24-hour urinary specimen for measurement of fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines Blood plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activity, if hypertension is present" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_11628", "title": "[The diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. Results of diagnostic assessment of 20 patients with Cushing's syndrome of variable etiology (1979-1989)].", "score": 0.009864603481624757, "content": "In the light of 20 cases of Cushing's syndrome the currently used diagnostic strategies are presented. For initial screening the classical dexamethasone suppression test using 1 mg dexamethasone p.o. and 24-hour urinary extraction of free cortisol were used, and diagnosis was confirmed using the 2 mg dexamethasone suppression test for two days. All three tests had a sensitivity of 100% in these 20 patients. Etiological evaluation was performed using basal ACTH plasma concentration measurement and the more recently available stimulation tests using corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF): in cases with suspected pituitary-hypothalamic etiology, selective catheterisation of the sinus petrous inferior with simultaneous blood sampling for measurement of plasma ACTH concentration was performed. Detailed etiological diagnosis is important in Cushing's syndrome since therapeutic measures differ widely: the etiologies in the 20 patients with Cushing's syndrome were: central Cushing's disease (microadenoma in 11, pituitary carcinoma in 1), adrenal carcinoma (3), adrenal adenoma (1), adrenal hyperplasia (1), ectopic ACTH production (2) and alcohol-induced Cushing's syndrome (1). The stepwise procedure in screening and diagnosis of the various etiologies of Cushing's syndrome are presented and the results of the 20 patients compared with the literature." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_11114", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009805801965955405, "content": "determining whether it is ACTH-dependent or ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome. This is best accom-plished by measurement of plasma ACTH levels (normal 10–100 pg/mL). Elevated ACTH levels are found in patients with adrenal hyperplasia due to Cushing’s disease (15–500 pg/mL) and those with CRH-secreting tumors, but the highest levels are found in patients with ectopic sources of ACTH (>1000 pg/mL). In con-trast, ACTH levels are characteristically suppressed (<5 pg/mL) in patients with primary cortisol-secreting adrenal tumors. The high-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used to distinguish between the causes of ACTH-dependent Cushing’s syndrome (pituitary vs. ectopic). The standard test (2 mg dexamethasone every 6 hours for 2 days) or the overnight test (8 mg) may be used, with 24-hour urine collections for cortisol and 17-hydroxy steroids performed over the second day. Failure to suppress urinary cortisol by 50% confirms the diagnosis of an ectopic ACTH-producing tumor. Patients" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0555_18996", "title": "[Cushing's syndrome. I. New diagnostic developments].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Over the past few years, new diagnostic tests for Cushing's syndrome have become available. Some of the other, older diagnostic tests have fallen into discredit as they could not distinguish conditions from one another sufficiently well. New biochemical tests include midnight salivary cortisol measurement and the combined dexamethasone-corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) test. The high dose dexamethasone test and the CRH-stimulation test have been abandoned as they were unable to differentiate between hypophysial and ectopic secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). For the detection of ectopic ACTH-secreting tumours new imaging techniques, such as somatostatin receptor scintigraphy and positron emission tomography with 5-hydroxytryptophan, have become available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1093_6319", "title": "Low Diagnostic Utility of Overnight High-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test in ACTH-Dependent Cushing's Syndrome.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Overnight high-dose dexamethasone suppression test (ON-HDDST) is a simple test to localize the source of ACTH in patients with ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome (CS). However, previous studies have reported its varying accuracy. We studied the utility of ON-HDDST in diagnosing Cushing's disease (CD) in a series of patients with CD and ectopic ACTH syndrome (EAS). We conducted a retrospective study of 88 patients with ACTH-dependent CS (plasma ACTH &gt; 20.0 pg/mL), who underwent an ON-HDDST. CD and EAS were diagnosed in 68 and 20 patients, respectively. Patients were investigated using MRI of the sellar region, CT of the thorax/abdomen, Gallium-68-DOTANOC PET scan, and bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling as required. Patients with EAS had a significantly higher serum cortisol after ON-HDDST than patients with CD (median [IQR], 19.9 [12.4-31.1] μg/dL vs 9.9 [5.1-25.0] μg/dL, P &lt;.01). A suppressed ON-HDDST (≥50% fall from baseline) was noted in 44 (65%) patients with CD and 3 (15%) patients with EAS (P &lt;.0001). Among patients with CD, cortisol suppression &gt;50% was noted in 35 (76%) of patients with microadenoma and 7 (44%) with macroadenoma. Among patients with EAS, ON-HDDST was suppressed in 1 of 6 patients (17%) with an occult tumor and 2 of 14 patients (14%) with a localized tumor. The ROC curve plotted for the percentage suppression of cortisol had an area under the curve (AUC) of 0.72 (P =.01). The best test parameters, with 65% sensitivity, 85% specificity, 94% positive predictive value, 42% negative predictive value, and 69% accuracy, were at 50% cutoff level. The ON-HDDST had a poor diagnostic value in differentiating CD and EAS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1150_34", "title": "Diagnostic workup of Cushing's syndrome.", "score": 0.009637661013807804, "content": "Cushing's syndrome (CS) is a rare but detrimental endocrine disorder. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are essential since the duration of hypercortisolism has an adverse impact on the extent of comorbidities and overall survival. The diagnostic approach involves a stepwise process that includes (1) screening and confirming the diagnosis and (2) establishing the aetiology of CS. The tests currently used to confirm the diagnosis of CS include urinary free cortisol measurements, the dexamethasone suppression test and late- night salivary cortisol or midnight serum cortisol measurements. None of these tests are ideal; all have pitfalls and require careful interpretation. Following confirmation of CS, measurement of ACTH discriminates between ACTH-dependent and non-ACTH dependent causes of CS. Adrenal imaging provides clues for the aetiology of non-ACTH dependent forms. Differentiation between the ACTH-dependent forms that involve pituitary corticotroph adenomas and ectopic ACTH sources is more complex and include pituitary MRI imaging, the high dose dexamethasone suppression test, the CRH test, bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling and, when required imaging modalities to detect ectopic ACTH secreting lesions. This review, which is part of a special issue on \"Update of Cushing's syndrome: 100 years after Minnie G\" will provide an update on our current diagnostic workup for the confirmation and differential diagnosis of CS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_20787", "title": "The Cushing syndrome: an update on diagnostic tests.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Review and evaluation of diagnostic tests for the Cushing syndrome based on reports published since 1978. Studies published in the English literature from 1978 through 1989 were identified using Index Medicus and cross searching of bibliographies. Studies of five or more patients for general analysis and smaller studies and case reports when pertinent. To develop criteria for the corticotropin-release hormone (CRH) stimulation test, only studies reporting individual patient data were analyzed. No new test is clearly better than existing tests in establishing a definitive diagnosis. Among tests to determine cause, the CRH stimulation test, by newly developed criteria, has a 91% sensitivity (95% CI, 85% to 95%) and a 95% specificity (CI, 82% to 99%), and the overnight high-dose dexamethasone suppression test has an 89% sensitivity (CI, 80% to 94%) and a 100% specificity (CI, 84% to 100%) for the pituitary Cushing syndrome. Magnetic resonance imaging has greater sensitivity for detecting adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)-producing pituitary adenomas than computed tomography. Inferior petrosal sinus sampling can correctly identify a pituitary cause in 88% (CI, 79% to 94%) of cases. Diagnosis is still best established by using 24-hour urine free cortisol measurements or low-dose dexamethasone suppression testing. The CRH stimulation test is an outpatient alternative to determine cause, and the over-night high-dose dexamethasone test may become the test of choice along with plasma ACTH measurements by radioimmunoassay in the initial evaluation of cause. Magnetic resonance imaging should be used to evaluate the pituitary Cushing syndrome, and inferior petrosal sinus sampling is most useful in problematic cases with uncertain cause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_8480", "title": "Adrenocorticotrophin-dependent hypercortisolism: imaging versus laboratory diagnosis.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Cushing's syndrome results from inappropriate exposure to excessive glucocorticoids. Untreated, it has significant morbidity and mortality. A 38-year-old woman with a typical appearance of Cushing's syndrome was admitted for further evaluation of hypercortisolism. The serum cortisol level was elevated without diurnal rhythm, without adequate suppression of cortisol after 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test. 24-hour urinary-free cortisol level was elevated. Differential diagnostic testing indicated adrenocorticotrophin (ACTH)-dependent lesion of the pituitary origin. Pituitary abnormalities were not observed during repeated MRI scanning. Inferior petrosal sinus sampling (IPSS) was performed: 1) Baseline ratio ACTH inferior petrosal sinus/peripheral was &lt;2; 2) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulated ratio ACTH inferior petrosal sinus/peripheral was &lt;3; 3) Baseline intersinus ratio of ACTH was &lt;1.4; 4) Increase in inferior petrosal sinus and peripheral ACTH of more than 50 percent above basal level after CRH; 5) Baseline ratio ACTH vena jugularis interna/peripheral was &gt;1.7. Transsphenoidal exploration and removal of the pituitary tumor was performed inducing iatrogenic hypopituitarism. Postoperative morning serum cortisol level was less than 50 nmol/l on adequate replacement therapy with hydrocortisone, levothyroxine and estro-progestagen. No single test provides absolute distinction, but the combined results of several tests generally provide a correct diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26971", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009391562433750264, "content": "Pos. Neg. Neg. Adrenal tumor workup Differential diagnosis 1: Plasma ACTH ACTH normal or high>15 pg/ml CRH test and highdose DEX positive ACTH suppressed to <5 pg/ml ACTH-dependent Cushing’s ACTH-independent Cushing’s Bilateral micronodular or macronodular adrenal hyperplasia Bilateral adrenal-ectomy Unilateral Unilateral adrenal mass CRH test and highEquivocal adrenal-ectomy Differential diagnosis 2 • MRI pituitary Unenhanced CT• CRH test (ACTH increase >40% at 15-30 min + cortisol increase >20%at 45-60 min after CRH 100 µg IV)• High dose DEX test (Cortisol suppression >50% after q6h 2 mg DEX for 2 days) Trans-Inferior petrosal sinus sampling Locate and sphenoidal(petrosal/peripheralremove surgery ACTH ratio >2 atbaseline, >3 at 2–5 minectopic after CRH 100 µg i.v.) source ACTH Ectopic ACTH production Cushing’s disease pituitary dose DEX negative results adrenals" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_15493", "title": "[Image diagnosis of adrenal disorders--II. Cushing's syndrome].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Comparative study of image diagnosis of ultrasonography (US) by linear electronic scanner, computed tomography (CT), and adrenal scintigraphy was performed in 14 patients with Cushing's syndrome. Adrenal imaging by scintigraphy was performed at the 5th and 6th day or further 7th day following the injection of 1 mCi of Adosterol. Cushing's disease (11 cases) US failed to detect the adrenals in 4 cases examined. Measurement of the adrenals on CT film demonstrated the enlargement of adrenals (greater than mean + 2SD) in 6 of 7 cases (85.7%). Scintiscanning showed the increased uptake of bilateral adrenals in 4 of 10 cases (40%). Adrenal scintigraphy with dexamethasone pretreatment (DP) still demonstrated the isotope uptake of bilateral adrenals in all of those 4 cases tested, although the other 6 cases were not studied with DP. From these findings, it was suggested that the measurement of adrenal size by CT was useful for the additional image diagnosis of Cushing's disease, and the adrenal scintigraphy with DP was also available for complementary study of Cushing's disease. Cushing's syndrome due to adrenocortical adenoma (3 cases) In one case examined by US, which had the smallest adenoma (0.6 X 1.0 X 2.0 cm) in this syndrome, the adenoma was not detected. All of 3 adrenal adenomas (2.6 X 2.6 X 2.2 cm to 0.6 X 1.0 X 2.0 cm) were detected by CT. Adrenal scintigraphy demonstrated good uptake by adrenal adenoma but no visualization of the contralateral adrenal in every case." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 186, 251 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 33 ] ], "text": "Early initiation of antibiotic therapy (cefotaxime) is essential." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 333 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 47 ] ], "text": "However, in an unstable patient such as ours, a lumbar puncture is not indicated." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 118, 185 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 25 ] ], "text": "Blood culture can be obtained together with the initial blood test." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 117 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "Patient with suspected meningococcal sepsis. Stabilization with fluids (hypotension) according to ABCDE is essential." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Intravenous cefotaxime administration.", "2": "Lumbar puncture.", "3": "Collection of blood culture.", "4": "Intravenous fluids.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1021_13220", "title": "[Meningococcemia: Different Serotypes in the Same Region].", "score": 0.019334952363160844, "content": "Meningococcal infections are important health problems causing high morbidity and mortality. Neisseria meningitidis have 13 serogroups. A, B, C, Y and W135 are the most common causes of invasive disease among those serogroups. The distribution of the serogroups differs according to the geographical regions and the age groups. In this case report, two cases of meningococcemia infected with serogroup C and Y of N.meningitidis rarely seen in our country were presented. First case was a two and a half year-old female patient who has admitted to our pediatric emergency unit with fever and rash spreading from lower extremities to her body. The patient had diffuse purpuric rash with generalized weakness and tendency to sleep at admission. The patient has been suspected as meningococcemia because of the skin rash, tendency to sleep and hypotension. Antibiotics treatment was started immediately and lumber puncture was performed. In blood tests, leukocyte count: 3600/mm3 (61% neutrophils), hemoglobin: 11.1 g/ dl, platelet count: 127.000/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 10 mg/dl, erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 6 mm/ hour, prothrombin time: 28.8 seconds (normal value= 11-16), prothrombin activity: 36%, international normalized ratio (INR): 2.13 (normal value= 1-1.5), activated partial thromboplastin time: 57.7 seconds (normal value= 25-35 sec), fibrinogen: 246 mg/dl (normal value= 200-400 mg/dl) and in cerebrospinal fluid protein: 21 mg/dl and glucose: 62 mg/dl were found. There were eight cells in the microscopic examination. Skin rashes were increased and the patient became hypotensive. No microorganisms were isolated in blood and cerebrospinal cultures. N.meningitidis serogroup C was isolated from the cerebrospinal fluid of the patient using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The patient suffered from immune-mediated arthritis in the sixth day of treatment and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs were given. The patient has recovered with antibiotics, fresh frozen plasma and inotropic treatment. Second case was a 13 year-old male patient who has admitted three days after the first case with a pre-diagnosis of malignancy because of pancytopenia and fever. The patient had generalized weakness and a few petechial purpuric rashes at the facial region at admission. After the admission general status of the patient has worsened rapidly and he has died as a result of cardiovascular arrest. Blood tests in admission showed leukocyte count: 6000/mm3 (79% neutrophils), hemoglobin: 17.3 mg/dl, platelet count: 16.000/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 8.63 mg/dl, prothrombin time: 92.6 seconds, prothrombin activity: 10%, INR: 6.78, activated partial thromboplastin time: 231.5 seconds. Cerebrospinal fluid obtained from postmortem lumbar puncture showed no growth (protein: 95 mg/dl, glucose: 35 mg/dl) and N.meningitidis serogroup Y was detected by PCR. Two meningococcemia cases caused by two different serogroups which are rarely seen in our region in recent years were presented at the same time period in the same hospital. This case report pointed out that surveillance has a great importance in such diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0358_16611", "title": "A child with spider bite and glomerulonephritis: a diagnostic challenge.", "score": 0.018812930577636458, "content": "A previously healthy 7-year-old white boy presented to St. Louis Children's Hospital with a 1-day history of headache, malaise, temperature of 38.7 degrees C, and a progressively erythematous, tender calf with central dusky purpura. On the morning of admission, his mother noticed a 2-mm crust on the patient's right calf with a 3-cm x 3-cm area of surrounding erythema. No history of recent trauma or bite was obtained. He had suffered two episodes of nonbloody, nonbilious emesis during the last day. In addition, over the previous 12 h, he presented brown urine without dysuria. His mother and brother had suffered from gastroenteritis over the previous week without bloody diarrhea. On initial physical examination, there was a 6-cm x 11-cm macular tender purpuric plaque with a central punctum on the right inner calf, which was warm and tender to the touch, with erythematous streaking towards the popliteal fossa (Fig. 1). The inguinal area was also erythematous with tender lymphadenopathy and induration, but without fluctuance. Laboratory studies included an elevated white blood cell count of 20, 800/microL with 6% bands, 86% segs, and 7% lymphocytes, hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL, hematocrit of 35.1%, and platelets of 282,000/microL. The prothrombin time/activated partial tissue thromboplastin was 10. 4/28.0 s (normal PT, 9.3-12.3 s; normal PTT, 21.3-33.7 s) and fibrinogen was 558 mg/dL (normal, 192-379 mg/dL). Urinalysis showed 1+ protein, 8-10 white blood cells, too numerous to count red blood cells, and no hemoglobinuria. His electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatine were normal. The urine culture was negative. Blood culture after 24 h showed one out of two bottles of coagulase negative Staphylococcus epidermidis. The patient's physical examination was highly suggestive of a brown recluse spider bite with surrounding purpura. Over the next 2 days, the surrounding rim of erythema expanded. The skin within the plaque cleared and peeled at the periphery. The coagulase negative staphylococci in the blood culture were considered to be a contaminant. Cefotaxime and oxacillin were given intravenously. His leg was elevated and cooled with ice packs. The patient's fever resolved within 24 h. The lesion became less erythematous and nontender with decreased warmth and lymphadenopathy. The child was discharged on Duricef for 10 days. Because the patient experienced hematuria rather than hemoglobinuria, nephritis was suggested. In this case, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis was the most likely cause. His anti-streptolysin-O titer was elevated at 400 U (normal, &lt;200 U) and C3 was 21.4 mg/dL (normal, 83-177 mg/dL). His urine lightened to yellow-brown in color. His blood pressure was normal. Renal ultrasound showed severe left hydronephrosis with cortical atrophy, probably secondary to chronic/congenital ureteropelvic junction obstruction. His right kidney was normal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0919_785", "title": "[A report of two children with fever, headache, and purpura].", "score": 0.018089960886571055, "content": "In this study, two school-aged children had an acute onset in spring and had the manifestations of fever, headache, vomiting, disturbance of consciousness, purpura and ecchymosis, and positive meningeal irritation sign. There were increases in peripheral white blood cells and neutrophils, but reductions in the hemoglobin level and platelet count in the two children. They had a significant increase in C-reactive protein. There were hundreds or thousands of white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid, mainly neutrophils. Increased protein contents but normal levels of glucose and chloride in the cerebrospinal fluid were found. Head CT scan showed multiple hematomas in the right cerebellum and both hemispheres in one child. Bone marrow cytology indicated infection in the bone marrow, and both blood culture and bone marrow culture showed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Both patients had cardiac murmurs and progressive reductions in the hemoglobin level and platelet count during treatment, and echocardiography showed the formation of vegetation in the aortic valve. Therefore, the patients were diagnosed with infectious endocarditis (IE). Vancomycin was used as the anti-infective therapy based on the results of drug sensitivity test. One child was cured after 6 weeks, and the other child was withdrawn from the treatment and then died. Dynamic monitoring of cardiac murmurs should be performed for children with unexplained fever, and echocardiography should be performed in time to exclude IE. IE should also be considered for children with purulent meningitis and skin and mucosal bleeding which cannot be explained by the reduction in platelet count." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_4704", "title": "The surgical implications of purpura fulminans.", "score": 0.017322718561108653, "content": "Purpura fulminans is an uncommon catastrophic syndrome that occurs in children, typically one to four weeks after a seemingly benign infectious process. The child usually presents with a high fever, purpuric ecchymosis, hypotension, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and gangrene of the extremities. We have recently treated six children, whose mean age was 22 months; three were male and three were female. Five of the six had a change of mental status upon initial examination. Their mean temperature was 104 degrees F. All six children had purpuric involvement of their extremities; three had involvement of their hands, two had involvement of their faces, and two had involvement of their trunks. All had absent palpable pulses and sluggish capillary refill in the involved hands and feet. Two patients died shortly after admission as a result of severe end-stage sepsis. The platelet counts in these two patients, and the white blood cell counts were markedly depressed. The mean platelet count of the survivors was 370,000 and the mean white blood cell count was 25,000. Lumbar punctures were positive for bacterial meningitis in five patients and viral meningitis in one patient. All patients were treated with intravenous heparin. Of the four survivors, two lost significant tissue and required multiple plastic reconstructive procedures, and two improved on heparin alone with no tissue loss. In addition to systemic support and intravenous antibiotics, the mainstay of treatment is one of immediate heparinization and a continuous heparin drip. Heparin prevents subsequent small vessel thrombosis and limits tissue loss due to ongoing purpura. Conservative management of the purpuric lesions is the treatment of choice until final demarcation occurs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0685_21020", "title": "Cerebrospinal fluid lymphocytosis in an infant with acute Streptococcus pnuemoniae meningitis: a case report.", "score": 0.015420023014959722, "content": "A 10 month-old female infant presented with one day of high fever with drowsiness and seizures. Physical examination showed meningeal irritation and mild cyanosis. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) profile revealed opening pressure of 27 cmH2O, closing pressure of 17 cmH2O, red blood cells 310 cells/microL, white blood cells 100 cells/microL of which 90 percents were lymphocytes, protein 391 mg/dl, sugar 0 mg/dL and blood sugar 74 mg/dl. Numerous gram positive diplococci were found on CSF Gram-stained smear. Bacterial meningitis was diagnosed and cefotaxime 300 mg/kg/day plus vancomycin 60 mg/kg/ day were given empirically. The patient developed hypotension, poor tissue perfusion, dyspnea and disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC). She expired 10 hours after hospitalization. The CSF and blood culture grew out Streptococcus pneumoniae serotype 6B with the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of 0.5 and 1.5 microg/mL for penicillin and cefotaxime respectively. Atypical characteristics of CSF in bacterial meningitis may cause delay in empirical antimicrobial therapy. Gram-stained smear of CSF is helpful for rapid diagnosis and proper management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0063_14427", "title": "[Therapy-refractory fulminant meningococcal sepsis].", "score": 0.014678448699067256, "content": "Two cases of the severe form of meningococcal infection are described. A 17-year-old girl and a (unrelated) 2-year-old boy suddenly developed fever and rigor. Several hours later petechiae of the skin were noted: they rapidly spread. On admission the girl was found to have a severe consumptive coagulopathy (prothrombin 24%, partial thromboplastin time 104 sec, fibrinogen 73 mg/dl, platelets 35,000/microliters). She died two-and-a-half hours after admission of treatment-resistant shock. The boy had at first only a low prothrombin value (39%), but later the other coagulation values also became abnormal. He died 16 hours after admission from the consumptive coagulopathy and profound anaemia (haemoglobin 7.4 g/dl, haematocrit 0.23). Neither patient had any clinical signs of meningitis. Isolation of Neisseria meningitidis from blood cultures confirmed the diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en099_51325", "title": "List of MeSH codes (E01)", "score": 0.014121364736088481, "content": "– cytodiagnosis – amniocentesis – biopsy – biopsy, needle – biopsy, fine-needle – chorionic villi sampling – conization – sentinel lymph node biopsy – chorionic villi sampling – cytopathogenic effect, viral – spinal puncture – vaginal smears – hematologic tests – blood cell count – erythrocyte count – reticulocyte count – leukocyte count – lymphocyte count – cd4 lymphocyte count – cd4-cd8 ratio – platelet count – blood coagulation tests – international normalized ratio – partial thromboplastin time – prothrombin time – thrombelastography – thrombin time – whole blood coagulation time – blood grouping and crossmatching – blood sedimentation – bone marrow examination – erythrocyte aggregation – erythrocyte indices – figlu test – hematocrit – hemoglobinometry – osmotic fragility – platelet function tests – bleeding time – clot retraction – platelet count – schilling test" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_65283", "title": "Renal cell carcinoma", "score": 0.011926032764299398, "content": "Complete blood cell count The CBC provides a quantified measure of the different cells in the whole blood sample from the patient. Such cells examined for in this test include red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes). A common sign of renal cell carcinoma is anaemia whereby the patient exhibits deficiency in red blood cells. CBC tests are vital as a screening tool for examination the health of patient prior to surgery. Inconsistencies with platelet counts are also common amongst these cancer patients and further coagulation tests, including Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR), Prothrombin Time (PT), Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) should be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_6549", "title": "List of MeSH codes (G09)", "score": 0.01032258064516129, "content": "The source for this content is the set of 2006 MeSH Trees from the NLM. – circulatory and respiratory physiology – blood physiology – blood physiologic phenomena – acid-base equilibrium – bleeding time – blood bactericidal activity – blood cell count – erythrocyte count – reticulocyte count – leukocyte count – lymphocyte count – cd4 lymphocyte count – cd4-cd8 ratio – platelet count – blood viscosity – blood volume – erythrocyte volume – plasma volume – erythrocyte deformability – erythrocyte indices – hematocrit – osmotic fragility – partial thromboplastin time – platelet adhesiveness – prothrombin time – reticulocytosis – thrombin time – whole blood coagulation time" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_18552", "title": "Cutaneous manifestations of Strongyloides stercoralis hyperinfection in an HIV-seropositive patient.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 41-year-old human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive man was hospitalized with complaints of a 4-week history of nausea and vomiting, associated with decreased oral intake, and a 4-day history of frontal headache and fever. His medical history was significant for a gunshot wound to the head 3 years prior, with a residual seizure disorder. He also had two previous hospitalizations, both for culture-negative bacterial meningitis; the first episode occurred 12 months before admission and the second episode occurred 5 months later. At that time, he was found to be positive for serum antibodies against HIV and a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 126/mm3. He had no known drug allergies and was not receiving any medication. On admission, the patient was febrile (104.0 degrees F) and hypotensive (blood pressure, 92/40 mm Hg). Pertinent physical examination findings included cachexia with bitemporal wasting, dry mucus membranes, adherent white patches on the oral mucosa, and negative Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs. His laboratory results revealed macrocytic anemia, a decreased serum sodium of 125 mEq/L, and a normal total leukocyte count with a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count &lt; 50/mm3. Lumbar puncture opening pressure was elevated at 160 mm Hg, and cerebrospinal fluid analysis showed an increased white cell count of 97/microL (84% lymphocytes), a decreased glucose level of 26 mg/dL, and a decreased protein level of 42 mg/dL. The patient was started on empiric therapy that included intravenous ampicillin and cefotaxime, oral Bactrim, and clotrimazole lozenges for thrush. Cerebrospinal fluid culture was positive for Escherichia coli, sensitive to cefotaxime. Two days later, the patient developed fine, erythematous, nonblanchable macules primarily on his abdomen, with minimal involvement of his thorax and back. His skin lesions remained unchanged for the next 2 weeks. Repeat lumbar puncture was performed after 14 days of cefotaxime. The cerebrospinal fluid analysis showed an elevated white cell count of 7/microL (100% lymphocytes), a decreased glucose level of 53 mg/dL, and a decreased protein level of 33 mg/dL. The cerebrospinal fluid culture was now positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa resistant to cefotaxime. The patient was started on imipenem. On day 34 of his admission, the patient became tachypneic with complaints of dyspnea. A chest roentgenogram revealed bilateral patchy infiltrates. He was transferred to the intensive care unit and intubated for hypoxemic respiratory failure (arterial blood gas values on 6 L of oxygen: pH, 7.46; bicarbonate, 23; and oxygen saturation, 37). That evening, the patient was also noted to have diffuse petechiae and purpura in a reticulated pattern over his abdomen (Figure 1A and 1B), most heavily concentrated in the periumbilical region, extending to the axillae and upper thighs. A 3x3-mm punch biopsy from abdominal skin demonstrated Strongyloides stercoralis larvae in the dermis (Figure 2A and 2B). His sputum specimen was teeming with adult S stercoralis worms (Figure 3) and, subsequently, numerous S stercoralis larvae were observed not only from the bronchoalveolar lavage but also from the nasogastric fluid specimen. These findings confirmed the diagnosis of disseminated strongyloidiasis. On hospital day 35, the patient was doing poorly and was started on thiabendazole (1250 mg twice daily for 28 days). Nine days later, ivermectin (4.5 mg once daily for 3 days for 2 courses) was also added. He continued to clinically deteriorate. The patient died 31 days after systemic antihelminthic treatment was initiated." }, { "id": "article-93659_15", "title": "Meningococcal Meningitis -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009898696320633516, "content": "Initial blood tests should include full blood cell count, electrolytes, coagulation studies, and blood cultures. [28] Lumbar puncture is necessary for a definitive diagnosis, but if clinical suspicion is high, diagnostic tests should not delay antibiotic administration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0134_16042", "title": "Prognostic factors of severe infectious purpura in children.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The French Club of Pediatric Intensive Care has prospectively studied 90 cases of infectious purpura which were hospitalized in 1981; the purpose of this study was to determine prognostic factors. The statistical study (X2 test) of all these cases is in agreement with data in the literature and shows that the mortality is significantly higher when there is: shock (p less than 0.001), coma (p less than 0.05), ecchymotic or necrotic purpura (p less than 0.01), temperature less than 36 degrees C (p less than 0.05), no clinical meningism (p less than 0.001), white cell count less than 10,000/mm3 (p less than 0.05), thrombocytopenia less than 100,000 (p less than 0.01), fibrinogen less than 1.5 g/l (p less than 0.001), kalemia greater than 5 mEq/l (p less than 0.01), spinal fluid cell count less than 20/mm3 (p less than 0.01). Because shock is one of the main prognostic factors (23 deaths in 55 shocked patients, versus 2 in 35 non-shocked) we have performed another statistical study (with the Benzecri method) to determine a prognostic index for patients in shock. For its determination, five initial parameters are used: age, kalemia, white cell count, clinical meningism, platelet count. The predictive value for survival is 91%. The predictive value for death is 87%. The score was applied on the patients hospitalized in shock in 1982: the predictive value for survival is 75%, the predictive value for death is 61%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en031_47978", "title": "Asplenia", "score": 0.009657088641908377, "content": "In an emergency room or hospital setting, appropriate evaluation and treatment for an asplenic febrile patient should include a complete blood count with differential, blood culture with Gram stain, arterial blood gas analysis, chest x-ray, and consideration for lumbar puncture with CSF studies. None of these evaluations should delay the initiation of appropriate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics. The Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines state that antibiotics should be administered to a patient suspected of sepsis within 1 hour of presentation. Delay in starting antibiotics for any reason is associated with a poor outcome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_14677", "title": "Meningococcal disease", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Signs and symptoms Meningitis The patient with meningococcal meningitis typically presents with high fever, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), Kernig's sign, severe headache, vomiting, purpura, photophobia, and sometimes chills, altered mental status, or seizures. Diarrhea or respiratory symptoms are less common. Petechiae are often also present, but do not always occur, so their absence should not be used against the diagnosis of meningococcal disease. Anyone with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis should receive intravenous antibiotics before the results of lumbar puncture, as delay in treatment worsens the prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1040_20742", "title": "One-month-old boy with group B streptococcal meningitis, subdural effusion, and high levels of interleukin-6.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Meningitis is associated with elevated levels of inflammatory cytokines in the blood, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and subdural fluid. Subdural effusion prolongs fever in patients with meningitis. However, the reason for this remains unclear. A healthy one-month-old boy was admitted after presenting with bacterial meningitis. He was administered meropenem, cefotaxime, and dexamethasone intravenously. On the 3rd day, blood and CSF cultures revealed the presence of Group B Streptococcus from samples collected on day 1. Subsequently, ampicillin and gentamicin replaced the previous combination of antimicrobials used. On the 4th day, brain magnetic resonance imaging with contrast showed bilateral cerebral ventriculitis and left subdural effusion. On the 11th day, since the subdural effusion had worsened, we performed a subdural puncture from the anterior fontanelle. Owing to the prolonged fever, he was intravenously injected immunoglobulin on day 13. He was afebrile on day 23. Antimicrobials were administered for 28 days. Levels of interleukin-6 (IL-6) in the serum and CSF were the highest on the 1st day at 20,600 pg/mL and 170,000 pg/mL, respectively, and decreased upon treatment. IL-6 concentration in the subdural fluid (30,000 pg/mL) was much higher than that in the serum (9 pg/mL) and CSF (2600 pg/mL). To the best of our knowledge, this is the first report on the cytokines in subdural fluid in patients with group B Streptococcal meningitis. Subdural effusion maintained high levels of IL-6 even after the levels in the blood and CSF decreased dramatically. This could explain why subdural effusion prolongs fever in patients with meningitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_450", "title": "Acute meningococcal meningitis: analysis of features of the disease according to the age of 255 patients. Copenhagen Meningitis Study Group.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Clinical and laboratory features of acute meningococcal meningitis according to age were studied in 255 patients. Whereas males accounted for three out of five patients aged 0-4 years, females accounted for three out of four patients older than 50 years of age. All patients had clinical signs of nuchal rigidity and fever. Patients older than 30 years of age had less frequent petechiae (62%) than younger patients (81%). Furthermore, elderly patients above 50 years of age were prone to an obtunded mental state and a prolonged disease course with fever. Without relation to age, 2/3 had purulent meningitis and 2/3 had marked peripheral leucocytosis (&gt; 15 x 10(9) cells/l); 90% of patients had at least one of these findings. The cellular inflammatory response in peripheral blood indicated a bacterial aetiology in &gt; 95% of the cases. More than 80% of children and adults had abnormal CSF biochemical findings, but the level of protein and the glucose ratio (CSF/serum) were positively and negatively correlated to increasing age of the patient, respectively: thus, in children these biochemical markers may be unreliable in the differentiation between a bacterial and non-bacterial aetiology. Thrombocytopenia (&lt; 100.000 x 10(9)/I) was not associated with age, though the lowest platelet count was found in elderly patients. The case fatality rate was 7.5%, but neither age, sex nor sign of septicaemia was associated with fatality. Thrombocytopenia, a lowered coagulation index (&lt; 0.5, factors II, VII, X), a moderate anaemia (haemoglobin &lt; 11 g/dl), an obtunded mental state and a history of convulsions were poor prognostic factors; only anaemia was independently correlated to fatality so this should be considered as an important prognostic marker in the acute phase of meningococcal meningitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_22374", "title": "Prediction of bacterial meningitis in children with meningeal signs: reduction of lumbar punctures.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Physicians often have to perform a lumbar puncture to ascertain the diagnosis in patients with meningeal signs, because of the serious consequences of missing bacterial meningitis. The aim of this study was to derive and validate a clinical rule to predict bacterial meningitis in children with meningeal signs, to guide decisions on the performance of lumbar punctures. Information was collected from records of patients (aged 1 mo to 15 y) consulting the emergency department of the Sophia Children's Hospital between 1988 and 1998 with meningeal signs. Bacterial meningitis was defined as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leucocyte count &gt;5 cells microl(-1) with a positive bacterial culture of CSF or blood. The diagnostic value of predictors was judged using multivariate logistic modelling and area under the receiver operating characteristic curves (ROC area). In the derivation set (286 patients, years 1988-1995) the duration of the main complaint, vomiting, meningeal irritation, cyanosis, petechiae and disturbed consciousness were independent clinical predictors of bacterial meningitis. The ROC area of this model was 0.92. The only independent predictor from subsequent laboratory tests was the serum C-reactive protein concentration, increasing the ROC area to 0.95. Without missing a single case, this final model identified 99 patients (35%) without bacterial meningitis. Validation on 74 consecutive patients in 3 subsequent years (1996-1998) yielded similar results. This prediction rule identifies about 35% of the patients with meningeal signs in whom a lumbar puncture can be withheld without missing a single case of bacterial meningitis. For the individual patient this prediction rule is valuable in deciding whether or not to perform a lumbar puncture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0441_195", "title": "Diagnosis of hemorrhagic diseases; evaluation of procedures. II. Preoperative tests.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Routine preoperative tests such as the determination of bleeding time and coagulation time are unnecessary and are not recommended. Rulings which require routine preoperative tests result in the adoption of inferior and unreliable time-saving methods in the laboratory. If the clinical staff insists that laboratory procedures to predict hemorrhage be performed on every patient scheduled for operation, approved methods of performing the tests should be employed. Preoperative procedures should include a personal and a family history, a careful and complete physical examination and screening laboratory tests such as urinalysis, hematocrit, leukocyte count and smear examination, including estimation of the number of thrombocytes. Special hemorrhagic studies are indicated on selected patients. These selected patients include those who have a history of abnormal bleeding, those who consider themselves \"easy bleeders\" or who have apprehension concerning hemorrhage at the time of operation, and those who have physical signs of hemorrhage. Special hemorrhagic studies should also be performed on patients who have diseases that are known to be associated with vascular and coagulation abnormalities, infants who have not been subjected to tests of trauma and on patients from whom a reliable history cannot be obtained. Extra precaution should be taken if operation is to be performed in hospitals or clinics that do not have adequate blood banking facilities and if the operation to be performed is one in which difficulty in hemostasis is anticipated. THE PREOPERATIVE TESTS THAT ARE INDICATED ON SELECTED PATIENTS SHOULD INCLUDE AS A MINIMUM: The thrombocyte count, determination of the bleeding time by the Ivy method, determination of the coagulation time by the multiple tube method and the observation of the clot. Where facilities are available, the hemorrhagic study should also include the plasma and serum prothrombin activity tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_29046", "title": "Dog health", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Mouse and rat poison, hypercalcemia type Mouse and rat poisons containing cholecalciferol cause hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia in dogs. Clinical signs include depression, loss of appetite, vomiting blood, weakness, and shock. Treatment is as above for recent exposure. When hypercalcemia occurs (which can take 1 to 2 weeks), treatment is with intravenous fluids (saline), diuretics, corticosteroids, and calcitonin. Long term prognosis is good once the dog is stabilized. Snail bait, metaldehyde type Ingestion can cause anxiety, muscle twitching, seizures, rapid heart rate, dilated pupils, hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, and high fever due to the metaldehyde present. Treatment involves gastric lavage, intravenous fluid administration, and/or administration of activated charcoal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0123_6488", "title": "[Diagnostic usefulness and predictive value of laboratory tests in disseminated vascular coagulation].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The laboratory tests of 38 patients in pediatric age with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) were retrospectively evaluated. In all patients were performed PT, aPTT, platelets count, FDP dosage and biological assay of Fibrinogen. In most of them the activity of FII, FV, FVII, FX and FVIII was assaied. According to the diagnostic criteria of FSP greater than 8 micrograms/ml, Platelets less than 150 10(9)/1 and Fibrinogen less than 150 ml/dl, in 16 patients the diagnosis of DIC was possible since first examination, while in 9 patients it became possible within 2-4 days; in 13 patients we never could diagnose DIC, although it was reasonably present, since the criteria above mentioned were never simultaneously satisfied. Looking back in our experience, we confirm that the platelets count and the quantitation of plasmatic Fibrin Degradation Products (FDP) are the most useful tests for the diagnosis of full blown DIC, and that the biological assay of plasmatic fibrinogen helps to follow the disorder. A low level of FVIII:C seems to be a forecast of failure. None of the other test performed give any useful information for diagnosis when it is not possible with the above mentioned tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_23058", "title": "Deep vein thrombosis", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In arterial thrombosis, blood vessel wall damage is required, as it initiates coagulation, but clotting in the veins mostly occurs without any such mechanical damage. The beginning of venous thrombosis is thought to arise from \"activation of endothelial cells, platelets, and leukocytes, with initiation of inflammation and formation of microparticles that trigger the coagulation system\" via tissue factor. Vein wall inflammation is likely the inciting event. Importantly, the activated endothelium of veins interacts with circulating white blood cells (leukocytes). While leukocytes normally help prevent blood from clotting (as does normal endothelium), upon stimulation, leukocytes facilitate clotting. Neutrophils are recruited early in the process of venous thrombi formation. They release pro-coagulant granules and neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) or their components, which play a role in venous thrombi formation. NET components are pro-thrombotic through both the intrinsic and" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_14160", "title": "[Changes in erythrocyte structure and in platelets in elderly patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We measured the platelet distribution width, the mean platelet volume, the volume percentage of platelets, and the platelet-to-large-cell ratio in 15 elderly patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Peripheral venous blood mixed with ehtylenediaminetetraacetic acid was analyzed with a Sysmex E-4000 analyzer. The underlying diseases were sepsis, pneumonia, pyelonephritis, and other inflammatory diseases. The mean duration of survival from the onset of DIC was 16.9 +/- 23.9 days. The distribution of red cell sizes before the onset of DIC did not differ significantly from that in patients without DIC, but fragmentation of erythrocytes on blood films was more common in the early stage of DIC (p &lt; 0.01). Before the onset of DIC, the two groups did not differ significantly in the frequency of giant platelets on blood smears. At the onset of DIC, the platelet distribution width, the mean platelet volume, and the platelet-to-large-cell ratio were significantly higher than in patients without DIC. The concentration of glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase and those of other serum enzymes did not change significantly, but the serum creatinine concentration and the blood urea nitrogen level increased as the platelet-to-large-cell ratio increased. No significant relation was evident between the levels of serum C-reactive protein and creatinine, between the platelet-to-large-cell ratio and the mean volume of red blood cells, or between the platelet-to-large-cell ratio and the distribution of red cell sizes. These data suggest that studies of platelets are more useful in the diagnosis of DIC at early stages of impaired organ function than are other indicators of inflammation such as the level of C-reactive protein." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_1436", "title": "Laboratory tests in evaluation of acute febrile illness in pediatric emergency room patients.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The rising costs of health care and the movement for health care reform have focused attention on methods of cost containment. Of routine laboratory and radiologic procedures, complete blood cell count (CBC) and determination of serum electrolyte values rank as high as 2nd and 9th in overall cost. We retrospectively studied use of the clinical laboratory to aid diagnosis of an acute infectious event in a pediatric emergency department population. For 5 months, we reviewed medical records of pediatric patients younger than 15 years brought to the emergency department because of a febrile episode. Of 155 cases reviewed, electrolyte concentrations were determined in 108 patients and CBC in 155. In all patients, either culture or rapid test for streptococcal organisms was performed. In addition, 838 pediatric patients with similar symptoms but who did not undergo laboratory testing were monitored for 100 days. Measures of effectiveness including sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values, and likelihood ratio were used to correlate specific laboratory findings with antibiotic therapy, serious bacterial disease, and culture positivity. Electrolyte abnormalities were found largely to be dismissed clinically, with the major clinical response consisting of parental education about hydration. The CBC profile was evaluated, with white blood cell count (WBC) indicator limits of &gt; 10,000, &gt; 10,000 but &lt; 15,000, and &gt; 15,000/mm3, and differentiated into absolute neutrophil count, neutrophil percent, and band cell percent. Temperature was evaluated as an independent variable. Insofar as serious bacterial disease and culture positivity, sensitivity was uniformly low (70%), and specificity was only marginably acceptable for WBC &gt; 15,000 (77%). Both positive predictive values and likelihood ratio were low with respect to predicting either serious bacterial disease or culture positivity, emphasizing the limited usefulness of these clinical laboratory measurements. The best hematologic predictors of serious bacterial disease or culture positivity were obtained with automated hematologic analyzers and exceeded manual differential measurement of neutrophil percent and band cell percent. In addition, we correlated the administration of antibiotics with the various hematologic parameters and discovered that WBC &gt; 15,000, regardless of cause, almost uniformly resulted in treatment (positive predictive value, 93.5%; likelihood ratio, 5.60). These findings support the use of automated hematology analyzer-derived measurements and question the use of manual differential counts, unless specific issues are to be addressed. Furthermore, the findings seem to support more reliance on clinical impression and less on laboratory values." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_19970", "title": "[Recurrent hematomas and normal standard hemostasis tests].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The authors report the case of a 22-month-old boy experiencing a voluminous subcutaneous haematoma, 72 hours after a head trauma. Two subsequent drainages of this haematoma were required because of its recurrence. The child, whose parents had blood relations, suffered from recurrent bleeding since his birth. A standard haemostasis assessment including prothrombin time, activated partial thrombopiastin time, bleeding time, concentration of fibrinogen and platelet count was unremarkable. Therefore, coagulation factors were explored. An inherited factor XIII deficiency (less than 2%) was recognized. A new drain was inserted, after administration of factor XIII concentrate. The time course of the haematoma was favourable. After discharge, the prophylactic therapy consisted of an injection of factor XIII concentrate (50 Ul.kg-1) every 5 weeks." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_35395", "title": "Lumbar puncture", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Cell count The presence of white blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid is called pleocytosis. A small number of monocytes can be normal; the presence of granulocytes is always an abnormal finding. A large number of granulocytes often heralds bacterial meningitis. White cells can also indicate reaction to repeated lumbar punctures, reactions to prior injections of medicines or dyes, central nervous system hemorrhage, leukemia, recent epileptic seizure, or a metastatic tumor. When peripheral blood contaminates the withdrawn CSF, a common procedural complication, white blood cells will be present along with erythrocytes, and their ratio will be the same as that in the peripheral blood." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_21263", "title": "An outbreak of an infection associated with circulating activated monocytes and hemophagocytes in children in Bombay, India.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "From May 1985 to December 1989, while doing blood counts on hospitalized children in Bombay, over 300 blood smears showed an impressive number of activated monocytes (AMs) and hemophagocytes (HPs). Many AMs resembled macrophages. The AM-HPs were visible in blood for 1-10 days, accompanied by a neutrophilia and a marked thrombocytopenia. Clinical features associated with these smears were fever, unresponsiveness to antibiotics, symptoms referable to the CNS and respiratory and/or gastrointestinal tracts, and bleeding. Ninety percent of affected children were under 2 years of age. The illness resolved completely or was fatal in 30%, with bleeding or respiratory failure, within 2 weeks. Children older than 2 years had underlying illness and high fever, and 40% died. Surgical candidates had obstructive gastrointestinal pathologic findings, from the stomach to the ileum. Babies under 1 month of age died, with clinical signs of deterioration and bleeding. Bone marrows were unremarkable. Few or no AM-HPs were seen. The fibrin split product tests were positive. Liver function test results were normal. Autopsies on six cases revealed edema and bleeding or thrombosis in the lungs, brain, and gastrointestinal tract. Only one neonate had a mild histiocytic infiltration in the lungs and liver. Features in common with and differences from virus-associated hemophagocytic syndromes are discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en294_38025", "title": "Neonatal sepsis", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Diagnosis Neonatal sepsis screening: DLC (differential leukocyte count) showing increased numbers of polymorphs. DLC: band cells > 20%. increased haptoglobins. micro ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) titer > 15mm. gastric aspirate showing > 5 polymorphs per high power field. newborn CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) screen: showing increased cells and proteins. suggestive history of chorioamnionitis, PROM (premature rupture of membranes), etc... Culturing for microorganisms from a sample of CSF, blood or urine, is the gold standard test for definitive diagnosis of neonatal sepsis. This can give false negatives due to the low sensitivity of culture methods and because of concomitant antibiotic therapy. Lumbar punctures should be done when possible as 10-15% presenting with sepsis also have meningitis, which warrants an antibiotic with a high CSF penetration. CRP is not very accurate in picking up cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_16640", "title": "[An elderly case of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A 78-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of disorientation and fever on January 21, 1992. Two days before admission she experienced vomiting, anorexia and general malaise. Laboratory examinations on admission disclosed a hemoglobin level of 11.1 g/dl and a platelet count of 8,000/microliters. The peripheral blood smear revealed anisocytosis with numerous schistocytes and poikilocytes. Polychromatophilic and nucleated red blood cells were also seen, and the reticulocyte count was 38/1000. Her serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) value was 2,977 WU and the total serum bilirubin level was 3.5 mg/dl with 2.7 mg/dl indirect reacting fraction. Serum creatinine was 4.7 mg/dl. Her consciousness became semicomatose after a systemic seizure which lasted approximately 15 seconds and her hemoglobin level decreased to 8.5 g/dl on hospital day 2. Therefore, we diagnosed her as having thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) because of the presence of all 5 features, that is, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, renal dysfunction and fever. A plasmapheresis with fresh frozen plasma (FFP) replacement was begun on that day. She was also treated with anti-platelet agents, 80 mg/day aspirin, and 300 mg/day dipyridamole. Moreover, packed red blood cells (PRC) were infused. While also receiving diphenylhydantoin and phenobarbital to prevent convulsions, status epilepticus developed on day 3. Because of inhibited spontaneous respiration which was an adverse effect derived from diazepam and sodium thiamylal administered intravenously to treat the status epilepticus, an artificial respiration was initiated.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1114_24519", "title": "A Case of Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole-Induced Aseptic Meningitis Masquerading as Septic Shock.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole-induced aseptic meningitis (TSIAM) is a rare adverse reaction to a commonly prescribed antibiotic. We describe a case of severe TSIAM which resembled septic shock. A 30-year-old male with relapsed Hodgkin's lymphoma 25 days status post autologous stem cell transplant presented to our clinic for evaluation of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) hypersensitivity. After review of patient's history and records, we had a low suspicion for a TMP-SMX adverse reaction and conducted an oral challenge to one 160 mg/800 mg tab of TMP-SMX. Four hours later, the patient developed vomiting, lightheadedness, and disorientation with progression to rigors, fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. He was admitted for fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage for neutropenic fever and possible septic shock. A lumbar puncture performed due to complaints of headache, photophobia, and neck pain showed 375 white blood cells/µL with 73% neutrophil predominance, normal glucose (75 mg/dL), and elevated protein (101 mg/dL); additional cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) studies were negative for infectious etiologies. Fever and headache resolved by hospital day 4, at which time patient was discharged home. We believe this case represents TSIAM given the characteristic timing of symptom onset, CSF findings, and timing of symptom resolution without other clear etiology found on extensive infectious evaluation. It is important for allergists to recognize TSIAM, including its potential presentation as shock, in order to appropriately diagnose and counsel patients who seek evaluation for TMP-SMX adverse reactions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_9691", "title": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation in a case of brucellosis.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Brucellosis is a multisystem disease with a broad spectrum of clinical manifestations; hematological abnormalities ranging from fulminant as of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) to anaemia, leucopoenia, thrombocytopenia, and clotting disorders. In this report, we present DIC in a case of brucellosis because of rare presentation. A 3-year-old boy was admitted with the complaints of continuous fever, vomiting, abdominal pain, and bruise on leg. He looked pale and his physical examination revealed purpuric skin lesions on both legs. A mild hepatosplenomegaly was noted on palpation. Laboratory tests showed hematocrit 21%, hemoglobin 7 g/dL, platelet count 20,000/mm(3), prothrombin time 19 seconds, activated partial thromboplastin time 48 seconds, plasma fibrinogen level 20 mg/dL, and D-dimer 8 µg/mL. Serum antibrucella titration agglutination test was found to be 1 of 1280 positive. Blood cultures performed on specimens obtained at the time of admission yielded Brucella melitensis. The clinical and laboratory findings were consistent with DIC." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0311_14068", "title": "[Meningitis caused by Streptococcus suis type 2 in an adult].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "A 54-year-old huntsman who 3 days previously had shot a wild pig, developed severe headache, nausea and vomiting over the last 10 hours. Physical examination was unremarkable except for an 8 x 4 cm large reddening of the skin over the right tibia and fever (38.2 degrees C). Cranial computed tomography was normal. Cerebrospinal fluid showed pleocytosis (5.200 cells/mm3). Gram-stained (CSF) smear showed gram-positive cocci and an increased white cell count (14,000/microliters) was found in blood. After the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis had been made antibiotics were given intravenously (penicillin G 10 mill. IU, three times daily on days 1 to 16: at first with cefotaxim, three times daily 2 g on days 1 to 3, then with gentamicin twice 80 mg on days 3 to 13). The acute neurological signs quickly regressed, the pretibial reddening (presumably at the port of entry) disappeared, as did the fever on the 4th day of the illness. The streptococci isolated from CSF and blood were identified as 5. suis type 2 (Lancefield group R). But despite the early and effective antibiotic treatment cochleovestibular symptoms (hearing impairment, vertigo and unsteady gait) set in after initial improvement, a frequent complication of S. suis meningitis. S. suis should be considered as the causative organism of generalized septicaemia and meningitis in adults, if the history reveals contact with domestic or wild pigs and there are early cochleovestibular signs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_5266", "title": "[Early indicators of dengue infection in children].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "To identify clinical manifestations and laboratory findings useful for the early diagnosis of dengue in children. We prospectively evaluated 125 children (aged 5 to 12 years old) with acute febrile syndrome with no apparent etiology. Paired serologic tests and/or viral culture were performed and dengue infection was confirmed in 40 patients and ruled out in 68 (17 indefinite cases). Early clinical manifestations (within the first 4 days of the disease) in the groups with dengue and other causes of febrile syndrome were compared. Independent indicators of dengue were determined in a multivariate logistic regression analysis. When clinical manifestations and complete blood count were considered, the independent indicators of dengue were: absence of nasal discharge, facial flushing, and leukocyte count &lt; or = 4,500/.l. With at least two of these findings, a sensitivity of 67 % and a specificity of 72 % for the diagnosis of dengue were obtained. When coagulation tests were considered, a model for diagnosis was composed of: absence of nasal discharge, leukocyte count &lt; or = 4500/.l, prothrombin time &gt; 14 seconds, and partial thromboplastin time &gt; 29 seconds. Two of these findings suggested a diagnosis of dengue with a sensitivity of 90 % and a specificity of 52.9 %. With at least 3 findings, specificity increased to 89.7 % and sensitivity decreased to 50 %. The presence of the four components of this latter model shows a specificity of 100 %. Some clinical manifestations and simple laboratory tests could aid the early detection of dengue infection in children." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 56 ] ], "text": "Lichen planus is a very common dermatosis of unknown etiology characterized by the appearance of pruritic polygonal papules, with a purplish color and shiny surface, preferentially located in the distal areas of the extremities. Characteristically these papules show a symmetrical distribution and are preferentially located on the anterior aspect of the wrists (Figure 1) and ankles." } }

{ "1": "Pityriasis versicolor.", "2": "Mycosis fungoides.", "3": "Psoriasis in drops.", "4": "Pityriasis rosea of Gibert.", "5": "Lichen planus." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0715_21227", "title": "Segmental lesions in pityriasis rosea: a rare presentation.", "score": 0.018867924528301886, "content": "A 34-year-old nonpregnant woman noted a mildly pruritic skin lesion on her right breast for 1 week following an episode of coryza, malaise, and low-grade fever of 3 days' duration. The latter symptoms subsided without any treatment. Ketoconazole cream prescribed by her family physician did not resolve the breast eruption after 1 week, so was stopped. A week later, multiple skin lesions erupted suddenly on her right chest wall starting near the herald patch in midaxillary line and spread distally until the midback. She then consulted the authors. She denied a history of abrasion or trauma to the affected areas. Travel, contact, sexual, and drug histories were unremarkable. She categorically denied past or family history of eczema, psoriasis, contact dermatitis, and drug eruptions. On examination, the initial lesion was an annular and well-demarcated erythematous plaque on her right breast in the upper outer quadrant. Multiple small oval scaly plaques were noted, extending distally along the ribs to the midline on her back, not crossing the midline, predominantly over the distribution of right T4 dermatome (Figure 1). Peripheral collarette scaling was noted (Figure 2). A few scattered small lesions were also noted in the vicinity of this dermatome. Three isolated small plaques were also present on the trunk, one in the supramammary area and the other two on the abdomen and back, respectively. Palmoplantar and mucosal surfaces were uninvolved. The rest of the skin and systemic examination revealed no abnormalities. Complete blood cell counts, fasting glucose, and urinalysis were normal. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) results were nonreactive and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies were negative. Repeat testing ofVDRL in serial dilutions and HIV antibodies after 3 months were also nonreactive and negative, respectively. Scrapings from the initial large lesion and subsequent smaller eruptions did not show any evidence of fungal infection on potassium hydroxide smear examination. The patient declined skin biopsy; however, we thought that the most diagnostic label for this condition was pityriasis rosea. Hence, we treated her with triamcinolone acetonide ointment 0.025% to be applied twice daily and desloratadine tablet 5 mg daily for 10 days. The patient demonstrated complete resolution, leaving postinflammatory hypopigmentation. There was no recurrence until 1 year after complete remission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0771_3902", "title": "Hyperkeratotic Palmoplantar Lichen Planus in a child.", "score": 0.01835016835016835, "content": "Lichen planus (LP) is a common idiopathic inflammatory disorder that affects the flexor aspect of the wrists, the legs, and the oral and genital mucosa. Depending upon the site of involvement, LP can be divided into mucosal, nail, scalp, or palmoplantar types. Palmoplantar LP can pose a diagnostic problem to the clinician as it resembles common dermatoses like psoriasis, verruca, corn, calluses, lichenoid drug eruption, and papular syphilide of secondary syphilis. In this case report, we describe a 4-year-old male child who presented with highly pruritic erythematous to violaceous hyperkeratotic papules and plaques on his palms and soles. Typical LP papules were noted on the upper back. Histopathology of the papular lesion showed features of LP. Dermatoscopy of a papule from the back showed the characteristic Wickham striae. We report this rare involvement of palm and soles in a case of childhood LP. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1126_23416", "title": "Dermoscopy of Gottron's papules and other inflammatory dermatoses involving the dorsa of the hands.", "score": 0.017401045556385362, "content": "Several inflammatory dermatoses, including dermatomyositis (DM), may present as erythematous papules or plaques on the dorsal aspects of the hands over the joints. Limited skin involvement in these entities may pose a diagnostic challenge. (Video)dermoscopy is being utilized more frequently to aid in the differential diagnosis of inflammatory skin conditions. To describe the dermoscopic findings in Gottron's papules and compare them with dermoscopic features of other dermatoses involving the dorsal aspects of the hands. Videodermoscopic images from patients presenting with erythematous papules or plaques on the dorsal surface of the hands were retrospectively analysed for the presence of standardized dermoscopic parameters. Dermoscopic images from patients with DM (n = 12), psoriasis (n = 19), chronic dermatitis (n = 16), mycosis fungoides (n = 7), lichen planus (n = 5) and pityriasis rubra pilaris (n = 3) were included. Gottron's papules were characterized by pleomorphic vessels (dotted vessels accompanied by thick or thin linear vessels with branches or linear curved vessels) in 66.7% of cases, arranged in an unspecified pattern (91.7%), and accompanied by white or pink structureless areas (75.0%). Psoriatic plaques were characterized by dotted vessels arranged in a uniform pattern (94.7%). Vessels arranged in a ring pattern were nearly exclusively observed in psoriasis, while yellow structureless areas and erosions were more frequently present in chronic dermatitis. White lines, corresponding to Wickham striae, were specific for lichen planus. Videodermoscopy might be of value in differentiating Gottron's papules from other dermatoses involving dorsa of the hands." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0211_11035", "title": "[Follicular psoriasis with cicatricial alopecia. Piccardi-Lassueur-Graham Little syndrome of a psoriatic nature].", "score": 0.01734232565033721, "content": "The case of a 21 years old female patient is reported who has had scaly lesions on the scalp since the age of 3, alopecia (later scarring alopecia) since the age of 5, and erythematous and squamous lesions on the trunk and limbs since the age of 14. More recently she developed grouped follicular papules on the trunk, back of the neck and upper limbs. Seven biopsies from the scalp, trunk and sole of foot were performed which showed typical psoriatic changes in all but one, from the scalp, where only scarring alopecia changes could be found. In one lesion from the trunk pseudogranulomatous features were observed in some papillae which were probably due to ectasia, tortuosity and endothelial proliferation of papillary blood vessels. The oral administration of RO 10-9359 was followed by a good remission of the lesions with exception of the scalp alopecia. The differential diagnosis, particularly with pityriasis rubra pilaris and lichen planus, is discussed and the similarities of our case with the Piccardi-Lassueur-Graham Little syndrome emphasised. If one accepts multiple diseases as the cause of the syndrome psoriasis could be admitted as one of them." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0961_20010", "title": "Annular Lesions: Diagnosis and Treatment.", "score": 0.017050298380221655, "content": "Annular lesions can present in a variety of diseases. Knowledge of the physical appearance and history of presentation of these skin findings can help in the diagnosis. A pruritic, annular, erythematous patch that grows centrifugally should prompt evaluation for tinea corporis. Tinea corporis may be diagnosed through potassium hydroxide examination of scrapings. Recognizing erythema migrans is important in making the diagnosis of Lyme disease so that antibiotics can be initiated promptly. Plaque psoriasis generally presents with sharply demarcated, erythematous silver plaques. Erythema multiforme, which is due to a hypersensitivity reaction, presents with annular, raised lesions with central clearing. Lichen planus characteristically appears as planar, purple, polygonal, pruritic papules and plaques. Nummular eczema presents as a rash composed of coin-shaped papulovesicular erythematous lesions. Treatment is aimed at reducing skin dryness. Pityriasis rosea presents with multiple erythematous lesions with raised, scaly borders, and is generally self-limited. Urticaria results from the release of histamines and appears as well-circumscribed, erythematous lesions with raised borders and blanched centers. Annular lesions occur less commonly in persons with fixed drug eruptions, leprosy, immunoglobulin A vasculitis, secondary syphilis, sarcoidosis, subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus, and granuloma annulare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1032_24239", "title": "Dermoscopy in differential diagnosis of inflammatory dermatoses and mycosis fungoides.", "score": 0.015791945520723258, "content": "The use of dermoscopy for the evaluation of various inflammatory dermatoses has witnessed a gradual increase in recent years. The present study describes and highlights the importance of dermoscopic findings in the differential diagnosis of plaque psoriasis (PP), lichen planus (LP), mycosis fungoides (MF), pityriasis rosea (PR), and nummular dermatitis (ND) that mostly involve the trunk. The study included 150 cases (PP:50, LP:30, MF:20, PR:30, ND:20). The lesions were inspected using a polarized dermoscope. The dermoscopic findings of each lesion were evaluated for background color, type, and distribution of vessels, color and distribution of scales, and other additional findings. When the patient groups were evaluated for background color, yellow color was prominent in PR, and light and dull red color was prominent in other groups. Dotted vessels were prominent in PP, PR, and ND, and dotted + linear vessels were significantly more prominent in MF and LP. In the evaluation of the distribution pattern of vessels, PP showed regular, LP showed peripheral, and PR, MF, and ND showed patchy distribution patterns. White scales were prominent in PP, PR, and MF, and yellow-white scales were prominent in LP and ND. Only PR had a predominant peripheral distribution of scales, while other groups had a patchy distribution. In conclusion, it was observed that PP, LP, MF, PR, and ND exhibited specific dermoscopic patterns that might be useful in clinical diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0717_1668", "title": "Accuracy of dermoscopic criteria for the diagnosis of psoriasis, dermatitis, lichen planus and pityriasis rosea.", "score": 0.015390965915791957, "content": "Dermoscopy is useful in evaluating skin tumours, but its applicability extends also to the field of inflammatory skin disorders. Plaque psoriasis (PP), dermatitis, lichen planus (LP) and pityriasis rosea (PR) are common inflammatory skin diseases, but little is currently known about their dermoscopic features. To determine and compare the dermoscopic patterns associated with PP, dermatitis, LP and PR and to assess the validity of certain dermoscopic criteria in the diagnosis of PP. Patients with PP, dermatitis, LP and PR were prospectively enrolled. The single most recently developed lesion was examined dermoscopically and histopathologically. Variables included vascular morphology, vascular arrangement, background colour, scale colour, scale distribution and presence of Wickham striae. Univariate and adjusted odds ratios were calculated. Discriminant functions were used to plot receiver-operator characteristic curves. Eighty-three patients with PP and 86 patients with either dermatitis, LP or PR were included in the study. Dotted vessels in a regular arrangement over a light red background and white scales were highly predictive for the diagnosis of PP, whereas dermatitis more commonly showed yellow scales and dotted vessels in a patchy arrangement. PR was characterized by yellowish background, dotted vessels and peripheral scales; whitish lines (Wickham striae) were seen exclusively in LP. PP, LP, PR and dermatitis show specific dermoscopic patterns that may aid their clinical diagnosis. Certain combinations of dermoscopic features can reliably predict the diagnosis of PP." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0833_16919", "title": "The practical usefulness of dermoscopy in general dermatology.", "score": 0.014796731765643684, "content": "Beside to traditional use, dermoscopy is more and more used in the assessment of other \"general\" dermatologic conditions, namely scalp and hair disorders (trichoscopy), nails abnormalities (onychoscopy), skin infections and infestations (entomodermoscopy), and cutaneous inflammatory diseases (inflammoscopy). Among the list of new applications of dermoscopy, the study of inflammatory dermatoses is probably the most promising topic in terms of development and usefulness, considering the large number of such disorders and the frequent problems in their differential diagnosis which the dermatologist encounters in own daily clinical practice. In this paper, we report selected relatively common clinical differential diagnosis issues concerning inflammatory dermatoses (and some clinically related noninflammatory conditions), analysing them by a dermoscopic point of view in order to assist their noninvasive resolution according to the available literature data and our personal experience, including papulosquamous dermatoses (guttate psoriasis, pityriasis lichenoides chronica, pityriasis rosea, lichen planus, lymphomatoid papulosis, classic pityriasis rubra pilaris, papulosquamous sarcoidosis, disseminated forms of porokeratosis and papulosquamous chronic GVHD), dermatoses presenting with erythematous-desquamative patches/plaques (plaque psoriasis, eczematous dermatitis, pityriasis rosea, mycosis fungoides, subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus), palmar psoriasis vs. chronic hand eczema, scalp psoriasis vs. seborrheic dermatitis, erythematous-desquamative disorders typically involving the elbows (psoriasis vulgaris, circumscribed juvenile pityriasis rubra pilaris, dermatomyositis/Gottron's sign), itchy papulonodular dermatoses (hypertrophic lichen planus, prurigo nodularis, nodular scabies and acquired perforating dermatosis), common facial inflammatory skin diseases (rosacea, seborrheic dermatitis and demodicidosis), lichen sclerosus vs. morphea, urticaria vs. urticarial vasculitis and common inflammatory cicatricial alopecia (discoid lupus erythematosus, lichen planopilaris and folliculitis decalvans). " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0880_19088", "title": "Dermoscopy in General Dermatology: A Practical Overview.", "score": 0.014640326591900897, "content": "Over the last few years, dermoscopy has been shown to be a useful tool in assisting the noninvasive diagnosis of various general dermatological disorders. In this article, we sought to provide an up-to-date practical overview on the use of dermoscopy in general dermatology by analysing the dermoscopic differential diagnosis of relatively common dermatological disorders grouped according to their clinical presentation, i.e. dermatoses presenting with erythematous-desquamative patches/plaques (plaque psoriasis, eczematous dermatitis, pityriasis rosea, mycosis fungoides and subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus), papulosquamous/papulokeratotic dermatoses (lichen planus, pityriasis rosea, papulosquamous sarcoidosis, guttate psoriasis, pityriasis lichenoides chronica, classical pityriasis rubra pilaris, porokeratosis, lymphomatoid papulosis, papulosquamous chronic GVHD, parakeratosis variegata, Grover disease, Darier disease and BRAF-inhibitor-induced acantholytic dyskeratosis), facial inflammatory skin diseases (rosacea, seborrheic dermatitis, discoid lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, cutaneous leishmaniasis, lupus vulgaris, granuloma faciale and demodicidosis), acquired keratodermas (chronic hand eczema, palmar psoriasis, keratoderma due to mycosis fungoides, keratoderma resulting from pityriasis rubra pilaris, tinea manuum, palmar lichen planus and aquagenic palmar keratoderma), sclero-atrophic dermatoses (necrobiosis lipoidica, morphea and cutaneous lichen sclerosus), hypopigmented macular diseases (extragenital guttate lichen sclerosus, achromic pityriasis versicolor, guttate vitiligo, idiopathic guttate hypomelanosis, progressive macular hypomelanosis and postinflammatory hypopigmentations), hyperpigmented maculopapular diseases (pityriasis versicolor, lichen planus pigmentosus, Gougerot-Carteaud syndrome, Dowling-Degos disease, erythema ab igne, macular amyloidosis, lichen amyloidosus, friction melanosis, terra firma-forme dermatosis, urticaria pigmentosa and telangiectasia macularis eruptiva perstans), itchy papulonodular dermatoses (hypertrophic lichen planus, prurigo nodularis, nodular scabies and acquired perforating dermatosis), erythrodermas (due to psoriasis, atopic dermatitis, mycosis fungoides, pityriasis rubra pilaris and scabies), noninfectious balanitis (Zoon's plasma cell balanitis, psoriatic balanitis, seborrheic dermatitis and non-specific balanitis) and erythroplasia of Queyrat, inflammatory cicatricial alopecias (scalp discoid lupus erythematosus, lichen planopilaris, frontal fibrosing alopecia and folliculitis decalvans), nonscarring alopecias (alopecia areata, trichotillomania, androgenetic alopecia and telogen effluvium) and scaling disorders of the scalp (tinea capitis, scalp psoriasis, seborrheic dermatitis and pityriasis amiantacea)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0877_13961", "title": "Clinicopathological Study of Non-Infectious Erythaematous Papulosquamous Skin Diseases.", "score": 0.014415348716619134, "content": "Papulosquamous diseases are characterized by scaly papules and plaques with similar clinical picture which amounts to confusion and hence, a definitive histopathological diagnosis goes a long way in treatment of such diseases. The aim of the study was to study the histomorphology of non-infectious, erythaematous, papulosquamous lesions of skin with clinicopathological correlation. Skin biopsies from 150 clinically diagnosed/suspected non-infectious erythaematous, papulosquamous skin diseases were received in the Department of Pathology. The specimens obtained were subjected to formalin fixation and paraffin embedding, stained with haematoxylin and eosin and studied. The lesions were classified as psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, lichen striatus, pityriasis rosea and pityriasis rubra pilaris and clinicopathological correlation was done. Papulosquamous lesions were common in the elderly. Males were commonly affected except in pityriasis rosea. Among the 150 cases studied, 72 cases (48%) were histopathologically confirmed to be papulosquamous lesions. Psoriasis was the most common lesion. Key histopathological features and clinicopathological correlation gives a conclusive diagnosis. The importance of specific histomorphological diagnosis lies in distinguishing these lesions as the treatment and prognosis varies widely." }, { "id": "article-24254_11", "title": "Lichen Planus -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01407199625993455, "content": "Lichen planus can display a variety of lesion types, but the most common presentation is an area of polygon-shaped, itchy, violaceous, flat-topped papules a few millimeters wide. This classic presentation is known as The Six Ps of LP: purple, polygonal, planar, pruritic papules, and plaques. The lesions have a shiny surface covered in fine white lines known as Wickham striae and are firm on palpation. They may be seen as a few individual lesions, found scattered widely, grouped in plaques, or arranged in annular, linear, or actinic (sun-exposed) patterns. The isomorphic response (i.e., Koebner phenomenon) can be seen in LP wherein new lesions arise in lines where scratching occurs, just as is seen in psoriasis. The most common areas of involvement include the flexor wrists, dorsal hands, lower back, ankles, and shins. Frequently a grayish-brown hyperpigmentation can be found after lesions resolve due to deposition of melanin in the superficial dermis. [5] [10]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_39770", "title": "Pityriasis rosea", "score": 0.013685636856368564, "content": "Diagnosis Experienced practitioners may make the diagnosis clinically. Classical symptoms are usually straightforward to recognize, but the wide range of atypical forms may cause difficulty for the clinician in diagnosing some cases. Misdiagnosis by nondermatologists is not uncommon. If the diagnosis is in doubt, tests may be performed to rule out similar conditions such as Lyme disease, ringworm, guttate psoriasis, nummular or discoid eczema, drug eruptions, other viral exanthems. The clinical appearance of pityriasis rosea in some cases is similar to that of secondary syphilis, and rapid plasma reagin testing should be performed if there is any clinical concern for syphilis. A biopsy of the lesions will show extravasated erythrocytes within dermal papillae and dyskeratotic cells within the dermis. A set of validated diagnostic criteria for pityriasis rosea is as follows: A patient is diagnosed as having pityriasis rosea if:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_12338", "title": "Profile of lichen planus in Bangladesh.", "score": 0.012788226961517274, "content": "Lichen planus is one of the common inflammatory disorders of skin, mucous membrane, nail and hair characterized by violaceous, polish, pruritic, polygonal, flat-topped papules usually distributed bilaterally symmetrically over the extremities. Our objectives in this study were to explore the prevalence of lichen planus in large area of Dhaka in Bangladesh and to establish the clinical characteristics of lichen planus. This descriptive type of cross sectional study was carried out from September 2006 to August 2008 in the Department of Dermatology and Venereology of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujib Medical University (BSMMU), Dhaka Medical College Hospital (DMCH) and Combined Military Hospital (CMH) in Dhaka. Patients suffering from lichen planus were selected as study population. By face to face interview and clinical observations, data were collected from sample. A total 120 patients of lichen planus were selected, on the basis of age, 30(25%) were 10-30 years of age, 75(62.56%) were 30-50 years and 16(13.33%) were over 50 years of age. The mean age of the patient was 40+/-4 years. Out of 120 patients, 80(66.66%) were male and 60(33.33%) were female and eight patients (6.67%) had positive family history among highest age group (30 to 50 years). In case of duration of disease, highest percentage (68%) of cases was 15 days to 6 months and considering clinical sign, koebnerization was present 45(37.5%) cases and Wickhams striae 22(18.33%) cases. Regarding site of onset of lesion, lesions were highest 100(83.33%) in upper limbs, next lower limbs, trunk, oral mucosa etc. The distribution of clinical pattern of lichen planus showing classic pattern (68.33%) was the most common type, followed by hypertrophic, actinic, ashy dermatoses, lichen plano-pilaris, erosive or ulcerative etc. This clinico-epidemiological study of lichen planus attending in the different hospital in Dhaka, Bangladesh has shown that lichen planus is usually associated with 30 to 50 years of age group, with higher male prevalence than female, 15 days to 6 months are mainly duration of disease, koebnerization and Wickhams striae are common clinical signs, upper limbs is mainly the site of onset of lesion, and classic pattern is the most common clinical type in lichen planus." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en589_21494", "title": "Histopathologic diagnosis of dermatitis", "score": 0.01252723311546841, "content": "Interface dermatitis with lichenoid inflammation Interface dermatitis with lichenoid inflammation, not otherwise specified, can be caused by lichen planus-like keratosis, lichenoid actinic keratosis, lichenoid lupus erythematosus, lichenoid GVHD (chronic GVHD), pigmented purpuric dermatosis, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis lichenoides chronica. Unusual conditions that can be associated with a lichenoid inflammatory cell infiltrate are HIV dermatitis, syphilis, mycosis fungoides, urticaria pigmentosa, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. In cases of post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation, it is important to exclude potentially harmful mimics such as a regressed melanocytic lesion or lichenoid pigmented actinic keratosis. Psoriaform dermatitis Examining multiple deeper levels is recommended if initial cuts do not correlate well with the clinical history." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_69473", "title": "Papule", "score": 0.012452438602559669, "content": "Papules with scale on the palms and soles may occur in secondary syphilis, psoriasis, eczema, tinea manuum, mycosis fungoides. In lichen planus papules may be itchy, flat-topped, polygonal, purplish with white streaks, and can be solitary, or occur in clusters or in a line. See also List of cutaneous conditions References External links Dermatologic terminology" }, { "id": "article-28811_27", "title": "Seborrheic Dermatitis -- Differential Diagnosis -- Trunk", "score": 0.012256049960967994, "content": "Psoriasis - sharply-defined red plaques with a loose, silvery lamella scale Pityriasis rosea - herald spot; collarette scale; Christmas tree distribution Pityriasis versicolor - not symmetrical; hypo/hyperpigmentation Subacute lupus erythematosus - photosensitive distribution Eczema (nummular) - intense pruritus Tinea corporis - raised leading edges and central clearing; uncommon in infants Erythema annulare centrifugum - recurrent polycyclic lesions that slowly expand and disappear Darier disease - Greasy wart-like papules and plaques Grover disease (transient acantholytic dermatosis) - acanthosis Drug reaction - drug history (neuroleptic; immunosuppressant; PUVA; lithium) Parapsoriasis - elderly; very slow growing; resistant to treatment Pemphigus foliaceus - fragile, painful blisters - Nikolsky sign is positive Secondary syphilis - lesions on the palms and soles; a history of chancre" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0771_3916", "title": "Palmar lichen planus mimicking tinea nigra.", "score": 0.011877907796419004, "content": "Lichen planus (LP) is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by polygonal, violaceous papules commonly involving flexural areas of the wrists, legs, and oral and genital mucous membranes. This report describes a patient who presented with asymptomatic black colored patches on both palms simulating Tinea nigra, a superficial fungal infection. She was previously diagnosed as allergic contact dermatitis and was being treated with potent topical steroid i.e. clobetasol propionate 0.05% and white soft paraffin. Dermatoscopy of the lesion showed brownish pigmentation along ridges of the dermatoglyphics. A biopsy from the lesional skin showed findings of lichen planus. Our case highlights the potential diagnostic confusion that can occur with unusual variants of palmoplantar lichen planus and importance of histopathology in diagnosis of such unusual lesions. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_13602", "title": "[Papular mycosis fungoides].", "score": 0.011875900354871578, "content": "Mycosis fungoides (MF) is the most common type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. A new form of incipient MF has recently been described: papular MF. Herein, we report a case and propose a literature review. A 63-year-old man presented with erythematous and non-pruritic papular lesions of the trunk. The general examination was unremarkable. A skin biopsy showed moderately dense epidermotropic lymphocytic infiltration consistent with MF. Screening for CD30 was negative. Treatment with an extremely potent corticosteroid (clobetasol, one application per day) seemed effective, with almost complete disappearance of the lesions. Many clinical variants of the initial stages of MF have been described, one of the most recent of which is papular mycosis fungoides (PMF), of which 10 cases are reported in the literature. PMF begins clinically with an erythematous, non-pruritic and chronic papular rash that is not associated with the classic erythematous-squamous lesions of incipient MF. There appears to be no predominance of gender, and the age of onset ranges from 31 to 63 years. Histological examination of the PMF lesions revealed an epidermotropic subepidermal infiltrate composed predominantly of CD4+T-cells. The prognosis appeared good with the treatments conventionally used for incipient MF. PMF is likened to a form of incipient MF with a good prognosis. Associated classic MF lesions comprising erythematous-squamous plaques have been described as the condition progresses. Differential diagnoses include pilotropic MF, pityriasis lichenoides chronica, pityriasis lichenoides varioliformis acuta, and especially type B lymphomatoid papulosis, the histopathological findings of which may be close to PMF. Papular MF would appear to be a papular variant of incipient MF with a good prognosis. However, it is necessary to obtain clinical and disease progression data for a greater number of patients in order to better characterize this entity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en190_9891", "title": "Papulosquamous disorder", "score": 0.01173469387755102, "content": "A papulosquamous disorder is a condition which presents with both papules and scales, or both scaly papules and plaques. Examples include psoriasis, lichen planus, and pityriasis rosea. See also List of cutaneous conditions References Further reading http://www.emedicine.com/derm/index.shtml#papulosquamous External links Dermatologic terminology Papulosquamous disorders" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_5171", "title": "Lichen planus", "score": 0.01165928964698262, "content": "Signs and symptoms Although lichen planus can present with a variety of lesions, the most common presentation is as a well defined area of purple-coloured, itchy, flat-topped papules with interspersed lacy white lines (Wickham's striae). This description is known as the characteristic \"6 Ps\" of lichen planus: planar (flat-topped), purple, polygonal, pruritic, papules, and plaques. This rash, after regressing, is likely to leave an area of hyperpigmentation that slowly fades. That said, a variety of other lesions can also occur. Skin" }, { "id": "article-24666_23", "title": "Malassezia Furfur -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.011523650784527845, "content": "Several dermatologic disorders may mimic PV. SD may occur on the trunk as PV does, but lesions are more erythematous with thicker scaling, and other locations, including the scalp, are usually involved. Pityriasis rosea may be differentiated from PV by the appearance of a herald patch before the onset of symptoms, \"Christmas tree\" distribution, and erythematous, scaling macules and patches. Whereas PV causes hypopigmented skin lesions, those seen in vitiligo are depigmented. The eczematous lesions of pityriasis alba also may appear as hypopigmented macules and patches; however, the face is primarily affected, and affected children typically have a history of atopy. Secondary syphilis must be ruled out in a patient with generalized hyperpigmented macules involving the palms and soles. Mycosis fungoides may present as hypopigmented lesions on the trunk and extremities, but scaling, erythema, and plaques are more characteristic. [17]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0724_22015", "title": "Vesicular palmoplantar pityriasis rosea.", "score": 0.011400545667143044, "content": "A 16-year-old young man presented with intensely itchy erythematous dermatitis on the body for 1 week and vesicular lesions on the palms and soles for 4 to 5 days. Lesions on the palms and soles were accompanied by severe burning and itching. The patient gave a history of sore throat and fever, 1 week prior to the onset of lesions. A general physical examination was normal, and cutaneous examination revealed multiple, well-defined erythematous scaly plaques with collaret scaling on the trunk and extremities (Figure 1). Vesicular lesions were seen on the palms and soles (Figure 2). The differential diagnoses we considered were pityriasis rosea and secondary syphilis. The possibility of dermatophytid, vesicular pityriasis rosea, and pompholyx was limited to the palms and sole lesions. Complete blood cell count was within normal limits. Results from antistreptolysin O titer, potassium hydroxide mount, and venereal disease research laboratory were negative. Skin biopsies were taken from the back and left palm. The biopsy specimen from the back revealed focal spongiosis, lymphocyte exocytosis, vacuolar changes in the basal layer, and perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate in the dermis (Figure 3). The biopsy obtained from the vesicular lesion on the left palm revealed an intraepidermal vesicle with no evidence of acantolytic process (Figure 4). A diagnosis of pityriasis rosea was made and the patient was started on clarithromycin 500 mg once a day for 7 days, along with antihistamines and emollients. The lesions faded dramatically in a very short period, and there was significant involution of almost all of the lesions after 7 days of clarithromycin. During the 6 months of follow-up, no recurrence was observed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_124247", "title": "Psoriasis", "score": 0.011152723467533182, "content": "Diagnosis A diagnosis of psoriasis is usually based on the appearance of the skin. Skin characteristics typical for psoriasis are scaly, erythematous plaques, papules, or patches of skin that may be painful and itch. No special blood tests or diagnostic procedures are usually required to make the diagnosis. The differential diagnosis of psoriasis includes dermatological conditions similar in appearance such as discoid eczema, seborrheic eczema, pityriasis rosea (may be confused with guttate psoriasis), nail fungus (may be confused with nail psoriasis) or cutaneous T cell lymphoma (50% of individuals with this cancer are initially misdiagnosed with psoriasis). Dermatologic manifestations of systemic illnesses such as the rash of secondary syphilis may also be confused with psoriasis." }, { "id": "article-24253_8", "title": "Lichen Nitidus -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011141439205955336, "content": "Lichen nitidus usually presents as asymptomatic, shiny, flat-topped, fleshy pink to dark brown papules. They are typically 1 to 2 mm in diameter. In patients with darker skin lesions can appear as light spots. Lesions commonly present on the neck, trunk, limbs, abdomen, and penile shaft. The involvement of mucous membranes, palms, soles, and nails are rare, but there are reports. [2] [3] [4] If lichen nitidus is symptomatic, the patient mainly complains of mild sporadic pruritus. [3] Koebner phenomenon is a hallmark of lichen nitidus, as seen in lichen planus, but is not present in all cases. [3] [4] Rarely lichen nitidus will present only on the palms and soles and will usually present with lichen nitidus lesions in other locations. [11] If lesions present in the oral mucosa, they will be flat, greyish papules. [3] [12]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en248_42840", "title": "Pityriasis amiantacea", "score": 0.011101973684210526, "content": "Diagnosis Pityriasis amiantacea can easily be misdiagnosed due to its close resemblance to other scalp diseases such as psoriasis, seborrhoeic dermatitis or lichen planus. However, in pityriasis amiantacea the scales are attached to both the hair shaft and the scalp. Pityriasis amiantacea may be present with other inflammatory conditions such as atopic dermatitis or seborrhoeic dermatitis and sebaceous scales and alopecia can occur. According to Bolognia's textbook \"Dermatology,\" this rare condition is most often combined with psoriasis, but it may also develop as secondarily infected atopic dermatitis, seborrheic dermatitis, and/or tinea capitis. Treatment" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3986", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011061419200954084, "content": "CHAPTER 71 Eczema, Psoriasis, Cutaneous Infections, Acne, and Other Common Skin Disorders Psoriasis Sharply demarcated, erythematous plaques with mica-like scale; predominantly on elbows, knees, and scalp; atypical forms may localize to intertriginous areas; eruptive forms may be associated with infection Lichen planus Purple polygonal papules marked by severe pruritus; lacy white markings, especially associated with mucous membrane lesions Pityriasis rosea Rash often preceded by herald patch; oval to round plaques with trailing scale; most often affects trunk; eruption lines up in skinfolds giving a “fir tree–like” appearance; generally spares palms and soles Dermatophytosis Polymorphous appearance depending on dermatophyte, body site, and host response; sharply defined to ill-demarcated scaly plaques with or without inflammation; may be associated with hair loss May be aggravated by certain drugs, infection; severe forms seen in association with HIV" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en149_46689", "title": "Epidermodysplasia verruciformis", "score": 0.010999015748031495, "content": "Signs and symptoms Clinical diagnostic features are lifelong eruptions of pityriasis versicolor-like macules, flat wart-like papules, one to many cutaneous horn-like lesions, and development of cutaneous carcinomas. Patients present with flat, slightly scaly, red-brown macules on the face, neck, and body, recurring especially around the penial area, or verruca-like papillomatous lesions, seborrheic keratosis-like lesions, and pinkish-red plane papules on the hands, upper and lower extremities, and face. The initial form of EV presents with only flat, wart-like lesions over the body, whereas the malignant form shows a higher rate of polymorphic skin lesions and development of multiple cutaneous tumors. Generally, cutaneous lesions are spread over the body, but some cases have only a few lesions which are limited to one extremity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_5168", "title": "Lichen planus", "score": 0.010349340581898722, "content": "Lichen planus (LP) is a chronic inflammatory and immune-mediated disease that affects the skin, nails, hair, and mucous membranes. It is not an actual lichen, and is only named that because it looks like one. It is characterized by polygonal, flat-topped, violaceous papules and plaques with overlying, reticulated, fine white scale (Wickham's striae), commonly affecting dorsal hands, flexural wrists and forearms, trunk, anterior lower legs and oral mucosa. Although there is a broad clinical range of LP manifestations, the skin and oral cavity remain as the major sites of involvement. The cause is unknown, but it is thought to be the result of an autoimmune process with an unknown initial trigger. There is no cure, but many different medications and procedures have been used in efforts to control the symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_27496", "title": "Pemphigoid", "score": 0.010132203047734384, "content": "Presentation Primary lesions of small and large blisters, known as vesicles and bullae, are found on the skin and sometimes on the mucous membranes. Non-bullous pemphigoid In some patients, pemphigoid starts off with cutaneous manifestations of BP without bullae, as the only sign of the disease. Pruritic eczematous, papular, or urticaria-like skin lesions may also persist for weeks to months. Bullous phase The bullous stage of BP shows vesicles and bulla, appearing on apparently normal or erythematous skin, predominantly at the flexural aspects of the extremities and the lower trunk. Mucosal lesions, which typically are erosions of the oral mucosa, are present in 10 to 30 percent of patients. Occasionally, the blister fluid becomes blood-tinged. The blisters are tense, about 1–4 cm in diameter, leaving eroded and crusted areas, together with urticarial and infiltrated papules and plaques in an annular or figurate pattern." }, { "id": "article-27255_26", "title": "Pityriasis Rosea -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010122261035249285, "content": "The rashes of pityriasis rosea usually last for five weeks and resolve by 8 weeks in more than 80% of patients. Pityriasis rosea needs to be differentiated from secondary syphilis, dermatophytosis, guttate psoriasis, nummular eczema, pityriasis lichenoid chronic, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, erythema annular centrifugal and erythema chronic migrans." }, { "id": "article-27962_16", "title": "Psoriasis of the Nails -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.01003584229390681, "content": "Onychomycosis: The changes of onychomycosis resemble nail psoriasis, and sometimes it is difficult to distinguish between the two. Nail pitting, onycholysis, and oil drop sign are the main features of nail psoriasis. Onychomycosis can be diagnosed by fungal culture, nail clipping with periodic acid Schiff( PAS)and potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparations. [1] Alopecia areata: It usually appears as linear ridging, nail pitting, longitudinal nail fissuring, and some other nail abnormalities along with non-scarring patchy alopecia of the scalp or other body areas. Lichen planus: Nail involvement presents as thinning of nails with ridges and grooves of the nail plate sometimes scarring of cuticle occur leading to pterygium formation. Lichen planus also involves the mucosa or skin. The skin manifestations of lichen planus are itchy, purple, polygonal papules or plaques. [13]" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3996", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009978221254277967, "content": "Lichen planus (LP) is a papulosquamous disorder that may affect the skin, scalp, nails, and mucous membranes. The primary cutaneous lesions are pruritic, polygonal, flat-topped, violaceous papules. Close examination of the surface of these papules often reveals a network of gray lines (Wickham’s striae). The skin lesions may occur anywhere but have a predilection for the wrists, shins, lower back, and genitalia (Fig. 71-5). Involvement of the scalp (lichen planopilaris) may lead to scarring alopecia, and nail involvement may lead to permanent deformity or loss of fingernails and toenails. LP commonly involves mucous membranes, particularly the buccal mucosa, where it can present on a spectrum ranging from a mild, white, reticulate eruption of the mucosa to a severe, erosive stomatitis. Erosive stomatitis may persist for years and may be linked to an increased risk of oral squamous cell carcinoma. Cutaneous eruptions clinically resembling LP have been observed after administration of" } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Reassure her that she is not at risk.", "2": "Chest X-ray.", "3": "Start chemoprophylaxis and repeat skin test after 3 months.", "4": "Repeat skin test at one month.", "5": "A sputum study should be performed before starting chemoprophylaxis with Isoniazid for 1 year." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0075_456", "title": "Decision analysis, public health policy, and isoniazid chemoprophylaxis for young adult tuberculin skin reactors.", "score": 0.019075302025615408, "content": "As part of a plan to eliminate tuberculosis in America, tuberculin skin testing was advised for all US citizens, with isoniazid chemopreventive therapy administered to appropriate positive reactors. Implementation of this plan, however, may be limited by concerns over which skin test reactors should receive isoniazid therapy. Recent decision analyses suggest that, contrary to American Thoracic Society guidelines, asymptomatic skin test reactors under age 35 years with normal chest roentgenograms and no predisposing conditions to tuberculosis reactivation will not benefit from isoniazid chemopreventive therapy. Repeated analysis of these studies reveals that calculated life expectancy depends on estimates of the probability of certain chance outcomes. If the isoniazid-related hepatitis case-fatality rate is below 1%, isoniazid chemopreventive therapy appears to be beneficial. A literature review suggests that this rate is indeed this low. If the tuberculosis case-fatality rate is above 6.7%, also supported by the literature, the advantages of isoniazid therapy are further increased. This repeated analysis should reassure physicians that isoniazid chemoprophylaxis for tuberculin skin test reactors is beneficial to the individual and consonant with public health policies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_12816", "title": "[Outbreak of pulmonary tuberculosis in which tuberculosis developed from QuantiFERON-TB second generation (QFT-2G) test negative persons].", "score": 0.01568844592100406, "content": "To clarify the points to be considered when QFT-2G tests are used in the contacts examination by public health center. We analyzed the results of contacts examination on 43 workplace colleagues (39 y/o and younger) of a pulmonary tuberculosis patient (bII2, Gaffky 9, cough for 1.5 months). After two months of the last contact with the index case, tuberculin skin tests, QFT-2G tests and chest X-rays were undertaken. After 6 months, chest X-rays were taken, and after 9 months, QFT-2G tests and chest CT scans were also undertaken. The tuberculin skin tests after two months showed a bimodal distribution, and 10 were QFT-2G positive and 2 showed doubtful reaction. The latter 12 persons underwent chemoprophylaxis. After 6 months, however, out of 31 QFT-2G negative persons, 2 developed pulmonary tuberculosis. Moreover, after 9 months, chest CT scans revealed 5 pulmonary tuberculosis patients. Three out of 7 new patients showed positive or doubtful reactions in QFT-2G tests undertaken after 9 months. The sensitivity of QFT-2G tests is reported to be 80 to 90%, and the possibility of false negative is not negligible. We propose measures for public health center to conduct the contacts examination as follows; In case of high QFT-2G positive (including doubtful reaction) rate and/or a bimodal distribution of tuberculin skin test result, many infected persons are likely to be included in the group; and the following measures are recommended; 1) Necessity of chemoprophylaxis should be judged considering both tuberculin skin test results and the situation of contact with the index case, and not only by QFT-2G test results. 2) QFT-2G negative persons also need to be followed with chest X-rays." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0332_4363", "title": "Detection of pulmonary tuberculosis in patients with a normal chest radiograph.", "score": 0.01513975155279503, "content": "To describe the early symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) when the chest radiograph (CXR) is normal. Centralized, provincial TB control program. Twenty-five patients with culture-positive pulmonary TB and a normal CXR were identified from a review of 518 consecutive patients with culture-positive pulmonary TB in the province of Saskatchewan from January 1, 1988 to March 31, 1997. Patients with abnormal CXRs at the time of diagnosis were excluded from the analysis. Twenty-three of the 25 patients (92%) were symptomatic at the time of diagnosis, with cough/sputum (76%) being reported most commonly. Eleven patients were identified because of contact tracing from cases of infectious pulmonary TB, while the other 14 patients were identified because of an investigation of symptoms. Twenty-four patients (96%) exhibited one or more symptoms of cough for &gt; 1 month, fever for &gt; 1 week, or skin-test conversion after contact with infectious TB. The sputum smear of only one patient was positive. Two patients were pregnant at the time of diagnosis, one patient was HIV-positive, and one patient demonstrated isoniazid-resistant organisms on sensitivity testing. Five patients were diagnosed as having primary TB associated with Mantoux skin-test conversion. The incidence of culture-positive pulmonary TB with a normal chest radiograph was &lt; 1% in the period from 1988 to 1989 and steadily increased to 10% in the period from 1996 to 1997. Culture-positive pulmonary TB with a normal CXR is not uncommon, and the incidence of this presentation is increasing. Patients with this presentation of TB are typically symptomatic and/or are detected by contact tracing to infectious cases of pulmonary TB. The results suggest that patients presenting with a cough for &gt; 1 month, with a fever for &gt; 1 week, or with documented skin-test conversion &lt; 2 years after known exposure to infectious TB should have sputum submitted for a Mycobacterium tuberculosis smear and culture despite a normal CXR." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0255_4077", "title": "Underutilization of isoniazid chemoprophylaxis in tuberculosis contacts 50 years of age and older. A prospective analysis.", "score": 0.014085179526355997, "content": "To examine the utilization of chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis in certain high-risk groups, ie, infected contacts 50 years and older, and to study the safety of isoniazid (INH) preventive therapy in such persons. From 1987 to 1992, two-part questionnaires were sent to each of the regional health offices within the 95 counties of Tennessee to document cases of purified protein derivative skin test conversion or reaction among close contacts of new patients with active tuberculosis. Infected contacts 50 years and older were included in the study. Data collected from these questionnaires were grouped according to age, sex, race, liver functions test (LFT), and whether chemotherapy was completed. Reasons for early discontinuation were also recorded. High values of LFTs were classified in the various groups as either twofold elevation or greater than threefold elevation. Of the 829 responses for persons fitting the criteria for INH chemoprophylaxis, 415 began treatment; 249 (60%) of those completed the full course (9 months) and 166 stopped prematurely. Of the 414 persons (50%) who did not start preventive therapy, 233 (56.5%) respondents listed age as the reason. No patients started on a regimen of therapy developed hepatitis. Of those completing therapy, 6.9% had a rise in liver enzyme values but remained asymptomatic for hepatitis. Liver enzyme level elevation was significantly higher among patients who discontinued therapy, particularly white women, than those who completed the full course. Asymptomatic liver enzyme level elevation (&gt; or = 3 times normal value), private practitioners' preferences, and patients arbitrarily stopping therapy were the leading reasons for incomplete INH preventive therapy. We conclude that 30% of tuberculosis-infected contacts deserving chemoprophylaxis were actually provided the full benefit of INH preventive therapy, indicating underutilization of this prevention strategy, particularly in contacts older than 50 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_13610", "title": "[A case of isoniazid-resistant tuberculosis diagnosed during chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid].", "score": 0.013793725207356652, "content": "A 15-year-old man, who was a classmate with the index case of a large outbreak of tuberculosis in a junior high school in Kochi city, showed strongly positive reaction to tuberculin skin test in March 1999. After taking a chest X-ray film, which showed no abnormal finding, chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid was started in April 1999. He was compliant with therapy, and had no symptom until July 1999, when he was checked again by chest X-ray and abnormal finding was suspected. He visited a hospital for further examinations, and chest X-ray revealed cavitary lesion and sputum smears showed acid-fast baccili. Cultures of the sputum was positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and drug susceptibility tests revealed that the organism was resistant to isoniazid (5 micrograms/ml) and sensitive to RFP, SM, and EB. RFLP analysis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis isolated from the index-case patient and the present patient demonstrated an identical pattern, although the organism obtained from the index-case patient was sensitive to isoniazid, RFP, SM, and EB. Mycobacterium tuberculosis isolated from other 7 patients in the same outbreak showed an identical pattern in RFLP analysis and were also sensitive to isoniazid. The present patient was a close contact with the highly infectious index-case patient. The patient was estimated to be infected around September to October, 1998, and chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid was started in April 1999, when the tubercle baccili had grown considerably, but not enough to show radiographic abnormality. These two factors might be attributable to rarely seen development of isoniazid resistance in this case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_16353", "title": "[The current situation and treatment of childhood tuberculosis].", "score": 0.012270386736296242, "content": "We performed a retrospective analysis of 394 patients who were treated for active tuberculosis (TB) at our hospital from 1976 to 1997. The diagnosis criteria for establishing TB were history of direct contact with TB patients, tuberculin skin test reactivity, positive bacteriology and radiographic findings compatible with TB. There were 192 males and 202 females (age range 1 month to 18 years of age, mean 6.3 years of age). Fifty-four percent of the cases were under 5 years of age. Primary pulmonary TB was presented in 200, post primary pulmonary TB in 97, pleural effusion in 53, endbronchial TB in 4, TB meningitis (TBM) in 28, miliary TB in 28 and other extra-pulmonary TB in 31. A history of contact with the patients was obtained in 72.8% of cases. Two hundred and thirty (58.4%) had received BCG, 134 (34%) no BCG, 30 (7.6%) were unclear. Especially, under 5 years of age, only 29 (13.6%) had received BCG. TBM is not disappeared in Japan and there were 28 cases with TBM. Fifteen patients out of them recovered completely, 8 patients recovered with severe neurological sequelae which included mental retardation, motor weakness, seizures and hydrocephalus and 5 patients died. Twenty-six had no BCG. Particularly in 1990s, we had experienced 4 dead TBM cases, 1 multi-drug resistant (MDR) TBM case and 1 TBM case due to nosocomial infection. Children with TBM should received 12-month regimen using initial daily treatment with isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and streptmycin, followed by isoniazid and rifampin administered daily. Pulmonary TB in children is successfully treated with 6-month standard chemotherapy using isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide daily for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin daily for 4 months. In order to promote TB control and eliminate childhood TB, especially in infants, the following is necessary; 1) early detection and treatment of adult TB patients, source of infection, 2) prompt and appropriate contact examination and chemoprophylaxis, 3) BCG vaccination during early infancy, 4) protection from MDR TB are most important in Japan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0054_8786", "title": "[Study on familial attacks of pulmonary tuberculosis in Sapporo City].", "score": 0.012038205081996756, "content": "We studied familial attacks of pulmonary tuberculosis in Sapporo City from 1987 to 1990. There were 146 sources of infection. Two hundred twenty three were infected secondly. Chemotherapy was given to the 75 out of 223 patients. Chemoprophylaxis was given to the total of 148 children. The average ages of the sources, those who were infected secondly and those who had given chemoprophylaxis were 44.8, 32.2 and 7.7 years of age respectively. The ratio of male vs female was 1:0.4 among the sources. The main routes of transmission of this disease were from husbands to wives, from fathers to children, and from grandfathers to grandchildren. The patients who did not have health examination in the preceding one year of their present diagnoses had more severe state of disease as well as higher Gaffky degrees and were treated for more than one year. The infectious patients accounted for more than 50% of the active pulmonary tuberculosis in Sapporo City in 1990. Tuberculin skin test has been performed in almost cases of family examination and the period of chemoprophylaxis has been standardized along the guideline for the chemoprophylaxis by Japan Tuberculosis Association and the Ministry of Health and Welfare. Family and relatives of the patient who expectorates tuberculosis bacilli should take at least one examination annually. Younger people should take it more frequently and chemoprophylaxis should be given to the child whose reaction of Tuberculin skin test is strongly positive." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_96904", "title": "Heaf test", "score": 0.01119494540547172, "content": "The reading of the Heaf test was defined by a scale: Negative - No induration, maybe six minute puncture scars Grade 1 - four to six papules (also considered negative) Grade 2 - Confluent papules form indurated ring (positive) Grade 3 - Central filling to form disc (positive) Grade 4 - Disc >10 mm with or without blistering (strongly positive) Grades 1 and 2 could result from previous BCG or avian tuberculosis, rather than human TB infection. Children who were found to have a grade 3 or 4 reaction were referred for X-ray and follow-up. For interpretation of the test, see Tuberculosis diagnosis. Other tests The equivalent Mantoux test positive levels done with 10 TU (0.1 mL 100 TU/mL, 1:1000) are 0–4 mm induration (Heaf 0-1) 5–14 mm induration (Heaf 2) >15 mm induration (Heaf 3-4) The Mantoux test is preferred in the United States for the diagnosis of tuberculosis; multiple puncture tests, such as the Heaf test and Tine test, are not recommended. References" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_79613", "title": "Tuberculosis diagnosis", "score": 0.011181535517818704, "content": "Tuberculin skin test Two tests are available: the Mantoux and Heaf tests. Mantoux skin test The Mantoux skin test is used in the United States and is endorsed by the American Thoracic Society and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). If a person has had a history of a positive tuberculin skin test, another skin test is not needed. Heaf test The Heaf test was used in the United Kingdom until 2005, and is graded on a four-point scale. The Mantoux test is now used. The equivalent Mantoux test positive levels done with 10 TU (0.1 ml 100 TU/ml, 1:1000) are 0–4 mm induration (Heaf 0 to 1) 5–14 mm induration (Heaf 2) Greater than 15 mm induration (Heaf 3 to 5)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_38433", "title": "Latent tuberculosis", "score": 0.010906512116988237, "content": "The results of both tests are roughly equivalent as follows: Heaf grade 0 & 1 ~ Mantoux less than 5 mm; Heaf grade 2 ~ Mantoux 5–14 mm; Heaf grade 3 & 4 ~ Mantoux 15 or greater Tuberculin conversion Tuberculin conversion is said to occur if a patient who has previously had a negative tuberculin skin test develops a positive tuberculin skin test at a later test. It indicates a change from negative to positive, and usually signifies a new infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_179063", "title": "Mantoux test", "score": 0.010781893004115226, "content": "Use of two-step testing is recommended for initial skin testing of adults who will be retested periodically (e.g., health care workers). This ensures any future positive tests can be interpreted as being caused by a new infection, rather than simply a reaction to an old infection. The first test is read 48–72 hours after injection. If the first test is positive, consider the person infected. If the first test is negative, give a second test one to three weeks after the first injection. The second test is read 48–72 hours after injection. If the second test is positive, consider the person infected in the distant past If the second test is negative, consider the person uninfected. A person who is diagnosed as \"infected in the distant past\" on two-step testing is called a \"tuberculin reactor\". The US recommendation that prior BCG vaccination be ignored results in almost universal false diagnosis of tuberculosis infection in people who have had BCG (mostly foreign nationals)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13447", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010650887573964497, "content": "It is estimated that about 2 billion people, or nearly one-third of the human population, have been infected with M. tuberculosis. Although only a small fraction of these infections will progress toward active disease, new active cases will continue to emerge from this pool of “latently” infected individuals. Unfortunately, there is no diagnostic test at present that can predict which individuals with LTBI will develop active TB. Treatment of selected persons with LTBI aims at preventing active disease. This intervention (also called preventive chemotherapy or chemoprophylaxis) is based on the results of a large number of randomized, placebo-controlled clinical trials demonstrating that a 6to 9-month course of isoniazid reduces the risk of active TB in infected people by up to 90%. Analysis of available data indicates that the optimal duration of treatment is ~9 months. In the absence of reinfection, the protective effect is believed to be lifelong. Clinical trials have shown that" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en113_6508", "title": "Health professional", "score": 0.010432468396540252, "content": "Recommended testing procedures The CDC recommends either a blood test, also known as an interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA), or a skin test, also known as a Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST). It is not the intention of this article to explore the protocol of carrying out a proper TB test. A TB blood test for baseline testing does not require two-step testing. If the skin test method is used to test HCP upon hire, then two-step testing should be used. A one-step test is not recommended. Two-step testing The CDC has outlined further specifics on recommended testing for several scenarios. In summary: Previous documented positive skin test (TST) then a further TST is not recommended Previous documented negative TST within 12 months before employment OR at least two documented negative TSTs ever then a single TST is recommended All other scenarios, with the exception of programs using blood tests, the recommended testing is a two-step TST" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0250_21512", "title": "Randomised trial of thiacetazone and rifampicin-containing regimens for pulmonary tuberculosis in HIV-infected Ugandans. The Makerere University-Case Western University Research Collaboration.", "score": 0.01043053103354611, "content": "Among HIV-positive patients who received treatment for active tuberculosis, thiacetazone has been associated with cutaneous hypersensitivity and recurrent tuberculosis. No controlled trials have investigated the safety and efficacy of thiacetazone-containing regimens compared with alternative regimens among patients with HIV. In a randomised clinical trial of 191 HIV-positive patients with active pulmonary tuberculosis, we examined the safety and short-term efficacy of isoniazid, rifampicin, and pyrazinamide for two months followed by isoniazid and rifampicin for seven months (RHZ) compared with streptomycin, thiacetazone, and isoniazid for two months followed by thiacetazone and isoniazid for ten months (STH). Between May, 1990, and September, 1991, 191 HIV-positive adult Ugandan patients with acid-fast bacilli sputum smear-positive pulmonary tuberculosis (93% confirmed by culture) received either STH or RHZ. Subjects had a standard evaluation that included Mantoux skin test, complete blood count with differential white blood cell count, and chest radiography. After starting therapy, subjects were followed-up over one year for three outcomes: complications of anti-tuberculosis therapy, early sterilisation of cultures, and survival. Of 191 eligible subjects, 90 received STH and 101 received RHZ. The overall one-year survival was similar for STH and RHZ (65% vs 72%), but when controlled for baseline differences in Mantoux reaction size and absolute lymphocyte count, the relative risk of death for STH compared with RHZ was 1.57 (95% CI 1.0-2.48). Overall, 12 adverse drug reactions occurred in the STH arm (18.2 reactions per 100 person years [PYO]) compared with one in the RHZ arm (1.6 reactions per 100 PYO) for a relative risk of 11.7 (95% CI 1.52-90.0). 10 cutaneous reactions occurred in the STH arm (15.2 events per 100 PYO) compared with one event in the RHZ arm (1.6 events per 100 PYO) for a relative risk of 9.7 (95% CI: 1.24, 75.8). A greater proportion of RHZ patients compared with STH patients had sterilised their sputum within two months (74% vs 37%, p &lt; 0.001). In developing countries, rifampicin-containing regimens should be given, when possible, to HIV-positive patients to reduce drug toxicity and to prolong survival." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_38441", "title": "Latent tuberculosis", "score": 0.009917699760391707, "content": "The UK guidelines are formulated according to the Heaf test: In patients who have had BCG previously, latent TB is diagnosed if the Heaf test is grade 3 or 4 and have no signs or symptoms of active TB; if the Heaf test is grade 0 or 1, then the test is repeated. In patients who have not had BCG previously, latent TB is diagnosed if the Heaf test is grade 2, 3 or 4, and have no signs or symptoms of active TB. Repeat Heaf testing is not done in patients who have had BCG (because of the phenomenon of boosting). For details of tuberculin skin test interpretation, please refer to the BTS guidelines (references given below)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1080_2348", "title": "Low uptake of isoniazid window prophylaxis in patients exposed to a health-care worker with pulmonary tuberculosis in a paediatric ward.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A nurse on a paediatric multidisciplinary ward was diagnosed with smear-positive pulmonary tuberculosis. Children &lt;2 years old, immunocompromised, or &gt;40 h of contact (n = 173) were contact-traced. Children received clinical review, chest X-ray, tuberculin skin test (TST; &lt;5 years old) and/or an interferon-gamma release assay (Quantiferon TB-Gold, ≥5 years old). Infants &lt;6 months old or children &lt;5 years old screened &lt;2 months from exposure were recommended isoniazid window prophylaxis (WP) until a repeat TST at 6 months old or 8-10 weeks after the last exposure to the index case, respectively. Empiric treatment for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) was individually considered for immunocompromised patients. Of 173 children (135 immunocompetent, 38 immunocompromised), two were uncontactable, seven refused screening and two immunocompromised children excluded. Eight of 126 immunocompetent children were diagnosed with LTBI (initial TST positive n = 7, TST conversion n = 1); seven started isoniazid. Thirty-two of 36 immunocompetent children were recommended WP; 15 accepted (one non-compliant after 1 month). Six of seven immunocompromised children accepted empiric LTBI treatment due to severe immunosuppression/initial indeterminate Quantiferon TB-Gold result. Of 15 immunocompromised children offered WP, only five accepted. There was high acceptance of screening but low uptake of isoniazid WP in high-risk children exposed to pulmonary tuberculosis. Perception of exposure risk and chemoprophylaxis should be explored further." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_9426", "title": "Variability in the intradermal and in vitro lymphocyte responses to PPD in patients receiving isoniazid chemoprophylaxis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Much attention has been focused on problems related to the interpretation of the tuberculin (Tb) skin test in terms of the \"booster\" phenomenon observed with repeated skin testing. However, relatively little attention has been given to the problem of the interpretation of repeat Tb skin tests in patients who have been given isoniazid (INH) chemoprophylaxis. Sixteen female hospital workers who were receiving INH for asymptomatic recent conversion of their Tb skin test, and 1 male physician under treatment with INH and rifampin for active tuberculosis as a result of a patient exposure, were studied over a 1-yr period. Intradermal skin tests with 5 tuberculin units purified protein derivative (PPD) and assessment of in vitro lymphocyte proliferation and production of leukocyte inhibitory factor on exposure to PPD were performed on 4 occasions at 3-month intervals-3 during therapy and 1 after completion of therapy. Four of 10 patients tested on all occasions showed at least 1 negative Tb skin test. In 2 of 4, the reversions were not stable. Considerable variability was observed between results of skin tests and in vitro lymphocyte responses, and no one in vitro lymphocyte response to PPD was adequate to identify the presence of delayed hypersensitivity to PPD. On the basis of these data, it is concluded that the presence of a single negative PPD skin test during or shortly after the completion of INH chemoprophylaxis does not constitute sufficient evidence to conclude that a patient has had a stable skin test reversion. Confirmation of the loss of tuberculin reactivity requires the in vitro assessment of lymphocyte responses to PPD both in terms of proliferation and the production of a lymphokine(s)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0240_11731", "title": "The use of repeat skin tests to eliminate the booster phenomenon in serial tuberculin testing.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "During the early years of our annual tuberculosis skin testing program for hospital employees, we experienced conversion rates that were inordinately high. In an effort to eliminate the booster phenomenon in serial tuberculin testing as a contributing factor, a program of repeat skin testing performed within 7 to 28 days in new employees with less than 10-mm induration on initial skin testing was begun in 1978. Employees demonstrating a 6-mm increase in reaction size to a total induration of 10 mm or greater on repeat testing were classified as boosters. The booster rate for 1978 was 8.3%, and elimination of these employees from subsequent annual testing resulted in a decrease in the conversion rate from 8.7% in 1978 to 2.9% in 1979 (p less than 0.01). The rate of conversion was age-dependent in 1978, but this effect was absent in 1979 when the boosters were eliminated. On the basis of the results for the first 2 yr of our program, we concluded that repeat tuberculin skin testing is a practical approach to reduce falsely elevated conversion rates and can potentially reduce the number of persons exposed to the risk of isoniazid toxicity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_3455", "title": "Tuberculosis in neonates and infants: epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, and management issues.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Tuberculosis is one of the leading infectious causes of death and as such represents a major global health problem. Infants may develop congenital tuberculosis from an infectious mother or, most commonly, they may acquire postnatal disease by contact with an infectious adult source. Important epidemiologic, pathogenetic, and clinical data regarding the management of infantile disease are reviewed. Diagnostic evaluation includes tuberculin skin tests, chest radiography and other imaging studies, smears and cultures, examination of the cerebrospinal fluid, and polymerase chain reaction, as well as the more recent interferon-gamma assay. Pregnant women with a positive Mantoux skin test but normal chest x-ray should either start chemoprophylaxis during gestation or after delivery depending on the likelihood of being recently infected, their risk of progression to disease, as well as their clinical evidence of disease. Pregnant women with a positive Mantoux skin test and chest x-ray or symptoms indicative of active disease should be treated with non-teratogenic agents during gestation; all household contacts should also be screened. When tuberculosis is suspected around delivery, the mother should be assessed by chest x-ray and sputum smear; separation of mother and offspring is indicated only if the mother is non-adherent to medical treatment, needs to be hospitalized, or when drug-resistant tuberculosis is involved. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, treatment of latent infection is highly effective with isoniazid administration for 9 months. This regimen may be extended to 12 months for immunocompromised patients. When drug resistance is suspected, combination therapies, which usually consist of isoniazid with rifampin (rifampicin), are administered until the results of susceptibility tests become available. Organisms resistant to isoniazid only may be treated with rifampin alone for a total of 6-9 months. All infants with tuberculosis disease should be started on four agents (isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol or streptomycin) until drug susceptibility is assessed. For susceptible intrathoracic tuberculosis, isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are administered for a total of 2 months, at which point pyrazinamide is withdrawn and the other two agents are continued for another 4-10 months depending on the severity of the disease. The same regimen may be applied in extrapulmonary tuberculosis with the exception of skeletal, miliary, and CNS disease, which require daily administration of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin for 1-2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin daily or twice weekly for another 10 months. When drug-resistant tuberculosis is suspected, a regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide plus either streptomycin or ethambutol should be initially prescribed, until the results of susceptibility tests become available. HIV-seropositive infants with pulmonary tuberculosis should receive isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol or an aminoglycoside for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin for a total of at least 12 months. Apart from conventional antimycobacterial agents, novel therapeutic modalities, which stimulate the host immune system such as interleukin-2 (IL-2), IL-12, interferon-gamma, and tumor necrosis factor antagonists have been tested with promising results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0214_773", "title": "Ineffectiveness of annual chest roentgenograms in tuberculin skin test-positive hospital employees.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Annual routine chest x-ray examinations have been recommended for many years for tuberculin skin test-positive hospital employees who have not received chemoprophylaxis. To examine the case-finding effectiveness of this policy in a university teaching hospital, employee health records covering an 18-year period were reviewed. Pulmonary tuberculosis was diagnosed in four employees during that time period. None of the patients were identified through the routine annual chest x-ray examination. In the study institution the policy requiring routine annual chest x-ray examinations for tuberculin-positive hospital employees who had not received preventive therapy was rescinded. Currently, the first chest x-ray examination is required at the time of skin test conversion, the second 1 year after conversion, and the third 2 years after conversion. Health teaching and counseling regarding the symptoms of tuberculosis have been initiated for tuberculin-positive hospital employees." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0478_14508", "title": "[Minor outbreak of Tuberculosis infection in a junior high school--infection from a preventable case].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A second-year junior high school student (14 years old) was diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis. She was a member of the volleyball club in the school. She complained a high fever of 39 degrees at first on September 13, 2001. She visited a local physician and was administered medicine for a cold. On September 18, she was seen again for cough and fever, and informed the physician that her father was under treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis since June 2000. As a result, she was examined by chest X-ray, and was diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis with moderately positive smear and she was referred to hospital \"N\" where she was admitted on the next day. Three days after admission, a smear specimen of her sputum was heavily positive for tuberculosis bacilli. She had not been given any preventive chemotherapy when her father was diagnosed with TB because the results of her tuberculin skin test performed two months after her father's onset did not meet the criteria for preventive chemotherapy. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) was carried out with 2 strains of tuberculosis bacillus isolated from her and her father, and the RFLP pattern of both strains was same. Thus, it can be concluded that the patient was infected from her father and developed pulmonary tuberculosis. A contact survey was subsequently carried out on October 4, 2001 for 107 students and 20 teachers at the school. None of the subjects examined showed any abnormalities on their chest X-ray. A tuberculin skin test survey of 105 students and one teacher was also carried out on November 12, 2001, about 2 months after the final contact. The diameter of skin reactions revealed a monomodal distribution pattern in subjects. The results of the present tuberculin skin test were verified with respect to the degree of contact and last tuberculin test in routine health examination at the school. Four students who had close contact with the patient evidently and showed a strong positive skin reaction of more than 30 mm in diameter in the present tuberculin skin test, accompanied by enhanced reaction of more than 20 mm compared with the last tuberculin skin test, were administered preventive chemotherapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0317_14250", "title": "Should we take a history of prior treatment, and check sputum status at 2-3 months when treating patients for tuberculosis?", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pinetown, South Africa (1975-1983). To determine the value of previous treatment history and sputum smear examination at 2-3 months in predicting treatment failure and relapse in tuberculosis patients treated with four drugs given twice weekly for six months under direct observation. Four cohort studies among 562 ambulant adults with culture positive pulmonary tuberculosis, designed to test the effectiveness of isoniazid 600-900 mg, rifampicin 600 mg, pyrazinamide 2-3 g, and streptomycin 1-2 g, given twice weekly. The same drug regimen was given to all patients irrespective of previous treatment history. Therapy was not changed if smears remained positive at 2-3 months. Positive predictive values of a history of previous treatment for a positive smear at 2-3 months (18.3%), treatment failure (5.2%), and relapse (9.4%) were poor. Although patients with positive smears at 2-3 months were more likely to fail therapy than patients with negative smears (relative risk=4.5, 95% Confidence Interval [CI]: 1.6-12.8), positive predictive value for treatment failure was only 12.5%. Although relapse was more frequent in patients with positive smears than those with negative smears (9.7% vs 6.2%; P=0.4), most patients who relapsed had been smear negative at 2-3 months (18/21). A four-drug rifampicin-containing regimen can safely be given twice weekly under direct observation to both new and retreatment cases, and the 2-3 month smear examination can safely be omitted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0406_21217", "title": "[The significance of tuberculin skin test in the investigation of mass outbreak of tuberculosis in schools].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A high school teacher was diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis. He was 27 years old and taught bookkeeping to the 1st year grade students in classes 3 and 6, the 2nd year grade students in classes 4 and 5. He was also the assistant teacher in charge of class 1 of the 3rd year grade students and the adviser of the badminton club in the school. He first noticed a slight cough in November 1999, and visited his physician. On December 24, he visited again for a moderate cough, fever and chill and was administered medicine and drip infusion for a cold. In the middle of January 2000, he visited another physician for a severe cough. He was referred to hospital N and was admitted due to an abnormal shadow on chest X-ray films. The result of sputum smear examination was positive for AFB, Gaffky 8. Subsequent contacts examination was conducted for 153 students and 63 teachers of the school. A tuberculin skin test survey of 153 students was also carried out, in February 2000. The diameter of erythema revealed a monomodal distribution pattern in students, however, one student was diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis by the chest X-ray examination, and 27 (18%) showed erythema 40 mm and larger. They were indicated chemoprophylaxis as they were most likely newly infected in this epidemic. After 2 months, a second contact examination was conducted for the students (excluding those who underwent chemoprophylaxis or had tuberculosis) and all teachers. Based on chest X-ray examination, two new students and one teacher were diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis, and another one student was diagnosed as tuberculous pleurisy. Comparing the erythema size distribution in the first and second tuberculin tests, the distribution of the latter markedly shifted to right, namely became much larger than the former. It was assumed that students in whom the difference in erythema diameter was larger than 17 mm between the first and second examinations had been newly infected in this epidemic. Chemoprophylaxis was indicated for 45 students and 3 teachers. After 6 months, a third contact examination was conducted for the students and teachers (excluding those who underwent chemoprophylaxis or had tuberculosis). After a year, one teacher was diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis by the fourth contact examination (chest X-ray). Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis was carried out with 2 strains of M. tuberculosis isolated from these patients (the index case and the second teacher patient), and the RFLP pattern of 2 patients was same." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0007_2489", "title": "[Chemotherapy of the source and the risk of infection in home contacts].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "An attack treatment with 3 drugs during 4-6 months and a consolidation treatment with 2 drugs then INH was applied in 595 cases detected between July 1, 1968 and June 30, 1972, i.e. 264 group A (positive), 200 group B (negative cultures) and 131 group C (pleuretics). The contacts had been in close contact with the source for at least three months before establishing the diagnosis; 549 had been vaccinated at birth with BCG and 209 revaccinated; 413 had undergone chemoprophylaxis with INH. The control group comprised 1008 subjects, the mean age of the groups being very close; they were followed up for 2 years and 1 month and 2 years and 7 months. Testing was done every year with 1 u PPD IC 65. The contacts were controlled annually by radiophotography and X-ray and the controls only in case of shifting of the test. Among the contacts there were 44 conversions in the subjects with an initial tuberculin reaction of 0-5 mm and 4 in those with an initial tuberculin reaction of 6-9 mm, representing 15.1% (group A 27.7%, group B 9,8%, group C 10.5%). Three months after the initiation of chemotherapy the proportion of conversions in the three groups (group A 12.3%, group B 5.9%, group C 10.5%) was equal to that of the controls (8.8%). The next year there were 11.2% conversions among the contracts (group A 11.4%, group B 9.6% and C 17.7%) as against 11.9% among the controls. In the first year 8.3% of the contacts contracted tuberculosis (A 15.6%, B 2.4%, C 4.0%) and 0.32% of the controls. The next year 2.8% of the contacts fell ill (A 4.3%, B 2%, C 0%) and 0.5% of the controls. Among group A contacts aged 0 to 6 years there were 31.7% conversions and 30.7% cases of tuberculosis in the first year, and 7.1% and 1.8% respectively in the following year. Group B and C presented 10.9% conversions and 6% cases of disease in the first year, and no case of tuberculosis in the second year. Chemotherapy reduced conversions and sickness in this group three months after the diagnosis was established." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0603_23314", "title": "Erythema induratum in a Kenyan child.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 10-year-old Kenyan girl presented with a 9-month history of a persistent, painful eruption of multiple, tender, non-ulcerated, pigmented nodules involving the calves, shins and soles of the feet. She had recurring fevers particularly at night, lethargy, weight loss and a persistent non-productive cough. The Mantoux test was positive. Chest X-ray revealed mild peribronchial thickening in the hilar region but no evidence of hilar lymphadenopathy, consolidation and/or cavitation suggestive of tuberculosis. Sputum and gastric washings were negative for acid-fast bacilli. Histology on a skin biopsy showed a granulomatous panniculitis with no histological evidence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, consistent with erythema induratum. In view of her constitutional symptoms, chronic non-productive cough and positive Mantoux test, she was diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis despite the non-specific chest X-ray and negative bacteriology. Anti-tuberculous therapy was initiated with pyrazinamide, isoniazid and rifampicin for 2 months followed by dual therapy with isoniazid and rifampicin for a further 4 months. Her constitutional and respiratory symptoms and skin eruption cleared within 6 months with treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_17978", "title": "Tuberculin screening: cost-effectiveness analysis of various testing schedules.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Because there is no tuberculin screening schedule currently recommended for adults, we used a Markov process in a cost-effectiveness analysis to determine an optimal strategy. We simulated the prognosis of a cohort of black 20-year-olds to evaluate the effects of various screening schedules with intradermal tuberculin and administration of isoniazid prophylaxis to those with positive results. The schedule with the lowest cost-effectiveness ratio is a single screening at 50 years of age, which costs $41,672 per quality-adjusted life year (QALY) gained. The cost-effectiveness ratio is nearly the same for all schedules involving a single screening between 30 and 70 years of age. Repeated screening strategies are less cost effective. Sensitivity analysis shows that the range of acceptable screening strategies changes significantly under alternate assumptions about the mortality from isoniazid hepatitis. However, screening at 50 years of age remains nearly optimal under the alternatives considered. Altering the values of other parameters generally produced only small changes. Tuberculin screening at 50 years of age should be added to primary care preventive practices because the strategy is as cost effective as standard health interventions and is robust to alternative assumptions. If further research confirms the base case assumptions about isoniazid toxicity, consideration should be given to increasing screening to every 10 years, which would produce a larger health benefit, albeit at substantially higher cost." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0715_15854", "title": "[Development of cervical tuberculous lymphadenitis in a patient with Crohn's disease receiving infliximab despite of chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We herein report a case of a 41-year-old female with a 14-year history of Crohn's disease who had been treated with diet and mesalazine. Because of inadequate control, therapy with infliximab was planned. She had a positive result on the interferon-gamma release assay (QuantiFERON TB). After active tuberculosis was ruled out by chest x-ray and computed tomography, she was started on a six-month course of isoniazid 7 weeks prior to starting infliximab. After 10 doses of infliximab (15 months of therapy), she presented with pain of cervical lymphadenopathy. A biopsy of the lymph nodes revealed Langhans giant cells from granulomas and a positive result of polylmerase chain reaction for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The treatment with infliximab was discontinued and anti-tuberculosis therapy was started. Although treatment for latent tuberculosis infection lowers the risk of reactivation of tuberculosis due to tumor necrosis factor alpha-blockers, it cannot completely inactivate tuberculosis. Despite the completion of chemoprophylaxis, patients receiving such agents should be instructed to watch out for any symptoms associated with pulmonary and extrapulmonary tuberculosis such as fever, cough, malaise, body weight loss, night sweating and lymphadenopathy, and they should also be closely followed up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0512_5125", "title": "How soon does cutaneous tuberculosis respond to treatment? Implications for a therapeutic test of diagnosis.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "It is difficult to demonstrate Mycobacterium tuberculosis in smears or biopsies and to grow it in culture in cutaneous tuberculosis because most cases are paucibacillary. A therapeutic trial of antitubercular drugs is frequently used to confirm the diagnosis in difficult cases. Information is lacking on the response to antitubercular therapy in cutaneous tuberculosis; consequently there are no clear guidelines on when to expect a response and also when to abandon a therapeutic trial. We studied the records of 60 patients treated for cutaneous tuberculosis at our hospital to study the time course of the therapeutic response. All patients were treated with a short-course antitubercular regimen consisting of isoniazid 300 mg daily, rifampicin 450 mg daily, ethambutol 800 mg daily and pyrazinamide 1500 mg daily for 2 months followed by isoniazid and rifampicin in the same doses for 4 months. At follow-up visits, each patient was assessed by a dermatologist who recorded the presence or absence of clinical improvement in the skin lesions. Of the 60 patients seen, eight patients did not follow up after the initial consultation, 48 patients improved with treatment and four patients were classified as treatment failures. The timing of the first visit varied from 3 days to 15 months (median 27.5 days, mean 58.96 +/- 94.50) after initiation of treatment. Twenty-one patients were recorded to have improved within the first month of therapy. Twenty-seven patients who first reported more than 30 days after initiation of treatment were found to have improved. Four patients failed to respond during follow up ranging from 3 to 17 months. When a therapeutic trial is undertaken in cutaneous tuberculosis, 6 weeks of therapy with four drugs appears adequate to prove (or disprove) the diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1082_4681", "title": "Disseminated Tuberculosis in a Psoriasis Patient under Adalimumab Treatment despite the Chemoprophylaxis of Latent Tuberculosis: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Recently, biologic therapy has become a major advance in the management of moderate-to-severe psoriasis. Although the overall safety profile of biologics is favorable, primary infection or reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB) is the major concern in the setting of tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitor therapy. Therefore, the treatment of latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) before starting biologics is mandatory to prevent the reactivation of LTBI. A 27-year-old female was treated with adalimumab due to psoriasis. As latent TB was detected by the interferon-γ release assay, we started isoniazid treatment (300 mg/day) 3 weeks before starting adalimumab and maintained this for 6 months. Although the patient's psoriatic skin lesions improved, after 45 weeks of adalimumab therapy, she visited the emergency department because of fever and back pain for 2 weeks. Abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) and chest CT revealed multiple nodular lesions on both lungs, peritoneal wall, mesentery, and spleen, along with ascites. In the ascitic fluid, adenosine deaminase was increased to 96.4 U/L, and <iMycobacterium tuberculosis</i grew in an acid-fast bacilli culture. The patient was diagnosed with disseminated TB and treated with conventional TB medication with discontinuation of adalimumab. Five months after the completion of TB treatment, the ustekinumab, an interleukin (IL)-12/IL-23 inhibitor, was administered. Until now, her skin lesions are under excellent control without reactivation of TB for 9 months after starting ustekinumab." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0049_12643", "title": "Does a positive Heaf test reaction in Asian schoolchildren predict later breakdown of tuberculosis?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Some authorities advise giving prophylactic antituberculosis treatment to those with a grade 3 or 4 reaction to Heaf tests performed as part of the schools' BCG programme. This is not done in Leicestershire, which because of its large Asian population would require considerable resources to do so. A calculation of the \"breakdown\" rate, and thus the potential value of chemoprophylaxis, in these children would therefore be valuable. Lists of names of Asian children who had a grade 3 or 4 Heaf test reaction in 1982 and 1983 were compared with lists of notifications for the five years 1983 to 1987. Those who were on both lists were considered to have tuberculosis that had \"broken down.\" Of the 760 children with positive Heaf test reactions, only four were on the subsequent notification lists. The chest radiograph obtained because of the Heaf test result showed evidence of active tuberculosis in only three of these. Only one child had infection that \"broke down\" later. The benefit of chemoprophylaxis seems likely to be limited in these Asian children, most of whom had received BCG early in life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_2867", "title": "[Evaluation of screening for tuberculosis in a population of apprentices and high school children].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Taking into account the present epidemiological situation the health authorities of the Canton of Vaud, Switzerland, have decided to modify the strategy of tuberculosis prevention in children and adolescents by abandoning routine chest radiophotography while maintaining the tuberculin skin test. The present study focuses on the detection and follow-up of adolescents presenting with a positive tuberculin reaction at the first routine school health visit. As part of routine prophylactic school health measures, 753 boys and 1043 girls, aged 16 to 20, received 2 units of Danish tuberculin intradermally. 48 to 72 hours later, 100 subjects (5.6%) exhibited a pathological reaction and were sent to their doctors for further evaluation. 10% did not attend. Among the 90 remaining, the positive reaction to tuberculin test was not confirmed by the private physician in 48 (predictive value of the test: 47%). Among the 42 subjects for whom the reaction was confirmed, 39 had post-BCG vaccinal conversion and 3 spontaneous conversion. The prevalence of tuberculous infection was thus 2.3% (42/1796). Among the 42 positive subjects, only 18 (43%) were given preventive isoniazide treatment as recommended by the Association Suisse contre la Tuberculose et les Maladies Pulmonaires. Instruction on tuberculin testing and its interpretation must be improved, as must information regarding the prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1072_21217", "title": "An outbreak of pulmonary tuberculosis and a follow-up investigation of latent tuberculosis in a high school in an eastern city in China, 2016-2019.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "In October 2016, a senior high school student was diagnosed with sputum-smear positive [SS(+)] pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). We conducted an investigation of an outbreak in the school, including among students and teachers diagnosed with latent TB, who we followed until July 2019. We defined latent TB infection (LTBI) as a tuberculin skin test (TST) induration of 15mm or larger; probable TB as a chest radiograph indicative of TB plus productive cough/hemoptysis for at least 2 weeks, or TST induration of 15mm or larger; and confirmed TB as two or more positive sputum smears or one positive sputum smear plus a chest radiograph indicative of TB or culture positive with M. tuberculosis. We conducted mycobacterial interspersed repetitive unit-variable number tandem repeat (MIRU-VNTR) typing based on 24 loci in the isolates. Between October 2016 and July 2019, we identified 52 cases, including nine probable, six confirmed, and 37 LTBI cases. The index case-student had attended school continuously despite having TB symptoms for almost three months before being diagnosed with TB. We obtained three isolates from classmates of the index case in 2016; all had identical MIRU-VNTR alleles with the index case. The LTBI rate was lower among students (7.41%, 30/405) than among teachers (26.92%, 7/26) (rate ratio [RR] = 0.28, 95% confidential interval [CI]: 0.13-0.57). Among the 17 students who had latent TB and refused prophylaxis in October 2016, 23.53% (4/17) became probable/confirmed cases by July 2019. None of the six teachers who also refused prophylaxis became probable or confirmed cases. Of the 176 students who were TST(-) in October 2016, 1.70% (3/176) became probable/confirmed cases, and among the 20 teachers who were TST(-), 1 became a probable case. Delayed diagnosis of TB in the index patient may have contributed to the start of this outbreak; lack of post-exposure chemoprophylaxis facilitated spread of the outbreak. Post-exposure prophylaxis is strongly recommended for all TST-positive students; TST-negative students exposed to an SS(+) case should be followed up regularly so that prophylaxis can be started if LTBI is detected." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 232 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "text": "We are being presented with a case of eosinophilic esophagitis (adolescent male, with heartburn and dysphagia, and a history of atopic dermatitis). Of all the tests proposed to us, the least indicated in this case would be option 3." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.", "2": "Esophageal pHmetry of 24 hours.", "3": "Carbon 13 breath test for Helicobacter pylori.", "4": "Esophago-gastro-duodenal barium study.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1088_7066", "title": "A case of lymphocytic esophagitis in a woman with multiple allergies.", "score": 0.015395731436193865, "content": "Lymphocytic esophagitis is a newly recognized entity of unknown origin. Dysphagia is defined as difficulty swallowing and represents a common symptom in the general population with a prevalence of approximately 20%. Chronic inflammation of the esophageal wall may manifest itself clinically and endoscopically, mimicking inflammation of another origin. However, little is known about the pathogenesis of the disease, as patients are seldom suspected and rarely diagnosed with lymphocytic esophagitis. Here, we present a rare case of lymphocytic esophagitis in a patient with multiple allergies and suspected eosinophilic esophagitis. A 28-year-old woman with polyvalent sensitization to food and inhalant allergens presented with intermittent dysphagia, a sensation of a foreign body in the throat, itchiness of the oral cavity after ingesting certain foods, heartburn, and prolonged chewing time. A skin prick test showed positive results for birch-tree, alder, hazel, and rye pollen, as well as house dust mites. Apart from obesity (BMI 30 kg/m<sup2</sup), multiple pustules and excoriations on the skin, her physical examination was insignificant. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) was performed revealing full-length but discrete trachealization of the esophagus. A barium swallow test showed slowing of esophageal peristalsis in the recumbent position. No esophageal pathology was observed. A histopathological analysis of mucosal samples revealed slight hyperplasia of the basal layer of the esophagus, and the stomach showed changes typical of chronic gastritis. In summary, this clinical case illustrates that lymphocytic esophagitis, as a newly recognized entity, should be considered in the differential diagnosis of chronic dysphagia. Additionally, when treating allergic patients, clinicians should be aware that lymphocytic esophagitis, distinct from eosinophilic esophagitis, should be considered in the diagnosis of patients with atopy and upper gastrointestinal symptoms." }, { "id": "article-21181_9", "title": "Eosinophilic Esophagitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01264939634775223, "content": "History is very important when considering a diagnosis of EoE as there are many overlapping symptoms of EoE that coincide with gastroesophageal reflux (GERD). The most common manifestation in adults is dysphagia to solid food. An emergency department visit due to food impaction has been the most common presenting symptom in patients with EoE. Other symptoms such as chest pain or heartburn are common as well. Pediatric patients can present with nausea, vomiting, food intolerance, abdominal pain, and weight loss. A history of various atopic conditions such as asthma, atopic dermatitis, seasonal allergy, food allergy, allergic rhinitis, and eczema may be present as well. [2] A physical exam is less useful than the history in making the diagnosis of EoE. The most common finding is tenderness to palpation of the abdomen without signs of peritonitis." }, { "id": "article-22859_6", "title": "Hiatal Hernia -- History and Physical", "score": 0.012269771000710498, "content": "The typical presentation leading to an evaluation for a hiatal hernia is gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Patients typically complain of heartburn and sometimes regurgitation. While heartburn is the most common complaint, some patients will present with extra-esophageal symptoms such as a chronic cough or asthma. The presentation of regurgitation or extra-esophageal symptoms typically is a sign of disease progression. However, not all patients with regurgitation have GERD, and it is important to note if the regurgitated food is digested or undigested." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_20698", "title": "[Etiopathogenetic factors of esophagitis in patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease].", "score": 0.01092880978865406, "content": "Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is one of the most common disorders of the gastrointestinal tract. Reflux oesophagitis is observed in about 30-50% of GERD patients. Factors leading to development of mucosal damage remain still unclear. This study aimed at determinating of possible etiopathological factors in the development of oesophagitis in GERD patients. 60 consecutive patients with erosive oesophagitis and 60 consecutive patients with reflux disorder were included in the study. All patients had been suffering from both at least two episodes of typical reflux symptoms in the last week and for a minimum of three months. The accurate history with a focus on life style was taken. The patients underwent mandatory endoscopy with the assessment of oesophagitis (according to Los Angeles classification), presence of hiatal hernia, macroscopical changes in upper GI tract and presence of Helicobacter pylori. Subsequently patients underwent 24-hour pH-monitoring and oesophageal clearance test. No significant differences were noticed in the mean age, sex, life style, disease's duration. In the patients with oesophagitis hiatal hernia was observed more frequently and the infection of H. pylori was less frequently observed. The results of pH-metry showed that the degree of esophagitis correlated only with the number of long-lasting reflux episodes, duration of the time with pH lower than 4.0 and esophageal clearance time. In patients with GERD both hiatal hernia and prolonged esophageal clearance time increase number of long-lasting reflux episodes and in consequence lead to the damage of oesophageal mucosa." }, { "id": "article-22859_7", "title": "Hiatal Hernia -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010411045152005756, "content": "Undigested food may represent another pathology such as achalasia or a diverticulum. Dysphagia is another problem seen with advanced disease. This is typically secondary to a mechanical obstruction. When this is encountered, it could represent additional pathology such as a peptic stricture, tumor, diverticula, or primary motor disorder. Physical examination in patients with a hiatal hernia and GERD rarely helps confirm the diagnosis. The presence of abnormal supraclavicular lymph nodes in patients with heartburn and dysphasia may suggest esophageal or gastric cancer and is an important part of the evaluation. [4] [5]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_101714", "title": "Esophageal motility disorder", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Types Dysphagia could be for solid only or for solid and liquid. Solid dysphagia is due to obstruction such as esophageal cancer, esophageal web, or stricture. Solid plus liquid dysphagia is due to esophageal motility disorder (or dysmotility) either in the upper esophagus (myasthenia gravis, stroke, or dermatomyositis) or lower esophagus (systemic sclerosis, CREST syndrome, or achalasia). The Most common dysphagia is Achalasia which is caused by degeneration of the nerves in the esophagus. This causes the muscles to stop working and prevents the valve at the bottom of the esophagus from being able to open properly. If there is a food allergy causing an EMD, then physicians recommend an elimination diet. If this fails, then physicians will prescribe special types of Medication to help resolve this problem. Diagnostics Testing to diagnose an EMD include: Barium Esophagography, Upper Endoscopy, and Esophageal Manometry. Treatments" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_46773", "title": "Gerd Heidemann", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Gerd Heidemann (born 4 December 1931) is a German journalist best known for his role in the publication of purported Hitler Diaries that were subsequently proved to be forgeries. In the 1970s, Heidemann bought the yacht Carin II, which had belonged to Hermann Göring, met his daughter Edda Göring and had an affair with her which lasted for five years. They entertained on the yacht and their guests included two Second World War generals, Karl Wolff and Wilhelm Mohnke." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_81614", "title": "Upper gastrointestinal series", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Medical uses Barium X-ray examinations are useful tools for the study of appearance and function of the parts of the gastrointestinal tract. They are used to diagnose and monitor esophageal reflux, dysphagia, hiatus hernia, strictures, diverticula, pyloric stenosis, gastritis, enteritis, volvulus, varices, ulcers, tumors, and gastrointestinal dysmotility, as well as to detect foreign bodies. Although barium X-ray examinations are increasingly being replaced by more modern techniques, such as computer tomography, magnetic resonance imaging, ultrasound imaging, endoscopy and capsule endoscopy, barium contrast imaging remains in common use because it offers the advantages of greater affordability, wider availability, and better resolution in assessing superficial mucosal lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_5015", "title": "[Gastroesophageal reflux in infants: ultrasonographic reading of pHmetry].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "pH monitoring of the distal esophagus has proved both sensitive and specific in the detection of reflux but has several limitations due to changes over time in esophageal pH and possibility of alkaline reflux. Simultaneous ultrasonographic monitoring can be helpful when interpreting the results. One thousand infants (80% under 1 year of age) were examined: 500 suffered from vomiting (310 patients), life-threatening events (65 patients) or repeated respiratory diseases (125 patients). Five hundred infants were controls (320 asymptomatic and 180 sibs of patients with SIDS). pHmonitoring and ultrasonography were performed before and after ingestion of milk by vomiting patients and after administration of orange juice in the other symptomatic patients. Control patients were given milk when asymptomatic or orange juice when they belonged to a SIDS sibship. Ultrasonography permitted to interpret the different phases of the pH curves according to the age of patients, the meals and their nature, the events associated with temporary increase in abdominal pressure, the gravity. pH monitoring was able to recognize 1589 acid reflux but failed to recognize 2091 reflux episodes. While pHmonitoring is helpful to demonstrate a relationship between the reflux and such events as apnea, bradycardia, cough, ultrasonography defines a risk based on specificity of reflux and laryngeal or esophageal dysfunction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0526_21012", "title": "Evaluation of chronic gastrointestinal symptoms following Persian Gulf War exposure.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "This was a prospective study performed in a Department of Veterans Affairs Medical Center. The aim of this study was to use endoscopic and histological examinations to determine the potential diagnostic origins of chronic gastrointestinal symptoms among patients who were part of the deployment of troops to the Persian Gulf after August 1990. Twenty-four (8%) male patients (mean age, 42 years) of 308 patients in the Persian Gulf War Registry agreed to undergo endoscopic examination of chronic symptoms, including heartburn (29%), dyspepsia (33%), dysphagia (8%), diarrhea (63%), Hemoccult-positive stool (21%), and rectal bleeding (17%). There were 17 upper endoscopies, 18 colonoscopies, and 4 flexible sigmoidoscopies performed, all with biopsies. Five (33%) of 15 patients had positive serological findings for Helicobacter pylori. With upper endoscopy, major findings included esophagitis (12%), Schatzki's ring (12%), hiatal hernia (47%), antral erythema (59%), and duodenal erythema (29%). With lower endoscopy, major findings included ileitis (5%), lymphoid hyperplasia (9%), polyps (27%), diverticulosis (23%), and hemorrhoids (23%). Major histopathological findings included microscopic esophagitis (24%), gastritis with H. pylori (35%), gastritis without H. pylori (18%), Crohn's disease (5%), tubular adenoma (5%), hyperplastic polyps (18%), and melanosis coli (5%). Most patients with chronic heartburn or dyspepsia have evidence of esophagitis or H. pylori. Individuals with these chronic symptoms should undergo evaluation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0315_5618", "title": "[Our experience with pediatric pH-metry].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The authors present their experience of pH monitoring in children performed in patients in the Pediatric Division selected on the basis of the following criteria: endoscopic evidence of incontinent cardia with or without oesophagitis, presence of pyrosis/epigastralgia even in the absence of objective endoscopic findings, dry cough without bronchopulmonary findings, vomit with apparent endoscopic causes, presence of anti-helicobacter antibodies with clinical symptoms. The authors report their findings and discuss them in comparison to the literature. They conclude by affirming that pH monitoring is a well tolerated and easily performed test in children. It may provide indications and useful clarifications regarding a number of pathologies often over- or undervalued by the doctors in charge or parents, leading to the start of correct treatment with excellent clinical results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0500_5644", "title": "[History of the evolution of surgical treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The GERD has probably existed since the beginning of mankind but it took several millennia since any perception or knowledge of this disease started to evolve. Homo est quod est--the man is what he eats is an old Latin proverb and heartburn has been one of the most common documented symptoms in humans in the last two centuries. The term peptic esophagitis has been introduced in 1935, but the evolution of knowledge of pathogenesis, incidence, complications and way of treatment of GERD has been quite slow. In the last decade several new aspects of these problem have evolved and probably explained many unanswered questions of this very common and sometimes severe disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en135_11819", "title": "Esophageal stricture", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A benign esophageal stricture, or peptic stricture, is a narrowing or tightening of the esophagus that causes swallowing difficulties. Signs and symptoms Symptoms of esophageal strictures include heartburn, bitter or acid taste in the mouth, choking, coughing, shortness of breath, frequent burping or hiccups, pain or trouble swallowing, throwing up blood, or weight loss. Causes It can be caused by or associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease, esophagitis, a dysfunctional lower esophageal sphincter, disordered motility, lye ingestion, or a hiatal hernia. Strictures can form after esophageal surgery and other treatments such as laser therapy or photodynamic therapy. While the area heals, a scar forms, causing the tissue to pull and tighten, leading to difficulty in swallowing. Diagnosis It can be diagnosed with an X-ray while the patient swallows barium (called a barium study of the esophagus), by a computerized tomography scan, a biopsy, or by an endoscopy." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3047", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Discriminating functional and organic causes of indigestion man dates excluding certain historic and exam features. Odynophagia suggests esophageal infection. Dysphagia is concerning for a benign or malignant esophageal blockage. Other alarm features include unexplained weight loss, recurrent vomiting, occult or gross bleed ing, jaundice, palpable mass or adenopathy, and a family history of gastrointestinal neoplasm. Because indigestion is prevalent and most cases result from GERD or functional dyspepsia, a general principle is to perform only lim ited and directed diagnostic testing of selected individuals." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22453", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009450710108604845, "content": "EoE should be strongly considered in children and adults with dysphagia and esophageal food impactions. In preadolescent children, symptom presentations of EoE include chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and food aversion. Other symptoms in adults may include atypical chest pain and heartburn, particularly heartburn that is refractory to PPI therapy. An atopic history of food allergy, asthma, eczema, or allergic rhinitis is present in the majority of patients. Peripheral blood eosinophilia is demonstrable in up to 50% of patients, but the specificity of this finding is problematic in the setting of concomitant atopy. The characteristic endoscopic esophageal findings are loss of vascular markings (edema), multiple esophageal rings, longitudinally oriented furrows, and punctate exudate (Fig. 347-11). Histologic confirmation is made with the demonstration of esophageal mucosal eosinophilia (greatest density ±15 eosinophils per high-power field) (Fig. 347-12). Complications of EoE" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_110283", "title": "Hiatal hernia", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Obesity and age-related changes to the diaphragm are also general risk factors. Diagnosis The diagnosis of a hiatal hernia is typically made through an upper GI series, endoscopy, high resolution manometry, esophageal pH monitoring, and computed tomography (CT). Barium swallow as in upper GI series allows the size, location, stricture, stenosis of oesophagus to be seen. Besides, it can also evaluate the oesophageal movements. Endoscopy can analyse the eosophageal internal surface for erosions, ulcers, and tumours. Meanwhile, manometry can determine the integrity of eosophageal movements, and the presence of esophageal achalasia. pH testings allows the quantitative analysis of acid reflux episodes. CT scan is useful in diagnosing complications of hiatal hernia such as gastric volvulus, perforation, pneumoperitoneum, and pneumomediastinum. Classification Four types of esophageal hiatal hernia are identified:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0994_18511", "title": "Evaluation of upper gastrointestinal system in acromegaly.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Acromegaly causes multiple comorbidities, including gastrointestinal disorders. The present study evaluated the frequency of hiatal hernia and other upper gastrointestinal pathologies in patients with acromegaly, given that visceromegaly and reduced nitric oxide levels in acromegaly may impact diaphragm and lower esophageal sphincter function and thus possibly the development of hiatal hernia. Thirty-nine acromegaly patients followed our center for the previous 6months were recruited. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy was performed once in all patients to evaluate hiatal hernia, esophagitis, gastroduodenitis and ulcer. Twenty-three patients were male and 16 female. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy found hiatal hernia, esophagitis and gastroduodenitis or gastric ulcer in 3 (7.6%), 2 (1.7%) and 31 (79.4%) patients, respectively. Pathologic examination of gastric antrum biopsy found intestinal metaplasia in 12 (30.7%) patients, and Helicobacter pylori was positive in 13 (33.3%). There were no significant correlations between age, gender, disease duration or preoperative adenoma size on the one hand and hiatal hernia or other endoscopic findings on the other. Similarly, neither surgical success nor recurrence was associated with endoscopic findings. The study showed that prevalence of gastritis, duodenitis, peptic ulcer and intestinal metaplasia is higher and prevalence of hiatal hernia lower in acromegaly patients than in the healthy population. Various unknown disease-related pathophysiological conditions may play a role; there is a need for further studies." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3000", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00934550031466331, "content": "therapist, is the procedure of choice. Otolaryngoscopic and neurologic evaluation also can be important, depending on the circumstances. For suspected esophageal dysphagia, upper endoscopy is the single most useful test. Endoscopy allows better visualization of mucosal lesions than does barium radiography and also allows one to obtain mucosal biopsies. Endoscopic or histologic abnormalities are evident in the leading causes of esophageal dysphagia: Schatzki ring, gastroesophageal reflux disease and eosinophilic esophagitis. Furthermore, therapeutic intervention with esophageal dilation can be done as part of the procedure if it is deemed necessary. The emergence of eosinophilic esophagitis as a leading cause of dysphagia in both children and adults has led to the recommendation that esophageal mucosal biopsies be obtained routinely in the evaluation of unexplained dysphagia even if endoscopically identified esophageal mucosal lesions are absent. For cases of suspected esophageal" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0313_8873", "title": "Prevalence of Helicobacter pylori in respiratory physicians performing bronchoscopy: a comparison with gastroenterologists using the carbon 13 urea breath test.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The mode of transmission of Helicobacter pylori is unclear, but it has been shown that gastroenterologists are at a greater risk of acquiring the infection when performing endoscopy. The current study was designed to assess the risk H. pylori infection in respiratory physicians performing bronchoscopy compared to an at-risk group of gastroenterologists. We were interested in identifying whether the oral cavity is important in the transmission of H. pylori. Respiratory physicians and gastroenterologists in southern England and Wales were invited to participate in the study. Medical, personal, and professional details were recorded, and H. pylori status was established using a carbon 13 urea breath test. The study included 30 gastroenterologists and 30 respiratory physicians. The groups were similar for age (mean age, 46.2 years [SD 8.7] and 43.9 years [SD 8.5], respectively), number of years in practice (mean, 16.1 [6.8] and 13.2 [5.5], respectively), amount of Third-World travel, and glove and drug use (antacids, H2 antagonists, proton pump inhibitors, promotility agents, and bismuth). The prevalence of upper gastrointestinal symptoms (indigestion, heartburn, abdominal pain) and history of previous peptic ulcer or hiatus hernia were similar for both groups. Fifteen of thirty gastroenterologists and three of thirty respiratory physicians had positive breath tests (chi square, p &lt; .001, 1 df). There was no relation between age and H. pylori status. Within the group of gastroenterologists, performance of endoscopy without gloves for longer than 7 years was associated with an increased prevalence of infection (&gt; 7 years, 11 of 15 breath-test-positive; &lt; 7 years, 4 of 15 breath-test-positive [chi square, p = .01, 1 df]). Gastroenterologists in this study appeared to be at risk of infection, whereas respiratory physicians are not. Gastroenterologists who wear gloves during endoscopy appear to be at lower risk of H. pylori infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en601_2911", "title": "Max Einhorn", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Einhorn's gastrograph was designed to record the movements of the stomach. The device consisted of a tube with a hollow platinum ball attached, a few electric cells, and a ticker. As the stomach moved the ball would come into contact with an electrical current which allowed gastric movements to be recorded. Selected publications The Gastrograph (1894) Diseases of the Intestines (1900) Practical Problems of Diet and Nutrition (1905) Diseases of the Stomach (1911) Lectures on Dietetics (1914) The Duodenal Tube and its Possibilities (1920) References 1862 births 1953 deaths 19th-century American inventors 19th-century American physicians 20th-century American inventors 20th-century American physicians American medical researchers American medical writers American gastroenterologists Dietitians Humboldt University of Berlin alumni People from Sokółka County Polish emigrants to the United States" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_117656", "title": "Helicobacter pylori", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Diagnosis Colonization with H. pylori is not a disease in itself, but a condition associated with a number of disorders of the upper gastrointestinal tract. Testing is recommended if peptic ulcer disease or low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma (MALToma) is present, after endoscopic resection of early gastric cancer, for first-degree relatives with gastric cancer, and in certain cases of dyspepsia. Several methods of testing exist, including invasive and noninvasive testing methods. Noninvasive tests for H. pylori infection may be suitable and include blood antibody tests, stool antigen tests, or the carbon urea breath test (in which the patient drinks 14C – or 13C-labelled urea, which the bacterium metabolizes, producing labelled carbon dioxide that can be detected in the breath). It is not known which non-invasive test is more accurate for diagnosing a H. pylori infection, and the clinical significance of the levels obtained with these tests is not clear." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en614_12897", "title": "Gerd Althoff", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Ottonian historiography" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_5365", "title": "Long-term clinical outcome of elderly patients with reflux esophagitis: a six-month to three-year follow-up study.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Although the prevalence of reflux esophagitis is known to increase with age, data on the long-term outcome of esophagitis in elderly patients are scarce. We sought to evaluate the clinical outcome of elderly patients with esophagitis 6 months to 3 years after diagnosis and to identify specific prognostic indicators of a poor outcome. This was a long-term (6 months to 3 years) follow-up study. Patients older than 65 years of age diagnosed as having reflux esophagitis healed after acute treatment (2 to 4 months) were included in the study. Clinical examinations and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy were performed every 6 months for the first year and annually thereafter. After healing, no therapy was prescribed; in the event of symptom recurrence, a maintenance therapy consisting either of H2 blockers or proton pump inhibitors (PPI) was prescribed. At baseline and during follow-up, the following clinical parameters were recorded: gender, age, the presence of symptoms (heartburn, acid regurgitation, epigastric/chest pain), type and dose of the maintenance therapy, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug use; gastric Helicobacter pylori infection, diagnosis of hiatal hernia, and/or Barrett's esophagus. The chi-square test, the Kaplan-Meier test, and Cox's proportional hazards regression analysis were used for statistical analyses. Included in the final analysis were 138 patients (M/F, 81/57; mean age, 79.7 years; range, 66-97). The numbers of patients in need of maintenance therapy were 47 of 69 (68.1%) after 6 months, 29 of 58 (50%) after 12 months, 17 of 39 (43.6%) after 24 months, and 12 of 26 (46.1%) after 36 months of follow-up. A significantly higher esophagitis relapse rate was found in patients not treated compared with subjects who were in maintenance therapy: 59% versus 8.5% (P &lt;.0001) at 6 months, 65.5% versus 20.7% at 12 months (P &lt;.002), 63.6% versus 11.7% at 24 months (P =.003), and 57.1% versus 8.3% at 36 months (P =.02). No significant difference in relapse rate was found in patients treated with H2 blockers versus PPIs (21.7% versus 10%). The Cox model demonstrated that no maintenance treatment (P =.00001), the presence of typical symptoms (P =.00001), the presence of hiatal hernia (P =.03), and a high severity grade of esophagitis at baseline (P =.009) were risk factors for relapse of esophagitis. In elderly subjects, esophagitis relapse occurs in a high percentage of cases, particularly in patients not treated with antisecretory drugs. The presence of typical symptoms, hiatal hernia, and a severe grade of esophagitis are risk factors for relapse. The most effective measure for minimizing the occurrence of relapse is a maintenance therapy with antisecretory drugs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0373_21947", "title": "[Current diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease: learning experience].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The authors report their study on gastro-esophageal reflux disease, a pathology that has become increasingly common over the past years reflecting both a real increase and the use of new and more sophisticated and reliable diagnostic methods and tests. It can be included in the group of pathologies absorbing the largest proportion of financial resources, even exceeding biliary lithiasic disease according to American studies. The authors start by analysing the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, drawing a distinction between typical (heartburn, epigastric pain and postprandial regurgitation) and atypical symptoms (laryngotracheal symptoms, bronchopulmonary symptoms and esophageal motor incoordination). They outline the diagnostic iter and tests most widely used today to achieve a correct diagnosis. Lastly, they report their experience of 160 patients attending their esophageal diagnostic unit since January 1999 who underwent a number of different instrumental tests, the results of which are compared. Three different aspects are compared: the presence of symptoms, 24-hour pH-metry and endoscopic tests. All these are necessary for a correct diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease and to evaluate the possibility and efficacy of surgery. They emphasise the diagnostic importance of 24-hour pH-measurement as the only test that can directly reveal gastroesophageal reflux. Positive pH results represent a discriminating element in deciding whether the patient should undergo surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_12959", "title": "Intrathoracic sleeve gastrectomy migration with gastric volvulus treated with laparoscopic repair and conversion to gastric bypass.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 43 years old female with laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy (SG) and an 'anterior' hiatal hernia repair 11 years ago, presented with 3 years history dysphagia and heartburn. Upper gastrointestinal barium showed an almost complete intrathoracic migration of the SG with a partial organoaxial volvulus. Upper endoscopy revealed a 10 cm hiatal hernia with grade B esophagitis. Laparoscopic revision surgery with reduction of the gastric sleeve, standard posterior hiatal hernia repair, resection of the narrowed remnant of the SG and conversion to a gastric bypass was performed. No postoperative complications occurred. The patient is asymptomatic at 2 years of follow-up. We present the technical standards for the management and discuss the suspected pathophysiology of this rare but challenging condition." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3046", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Dyspeptic patients typically report symptoms referable to the upper abdomen that may be meal-related, as with postprandial distress syndrome, or independent of food ingestion, as in epigastric pain syndrome. Functional dyspepsia overlaps with other disorders including GERD, IBS, and idiopathic gastroparesis. Family history of gastrointestinal malignancy The physical exam with GERD and functional dyspepsia usually is normal. In atypical GERD, pharyngeal erythema and wheezing may be noted. Recurrent acid regurgitation may cause poor denti tion. Dyspeptics may exhibit epigastric tenderness or distention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0859_23285", "title": "Peptic esophageal stricture in an adolescent with Barrett's esophagus.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Barrett's esophagus (BE) is characterized by the replacement of distal esophageal stratified squamous epithelium by columnar epithelium. It is rare in children and the risk factors may include mental retardation, cerebral palsy, esophageal atresia, etc. Apart from corrosive ingestion, peptic stricture is the other leading cause of esophageal strictures in children. However, BE has not been well characterized in the pediatric population and in children presenting with esophageal strictures. A 16-year-old Indian boy presented with a history of gradually progressive dysphagia to solids (but not liquids) for 12 years along with heartburn and poor weight gain. Physical examination and routine blood investigations were unremarkable. Previously performed barium meal studies were suggestive of stricture in the mid and lower esophagus. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy revealed a non-negotiable stricture with circumferential ulceration at 26 cm. The stricture was traversed using an ultrathin scope and the distal mucosa was found to be columnar. Biopsies revealed cardiac mucosa. The patient was treated with proton pump inhibitors (PPI) and four series of segmental dilatations with Savary Gilliard esophageal dilators. Peptic strictures occurring in the mid-upper esophagus should raise concerns about BE or malignancy. Here, we report a case of peptic esophageal stricture in a child without neurodevelopmental or trachea-esophageal abnormalities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0744_8350", "title": "Diagnostic accuracy of tests in pediatric gastroesophageal reflux disease.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To systematically review the literature evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of commonly used diagnostic tests over conventional history taking and physical examination in children ≤ 18 months and &gt;18 months suspected of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). We searched Medline, Embase, and the Cochrane database for studies assessing the diagnostic accuracy of pH-metry, pH-impedance, esophagogastroscopy, barium contrast study, scintigraphy, and empirical treatment as diagnostic tools. Quality was assessed according to Quality Assessment of Studies of Diagnostic Accuracy Included in Systematic Reviews criteria. Of the 2178 studies found, 6 studies were included, containing 408 participants (age 1 month-13.6 years) and 145 controls (age 1 month-16.9 years). Studies included children with GERD symptoms; 1 included an atypical presentation. In all the studies, the diagnostic accuracy of pH-metry was investigated, and in 2 studies esophagogastroscopy was investigated as well. Sensitivity and specificity were calculated in 3 studies. The range of reported sensitivity and specificity was broad and unreliable because of poor methodological quality according to Quality Assessment of Studies of Diagnostic Accuracy Included in Systematic Reviews criteria and inadequate study design. Diagnostic accuracy of tests in children suspected of GERD remains unclear and implications for practice are hard to give. There is an urgent need of well-designed randomized controlled trials where the effect of treatment according to specific signs and symptoms will be compared with the effect of treatment based on the results of additional diagnostic tests, for patient relevant outcomes." }, { "id": "article-21352_24", "title": "Esophagitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.008919543550483893, "content": "The most common symptoms and signs are retrosternal chest pain, Heartburns, odynophagia or dysphagia. Patients with EoE can present with food impaction and more often seen in young adults or children with some history of asthma, food allergy or atopy. Reflux esophagitis symptoms may include Globus sensation, regurgitation and sometimes wheezing or chronic cough. History should be included regarding commonly known medicine ingestion which can cause pill-induced esophagitis. History of cancer and radiation therapy can provide a clue regarding radiation esophagitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0422_18926", "title": "Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy in children with upper gastrointestinal bleeding.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The purpose of this study was to evaluate the clinical presentations and features of upper gastrointestinal (UGI) endoscopy and the role of Helicobacter pylori in children with UGI bleeding. A retrospective review was done of the medical records of 112 infants and children who presented with UGI bleeding. They underwent UGI endoscopy in the Taipei Veterans General Hospital, Taiwan between July 1996 and December 2000. Patients with hematemesis caused by swallowing caustic agents or foreign bodies were excluded. There were 112 patients involved in this study. Clinical manifestations included hematemesis (77 cases, 68.8%), tarry stool (37 cases, 33%) and hematochezia (9 cases, 8%). Fifty-three patients (47.3%) had underlying diseases, including neuromuscular deficits (17), hepatobiliary disease (17), renal insufficiency (8), Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) (3), and cow milk allergy (3). Another 34 patients had a preceding acute febrile illness history. The endoscopic appearances included esophageal varices (10.7%), esophagitis or esophageal ulcers (30.4%), superficial gastric mucosal lesions (SGML) (44.6%), gastric ulcers (9.8%), duodenal ulcers (DU) (15.2%), and hemorrhagic erosive duodenitis (2.7%). Eleven cases (9.8%) showed negative findings. There were 13 (11.6%) patients receiving endoscopic hemostatic therapy. The rate of positive results in rapid urease tests in the patients without underlying diseases was 54.8%, which was significantly higher than that of the patients with underlying diseases (17.1%), while Helicobacter pylori was closely related to primary DU. In children with UGI bleeding, UGI endoscopy provides an accurate diagnostic tool and also provides therapeutic intervention when needed. SGML was the most common endoscopic finding. About 30% of the infants and children with UGI bleeding had history of acute febrile illness. Half of the children had underlying diseases. Helicobacter pylori plays a role in a subgroup of children with UGI bleeding, particularly in children with primary DU." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0964_16471", "title": "PROLONGED GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX MONITORING BY IMPEDANCE-PHMETRY: A REVIEW OF THE SUBJECT PONDERED WITH OUR EXPERIENCE WITH 1,200 CASES.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Prolonged monitoring increased our knowledge on gastroesophageal reflux (GER), and the disease became known as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Prolonged reflux monitoring permits the diagnosis of GERD when endoscopic findings are not enough to characterize it. The objective of this paper is to review the current knowledge on impedance-pH monitoring, taking into account the published literature and the authors experience with 1,200 exams. The different types of prolonged reflux monitoring, namely: conventional pHmetry, catheter-free pHmetry and impedance-pHmetry will be briefly described. The new possibilities of evaluation with impedance-pHmetry are emphasized, namely: the study of symptomatic patients in use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs); evaluation of patients with symptoms suggestive of GERD although with normal endoscopy and normal pHmetry, diagnostic elucidation of patients with atypical symptoms or supra-esophageal symptoms, mainly chronic cough, study of patients complaining of belch, differentiating gastric and supra-gastric belching, and the proper work-up before anti-reflux surgery. When impedance was associated to pH monitoring, an impressive technological evolution became apparent, when compared to pH monitoring alone. The main advantages of impedance-pHmetry are: the ability to detect all types of reflux: acid, non-acid, liquid, gaseous. In addition, other important measurements can be made: the ability of the esophagus in transporting the bolus, the measurement of basal mucosal impedance and the evaluation of primary peristalsis post reflux. Impedance-pHmetry is a promising method, with great advantages over conventional pHmetry. The choice between these two types of monitoring should be very judicious. The authors suggest the importance of careful evaluation of each reflux episode by the physician responsible for the examination, necessary for the correct interpretation of the tracings." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_273", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.008777840164701478, "content": "Symptomatic reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus, most commonly as a result of transient LES relaxation. Can be due to an incompetent LES, gastroparesis, or hiatal hernia. Patients present with heartburn that commonly occurs 30–90 minutes after a meal, worsens with reclining, and often improves with antacids, sitting, or standing. Substernal chest pain can be difficult to distinguish from other causes. Sour taste (“water brash”), globus, unexplained cough, and morning hoarseness can be clues. Exam is usually normal unless a systemic disease (e.g., scleroderma) is present. The history and clinical impression are important. An empiric trial of lifestyle modification and medical treatment is often attempted first. Studies may include barium swallow (to look for hiatal hernia), esophageal manometry, and 24-hour pH monitoring. Squamous cell esophageal cancer is associated with tobacco and alcohol use." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 422, 472 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 70, 80 ] ], "text": "less importance is given to the size of the lesion" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 18, 295 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 49 ] ], "text": "we are asked about which factors have the greatest influence in order to carry out adjuvant chemotherapy in colorectal cancer. In order to do so, we must know which are the poor prognostic factors in this pathology where obstruction or intestinal perforation due to the lesion," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "The presence of anemia at diagnosis.", "2": "The existence of a family history of colorectal cancer.", "3": "The size of the primary lesion and histological differentiation.", "4": "Perforation or adhesion of the tumor to adjacent organs.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0736_2331", "title": "[The primary tumour resection with extended D3 lymph node dissection, metastases of synchronous metastatic colorectal cancer].", "score": 0.013283828382838283, "content": "The progress in colorectal cancer treatment of IV stage that was shown in last decades was mainly due to modern chemotherapy schemes and aggressive surgical approach towards distant metastatic lesions. Meanwhile less attention is paid to primary tumour treatment - the questions of necessity and volume of its resection are still open. The AIM of this study was to evaluate safety and oncologic effectiveness of primary tumour resection with D3 lymph node dissection in synchronous metastatic colorectal cancer. Patients with colorectal cancer and synchronous metastatic lesion of distant organs who underwent surgical resection of primary tumour were chosen from prospectively collected department database. The analysis of short-term and long-term results of resections with and without extended D3 lymph node dissection and prognostic factors affecting overall survival was carried out. From 2006 to 2011 total of 190 patients underwent primary tumour resection, 157 (82.6%) among them - with extended D3 lymph node dissection. Twenty one patient (11%) developed postoperative complications that required reintervention, 30-days mortality rate was 2.6%. Three-year cumulative overall survival was 37%, median survival - 22 months (25 months with extended lymph node dissection and 4 months without, p&lt;0.001). Univariate analysis revealed following statistically significant prognostic factors improving overall survival: metastatic lesions in one distant organ, solitary haematogenous nodes, extended D3 lymph node dissection, postoperative chemotherapy, resection of metastatic lesions. Removal of primary tumour with extended lymph node dissection in metastatic colorectal cancer doesn't increase the number of postoperative complications and mortality. Performing D3 lymph node dissection favours increase of median survival and is a significant prognostic factor influencing outcomes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en220_29197", "title": "Metastatic liver disease", "score": 0.011892029539088363, "content": "Diagnosis Hemoglobin decrease Liver function test: ALP elevated, bilirubin elevated, albumin decrease Carcinoembryonic antigen for colorectal secondaries Ultrasound scan CT scan Biopsy under ultrasound control Treatment Treatment can consist of surgery (hepatectomy), chemotherapy and/or therapies specifically aimed at the liver like radiofrequency ablation, transcatheter arterial chemoembolization, selective internal radiation therapy and irreversible electroporation. For most patients no effective treatment exists because both lobes are usually involved, making surgical resection impossible. Younger patients with metastases from colorectal cancer confined to one lobe of the liver and up to 4 in number may be treated by partial hepatectomy. In selected cases, chemotherapy may be given systemically or via hepatic artery." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en589_7883", "title": "Histopathology of colorectal adenocarcinoma", "score": 0.011538222305156436, "content": "Grading Conventional adenocarcinoma may be graded as follows Staging Staging is typically made according to the TNM staging system from the WHO organization, the UICC and the AJCC. The Astler-Coller classification (1954) and the Dukes classification (1932) are now less used. T stands for tumor stage and ranges from 0, no evidence of primary tumor, to T4 when the tumor penetrates the surface of the peritoneum or directly invades other organs or structures. The N stage reflects the number of metastatic lymph nodes and ranges from 0 (no lymph node metastasis) to 2 (four or more lymph node metastasis), and the M stage gives information about distant metastasis (M0 stands for no distant metastasis, and M1 for the presence of distant metastasis). A clinical classification (cTNM) is done at diagnosis and is based on MRI and CT, and a pathological TNM (pTNM) classification is performed after surgery." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en305_21270", "title": "Adenocarcinoma of the lung", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Adenocarcinoma is more common in patients with a history of cigarette smoking, and is the most common form of lung cancer in younger women and Asian populations. The pathophysiology of adenocarcinoma is complicated, but generally follows a histologic progression from cells found in healthy lungs to distinctly dysmorphic, or irregular cells. There are several distinct molecular and genetic pathways that contribute to this progression. Like many lung cancers, adenocarcinoma of the lung is often advanced by the time of diagnosis. Once a lesion or tumor is identified with various imaging modalities, such as computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, a biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment of this lung cancer is based upon the specific subtype and the extent of spread from the primary tumor. Surgical resection, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, targeted therapy and immunotherapy are used in attempt to eradicate the cancerous cells based upon these factors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0335_10083", "title": "[Evaluation of the results of treatment of cancer of the large intestine based on our clinical data].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Results of the treatment of 225 patients operated between 1991-1995 on the colorectal carcinoma in the II Clinic of Surgery, Medical Academy Wroclaw are evaluated. The analysis of the own material covers the tumor site, age of the patients, histologic grade and clinical stage according to Dukes. The type of surgical procedure--curative or palliative and the evaluation of the survival, death and recurrence rate is presented. Curative procedures were possible only in approximately 60% of cases. The Dukes stage C and D was established in 55.5% of the operated patients. Authors believe that such a significant number of advanced cases was the reason of so poor results. In conclusion they suggest to introduce screening tests for early detection of colorectal carcinoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en105_57118", "title": "Primitive neuroectodermal tumor", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Treatment The approach to management of a CNS PNET is first to obtain detailed imaging through MRI, as well as additional scans of the patient's body (X-ray, CT, PET, even bone marrow biopsies) to look for metastasis or other associated malignancies. The tumor will then need to be biopsied to confirm the diagnosis. After the diagnosis of a CNS PNET is confirmed, management includes neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiation (to reduce tumor size burden), complete surgical resection with confirmed negative margins, and/or additional adjuvant post-surgical chemotherapy. CNS PNET is aggressive and must be managed as so. Palliative care services should also become involved in the patient's care team when the diagnosis is made. See also Medulloblastoma Ependymoma Ewing family of tumors References Pediatric cancers Rare cancers Nervous system neoplasia Small-blue-round-cell tumors" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_9310", "title": "[Gastrocolic tumor progression--a possibility or mere supposition?].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The authors examined the five-years postoperative survival rate of fifty patients who suffered from colorectal cancer along with the fact that the large bowel one of the neighbouring organs were resected. The subjects were divided into four groups: the colorectal resection was associated with (1) stomach resection (13 patients); (2) liver metastasectomy (14 patients); (3) small bowel resection (10 patients); (4) the resection of other organs (13 patients). In the first two years of the study they were examined once in every three months, in the next two years once in every six months and then yearly. The following tests were carried out: chest X ray, abdominal sonography, irrigography or colonoscopy and CEA. On condition that the colonoscope reached the caecum and the result was negative, the test was repeated only a year later. The patients were operated on between 1985 and 1997. The statistical analysis was made with the help of the Kaplan-Meier method. During this period fifty-six complex resections were performed. Out of fifty-six patients fifty were followed. Compliance 89%. In group 1, where the average age of patients was sixty-two years, one patient died in the forty-first and the other in the fifty-second month after the surgery. Survival rate: 11/13 (83%). The survival rates for the other groups were as follows: group 2 (average age 64) twelve patients died within five years. Survival rate 2/14 (14%). The difference between the survival rates in the first two groups in significant (P = 0.0001). Group 3 (average age 67) seven died and only three survived. Survival rate: 3/10 (30%). The difference between group 1 and group 3 is significant (P = 0.0022). Group 4 (average age 64) seven patients died. Survival rate 6/13 (46%). Comparing this rate to that of the group 1, the difference is not significant (P &gt; 0.01). Having analysed the results of the four groups it can be concluded that the patients of group 1 lived the longest (stomach resection) and those of group 2 (liver metastasectomy) died the earliest after the operation. It is surprising that the patients of group 3 lived significantly shorter than the ones of group 1 in spite of the fact that they belong by far the greatest number to stage Dukes B (group 1: 12/13 = 92%; group 3: 7/10 = 70%). The authors assume that the partial or the total absence of the stomach keeps back the growth of the tumour (gastro-colic tumour growing dependency). They think that in case of colon cancer which infiltrates the stomach surgeons experienced in gastric and colorectal surgery should be encouraged to take the risk of the double resection providing the fact that the operation is accomplishable." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en253_6045", "title": "Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Primary colonic EMZL, also termed primary colonic MALT lymphoma, usually presents at an early stage of disease with evidence of lower GI tract bleeding (e.g. tarry bowel movements and/or iron deficiency anemia), less commonly with lower abdominal pain, and rarely with bowel perforation or intussusception. Endoscopic examination most often reveals a single polyp or rarely multiple polyps, a mucosal ulcer, or a mucosal nodule. Diagnosis is passed on biopsy of the lesions showing a histology typical of EMZL, e.g. diffuse infiltrates composed of small to medium-sized lymphocytes that may show morphological features of monocytes and/or plasma cells. The lymphocytes in these lesions express B cell markers (e.g. CD19 and CD79a) typical of EMZL lesions. The best treatment regimen for this lymphoma is debated. Surgical resection, endoscopic resection, radiation, and chemotherapy have been employed. Surgery followed by chemotherapy (mitoxantrone + chlorambucil + prednisone or cyclophosphamide +" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0262_13481", "title": "[Diagnosis and staging of colorectal cancers].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Early colorectal cancer produces no symptom, thus justifying efforts at detection in screening programs. Symptoms are usually secondary to obstruction, local invasion, perforation or bleeding. Any fecal bleeding must be investigated to rule out a colorectal cancer. The initial imaging study to identify a colorectal cancer is often colonoscopy, which is frequently supplemented with a double contrast barium enema. Once the presence of cancer is histologically proven, the preoperative evaluation includes detection of hepatic and extrahepatic spread, especially with ultrasound and CT scan. Endorectal ultrasonography has been shown to be a significant advance for staging rectal cancer. It provides the best staging in selecting patients for preservation of sphincter function and for adjuvant therapies. The most useful prognostic factors in tumors without distant metastases are the depth of tumor extension, the number of positive lymph nodes and the histologic grade. Preoperative CEA level, vascular invasion and ploidy are also important prognostic factors." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_6595", "title": "Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Prognosis Patient response to treatment will vary based on age, health, and the tolerance to medications and therapies. Metastasis occurs in about 39% of patients, most commonly to the lung. Features associated with poor prognosis include a large primary tumor (over 5 cm across), high grade disease, co-existent neurofibromatosis, and the presence of metastases. It is a rare tumor type, with a relatively poor prognosis in children. In addition, MPNSTs are extremely threatening in NF1. In a 10-year institutional review for the treatment of chemotherapy for MPNST in NF1, which followed the cases of 1 per 2,500 in 3,300 live births, chemotherapy did not seem to reduce mortality, and its effectiveness should be questioned. Although with recent approaches with the molecular biology of MPNSTs, new therapies and prognostic factors are being examined. See also Keratinizing metaplasia List of cutaneous conditions 50/50 (2011 film) References External links" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0583_23554", "title": "[Clinicopathological analysis of 39 patients with multiple primary synchronous colorectal carcinoma].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To investigate the clinicopathologic characteristics and prognosis of multiple primary synchronous colorectal carcinoma (synchronous CRC) and single colorectal carcinoma (single CRC). Clinicopathological data of 39 patients with synchronous CRC and 528 patients with single CRC from May 1996 to June 2001 were reviewed retrospectively. The patients with synchronous CRC accounted for 6.9% of all the patients with colorectal carcinoma treated in our hospital during the same period. Compared with concurrent lesions, Dukes stage of the index lesions of synchronous CRC was more developed and the lymph node metastasis and vessel invasion occurred more frequently. In addition, it also had poorer differentiation. There were significant differences of Dukes stages and lymph node metastasis between the index lesions and single CRC. The incidence of adenomatous polyp in synchronous CRC was higher than that in single CRC(59.0% vs 25.0%,P&lt;0.01). The sensitivity of preoperative colonoscopy examination was 76.9%, which was significantly higher than that of barium examination and exploration during operation. The total 5-year survival rate of synchronous CRC was significantly lower than that of single CRC (5.1% vs 28.2%,P=0.042), and no significant difference of total 5-year survival rate was found between single CRC patients and synchronous CRC patients undergone radical operation. Synchronous CRC patients undergone radical operation had longer survival as compared to those undergone palliative operation(P&lt;0.01). Multivariate analysis indicated that Dukes stages, lymph node metastasis, vessel invasion and the type of operation were independent prognostic factors of synchronous CRC. Synchronous CRC and single CRC are not always similar in clinicopathologic characteristics and prognosis. Early finding, early diagnosis and radical operation are the keys to improve the survival rate of synchronous CRC." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_12302", "title": "Blastoma", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Mortality during the first few years after diagnosis is around 15%, although current therapeutic approaches have reached cure rates of up to 60%. The most common forms of therapy are surgical resection, aided by radiation and chemotherapy (before or after surgery), and the survival rates that this yields are between 50% and 90%, a wide range that is influenced by the age at diagnosis, metastasis and histologic variants of the medulloblastoma of each patient. However, despite the long-term survival achieved with current treatments, the neurologic, endocrinologic and cognitive effects are still a great concern in the treatment of medulloblastoma. Nephroblastoma The most common type of renal cancer in children is nephroblastoma, also known as Wilms tumor. Nephroblastoma is also the fourth most common pediatric cancer form, and the most common pediatric abdominal cancer, typically diagnosed in children from zero to five years old." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0131_14741", "title": "[Treatment of colorectal cancer].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The large majority of colorectal cancers are well or moderately differentiated adenocarcinomas. Their biological behavior is not as malignant as that of stomach cancer, with a tendency of slow growth and limited spread. Surgery is therefore the first choice for management of these cancers even in cases where complete removal of the tumor is not expected, surgery is useful for the prolongation or improvement of the quality of life. However, the correct choice of operation for such cases is very important. The extent of resection and dissection must be decided based upon the degree of cancer spread. Both must be sufficient, but not excessive. In cases in the early stage where cancerous growth has not spread beyond the submucosal layer, local or segmental excision may be a good enough treatment. On the other hand, for far advanced rectal cancer involving adjacent organs, combined resection and pelvic evisceration is curatively effective. Several pathological findings of resected specimens influencing prognosis were investigated in the present study. In cases which appeared to be diffuse infiltrative spreading type in macroscopic appearance or poorly differentiated, undifferentiated, or mucinous types of cancer in their histological features, survival rates were low. However, these were uncommon and over half of them were much too far advanced to receive curative resection. Irradiation combined with hyperthermia or heavy chemotherapy were applied, but were mostly ineffective. For these uncommon types of cases as well as far advanced cases, we have no effective treatment other than surgery at this time." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en127_19326", "title": "Mediastinal germ cell tumor", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Treatment Pure mediastinal seminomas are curable in the large majority of patients, even when metastatic at the time of diagnosis. These tumors are highly sensitive to radiation therapy and to combination chemotherapy. However, the cardiotoxicity of mediastinal radiation is substantial and the standard treatment of mediastinal seminomas is with chemotherapy using bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin for either three or four 21-day treatment cycles depending on the location of any metastatic disease. Patients with small tumors (usually asymptomatic) that appear resectable usually undergo thoracotomy and attempted complete resection followed by chemotherapy. The treatment for mediastinal nonseminomatous germ cell tumors should follow guidelines for poor-prognosis testicular cancer. Initial treatment with four courses of bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin, followed by surgical resection of any residual disease, is considered standard therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0107_2562", "title": "[Natural history of synchronous hepatic metastases from a non-treated colorectal cancer].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The authors present a retrospective study concerning 135 cases of untreated synchronous metastases from colorectal cancer. The median survival is 5.5 months and the natural history is depending on the percentage of liver replacement, on the \"performance status\" of each patient and on the stage of primary tumors classified according to Dukes. The seric levels of Alkaline Phosphatase and CEA are other useful prognostic factors. The age of patients and systemic chemotherapy (5-Fluorouracil) are not able to influence the evolution of the disease. At last different techniques, both curative and palliative, used in the current treatment of liver metastases from colorectal cancer are discussed and the reported survival improvements reaching with these forms of treatment are compared to the natural history of the disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en136_14056", "title": "Adamantinoma", "score": 0.009379993608181527, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnosis is on plain radiography, or CT scan Treatment Treatment consists of wide resection or amputation. Metastases are rare at presentation but may occur in up to 30% of patients during the disease course. Prognosis is excellent, with overall survival of 85% at 10 years, but is lower when wide surgical margins cannot be obtained. This tumor is insensitive to radiation so chemotherapy is not typically used unless the cancer has metastasized to the lungs or other organs. History The typically benign odontogenic tumor known as ameloblastoma was first recognized in 1827 by Cusack but did not yet have any designation. In 1885, this kind of odontogenic neoplasm was designated as an adamantinoma by Malassez and was finally renamed to the modern name ameloblastoma in 1930 by Ivey and Churchill. Some authors still confusingly misuse the term adamantinoma to describe ameloblastomas, although they differ in histology and frequency of malignancy. References External links" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en542_17336", "title": "Ultrasonography of liver tumors", "score": 0.009354082998661311, "content": "US examination is required to detect liver metastases in patients with oncologic history. In addition, the method can incidentally detect metastases in asymptomatic patients. Early identification (small sizes, small number) is important to establish an optimal course of treatment which can be complex (chemotherapy, radiofrequency ablation, surgical resection) but welcomed. In addition, discrimination of synchronous lesions that have a different nature is also important knowing that up to 25–50% of liver lesions less than 2 cm detected in cancer patients may be benign . US sensitivity for metastases detection varies depending on the examiner's experience and the equipment used and ranges between 40–80% . Sensitivity is conditioned by the size and acoustic impedance of the nodules. For a lesion diameter below 10 mm US accuracy is greatly reduced, reaching approx. 20%. Other elements contributing to lower US" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en435_25766", "title": "Pulmonary enteric adenocarcinoma", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Pulmonary enteric adenocarcinoma is rare subtype of pulmonary adenocarcinoma. Presentation The presentation is similar to that of other lung cancers. There is nothing in the radiological appearances that would suggest this particular histology. Two-thirds of reported cases have occurred in the right lung. The reason for this difference is not known and may be due to chance. Histology The typical histological appearance of this tumour of tall columnar cells arranged in an irregular glandular cavity or cribriform pattern with extensive central necrosis. The cells resemble those of the intestinal epithelium and colorectal carcinomas. Diagnosis Diagnosis of this type of lung cancer is by biopsy, histology and special staining. CT and colonoscopy to rule out a colonic primary are recommended. Treatment Optimal treatment for this condition is not known. Surgery to remove the lesion is the usual form of treatment. Whether radiotherapy or chemotherapy can offer any advantage is not known." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_12900", "title": "[Evaluation of the number of patients likely to require surgical treatment of hepatic metastases. Based on a series of 180 colorectal cancers].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The spontaneous prognosis of patients with hepatic metastases from colo-rectal cancer is poor in the short term: less than 10 p. cent will be alive after 2 years. Over recent years, several teams have obtained encouraging results after surgical resection of hepatic metastases. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the number of patients likely to require resection of hepatic metastases in a serie of 180 cases of colo-rectal cancer. 57 patients (30 p. cent) already had hepatic metastases at the time of the gastro-intestinal resection and only 3 underwent a simultaneous metastasectomy. In the other cases, the extent of the disease or the general condition of the patients contra-indicated a 2-stage resection. Among the 126 patients free of metastases at the time of the operation, 40 p. cent would have been excluded from hepatic resection in the event of secondary development of metastases because of the general clinical state. 75 patients were suitable for post-operative surveillance of hepatic metastases. We calculated that 20 of them might develop a hepatic metastasis without local recurrence of the colo-rectal cancer in the 2 years following the colonic resection, although of course we were unable to predict the type of metastasis or its accessibility to surgery. These figures may be useful as a guide to the development of a surveillance strategy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_16359", "title": "Anal fistula metastasis of rectal cancer after neoadjuvant therapy: a case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Anal metastasis of colorectal cancer is very rare and may present synchronously or metachronously, regardless of pre-existing anal diseases. We report a case of anal fistula metastasis after completion of neoadjuvant therapy for rectal cancer, followed by surgical resection of the primary tumor and metastatic lesion. A 50-year-old man was diagnosed with rectal cancer located 5 cm from the anal verge, with a clinical stage of cT3N0M0. He denied any medical or surgical history, and physical examination revealed no perianal disease. He underwent preoperative chemoradiation therapy (CRT) consisting of a tegafur/gimeracil/oteracil potassium (S-1)-based regimen with 45 Gy of radiation. After completion of CRT, computed tomography (CT) revealed the primary tumor's partial response, but a liver mass highly suggestive of metastasis was detected. This mass was later diagnosed as cavernous hemangioma 3 months after CRT initiation. He then underwent and completed six cycles of consolidation chemotherapy with a capecitabine-based regimen. Subsequent colonoscopy revealed the complete response of the primary tumor, but CT showed thickening of the edematous rectal wall. Therefore, we planned to perform low anterior resection as a radical surgery. However, he presented with persistent anal pain after the last chemotherapy, and magnetic resonance imaging revealed a high-intensity mass behind the anus, suggestive of an anal fistula. We considered the differential diagnosis of a benign anal fistula or implantation metastasis into the anal fistula. Fistulectomy was performed, and a pathological diagnosis of tubular adenocarcinoma, suggestive of implantation metastasis, was made. Thereafter, we performed laparoscopic abdominoperineal resection. Histopathological examination revealed well-differentiated adenocarcinoma, ypT2N0, with a grade 2 therapeutic effect. Subsequent immunohistochemistry of the resected anal fistula showed a CDX-2-positive, CK20-positive, CK7-negative, and GCDFP-15 negative tumor, with implantation metastasis. There was no cancer recurrence 21 months after the radical surgery. This is the first report of anal fistula metastasis after neoadjuvant therapy for rectal cancer in a patient without a previous history of anal disease. If an anal fistula is suspected during or after neoadjuvant therapy, physical and radiological assessment, differential diagnosis, and surgical intervention timing for fistula must be carefully discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_17554", "title": "[Yield of diagnostic tests in neoplasms of unknown origin. A retrospective study].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A retrospective analysis of 54 patients diagnosed of neoplasia of unknown origin between January 1983 and December 1987 are presented. The patients's characteristics, histologic type, localization of metastasis, diagnostic procedures used and their cost-effectiveness, treatment, survival, and percentage of diagnosis of primary disease, are studied by clinical follow-up o necropsy studies. Our results are compared with those described in the literature. Adenocarcinoma was the predominant histologic type (48%). The cost-effectiveness of diagnostic tests was practically none in those performed without a clear clinical sign of suspicion, and very low in those performed with a clinical suspicion. The over all survival was 13 months with an actuarial survival probability at 24 months of 34%. We highlight the importance of an organized and predetermined clinical approach in this kind of patients, performing complementary tests only under the suspicion of a sign, or if a disease has to be discarded before initiating active oncologic treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en132_46510", "title": "Chondroblastoma", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Rarely, more aggressive chondroblastomas can metastasize. The most common location for metastases is the lung, with some cases also involving secondary bone sites, soft tissue, skin, or the liver. The prevalence of metastatic chondroblastoma, however, is quite low and is believed to be less than 1%. There is no relationship established between metastasis and previous surgery, non-surgical treatment, anatomical location, or patient age. Survival of patients with metastatic lesions is better when the metastases are surgically resectable, as chemotherapy has been shown to have little to no benefit. Prognosis is bleak for patients with malignant chondroblastomas that are resistant to surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy. However, patients with resectable metastases have survived for several years following diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_13315", "title": "[Not Available].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "F. Lacaine Lymph node metastasis carries enormous prognostic weight in the evaluation of colon cancer and raises the question of how extensive a lymph node dissection should be. Lymph node dissection has several goals: 1) staging of the cancer at the time of intervention; 2) improving the chances for complete resection and cure; 3) evaluating the thoroughness and quality of a particular surgical procedure. The prognostic value of lymphadenectomy is evident from the direct practical decisions it entails: evidence-based recommendations (Level A) have proposed adjuvant chemotherapy for all patients with Stage III colon cancer since 1990. Studies have shown a statistically significant correlation between the number of nodes examined in an operative specimen and long-term survival in patients with Stage II disease. The more closely lymph nodes are examined, the more metastasis is found; one can then see the aberrations of stage migration described as the \"Will Rogers Phenomenon.\" Without randomized studies, it is impossible to say whether resection of a larger number of lymph nodes actually improves the prognosis or whether that number is simply a marker of better surgical management including the quality of the surgical gesture, the careful pathologic examination of the specimen, and subsequent choices for adjuvant chemotherapy. The recovery of 12 lymph nodes correlates with a better global prognosis. At the very least, it is an effective marker for the quality of the surgical resection and can be used in the evaluation of professional practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_13346", "title": "[Not Available].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "F. Lacaine Lymph node metastasis carries enormous prognostic weight in the evaluation of colon cancer and raises the question of how extensive a lymph node dissection should be. Lymph node dissection has several goals: 1) staging of the cancer at the time of intervention; 2) improving the chances for complete resection and cure; 3) evaluating the thoroughness and quality of a particular surgical procedure. The prognostic value of lymphadenectomy is evident from the direct practical decisions it entails: evidence-based recommendations (Level A) have proposed adjuvant chemotherapy for all patients with Stage III colon cancer since 1990. Studies have shown a statistically significant correlation between the number of nodes examined in an operative specimen and long-term survival in patients with Stage II disease. The more closely lymph nodes are examined, the more metastasis is found; one can then see the aberrations of stage migration described as the \"Will Rogers Phenomenon.\" Without randomized studies, it is impossible to say whether resection of a larger number of lymph nodes actually improves the prognosis or whether that number is simply a marker of better surgical management including the quality of the surgical gesture, the careful pathologic examination of the specimen, and subsequent choices for adjuvant chemotherapy. The recovery of 12 lymph nodes correlates with a better global prognosis. At the very least, it is an effective marker for the quality of the surgical resection and can be used in the evaluation of professional practice." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_125066", "title": "Krukenberg tumor", "score": 0.009035515320334262, "content": "Treatment and prognosis Since Krukenberg tumors are secondary (metastatic), management might logically be driven by identifying and treating the primary cancer. The optimal treatment of Krukenberg tumors is unclear. The role of surgical resection has not been adequately addressed but if metastasis is limited to the ovaries, surgery may improve survival. The role of chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is uncertain but may sometimes be beneficial. History Krukenberg tumors are named after Friedrich Ernst Krukenberg (1871–1946), who reported what he thought was a new type of primary ovarian malignancy in 1896; six years later these were shown to be of metastatic gastrointestinal tract origin. However, Paget had described the process in 1854. References External links Gastrointestinal cancer Ovarian cancer" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_9237", "title": "Sister Mary Joseph's nodule as a presenting sign of internal malignancy.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "CASE 1: A 64-year-old, otherwise healthy woman was referred to the surgery clinic for a presumed umbilical hernia. On physical examination, a cutaneous nodule was noted on the umbilical region and the patient was referred to the dermatology clinic. The patient was reexamined and an erythematous nodule was observed in the umbilicus measuring 2.5 cm in diameter. The patient denied pain, change in bowel habits, or weight loss. There were no other abdominal masses, no sign of ascites, and no regional lymphadenopathy. A skin biopsy from the nodule showed mucinous adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining was positive for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negative for cytokeratin (CK)7 and CK20. These results were consistent with a Sister Mary Joseph's nodule and led to the diagnosis of an occult colon carcinoma. The patient had no risk factors for colorectal carcinoma. The patient underwent surgery in another hospital, and died 3 months after the initial diagnosis of Sister Mary Joseph's nodule. CASE 2: A 73-year-old woman was referred to the dermatology clinic for evaluation of a painful, ulcerated, 3-cm lesion in the umbilicus (Figure 1). She was otherwise asymptomatic. A skin biopsy showed neoplastic glandular cells infiltrating among collagen bundles (Figure 2). Stainings for mucin and for CK7 were positive, while staining for CK20 was negative. An abdominopelvic CT scan demonstrated a 3.5-cm space-occupying lesion in the liver. Results of gastroscopy, colonoscopy, chest computed tomographic (CT) scan, and mammography were normal. Serum levels of the tumor-associated protein CA125 were elevated to 164 units, while those of CA 19-9 and carcinoembryonic antigen were within normal range. A gynecologic examination and a transvaginal ultrasound were normal. The patient had no personal or family history of any malignancy or any risk factors for developing a carcinoma. The patient was scheduled for a palliative resection of the umbilical nodule, combined with a laparoscopic inspection in search of the undetected primary tumor. She refused surgery and was lost to follow-up. She died 4 months after the initial diagnosis of umbilical metastasis. CASE 3: A 51-year-old man was aware of a silent mass in his umbilicus for 2 years without seeking medical advice. Following 2 weeks of increasing pain in this area, he was referred to the emergency room for a suspected incarcerated umbilical hernia. Surgery revealed a mass attached to the fascia and peritoneal fat. The mass was removed and diagnosed as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, staining positively for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negatively for CK20, CK7, prostate-specific antigen, and prostatic acid phosphatase. Both gastroscopy and colonoscopy failed to detect the primary tumor. An abdominopelvic CT scan was normal, but a CT scan of the chest disclosed a nodule measuring 2.5 x 1.5 cm in the lower lobe of the right lung. On bronchoscopy, it was found to be an invasive adenocarcinoma, consistent with a primary tumor of the lung. The patient was a heavy smoker (45 pack-years). The patient received 4 cycles of combined chemotherapy with carboplatine and gemcitabine, with no improvement. A month later, the patient complained of abdominal pain. Following demonstration of intra-abdominal spread of disease by CT scan, a second line chemotherapy was instituted with paclitaxel. A month later the patient's condition deteriorated and he complained of cough, sweating, and pain along the right leg. A bone scan revealed bone metastases in the right femur and left tibia. Two weeks later he was admitted to the hospital with intestinal obstruction and underwent laparotomy. He had massive intra-abdominal spread of cancer and ascites. Only a palliative colostomy was performed. The patient died 3 weeks later, 9 months after the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the lung. The clinical data on the three patients are summarized in Table I." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_8054", "title": "[Pulmonary metastases of colorectal origin].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "From January 1979 to December 1988, 18 patients with pulmonary metastases from colorectal cancers were operated in our division. This series included 11 men and 7 women (average age 57 years). The primary cancer was colic in 6 cases and rectal in 12. In 3 cases, the metastases were synchronous and discovered during the initial assessment. In 15 cases, they were metachronous, without symptoms in 12 cases and symptomatic in 3. These metastases were single in 14 cases, multiple in 3, bilateral in 1. They were peripheral in 15 cases. The histological diagnosis was obtained preoperatively in 5 cases (27.7%). The procedures uses were lobectomy for 11 patients, segmentectomy for 1, wedge resection for 10. Postoperative chemotherapy was given to 7 patients. Benign complications occurred in 2 cases during the postoperative period. No perioperative death was noted. One patient was lost to follow-up without recurrence after 1 year, 6 patients died from neoplastic evolution 4, 8, 15, 17, 22 and 28 months after being operated. In May 1989, 11 patients were still living: -2 scheduled for the excision of a contralateral lesion, -2 with pulmonary recurrence. 7 patients were alive without recurrence 12, 14, 17, 46, 52, 68 and 108 months after being operated. The probability of occurrence of pulmonary metastases in the evolution of colorectal cancer is estimated between 20 and 50%. Only 1% of the patients can be treated surgically. When screening these lesions, one must bear in mind that their appearance is sometimes quite delayed, and often asymptomatic. The repeated use of tracers is necessary but not sufficient.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0840_555", "title": "Intestinal intussusception in a young women: unusual cause and specific management.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Intussusception in adults is a rare cause of abdominal pain that is often associated with organic pathology. We describe a case of ileocolic intussusception revealing a cecal adenocarcinoma in a young woman successfully managed by laparoscopic-assisted surgery adhering to oncological principles. A 30-year-old woman with a family history of colon adenocarcinoma in a young brother presented to our emergency department with a 2-month history of intermittent colicky abdominal pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Physical examination showed a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Computed tomography showed a 3-layered structure giving the characteristic target-shaped appearance in the ascending colon, highly suggestive for an ileocolic intussusception associated with right colic parietal thickening and an adjacent lymphadenopathy. Patient was planned for laparoscopic exploration and eventually definitive surgery. Intra-operatively, we found an ileocolic intussusception with thickening of the colic wall and slight proximal intestinal dilation. Multiple lymphadenopathies along the ileocecal artery were observed. Laparoscopic right hemicolectomy was performed following strict oncologic principles with \"en bloc resection\" and lymphadenectomy given the risk of an underlying malignancy. Considering this risk, previous reduction of the invaginated segments was not attempted and primary extracorporeal anastomosis was performed using manual sutures. Macroscopic examination of the resected specimen revealed a tumor mass of the caecal wall .The histological analysis identified a moderately differentiated tubular adenocarcinoma invading the serosa (T3) without permeation of the lymphatic or venous capillaries. No lymphatic metastasis of 28 nodes removed was seen. Postoperative course was uneventful and patient was discharged 5 days after surgery. Postoperative chest, abdomen, and pelvis CT scan were normal. Therefore, tumor is classified as stage II A (T3N0 M0).There was loss of MLH2 and MSH6 protein expression on immunohistochemistry findings reflecting a microsatellite instability phenotype, and the patient was followed up without adjuvant chemotherapy. Ileocolic intussusception rarely revealed a cancer in young adults. Laparoscopic surgery has a special interest in the diagnosis and treatment in this pathology. Oncogenetic consultation should be required in malignant lesion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0309_13344", "title": "[Preoperative evaluation of cancers of the rectum].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The diagnosis of colorectal cancer must be considered in the presence of suggestive symptoms and must be endoscopy. Assessment of operability, including chest x-ray, is completed by CEA determination and x-rays of the colon, looking for a synchronous lesion. Complementary assessments must answer 3 questions: what operation needs to be performed, is any preoperative adjuvant treatment indicated, do any prognostic factors need to be identified before the operation. The treatment of cancer of the colon is now clearly defined; intraoperative hepatic ultrasonography and histological examination of the resection specimen provide all of the necessary data in the majority of the cases. In the presence of a cancer of the rectum, various therapeutic alternatives are available according to the site and stage of the tumour. The complementary assessment includes biopsy to confirm the malignant nature of the lesion, and measurement of the distance of the lower pole from the anal margin (digital rectal examination, endoscopy). A more precise preoperative staging by ultrasonography, computed axial tomography or magnetic resonance is required when the clinician considers that the invasive nature of the lesion justifies preoperative radiotherapy. This precise staging is fully justified in the presence of a small rectal tumour amenable to local resection. Although infiltration of the rectal wall is now very clearly defined, formal identification of metastatic lymphadenopathy still remains hazardous. Finally, the search for distant metastases by invasive and/or expensive techniques is indicated when looking for contraindications to surgery (high-risk patients, surgery for recurrence and metastases). In other cases, the presence of metastases does not contraindicate a palliative colonic resection and intraoperative exploration allows reliable identification of any liver metastasis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en065_5822", "title": "Oligoastrocytoma", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Treatment If resected, the surgeon will remove as much of this tumor as possible, without disturbing eloquent regions of the brain (speech/motor cortex) and other critical brain structure. Thereafter, treatment may include chemotherapy and radiation therapy of doses and types ranging based upon the patient's needs. Subsequent MRI examination are often necessary to monitor the resection cavity. Prognosis Even after surgery, an oligoastrocytoma will often recur. The treatment for a recurring brain tumor may include surgical resection, chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Survival time of this brain tumor varies; younger age and low-grade initial diagnosis are factors in improved survival time. References External links Brain and Spinal Tumors: Hope Through Research from the U.S. (National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke) Brain tumor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0062_12339", "title": "[Patient selection and efficacy of tumor after-care in surgically treated colorectal carcinoma].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Scheduled follow-up after surgically treated colorectal cancer remains controversial because eventually only about 5% of patients profit from it. Careful selection should therefore spare those patients unnecessary investigations who are least likely to benefit from follow-up. Only patients should be considered whose tumor was completely resected and who were found free of distant metastases. These patients should be fully informed about their disease and accept scheduled investigation even if asymptomatic. A questionable operability with regard to a second surgical intervention forbids formal entry into a follow-up program as well as a decreased life expectancy due to other disease. The family physician is most qualified to carry out or coordinate these investigations. For the first two postoperative years intervals of three and for the further three years of six months are recommended. Physical examination and determination of CEA titers are the essential measures; colonoscopy, sonography, CT scans, chest X-ray, and for rectal cancer, endoluminal sonography are undertaken periodically. In such a selected cohort one can expect a resectable recurrence in 25% of patients, of which 20% can be cured." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en304_18849", "title": "HOHMS", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "During this period, all malignant lung tumors were considered equivalent for treatment purposes. In the early 1960s, small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) was recognized for its unique biological behavior, including a much higher frequency of widespread metastasis at diagnosis, and a higher frequency of sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Early studies suggested that patients with SCLC fared better when treated with chemotherapy and/or radiation than when treated surgically, while non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC) patients generally did better after surgery, and usually did not respond well to chemoradiation. This \"traditional\" paradigm, wherein treatment options for lung cancer patients were based on histological stratification into two highly heterogeneous groups (i.e. SCLC vs. NSCLC), remained the standard for approximately 30–40 years." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 155 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 26 ] ], "text": "In a woman with delayed puberty and short stature we should always think about and rule out Turner syndrome, whose diagnosis is made by karyotyping (45X0)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Massive sequencing (NGS).", "2": "FISH.", "3": "DNA and/or RNA microarrays.", "4": "Karyotype.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1102_9340", "title": "Genetic testing in pediatric endocrine pathology.", "score": 0.017645245800585605, "content": "In genetic endocrine diseases, genetic testing is necessary for a precise diagnosis, which will provide a better knowledge of the evolution and prognosis and also indicate the adequate therapy, targeting the precise etiopathogenesis of the disease. Genetic testing in endocrinology is often based on classical cytogenetic techniques, molecular cytogenetic analysis or molecular biology techniques. Genetic testing in disorders of sex development includes the karyotype and SRY gene analysis and depending on the presence of associated clinical signs and on the observations at paraclinical examination, these tests will be followed by chromosomal array techniques and NGS sequencing. In short stature, the decision to perform a genetic test is taken depending on clinical, paraclinical and imaging signs. In case of a short stature associated with a low weight/length for gestational age, genetic testing is proposed to evaluate a Russell-Silver syndrome or if the short stature is associated with other clinical signs (e.g. intellectual disability), chromosomal analysis by microarray is proposed. If the short stature is disproportionate, it is indicated to perform a next generation sequencing (NGS) of a panel of genes involved in skeletal dysplasia. If an endocrine cause for short stature is observed at the hormonal evaluation, it is indicated to test a panel of genes involved in these pathways. In genetic obesity, depending on clinical signs associated to obesity, it will be a more targeted genetic testing. If obesity is associated with intellectual disability or other nonspecific neurological changes, a chromosomal analysis by microarray will be indicated. If monogenic obesity is suspected, NGS testing will be indicated (as genes panel or whole exome or genome analysis). Genetic testing in endocrine diseases brings an etiological diagnosis, but a favorable cost-benefit ratio derives from an adequate indication of these tests, generally proposed in expert centers for rare endocrine diseases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en386_8081", "title": "XXXY syndrome", "score": 0.01688515246508977, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnosis of 48,XXXY is usually done by a standard karyotype. A karyotype is a chromosomal analysis in which a full set of chromosomes can be seen for an individual. The presence of the additional 2 X chromosomes on the karyotype are indicative of XXXY syndrome. Another way to diagnosis 48,XXXY is by chromosomal microarray showing the presence of extra X chromosomes. Chromosomal microarray (CMA) is used to detect extra or missing chromosomal segments or whole chromosomes. CMA uses microchip-based testing to analyze many pieces of DNA. Males with 48,XXXY are diagnosed anywhere from before birth to adulthood as a result of the range in the severity of symptoms. The age range at diagnosis is likely due to the fact that XXXY is a rare syndrome, and does not cause as extreme phenotypes as other variants of Klinefelter syndrome (such as XXXXY)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1093_19060", "title": "Genotype-Phenotype Analysis of 8q24.3 Duplication and 21q22.3 Deletion in a Chinese Patient and Literature Review.", "score": 0.016338801385530358, "content": "Copy number variants (CNVs) are responsible for many patients with short stature of unknown etiology. This study aims to analyze clinical phenotypes and identify pathogenic CNVs in a patient with short stature, intellectual disability, craniofacial deformities, and anal imperforation. G-banded karyotyping and chromosomal microarray analysis (CMA) was used on the patient to identify pathogenic causes. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) was applied to explore the abnormal genetic origin. Literatures were searched using identified CNVs as keywords in the PubMed database to perform genotype-phenotype analysis. Cytogenetic analysis revealed a normal karyotype 46,XY. CMA detected a 6.1 Mb duplication at 8q24.3 and a 3.6 Mb deletion at 21q22.3. FISH confirmed that the abnormal chromosomes were inherited from paternal balanced translocation. We compared phenotypes of our patient with 6 patients with 8q24.3 duplication and 7 cases with 21q22.3 deletion respectively. A novel 8q24.3 duplication and 21q22.3 deletion was identified in a Chinese patient. Genotype-phenotype analysis demonstrated that patients with 8q24.3 duplication and 21q22.3 deletion had specific facial features, intellectual disability, short stature, and multiple malformations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_17989", "title": "[Genetic and prenatal diagnosis of a pregnant women with mental retardation].", "score": 0.01588177581555065, "content": "To conduct genetic testing and prenatal diagnosis for a pregnant women with growth retardation, severe mental retardation, and a history of adverse pregnancies. G-banded chromosome analysis, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), and whole genome DNA microarray were used to analyze the patient and her fetus. The women was found to be a chimera containing two cell lines with 47 and 46 chromosomes, respectively. Both have involved deletion of 18q21.2q23. FISH analysis suggested that the cell line containing 47 chromosomes has harbored a chromosome marker derived from chromosome 15. The marker has contained chromosome 15p involving the SNRPN locus and part of 15q, which gave rise to a karyotype of 47,XX,del18q21.3,+ish mar D15Z1+ SNRPN+[82]/46,XX,del18q21.3[18]. Whole genome DNA microarray confirmed that a 3.044 Mb fragment from 15q11.2q12 was duplicated, which involved NIPA1, SNRPN and other 17 OMIM genes. Duplication of this region has been characterized by low mental retardation, autism, developmental delay. Meanwhile, there was a 17.992 Mb deletion at 18q21.33q23, which contained 39 OMIM genes including TNFRSF11A and PHLPP1. This fragment was characterized by mental retardation, developmental delay, short stature, and cleft palate. Whole genome microarray analysis confirmed that there was a 17.9 Mb deletion at 18q21.33q23, which has been implemented with mental retardation, general growth retardation, short stature, and cleft palate. After genetic counseling, the family decided to terminate the pregnancy at 21st week. Combined chromosome karyotyping, FISH, and whole genome DNA microarray can determine the origin of marker chromosomes and facilitate delineation of its correlation with the clinical phenotype." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1075_771", "title": "Inconsistency of Karyotyping and Array Comparative Genomic Hybridization (aCGH) in a Mosaic Turner Syndrome Case.", "score": 0.015067079463364292, "content": "<bPurpose</b  Turner syndrome is a sex chromosomal aberration where majority of the patients have 45,X karyotype, while several patients are mosaic involving 45,X/46,XX; 46,X,i(Xq); and other variants. Cytogenetic analysis, karyotyping, is considered to be the \"gold standard\" to detect numerical and structural chromosomal abnormalities. In the recent years, alternative approaches, such as array comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH), have been widely used in genetic analysis to detect numerical abnormalities as well as unbalanced structural rearrangements. In this study, we report the use of karyotyping as well as aCGH in detecting a possible Turner syndrome variant. <bMethods</b  An apparent 16-year-old female was clinically diagnosed as Turner syndrome with premature ovarian failure and short stature. The genetic diagnosis was performed for the patient and the parents by karyotyping analysis. aCGH was also performed for the patient. <bMain Findings</b  Cytogenetic analysis of the patient was performed showing variant Turner syndrome (46,X,i(X)(q10)[26]/46,X,del(X)(q11.2)[11]/45,X[8]/46,XX[5]). The patient's aCGH result revealed that she has a deletion of 57,252kb of Xp22.33-p11.21 region; arr[GRCh37] Xp22.33-p11.21 (310,932-57,563-078)X1. Both aCGH and fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) results suggested that <ishort stature Homeobox-containing</i ( <iSHOX</i ) gene, which is located on Xp22.33, was deleted, though FISH result indicated that this was in a mosaic pattern. <bConclusion</b  In the recent years, aCGH has become the preferred method in detecting numerical abnormalities and unbalanced chromosomal rearrangements. However, its use is hindered by its failure of detecting mosaicism, especially low-level partial mosaicism. Therefore, although the resolution of the aCGH is higher, the cytogenetic investigation is still the first in line to detect mosaicism." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en112_15190", "title": "22q13 deletion syndrome", "score": 0.01485148514851485, "content": "Diagnosis and management Clinical genetics and genetic testing Genetic testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of PMS. A prototypical terminal deletion of 22q13 can be uncovered by karyotype analysis, but many terminal and interstitial deletions are too small to detect with this method. Chromosomal microarray should be ordered in children with suspected developmental delays or ASD. Most cases will be identified by microarray; however, small variations in genes might be missed. The falling cost for whole exome sequencing may replace DNA microarray technology for candidate gene evaluation. Biological parents should be tested with fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) to rule out balanced translocations or inversions. Balanced translocation in a parent increases the risk for recurrence and heritability within families (figure 3)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en524_27065", "title": "Elective genetic and genomic testing", "score": 0.014270407169296707, "content": "Genetic testing for a variety of disorders has seen many advances starting with cytogenetics to evaluate human chromosomes for aneuploidy and other chromosome abnormalities. The development of molecular cytogenetics involving techniques such as fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) followed, permitting the detection of more subtle changes in the karyotype. Techniques to determine the precise sequence of nucleotides in DNA by DNA sequencing, notably Sanger sequencing was developed in the 1970s. In the 1980s the DNA microarray appeared, permitting laboratories to find copy number variants associated with disease that are below the level of detection of cytogenetics but too large to be detected by DNA sequencing. In recent years the development of high-throughput or next-generation sequencing has dramatically lowered the cost of DNA sequencing permitting laboratories to evaluate all 20,000 genes of the human genome at once through exome sequencing and whole genome sequencing. A" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en112_15183", "title": "22q13 deletion syndrome", "score": 0.012698288661405016, "content": "Prototypical terminal deletion of 22q13 can be uncovered by karyotype analysis, but many terminal and interstitial deletions are too small. The availability of DNA microarray technology for revealing multiple genetic problems simultaneously has been the diagnostic tool of choice. The falling cost for the whole exome sequencing and, eventually, whole genome sequencing, may replace DNA microarray technology for candidate evaluation. However, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) tests remain valuable for diagnosing cases of mosaicism (mosaic genetics) and chromosomal rearrangements (e.g., ring chromosome, unbalanced chromosomal translocation). Although early researchers sought a monogenic (single gene genetic disorder) explanation, recent studies have not supported that hypothesis (see Etiology). Signs and symptoms" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0733_10360", "title": "Chromosome abnormalities in Indonesian patients with short stature.", "score": 0.012091503267973857, "content": "Short stature is associated with several disorders including wide variations of chromosomal disorders and single gene disorders. The objective of this report is to present the cytogenetic findings in Indonesian patients with short stature. G-banding and interphase/metaphase FISH were performed on short stature patients with and without other clinical features who were referred by clinicians all over Indonesia to our laboratory during the year 2003-2009. The results of chromosomal analysis of ninety seven patients (mean age: 10.7 years old) were collected. The group of patients with other clinical features showed sex chromosome abnormalities in 45% (18/40) and autosomal abnormalities in 10% (4/40), whereas those with short stature only, 42.1% (24/57) had sex chromosome abnormalities and 1.75% (1/57) had autosomal abnormalities. The autosomal chromosomal abnormalities involved mostly subtelomeric regions. Results discrepancies between karyotype and FISH were found in 10 patients, including detection of low-level monosomy X mosaicism in 6 patients with normal karyotype, and detection of mosaic aneuploidy chromosome 18 in 1 patient with 45,XX,rob(13;14)(q10;q10).Statistical analysis showed no significant association between the groups and the type of chromosomal abnormalities. Chromosome abnormalities account for about 50% of the short stature patients. Wide variations of both sex and autosomal chromosomes abnormalities were detected in the study. Since three out of five patients had autosomal structural abnormalities involving the subtelomeric regions, thus in the future, subtelomeric FISH or even a more sensitive method such as genomic/SNP microarray is needed to confirm deletions of subtelomeric regions of chromosome 9, 11 and 18. Low-level mosaicism in normal karyotype patients indicates interphase FISH need to be routinely carried out in short stature patients as an adjunct to karyotyping." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en230_14682", "title": "18p-", "score": 0.012028138935996482, "content": "Genetics 18p- describes a deletion of the short arm of chromosome 18. About half of the people with deletions have a breakpoint at the centromere. Those with it are said to have centromeric 18p-, and those without are said to have non-centromeric 18p-. Diagnosis Suspicion of a chromosome abnormality is typically raised due to the presence of developmental delays or birth defects. Diagnosis of 18p- is usually made via a blood sample. A routine chromosome analysis, or karyotype, is usually used to make the initial diagnosis, although it may also be made by microarray analysis. Increasingly, microarray analysis is also being used to clarify breakpoints. Prenatal diagnosis is possible via amniocentesis of chorionic villus sampling. MRI In some children without \"classic\" holoprosencephaly, microforms of holoprosencephaly may be noted on MRI, including missing olfactory tracts and bulbs and absent or hypoplastic corpus callosum. Treatment" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en349_34756", "title": "Distal 18q-", "score": 0.010559006211180125, "content": "Diagnosis Suspicion of a chromosome abnormality is typically raised due to the presence of developmental delays or birth defects. Diagnosis of distal 18q- is usually made from a blood sample. A routine chromosome analysis, or karyotype, is usually used to make the initial diagnosis, although it may also be made by microarray analysis. Increasingly, microarray analysis is also being used to clarify breakpoints. Prenatal diagnosis is possible using amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling. Treatment At present, treatment for distal 18q- is symptomatic, meaning the focus is on treating the signs and symptoms of the conditions as they arise. To ensure early diagnosis and treatment, people with distal 18q- are suggested to undergo routine screenings for thyroid, hearing, and vision problems. History" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1112_25413", "title": "Clinical Profiles and Genetic Spectra of 814 Chinese Children With Short Stature.", "score": 0.010094075769132977, "content": "Data and studies based on exome sequencing for the genetic evaluation of short stature are limited, and more large-scale studies are warranted. Some factors increase the likelihood of a monogenic cause of short stature, including skeletal dysplasia, severe short stature, and small for gestational age (SGA) without catch-up growth. However, whether these factors can serve as predictors of molecular diagnosis remains unknown. We aimed to explore the diagnostic efficiency of the associated risk factors and their exome sequences for screening. We defined and applied factors that increased the likelihood of monogenic causes of short stature in diagnostic genetic tests based on next-generation sequencing (NGS) in 814 patients with short stature and at least 1 other factor. Pathogenic/likely pathogenic (P/LP) variants in genes, copy number variations, and chromosomal abnormalities were identified in 361 patients. We found P/LP variants among 111 genes, and RASopathies comprised the most important etiology. Short stature combined with other phenotypes significantly increased the likelihood of a monogenic cause, including skeletal dysplasia, facial dysmorphism, and intellectual disability, compared with simple severe short stature (&lt;-3 SD scores). We report novel candidate pathogenic genes, KMT2C for unequivocal growth hormone insensitivity and GATA6 for SGA. Our study identified the diagnostic characteristics of NGS in short stature with different risk factors. Our study provides novel insights into the current understanding of the etiology of short stature in patients with different phenotypes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0971_10923", "title": "[Diagnosis of a case with partial 9p trisomy by next generation sequencing].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "To explore the genetic cause for a child featuring growth and mental retardation. Following conventional karyotyping analysis of the trio family, next generation sequencing (NGS) was carried out to explore the origin of the supernumerary marker chromosome. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) was used to confirm the result. The karyotypes of both parents were normal, while the proband was found to be 47,XX,+mar. NGS showed that the supernumerary marker has originated from chromosome 9p13.1p24.3 with a size of 39.77 Mb. FISH has confirmed the above finding. The 9p13.1-p24.3 trisomy probably underlies the abnormal phenotypes of the child. Cytogenetic analysis combined with NGS and FISH can provide accurate diagnosis for such disorders." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en607_6121", "title": "SYNGAP1-related intellectual disability", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The majority of mutations are considered de novo, however cases of inheritance from both somatic mosaic and germ-line mosaic parents have been reported. Diagnosis Diagnosis is based on genetic testing, with the recommended testing approach being Chromosomal Microarray Analysis followed by an Intellectual Disability multigene panel or Whole Exome Sequencing. A diagnosis is established following the identification of a heterozygous pathogenic (or likely pathogenic) point mutation of the SYNGAP1 gene (present in approximately 89% of patients), a micro deletion of chromosome 6 incorporating SYNGAP1 (approximately 11% of patients), or a balanced translocation disrupting SYNGAP1. EEG monitoring frequently shows generalized epilepsy, predominantly in the occipital regions. Seizure onset usually occurs around 2 years of age. MRI is usually normal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1126_3649", "title": "Case Report: Genetic Analysis of a Small Supernumerary Marker Chromosome in a Unique Case of Mosaic Turner Syndrome.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The aim of this study was to explore the source and morphology of a small supernumerary marker chromosome (sSMC) from karyotype analysis of a patient with a unique case of mosaic Turner syndrome. The study findings will provide technical reference and genetic counseling for similar cases. A female patient with 46,X,+mar karyotype was diagnosed by genetic karyotype analysis. Genetic methods including fluorescence <iin situ</i hybridization (FISH) and copy number variation sequencing (CNV-seq) based on low-depth whole-genome sequencing were used to explore the source and morphology of sSMC. FISH technology showed that 56.5% of the cells were X and 43.5% of the cells were XY. CNV-seq detection found that the sSMC was chrY, implying that the patient's karyotype was mos 45,X[58.6%]/46,XY[41.4%]. Retrospective karyotype analysis indicated that the female patient's sSMC was inherited from her father's small chrY. Customized FISH probe of Yq12 microdeletion was positive, indicating that the sSMC was a del(Y)(q12). Based on the results of genetic diagnosis, the specialist doctor gave a comprehensive genetic consultation and ordered regular follow-up examinations. The findings of the current study showed that the chromosome description of the unique Turner case was mos 45,X[56.5%]/46,X,del(Y)(q12)[43.5%]. FISH technology played a key role in diagnosis of mosaicism. The terminal deletion of mosaic chrY provided a scientific and an accurate explanation for masculinity failure and abnormal sexual development of the current case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0746_19106", "title": "A unique combination of 17pter trisomy and 21qter monosomy in a boy with developmental delay, severe intellectual disability, growth retardation and dysmorphisms.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Microduplication at 17p13.3 and microdeletion at 21q22 are both rare chromosomal aberrations. The presence of both genomic imbalances in one patient has not been previously reported in literature. In this study, we performed a molecular diagnostic testing with a whole genome microarray on a 3-year-old boy with developmental delay, mental retardation and multiple malformations. A routine G-banding karyotype analysis was performed using peripheral lymphocytes. Chromosome microarray analysis (CMA) was done using Affymetrix CytoScan™ HD array. Genomic imbalances were further confirmed by multiple ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA). The result of karyotyping was normal but CMA detected a 9.8 Mb microduplication at 17p13.3-13.1 (chr17: 1-9,875,545) and a 2.8 Mb microdeletion involving 21q22.3-qter (chr21: 45,239,077-48,097,372). The imbalances were due to a balanced translocation present in patient's mother. The patient was characterized with short stature, profound developmental delay, non-verbal, intellectual disability as well as craniofacial dysmorphism, subtle brain structural anomaly and sparse scalp hair. This is the first patient reported with a combination of a microduplication at 17p13.3-13.1 and a microdeletion at 21q22.3-qter. Both genomic imbalances were undetected by conventional karyotyping but were delineated with CMA test. Synergistic effect from the two rare genomic imbalances is likely responsible for the severe clinical phenotypes observed in this patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1157_15749", "title": "The Case with Short Stature and Intellectual Disability Caused by a Novel 2q12 Duplication.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Copy number variation (CNV) is a kind of malfunction of DNA polymerase to produce extra genetic material which leads to more number of repeats in genes. The CNVs have been associated with different clinical phenotypes such as learning disabilities, short stature, and intellectual disability. The chromosomal microarray analysis is an effective diagnostic method for identifying new CNVs and understanding their clinical effects. In this case report, a variation that has not been reported previously in the literature is presented. This case report will contribute to increasing the knowledge. The CNV (arr [hg19] 2q12.1q12.3 (103,368,824-107,946,062) x3) detected in the index case was also detected in her father and male sibling. Key Words: DNA, Copy number variation, Chromosomal duplication, Intellectual disabilities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0808_4109", "title": "Partial and complete trisomy 14 mosaicism: clinical follow-up, cytogenetic and molecular analysis.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Trisomy 14 mosaicism is a rare chromosomal abnormality. It is associated with multiple congenital anomalies. We report a 15 year-old female with an unusual karyotype with three cell lines: 47,XX,+mar/47,XX,+14/46,XX. At six months old she had short stature, cleft palate, hyperpigmented linear spots in arms and legs and developmental delay. At present, she has mild facial dysmorphism and moderate mental retardation. Cytogenetic analysis was performed in peripheral blood lymphocytes and in the light and dark skin following standard methods. DNAarray - Oligo 180 k was carried out using Agilent Technologies and FISH analysis was accomplished using DNA BACs probes to confirm the result obtained by DNAarray. Methylation-Specific PCR (MS-PCR) of the MEG3 promoter and microsatellite analysis were performed. Microarray analysis confirmed partial trisomy 14 mosaicism; the marker chromosome was found to be from chromosome 14, the result was confirmed with FISH. Methylation (14q32.3) and microsatellite (14q11-14q32.33) analysis were carried out and UPD was discarded. The global result was: mos 47,XX,+del(14)(q11.2)[45]/47,XX,+14[10]/46,XX[45]. This is a unique case because of the coexistence of two abnormal cell lines, including one with +14 and another with +del(14)(q11.2). To our knowledge, only three patients have been reported with trisomy 14 and another abnormal cell line. The array analysis identified the marker chromosome and characterized the breakpoint. The del(14)(q11.2) does not seem to be related to any particular phenotypic characteristic of the patient; the clinical features of our patient observed until now, can be attributed to trisomy 14 mosaicism. Nevertheless, we cannot discard the manifestation of new symptoms related to her karyotype in the future." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1015_12760", "title": "Karyotyping and prenatal diagnosis of 47,XX,+ 8[67]/46,XX [13] Mosaicism: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Trisomy 8 mosaicism has a wide phenotypic variability, ranging from mild dysmorphic features to severe malformations. This report concluded a female pregnant woman with trisomy 8 mosaicism, and carefully cytogenetic diagnoses were performed to give her prenatal diagnostic information. This report also provides more knowledge about trisomy 8 mosaicism and the prenatal diagnostic for clinicians. In this present study, we reported one case of pregnancy woman with trisomy 8 mosaicism. Noninvasive prenatal testing prompted an abnormal Z-score, but further three dimension color ultrasound result suggested a single live fetus with no abnormality. The phenotypic of the pregnant woman was normal. Based on our results, there were no abnormal initial myeloid cells (&lt; 10<sup- 4</sup), which suggested that the patient had no blood diseases. The peripheral blood karyotype of the patient was 47,XX,+ 8[67]/46,XX [13], and karyotype of amniotic fluid was 46, XX. The next generation sequencing (NGS) result suggested that the proportions of trisomy 8 in different tissues were obviously different; and 0% in amniotic fluid. Last, the chromosomes of the patient and her baby were confirmed using chromosome microarray analysis (CMA), and the results were arr[GRCh37](8) × 3,11p15.5p13(230750-33,455,733) × 2 hmz and normal. This pregnancy woman was trisomy 8 mosaicism, but the phenotypic was normal, and also the fetus was normal. Carefully cytogenetic diagnoses should be performed for prenatal diagnose." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en465_9703", "title": "Genotype-first approach", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Genotype-first assessment is becoming the standard approach for clinical diagnosis of complex heterogeneous diseases. Microduplication and microdeletion syndromes have a range of characteristics, including intellectual disability and developmental delay, which vary in severity making patients with these syndromes very difficult to diagnose. Since the development of next-generation sequencing technologies, clinicians have been able to use a genotype-first approach to group these patients based on their microdeletion or duplication and document the disease features present in these groups. Chromosomal microarray analysis, in particular, is being used clinically to assist in diagnosing patients with microdeletion and microdulplication syndromes. In diseases, such as Autism spectrum disorder (ASD), where differentiating patients into disease subtype groups based on phenotype is challenging, genotype-first studies allow the classification of patients into subtypes based on their genetics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1006_22194", "title": "[Reflection of a case misdiagnosed as trisomy 21 syndrome by G-banded chromosomal karyotyping analysis].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To emphasize the clinical significance of copy number variations (CNVs) detection by describing a case misdiagnosed as trisomy 21 syndrome by G-banded chromosomal karyotype analysis. A girl with obesity and short stature was diagnosed as trisomy 21 syndrome by G-banded chromosomal karyotype analysis. Considering the discrepancy of her karyotype with her phenotype, genomic CNVs was detected by next-generation sequencing and the result was verified by quantitative PCR (qPCR). A microduplication of 16p11.2: 29 642 339-29 775 631 (133.292 kb) was detected. qPCR assay for QPRT and SPN located in the duplicated region confirmed the finding of CNVs assay. Meanwhile, her parents did not present similar duplication in 16p11.2. The 16p11.2 microduplication was a novel genomic structural variation in the girl, though it may not be associated with her clinical manifestations. Chromosomal microarray or next-generation sequencing-based CNVs detection can accurately determine the origin of small supernumerary marker chromosome and reduce the chance of misdiagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0988_8785", "title": "[Genotypic and phenotypic analysis of a patient with de novo partial monosomy 18p and partial trisomy 18q].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To explore the genetic cause for a patient with intellectual disability, short stature and multiple congenital anomalies, and to correlate the result with the clinical phenotype. Routine karyotyping analysis was carried out on GTG-banded metaphase chromosomes. Single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) microarray was used to detect microdeletions or microduplications in the patient. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) was used to ascertain the origin of aberrant chromosomes. The karyotype of the patient was 46,XY,der(18), while both of his parents had a normal karyotype. SNP array identified a 1.23 Mb deletion at 18p11.32-pter (chr18: 136 227-1 370 501, hg19) and a 33.76 Mb duplication at 18q21.1-qter (chr18: 44 250 359-78 013 728, hg19) in the patient. Above finding was confirmed by dual-color FISH with one color for 18p and another for 18q. The patient presented with some common features of 18p deletion and 18q duplication including intellectual disability and growth retardation, in addition with some features of 18p deletion including pectus excavatum, short stature and growth hormone (GH) deficiency. The patient showed progressive improvement of stature with GH therapy. Comparison of patients with previously reported dup(18q)+del(18p) recombinations suggested that, even for patients with similar breakpoints, their phenotypes have ranged from normal to severe and there were no consistent findings. As aberrations involving double chromosomal segments often result in phenotypic variability, it has been difficult to correlate the genotype of our patient with his phenotype." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0902_22109", "title": "[Application of chromosomal microarray analysis for the diagnosis of children with intellectual disability/developmental delay and a normal karytype].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To assess the value of chromosomal microarray analysis (CMA) for the diagnosis of children with intellectual disability/developmental delay (ID/DD) but a normal karytype. Peripheral blood samples from 92 ID/DD patients were analyzed with CMA using Affymetrix CytoScan 750K arrays. The results were analyzed by ChAS v3.0 software. Eighteen cases (19.57%) were detected with abnormalities by CMA, among which 10 cases were diagnosed with microdeletion/microduplication syndromes. These included 2 Williams-Beuren syndromes, 2 Angelman syndromes, 2 Russell-Silver syndromes, 1 Smith-Magenis syndromes, 1 Wolf-Hirschhorn syndromes, 1 15q26 overgrowth syndrome and 1 Xq28 (MECP2) duplication syndrome. In addition, 8 cases were diagnosed with pathogenic copy number variations (pCNV). CMA can significantly improve the diagnostic rate for patients with ID/DD, which is of great value for the treatment of such children and guidance of reproduction for their parents. Therefore, CMA should become the first-line diagnostic test for patients with ID/DD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1057_13999", "title": "A novel 1p33p32.2 deletion involving SCP2, ORC1, and DAB1 genes in a patient with craniofacial dysplasia, short stature, developmental delay, and leukoencephalopathy: A case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Microdeletion syndromes occur from deletion of 5Mb of a chromosome in approximately 5% of patients with unexplained intellectual disability. Interstitial microdeletions at bands 1p33 and 1p32.2 of the short arm of chromosome 1 are rare and have not been previously reported in relation to disease. We present a case of a 39-month boy with Pierre Robin sequence, development delay/intellectual disability, growth retardation, short stature, leukoencephalopathy, craniofacial dysplasia, and speech delay. The child was referred to the Child health care department in October 2014 for his delayed language development and aggravated aggression. Molecular diagnostic testing with G-band karyotyping was normal but clinical microarray analysis detected a 10 Mb microdeletion at 1p33p32.2. The patient received rehabilitation. Three candidate genes were pinpointed to the deleted area, including ORC1, SCP2, and DAB1. Phenotype-genotype analysis suggested that these three genes are likely to be responsible for the main phenotypes observed in the patient, such as microcephaly, growth retardation, short stature, leukoencephalopathy, and development delay/intellectual disability. The spectrum of phenotypes this case presented with are likely to be caused by 1p33p32.2 deletion which could represent a new microdeletion syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_12231", "title": "[Clinical and genetic analysis of a rare case with mosaic partial trisomy 5p syndrome].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To determine the size and origin of a small supernumerary marker chromosome (sSMC) identified in a patient featuring developmental retardation. High-throughput sequencing for copy number variation (CNV-seq) was carried out to delineate the sSMC identified upon G-banded chromosomal karyotyping. The genotype-phenotype correlation was explored by database retrieval and literature analysis. The patient was found to have a karyotype of mos 47,XX,+mar[36]/46,XX[23]. CNV-seq has identified a 18 Mb duplication at 5p14.1-p12 (hg19: 27,399,261-46,083,784)x2.6 with a mosaicism rate of approximately 60%. Patients with mosaic partial trisomy 5p may have extensive clinical manifestations, and the ratio of trisomy 5p cells is correlated with clinical severity of this syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0793_10570", "title": "A Rare, Recurrent, De Novo 14q32.2q32.31 Microdeletion of 1.1 Mb in a 20-Year-Old Female Patient with a Maternal UPD(14)-Like Phenotype and Intellectual Disability.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We present a 20-year-old female patient from Indonesia with intellectual disability (ID), proportionate short stature, motor delay, feeding problems, microcephaly, facial dysmorphism, and precocious puberty who was previously screened normal for conventional karyotyping, fragile X testing, and subtelomeric MLPA analysis. Subsequent genome wide array analysis was performed on DNA from blood and revealed a 1.1 Mb deletion in 14q32.2q32.31 (chr14:100,388,343-101,506,214; hg19). Subsequent carrier testing in the parents by array showed that the deletion had occurred de novo in the patient and that her paternal 14q32 allele was deleted. The deleted region encompasses the DLK1/GTL2 imprinted gene cluster which is consistent with the maternal UPD(14)-like phenotype of the patient. This rare, recurrent microdeletion was recently shown not to be mediated by low copy repeats, but by expanded TGG repeats, flanking the 14q32.2q32.21 deletion boundaries, a novel mechanism of recurrent genomic rearrangement. This is another example how the application of high resolution genome wide testing provides an accurate genetic diagnosis, thereby improving the care for patients and optimizing the counselling for family. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0886_19605", "title": "A case of 46,XX dysgenesis and marked tall stature; the need for caution in interpreting array comparative genomic hybridization (CGH).", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Gonadal dysgenesis with an apparently normal 46,XX karyotype is a rare cause of hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism. Tall stature is not a widely recognized association. A 15-year-old girl presented with primary amenorrhoea. Examination showed a non-dysmorphic girl of normal intellect with no breast development (Tanner stage B1P4A1) who was tall compared with her parents: height standard deviation score (SDS) +1.56 vs. midparental height of +0.23 SDS, and slim build (weight -0.13 SDS). Investigations showed a 46,XX karyotype, elevated gonadotropins (FSH 119 and LH 33.7 IU/L), serum estradiol &lt;5 pmol/L, uterine length 3.75 cm with cylindrical shape, and absent ovaries on ultrasound. Initially, a 364055-bp deletion on Xp21.2 was reported on array CGH. However, repeat analysis using BlueGnome CytoChip ISCA 4x180k v2.0 array was normal. With oral ethinyl estradiol induction puberty progressed to B4P4A2 but aged 18.4 years, the patient was remarkably tall with height SDS +2.88, weight SDS +0.97. Caution is needed in interpreting small changes with array CGH, particularly with the older assays. We postulate that the genetic change causing 46,XX gonadal dysgenesis in our patient may have also resulted in unsuppressed somatic growth. More critical height assessment, including parental height measurement, of future patients with 46,XX gonadal dysgenesis is recommended in order to determine whether or not a true association with tall stature may be present in certain cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0958_18776", "title": "A 13-year-old girl with 18p deletion syndrome presenting Turner syndrome-like clinical features of short stature, short webbed neck, low posterior hair line, puffy eyelids and increased carrying angle of the elbows.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We report a 13-year-old girl with 18p deletion syndrome presenting Turner syndrome-like clinical features. A 13-year-old girl was referred for genetic counseling of Turner syndrome-like clinical features of short stature, short webbed neck, low posterior hair line, puffy eyelids and increased carrying angle of the elbows. The girl also had mild intellectual disability, psychomotor developmental delay, speech disorder, high-arched palate, hypertelorism and mid-face hypoplasia. Cytogenetic analysis of the girl revealed a karyotype of 46,XX,del(18) (p11.2). The parental karyotypes were normal. Array comparative genomic hybridization analysis on the DNA extracted from the peripheral blood revealed a 13.93-Mb deletion of 18p11.32-p11.21 or arr 18p11.32p11.21 (148,993-14,081,858) × 1.0 [GRCh37 (hg19)] encompassing 52 Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man (OMIM) genes including USP14, TYMS, SMCHD1, TGIF1, LAMA1, TWSG1, GNAL and PTPN2. Polymorphic DNA marker analysis revealed a maternal origin of the deletion. Females with Turner syndrome-like clinical features in association with intellectual disability, facial dysmorphism and psychomotor developmental delay should be suspected of having chromosome deletion syndromes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1020_7797", "title": "Tetrasomy 18p Case Report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Tetrasomy 18p is a rare disorder. It is known to affect about 250 families worldwide. Tetrasomy 18p is also the most common type of isochromosome. Here we report a de novo tetrasomy 18p. The copy number variation of the patient was detected by microarray. Whether the abnormal gene was inherited from the parents was detected by karyotype analysis. Then the source of the chromosome was located by fluorescence in situ hybridization. Finally, we used MLPA technology to validate the results of patient testing. Microarray detection found that patients with 18p11.32p11.21 had duplication, with a copy number of four, which was tetrasomy 18 syndrome. The karyotype results showed 48,XY,+2mar?. Chromosome 18 telomere probe FISH experimental results: 48,XY,+i(18)(p10),+mar.ish. MLPA results showed that the number of chromosome 18 short arm copies is increased. Karyotype analysis results of his mother were 47,XX,+mar. Microarray results showed normal. Karyotype results of his father were normal. This case is de novo case, the patient's marker chromosome may be inherited from his mother, which does not rule out the influence of his mother's marker chromosome on his isochromosome 18." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0936_994", "title": "Novel contiguous gene deletion in peruvian girl with Trichothiodystrophy type 4 and glutaric aciduria type 3.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Trichothiodystrophy type 4 is a rare autosomal recessive and ectodermal disorder, characterized by dry, brittle, sparse and sulfur-deficient hair and other features like intellectual disability, ichthyotic skin and short stature, caused by a homozygous mutation in MPLKIP gene. Glutaric aciduria type 3 is caused by a homozygous mutation in SUGCT gene with no distinctive phenotype. Both genes are localized on chromosome 7 (7p14). We report an 8-year-old female with short stature, microcephaly, development delay, intellectual disability and hair characterized for dark, short, coarse, sparse and brittle associated to classical trichorrhexis microscopy pattern. Chromosome microarray analysis showed a 125 kb homozygous pathogenic deletion, which includes genes MPLKIP and SUGCT, not described before. This is the first case described in Peru of a novel contiguous gene deletion of Trichothiodystrophy type 4 and Glutaric aciduria type 3 performed by chromosome microarray analysis, highlighting the contribution and importance of molecular technologies on diagnosis of rare genetic conditions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1109_14608", "title": "The phenotype and rhGH treatment response of ring Chromosome 15 Syndrome: Case report and literature review.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Ring chromosome 15 [r (15)] is an uncommon finding with various clinical manifestations. A common phenotype for these patients has not been established and data on the efficacy of recombinant human growth hormone (rhGH) treatment in patients with r (15) syndrome are limited. One short stature patient in our hospital with r (15) syndrome by whole exome sequencing (WES) and karyotype examination was included. All published r (15) syndrome cases as of March 15, 2021, were searched, and their clinical information was recorded and summarized. One 11.5-year-old female with prenatal and postnatal growth retardation, ventricular septal defect, intellectual disability, downward corners, short fifth metacarpal bone, scattered milk coffee spots, and a right ovarian cyst was included. Her height was 126.9 cm (-3.45 SDS). Karyotype analysis showed 46, XX, r (15). WES revealed a 4.5 Mb heterozygous deletion in the chromosome 15q26.2-q26.3 region, encompassing genes from ARRDC4 to OR4F15. Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogue (triptorelin) and rhGH were administered for 6 months. The height has increased 3.8 cm (+0.2SDS) and the calculated growth rate has improved from 4.7 to 7.6 cm/y. The literature review indicated the main clinical manifestations of r (15) syndrome with prenatal and postnatal growth retardation, characteristic craniofacial features, and multisystem abnormalities, and rhGH treatment is beneficial for r (15) syndrome patients with short stature. We delineate the clinical spectrum of r (15) syndrome with the identification of an additional individual and rhGH treatment is beneficial for r (15) syndrome patients with short stature." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_1778", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.008880606792936278, "content": "This technique may be used for rapid identiication of a speciic chromosome abnormality and for veriication of suspected microdeletion or duplication syndromes, such as the 22q 11.2 microdeletion described earlier (p. 260). Because of its 1-to 2-day turnaround time, FISH is often selected for cases in which indings may alter pregnancy management. To perform FISH, cells are ixed onto a glass slide, and fluorescent-labeled probes are hybridized to the ixed chromosomes (Figs. 13-11 and 13-12). Each probe is a DNA sequence that is complementary to a region of the chromosome or gene being investigated. If the DNA sequence is present, hybridization is detected as a bright signal visible by microscopy. The number of signals indicates the number of chromosomes or genes of that type in the cell being analyzed. Findings are probe-speciic. Namely, FISH does not provide information on the entire chromosomal complement but merely the chromosomal or gene region of interest." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 197, 383 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 60 ] ], "text": "Cannulated screws are reserved for cases of non-displaced fractures (Wrong answer 2) so the most indicated option would be arthroplasty, in this case hemiarthroplasty (Correct answer 1)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 197, 459 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 70 ] ], "text": "Cannulated screws are reserved for cases of non-displaced fractures (Wrong answer 2) so the most indicated option would be arthroplasty, in this case hemiarthroplasty (Correct answer 1). Trochanteric pins are reserved for extracapsular fractures (Wrong answer 2)" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 464, 596 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 71, 89 ] ], "text": "conservative treatment is only considered in patients with very low functional demand or surgical contraindication (Wrong answer 4)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hip hemiarthroplasty.", "2": "Trochanteric nail fixation.", "3": "Fixation with cannulated screws.", "4": "Conservative: bed-chair life.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0359_688", "title": "Ethics in practice.", "score": 0.018706293706293706, "content": "H. K. is a ninety-two-year-old woman with Alzheimer's disease and mild hypertension. She resides at a nursing home, where she transfers from bed to chair with maximal assistance. She presents to our emergency department with a painful right hip. Physical examination demonstrates a confused, elderly patient with significant right hip pain and shortening and external rotation of the lower extremity. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced intertrochanteric hip fracture. The patient lacks the capacity for informed consent. Her family is contacted to obtain consent for insertion of a compression screw. The family refuses to give consent, stating that the patient is too old and the surgery is too dangerous." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_14674", "title": "[Evaluation of the postoperative quality of life in the elderly over 80 years old who underwent hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture].", "score": 0.015358455378201963, "content": "To evaluate the postoperative quality of life of aged patients (&gt; 80 years old) who underwent hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture one year ago. From February 1995 to February 2001, 52 elderly patients (&gt; 80 years old) underwent the hip hemiarthroplasty after femoral neck fractures. There were 28 males and 24 females, with the average age of 84.2 years old (ranged from 80 - 95 years old). The fracture type was Garden III or IV, and all the patients underwent the hip hemiarthroplasty of domestic prosthesis. Before the operation, most of them were accompanied with pre-existed diseases. Harris hip score including symptoms and the ability of daily life at the one year after operation was adopted for the follow-up. Postoperative A-P and lateral X-ray of hip joint in different phase were also assayed. Forty-six patients (88.46%) were free of pain and satisfied their operations, only 6 patients (11.54%) complained about slight pain. Twenty-four patients (46.2%) were able to walk without any assistant, 24 patients (46.2%) managed to walk by walker, 4 patients (7.7%) could only lie on the bed or move by wheel chair. Postoperatively, patients with neurological diseases such as Parkinson dementia, Senile dementia, cerebrovascular diseases got poor result of the quality of life. However, the other comorbid diseases such as cardiovascular diseases, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, chronic bronchitis did not affect the result. Thirty-eight patients had the postoperative X-ray when they were followed up. Postoperatively, the X-ray were taken from 3 months to 5 years and 6 months, averaged 54.2 months. Sclerotic line were discovered around the shaft of prosthesis only in 3 patients. No complications such as femoral head central dislocation or hip osteoarthritis were found. Operative treatment could be actively adopted for aged femoral neck fracture patients without surgical contraindication, which can contribute to obtain the motion ability, reduce complication caused by lying in bed, and keep a good quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_1095", "title": "MR-Brain Causing Confusion.", "score": 0.015281915480525212, "content": "An 82-year-old lady was found on the floor of her home, confused and surrounded by vomitus. She had a past medical history of type II diabetes, hypothyroidism, previous left total hip replacement, and previous hip fracture treated with right dynamic screw fixation. Prior to the current presentation she had been living alone, mobilizing independently with a walking stick and self-caring for her activities of daily living. She was last seen by her daughter on the previous day, and reported no concerning symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_25999", "title": "Ground-level geriatric falls: a not-so-minor mechanism of injury.", "score": 0.013338496622348435, "content": "Introduction. Ground-level falls are typically regarded as a minor mechanism of injury that do not necessitate trauma team activation; however, they represent a significant proportion of hospitalised trauma and can result in multisystem injury. Case Presentation. A 79-year-old nursing home resident was brought to the emergency department following an unwitnessed fall. She suffered dementia and had a seizure in the department resulting in a reduced GCS, making history and examination difficult. She was diagnosed with a right proximal humerus fracture and admitted under joint orthopedic and medical care. Following orthopedic review, further X-rays were requested which showed bilateral neck of femur fractures. The following day she had bilateral hip hemiarthroplasties and K-wire stabilisation of the right shoulder. Several days later, when cognition had improved, she was noted to be avoiding use of the left arm and was found to also have a left proximal humerus fracture which was managed conservatively. Conclusion. Trauma patients with reduced cognitive function should undergo full ATLS assessment, and a prospective trial is required to see if age should be incorporated as a criteria for trauma team activation. More liberal use of advanced imaging such as a full body CT-scan may be beneficial. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0383_18195", "title": "Mortality and quality of life after trochanteric hip fracture.", "score": 0.01262884569989771, "content": "The objective was to evaluate the survival and some aspects of the quality of life of patients with trochanteric hip fracture after long-term follow-up in comparison with the age- and sex-matched controls without fracture. Two hundred consecutive patients (mean age at fracture 77 y) with trochanteric hip fractures were compared with the age- and sex-matched controls representing an average population from the same area. After a mean 7 y follow-up period a questionnaire concerning their place of residence, ambulation, causes leading to impairment, need for locomotor aids and management of activities in daily living (ADL) functions was sent to the surviving patients and controls. Mortality increased gradually being 4.5 percent above the control level one month after the fracture, 6.0 percent above at three months, 3.5 percent above at one year, 4.5 percent above at two years, 6.5 percent above at five years and 9.0 percent above at six years. Thirty (48%) of the surviving 62 patients and 83 (90%) of the 92 surviving controls were living in their own homes and 2 (3%) and 4 (4%) in service apartments respectively. Seventeen (27%) of patients alive were institutionalized in a chronic care hospital unit and 13 (21%) in an old people's home as compared with 2 (2%) and 3 (3%) of the controls respectively. Twenty-two (35%) of the patients and 73 (79%) of the controls were able to move about independently. The patients were significantly worse at ADL-management, required more home help and had fewer social contacts and outdoor hobbies than the controls. In conclusion surgically-treated trochanteric hip fractures markedly increase mortality rate, reduce independence and impair walking ability and ADL-functions, and thus seriously affect the health-related quality of life of the patients. This fact should be considered in the planning of the healthcare of elderly people." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_6300", "title": "Internal fixation compared with total hip replacement for displaced femoral neck fractures in the elderly. A randomised, controlled trial.", "score": 0.012620837808807732, "content": "The treatment algorithms for displaced fractures of the femoral neck need to be improved if we are to reduce the need for secondary surgery. We have studied 102 patients of mean age 80 years, with an acute displaced fracture of the femoral neck. They were randomly placed into two groups, treated either by internal fixation (IF) with two cannulated screws or total hip replacement (THR). None showed severe cognitive dysfunction, all were able to walk independently, and all lived in their own home. They were reviewed at four, 12 and 24 months after surgery. Outcome measurements included hip complications, revision surgery, hip function according to Charnley and the health-related quality of life (HRQoL) according to EuroQol (EQ-5D). The failure rate after 24 months was higher in the IF group than in the THR group with regard to hip complications (36% and 4%, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), and the number of revision procedures (42% and 4%, p &lt; 0.001). Hip function was significantly better in the THR group at all follow-up reviews regarding pain (p &lt; 0.005), movement (p &lt; 0.05 except at 4 months) and walking (p &lt; 0.05). The reduction in HRQoL (EQ-5D index score) was also significantly lower in the THR group than in the IF group, comparing the pre-fracture situation with that at all follow-up reviews (p &lt; 0.05). The results of our study strongly suggest that THR provides a better outcome than IF for elderly, relatively healthy, lucid patients with a displaced fracture of the femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_17116", "title": "[Femoral shaft fractures in the elderly treated by intramedullary nailing].", "score": 0.012048613536355382, "content": "Little work has been devoted to femoral shaft fractures in the elderly, contrasting with the data available for proximal neck or trochanteric fractures. The purpose of this study was to determine the epidemiological and clinical features of femoral shaft fractures in the elderly from a retrospective series of 58 patients who underwent locked intramedullary nailing procedures with Grosse and Kempf (GK) or long gamma (GL) nails. The series included 38 women and 20 men, mean age 83.6 years, who suffered a fracture of the femoral diaphysis due to a fall at home (49 fractures), a traffic accident (8 fractures) or a high-energy fall (1 fracture). Prior to the fracture, 10 patients had homolateral osteoarthritis and two had a contralateral hip arthroplasty. Twenty-six patients were in very good health, 19 had a history of cardiovascular disease, 9 had diabetes and 12 suffered parkinsonian syndromes or dementia. The ASA score was I in 24, II in 23 and III in 11. The diaphyseal fracture was isolated in 31 cases and associated with trochanteric involvement in 27. The upper third of the femur was involved in 37 cases, the middle third in 7 and the lower third in 14. Generally there was a simple spiroid subtrochanteric fracture line (36 cases), or a torsion wedge with or without a proximal extension. Mean delay to surgery was 1.9 days. Subtrochanteric fractures with a proximal line were stabilized with a GL (34 nails) and diaphyseal fractures with a GK (24 nails). Mean duration of the procedure was 1.9 for GL and 2 hours for GK. In 22 cases (17 GL and 5 GK), a minimally invasive access was needed to achieve reduction or stabilization during reaming and insertion of complementary fixation (3 screw fixations, 7 cerclages). Six patients died before six months, 4 during the initial hospitalization. Twenty patients experienced general complications: 7 cases of phlebitis and 5 \"end-of-life\" syndromes. Infection occurred in 3 cases including one septic arthritis leading to a bedridden situation. A new fracture beyond the ends of the implant occurred in 2 others. The upright position was achieved within 31 days and total weight bearing within 69 days. Bone fusion was achieved at 4 months (mean). Six patients died between 6 and 12 months, giving a 20.6% mortality at 1 year. Clinical outcome at 12 months was available for 42 living patients: 21 were walking without assistance, 7 used a cane, 8 required crutches or another assistance device and 6 were bedridden. The general and functional prognosis of femoral shaft fractures in the elderly is the same as for proximal fractures. These diaphyseal fractures can be individualized due to their characteristic mechanical and anatomic features: composite fracture with a rotation element involving the distal portion of the trochanter and the proximal quarter of the diaphysis. Several types of ostheosynthesis have been proposed for fixation. Locked intramedullary nailing has been found to be effective despite the difficulty in reduction, especially for particularly proximal fractures. There is a risk of iterative fracture in the transition zones between the femoral component and the osteoporotic bone." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en512_13521", "title": "Kitni Girhain Baaki Hain (season 2)", "score": 0.01169925290096964, "content": "a new mobile. While, another woman's brother is unconscious because of drinking alcohol but he also survives! Bushra, angrily goes to her home, pushes a tap to get water and water comes hardly. She comes to home and shakes her bhandara. She abuses to doctor to not let die patient. She says to kill doctor. She again prays that someone should die. But again that patient survives. Doctor sees her and again says her that why has she come here and gives her money but she refuses. She goes to home where same doctor comes in ike and asks her to do nursing of hospital. She doesn't give answer but comes in hospital to be a nurse. Nurse guides her, she falls with that doctor and they both smile. She comes to home in night, where her father says that 3 persons died in highway and tap contains much water. She says her father if he could make her doctor. She sleeps in bed in ankles. Doctor comes and wakes her up that patient is dying and she is sleeping and warns that her father will be" }, { "id": "article-21679_7", "title": "Femoral Neck Fractures -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010165389269866883, "content": "In the majority of cases, the patient will have had recent trauma. In cases of dementia or cognitive impairment, the history may be scant without the report of any trauma. This is where obtaining an account from the nursing home, or health aids is crucial. Question the nurse aids of any recent falls and change in cognition the past few days. The patient will complain of pain with a decreased range of motion of the hip. In non-displaced fractures, there may be no deformity. However, displaced fractures may present with a shortened and externally rotated lower limb. The patient history varies depending on the mechanism of injury. The following should be obtained during the history and physical examination:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_11865", "title": "Subcapital femoral neck fracture after closed reduction and internal fixation of an intertrochanteric hip fracture: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A subcapital femoral neck fracture in a healed intertrochanteric fracture treated by an open reduction and internal fixation is a rare, but catastrophic, event. We present the case of an 86-year-old woman, a community ambulator, who sustained a displaced right intertrochanteric hip fracture during a fall. She was treated with closed reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic compression hip screw and side plate. Four months later, she was noted to have a displaced subcapital femoral neck fracture and underwent hip screw and side plate hardware removal and cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty. Both postoperative recoveries were uncomplicated, and she was discharged to a rehabilitation facility able to ambulate with minimal assistance. This devastating complication in patients with osteoporosis may be prevented by deeper placement of the dynamic hip compression lag screw to within 5 mm to 8 mm of the subchondral bone, which may decrease the stress forces in the subcapital femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0038_9199", "title": "Fractures of the hip in the tenth decade of life. Findings in 25 cases.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A report is given of the results of treatment of 25 patients with a fracture of the hip who were over 90 years of age. Twenty three patients were subjected to operation: 5 of these died in hospital, but not as a direct consequence of operation. Of the 18 patients discharged after an average hospital stay of 32 days, 13 were able to walk independently at home, on the average for over two years. It is concluded that surgical treatment of fractures of the hip in very old people is advisable and useful, provided they are in reasonable general condition and do not exhibit dementia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0781_4597", "title": "The effects of a Pilates-based exercise rehabilitation program on functional outcome and fall risk reduction in an aging adult status-post traumatic hip fracture due to a fall.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Currently, little information describing the relationship of Pilates-based strength and stability exercises with fall risk in the geriatric population exists. The purpose of this report was to examine the impact of a Pilates-based rehabilitation (PBR) program on reducing fall risk in an aging adult status postfall with resulting hip fracture and open reduction and internal fixation. The patient was an 84-year-old woman admitted to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) after a right hip fracture resulting from a fall at home. The patient's relevant medical history included frequent falls due to loss of balance, a previous left hip fracture with resultant arthroplasty, and a stroke roughly 20 years prior. The patient received physical therapy and occupational therapy 6 days per week for 26 days in an SNF. The physical therapy intervention consisted of gait and transfer training, neuromuscular reeducation, and an adjunct of specialized PBR exercises for the following impairments: decreased core strength and awareness and poor dynamic stabilization during functional activities. The patient demonstrated increases in lower extremity strength and active range of motion, ambulation distance and speed, and transfer ability. The patient was able to return home and live with her husband while requiring only incidental assistance with activities of daily living. She was able to independently ambulate around her home with her rolling walker. Her fall risk was also reduced from initial evaluation based on several fall risk assessments, including the Four Square Step Test, the Berg Balance Scale, and the Timed Up and Go. This case illustrates the benefit of integrating PBR exercises into a standard SNF rehabilitation program, which may contribute to decreased fall risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_6234", "title": "Home, please: A conjoint analysis of patient preferences after a bad hip fracture.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "An Australian study of older, community-dwelling women found that 80% would rather be dead than experience loss of independence and nursing home admission after a bad hip fracture. We re-examined this issue using a conjoint analysis approach. We asked older hospital patients with a history of falls, fracture or osteoporosis to imagine they had a hip fracture resulting in significant residual disability. Subjects were asked to rank in order of preference an orthogonal array of nine out of 36 potential outcome scenarios reporting risk of falls, life expectancy, discharge home with support or to a nursing home and family agreement or disagreement with discharge location. Of 192 patients satisfying inclusion criteria, 183 agreed to participate and 97 completed the study. Those who failed to complete the study were older and had lower Mini-Mental State Examination scores than those who completed the study. For the group as a whole, averaged importance scores were: discharge residence 31.3%, length of life 27%, fall risk 26.4% and family preference 15.5%. On average, subjects would be willing to sacrifice approximately 9 months of life in order to return home rather than go to a nursing home. In the present study, older people at high risk for fracture judged that after a bad hip fracture their main priority would be to remain at home." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1159_2", "title": "Bilateral atraumatic femoral neck fractures resulting from transient osteoporosis of the hip.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A woman in her mid-30s presented to the orthopaedic team, unable to mobilise, shortly after her caesarean section. On questioning, she reported 10 weeks of atraumatic right hip pain. A radiograph revealed a displaced right subcapital neck of femur fracture. An MRI confirmed this, as well as identifying a minimally displaced left subcapital neck of femur fracture. She underwent a right total hip replacement and internal fixation of the left hip. A dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan showed severe osteoporosis, and a diagnosis of transient osteoporosis of the hip was made. She was seen by the bone metabolism team and given calcium and vitamin D medication. Although atraumatic hip fractures are rare in young patients, disproportionate or persisting hip pain in pregnant patients should raise the index of suspicion and prompt further investigation in the form of an MRI. This will allow timely management of hip fractures and improve patient outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_6344", "title": "Long-Term Outcomes Following Reduction and Fixation of Displaced Subcapital Hip Fractures in the Young Elderly.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The surgical treatment of hip fractures remains controversial especially when considering age. To investigate the long-term functional outcomes of displaced subcapital hip fractures that were reduced and surgically fixed using parallel cannulated screws in patients aged 60 years and younger. During the period 1996-2005, 27 patients under age 60 with displaced subcapital hip fractures classified as Garden III or IV were treated with fracture reduction and surgical internal fixation using cannulated screws. Patient outcomes were assessed using the Harris Hip Score (HHS) and physical examination. During a follow-up period of 8-17 years 4 of the 27 patients (14.8%) developed non-union/femoral head avascular necrosis and had undergone hip arthroplasty. All reoperations were performed within the first year after fracture fixation, all in the 50-60 year old age group. The revision rate among patients 50-60 years old was significantly higher than that of patients 50 years and younger (40% vs. 0%, P = 0.037). Mean HHS was higher for patients not requiring revision surgery (85.4) than for patients with revision surgery (75.5), but this difference was not significant. Internal fixation using fracture reduction and cannulated screw fixation is a successful treatment modality for displaced subcapital hip fractures in patients under 50 years old. Patients aged 50-60 may have a higher risk of avascular necrosis or non-union and require arthroplasty, often within the first year after fracture fixation. The long-term outcome following these fractures is good when excluding patients who had early complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_12274", "title": "[Life-threatening sleepwalking (Elpenor's syndrome) in a 10-year-old child].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Though benign in the majority of cases, sleepwalking sometimes causes injuries due, among other causes, to falls. Such accidents can be life-threatening - a situation that has been termed Elpenor syndrome (in reference to an accident experienced by a character in Homer's epic The Odyssey) - in particular when entailing defenestration. This syndrome has been described in adults and adolescents; we report here a case in a child. This 10-year-old girl was admitted at night to our hospital after a 3-m fall at home. She was alert (Glasgow score, 15) at admission; a frontal wound and a deformation of the right wrist were noted. Brain CT scans showed a frontal skull fracture and frontal lobe contusion, wrist x-rays showed a displaced right fracture. The patient underwent urgent neurosurgery (wound excision and suture after reduction of skull fracture) and closed reduction and immobilization of the wrist fracture, both under general anesthesia. She underwent a psychiatric assessment in the intensive care unit 3 days after her fall. She was alert, well-oriented in time and space, and spoke fluently. She had no memory of her fall, only remembering going to bed in the evening before the accident and waking up in the ambulance on the way to the hospital. She displayed no sign of a concurrent mental illness and no suicidal ideas. Her parents reported that the evening of the accident she and her two brothers had all fallen asleep about 11:00 pm while watching TV, in the double bed of the guest room, placed just beside its window. At approximately 1:00 am, her father, who was going to bed and had just made noise in the hall, heard a cry from the guest room. He entered the room immediately and saw the opened window and his daughter lying on the outside ground; the brothers only awakened after the fall. The family had returned 2 days before from a 6-month stay in the United States, with jet-lag, sleep deprivation, and a disorganized sleep/wake rhythm in the patient. There was no medication before the accident, no substance use (including caffeine), and no concurrent medical problem. Over the 2 preceding years, the patient had undergone two witnessed episodes of early-nighttime arousal with altered consciousness and calm wandering (including going downstairs on one occasion), both strongly suggesting sleepwalking. There was a history of sleepwalking in her father and her older brother. Life-threatening sleepwalking (Elpenor syndrome) was diagnosed. The child and her parents were educated about sleepwalking; regularization of sleep schedules and sleep extension (avoidance of sleep deprivation, short napping when possible) were prescribed. We also recommended securing the home (bed, windows, and stairways). No pharmacological treatment was instituted. During the following 18 months, the child manifested only one noted sleepwalking episode, without risk-taking. She had no neurological or psychopathological sequela from her accident, of which she never had a memory. Elpenor syndrome can occur in a child; consequently, it is important to inform parents of children with sleepwalking about the necessity of always securing the night-time environment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_4255", "title": "Predictors of community reintegration and quality of life after hip fracture among community-dwelling older adults.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We aim to explore factors contributing to community reintegration and health-related quality of life (HRQoL) among community-dwelling older adults three months after discharge from inpatient rehabilitation following hip fracture. We performed a prospective cohort study with follow-up. Thirty-three consecutive patients (age 66-89) after surgery for hip fracture repair were recruited from an inpatient rehabilitation unit. Participants were 65+ years old, did not have dementia, and were independent in basic activities of daily living (BADL) at discharge. We examined the contribution of independent variables measuring BADL, cognition, emotional status, pain and social support to the explained variance of two main outcomes: the Reintegration to Normal Living Index (RNLI), measuring self-reported ability to participate in activities and return to life roles; and the Medical Outcomes Study Short-Form Health Survey (SF-12), assessing mental and physical aspects of HRQoL. Stepwise regression analyses revealed that: social support and pain while walking significantly explained 42.1% of variance in the RNLI; social support significantly explained 31.1% of the variance in the SF-12-physical subscale; the number of falls in the previous year, social support and executive functions assessed by the clock drawing test significantly explained 61.9% of the variance in the SF-12 mental subscale. Social support, pain while walking and the number of falls in the previous year can predict community reintegration and HRQoL among older adults three months after discharge from rehabilitation following a surgical hip fracture repair. These factors need to be addressed in rehabilitation programs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0784_11448", "title": "Participation and quality of life of cognitively impaired older women in Israel following hip fractures.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The main objective of this study was to identify the impact of cognitive problems on the participation and quality of life of individuals following hip fracture among senior women. Sixty women aged ≥65 years after an operation due to a hip fracture, half with non-impaired cognition (average Mini Mental State Examination 27) and half with mild cognitive impairment (average Mini Mental State Examination 21) were examined and interviewed at admission to a rehabilitation hospital in Israel and 1 month after discharge with the following measures: Functional Independence Measure, Geriatric Depression Scale, Israeli Adults Assessment of Participation and questionnaire and 12-item short-form health status survey questionnaire. The average age was 83 years (SD = 6.5), 63% were widows. No difference was found between those with and without cognitive impairment. A month after discharge, the average general participation score of the cognitively unimpaired women was 11.5, and of those with impaired cognition was 7.5 (p &gt; 0.001). Four participation subscales revealed significant differences between the two groups (homecare, physical exercise, self-care and quiet pastimes), and two subscales (going out and entertainment and enrichment activities) showed no significant differences. Quality of life was lower a month after discharge for both physical and mental components, with no differences between the two groups. Therefore, specific attention should be given to those with mild cognitive impairment during rehabilitation. It is recommended to practise the basic functions over and over as part of their re-adjustment to their new situation. Attention should also be given in order to improve their re-involvement in the community." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_13858", "title": "Prospective randomized controlled trial comparing dynamic hip screw and screw fixation for undisplaced subcapital hip fractures.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Neck of femur fractures (NOFFs) are a common cause of morbidity and mortality in our community. Minimally displaced intracapsular fractures are treated with internal fixation by a two-hole dynamic hip screw (DHS) or three partially threaded cancellous screws. Data to support the superiority of one are limited. This prospective randomized controlled trial compares outcomes with these two fixation methods. We prospectively recruited patients over 50 years, with an acute fracture subcapital NOFF, who walked and lived independently, and were cognitively intact. They were randomized into DHS or cancellous screw groups and followed up for 2 years (overall 75.9%). Outcomes of mortality, revision, loss of fixation, avascular necrosis, surgical complications, WOMAC, Harris hip score and SF-12 were measured. We recruited 62 patients (31 DHS, 29 cancellous screws, 2 failed consent). Six deaths (19.3%) were seen in each group. A total of 3.2% of DHS (1 out of 31) and 10.3% (3 out of 29) of cancellous screw patients required re-operation (P = 0.272). There was no statistical significant difference in patient satisfaction, quality of life (QoL), radiological union or osteonecrosis. There are trends towards better functional scores and QoL in cancellous screws, particularly at 1 year (P = 0.0061), but with a higher re-operation rate. There was a combined mortality and transition to institutional care of 40.0% (24 out of 60) at 2 years. This study found no difference in outcomes between DHS and cancellous screws in the treatment of subcapital NOFFs in a fit, independent population, but we found a high level of physical decline in previously fit, independently ambulating patients. A large, multicentre trial will be required to differentiate between these two fixation methods." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0822_19941", "title": "What is backward disequilibrium and how do i treat it? A complex patient case study.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Postural vertical refers to a component of an individual's perception of verticality that is derived from information about the direction of gravitational forces. Backward disequilibrium (BD) is a postural disorder observed in some older adults who have a distortion in their perception of postural vertical. Individuals with BD sustain their center of mass (COM) posterior to their base of support and resist correction of COM alignment. The purposes of this case study are to describe a patient with BD and propose a physical therapy management program for this condition. The patient was an 83-year-old woman admitted for home care services 4 months after falling and sustaining a displaced right femoral neck fracture and subsequent hemiarthroplasty. Details of the clinical examination, diagnosis, and intervention are provided and a treatment protocol for physical therapy management is suggested. During the episode of care, the patient (1) decreased her dependence on caregivers, (2) surpassed minimal detectable change or minimal clinically important improvements in gait speed and on the Short Physical Performance Battery and Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment, and (3) achieved her primary goal of staying in her own apartment at an assisted living facility. Knowledge of BD coupled with a thorough clinical examination may assist physical therapists in identifying this condition and employing the specific intervention we have proposed. We believe that failure to recognize and manage our patient's condition appropriately would have led to nursing home placement.Video Abstract available for more insights from the authors (see Supplemental Digital Content 1, http://links.lww.com/JNPT/A94)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1072_19324", "title": "Subcapital Fracture with Avascular Necrosis of the Whole Femoral Head After Fixation of an Intertrochanteric Fracture: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Subcapital fractures following internal fixation of an intertrochanteric fracture are relatively rare. It has been reported that these fractures are caused by improper placement of implants, osteoporosis, and any trauma episode. We report a rare case of subcapsular fracture possibly caused by whole femoral head necrosis following intertrochanteric fracture treatment. An 88-year-old woman fell and sustained an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. She was treated with a short femoral nail (SFN) and 3 months after the surgery, bone union was observed. One year after the internal fixation of the intertrochanteric fracture, she complained of the left hip joint pain without any trauma, and the X-ray showed a subcapital fracture of the femur. She underwent nail removal and was treated with a bipolar hemiarthroplasty. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a change in the signal intensity of the entire head, and pathological findings revealed osteonecrosis. Normally, the reaction of bone resorption occurs below the necrosis area. We believe that the avascular necrosis (AVN) of the whole femoral head made the subcapital area fragile, resulting in a subcapital fracture. We should consider AVN of the whole femoral head as a potential cause of subcapital fracture after SFN fixation of intertrochanteric fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0877_9881", "title": "The difference in activity of daily living (ADL) and mortality in patients aged over 80 years with femoral neck fracture treated with hemiarthroplasty or osteosynthesis at 2 years of follow-up.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Hip fractures are one of the major causes of morbidity and mortality in the elderly and outcomes following hip fracture have been the focus of several studies over recent decades. Among all types of fall-related injuries, hip fractures cause the greatest number of deaths, lead to severe health problems and reduce quality of life. Improving the outcome of hip fracture surgery has thus become one of the main areas of interest for orthopaedic surgeons. The aim of this study was to compare the difference in activity of daily living (ADL) and mortality between patients aged over 80 years with hip fracture treated with osteosynthesis versus prosthesis at 2 years of follow-up. The data were collected on admission and during in-hospital stay. Information recorded on admission included: age, sex, type and mechanism of fracture, functional and cognitive status, comorbidity, and severity of illness. Prefracture functional status was measured. The follow-up was clinical and radiographical, or was by telephone for patients who were not able to come to the clinic. Patients aged over 80 years who underwent a single surgical procedure treated with intramedullary nail or hemiarthroplasty were included in the study. A total of 174 patients (45 male and 129 female) were included in the study. The two treatment groups were comparable for all preoperative parameters except for preoperative haemoglobin, which was an average of 1g/dl higher in the patients given hemiarthroplasty compared with those treated with intramedullary nail (t-test: p&lt;0.05). The average observation period was 594.99days; the number of deaths was 62 of 164 contacted patients, and the survival rate at 2 years was 62.2%. There was increased mortality in patients who underwent hemiarthroplasty (Log-rank Mantel-Cox, p: 0,048). The difference in ADL between preoperative and follow-up is not statistically significant between the two groups. In the literature, there are few specific studies that consider these parameters in this population. However, these findings are consistent with the findings from other studies. Patients who received hemiarthroplasty have a higher mortality risk than those treated with intramedullary nail; there are no differences in ADL at follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0915_13068", "title": "Bilateral Subcapital Femoral Neck Fracture in a 28 Year Old Postpartum Woman.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Subcapital femoral neck fractures are associated with high morbidity and mortality. These fractures mostly occur as a result of a high-force impact from traffic accidents and a fall from a great height, though non-traumatic forms are described in transient osteoporosis during the second half of pregnancy, in convulsions during electric shock, eclampsia, hypocalcemia, osteomalacia, renal osteodystrophy and myeloma. In this report we present a bilateral subcapital femoral neck fracture in a woman sustained two days after delivery. The right hip fracture was treated with fixation using three spongious screws without capsular decompression, while for the left hip a capsular decompression by open reduction and fixation was performed. Physical treatment based on active and passive movements was immediately initiated. The patient was able to rest upon her right leg within seven and upon the left leg within eight months. X-Rays showed the accurate position of fragments and implants throughout the recovery period. Twelve years later, the patient made a full recovery and the x-rays showed that both femoral heads are vital and fully recovered. Early anatomical reconstruction followed by internal fixation is crucial in the prevention of long-term complications. Complications of internal fixations include non-union (10-30%), avascular necrosis (15-33%), deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1042_17461", "title": "Effects of fragility fracture integrated rehabilitation management on mobility, activity of daily living and cognitive functioning in elderly with hip fracture.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To determine the effectiveness of Fragility Fracture Integrated Rehabilitation Management (FIRM) on mobility, activity of daily living and cognitive functioning in elderly with hip fracture. A randomized control trial was conducted at Seoul National University Bundang Hospital, South Korea from August 2017 to January 2018. Patients of both genders with the age 65-95 years, diagnosed cases of hip fracture specifically fractures neck of femur, intertrochanteric, subtrochantric, patients who got bipolar hemiarthroplasty, total hip replacement arthroplasty, reduction and internal fixation were included in this study. A total of n=39 sample was collected through non probability convenience sampling technique and randomly divided into Fragility Integrated Rehabilitation Management (FIRM) group (n=20) and Conventional Physical therapy (CPT) group (n=19). The data was collected through KOVAL for walking ability, modified barthal index (MBI) for behaviors related to activities of daily living (ADLS) and mini mental status examination (MMSE) for cognitive functions at baseline on 2<supnd</sup postoperative day and after 10<supth</sup FIRM session on 15<supth</sup postoperative day. The mean age of study participants was 82.07±6.00 years. The post intervention comparison did not show any significant difference (<ip</i&gt;0.05) in walking ability, overall ADLs and cognitive functioning. But FIRM group showed significant improvement in stair climbing {0(5) ver. 2(7.5), <ip</i=0.049} and ambulation or walker use {8(5) ver. 2(4), <ip</i=0.037}, as compared to CPT group. Both groups improved in indoor mobility with walker and crutches as well as activities of daily living. But FIRM showed more improving ambulation with walker and stair climbing. While cognitive functioning was observed only in FIRM group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0685_4166", "title": "Causes of decreased activity of daily life in elderly patients who need daily living care.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The causes of decreased activity of daily life (ADL) in elderly patients include cerebrovascular diseases, bone fracture by falls, and dementia. The present study was conducted among elderly patients with decreased ADL who were hospitalized in nursing wards in order to investigate the causes of becoming early bedridden and to determine precautionary measures against decreased ADL. The study subjects were 224 elderly patients with decreased ADL (mean age: 83.3 ± 8.0 years) and 49 outpatients without decreased ADL (mean age: 76.8 ± 5.3 years). Current age, age at the start of ADL decrease, medical history and history of smoking were investigated. In the groups with decreased ADL, current age and the age of becoming bedridden in non-diabetic versus diabetic groups were 84.7 ± 7.9 versus 80.3 ± 7.5 and 82.7 ± 8.3 versus 77.6 ± 8.0 years, respectively, both showing significantly lower values in the diabetic group (P &lt; 0.05). Multiple regression analysis revealed that sex difference and diabetes were the factors determining the age of becoming early bedridden. Diabetic patients with smoking habit were significantly younger than diabetic and non-diabetic patients without smoking habit. Sex difference, smoking habit and presence of diabetes mellitus are independent risk factors of becoming early bedridden. Therefore, the major targets of medical care among elderly should be diabetic men with a smoking habit to lower the risks of decreased ADL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_16294", "title": "Internal fixation versus conservative treatment for elderly patients with a trochanteric hip fracture in conjunction with post-stroke hemiplegia.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To retrospectively evaluated Gamma nail internal fixation in the treatment of elderly patients with post-stroke hemiplegia experiencing trochanteric hip fracture. The patients were obtained consecutively from January 2005 to December 2010 with inclusion criteria. The total number was 138 and allocated to two groups: treated with the Gamma nail (n=72,group A) and continuous skin traction (n=66,group B). Preoperative variables including patient age, gender, duration of cerebrovascular accident, duration of hypertension, ASA risk score, Harris hip score and fracture type were recorded and compared. After treatment, time of patients activity on the bed, ambulation time, Harris hip score, mortality, complications were recorded and used to compare the outcomes. (1) Follow-up was undertaken from 3 to 10 years, with an average of 5.8 years. (2) No statistical difference in preoperative variables was found between the 2 groups. (3) two groups had statistical significance (P=0.000) in the time of patients activity on the bed and ambulation time and group A can activities on the bed and ambulates earlier. (4) There were significant differences between 2 groups in Harris hip score at 1 and 3 years and group A was significantly higher than group B. (5) there were statistically significant differences in mortality of 3 years, 5 years and 10 years and the group B was significantly higher than the group A. (6) There was a statistical significance in complications between 2 groups and group B was higher than group A. Major complications in group A were pain, lag screw cut out, implant infection and distal femoral fractures caused by fall after the surgery. On elderly patients with trochanteric hip fracture on the hemiplegic lower side, Gamma nail internal fixation treatment can achieve better effect, patients can be early activity, fewer complications, and less mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_17790", "title": "[Prediction of mortality, mobility and admission to long-term care after hip fractures].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Surgical treatment, discharge planning and rehabilitation procedures are rarely based upon defined assessment procedures. It might therefore be useful to develop simple and reliable screening tools to identify patients for early discharge, intensified rehabilitation and limited treatment. 234 patients were initially contacted. From these 217 gave informed consent. The reported study included the 134 home dwelling elderly. All patients could be contacted or died after six month. Thus,data from more than 90% could be used for the analysis. The six month mortality was 10%. A population based cohort of elderly patients referred to five local hospitals was tested. Mortality, institutionalisation and mobility were defined as major outcome criteria. Only information that was available during the first week of treatment was used in the model. Predictors expressed as odd ratios (OR) were calculated using logistic regression with variable selection. The most important predictors for institutionalisation were age, inability to eat without assistance, postoperative night time confusion, stroke history, cognitive deficit and fear of falling. Outdoor mobility was strongly associated to the preoperative ADL performance measured as the Barthel-Index, history of malignancy and fear of falling. Six month mortality was associated with male sex, the Barthel-Index and fear of falling. It seems feasible to improve postoperative resource allocation by predictor led stratification. This need to be tested in intervention trials under the specific condition of the German health care system." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1050_5824", "title": "Bilateral sub-trochanteric femur fragility fractures in a patient on antiretroviral therapy: a case based discussion and review of literature.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The burden of HIV/AIDS is ever increasing, affecting populations all over the world. Along with the disease, its effects and consequences on bone health are also on a rise. A commonly used drug in managing HIV, \"Tenofovir\" has been shown to affect bone health, specifically on prolonged usage. Osteomalacia and osteoporosis secondary to drug induced Fanconi syndrome and the disease itself, could lead to pathological/fragility fractures with trivial trauma. A 45 year old female on antiretroviral drugs (ART) for HIV, presented with right hip pain and inability to bear weight. She has had similar symptoms previously in the left hip which resolved after 6 weeks of limited weight bearing. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of pelvis with hips showed bilateral sub-trochanteric fractures; healed on the left side and displaced on the right side. The patient was managed with cessation of tenofovir and right side proximal femoral nail anti-rotation (PFNA). Patient was lost to follow up but had started to ambulate independently with a cane, by the end of 6 weeks, before she succumbed to systemic complications. Patients receiving antiretrovirals especially tenofovir should be regularly investigated for their renal impairment and bone health. Fixation of pathological fractures and early mobilization are important to prevent prolonged bed immobilization and associated complications in these immunocompromised patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_23856", "title": "Patients with isolated hip fracture must be considered for surgery irrespectively of their age, comorbidity status and provenance: a statement applicable even to nonagerians.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Hip fractures are associated with high rates of adverse outcome but previous research has not lead to the identification of any subgroups for whom surgery could be contraindicated. The purpose of this study was to identify factors that could help in the decision making process. We identified 965 consecutive patients operated for an isolated hip fracture from 1 April 1996 to 31 March 2003 in a single large volume centre. We collected information on age, gender, comorbidities and place of injury (in-house, outdoors, nursing home). Outcome measures were mortality and orientation at discharge. Multiple logistic regression and recursive partitioning were used to identify factors associated with poor outcome. Median age was 81.4 with 121 patients aged 90 and over. Seventy-six percent were female. The fall occurred at home in 59%, outdoors in 19% and at a nursing home in 22%. Death was significantly associated with the number of comorbidities, age and place of injury. Dementia (23%) was the most significant predictor of orientation to a new nursing home. Among 121 nonagerians, 89 survived and 59 returned home. Among 53 nonagerians with two or more comorbidities, 34 survived and 20 returned home. Comorbidities, age and provenance of patients appear to be the most significant factors associated with adverse outcome. However, even among nonagerians with a heavy comorbidity burden, results do not contraindicate surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0939_20005", "title": "[Comparison of clinical effects of total artificial hip replacement and cannulated screw fixation for the treatment of displaced femoral neck fractures in elderly patients].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To compare of clinical effects of different surgical methods in the treatment of elderly femoral neck fractures. From January 2013 to June 2016, 144 elderly patients with femoral neck were treated and divided into artificial hip replacement group and cannulated screw fixation group according to the surgical methods. In the total hip arthroplasty group, there were 89 cases, 28 males and 61 females, with an average age of(84.10±3.10) years old;Hollow nail fixation group 55 cases, 20 males and 35 females, with an average age of (86.80±2.88) years. Preoperative patients data, postoperative complications, mortality and postoperative Harris hip score were compared between the two groups. A total of 144 cases were followed up for 12 to 36 months with an average of 18 months. There was no significant difference between two groups in gender, fracture side, preoperative complications, osteoporosis, ASA score, injury to surgery interval, the number of patients admitted to ICU and perioperative death. However, the patients in hollow screw fixation group was older than the joint replacement group(<it</i=5.311, <iP</i&lt;0.05);The degree of preoperative fracture displacement in the joint replacement group was higher than that in the hollow nail fixation group(χ²=6.894, <iP</i=0.009&lt;0.05);Hollow nail fixation group in operation time, hospital stay, intraoperative blood loss, perioperative blood transfusion was significantly better than the number of joint replacement group(<iP</i&lt;0.05);The Harris score of the joint replacement group was higher than that of the hollow screw fixation group(<iP</i&lt;0.05). For elderly femoral neck patients, if there is a significant shift in the fracture (Garden III, IV), the preferred treatment is hip replacement. Postoperative complications are relatively small, satisfactory joint function recovery. If the fracture displacement is not obvious (Garden type I, II) or patients with more medical diseases, poor physical condition, poor surgical tolerance, postoperative life expectancy is not high, the first choice is closed reduction and cannulated screw fixation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_9624", "title": "Epidemiology of hip fracture in Japan: incidence and risk factors.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Hip fracture is the most serious complication of osteoporosis and has been recognized as a major public health problem. The prevention of hip fractures is an high-priority issue because of the rapid increase of the number of elderly people in Japan. The General Research Committee for the Prevention and Treatment of Osteoporosis in Silver Health Science Researches sponsored by the Ministry of Health and Welfare (Director, Hajime Orimo) first undertook a nationwide survey of femoral neck fracture in 1987. This nationwide survey has been continued every 5 years, in 1992, 1997, and 2002. The total number of new cases was nearly 120,000 in the latest survey, and has been rising in every survey. Total number of new cases was about 1.4 times the baseline 1987 figures in 1992, 1.7 times in 1997, and 2.2 times in 2002. The total number of new female patients was about three times higher than that of new male patients, a finding identical to those of the previous surveys. The incidences of hip fracture (per 10,000) according to sex and age was increased in both men and women, particularly among individuals 80 years old or over. The Epidemiological Research Group on Osteoporosis, Ministry of Health and Welfare (Chairman; Hajime Orimo) undertook a nation-wide case-control study to clarify the risk factors for hip fractures among Japanese in 1994. Cases of hip fracture in people aged 65-89 were selected from 21 hospitals in seven areas of Japan. Two sex- and age-matched controls were selected from the same residential area for each case using resident registration lists. During this 1-year survey, 249 cases of hip fractures (43 men and 206 women) were reported. The following risk factors for hip fractures were identified using multivariate analysis: past history of stroke with hemiplegia, sleep disturbance, sleeping in a Western-style bed, and drinking more than 3 cups of coffee daily." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_24123", "title": "[Curative effect analysis on proximal frmoral nail antirotation for the treatment of femoral intertrochanteric fracture and integrity of lateral trochanteric wall].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "To explore clinical efficacy and key matters for the treatment of femoral intertrochanteric fracture and integrity of lateral trochanteric wall by proximal frmoral nail antirotation (PFNA). From June 2010 to December 2012,210 femoral intertrochanteric fracture patients treated with PFNA were retrospectively analyzed, including 76 males and 134 females aged from 46 to 96 years old with an average of 71 years old. All fracture were caused by injury and classified to type I (5 cases) type II (16 cases), type III (73 cases) and type IV (116 cases) according to Evans classification. The time of getting out of bed, postoperative complications and displacement of screw blade and fracture healing were observed, Baumgaertner criteria were used to evaluate quality of fracture reduction, Harris criteria were used to evaulate hip joint function. All incisions were healed at stage I, no complications occurred except incomplete of lateral trochanteric wall patients without reconstruction, other patients could get out of bed with crutches at one week and all patients discharged from hospital at 10 days after operation. One hundred and seventy-eight patients were followed up from 3 to 17 months with an average of 10 months. One case occurred unhealed fracture displacement caused by screw blade cutting, 2 cases occurred screw blade transfomed to proximal and out femoral head, other patients obtained fracture healing at 12 to 16 weeks after operation. According to Baumgaertner criteria, 130 cases obtained good results, 45 cases acceptable, and 3 poor; while 107 cases obtained excellent results, 65 good, 3 good and 3 poor according to Harris score. PFNA with mechanical advantage of intramedullary fixation has advantsges of stable fixation, shorter operation time, minimally invasive. Satisfied clinical effects could obtained by grasping fixation principle, dealing with negative factors in operation. Intraoperative reconstruction for integrity of lateral trochanteric wall could assure stable fixation and earlier get out of bed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 901, 1094 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 129, 161 ] ], "text": "The laboratory marker that should be requested if anaphylaxis is suspected is serum tryptase in the first hour for a basal determination and another at 4-6 hours to observe its elevation curve." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 901, 1094 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 129, 161 ] ], "text": "The laboratory marker that should be requested if anaphylaxis is suspected is serum tryptase in the first hour for a basal determination and another at 4-6 hours to observe its elevation curve." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Intramuscular adrenaline, followed by an inhaled bronchodilator of the SABA type and intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine. Then request serum tryptase.", "2": "An inhaled SABA-type bronchodilator, followed by intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine and intramuscular adrenaline. Then order serum tryptase.", "3": "Intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine, followed by an inhaled bronchodilator of the SABA type and intramuscular adrenaline. Then request eosinophil cationic protein.", "4": "Intramuscular adrenaline, followed by an inhaled bronchodilator of the SABA type and intramuscular dexchlorpheniramine. Then request eosinophil cationic protein.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0706_21864", "title": "Assessment of bronchodilator responsiveness following methacholine-induced bronchoconstriction in children with asthma.", "score": 0.017555859553123575, "content": "The aim of this study was to investigate bronchodilator responsiveness (BDR) following methacholine-induced bronchoconstriction and to determine differences in BDR according to clinical parameters in children with asthma. The methacholine challenge test was performed in 145 children with mild to moderate asthma, and the provocative concentration causing a 20% decline in FEV1 (PC20) was determined. Immediately after the challenge test, patients were asked to inhale short-acting β2-agonists (SABAs) to achieve BDR, which was assessed as the change in FEV1% predicted×100/post-methacholine FEV1% predicted. For each subject, the asthma medication, blood eosinophil count, serum total IgE, serum eosinophil cationic protein level, and skin prick test result were assessed. The FEV1 (mean±SD) values of the 145 patients were 90.5±10.9% predicted, 64.2±11.5% predicted, and 86.2±11.2% predicted before and after methacholine inhalation, and following the administration of a SABA, respectively. The BDR did not differ significantly according to asthma medication, age, or gender. However, BDR in the atopy group (37.4±17.7%) was significantly higher than that in the non-atopy group (30.5±10.7%; P=0.037). Patients with blood eosinophilia (38.6±18.1%) displayed increased BDR compared with patients without eosinophilia (32.0±13.8%; P=0.037). In children with mild to moderate asthma, the responsiveness to short-acting bronchodilators after methacholine-induced bronchoconstriction was not related to asthma medication, but was higher in children with atopy and/or peripheral blood eosinophilia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0926_9560", "title": "Drug-induced anaphylaxis in the emergency room.", "score": 0.016102551149280123, "content": "Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that presents unique challenges for emergency care practitioners. Anaphylaxis occurs more frequently than previously believed. Therefore, proper knowledge regarding the epidemiology, mechanisms, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of anaphylaxis is essential. In particular, the initial treatment strategy, followed by correct diagnosis, in the emergency room is critical for preventing fatal anaphylaxis, although making a diagnosis is not easy because of the broad and often atypical presentation of anaphylaxis. To this end, the clinical criteria proposed by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases and the Food Allergy and Anaphylaxis Network are useful, which, together with a differential diagnosis, could enable a more accurate diagnosis. Additional <iin vitro</i tests, such as plasma histamine and tryptase measurements, are also helpful. It should be emphasized that adrenaline is the only drug recommended as first-line therapy in all published national anaphylaxis guidelines. Most international anaphylaxis guidelines recommend injecting adrenaline by the intramuscular route in the mid-anterolateral thigh, whereas i.v. adrenaline is an option for patients with severe hypotension or cardiac arrest unresponsive to intramuscular adrenaline and fluid resuscitation. In addition to the route of administration, choosing the appropriate dose of adrenaline is essential, because serious adverse effects can potentially occur after an overdose of adrenaline. Furthermore, to avoid future recurrence of anaphylaxis, providing adrenaline auto-injectors and making an etiological diagnosis, including confirmation of the offending trigger, are recommended for patients at risk of anaphylaxis before their discharge from the emergency room." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_22361", "title": "Following up patients after treatment for anaphylaxis.", "score": 0.015511833475905333, "content": "Anaphylaxis is defined as a severe, life-threatening, generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction. Diagnosis is based on the presenting symptoms and signs which classically develop rapidly, typically evolving over minutes but in some cases hours. Various combinations of airway and/or breathing and/or circulatory problems are possible, as well as urticaria, and hypotension. Skin and/or mucosal changes (typically urticaria and/or angioedema) are seen in around 75% of cases, but importantly these features alone are insufficient for a diagnosis of anaphylaxis. As soon as possible after successful emergency treatment, timed blood samples should be taken for the mast cell tryptase (MCT) test. Serum samples need to be taken within 1-2 hours but no later than 4 hours from the onset of symptoms. It is important to document the acute clinical features (record BP, respiratory rate etc) and the time course of the onset of symptoms/signs and their resolution. Because of the risk of relapse patients should be observed for 6-12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Children under 16 years should be admitted and supervised by a paediatrician. An adrenaline injector device for intramuscular use only, should be prescribed as an interim measure before referral to a specialist allergy clinic. Referral to a specialist allergy service (or specialist paediatric service), is strongly recommended. Diagnosis can be confirmed, and further investigations organised." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en516_4023", "title": "Epinephrine (medication)", "score": 0.013732407723530973, "content": "Asthma Epinephrine is also used as a bronchodilator for asthma if specific β2 agonists are unavailable or ineffective. When given by the subcutaneous or intramuscular routes for asthma, an appropriate dose is 0.3 to 0.5 mg. Because of the high intrinsic efficacy (receptor binding ability) of epinephrine, high concentrations of the drug cause negative side effects when treating asthma. The value of using nebulized epinephrine in acute asthma is unclear. Croup Racemic epinephrine has historically been used for the treatment of croup. Regular epinephrine however works equally well. Racemic adrenaline is a 1:1 mixture of the two enantiomers of adrenaline. The L-form is the active component. Racemic adrenaline works by stimulation of the alpha adrenergic receptors in the airway, with resultant mucosal vasoconstriction and decreased subglottic edema, and by stimulation of the β adrenergic receptors, with resultant relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1052_23566", "title": "Fatal food-induced anaphylaxis: Determination of tryptase and specific IgE on cadaveric blood samples. What else for a better methodological standard?", "score": 0.013638963438778653, "content": "Post-mortem investigation in cases of fatal anaphylaxis is required to provide clarifications on the presence of macroscopic pathological changes, histological features, and immunohistochemical positivity suggestive of the diagnosis, on biochemical evidence of anaphylaxis and on the presence of serological data indicative of the allergen responsible for the anaphylactic reaction. We describe the case of a 16-year-old boy with a medical history of allergic asthma, celiac disease, and known food-induced allergy for fish, fresh milk, peanuts, hazelnuts, walnuts, apples, kiwis, and peaches. Acute onset of dyspnea followed by cyanosis of the lips and respiratory failure was described immediately after having an ice cream sandwich. Unsuccessful rescues were immediately attempted with oral administration of betamethasone, intramuscular injection of adrenaline, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. A complete post-mortem examination was performed. Serum dosage of mast cell beta-tryptase from femoral blood detecting serum values of 41.4 mg/l. Determination of specific IgE on cadaveric blood samples confirmed the anamnestic data related to sensitization for several food allergens, including cod parvalbumin, tropomyosin, brazil nut, omega-5-gliadin of foods derived from wheat and gluten. The cause of death was identified in a cardiorespiratory failure due to anaphylactic shock in a poly-allergic subject and anaphylaxis was ascribed to the wheat contained in the ice cream sandwich eaten immediately before the onset of respiratory symptoms. The need is to implement an interdisciplinary approach capable to ascertain the sensitivity and specificity of the diagnostic tests currently in use as well as to evaluate the possibility of introducing new biomarkers in practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_11472", "title": "Anaphylaxis: clinical concepts and research priorities.", "score": 0.011732343485897988, "content": "Anaphylaxis is a severe immediate-type hypersensitivity reaction characterized by life-threatening upper airway obstruction bronchospasm and hypotension. Although many episodes are easy to diagnose by the combination of characteristic skin features with other organ effects, this is not always the case and a workable clinical definition of anaphylaxis and useful biomarkers of the condition have been elusive. A recently proposed consensus definition is ready for prospective validation. The cornerstones of management are the supine position, adrenaline and volume resuscitation. An intramuscular dose of adrenaline is generally recommended to initiate treatment. If additional adrenaline is required, then a controlled intravenous infusion might be more efficacious and safer than intravenous bolus administration. Additional bronchodilator treatment with continuous salbutamol and corticosteroids are used for severe and/or refractory bronchospasm. Aggressive volume resuscitation, selective vasopressors, atropine (for bradycardia), inotropes that bypass the beta-adrenoreceptor and bedside echocardiographic assessment should be considered for hypotension that is refractory to treatment. Management guidelines continue to be opinion- and consensus-based, with retrospective studies accounting for the vast majority of clinical research papers on the topic. The clinical spectrum of anaphylaxis including major disease subgroups requires clarification, and validated scoring systems and outcome measures are needed to enable good-quality prospective observational studies and randomized controlled trials. A systematic approach with multicentre collaboration is required to improve our understanding and management of this disease." }, { "id": "article-30712_22", "title": "Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction -- Treatment / Management -- Anaphylaxis", "score": 0.010683353954506519, "content": "The need for emergent treatment is vital with anaphylaxis, at it is usually rapid in onset and may cause death. The recommendation is that if possible, the offending agent is removed immediately, and patients are placed in a supine position with the elevation of lower extremities unless there is a significant obstruction or airway inflammation. If there is marked stridor or severe respiratory distress, immediate intubation may be required. If the patient has a history of allergic reactions, they will be provided with emergency self-treatment prescriptions, which include: an epinephrine IM autoinjector or 1:1,000 solution, bronchodilators, antihistamines, and/or corticosteroids. The first-line therapy that is recommended to be administered without delay is epinephrine intramuscular (IM) injection and thereafter adjunctive therapy is utilized for symptom control: [13]" }, { "id": "article-23213_40", "title": "Immediate Hypersensitivity Reactions -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.01010223070788119, "content": "The treatment of immediate hypersensitivity reactions includes the management of anaphylaxis with intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine), oxygen, intravenous (IV) antihistamines, support blood pressure with IV fluids, avoid latex gloves and equipment in patients who are allergic, and surgical procedures such as tracheotomy if there is severe laryngeal edema. Allergic bronchial asthma can be treated with any of the following: inhaled short- and long-acting bronchodilators (anticholinergics) along with inhaled corticosteroids, leukotriene antagonists, use of disodium cromoglycate, and environmental controls. Experimentally, a low dose of methotrexate or cyclosporin and omalizumab (a monoclonal anti-IgE antibody) has been used. Treatment of autoimmune disorders (e.g., SLE) includes one or a combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, methotrexate, mycophenolate, cyclophosphamide, low dose IL-2, intravenous immunoglobulins, and belimumab. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that interacts with the binding site of the high-affinity IgE receptor on mast cells. It is an engineered, humanized recombinant immunoglobulin. Moderate to severe allergic bronchial asthma can improve with omalizumab. [14] [32] [39] [40]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0106_4954", "title": "Effect of prior medication on intradermal test response in patients with respiratory allergies.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In a single-blind study of 23 patients with respiratory allergic disorders, we studied the effect of different antiallergic drugs on intradermal (ID) skin test response. After discontinuing the medication prescribed to patients, ID skin tests were done to determine the baseline values. The subjects were then randomly assigned different doses of different drugs orally, including theophylline (200 mg), salbutamol (4 mg), ephedrine (24 mg), and prednisolone (10 mg). Only epinephrine (1:1000) was injected subcutaneously (0.5 ml). ID skin tests were repeated 2 hours after the administration of the medicines that were taken orally. In the case of epinephrine, the tests were repeated 30 minutes after the injection. No significant differences could be observed in ID skin tests before and after the medication, irrespective of the test allergens." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0748_3150", "title": "The rate of epinephrine administration associated with allergy skin testing in a suburban allergy practice from 1997 to 2010.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Allergy skin testing is considered a safe method for testing for IgE-mediated allergic responses although anaphylactic events can occur. Reported rates of anaphylaxis per patient are not consistent and range from 0.008 to 4%. The aim of this study was to determine the rate of epinephrine use associated with allergy skin-prick testing (SPT) and intradermal testing (IDT) in a suburban practice over 13 years. This retrospective chart review used billing and procedure coding records during the time period from January 1997 to June 2010 to identify encounters where epinephrine was administered after SPT or IDT. Patient encounters with procedure codes for skin testing plus either parenteral epinephrine, corticosteroid, antihistamine, or i.v. fluid administration were identified. These patient charts were reviewed to determine if epinephrine was administered, whether systemic reactions developed, and rates of epinephrine administration were calculated. There were 28,907 patient encounters for SPT and 18,212 for IDT. Epinephrine was administered in six patient encounters (0.02%) where SPT was performed; no IDT encounters led to epinephrine administration. There were no fatalities. Allergy skin testing to a variety of allergens, when administered by well-trained personnel, is a safe procedure. This study, involving the largest population to date, showed a rate of systemic reactions requiring epinephrine of 20 per 100,000 SPT visits. No epinephrine was given after IDT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1056_12495", "title": "Short-acting bronchodilators purchase as a marker for asthma control.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "<bBackground</b: Administrative data has been used to quantify the amount of medication use in order to identify at-risk asthma patients. In our previous study we used short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) inhalers as a marker for asthma control.<bMethods</b: We further analyzed patient data from the SABA inhalers study in which asthma control was classified by GINA guidelines, physician assessment and the patients overall estimation. We identified all short-acting bronchodilator purchases (SABA and anticholinergic inhalers and solutions) in the year prior to administering the questionnaire relating to asthma control, and compared inhaled and systemic steroid use.<bResults</b: Of 241 asthma patients, 83 completed questionnaires. Using the GINA guidelines criteria, 26 were symptom controlled, 46 were partially controlled and 11 were uncontrolled. Using patients' overall impression of their asthma control, mean annual short-acting bronchodilator purchases were significantly higher in the partially controlled and uncontrolled patients (10 and 8.9 respectively) than in the controlled patients (2, <ip</i = 0.005). Most asthma patients purchase less than half of the controller medications prescribed to them.<bConclusion</b: When using administrative data, 3 or more -of all types of short-acting bronchodilator purchases in one year should alert the physician to evaluate asthma control and purchase alerts should notify both physicians and patients when controller consumption is low." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0910_12519", "title": "[It is all about the form - adrenaline in anaphylaxis: intravenous or intramuscular administration?]", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Medication errors are a frequent problem in the accident and emergency (A&amp;E) department. A 17-year-old boy was referred to our A&amp;E department with an anaphylactic reaction to peanuts. Because of various shortcomings in the care process in A&amp;E, adrenaline was administered intravenously instead of intramuscularly, resulting in a broad complex tachycardia. We analysed these shortcomings using the 'Prevention and recovery information system for monitoring and analysis' (PRISMA) method. Medication errors are usually a result of shortcomings in non-technical skills, such as communication and situational awareness. Training these skills by applying the concept 'Crew resource management' may reduce medication errors and improve patient safety." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_49", "title": "Repository dexamethasone in the treatment of acute bronchial asthma.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Fifty-two patients with acute asthma requiring immediate therapy but not hospitalization were studied in an emergency department following conventional therapy with bronchodilators. After discharge, the patients were treated with a controlled regimen of long-acting theophylline and beta-agonist inhalation as necessary. They were randomly assigned to one of three groups using a double blind model. Group A received intramuscular and oral placebos. Group B received intramuscular dexamethasone injection along with oral placebo treatment. Group C received oral dexamethasone by a tapering schedule associated with placebo intramuscular injection. Follow-up was carried out 7 days after the treatment in the emergency room. There were no significant statistical differences in the relapse rate among the three groups. Those patients who received oral or intramuscular dexamethasone had a decrease in the need for beta-agonist inhalation and fewer respiratory symptoms. However, there was no significant statistical difference between groups B and C. It was concluded that repository steroids could reduce the respiratory symptoms and frequency of beta-agonist usage as effectively as oral steroid treatment. However, the steroids do not improve the relapse rate in patients with only mild symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_132082", "title": "Anaphylaxis", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Adjuncts Antihistamines (both H1 and H2), while commonly used and assumed effective based on theoretical reasoning, are poorly supported by evidence. A 2007 Cochrane review did not find any good-quality studies upon which to base recommendations and they are not believed to have an effect on airway edema or spasm. Corticosteroids are unlikely to make a difference in the current episode of anaphylaxis, but may be used in the hope of decreasing the risk of biphasic anaphylaxis. Their prophylactic effectiveness in these situations is uncertain. Nebulized salbutamol may be effective for bronchospasm that does not resolve with epinephrine. Methylene blue has been used in those not responsive to other measures due to its presumed effect of relaxing smooth muscle." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_60418", "title": "Asthma", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Anticholinergic medications, such as ipratropium, provide additional benefit when used in combination with SABA in those with moderate or severe symptoms and may prevent hospitalizations. Anticholinergic bronchodilators can also be used if a person cannot tolerate a SABA. If a child requires admission to hospital additional ipratropium does not appear to help over a SABA. For children over 2 years old with acute asthma symptoms, inhaled anticholinergic medications taken alone is safe but is not as effective as inhaled SABA or SABA combined with inhaled anticholinergic medication. Adults who receive combined inhaled medications that includes short-acting anticholinergics and SABA may be at risk for increased adverse effects such as experiencing a tremor, agitation, and heart beat palpitations compared to people who are treated with SABA by itself." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1049_14078", "title": "A Case for Biopsy: Injectable Naltrexone-Induced Acute Eosinophilic Pneumonia.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Naltrexone is a semi-synthetic opioid that has competitive antagonist activity at mu opioid receptors. Naltrexone has proven to be efficacious in the treatment of alcohol and opioid dependence, and a long-acting injectable form of naltrexone was developed to overcome non-compliance. Therefore, injectable naltrexone has the potential to become an important medication for the treatment of opiate and alcohol dependence. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia (AEP) is a rare acute respiratory illness of varying severity that may lead to acute respiratory distress syndrome and death. Initially, AEP was thought to be idiopathic; however, it has become apparent that AEP can have identifiable causes including medications, infections, and other inhalational exposures, especially tobacco smoke. AEP is generally a diagnosis of exclusion confirmed by the presence of bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid eosinophilia. Recognition and elimination of the causative factor for AEP and providing glucocorticoid therapy are key principles in the management of AEP of non-infectious origin. Prognosis is generally excellent if AEP is diagnosed early and managed appropriately, even in patients with acute respiratory failure. The diagnosis of AEP is generally overlooked given the shared clinical attributes with acute lung injury due to other causes, including severe community-acquired pneumonia. A 32-year-old lady presented to the emergency department (ED) with symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, cough, and subjective fevers since three days. She received a dose of intramuscular Naltrexone for the treatment of alcohol and opiate dependence on the day of symptom onset. Initially, she was noted to be hypoxic, and oxygen supplementation was initiated through a nasal cannula. While in the ED, she was placed on a non-rebreather mask because of worsening hypoxia. Chest imaging showed diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Initial laboratory data were pertinent for elevated WBC count with mild peripheral eosinophilia. Antibiotics were administered for the treatment of suspected community-acquired pneumonia. Upon hospital admission, she was started on steroids for the management of suspected eosinophilic pneumonia secondary to injectable naltrexone. Bronchodilator therapy was initiated, and antibiotics were discontinued. The patient's oxygen requirements improved. Pulmonology consultation was requested, and the patient underwent bronchoscopy. BAL studies showed predominance of lymphocytes with no eosinophils. However, lung biopsy showed findings consistent with drug-induced eosinophilic pneumonitis. The patient's hypoxia resolved with steroid therapy. The patient was discharged with a course of oral steroids, albuterol inhaler, and outpatient pulmonology follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0095_13951", "title": "Urticaria.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Urticaria/angioedema is very common and usually not very serious. The main diagnostic task is the history, asking about pharmaceutical agents, foods, focuses of infection, physical agents, and psychogenic factors as well as inhalants, insect bites, internal diseases, immune complex diseases, contactants, and genetic factors. The main therapeutic tool is to eliminate the offending agent. If this cannot be done, therapy should begin with an H1 antihistamine pushed to tolerance or clearing. Life-threatening laryngeal edema and/or anaphylactic shock are extremely rare. Laryngeal edema is usually a component of hereditary angioedema. In such cases, subcutaneous epinephrine is the drug of choice. Laboratory investigation in chronic urticaria should include CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and a serum multiphasic analysis. A myriad of laboratory tests can be done in chronic urticaria, but some cost-yield effective ones are a test for antinuclear antibodies and x-rays of the sinuses and dentition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_21587", "title": "[A notice for use for patients who benifit from an adrenaline pen. \"Having an emergency kit is a good thing but knowing how to use it is better\"].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We realized that it is essential that the patient who has an auto injector also has the direction sheet in its emergency bag. Patients, families but also young medical doctors' remarks and reflexions led us to create an explanatory didactic, precise, illustrated and practical direction sheet. The goals are to gather succinct information about the patient (personal contact information, medical history); remind emergency numbers (15 or 112) and the emergency treatment (antihistamine, broncholitor if necessary, epinephrine shots). It also indicates step by step how to use the auto injector (Anapen) and emphasizes the need for a medical supervision if the shot has been used. We present this direction sheet and the way to use it." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1122_23265", "title": "A comparison of the costs of bronchodilator delivery methods in children with asthma exacerbations treated in hospital. The first Polish study in children.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Recommended methods of administering bronchodilator drugs in children with asthma exacerbations in a hospital include the pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) and nebulization (NEB). These methods differ in clinical effectiveness, safety and, as some studies indicate, the cost of their use in a child. To calculate the direct costs of hospital therapy conducted with the use of short-acting β<sub2</sub-agonist (SABA) or its combination with short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) administered via pMDI with valved holding chamber (VHC) versus the same drugs in NEB in children with asthma exacerbation. A retrospective analysis of the costs of SABA (salbutamol) and SABA + SAMA (fenoterol + ipratropium bromide) inhalation therapy was performed. Based on the data obtained from the financial department, the pharmacy, and the sterilization department of the university hospital, the direct unit cost of the inhalation therapy in the child was calculated. The results of the analysis indicate that in a hospital setting the cost of one-time SABA or SABA + SAMA administration via pMDI+VHC is 1.5-2.4 times lower compared to NEB. The payer incurred the lowest costs during anti-obstructive treatment using SABA with pMDI + VHC (PLN 9.39 for one inhalation procedure). The working time of medical staff during the inhalation treatment is the component generating the highest cost for the hospital (up to 40% of direct costs). In hospital conditions, the supply of SABA or SABA + SAMA with the use of pMDI + VHC in a child with asthma exacerbation is more beneficial financially than the supply of the same drugs in NEB." }, { "id": "article-38391_17", "title": "Angioedema -- Evaluation -- The initial evaluation in the Emergency room", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A specific drug and family history is needed along with screening blood work for C4 for hereditary angioedema and tryptase for angioedema with anaphylaxis. These labs when drawn during acute attacks are useful during follow-ups. In the case of anaphylaxis, (tryptase is normal in hereditary angioedema one and two but will be elevated in cases of anaphylaxis and other mast cell disorders associated with angioedema) [13] . Flexible fiberoptic laryngoscopy may be done to evaluate the involvement of tongue and larynx in patients with head, neck and upper airway symptoms. [13] Clear differentiation between histamine-induced vs. bradykinin-induced angioedema can be life-saving. [23] Hereditary angioedema type 1: C1 inhibitor function low, C1-Inhibitor level low, and C4 level low Hereditary angioedema type 2 : C1 inhibitor function and C4 level will be low, but the C1 inhibitor level will be normal or high. [24] Confirm them by repeating the blood test." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_7058", "title": "[Systemic reaction after performing a food prick-to-prick test. A case report].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Skin prick test is the most widely used test for the diagnosis of IgE-mediated conditions. Commercial extracts are used for its performance, but in the case of fruits and vegetables it is preferable using fresh food. Although both tests possess a good safety profile, hypersensitivity reactions have been recorded. Forty-seven-year old woman with a history of persistent allergic rhinitis, sensitized to the pollen of grasses, olive and salsola; she was referred to an allergology department due to anaphylaxis triggered by the consumption of avocado, cantaloupe, carrots and watermelon. Minutes after skin prick test with standardized extract and skin prick with fresh foods, she developed dyspnea, pruritus, erythema, dizziness and sibilance; she was administered 0.5 mg of intramuscular adrenalin and 4 salbutamol inhalations and placed in the Trendelemburg position. Dyspnea persisted, and vital signs monitoring showed heart and respiratory rates increase and, hence, salbutamol was applied again, together with 2 L/min of oxygen delivered by nasal cannula, intravenous fluids and 100 mg intravenous hydrocortisone; improvement was observed at 40 minutes. The patient was hospitalized for 48 hours. Although skin tests are safe, the risk of hypersensitivity and anaphylactic reactions should not be ruled out, especially in susceptible patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_4233", "title": "[Treatment of anaphylactic reactions: a review of guidelines and recommendations].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In the present review, guidelines and recommendations for the treatment of anaphylactic reactions are presented and evaluated. Herefore, publications of German and non-German societies and expert groups have been selected and, in addition to that, we have chosen a number of articles that were cited frequently and, as far as we are concerned, have a relevant meaning for this theme. None of the traditionally applied remedies - epinephrine and intravascular volume, histamine receptor blockade, inhaled betamimetics and steroids - have been proven efficacious by means of evidence-based medicine. Due to the variability of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, it is widely accepted that such a clinical proof is unlikely to come. In contrast to this, there is lack of a consense as to substantial elements of the therapy, above all with regard to dosage and application mode for epinephrine and likewise concerning amount and kind of intravenous fluids. Hence, the physician in charge has to face the necessity either to follow the guidelines of his institution (if there are any) or to blend his own therapeutic regime according to his own convictions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0764_4796", "title": "Effects of bronchodilators on regional lung sound distribution in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Bronchodilators have been reported to influence regional lung ventilation in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which may change regional lung sound distribution. Vibration response imaging (VRI) is a lung imaging system for the assessment of breath sounds. To evaluate the effects of a short-acting β2-agonist (SABA) on the regional distribution of lung sounds in COPD patients. A double-blind crossover trial was performed to compare the treatment of COPD patients with an SABA (20 µg of inhaled procaterol) versus a placebo. The percentage of regional lung sound energy [quantitative lung data (QLD)] was evaluated with VRI. VRI, spirometry, and impulse oscillometry (IOS) were performed immediately before and 30 min after SABA administration. Ten male patients (69.6 ± 14.2 years of age, percentage predicted forced expiratory volume in 1 s: 43.8 ± 16.9%) were evaluated. The use of an SABA produced significant functional improvements in the spirometric and IOS measurements. Among the homogeneous emphysema patients (n = 7), the upper-lung QLD decreased (from 24.2 ± 5.8 to 18.8 ± 6.1%, p &lt; 0.05) and the lower-lung QLD increased (from 37.9 ± 12.7 to 46.1 ± 14.3%, p &lt; 0.05) following SABA inhalation. However, the significant redistribution of the regional lung QLD to the lower-lung field was not observed in 2 of the 3 inhomogeneous emphysema patients. The additional use of an SABA by COPD patients improved their pulmonary function, which was accompanied by changes in regional lung air flow. The distribution of emphysematous lesions and the bronchial reactivity to SABA appeared to affect the redistribution of the lung sounds following bronchodilator administration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_21144", "title": "[Allergic emergencies].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Both anaphylactic reactions and angioedema in the head and neck area can be life-threatening and require emergency treatment. Therapy needed is primarily directed by the patient's symptoms. The first measures taken should consist of immediate disruption of the allergen contact, adequate positioning of the patient, the insertion of an intravenous catheter and an emergency call. In case of cardiovascular or respiratory involvement, intramuscular ± inhalative adrenalin is the treatment of choice. In case of cardiovascular involvement, volume substitution by intravenous catheter and oxygen administration are crucial and in lower airway obstruction, additionally short-acting beta mimetics should be inhaled. Intravenous H1-antihistamines and glucocorticoids are added. Allergic reaction confined to the skin and mucosal surfaces without respiratory involvement or to the gastrointestinal tract should also be treated with intravenous H1-antihistamines and glucocorticoids. Angioedema in the head and neck area can, however, also be associated with a life-threatening upper airway obstruction. Histamine-induced angioedema should be treated as anaphylaxis involving the upper respiratory tract. In hereditary angioedema, or in unclassified angioedema unresponsive to therapy, early airway maintenance and subcutaneous injection of bradykinin-receptor antagonist icatibant, intravenous injection of C1-inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma is recommended. The same approach should be taken for severe angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor-induced angioedema with dyspnea. Intubation by skilled personal is indicated in inspiratory stridor and dyspnea at rest. In all cases of anaphylaxis or angioemdema, patients should be surveyed until a safe remission is achieved." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0745_3927", "title": "Additive efficacy of short-acting bronchodilators on dynamic hyperinflation and exercise tolerance in stable COPD patients treated with long-acting bronchodilators.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The purpose of this study was to clarify the additive efficacy of short-acting β(2)-agonists (SABA) or muscarinic antagonists (SAMA) on dynamic hyperinflation and exercise tolerance in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who had been treated with long-acting bronchodilators. Thirty-two patients with stable COPD who had been treated with long-acting bronchodilators, including long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA), were examined by pulmonary function tests, dynamic hyperinflation evaluated by the method of step-wise metronome-paced incremental hyperventilation, and the incremental shuttle walking test before and after inhalation of SABA or SAMA. The additive efficacy of the two drugs was analyzed. Inhalation of SABA and SAMA improved airflow limitation and dynamic hyperinflation in stable COPD patients who had been treated with LAMA. Inhalation of SABA decreased respiratory resistance and the difference in respiratory resistance at 5 Hz and 20 Hz. On the whole, the additive efficacy of SABA on airflow limitation and dynamic hyperinflation was superior to that of SAMA. Furthermore, inhalation of SABA resulted in relief of breathlessness during exercise and significant improvement in exercise capacity. Inhalation of SABA resulted in significant improvement in exercise tolerance, which may have been due to improvement in dynamic hyperinflation. Single use of SABA before exercise, in addition to regular treatment with LAMA, may therefore be useful in stable COPD patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0752_7602", "title": "[The use of adrenaline for the treatment of anaphylaxis: the use by first-aid personnel is recommended].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Anaphylaxis is the most serious form of the IgE-dependent food allergy, with lethal risk. The incidence is sharply rising. Analysis of the actual management of anaphylaxis, searching for the appropriateness with the International Guidelines highlighting the absolute need of epinephrine, and further suggestions for the improvement of treatment. A general review of international studies stemming from Emergency Departments (ED), Paediatric, Resuscitation, Cardiologic or Allergy Departments over 1999-2012, as well of International Guidelines about the management of anaphylaxis. The self-injectable epinephrine by the patients is under-used. Treatment by epinephrine in ED has a low concordance with recommended guidelines. The discharge prescriptions of self-injectable epinephrine and referral to allergy testing are quite insufficient. The actual management of anaphylaxis does not fit with the International Guidelines. Anaphylaxis treatment protocols according to the international criteria should be applied in ED. Risk reduction strategies cannot rely only on the self-administration of epinephrine by the patient and should put forward a better efficiency of all first-aid care providers. A targeted educational intervention should be developed to improve the care of emergency medical services providers. They should have self-injectable-epinephrine available and should be coached to use it properly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0802_18666", "title": "Do genetic polymorphisms alter patient response to inhaled bronchodilators?", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Short- and long-acting β agonists (SABA and LABA) are bronchodilators for treating asthma. Bronchodilator response (BDR) is quantified by measuring air expired in the first second during a forced expiratory maneuver, prior to and following inhalation of SABA. BDR has been associated with a significant degree of heterogeneity, in part attributable to genetic variation. Heritability, the proportion of phenotypic variability accounted for by genetic variation is estimated to account for 50% of pulmonary function and 28.5% for BDR. A MEDLINE search for English articles published from January 1990 to June 2014 was completed using the terms: bronchodilator, bronchodilator response, short-acting bronchodilator, long-acting bronchodilator, β2 adrenergic receptor gene (ADRB2), asthma and pharmacogenomics. The effects of ADRB2 variants on BDR and the safety of SABA and LABA + inhaled corticosteroids have been studied with equivocal results. Single and candidate gene studies have identified variants in other genes that alter response to bronchodilators. Associations were recently observed between hospital admission rates and two rare ADRB2 polymorphisms: Thr164Ile and a 25 base pair insertion-deletion at nucleotide -376. This was the first report of life-threatening events associated with LABA being linked to rare ADRB2 variants. Pharmacogenomic studies over the last two decades clearly demonstrate that polymorphisms alter patient response to bronchodilators in patients with asthma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0081_5756", "title": "[Immunologic methods of study for evaluating the risk of anaphylactic reactions in intradisk chymopapain injections].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "According to results available to date, skin tests are of limited value in determining the risk of anaphylactic shock. By identifying specific IgE antibodies, e.g. via the Chymo-FAST test or the corresponding RAST, the risk of anaphylactic shock of 0.2%-1% in the total group of patients can be reduced to 0.05% in patients in whom the test was negative, whereas in test-positive patients the risk is above 60%. Previous intolerance reactions among the remaining 0.05% are probably due to a non-testable pseudoallergic reaction, just like the 6% mild late reactions after the injection. For the remaining risk of 0.05% in IgE-negative patients drug prophylaxis with antihistamines or if necessary even steroids will continue to be mandatory. Examination of histamine release from leucocytes, which can be conducted in very few centres only, may possibly be able to clarify in future to what extent reinjection is permissible if a disc on a different level is affected, besides other scientific problems." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0361_583", "title": "Lethal or life-threatening allergic reactions to food.", "score": 0.008866321648276537, "content": "Fatal or life-threatening anaphylactic reactions to food occur in infants, children and adults. Atopic individuals with bronchial asthma and prior allergic reactions to the same food are at a particularly high risk, whereby even the mere inhalation of the allergenic food can be fatal. Not only peanuts, seafood and milk can induce severe, potentially lethal anaphylaxis, but indeed a wide spectrum of foods, according to the different patterns of food sensitivity in different countries. Foods with \"hidden\" allergens and meals at restaurants are particularly dangerous for patients with food allergies. Similarly, schools, public places and restaurants are the major places of risk. However, the main factor contributing to a fatal outcome is the fact that the victims did not carry their emergency kit with adrenaline (epinephrine) with them. In cases of death where food anaphylaxis is suspected, it is important for forensic reasons to preserve uneaten portions of the food in order to identify (hidden) allergens. It is also important to determine postmortem specific serum IgE, tryptase and histamine levels to document the anaphylaxis. There is a need to raise awareness of the diagnosis and treatment of anaphylaxis among doctors, those called upon to administer emergency medical care, and the public, and also to provide increased support for those with potentially fatal food allergies through the help of patients' organizations, and national and international medical societies. The food industry should ensure a policy of comprehensive labelling of ingredients so that even the smallest amount of potentially lethal foodstuffs can be clearly identified. Finally, the pharmaceutical industry should be persuaded to reintroduce an adrenaline inhaler onto the market." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0767_14311", "title": "Combined inhaled anticholinergics and short-acting beta2-agonists for initial treatment of acute asthma in children.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "There are several treatment options for managing acute asthma exacerbations (sustained worsening of symptoms that do not subside with regular treatment and require a change in management). Guidelines advocate the use of inhaled short acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) in children experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Anticholinergic agents, such as ipratropium bromide and atropine sulfate, have a slower onset of action and weaker bronchodilating effect, but may specifically relieve cholinergic bronchomotor tone and decrease mucosal edema and secretions. Therefore, the combination of inhaled anticholinergics with SABAs may yield enhanced and prolonged bronchodilation. To determine whether the addition of inhaled anticholinergics to SABAs provides clinical improvement and affects the incidence of adverse effects in children with acute asthma exacerbations. We searched MEDLINE (1966 to April 2000), EMBASE (1980 to April 2000), CINAHL (1982 to April 2000) and reference lists of studies of previous versions of this review. We also contacted drug manufacturers and trialists. For the 2012 review update, we undertook an 'all years' search of the Cochrane Airways Group's register on the 18 April 2012. Randomized parallel trials comparing the combination of inhaled anticholinergics and SABAs with SABAs alone in children (aged 18 months to 18 years) with an acute asthma exacerbation. Two review authors independently assessed trial quality and extracted data. We used the GRADE rating system to assess the quality of evidence for our primary outcome (hospital admission). Twenty trials met the review eligibility criteria, generated 24 study comparisons and comprised 2697 randomised children aged one to 18 years, presenting predominantly with moderate or severe exacerbations. Most studies involved both preschool-aged children and school-aged children; three studies also included a small proportion of infants less than 18 months of age. Nine trials (45%) were at a low risk of bias. Most trials used a fixed-dose protocol of three doses of 250 mcg or two doses of 500 mcg of nebulized ipratropium bromide in combination with a SABA over 30 to 90 minutes while three trials used a single dose and two used a flexible-dose protocol according to the need for SABA.The addition of an anticholinergic to a SABA significantly reduced the risk of hospital admission (risk ratio (RR) 0.73; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.63 to 0.85; 15 studies, 2497 children, high-quality evidence). In the group receiving only SABAs, 23 out of 100 children with acute asthma were admitted to hospital compared with 17 (95% CI 15 to 20) out of 100 children treated with SABAs plus anticholinergics. This represents an overall number needed to treat for an additional beneficial outcome (NNTB) of 16 (95% CI 12 to 29).Trends towards a greater effect with increased treatment intensity and with increased asthma severity were observed, but did not reach statistical significance. There was no effect modification due to concomitant use of oral corticosteroids and the effect of age could not be explored. However, exclusion of the one trial that included infants (&lt; 18 months) and contributed data to the main outcome, did not affect the results. Statistically significant group differences favoring anticholinergic use were observed for lung function, clinical score at 120 minutes, oxygen saturation at 60 minutes, and the need for repeat use of bronchodilators prior to discharge from the emergency department. No significant group difference was seen in relapse rates.Fewer children treated with anticholinergics plus SABA reported nausea and tremor compared with SABA alone; no significant group difference was observed for vomiting. Children with an asthma exacerbation experience a lower risk of admission to hospital if they are treated with the combination of inhaled SABAs plus anticholinergic versus SABA alone. They also experience a greater improvement in lung function and less risk of nausea and tremor. Within this group, the findings suggested, but did not prove, the possibility of an effect modification, where intensity of anticholinergic treatment and asthma severity, could be associated with greater benefit.Further research is required to identify the characteristics of children that may benefit from anticholinergic use (e.g. age and asthma severity including mild exacerbation and impending respiratory failure) and the treatment modalities (dose, intensity, and duration) associated with most benefit from anticholinergic use better." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0265_222", "title": "[Change of nonspecific bronchial responsiveness and other indices of asthma severity in groups of patients treated with beta2-adrenomimetics \"on demand\". Test of correlation].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We studied 21 subjects with clinically stable atopic asthma. Our aim was to evaluate the relationship between the changes of the nonspecific bronchial responsiveness and spirometry, PEF- and laboratory parameters during 6 weeks observations. The spirometry values (FEV1%VC, MEF50), measurements of the provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% fall in FEV1 (PC20H, according to Cockcroft) and analysis of blood eosinophil count and total IgE titre were performed twice, at 6 week interval. The studied patients recorded daily their symptoms and the number of puffs of betamimetics. They also measured daily their morning and evening PEF. We found any statistically significant changes during the study in evaluated parameters (t-Test). There was a degree of correlation between the symptom score and the use of bronchodilators. At the same time there were no trends in PC20H and the symptoms score, B2-agonist use, bronchial obstruction (FEV1%VC, MEF50) or mean amplitude of PEF. We conclude, that in the clinical assessment of asthma nonspecific bronchial responsiveness seems to be an independent variable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0996_17718", "title": "Anaphylaxis in an emergency department: a retrospective 10-year study in a tertiary hospital.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "<bBackground.</b Anaphylaxis is a potentially fatal medical emergency. The frequency of hospital admissions for anaphylaxis seems to be increasing in the recent decades. <bObjective.</b Characterize the patients admitted for anaphylaxis to the adult emergency department (ED) of a tertiary care hospital over a 10-year period, discriminating aetiologies, clinical features and therapy administered. <bMethods.</b Retrospective, descriptive and inferential study, evaluating age, sex, Manchester triage system, suspected allergen, site of allergen exposure, comorbidities, cofactors, clinical findings and symptoms, treatment and management. Patients admitted between January 2007 and December 2016 were included. <bResults.</b Forty-three patients were enrolled: 23 males, mean age 54.3 ± 16.2 years, n = 22 had history of allergic disease. Two patients were triaged as non-urgent. The most frequently suspected causes of anaphylaxis were: drugs (33%, n = 14), Hymenoptera venoms (23%, n = 10), foods (21%, n = 9) and iodinated contrast products (12%, n = 5). Adrenaline was used in 88% of the episodes (n = 38), 55% of which (n = 21) intramuscularly. Mortality was registered in one case. At discharge, adrenaline auto-injector was prescribed in 7% (n = 3) of the patients, and Allergy and Clinical Immunology consultation (ACIC) was requested in 65% of the episodes (n = 28). Statistically significant associations (p minor 0.05) were established: a, anaphylaxis to drugs associated with a low intramuscular adrenaline use and with frequent oxygen therapy; b, anaphylaxis to food associated with intramuscular adrenaline administration; c, anaphylaxis to Hymenoptera venom associated with male sex; and d, anaphylaxis to iodinated contrasts associated with referral to ACIC and with shock. All obese patients developed shock. <bConclusions.</b Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires early recognition. Although most patients received adrenaline, administration was not always performed by the recommended route and only a few patients were prescribed adrenaline auto-injector." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 193 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 31 ] ], "text": "All the rest are typical signs of organicity," }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 147 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "Although mucus is usually more frightening in the consultation, it falls within the Rome II criteria for the diagnosis of Irritable Bowel Syndrome." } }

{ "1": "Weight loss with or without rectorrhagia.", "2": "Persistence of diarrhea during the night.", "3": "Onset of symptoms after age 50.", "4": "Presence of dermatitis and/or arthritis during the examination.", "5": "Expulsion of mucus in more than 25% of defecations." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0071_5433", "title": "[Chronic diarrhea: clinical aspects].", "score": 0.017401045556385362, "content": "A retrospective study on the syndrome of chronic diarrhea was carried out on 50 revised clinical histories. The patients were hospitalized at the E. Rebaglati M. Hospital between April 1983 and March 1988. The purpose of the study was to evaluate the signs and symptoms of the syndrome, as well as the etiological agents and the methodology used for diagnoses. The selection criteria involved patients diagnosed as suffering from \"chronic diarrhea of undetermined causes\" upon entry. Seven were excluded due to incomplete study whereas 2 were diagnosed as acute infections diarrhea. Forty one patients were definite cases of chronic diarrhea and they were divided between 2 groups: the first one or Chronic Organic Diarrhea (58.53%) and the second one or Chronic Functional Diarrhea (41.46%). Out of the 41 revised clinical histories with chronic diarrhea, the following were the foundings: (1) the syndrome affects the economically active populations mainly and the length of the disease was more than 3 weeks in all the patients; (2) anemia, fever, weight loss, nightime bowel movements and bloody stools suggest organic problems whereas psychiatric disorders, daytime bowel movements, abdominal pain, disease recurrence and absence of detectable organic pathology suggest functional problems; (3) the most common cause of chronic diarrhea is the Irritable Bowel Syndrome followed by infectious diseases, with parasitosis in the first place; and (4) bearing in mind the mainly colonic affection and the predominant infectious diseases, the methodology used for their diagnosis would bring out good results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0058_7537", "title": "Chronic diarrhea with normal stool and colonic examinations: organic or functional?", "score": 0.014772727272727272, "content": "To investigate whether the clinical history and basic laboratory test results can differentiate between an organic or functional cause of chronic diarrhea and thus avoid unnecessary hospital admissions and invasive procedures, we reviewed the charts of 58 adult patients admitted during 6 years because of chronic diarrhea who had normal stool and colonic examinations. The final diagnoses were irritable bowel syndrome in 34 patients, organic diarrhea in 21, and unknown cause in three. The following clinical data did not help in the differential diagnosis: age, sex, duration of diarrhea, presence of continuous diarrhea, abdominal pain, stool frequency or volume, and presence of stool mucus. Significant weight loss, nocturnal diarrhea, and the absence of tenesmus were associated with an organic cause. One or more laboratory alterations (increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, anemia, hypokalemia, and low serum albumin level) were found in 62% of patients with organic diarrhea but in only 3% of those with functional disease; p less than 0.001. In 20 of 21 patients with organic diarrhea, an syndromic diagnosis (fat malabsorption, n = 13; inflammatory bowel disease, n = 4; and secretory diarrhea, n = 3) could be obtained with three simple tests (stool fat, rectal biopsy, and fecal water osmolality and electrolyte determination, respectively). Our study confirms that a detailed history and a few simple laboratory data can help to distinguish between functional and organic diarrhea and so avoid extensive investigation. The syndromic diagnosis of organic diarrhea can also be approximated with relatively easy tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_21631", "title": "[Evolution and treatment response in microscopic colitis].", "score": 0.014615384615384617, "content": "To study the clinical characteristics, treatment response and evolution in patients with microscopic colitis. We performed a retrospective analysis of 24 patients (15 with collagenous colitis and 9 with lymphocytic colitis). Clinical and diagnostic features, treatment response and evolution according to the presence of maintenance therapy were evaluated. The mean age of the patients was 59.7 years and most were male. Nine patients took non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID). No significant association was found with other drugs. Four patients presented associated rheumatological disease. Most patients presented insidious-onset diarrhea without pathological products, which was frequently associated with other symptoms (abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, asthenia, tenesmus, and incontinence). Seven patients showed a slight increase in globular sedimentation rate. Fat in stools and radiological investigations (transit and opaque enema) were normal in patients who underwent these tests. Endoscopy revealed non-specific alterations in 42% of the patients while results were normal in the remaining patients. One patient showed clinical improvement on withdrawal of NSAIDs and 4 patients improved spontaneously. Clinical response was achieved in 7 of 13 patients treated with antimotility drugs, in 8 of 9 patients treated with salicylates, in 3 treated with oral corticoids, in 1 treated with cholestyramine and in 1 treated with topical budesonide. Nineteen patients required no maintenance therapy, 4 were administered salicylates and 1 was administered cholestyramine. After a mean follow-up of 42 months, evolution was chronic and intermittent in 14 patients and chronic and continuous in 1; 9 patients presented a single episode. No significant differences were found between patients administered maintenance therapy and those who were not or between collagenous colitis and lymphocytic colitis in the parameters analyzed. Microscopic colitis constitutes a group of diseases characterized by chronic diarrhea, few systemic effects and minimal radiological and/or endoscopic alterations. Evolution is characterized by recurrent episodes, with good response to treatment with cholestyramine, salicylates or corticoids when required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0048_10484", "title": "The self-limited nature of chronic idiopathic diarrhea.", "score": 0.014563843236409607, "content": "Little is known about the clinical presentation and natural history of previously healthy patients in whom chronic idiopathic diarrhea develops. We reviewed the case records of 152 patients with chronic diarrhea who had no history of gastrointestinal surgery and who were evaluated in detail as part of a chronic-diarrhea protocol from 1985 to 1990. Patients were considered to have chronic idiopathic diarrhea if they had persistently loose stools for more than four weeks, no systemic illness, and no identifiable cause of diarrhea. Seventeen patients (10 men and 7 women) ranging in age from 33 to 72 years met the criteria for chronic idiopathic diarrhea. Each patient had a history of a relatively abrupt onset of symptoms, often soon after returning home from a trip, starting two to seven months before evaluation. Their diarrhea did not occur during a local outbreak of diarrhea, and other family members did not become ill. Stool frequency ranged from 5 to 25 movements per day, stool weights ranged from 417 to 1480 g per day, and fecal electrolyte and osmolality values were consistent with a diagnosis of secretory diarrhea. The results of biopsies of the small intestine and colon were normal, as were small-bowel roentgenograms. Extensive studies for infectious causes of diarrhea were negative, and no patient responded to antibiotic therapy. In every patient the diarrhea stopped without specific therapy after 7 to 31 months (mean, 15) and did not recur during a follow-up period averaging 38 months. Sporadic idiopathic chronic diarrhea is a recognizable syndrome that can last many months, but is self-limited." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_5101", "title": "[The clinical characters of 30 patients with enteropathic arthritis and literature review].", "score": 0.014095767062189683, "content": "To better understand the clinical characters of enteropathic arthritis patients. The clinical, laboratory and X-rays data of 30 enteropathic arthritis in-patients were analyzed. Among the 30 patients, 14 were male, 16 were female. Average age at onset of gastroenteric manifestations was 16 - 48 (32.2 +/- 11.0) years old. The course of disease was 1 month - 20 (5.9 +/- 3.4) years. Average age at onset of arthritis was 15 - 52 (43.4 +/- 6.8) years old. The average interval between onset of diarrhea and arthritis was 0 - 13 (4.2 +/- 4.0) years. Peripheral arthritis was founded in 26 (87%) patients, and only 4 felt low back pain at onset. During the disease course, peripheral arthritis in 14 (54%) patients was similar to rheumatoid arthritis. The history of low back pain or buttock pain was recorded in 22 (73%) patients. Extra-articular features including fever occurred in 24 patients, enthesitis in 6, iritis or conjunctivitis in 4, dactylitis in 1 were observed. HLA-B(27) was positive in 36% (9/25) patients. Sacroiliitis in X-ray or CT was observed in 59% patients. The clinical manifestations of enteropathic arthritis are characterized by pauciarticular arthritis or symmetric polyarthritis or(and) sacroiliitis, a wide spectrum of extra-articular features, presence of HLA-B(27) and familial history of spondyloarthropathies. As other spondyloarthropathies, the sacroiliitis in enteropathic arthritis was also associated with HLA-B(27)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0593_4809", "title": "[Value of history and clinical and laboratory data for the diagnosis of dehydration due to acute diarrhea in children younger than 5 years].", "score": 0.013240286684270085, "content": "Acute diarrhea is frequent, costly because of the number of hospital admissions required, and sometimes serious, even fatal to children in France. The clinical diagnosis of dehydration is difficult, but essential to determine management. To summarize the published data on the value of clinical history, clinical signs and laboratory results for diagnosing dehydration during acute diarrhea in young (1 month-5 years) non-malnourished children. Four databases (Medline, INIST, Ovid, and Cochrane) were searched through November 2006, with the key words \"dehydration\" subcategories \"diagnosis, or etiology, or history\", \"diarrhea\" subcategory \"diagnosis\", and age limits \"infant or preschool child\". We selected the articles and reviews that included as an endpoint for dehydration \"weight gain &gt; 5% after recovery\" (the gold standard). Thirteen studies were selected. No single clinical history item, clinical sign or laboratory value was sufficient to discriminate between children with and without dehydration. The reproducibility of clinical signs varied substantially between studies. Persistent skin folds and signs of vasoconstriction contributed the most information, with good specificity but sensitivity &lt; 50%. The combination of at least 3 clinical signs was most discriminative for dehydration. No dehydration scale has been validated. None of the studies selected had a very high level of proof (level 1 and 2); neither signs nor scores have been validated internally or externally because of the low number of subjects. The diagnosis of dehydration due to acute diarrhea in young children depends on the number of signs present, since no individual element of clinical history, clinical picture or laboratory tests distinguished dehydration. Other studies are necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0552_155", "title": "Clinical course of collagenous colitis over a period of 10 years.", "score": 0.012901912901912903, "content": "The aim of this study was to evaluate the long-term outcome of patients with collagenous colitis 10 years after the diagnosis. In 1989/1990, 65 patients were diagnosed to have collagenous colitis. Initially and after an interval of ten years these patients were asked to complete a questionnaire including onset and duration of diarrhea, stool frequency and consistency, other gastrointestinal symptoms including weight loss, drug history, treatment response and concomitant diseases. Questionnaires from 47 patients (72.3 %) (female 40; mean age 68 years, range 41 - 95 years) were available for analysis. After a follow-up of ten years, 11 patients (23.4 %) had persistent diarrhea with no change of frequency and consistency compared to baseline. Four patients (8.5 %) showed a reduction of diarrhea frequency of at least 50 %. Diarrhea was resolved in 23 patients (48.9 %) during the follow-up period. Of those, 20 patients received anti-inflammatory treatment. After a complete resolution of diarrhea during the long-term follow-up, 9 patients (19.2 %) showed recurrence of diarrheal symptoms. None of the patients developed any malignancies of the GI-tract. The long-term outcome of CC is benign with a resolution of diarrhea in up to 50 % of patients receiving anti-inflammatory treatment. About 30 % of patients may experience persistent diarrhea even 10 years after diagnosis. Our data confirm that CC is a chronic disorder with a variable course of symptoms during a long-term follow-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en302_9801", "title": "Chronic diarrhea of infancy", "score": 0.011814914645103324, "content": "Signs and Symptoms Toddler's diarrhea is characterized by three or more watery stools per day that persist for 2–4 weeks or more. Newborns and infants may normally have soft and frequent stools; however, any noticeable changes in stool frequency or form (i.e. watery) can indicate toddler's diarrhea. Other symptoms may include chills, fever, abdominal pain or cramping, nausea, and/or vomiting. Undigested food and/or mucus may also be observed in stools. More serious symptoms may include bloody stools, weight loss, greasy stools, and/or severe abdominal pain. Aside from these signs and symptoms, infants and children present as healthy individuals with appropriate weight gain (considering sufficient calorie intake), active lifestyles, and normal appetites. Complications Possible complications associated with toddler's diarrhea include malabsorption and dehydration." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_145855", "title": "Defecation", "score": 0.011194244604316547, "content": "Common symptoms for inflammatory bowel diseases differ by the infection level, but may include severe abdominal pain, diarrhoea, fatigue and unexpected weight loss. Crohn's disease can lead to infection of any part of the digestive tract, including ileum to anus. Internal manifestations include diarrhoea, abdomen pain, fever, chronic anaemia, etc. External manifestations include impact on skin, joints, eyes and liver. Significantly reduced \"microbat diversity\" inside the gastrointestinal tract can also be observed. Ulcerative colitis mainly affects the function of the large bowel, and its incidence rate is three times larger than the Crohn's disease. In terms of clinical features, over 90% of patients exhibited constant diarrhoea, 'rectal bleeding, softer and mucus in the stool, tenesmus and abdomen pain'. At the same time, patient also reported to be having \"arthralgia, episcleritis and erythema nodosum\". The symptoms can continue for around 6 weeks or even more than that." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en087_17247", "title": "IPEX syndrome", "score": 0.010146237265856064, "content": "Presentation The most representative criterion for diagnose of IPEX syndrome is autoimmune enteropathy. First symptoms of enteropathy begin in first day of life and they are characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, gastritis, ileus and colitis. The second hallmark is type 1 diabetes (T1D) and the worst complication of it is destruction of pancreas confirmed by histological examinations. Dermatitis is next sign and it can be presented in three forms: eczematiform (mainly atopic dermatitis), ichthyosiform and psoriasiform or combinations of them. Other skin manifestations can include cheilitis, onychodystrophy and alopecia. Beside the three most significant triada of symptoms during this syndrom other not so typical symptoms include: thyroid and renal dysfunction, reduced counts of thrombocytes and neutrophils, arthritis, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and infections. Family history of IPEX patients" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_32417", "title": "Entacapone", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Diarrhea 10% of patients taking entacapone have been shown to experience diarrhea. Diarrhea may occur within 4–12 weeks of initial entacapone use but resolves after discontinuation of the drug. Use of entacapone in the presence of diarrhea can also be associated with weight loss, low potassium levels, and dehydration. In clinical studies, severe diarrhea was the most common reason for discontinuation of entacapone. Urine color 10% of people taking entacapone experience a change in urine color to orange, red, brown, or black. This side effect is due to entacapone metabolism and excretion in the urine and shown to not be harmful. Sudden sleep onset People have reported sudden sleep onset while engaging in daily activities without prior warning of drowsiness. In controlled studies, patients on entacapone had a 2% increased risk of somnolence compared to placebo." }, { "id": "article-19525_16", "title": "Chronic Diarrhea -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "History and physical exam vary widely from patient to patient depending on the severity and etiology of the disease.  The physical exam is often normal in patients with chronic diarrhea; however, signs of unintentional weight loss points towards a more severe disease. Although history and physical exam will rarely lead to a specific cause of chronic diarrhea, it is an integral part of any patient encounter. It is important to have the patient describe their diarrhea. Specific descriptions such as hematochezia, mucus in the stool, or steatorrhea help narrow the differential diagnosis greatly. Some specific physical exam signs may clue the examiner towards a diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_39989", "title": "Ulcerative colitis", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "People with ulcerative colitis usually present with diarrhea mixed with blood, of gradual onset that persists for an extended period of time (weeks). Additional symptoms may include fecal incontinence, increased frequency of bowel movements, mucus discharge, and nocturnal defecations. With proctitis (inflammation of the rectum), people with UC may experience urgency or rectal tenesmus, which is the urgent desire to evacuate the bowels but with the passage of little stool. Tenesmus may be misinterpreted as constipation, due to the urge to defecate despite small volume of stool passage. Bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain may be more prominent features in severe disease. The severity of abdominal pain with UC varies from mild discomfort to very painful bowel movements and abdominal cramping. High frequency of bowel movements, weight loss, nausea, fatigue, and fever are also common during disease flares. Chronic bleeding from the GI tract, chronic inflammation, and iron deficiency often" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_148121", "title": "Acute bronchitis", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Diagnosis A physical examination will often reveal decreased intensity of breath sounds, wheezing, rhonchi, and prolonged expiration. During examination for physicians rely on history and the presence of persistent or acute onset of cough, followed by a URTI with no traces of pneumonia. Acute bronchitis is typically a clinical diagnosis that relies on patients history and exam, and should be suspected in patients with an acute onset of cough, which often follows a URTI without traces of pneumonia. Although there is no universally-accepted clinical definition for acute bronchitis, there is a proposed set of practical criteria (Macfarlane, 2001) that include: An acute illness of less than three weeks. Cough as the predominant symptom. At least one other lower respiratory tract symptom, such as sputum production, wheezing, chest pain. No alternative explanation for the symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en339_33411", "title": "Arcobacter", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "bacteremia. Symptoms of A. butzleri infections include diarrhea associated with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting or fever. Studies of patients infected with A. butzleri have demonstrated that without treatment, symptoms endured for a very variable amount of time, from two days to several weeks. When antimicrobial therapies were administered, the infection was eradicated within a few days, and all strains in the study were found to be susceptible to the antibiotics given. A third species, A. skirrowii, has also recently been isolated from a patient with chronic diarrhea. Although the microbiological and clinical features of Arcobacter are not yet well defined, initial studies of A. butzleri suggest that these bacteria display similar microbiological and clinical features as C. jejuni, but are more associated with a persistent, watery diarrhea than with the bloody diarrhea associated with C. jejuni. Recent studies suggest that A. butzleri induces epithelial barrier dysfunction by" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_70417", "title": "Coccidioides immitis", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Treatment Most Coccidioides infections have an incubation period from one to four weeks and resolve without specific therapy; few clinical trials have assessed outcomes in less-severe disease. Commonly used indicators to judge the severity of illness include: Continuous fever for longer than 1 month Body-weight loss of more than 10% Intense night sweats that persist for more than 3 weeks Infiltrates that involve more than half of one lung or portions of both lungs Prominent or persistent hilar adenopathy Anticoccidioidal complement fixation IgG titers of 1:16 or higher Absence of dermal hypersensitivity to coccidioidal antigens Inability to work Symptoms that persist for more than 2 months Risk factors for dissemination (for which treatment should be initiated): Primary infection during infancy Primary infection during pregnancy, especially in the third trimester or immediately post partum" }, { "id": "article-154868_15", "title": "Enteropathic Arthritis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A comprehensive gastroenterological evaluation with questions regarding changes in bowel habits and appetite, weight loss, rectal bleeding, tenesmus, the nocturnal passage of stool, recurrent oral ulcerations, and perianal pain or discharge should be obtained. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) symptoms should be distinguished from inflammatory bowel disease symptoms. Abdominal bloating and abdominal discomfort relieved by defecation are primarily associated with IBS. Some patients may note a correlation between levels of joint pain and bowel symptoms, although these symptoms may be discordant." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_292", "title": "Collagenous colitis", "score": 0.00945606118019911, "content": "Collagenous colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease affecting the colon specifically with peak incidence in the 5th decade of life, affecting women more than men. Its clinical presentation involves watery diarrhea in the absence of rectal bleeding. It is often classified under the umbrella entity microscopic colitis, that it shares with a related condition, lymphocytic colitis. Signs and symptoms Microscopic colitis causes chronic watery diarrhea with greater than 10 bowel movements per day. Some patients report nocturnal diarrhea, abdominal pain, urgency, fecal incontinence, fatigue, dehydration and weight loss. Patients report a significantly diminished quality of life. Causes The cause of collagenous colitis is unknown." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_18924", "title": "Aetiology, medical history, and faecal weight in adult patients referred for diarrhoea. A prospective survey.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "All patients referred for diarrhoea over a 2-year period were studied to determine the relative frequency of organic diarrhoea and functional disorder. One hundred and nine patients had diarrhoea of established aetiology at admission. Two hundred and one patients with diarrhoea of unestablished aetiology at admission were interviewed about symptoms, and faecal output was measured. An organic or other explanation was eventually found in 78 patients (39%), whereas the bowel symptoms were categorized as functional or transient in 58%. Chronic diarrhoea of unknown origin was seen in 3%. Only 40% of the patients referred for diarrhoea had faecal output greater than 200 g/day. A reliable differentiation between organic and functional diarrhoea based solely on history and a physical examination at admission was not possible, as the initial diagnostic guess was only confirmed in 42% of the patients. More sensitive and specific indicators of functional diarrhoea are needed before the patients can be safely classified without the need for thorough diagnostic study." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en302_9799", "title": "Chronic diarrhea of infancy", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Chronic diarrhea (alternate spelling: diarrhoea) of infancy, also called toddler's diarrhea, is a common condition typically affecting up to 1.7 billion children between ages 6–30 months worldwide every year, usually resolving by age 4. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), diarrheal disease is the second greatest cause of death in children 5 years and younger. Diarrheal disease takes the lives of 525,000 or more children per year. Diarrhea is characterized as the condition of passing of three or more loose or watery bowel movements within a day sometimes with undigested food visible. Diarrhea is separated into three clinical categories; acute diarrhea may last multiple hours or days, acute bloody diarrhea, also known as dysentery, and finally, chronic or persistent diarrhea which lasts 2–4 weeks or more. There is normal growth with no evidence of malnutrition in the child experiencing persistent diarrhea. In chronic diarrhea there is no evidence of blood in the stool and" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0805_18386", "title": "[Microscopic colitis: clinical presentation, treatment and outcome of 494 patients].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Collagenous colitis (CC) and lymphocytic colitis (LC) are chronic disorders characterized by watery diarrhea. To evaluate prospectively the clinical features, response to treatment and outcomes in a large group of patients with CC and LC. Patients with histologically confirmed CC and LC were prospectively enrolled to complete a questionnaire on onset and duration of diarrhea, stool frequency and consistency, other gastrointestinal symptoms including weight loss, drug history, treatment success and concomitant diseases. A total of 494 patients (CC, n = 287, LC, n = 207) were available for analysis. The mean age at diagnosis was 65 in CC and 61 years in LC with a identically female predominance (76 % of patients) in both groups. Prior to diagnosis the mean duration of symptoms was 37 in CC and 23 months in LC. CC and LC patients share similar pattern of clinical symptoms. Concomitant autoimmune disorders were more common in CC patients (48.4 %) than in LC patients (29.6 %). Sustained clinical remission was reported by 35.5 % of CC and 38,6 % of LC, but more CC patients (47.7 %) received medication such as corticosteroids, antibiotics, bismuth or 5-aminosalicyclic than LC patients (16.9 %). 18.6 % of CC patients and 17.6 % of LC were regularly using NSAIDs. Collagenous and lymphocytic colitis are frequently diagnosed in elderly female patients. CC and LC share similar symptom pattern, but concomitant autoimmune disease were more common in CC than in LC patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en072_35433", "title": "VIPoma", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Symptoms and signs The major clinical features are prolonged watery diarrhea (fasting stool volume > 750 to 1000 mL/day) and symptoms of hypokalemia and dehydration. Half of the patients have relatively constant diarrhea while the rest have alternating periods of severe and moderate diarrhea. One third have diarrhea < 1yr before diagnosis, but in 25%, diarrhea is present for 5 yr or more before diagnosis. Lethargy, muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting and crampy abdominal pain are frequent symptoms. Hypokalemia and impaired glucose tolerance occur in < 50% of patients. Achlorhydria is also a feature. During attacks of diarrhea, flushing similar to the carcinoid syndrome occur rarely. Diagnosis Besides the clinical picture, fasting VIP plasma level may confirm the diagnosis, and CT scan and somatostatin receptor scintigraphy are used to localise the tumor, which is usually metastatic at presentation." }, { "id": "article-28255_10", "title": "Reactive Arthritis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "These symptoms manifest several days to weeks after the initial infection. Diarrhea or other symptoms caused by the offending agents are usually resolved by the time the patient develops arthritis. A detailed history and physical examination to investigate any recent illness such as urethritis, diarrhea, etc., should be performed. ReA can be self-limiting, recurrent, or continuous, and about 20% to 25% of the patients may progress to have chronic articular, ocular, and cardiac complications." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en306_22389", "title": "Nutritional neuroscience", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Treatment Prognosis of deficiency is excellent with treatment. Without, pellagra will gradually progress and lead to death within 4–5 years, often a result of malnutrition from prolonged diarrhea, or complications as caused by concurrent infections or neurological symptoms. Symptoms of pellagra can be cured with exogenous administration of nicotinic acid or nicotinamide. Flushing occurs in many patients treated therapeutically with nicotinic acid, and as a result, nicotinamide holds more clinical value as it is not associated with the same uncomfortable flushing. The adult dose of nicotinamide is 100 mg taken orally every 6 hours until resolution of major acute symptoms, followed with oral administration of 50 mg every 8–12 hours until skin lesions heal. For children, treatment involves oral ingestion of 10–15 mg of nicotinamide, depending on weight, every 6 hours until signs and symptoms are resolved. Severe cases require 1 gram every 3–4 hours, administered parenterally." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0718_3008", "title": "[Etiology of erythema nodosum in rheumatology outpatient clinic].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Erythema nodosum (EN) is a skin lesion presenting with the acute appearance of red nodular eflorescences caused by a reactive immunological process. In most cases EN regresses spontaneously within 3 to 6 weeks and often recurs. This paper is based on a sample of 98 patients from Croatia which were treated in a rheumatologic outpatient clinic by the same internal medicine and rheumatology specialist. Presentation and differences between secondary and idiopathic forms of EN in the Croatian population were analyzed. The results show the final proportion of EN associated with secondary etiology as 47/98. Secondary etiology of EN included mostly infectious diseases (23/98), sarcoidosis (18/98) and IBD (4/98). Comparison of various clinical and laboratory parameters of both idiopathic and secondary EN resulted in a small number of statistically significant differences found (sore throat, recent respiratory infections, ASO titer changes, antibiotics use). The conclusion is that the approach to patients with EN starts by a careful taking of patient history, with an emphasis on recent upper respiratory tract infections and occurrence of diarrhea. A thorough physical examination, basic hematological and biochemical tests, basic inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP), chest X-ray and PPD test are required to determine which patients need further evaluation. A throat swab and/or determination of the titer ofASO on two occasions at intervals of 2-4 weeks should be done. It is important to perform regular patient follow-up. Considering literature substantiated regional differences in the etiology of EN it is recommended that for each population the prevalence of individual causes of EN is determined and the clinical approach accordingly standardized." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en085_8300", "title": "Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Clinical manifestations of disseminated MAC—such as fever, weight loss, and night sweats—should be monitored several times during the initial weeks of therapy. The microbiologic response, as assessed by blood culture every 4 weeks during initial therapy, can also be helpful in interpreting the efficacy of a therapeutic regimen. Most patients who ultimately respond show substantial clinical improvement in the first 4–6 weeks of therapy. Elimination of the organism from blood cultures may take somewhat longer, often requiring 4–12 weeks. HIV-infected children HIV-infected children less than 12 years of age also develop disseminated MAC. Some age adjustment is necessary when clinicians interpret CD4+ T-lymphocyte counts in children less than 2 years of age. Diagnosis, therapy, and prophylaxis should follow recommendations similar to those for adolescents and adults. Society and culture" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1053_10520", "title": "Follow-up of adults with noncritical COVID-19 two months after symptom onset.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To describe the clinical evolution and predictors of symptom persistence during 2 months' follow-up in adults with noncritical coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19). We performed descriptive clinical follow-up (day (D) 7, D30 and D60) of 150 patients with noncritical COVID-19 confirmed by real-time reverse transcriptase PCR at Tours University Hospital from 17 March to 3 June 2020, including demographic, clinical and laboratory data collected from the electronic medical records and by phone call. Persisting symptoms were defined by the presence at D30 or D60 of at least one of the following: weight loss ≥5%, severe dyspnoea or asthenia, chest pain, palpitations, anosmia/ageusia, headache, cutaneous signs, arthralgia, myalgia, digestive disorders, fever or sick leave. At D30, 68% (103/150) of patients had at least one symptom; and at D60, 66% (86/130) had symptoms, mainly anosmia/ageusia: 59% (89/150) at symptom onset, 28% (40/150) at D30 and 23% (29/130) at D60. Dyspnoea concerned 36.7% (55/150) patients at D30 and 30% (39/130) at D60. Half of the patients (74/150) at D30 and 40% (52/130) at D60 reported asthenia. Persistent symptoms at D60 were significantly associated with age 40 to 60 years old, hospital admission and abnormal auscultation at symptom onset. At D30, severe COVID-19 and/or dyspnoea at symptom onset were additional factors associated with persistent symptoms. Up to 2 months after symptom onset, two thirds of adults with noncritical COVID-19 had complaints, mainly anosmia/ageusia, dyspnoea or asthenia. A prolonged medical follow-up of patients with COVID-19 seems essential, whatever the initial clinical presentation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0662_6116", "title": "Efficacy of polyethylene glycol 4000 on constipation of posttraumatic bedridden patients.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To investigate the efficacy and safety of polyethylene glycol 4000 on adult patients with functional constipation due to posttraumatic confinement to bed. A total of 201 posttraumatic bedridden patients were studied in this prospective, open-labeled, single-group study. Polyethylene glycol 4000 was administered orally for 14 days and the dosage was adjusted according to the Bristol stool types. Demographic characteristics, disease status, treatment period and factors affecting clinical outcome, especially the concomitant medications, were recorded. After administration of polyethylene glycol 4000, 194 cases (96.52%) showed remission of constipation, including 153 (76.12%) persistent remission. The average defecation frequency increased significantly after treatment and the percentage of patients with stools of normal types (Bristol types 3-5) increased as well. Genders, ages and concomitant medications showed no significant influence on the persistent remission rate. After consecutive treatment for two weeks, patients with slight movement showed a significantly higher remission rate than those without movement (95% vs 80%). At the end of treatment, most accompanying symptoms were relieved obviously. Patients with a medical history of constipation or ever taking laxatives showed a lower remission rate. Sixty cases (29.85%) developed diarrhea during the observational period, among whom 6 (10%) withdrew from the clinical observation voluntarily at the first onset of diarrhea. Two cases suffered from abdominal pain. Polyethylene glycol 4000 has efficacy on functional constipation in posttraumatic bedridden patients. Furthermore, patients with milder symptoms, more movement in bed, and longer duration of treatment but without accompanying symptoms can achieve a higher remission rate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1059_13973", "title": "Non-classical clinical presentation at diagnosis by male celiac disease patients of older age.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": ". In a biopsy-proven adult celiac disease (CeD) cohort from the Netherlands, male patients were diagnosed with CeD at significantly older ages than female patients. To identify which factors contribute to diagnosis later in life and whether diagnostic delay influences improvement of symptoms after starting a gluten-free diet (GFD). . We performed a questionnaire study in 211 CeD patients (67:144, male:female) with median age at diagnosis of 41.8 years (interquartile range: 25-58) and at least Marsh 2 histology. . Classical symptoms (diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal pain and/or weight loss) were more frequent in women than men, but sex was not significantly associated with age at diagnosis. In a multivariate analysis, a non-classical presentation (without any classical symptoms) and a negative family history of CeD were significant predictors of older age at diagnosis (coefficients of 8 and 12 years, respectively). A delay of &gt;3 years between first symptom and diagnosis was associated with slower improvement of symptoms after start of GFD, but not with sex, presentation of classical symptoms or age at diagnosis. . Non-classical CeD presentation is more prevalent in men and is associated with a diagnosis of CeD later in life. Recognizing CeD sooner after onset of symptoms is important because a long diagnostic delay is associated with a slower improvement of symptoms after starting a GFD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0523_13294", "title": "[Circumstances of the diagnosis and clinical course of inflammatory bowel disease].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease is sometimes difficult. The cardinal symptom of ulcerative colitis is bloody diarrhoea. The clinical characteristics of Crohn's disease are more heterogeneous, but typically include abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant, diarrhoea, weight loss and/or perianal disease. Extra intestinal (joint, cutaneaous and eye) manifestations can precede digestive symptoms and lead to the diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease. The clinical course of these two diseases is unpredictable. The risk of colorectal cancer is significantly increased 8 years after diagnosis of pancolitis. Thus, regular surveillance by colonoscopy with random biopsies is recommended." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0028_8704", "title": "Symposium on diarrhea. 2. Clinical diagnosis of the causes of diarrhea.", "score": 0.008811498910508812, "content": "Elucidation of the cause of diarrhea is facilitated by considering which of three principal determinants are of relevance in a particular case. These determinants relate to the onset (whether diarrhea is acute or chronic), to infection or an absence ofinfection and to the presence in the stool of blood or mucus, or both. Diagnosis is also facilitated by taking an accurate and full history, conducting a physical examination, performing sigmoidoscopy and, with proper care, attempting a therapeutic diagnosis. Findings from investigations should then enable one to arrive at a diagnosis. The diagnosis can be reached in an orderly fashion by classifying the types of diarrhea into eight categories: with respect to the acute or chronic onset a case of diarrhea may be noninfectious, without blood or mucus in the stool; noninfectious, with blood or mucus, or both; infectious, without blood or mucus; and infectious, with blood or mucus in the stool." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en031_91103", "title": "Paratuberculosis", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Control Pasteurization is used to kill the causal agent, M. paratuberculosis, by heating cow's milk for a short time and then immediately cooling it. Signs and symptoms In cattle, the main signs of paratuberculosis are diarrhea and wasting. Most cases are seen in 2- to 6-year-old animals. The initial signs can be subtle, and may be limited to weight loss, decreased milk production, or roughening of the hair coat. The diarrhea is usually thick, without blood, mucus, or epithelial debris, and may be intermittent. Several weeks after the onset of diarrhea, a soft swelling may occur under the jaw. Known as \"bottle jaw\" or intermandibular edema, this symptom is due to protein loss from the bloodstream into the digestive tract. Paratuberculosis is progressive; affected animals become increasingly emaciated and usually die as the result of dehydration and severe cachexia." } ] } } }

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{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0803_19632", "title": "Medical Costs of Oral Anticoagulants vs Warfarin for Atrial Fibrillation Patients with Different Stroke Risks.", "score": 0.019142700128228614, "content": "The Apixaban for the Reduction in Stroke and Other Thromboembolic Events in Atrial Fibrillation (ARISTOTLE), Randomized Evaluation of Long-term Anticoagulation Therapy (RE-LY), and Rivaroxaban Once Daily Oral Direct Factor Xa Inhibition Compared with Vitamin K Antagonism for Prevention of Stroke and Embolism Trial in Atrial Fibrillation (ROCKET-AF) trials demonstrated that the oral anticoagulants (OACs), apixaban, dabigatran, and rivaroxaban, respectively, are efficacious for stroke prevention among nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF) patients. Based on clinical trial results this study evaluated medical costs of clinical events associated with use of individual OACs relative to those of warfarin in NVAF patients with moderate and high stroke risk. Rates for primary and secondary efficacy and safety outcomes (i.e., clinical events) among NVAF patients with CHADS2 = 2 and ≥3 were determined from the three OAC trials. One-year incremental costs among patients with clinical events from a US payer perspective were obtained from the literature and inflation adjusted to 2010 costs. Medical costs for clinical events associated with each OAC vs. warfarin were estimated and compared. For NVAF patients with moderate stroke risk (CHADS2 = 2) differences in clinical event medical costs vs. warfarin were -$298, -$143, and +$117 per patient year for apixaban, dabigatran (150 mg), and rivaroxaban, respectively (negative numbers indicate cost reduction). For NVAF patients with high stroke risk (CHADS2 ≥ 3) differences in clinical event medical costs vs. warfarin were -$697, +$2, and -$100 for apixaban, dabigatran (150 mg), and rivaroxaban, respectively. Medical cost differences associated with OACs vs. warfarin vary according to stroke risk. Of the three OACs, apixaban demonstrated consistent medical cost reductions vs. warfarin for NVAF patients with moderate and high stroke risks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0814_6008", "title": "Oral anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.016986811926605505, "content": "Atrial fibrillation affects approximately 5 million patients in the United States. The rate of stroke in adults with atrial fibrillation depending on their risk factors varies between 1-20% annually. Anticoagulation with vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin has been the mainstay therapy but it is cumbersome and requires close follow-up. Since 2010, three new oral anticoagulants have received Food and Drug Administration approval for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. This review summarizes data from three landmark trials: RE-LY, ROCKET-AF, and ARISTOTLE. In addition, issues relating to cost, reversal, drug interactions, and perioperative discontinuation are discussed. Compared to Warfarin, Dabigatran 150 mg twice daily lowered the primary outcome of stroke/systemic embolism by 34% (number needed to treat/yr 169) and had similar incidence of major bleeding. Rivaroxaban demonstrated non inferiority compared to the warfarin group for the primary outcome of stroke and systemic embolism and major bleeding. Apixaban showed a relative risk reduction for the primary outcome of 21% (number needed to treat 300), and lowered major bleeding down by 31% (number needed to treat /yr 104). Apixaban also showed a mortality benefit compared to warfarin (3.52 vs. 3.94%/year, p 0.047). All 3 oral anticoagulants lowered rates of intracranial hemorrhage. The use of Rivaroxaban and Apixaban has been projected to reduce medical costs when compared to warfarin, and Dabigatran is projected to have similar costs. All the 3 oral anticoagulants have robust randomized controlled trials supporting their comparability to warfarin therapy for stroke prevention in non valvular atrial fibrillation, with Apixaban showing superiority in incidence of strokes, major bleeding and mortality." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en293_5623", "title": "Management of atrial fibrillation", "score": 0.014446444644464446, "content": "Chronic anticoagulation Among patients with nonvalvular AF, anticoagulation with warfarin can reduce stroke by 60% while antiplatelet agents can reduce stroke by 20%. The combination of aspirin and clopidogrel reduced the risk of stroke by 25%, but increased the risk of major bleeding by 57%, which means that this combination is inferior to warfarin, and is not an alternative for patients who are judged to be at high risk of bleeding on warfarin therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0695_18335", "title": "Cost-effectiveness of dabigatran for stroke prophylaxis in atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.014091078760731617, "content": "Recent studies have investigated alternatives to warfarin for stroke prophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), but whether these alternatives are cost-effective is unknown. On the basis of the results from Randomized Evaluation of Long Term Anticoagulation Therapy (RE-LY) and other trials, we developed a decision-analysis model to compare the cost and quality-adjusted survival of various antithrombotic therapies. We ran our Markov model in a hypothetical cohort of 70-year-old patients with AF using a cost-effectiveness threshold of $50 000/quality-adjusted life-year. We estimated the cost of dabigatran as US $9 a day. For a patient with an average risk of major hemorrhage (≈3%/y), the most cost-effective therapy depended on stroke risk. For patients with the lowest stroke rate (CHADS2 stroke score of 0), only aspirin was cost-effective. For patients with a moderate stroke rate (CHADS2 score of 1 or 2), warfarin was cost-effective unless the risk of hemorrhage was high or quality of international normalized ratio control was poor (time in the therapeutic range &lt;57.1%). For patients with a high stroke risk (CHADS(2) stroke score ≥3), dabigatran 150 mg (twice daily) was cost-effective unless international normalized ratio control was excellent (time in the therapeutic range &gt;72.6%). Neither dabigatran 110 mg nor dual therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel) was cost-effective. Dabigatran 150 mg (twice daily) was cost-effective in AF populations at high risk of hemorrhage or high risk of stroke unless international normalized ratio control with warfarin was excellent. Warfarin was cost-effective in moderate-risk AF populations unless international normalized ratio control was poor." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_84337", "title": "Stroke", "score": 0.01405236070709331, "content": "Previous stroke or TIA Keeping blood pressure below 140/90 mmHg is recommended. Anticoagulation can prevent recurrent ischemic strokes. Among people with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation can reduce stroke by 60% while antiplatelet agents can reduce stroke by 20%. However, a recent meta-analysis suggests harm from anticoagulation started early after an embolic stroke. Stroke prevention treatment for atrial fibrillation is determined according to the CHA2DS2–VASc score. The most widely used anticoagulant to prevent thromboembolic stroke in people with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation is the oral agent warfarin while a number of newer agents including dabigatran are alternatives which do not require prothrombin time monitoring. Anticoagulants, when used following stroke, should not be stopped for dental procedures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_25284", "title": "[A study on the evaluation of anticoagulation status comparing of CHADS2 versus CHA2DS2-VASc scores in patients with non valvular atrial fibrillation in Xinjiang area].", "score": 0.013860911270983215, "content": "To evaluate the current status of anticoagulation therapy in patients with atrial fibrillation(AF)in Xinjiang, and compare the two scoring systems(CHADS2 and CHA2DS2-VASc scores) in determining the risk of strokes in AF patients in Xinjiang. Subjects with AF were collected by searching the electronic and paper medical records from 35 hospitals in Xinjiang area during October 2013 to October 2014, and followed up for the incident strokes after 10 to 12 months. Totally, 5 953 AF patients were enrolled in the study with the age of (67.9±12.0) years old, and men to women ratio of 1.44. Most patients were in age groups of 60-69 (23.92%) and 70-79 years (37.81%). Among patients with a CHADS2 score of 1 or less, the CHA2DS2-VASc scores of these subjects ranged from 0 to 3. After 10 to 12 months of follow-up, 22 patients developed new strokes. Only 30.79% patients ( n=1 460) received the anticoagulation treatment among those (n=4 742) who need to be treated with anticoagulation drugs. In patients receiving anticoagulant therapy, 1 162 patients were treated with warfarin, and 298 patients with new oral anticoagulant drugs.Totally 1 110 patients treated with warfarin were monitored with international normalized ratio (INR). The median INR was 1.14 with only 97 cases meeting the recommended INR ranging of 2.0-3.0 in the guidelines. The compliance rate was 8.74%. The current status of anticoagulation for AF in Xinjiang area is characterized by \"low anticoagulation rate\" and \"low compliance rate\". The CHA2DS2-VASc score is more suitable for predicting the risk of strokes in patients with non valvular atrial fibrillation in Xinjiang area." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0799_5500", "title": "Comparing mortality in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving a direct-acting oral anticoagulant or warfarin: a meta-analysis of randomized trials.", "score": 0.013668696824585057, "content": "In patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are at least non-inferior to warfarin for the prevention of stroke and systemic embolism. The main objective of this study was to obtain reliable and precise estimates for all-cause mortality, vascular mortality and bleeding mortality in patients with AF receiving a DOAC or warfarin for stroke prevention. A meta-analysis was performed on phase 3 randomized trials that compared a DOAC with warfarin for stroke prevention in AF. Published data were pooled by use of the DerSimonian random-effect model, with revman 5.2 and comprehensive meta analysis software version 2. The results were presented as risk ratios (RRs), absolute risk reduction (ARR), and number-needed-to-treat (NNT). A total of 71 683 patients were included in this meta-analysis from four randomized controlled trials (median patient follow-up: 1.8-2.8 years) that compared a DOAC with warfarin for stroke prevention in AF. As compared with warfarin, DOACs significantly reduced all-cause mortality (RR 0.89, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.85-0.94; ARR 0.76%, 95% CI 0.39-1.13%; NNT = 132), vascular mortality (RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.82-0.94; ARR 0.53%, 95% CI 0.23-0.83%; NNT = 189), and bleeding mortality (RR 0.54, 95% CI 0.44-0.67; ARR 0.32%, 95% CI 0.21-0.43%; NNT = 313). As compared with warfarin therapy for stroke prevention in patients with AF, DOACs significantly reduce all-cause mortality, vascular mortality, and bleeding mortality. This mortality benefit appears to be driven by the reduction in vascular-related and bleeding-related mortality, which, in turn, may be related to the reduction in intracranial bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_14811", "title": "Secondary prevention of stroke in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation: optimal intensity of anticoagulation.", "score": 0.013631503920171062, "content": "Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF) is frequently seen in elderly people and has become a main cause of cardioembolic stroke. The efficacy of anticoagulation for primary prevention of stroke or transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) in patients with NVAF has been established by prospective, randomised and controlled trials. Warfarin decreased the frequency of all strokes by 68% and the rate of the combined outcome of stroke, systemic embolism or death by 48%. Anticoagulation with warfarin using international normalised ratios (INRs) ranging from 2.0 to 3.0 is recommended for patients with NVAF, who have any of the risk factors identified by the Atrial Fibrillation Investigators (AFI) [previous stroke or TIA, history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, advanced age (&gt; or = 65 years old), congestive heart failure and coronary artery disease], the American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) [increased age (&gt; 75 years old), prior stroke, hypertension and heart failure], or the Stroke Prevention in Atrial Fibrillation (SPAF) investigators [women &gt; 75 years old, prior stroke, systolic blood pressure &gt; 160mm Hg, recent heart failure, and fractional shortening &lt; 25% on echocardiography]. For the secondary prevention of stroke, the efficacy of adjusted-dose warfarin therapy has been demonstrated by 2 major randomised trials. SPAF III (INR 2.0 to 3.0) demonstrated a lower incidence of ischaemic stroke or systemic embolism (3.4 %/year) compared with low fixed-dose warfarin plus aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) [11.9%]. The European Atrial Fibrillation Trial [EAFT] (INR 2.5 to 4.0) showed a lower incidence of all stroke (4.0 %/year) with adjusted-dose warfarin compared with placebo (12.0 %/year). The incidence of major bleeding in the adjusted-dose warfarin group in SPAF III and EAFT was 2.4 and 2.8 %/year, respectively. EAFT incidence rates for the occurrence of a first ischaemic or haemorrhagic complication analysed by INR range indicated that the rate was lowest at INRs of 2.0 to 2.9, and higher with INRs of 3.0 to 3.9. Therefore, the optimal intensity of anticoagulation for prevention of recurrent stroke seems to be an INR of between 2.0 and 3.0, as for primary prevention. Retrospective and prospective studies from Japan reported that in the elderly, haemorrhagic complications occur frequently with INRs above 2.6 and major ischaemic events cannot be prevented at INRs below 1.6. Therefore, an INR target between 1.6 and 2.6 may be an alternative for secondary prevention of stroke in elderly patients with NVAF who have a potential risk of bleeding, to avoid both major ischaemic and haemorrhagic events. Antiplatelets may be administered in patients who are unable to manage taking warfarin properly or who have a high risk of falling and subsequently sustaining a head injury, although the efficacy of antiplatelets for secondary prevention of stroke in NVAF has not yet been established." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en293_5620", "title": "Management of atrial fibrillation", "score": 0.0134535566051238, "content": "Latest ESC guidelines on atrial fibrillation recommend assessment of bleeding risk in AF using the HAS-BLED (Hypertension, Abnormal renal/liver function, Stroke, Bleeding history or predisposition, Labile International Normalized Ratio, Elderly, Drugs/alcohol concomitantly) bleeding risk schema as a simple, easy calculation, whereby a score of ≥3 indicates \"high risk\" and some caution and regular review of the patient is needed. The HAS-BLED score has also been validated in an anticoagulated trial cohort of 7329 patients with AF – in this study, the HAS-BLED score offered some improvement in predictive capability for bleeding risk over previously published bleeding risk assessment schemas and was simpler to apply. With the likely availability of new oral anticoagulants that avoid the limitations of warfarin (and may even be safer), more widespread use of oral anticoagulation therapy for stroke prevention in AF is likely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1053_4083", "title": "Nine-year trend of oral anticoagulant use in patients with embolic stroke due to nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.013254850664922609, "content": "Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are increasingly used as an alternative to warfarin in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF). However, whether there is sufficient prescription of oral anticoagulants (OACs) to decrease the incidence of embolic stroke remains unclear. We conducted a retrospective observational study of patients hospitalized with ischemic stroke between January 1, 2010 and December 31, 2018. During the 8 years, the annual incidence ratio of embolic stroke to all ischemic strokes did not decrease over time (21-33%) except for that in 2018. The proportion of OAC users did not also change over time (from 23% to 45% [overall 31%], <iP</i = .78). Among the OAC users, 19% patients were warfarin users, and 12% patients were DOAC users. In 73% of warfarin users, prothrombin time was subtherapeutic, whereas in 60% of DOAC users, the dose was adequately prescribed. OACs were prescribed more often in patients with high CHADS2 score than in those with low score (<iP</i = .01). The number of patients who had no medical history of a doctor visit before admission increased significantly in the recent period of 2015-2018 (22% vs 8% in the previous period of 2010-2014) (<iP</i = .01). The incidence of embolic stroke patients without OACs did not decrease over time, and OACs in patients with NVAF have not been sufficient, even in DOAC era. In recent years, the incidence of undiagnosed AF has increased. To prevent embolic stroke, a correct AF diagnosis beforehand is important." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0353_12364", "title": "Guidelines for stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.013198171337706222, "content": "Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a major independent risk factor for stroke. AF is most commonly associated with nonvalvular cardiovascular disease and is especially frequent among the elderly. The annual risk for stroke in patients with AF is approximately 5% with a wide range depending on the presence of additional risk factors. For patients who cannot successfully be converted and maintained in normal sinus rhythm (NSR), antithrombotic therapy is an effective method for preventing stroke. The 2 drugs which are indicated for stroke prophylaxis in patients with AF are warfarin and aspirin. For primary prevention, warfarin reduces the risk of stroke approximately 68%. Aspirin therapy is less effective, resulting in a 20 to 30% risk reduction. Combination therapy with aspirin and low intensity warfarin adjusted to an International Normalised Ratio (INR) of 1.2 to 1.5 has not been shown to be superior to standard intensity warfarin with a target INR of 2.0 to 3.0. In patients with AF and a prior history of stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), the absolute risk reduction with warfarin is even greater because of the high risk of stroke in this population. In contrast, aspirin has not been shown to significantly reduce the risk of stroke in patients with AF when used for secondary prevention. When appropriately managed, warfarin is associated with a low risk of major bleeding. In controlled trials of highly selected patients, the annual rate of intracranial haemorrhage (ICH) with warfarin was approximately 0.3%. Studies have shown that specialty anticoagulation clinics can achieve similar low rates of major bleeding. However, these results cannot be extrapolated to the general population. Factors which have been identified as predictors of bleeding include advanced age, number of medications and most importantly, the intensity of anticoagulation. INR values above 4.0 have been associated with an increased risk of major bleeding while values below 2.0 have been associated with thrombosis. Slow careful dosage titration, regular laboratory monitoring and patient education can substantially reduce the risk of complications. In patients with AF, antithrombotic therapy has been shown to be cost effective. For high risk patients, warfarin is the most cost-effective therapy, provided the risks for bleeding are minimised. In contrast, aspirin is the most cost-effective agent for low risk patients. Current practice guidelines for stroke prophylaxis recommend warfarin (target INR 2.5: range 2.0 to 3.0) for AF patients at high risk for stroke including those over 75 years of age or younger patients with additional risk factors. Aspirin should be reserved for low risk patients or those unable to take warfarin. Although these recommendations are strongly supported by the clinical trial evidence, studies show that many patients are not receiving appropriate antithrombotic therapy. In particular, warfarin is underutilised in high risk elderly patients. Additional studies are needed to identify barriers that prevent implementation of the clinical trial findings into clinical practice." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en470_19617", "title": "HAS-BLED", "score": 0.012749615975422427, "content": "2020 ESC guidelines on atrial fibrillation recommend assessment of bleeding risk in AF using the HAS-BLED bleeding risk schema as a simple, easy calculation, whereby a score of ≥3 indicates \"high risk\" and some caution and regular review of the patient is needed. The HAS-BLED score has also been validated in an anticoagulated trial cohort of 7329 people with AF - in this study, the HAS-BLED score offered some improvement in predictive capability for bleeding risk over previously published bleeding risk assessment schemas and was simpler to apply. With the likely availability of new oral anticoagulants that avoid the limitations of warfarin (and may even be safer), more widespread use of oral anticoagulation therapy for stroke prevention in AF is likely." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en466_37386", "title": "SAMe-TT2R2 score", "score": 0.012592592592592593, "content": "The SAMe-TT2R2 score is a clinical prediction rule to predict the quality of vitamin K antagonist anticoagulation therapy as measured by time in therapeutic INR range (TTR) (VKA e.g. warfarin). It has been suggested that it can aid in the medical decision making between VKAs and new oral anticoagulant/non-VKA oral anticoagulant (NOAC e.g. dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban or edoxaban) in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF). This score can be used with patients with ≥1 additional stroke risk factors using the CHA2DS2-VASc score, where oral anticoagulation is recommended or should be considered. This score reflects the need to offer an improved patient care pathway when using oral anticoagulants. While NOACs avoid the need for drug monitoring (e.g. INR monitoring), they have an unstable bioavailability and are not indicated for patients with chronic kidney failure or in patients with valvular replacement surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0862_18137", "title": "Cost-Effectiveness of High-Dose Edoxaban Compared with Adjusted-Dose Warfarin for Stroke Prevention in Non-Valvular Atrial Fibrillation Patients.", "score": 0.012224209898628503, "content": "To estimate the quality-adjusted life-years (QALYs), costs, and cost-effectiveness of high-dose edoxaban compared with adjusted-dose warfarin in patients at risk for stroke who have nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF) and a creatinine clearance (Clcr ) of 15-95 ml/minute. A Markov model was created to compare the cost-effectiveness of high-dose edoxaban and adjusted-dose warfarin in patients with a Clcr of 15-95 ml/minute. The model was performed from a U.S. societal perspective and assumed patients initiated therapy at 70 years of age, had a mean CHADS2 (congestive heart failure, hypertension, age 75 or older, diabetes, stroke) score of 3, and no contraindications to anticoagulation. The model assumed a cycle length of 1 month and a lifetime horizon (maximum of 30 years/360 cycles). Data sources included renal subgroup analysis of the Effective Anticoagulation with Factor Xa Next Generation in Atrial Fibrillation (ENGAGE-AF) trial and other published studies. Outcomes included lifetime costs (2014 US$), QALYs, and incremental cost-effectiveness ratios. The robustness of the model's conclusions was tested using one-way and 10,000-iteration probabilistic sensitivity analysis (PSA). Patients treated with high-dose edoxaban lived an average of 10.50 QALYs at a lifetime treatment cost of $99,833 compared with 10.11 QALYs and $123,516 for those treated with adjusted-dose warfarin. The model's conclusions were found to be robust upon one-way sensitivity analyses. PSA suggested high-dose edoxaban was economically dominant compared with adjusted-dose warfarin in more than 99% of the 10,000 iterations run. High-dose edoxaban appears to be an economically dominant strategy when compared with adjusted-dose warfarin for the prevention of stroke in NVAF patients with a Clcr of 15-95 ml/minute and an appreciable risk of stroke." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en248_20372", "title": "Atrial fibrillation", "score": 0.012162339365329138, "content": "For those with non-valvular atrial fibrillation, DOACs are at least as effective as warfarin for preventing strokes and blood clots embolizing to the systemic circulation (if not more so) and are generally preferred over warfarin. DOACs carry a lower risk of bleeding in the brain compared to warfarin, although dabigatran is associated with a higher risk of intestinal bleeding. Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is inferior to warfarin for preventing strokes and has comparable bleeding risk in people with atrial fibrillation. In those who are also on aspirin, however, DOACs appear to be better than warfarin." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_181798", "title": "Transient ischemic attack", "score": 0.012102946804439341, "content": "Anticoagulants may be started if the TIA is thought to be attributable to atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is an abnormal heart rhythm that may cause the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain, resulting in TIAs or ischemic strokes. Atrial fibrillation increases stroke risk by five times, and is thought to cause 10-12% of all ischemic strokes in the US. Anticoagulant therapy can decrease the relative risk of ischemic stroke in those with atrial fibrillation by 67% Warfarin is a common anticoagulant used, but direct acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs), such as apixaban, have been shown to be equally effective while also conferring a lower risk of bleeding. Generally, anticoagulants and antiplatelets are not used in combination, as they result in increased bleeding risk without a decrease in stroke risk. However, combined antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy may be warranted if the patient has symptomatic coronary artery disease in addition to atrial" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_84333", "title": "Stroke", "score": 0.011777719937532535, "content": "Those with atrial fibrillation have a 5% a year risk of stroke, and this risk is higher in those with valvular atrial fibrillation. Depending on the stroke risk, anticoagulation with medications such as warfarin or aspirin is useful for prevention. Except in people with atrial fibrillation, oral anticoagulants are not advised for stroke prevention—any benefit is offset by bleeding risk. In primary prevention, however, antiplatelet drugs did not reduce the risk of ischemic stroke but increased the risk of major bleeding. Further studies are needed to investigate a possible protective effect of aspirin against ischemic stroke in women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0992_514", "title": "Stroke in atrial fibrillation: Review of risk stratification and preventive therapy.", "score": 0.011289308176100629, "content": "Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a leading preventable cause of ischemic stroke for which early detection and treatment are critical. The risk of stroke in people with AF can be stratified by the use of such validated prediction instruments such as CHADS<sub2</sub or CHA<sub2</sub DS<sub2</sub-VASc. The CHA<sub2</sub DS<sub2</sub-VASc adds to the evaluation of the risk of stroke by reliably identifying patients at very low risk. Additional points are assigned for an additional age category of 65-74 years (1 point), female sex (1 point), and vascular disease other than cerebrovascular disease (1 point). Two points are awarded for age ≥75 years. The risk of stroke increases according to point score: 0.5% per year (0 points), 1.5% per year (1 point), 2.5% per year (2 points), 5% per year (3 points), 6% per year (4 points), and 7% per year (5-6 points). For decades, Vitamin K antagonists were the only class of oral anticoagulants available to clinicians for the prevention of stroke in AF. However, new oral anticoagulants (NOACs), such as apixaban, dabigatran, and rivaroxaban, are currently available and have proved to be safe and effective in preventing stroke in patients with nonvalvular AF. In addition, a nonpharmacologic procedure like left atrial appendage occlusion is a possible option in selected patients. In this article, we have reviewed the stratification of stroke risk in AF, prevention of stroke in nonvalvular AF, warfarin versus NOACs, weighting risk of bleeding versus stroke risk when deciding on the anticoagulation protocol in patients with AF, and the use of nonpharmacologic therapy for stroke prevention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0865_4072", "title": "Systematic review and network meta-analysis of the relative efficacy and safety of edoxaban versus other nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants among patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation and CHADS2 score ⩾ 2.", "score": 0.011080417434008595, "content": "The nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants pivotal clinical trials for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation have important differences in trial designs and baseline patient characteristics. We sought to evaluate the relative efficacy and safety of edoxaban versus other nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants in the management of stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation by adjusting for differences in baseline stroke risk and the length of follow-up among the four phase 3 randomized controlled trials. We conducted a systematic literature review of randomized controlled trials evaluating the nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation and performed a network meta-analysis using data from ENGAGE AF-TIMI 48, RE-LY, ROCKET-AF, and ARISTOTLE, with warfarin as a common comparator. To adjust for between-trial differences in CHADS2 score and length of follow-up, annualized event rates among patients with CHADS2 score ⩾ 2 were analyzed using a mixed Poisson's regression model. Once-daily high-dose edoxaban was associated with significant lower major bleeding episodes compared with once-daily rivaroxaban (risk ratio, 0.76; 95% confidence interval, 0.66-0.89), twice-daily dabigatran 150 mg (risk ratio, 0.78; 95% confidence interval, 0.61-0.84), and twice-daily dabigatran 110 mg (risk ratio, 0.83; 95% confidence interval, 0.71-0.98) and similar bleeding risk compared with twice-daily apixaban (risk ratio, 1.08; 95% confidence interval, 0.91-1.28). Risk of stroke and systemic embolism was similar for the high-dose edoxaban and other nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulant regimens. The low-dose edoxaban regimen was associated with a significant lower risk of major bleeding than other nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants and a significant higher risk of stroke and systemic embolism compared with apixaban and dabigatran 150 mg. Among patients with atrial fibrillation and CHADS2 score ⩾ 2, the high-dose edoxaban regimen may offer similar efficacy to the other nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants but with a significant major bleeding benefit over rivaroxaban and dabigatran." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en194_5563", "title": "VKORC1", "score": 0.0109375, "content": "Warfarin is a commonly prescribed oral anticoagulant, or blood thinner used to treat blood clots such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism and to prevent stroke in people who have atrial fibrillation, valvular heart disease or artificial heart valves. Warfarin causes inhibition on VKORC1 activities and leads to a reduced amount of vitamin K available to serve as a cofactor for clotting proteins. Inappropriate dosing of warfarin has been associated with a substantial risk of both major and minor hemorrhage. As the pharmacological target of warfarin, VKORC1 is considered a candidate gene for the variability in warfarin response. Previous researches have shown that the CYP2C9 genotype of patients also played a role in warfarin metabolism and response. Gene The human gene is located on chromosome 16. Two pseudogenes have been identified on chromosome 1 and the X chromosome. Clinical relevance" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en181_14607", "title": "CHA2DS2–VASc score", "score": 0.010919950896865094, "content": "{{DISPLAYTITLE:CHA2DS2–VASc score}} The CHADS2 score and its updated version, the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are clinical prediction rules for estimating the risk of stroke in people with non-rheumatic atrial fibrillation (AF), a common and serious heart arrhythmia associated with thromboembolic stroke. Such a score is used to determine whether or not treatment is required with anticoagulation therapy or antiplatelet therapy, since AF can cause stasis of blood in the upper heart chambers, leading to the formation of a mural thrombus that can dislodge into the blood flow, reach the brain, cut off supply to the brain, and cause a stroke. A high score corresponds to a greater risk of stroke, while a low score corresponds to a lower risk of stroke. The CHADS2 score is simple and has been validated by many studies. In clinical use, the CHADS2 score (pronounced \"chads two\") has been superseded by the CHA2DS2-VASc score (\"chads vasc\"), which gives a better stratification of low-risk patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en293_5615", "title": "Management of atrial fibrillation", "score": 0.010609778262450017, "content": "in those who are allergic to aspirin). In contrast, those with a high risk of stroke derive most benefit from anticoagulant treatment with warfarin or similar drugs. A new class of anticoagulant drugs, the direct thrombin inhibitors (Dabigatran), has recently arrived on the scene and shown efficacy in treating complications of nonvalvular chronic AF." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en248_20368", "title": "Atrial fibrillation", "score": 0.010498485548539452, "content": "Anticoagulants Anticoagulation can be used to reduce the risk of stroke from AF. Anticoagulation is recommended in most people other than those at low risk of stroke or those at high risk of bleeding. The risk of falls and consequent bleeding in frail elderly people should not be considered a barrier to initiating or continuing anticoagulation since the risk of fall-related brain bleeding is low and the benefit of stroke prevention often outweighs the risk of bleeding. Similarly, the presence or absence of AF symptoms does not determine whether a person warrants anticoagulation and is not an indicator of stroke risk. Oral anticoagulation is underused in atrial fibrillation, while aspirin is overused in many who should be treated with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) or warfarin. In 2019, DOACs were often recommended over warfarin by the American Heart Association." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en323_15747", "title": "Edoxaban", "score": 0.010257498585172609, "content": "Compared with warfarin it has fewer drug interactions. It was developed by Daiichi Sankyo and approved in July 2011, in Japan for prevention of venous thromboembolisms following lower-limb orthopedic surgery. It was also approved in the United States by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in January 2015, for the prevention of stroke and non–central-nervous-system systemic embolism. It was approved for use in the European Union in June 2015. It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines. Medical uses In the United States, edoxaban is approved for treating deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism following five to ten days of initial therapy with a parenteral anticoagulant. It is also approved for reducing the risk of blood clots in people with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en293_5619", "title": "Management of atrial fibrillation", "score": 0.010110294117647058, "content": "To compensate for the increased risk of stroke, anticoagulants may be required. However, in the case of warfarin, if someone with AF has a yearly risk of stroke that is less than 2%, then the risks associated with taking warfarin outweigh the risk of getting a stroke from AF. However, since these older data, there is now greater recognition of the importance of good anticoagulation control (as reflected by time in therapeutic range) as well as greater awareness of bleeding risk factors as well as data from recent trials that aspirin carries a similar rate of major bleeding to warfarin, especially in the elderly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0407_19897", "title": "[Anticoagulation in permanent atrial fibrillation after 75 years of age].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "More than 10% of the population over 75 years old is concerned by non valvular permanent atrial fibrillation which is responsible for at least 30% of ischemic strokes. The indication of an anticoagulant therapy is discussed in two different situations: primary or secondary prevention of stroke and acute phase of stroke. Patients over 75 years old have a high risk of stroke (&gt; 8% year). All the studies have demonstrated the benefit of a primary or secondary prevention by antivitamin K with an INR between 2 and 3 (reduction of the relative risk of about 68%). Conversely, the efficacy of aspirin has not been proven in this population of elderly patients. Once stroke has occurred, it is not recommended to initiate an anticoagulation (unfractioned or low molecular weight heparin) within the first hours. Prevention of venous thrombosis remains necessary. Currently, less than 30% of the patients older than 75 years are given anticoagulation, the risk of the treatment being probably overestimated. The risk benefit ratio should be evaluated more properly for a given patient." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en181_14608", "title": "CHA2DS2–VASc score", "score": 0.009840497431738308, "content": "Use The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a widely used medical tool used to guide physicians on blood thinning treatment to prevent stroke in people with non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF). CHADS2 The CHADS2 score does not include some common stroke risk factors, and its various pros/cons have been carefully discussed. Adding together the points that correspond to the conditions that are present results in the CHADS2 score, that is used to estimate stroke risk. CHA2DS2-VASc To complement the CHADS2 score, by the inclusion of additional 'stroke risk modifier' risk factors, the CHA2DS2-VASc-score has been proposed. In clinical use, the CHADS2 score has been superseded by the CHA2DS2-VASc score, which gives a better stratification of low-risk patients. The CHADS2 score has been outperformed by the CHA2DS2-VASc in multiple patient groups including patients with AF who are receiving outpatient elective electrical cardioversion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0388_1351", "title": "A review of anticoagulation with warfarin in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.009819021948402002, "content": "Warfarin therapy has proved safe and effective in a number of randomized controlled trials of stroke prophylaxis in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF), reducing the risk of stroke in these patients by two thirds. However, participants in the clinical trials were carefully selected and younger than patients in actual clinical practice. This analysis sought to determine whether the results of clinical trials in patients with NV can be extrapolated to the general population seen in clinical practice. A MEDLINE search from 1966 to the present was used to identify observational trials of anticoagulation in patients with NVAF that addressed warfarin use, anticoagulation control, efficacy, and complications. The search terms used were atrial fibrillation and anticoagulation. Although warfarin prophylaxis against stroke in patients with NVAF appeared to be as well tolerated and effective in clinical practice as in clinical trials, it was generally underused, particularly in the elderly. Anticoagulation control was not as good in clinical practice as in clinical trials, although the rates of stroke and major bleeding were comparable. Judicious use of warfarin, tailored to individual stroke risk, seems to be a reasonable policy. Warfarin therapy increases quality-adjusted survival in patients at high risk for stroke, and it is recommended for medium-risk patients unless their risk of bleeding is high or their quality of life while taking warfarin would be poor. Patients at a low risk for stroke will have equivalent health outcomes and incur lower costs if treated with aspirin. Despite the increased risk of hemorrhage in elderly patients, the net benefit of warfarin therapy is greater in this age group because of the higher risk of stroke. Active involvement of patients and their caregivers in an anticoagulation service setting may improve outcomes of anticoagulation therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0859_17479", "title": "Comparison of Aspirin and Naoxintong Capsule () with Adjusted-Dose Warfarin in Elderly Patients with High-Risk of Non-Valvular Atrial Fibrillation and Genetic Variants of Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To compared the therapeutic effect of a Chinese patent medicine Naoxintong Capsule (, NXT) and aspirin with adjusted-dose warfarin in Chinese elderly patients (over 65 years) with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF) and genetic variants of vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKORC1), who are at high-risk of thromboembolism. A total of 151 patients, with NVAF and AA genotype of VKORC1-1639 (a sensitive genotype to warfarin) and a CHA<sub2</subDS<sub2</sub-VASc clinical risk score of 2 or above, were chosen for this study. Patients were randomized into two groups and orally treated with a combination of aspirin (100 mg/day) and NXT (1.6 g thrice a day) or adjusted-dose warfarin [international normalized ratio 2.0-3.0). The primary end points including ischemic stroke and death as well as the secondary end points including hemorrhage events were followed up for at least 1 year. Baseline clinical data and the rates of primary end points were similar between groups. However, the rate of serious bleeding (secondary event) in the combination therapy group was lower than that in the adjusted-dose warfarin group (0% vs. 7.9%, odds ratio: 0.921, 95% confidence interval: 0.862-0.984, P=0.028). Aspirin combined with NXT and warfarin displayed comparable rates of primary end point including ischemic stroke and all-cause death during the 1-year follow-up. However, as compared with warfarin, the combination therapy reduced the rate of serious bleeding. Therefore, aspirin combined with NXT might provide an alternative pharmacotherapy in preventing ischemic stroke for elderly patients with NAVF who cannot tolerate warfarin. (No. ChiCTR-TRC-13003596)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0650_13479", "title": "Relationship between CHADS2 score and ischemic stroke during rhythm control therapy for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The CHADS2 score has been proposed for stratifying patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF) according to the risk of thromboembolism in the AHA/ACC/ESC guidelines. However, there is little information about its usefulness for predicting the long-term risk of ischemic stroke in Japanese patients with paroxysmal AF. We retrospectively evaluated the incidence of ischemic stroke and the efficacy of anticoagulant therapy in paroxysmal AF patients on rhythm control therapy who were stratified by their CHADS2 score. The subjects were 334 NVAF atients (229 men and 105 women, mean age, 68 +/- 12 years, mean follow-up period, 60 +/- 35 months) who were categorized into low risk (score 0), moderate risk (1 or 2), and high risk (3 or more) groups for thromboembolism. The low, moderate, and high risk groups accounted for 34%, 50%, and 16% of the patients, respectively. Among 257 patients without warfarin therapy, the annual rate of symptomatic ischemic stroke was 0.6% in the score 0 group, 0.5% in the score 1 group, 3.1% in the score 2 group, and 9.6% in the score 3 or more group. Among 77 patients treated with warfarin (target PT-INR: 1.6-3.0), the stroke rate was 0% in the score 0 group, 0% in the score 1 group, 1.4% in the score 2 group, and 6.6% in the score 3 or more group. The annual rate of ischemic stroke was 0.88% in patients treated with warfarin versus 2.67% in those without warfarin, or a decrease in risk of 68% with warfarin (P &lt; 0.01). In Japanese patients with paroxysmal AF, the CHADS2 score is useful for predicting the risk of ischemic stroke. Anticoagulant therapy is needed to prevent ischemic stroke in patients with paroxysmal AF, especially those who have a CHADS2 score of 2 or more." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_9781", "title": "Cost-effectiveness of apixaban vs warfarin for secondary stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To compare the cost-effectiveness of apixaban vs warfarin for secondary stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF). Using standard methods, we created a Markov decision model based on the estimated cost of apixaban and data from the Apixaban for Reduction in Stroke and Other Thromboembolic Events in Atrial Fibrillation (ARISTOTLE) trial and other trials of warfarin therapy for AF. We quantified the cost and quality-adjusted life expectancy resulting from apixaban 5 mg twice daily compared with those from warfarin therapy targeted to an international normalized ratio of 2-3. Our base case population was a cohort of 70-year-old patients with no contraindication to anticoagulation and a history of stroke or TIA from nonvalvular AF. Warfarin therapy resulted in a quality-adjusted life expectancy of 3.91 years at a cost of $378,500. In comparison, treatment with apixaban led to a quality-adjusted life expectancy of 4.19 years at a cost of $381,700. Therefore, apixaban provided a gain of 0.28 quality-adjusted life-years (QALYs) at an additional cost of $3,200, resulting in an incremental cost-effectiveness ratio of $11,400 per QALY. Our findings were robust in univariate sensitivity analyses varying model inputs across plausible ranges. In Monte Carlo analysis, apixaban was cost-effective in 62% of simulations using a threshold of $50,000 per QALY and 81% of simulations using a threshold of $100,000 per QALY. Apixaban appears to be cost-effective relative to warfarin for secondary stroke prevention in patients with AF, assuming that it is introduced at a price similar to that of dabigatran." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_20458", "title": "[Atrial fibrillation and apoplexy--risks and prevention].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The annual incidence of ischemic stroke among patients with chronic non-valvular atrial fibrillation is about 4.5 percent. In five controlled trials, oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin reduced the annual incidence of stroke by 68 percent to 1.4 percent. The effect of aspirin has not been unequivocally determined. Aspirin reduced the annual risk of stroke by 18 percent (n.s.) in one trial, and by 44 percent in another, though the two trials differed both in mean age of the patients and in aspirin doses. Direct comparison of warfarin and aspirin revealed no difference in efficacy. Advanced age, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), hypertension and diabetes were all found to be risk factors for stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. In patients under 65 years of age without risk factors, the annual risk of stroke was 1 percent. After TIA or minor stroke, warfarin reduced the annual risk of a second stroke from 12 percent to 4 percent. Aspirin had no such effect. The annual incidence of major bleeding episodes was 0.2-2.0 percent in the warfarin-treated subgroup, 0.2-1.5 percent in the aspirin subgroup and 0-1.6 percent in the placebo subgroup. Based on findings in the above mentioned trials, warfarin (INR 2.0-3.0) is recommended for stroke prevention in patients over 60 years of age with non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Trials are under way to ascertain whether conventional warfarin treatment can be replaced by less complicated and safer treatments in patients with chronic atrial fibrillation." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 153 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 21 ] ], "text": "The clinical picture is typical of spondyloarthritis, and together with the digestive symptoms it is probably associated with inflammatory bowel disease." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Given the patient's age, he most likely suffers from non-specific low back pain and tendonitis in the feet. If the diarrhea persists, a digestive study would be performed.", "2": "I would perform a digestive study to rule out tumor pathology. The lumbar pain may be due to visceral pathology.", "3": "The clinical picture is very suggestive of spondyloarthritis. Inflammatory bowel disease should be ruled out.", "4": "I would request a lumbar MRI to rule out disc herniation and if diarrhea persists, a digestive study.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0071_5433", "title": "[Chronic diarrhea: clinical aspects].", "score": 0.01793400286944046, "content": "A retrospective study on the syndrome of chronic diarrhea was carried out on 50 revised clinical histories. The patients were hospitalized at the E. Rebaglati M. Hospital between April 1983 and March 1988. The purpose of the study was to evaluate the signs and symptoms of the syndrome, as well as the etiological agents and the methodology used for diagnoses. The selection criteria involved patients diagnosed as suffering from \"chronic diarrhea of undetermined causes\" upon entry. Seven were excluded due to incomplete study whereas 2 were diagnosed as acute infections diarrhea. Forty one patients were definite cases of chronic diarrhea and they were divided between 2 groups: the first one or Chronic Organic Diarrhea (58.53%) and the second one or Chronic Functional Diarrhea (41.46%). Out of the 41 revised clinical histories with chronic diarrhea, the following were the foundings: (1) the syndrome affects the economically active populations mainly and the length of the disease was more than 3 weeks in all the patients; (2) anemia, fever, weight loss, nightime bowel movements and bloody stools suggest organic problems whereas psychiatric disorders, daytime bowel movements, abdominal pain, disease recurrence and absence of detectable organic pathology suggest functional problems; (3) the most common cause of chronic diarrhea is the Irritable Bowel Syndrome followed by infectious diseases, with parasitosis in the first place; and (4) bearing in mind the mainly colonic affection and the predominant infectious diseases, the methodology used for their diagnosis would bring out good results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0265_14729", "title": "[The diagnostic significance of the small bowel enema in lesions of the small intestine requiring surgery].", "score": 0.012906152069932376, "content": "Given its anatomical location the small intestine is the section of the digestive tract most inaccessible to objective clinical and instrumental examination. For this reason, traditional investigation methods provide inadequate data. In the barium meal X-ray, images are superimposed and the barium excessively fragmented due to the tortuosity and length of the intestinal loop. Access problems limit the value of endoscopy. The indications to angiography are fairly restrictive. Ultrasound and CT scans provide no conclusive evidence in this area. The so-called Small Bowel Enema technique based on the direct infusion of an opaque contrast medium after duodenal intubation remains the only way to obtain images with a satisfactory diagnostic value and should be the method of choice in examinations of the small intestine. Introduced in the twenties, the value of the technique was long questioned, mainly because it was difficult to perform correctly and it is only quite recently that several decisive technological innovations have made it highly reliable. The present paper describes its use on a series of patients with suspected pathologies of the small intestine requiring surgical treatment. The aim is to specify the correct indications to this technique as well as its limitations with a view to promoting its appropriate use in routine practice. MATERIALS AND METHODS. The study covers 42 small bowel enemas performed on 29 male and 13 female patients aged 12-85 years. Indications to the enema included chronic abdominal pain in 28.5%, chronic diarrhea in 21.4%, pain+diarrhea in 14%, subocclusion in 16.5%, faecal blood in 11.9%, abdominal pain+diarrhea+intestinal haemorrhage in 4.7%, anaemia in 2.4%. We adopted the Sellink technique involving intubation with a French 14 Bilbao-Dotter probe and the infusion of 200-350 cc barium sulphate in a 90%-70% P/V concentration at a speed of 100 ml/min, followed by the infusion of 1000-1500 cc 0.5-1% methylcellulose in a 50-50 mixture with water for double contrast purposes. Mean duration of procedure 35-40 mins. RESULTS. We found lesions of the small intestine in 18 cases or 45% (true positives) and no alterations in 18 or 42.8% (true negatives). In 3 cases (7%) the examination was inconclusive. One false positive and one false negative complete the series, making a diagnostic accuracy of 89.1%. In 23.8% of the total series the diagnosis of Crohn's disease was confirmed; cancerous lesions were found in 11.9% and adhesions following earlier surgery in 9.7%. Surgery confirmed this diagnosis in 10 cases (5 tumours, 3 stenoses caused by adhesion fragments, 2 Crohn's disease) and disproved it in one case. Biopsy was used, for objective confirmation in 5 cases (2 Crohn's disease, 3 negatives). In the other cases reliance was placed on clinical course and the patients' response to treatment. DISCUSSION AND CONCLUSIONS. Examination of our results reveals that in most clinical cases the small bowel enema was used to confirm suspected Crohn's disease (31 cases out of 42) and with a very high degree of diagnostic accuracy (96.7%). In line with data in the literature we decided to base the indication to this examination on certain primary symptoms such as chronic abdominal pain, diarrhea, blood in the faeces, whether in isolation or in combination. On this rather general basis the diagnosis of Crohn's disease concerned only 23.8% of the cases studied, an incidence that rose dramatically in the few cases in which the indications were made more specific. We therefore conclude that the adoption of more restrictive criteria will improve the cost-benefit ratio for this test. Another major pathology in which small bowel enema possesses a high diagnostic value is partial obstruction of the small intestine.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_114604", "title": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "These diagnostic criteria include: Inflammatory back pain:Chronic, inflammatory back pain is defined when at least four out of five of the following parameters are present: (1) Age of onset below 40 years old, (2) insidious onset, (3) improvement with exercise, (4) no improvement with rest, and (5) pain at night (with improvement upon getting up) Past history of inflammation in the joints, heels, or tendon-bone attachments Family history for axial spondyloarthritis or other associated rheumatic/autoimmune conditions Positive for the biomarker HLA-B27 Good response to treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Signs of elevated inflammation (C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate) Manifestation of psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, or inflammation of the eye (uveitis) If these criteria still do not give a compelling diagnosis magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be useful. MRI can show inflammation of the sacroiliac joint. Imaging" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0092_13841", "title": "[Late initial manifestations of Crohn disease with atypical symptoms].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The case of a 55-year-old patient with Crohn's disease and chronic intermittent diarrhea as well as progressive weight loss of 20 percent of his body weight is reported. The establishment of the diagnosis was difficult at the beginning, since characteristic symptoms were missing and radiological and endoscopical findings were normal. Loam-coloured glossy stools, repeated registration of a reduced chymotrypsin concentration of the stool and the response of the symptoms to a substitution of pancreatic enzymes were initially regarded as signs of an exocrine pancreas insufficiency. Not before multiple biopsies were taken from the macroscopically largely normal small and large intestine during persisting complaints, an extensive infiltration with Crohn's disease could be shown. This case report emphasizes the importance of taking multiple biopsies in etiologically unexplained chronic diarrhea even from macroscopic inconspicuous intestinal mucosa. Because of the rising incidence of Crohn's disease late onset is gaining increasing significance in the differential diagnosis of chronic diarrhea in the elderly patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en119_13371", "title": "Spinal disc herniation", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Magnetic resonance imaging is the gold standard study for confirming a suspected LDH. With a diagnostic accuracy of 97%, it is the most sensitive study to visualize a herniated disc due to its significant ability in soft tissue visualization. MRI also has higher inter-observer reliability than other imaging modalities. It suggests disc herniation when it shows an increased T2-weighted signal at the posterior 10% of the disc. Degenerative disc diseases have shown a correlation with Modic type 1 changes. When evaluating for postoperative lumbar radiculopathies, the recommendation is that the MRI is performed with contrast unless otherwise contraindicated. MRI is more effective than CT in distinguishing inflammatory, malignant, or inflammatory etiologies of LDH. It is indicated relatively early in the course of evaluation (<8 weeks) when the patient presents with relative indications like significant pain, neurological motor deficits, and cauda equina syndrome. Diffusion tensor imaging" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1146_5621", "title": "Seropositive Neuromyelitis Optica in a Case of Undiagnosed Ankylosing Spondylitis: A Neuro-Rheumatological Conundrum.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD) is an autoimmune astrocytopathy against foot processes of aquaporin-4 (AQP4) water channels. Patients with NMOSD tend to have other coexisting autoimmune/connective tissue diseases. However, AQP-4-antibody-positive NMOSD coexisting with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is rare. AS is an immune-mediated disorder, a subset of axial spondyloarthropathies, which commonly manifests as chronic inflammatory back pain in young people, and it has a strong association with HLA-B27. In this study, a 35-year-old Indian man with an undiagnosed progressive axial spondyloarthropathy (i.e., AS) is reported presenting with acute-onset longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis, a clinical subset of NMOSD. Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD), a primary demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system (CNS), is an autoimmune astrocytopathy against foot processes of aquaporin-4 (AQP4) water channels, which manifests with optic neuritis, longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis (LETM), area-postrema syndrome, brainstem syndrome diencephalic syndrome, and cerebral syndrome.<sup1-4</sup Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is an immune-mediated disorder, a subset of axial spondyloarthropathies, which commonly manifests as chronic inflammatory back pain in young people, and it has a strong association with HLA-B27.<sup5,6</sup AS characteristically targets the axial skeleton, peripheral joints, entheses (connective tissues between tendons/ligaments and bones), and gut.<sup5,6</sup Patients with NMOSD tend to have other coexisting autoimmune/connective tissue diseases.<sup7</sup For example, cases with NMOSD and multiple sclerosis, which are other autoimmune primary demyelinating disorders of the CNS, have been reported.<sup8,9</sup However, concurrent existence of AS and NMOSD in the same patient even over years of disease course is rare.<sup10,11</sup In addition, studies describing neurological manifestations of AS are limited,<sup12</sup and they focus on joint inflammation and long-standing bony pathology (ankylosis) related to compressive myelopathy, myelo-radiculopathy, and cauda equina syndromes.<sup12,13</sup The authors present a case of a young Indian man with an undiagnosed progressive AS (misdiagnosed and mismanaged by an indigenous medical practitioner) presenting with acute-onset LETM variant of AQP4-positive NMOSD. A 35-year-old healthy, non-comorbid man from rural India came to the outpatient department with complaints of persistent tingling, numbness, and weakness of both lower limbs (right more than left) for 10 days. The clinical picture showed acute-onset urinary retention, which was relieved by urinary catheterization. An indigenous medical practitioner had prescribed drugs to treat a urinary tract infection. His weakness gradually progressed over the following week, causing him to become bedridden. During the removal of the catheter, he felt urgency, increased frequency of micturition, and overt urinary incontinence. He gave no history suggestive of any girdle-like sensations, root/radicular/tract pain, vertebral pain, trauma, recent vaccination, and diarrheal or febrile illness. For the last 8 months, he had a complaint of an insidious-onset, persistent, bilateral, dull aching pain in the gluteal region accompanied by low-back pain and morning stiffness up to 1 h, which markedly improved with activity and reoccurred following long periods of inactivity. He sometimes had to rise in the middle of the night because of excruciating pain, which could be relieved after moving around the room and corridors for half an hour. He was taking over-the-counter diclofenac tablets for pain relief prescribed by some indigenous medical practitioners who told him that it was due to overwork in agricultural fields, that is, mechanical back pain. He also had a normal X-ray of the lumbosacral spine. He had no addiction liabilities, and none of the family members had ever suffered from a similar kind of illness. He had never consulted any trained medical practitioner, as his previous back-pain-related symptoms responded well to the tablets prescribed by the indigenous medical practitioner(s). During examination, he was found to have recent-onset, asymmetric spastic paraparesis (right more than left) with upper motor neuron-type urinary bladder symptoms. Cognitive assessment (assessed by the Montreal cognitive assessment test) was normal, and posterior column sensations were preserved. Sensory system examination revealed no definite sensory level. Except for the paretic lower limbs, cerebellar functions were normal in other regions. Neuro-ophthalmological examinations were also normal, and no signs of meningeal irritation were observed. The history and course of the disease and clinical examinations were analyzed. Selective tractopathy (early and predominant motor and autonomic tract affection) was suggested for an intramedullary demyelinating pathology affecting the anterior central cord. This case was initially classified as acute-onset non-compressive myelopathy at the lower cervical/upper dorsal region level in a patient with a pre-existing axial spondyloarthropathy. Complete blood cell count; liver, kidney, and thyroid function tests; and plasma glucose and electrolytes were normal, except for an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (66 mm in the first hour). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spinal cord revealed a demyelinating LETM from C5 to D4 level (Figure 1). Meanwhile, an MRI of the sacroiliac joints revealed bilateral sacroiliitis. Brain and orbital MRIs were devoid of any lesions. Anti-aquaporin 4 (AQP-4) antibodies were tested by cell-based assay in serum and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and both were positive. CSF further revealed lymphocytic pleocytosis and increased intrathecal protein production. Visually evoked potential recordings were also normal. In addition, anti-myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibodies were negative. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), ANA-profile, autoimmune vasculitis profile (c-ANCA, p-ANCA), neurovirus panel (i.e., polymerase chain reaction for adenovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2, human herpesviruses 6 and 7, cytomegalovirus, enteroviruses, varicella-zoster virus, Japanese encephalitis, and dengue virus), CSF-polymerase chain reaction for <iMycobacterium tuberculosis</i, angiotensin-converting enzyme, anti-phospholipid, and anti-thyroid antibodies were negative. Anti-CCP-antibody and rheumatoid factor were also negative, including creatine phosphokinase level and serum vitamin B12. Moreover, serologies for hepatitis B, C, human immunodeficiency virus, and scrub typhus were negative. However, HLA-B27 assay was positive. The final diagnosis was AQP4-positive NMOSD associated with AS. He was placed on pulse intravenous methylprednisolone (1 g/day for 5 days). Consequently, his lower limb power improved remarkably. Cyclical rituximab therapy was initiated to prevent relapses. At 3-month follow-up, he had no residual neurological deficit except for persistence of paresthesias. Neuroimaging and visually evoked potential studies revealed no active or new lesions. After 6 months of therapy, a subjective and objective improvement was observed in disease severity based on the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score. Our patient satisfied the new Assessment of SpondyloArthritis International Society diagnostic/classification criteria for AS and the Wingerchuk criteria for NMOSD,<sup4,14</sup an association that has been rarely reported.<sup10,11</sup Amid the extra-articular complications of long-standing AS, neurological manifestations are considered infrequent.<sup15</sup However, subclinical neurological complications may be frequent in AS.<sup12</sup Common neurological manifestations result from bony (vertebral) ankylosis, subluxation of joints, ossification of anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments, secondary spinal canal stenosis, bony (vertebral) fractures, and subsequent compressions over nerve radicles/roots/cauda equina, and inflammation-related (entrapment) peripheral neuropathies.<sup12,16,17</sup Acute transverse myelitis can occur as a subset of several primary demyelinating disorders of the CNS (i.e., multiple sclerosis, NMOSD, myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibody disease, and acute disseminated encephalomyelitis) and various systemic autoimmune connective tissue disorders (i.e., systemic lupus erythematosus, mixed connective tissue disease, Sjögren syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, and neurosarcoidosis).<sup18</sup Acute transverse myelitis (short or long segment) is an infrequent extra-articular complication of AS.<sup18</sup It has been reported to evolve either as a distinct neurological complication of AS, or it may develop secondary to TNF-alpha-inhibitor therapy for the treatment of AS.<sup18,19</sup AS is a heritable inflammatory spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton, which is mediated by T-cells; B-cells only play a minor role.<sup5</sup On the contrary, the key for the pathogenesis of NMOSD is the production of autoantibodies against AQP-4 channels expressed on astrocytes, leading to complement-mediated damage, with ensuing demyelination. Myelitis usually shows high signal intensity on the tbl2-weighted image and contrast enhancement in the spinal cord.<sup1-4</sup Despite the difference in molecular mechanisms, the diagnosis of these diseases in the same individual may not be coincidental. Recent evidence has shown T-cell-mediated inflammatory responses in cases of NMOSD.<sup20</sup In particular, Th17 and Th2-related cytokines are elevated in the CSF of NMO patients.<sup20</sup Environmental factors such as <iEscherichia coli</i have also been proven to aggravate autoimmunity in AS and NMOSD (however, body fluid cultures for <iEscherichia coli</i, performed in our patient, showed similar association, and they were found negative two times).<sup21,22</sup Although large-scale epidemiological studies investigating the underlying pathogenesis related to these diseases are lacking, studies have demonstrated an increased incidence of optic neuritis among patients with AS.<sup23</sup Systemic sclerosis and mixed and undifferentiated connective tissue diseases were excluded after expert opinions (from two board-certified rheumatologists and two dermatologists) because of the lack of suggestive clinical findings (e.g., absence of skin thickening, salt-and-pepper appearance, nail changes, Mauskopf facies, sclerodactyly, calcinosis cutis, Raynaud's phenomenon, other cutaneous manifestations, pulmonary arterial hypertension/interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, muscular pain/weakness renal impairments, absence of ANA, anti-centromere antibodies, anti-Scl-70, PM-Scl antibodies, anti-ds DNA, PCNA, CENP-B, anti-nucleosomes, anti-Smith, anti-U1-RNP, anti-Jo1, anti-Mi2, anti-Ro52, anti-La antibodies, and normal C3 and C4 complement levels) (The European League Against Rheumatism and the American College of Rheumatology classification criteria 2019).<sup24</sup Finally, our patient was treated with intravenous steroids followed by rituximab infusions, a monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody directed against B-cells. In particular, this patient clinically and radiologically responded to immunomodulatory drugs, which might support a possible common pathogenic basis of the two processes. TNF-alpha inhibitors are commonly used as novel therapeutics in AS; however, they can potentially result in serious complications, that is, secondary demyelinating disorders.<sup25</sup However, such inhibitors in this patient were not used. When used in cases of AS, they show satisfactory results.<sup25,26</sup Therefore, it was decided to treat him with rituximab only without adding any second immunomodulatory. Other possible therapeutic options include cyclophosphamide and mycophenolate mofetil, but they were not used because of their low efficacy-safety balance. Moreover, plasmapheresis was not available in our specific setting, despite solid evidence that early treatment with therapeutic strategy (5-7 courses) provides good long-term outcomes in patients with NMOSD.<sup27</sup Therefore, when dealing with a case of acute non-compressive myelopathy, history and clinical examination are important to determine the potential underlying etiology and identify an undermined systemic disorder with apparently unrelated non-specific features. Connective tissue disorders should always be considered as a differential diagnosis and be ruled out in all cases of either seropositive or seronegative NMOSD. A diagnosis of AS should be considered in relevant circumstances when dealing with a case of isolated seronegative LETM. Moreover, early diagnosis and treatment of AS are quintessential to prevent lifelong distressing disabilities. However, whether patients with AS have any extra predilection to develop NMOSD throughout their life requires further studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0624_481", "title": "[Implication of late diagnosis for survival of patients with colorectal carcinoma].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Colorectal cancer (CRC) is one of the most frequent diseases and early diagnosis has a potential role to improve survival. The aim of this study was to analyze influence of delay in diagnosis on survival in patiens with colorectal cancer. A total of 119 patients with pathohystological diagnosis of CRC were included in the study. They were operated at our Department for Surgery from 2000 to 2002. They were divided into two groups according to the duration of symptoms: early operated patients - EOP (symptoms were presented for 3 months) and late operated patients - LOP (duration of symptoms was more than 3 months). Follow-up period was 5 year. Weight loss, intermittent abdominal pain and anorexia were more frequent in LOP (p &lt; 0.01). Young age, blood in stool, and tumor localized in rectum were dominant characteristics in EOP (p &lt; 0.05). Overall delay in diagnosis was 2.19 +/- 0.79 months in EOP and 11.37 +/- 5.68 months in LOP. There was highly statistically significant difference between these two groups (p &lt; 0.01). Overall survival was 44.75%. Five years survival was 65.9% in the group of EOP and 26.5% in the group of LOP (chi2 = 28.16, p &lt; 0.01) Weight loss was dominant characteristics in the patients who did not survive five years (chi2 = 14.26, p &lt; 0.01). A period of 2 months in delay in diagnosis is \"cut-off' value in prediction of death (sensitivity of 75.5% and specificity of 90.3%). A delay in diagnosis and stage of the disease are highly significant factors of patients with CRC survival. In everyday medical practice higher importance should be put on weight loss, intermittent abdominal pain, change in bowel habits, as well as on syderopenic anaemia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en101_9146", "title": "Sarcocystis", "score": 0.009627188731666344, "content": "Pathology The pathology is of two types: a rare invasive form with vasculitis and myositis and an intestinal form that presents with nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. While normally mild and lasting under 48 hours, the intestinal form may occasionally be severe or even life-threatening. The invasive form may involve a wide variety of tissues including lymph nodes, muscles, and the larynx. Clinical features In volunteer studies with infected beef, symptoms appeared 3–6 hours after eating. These included anorexia, nausea, abdominal pain, distension, diarrhea, vomiting, dyspnea, and tachycardia. All symptoms were transient and lasted about 36 hours. In a second series, symptoms—abdominal pain, distension, watery diarrhea, and eosinophilia—appeared at 1 week and resolved after 3 weeks." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_63435", "title": "Spondylolisthesis", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In adults with non-specific low back pain, strong evidence suggests medical imaging should not be done within the first six weeks. It is also suggested to avoid advanced imaging, such as CT or MRI, for adults without neurological symptoms or \"red flags\" in the patient's history. General recommendations for initial low back pain treatment is remaining active, avoiding twisting and bending, avoiding activities that worsen pain, avoiding bed rest, and possibly initiating a trial of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs after consulting a physician. Children and adolescents with persistent low back pain may require earlier imaging and should be seen by physician. Once imaging is deemed necessary, a combination of plain radiography, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging may be used. Images are most often taken of the lumbar spine due to spondylolisthesis most commonly involving the lumbar region. Images of the thoracic spine can be taken if a patient's history and physical" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0523_13294", "title": "[Circumstances of the diagnosis and clinical course of inflammatory bowel disease].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease is sometimes difficult. The cardinal symptom of ulcerative colitis is bloody diarrhoea. The clinical characteristics of Crohn's disease are more heterogeneous, but typically include abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant, diarrhoea, weight loss and/or perianal disease. Extra intestinal (joint, cutaneaous and eye) manifestations can precede digestive symptoms and lead to the diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease. The clinical course of these two diseases is unpredictable. The risk of colorectal cancer is significantly increased 8 years after diagnosis of pancolitis. Thus, regular surveillance by colonoscopy with random biopsies is recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_6406", "title": "List of dog diseases", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is the inability to properly digest food due to a lack of digestive enzymes made by the pancreas. This disease is found frequently in dogs. Pancreatitis*, or inflammation of the pancreas, is common in dogs. It is most commonly seen in middle-aged and older overweight dogs. Miniature Schnauzers are predisposed. Contributing factors include diabetes, hyperlipidemia, obesity, and dietary indiscretion. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, lethargy, and anorexia. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)* is a group of diseases in dogs that are idiopathic and characterized by the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrates in the stomach and/or intestinal walls. It is a common condition. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, and weight loss. Treatment is with dietary modification and use of medications such as corticosteroids, metronidazole, sulfasalazine, and azathioprine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_19925", "title": "[Chronic diarrhea with uncommon etiology].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Chronic diarrhea is a common syndrome. An etiological diagnosis is often reached through clinical history, physical examination and simple tests. In some cases, when the etiology is not found, the syndrome is called functional diarrhea, even though established criteria are often not fulfilled. We present the case of a patient with diarrhea for several months. The most common causes were ruled out through clinical history, physical examination, radiographic studies and laboratory tests, and the patient was diagnosed with functional diarrhea. Three months later, the patient presented a neck mass, and biopsy revealed medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. A review of recommendations for the systematic evaluation of chronic diarrhea is presented. A general approach should include careful history taking characteristics of diarrhea (onset, associated symptoms, epidemiological factors, iatrogenic causes such as laxative ingestion), a thorough physical examination with special attention to the anorectal region, and routine laboratory tests (complete blood count and serum chemistry). In addition, stool analysis including electrolytes (fecal osmotic gap), leukocytes, fecal occult blood, excess stool fat and laxative screening can yield important objective information to classify the diarrhea as: osmotic (osmotic gaps &gt; 125 mOsm/Kg), secretory (osmotic gaps &lt; 50 mOsm/Kg), inflammatory or steatorrheic. At this point in the evaluation, a specific diagnosis may be made. However, if diagnosis is not reached further specific examinations should be performed for each of the 4 types of diarrhea described above. A systematic approach to the evaluation of chronic diarrhea is warranted. Medullary thyroid carcinoma and other endocrine syndromes causing chronic diarrhea are very rare. Measurement of serum peptide concentrations should only be performed when clinical presentation and findings in stool or radiographic studies suggest this etiology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0767_24044", "title": "Severe early-onset colitis revealing mevalonate kinase deficiency.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Hyperimmunoglobulinemia D is the less severe form of mevalonate kinase deficiency (MKD) caused by recessive inherited mutation in the mevalonate kinase gene. Hyperimmunoglobulinemia D is characterized by febrile attacks, often associated with transient digestive manifestations, such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Here we report for the first time 2 patients with MKD revealed by severe neonatal colitis. Both patients had chronic bloody diarrhea and failure to thrive; 1 patient since the age of 1 month and the other since the age of 12 days. Total parenteral nutrition was required. A marked elevation of acute phase reactants was present, and no evidence of infection was found. In patient 1, ileocolonoscopy revealed ulcerative colitis at the age of 5 months. Patient 2 suffered from enterocolitis and shock, associated with multiple bowel adhesions at age 5 weeks; the rectosigmoidoscopy showed aphtoid lesions of the sigmoid colon. Pathologic findings of colonic biopsies revealed a dense polymorph inflammatory infiltrate associated with deep ulcerations. Febrile attacks occurred 2 months after the onset of digestive symptoms in patient 1, and at onset of disease in patient 2. Genomic sequencing of the mevalonate kinase gene revealed compound heterozygous mutations in both patients. Anti-interleukin-1 agent produced long-term remission of all digestive features and laboratory parameters. This report emphasizes that MKD may be the cause of severe early-onset inflammatory colitis, and must be considered by physicians, even in the absence of fever, after ruling out infections. Anti-interleukin-1 therapy may result in a dramatic improvement of MKD-related inflammatory bowel disease. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0058_7537", "title": "Chronic diarrhea with normal stool and colonic examinations: organic or functional?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To investigate whether the clinical history and basic laboratory test results can differentiate between an organic or functional cause of chronic diarrhea and thus avoid unnecessary hospital admissions and invasive procedures, we reviewed the charts of 58 adult patients admitted during 6 years because of chronic diarrhea who had normal stool and colonic examinations. The final diagnoses were irritable bowel syndrome in 34 patients, organic diarrhea in 21, and unknown cause in three. The following clinical data did not help in the differential diagnosis: age, sex, duration of diarrhea, presence of continuous diarrhea, abdominal pain, stool frequency or volume, and presence of stool mucus. Significant weight loss, nocturnal diarrhea, and the absence of tenesmus were associated with an organic cause. One or more laboratory alterations (increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, anemia, hypokalemia, and low serum albumin level) were found in 62% of patients with organic diarrhea but in only 3% of those with functional disease; p less than 0.001. In 20 of 21 patients with organic diarrhea, an syndromic diagnosis (fat malabsorption, n = 13; inflammatory bowel disease, n = 4; and secretory diarrhea, n = 3) could be obtained with three simple tests (stool fat, rectal biopsy, and fecal water osmolality and electrolyte determination, respectively). Our study confirms that a detailed history and a few simple laboratory data can help to distinguish between functional and organic diarrhea and so avoid extensive investigation. The syndromic diagnosis of organic diarrhea can also be approximated with relatively easy tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_14019", "title": "Gastroenteritis", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Differential diagnosis Other potential causes of signs and symptoms that mimic those seen in gastroenteritis that need to be ruled out include appendicitis, volvulus, inflammatory bowel disease, urinary tract infections, and diabetes mellitus. Pancreatic insufficiency, short bowel syndrome, Whipple's disease, coeliac disease, and laxative abuse should also be considered. The differential diagnosis can be complicated somewhat if the person exhibits only vomiting or diarrhea (rather than both). Appendicitis may present with vomiting, abdominal pain, and a small amount of diarrhea in up to 33% of cases. This is in contrast to the large amount of diarrhea that is typical of gastroenteritis. Infections of the lungs or urinary tract in children may also cause vomiting or diarrhea. Classical diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, but without diarrhea. One study found that 17% of children with DKA were initially diagnosed as having gastroenteritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0120_13676", "title": "[Early clinical diagnosis of stomach and large intestine cancer].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Gastric and colonic cancer, which affect alarmingly also younger age groups to a growing extent, are developing into a serious problem of public health. Not recognized in time, the survival probability is low. The 5-year survival time is 10% with a manifest gastric carcinoma, with colonic cancer it is 30%. If these neoplasias are recognized in a stage in which they correspond to the criteria of an early carcinoma, the chance of recovery will be 90% for the patients. The early gastric carcinoma does not occur without any symptoms, but in more than 80% of the cases it causes differently intensely pronounced symptoms in the epigastric region, with pain, dyspepsia, haemorrhage and loss of weight prevailing. Therefore, epigastric, complaint for more than 4 weeks should give reason for a thorough gastroenterological examination, with endoscopy being superior to radiological examination, even when using advanced methods of examination. Special control is needed for patients of the various risk groups. Patients with a morbus Ménétrie, a pernicious anaemia and a chronic-atrophic gastritis with intestinal metaplasia of the colonic type are exposed to a particularly high risk of carcinoma. Of a special practical importance is the circumstance that a peptic ulcus of the stomach may develop in an already carcinomatously changed mucosa and thus the carcinoma continues growing below a healed peptic lesion. Thus, a gastric ulcer requires a regular and short-term endoscopic control until its final macroscopic and histological healing. The malignant diseases of stomach and large intestine show an inverse behaviour over the past 20 years. The colonic carcinoma develops from an adenoma in 90% of the cases. In most of the cases, this development from the precursors is without any symptoms. Symptoms such as blood in the stools, abdominal pain, change in the action of the bowels, loss of weight, decrease in power and the like indicate already an advanced carcinoma. Among the laboratory tests, only the examination of the faeces for concealed haemorrhage is of some importance as a diagnostic test. The CEA test in not suitable therefore. As also larger adenomas bleed intermittently, there is the chance of recognizing also these prestages of carcinomas by regular examinations of the faeces. In contrast to the simple barium enema, the radiological examination in double contrast reveals changes of the mucosa of the colon up to a size of 1 cm in more than 80% of the cases. Coloscopy, however, is superior to X-ray examination, regarding both expressiveness and efficiency.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en119_13379", "title": "Spinal disc herniation", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Indicated Education on proper body mechanics Physical therapy to address mechanical factors, and may include modalities to temporarily relieve pain (i.e. traction, electrical stimulation, massage) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Weight control Spinal manipulation. Moderate quality evidence suggests that spinal manipulation is more effective than placebo for the treatment of acute (less than 3 months duration) lumbar disc herniation and acute sciatica. The same study also found \"low to very low\" evidence for its usefulness in treating chronic lumbar symptoms (more than 3 months) and \"the quality of evidence for ... cervical spine-related extremity symptoms of any duration is low or very low\". A 2006 review of published research states that spinal manipulation \"is likely to be safe when used by appropriately-trained practitioners\", and research currently suggests that spinal manipulation is safe for the treatment of disc-related pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_10875", "title": "[Polyneuropathy, diarrhea].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 44-year-old patient with 24 kg reduction of body weight within three years due to recurrent diarrhea was admitted to the hospital. Physical findings of the patient were not remarkable, except for hypesthesia and hypalgesia of the front of the tibia and of the lower legs. Laboratory as well as endoscopic and functional examinations of the gastrointestinal tract did not reveal any remarkable finding. Infectious origins of the disease were excluded. A histological examination of a rectum specimen yielded amyloid deposits in the submucosa of the rectum. In the family history of the patient, relatives with liver and gastrointestinal diseases due to amyloidosis were detected. Amyloid deposits and the positive family history of the patient led to the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal manifestation of familial amyloidosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_53095", "title": "Dysmenorrhea", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Dysmenorrhea, also known as painful periods or menstrual cramps, is pain during menstruation. Its usual onset occurs around the time that menstruation begins. Symptoms typically last less than three days. The pain is usually in the pelvis or lower abdomen. Other symptoms may include back pain, diarrhea or nausea. Dysmenorrhea can occur without an underlying problem. Underlying issues that can cause dysmenorrhea include uterine fibroids, adenomyosis, and most commonly, endometriosis. It is more common among those with heavy periods, irregular periods, those whose periods started before twelve years of age and those who have a low body weight. A pelvic exam and ultrasound in individuals who are sexually active may be useful for diagnosis. Conditions that should be ruled out include ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, interstitial cystitis and chronic pelvic pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0065_4192", "title": "Giardiasis--a simple diagnosis that is often delayed.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In a retrospective study performed on 125 patients with histologically diagnosed giardiasis, it is shown that this disease can lead to a variegated picture involving numerous gastroenterological symptoms. The main symptoms noted were epigastralgia (41%), diarrhoea (32%), nausea and vomiting (23%), and loss of weight (20%). The material for histological diagnosis was obtained in hospitals in 49% of the cases, in the doctor's office in 32%, and in two gastroenterological rehabilitation centres in 19%. The average duration of symptoms before establishment of the diagnosis was 2.01 years (range: 1 week to 30 years). In only 8% of the cases was the disease preceded by a visit to an endemic area. Treatment with nitroamidazole preparations completely relieved symptoms in 78% of the patients and remained unsuccessful in 4%; for the remaining 18% of the patients, no follow-up data were available. On the basis of these results, it is recommended that in patients with upper abdominal pain, diarrhoea, loss of weight, meteorism, flatulence, nausea and vomiting, the possibility of giardiasis should be considered, and that during endoscopy, two or three forceps biopsies should be obtained from macroscopically normally-appearing mucosa of the descending part of the duodenum to enable a histological search for Giardia lamblia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_13383", "title": "Lumbar Spondylodiscitis Mimicking Cholecystitis: A Case Report and Review of Literature.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Lower back pain is a frequent cause of emergency department visits and one of the leading causes of the disease burden worldwide. The purpose of this case report and literature review was to discuss atypical abdominal entities mimicking spinal diseases typically presenting with lower back pain. A 79-year-old man presented with lower back pain and urinary incontinence after receiving a non-image-guided lumbar infiltration treatment 4 weeks prior to admission. The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) highlighted multisegmental hyperintensities in the intervertebral disk spaces of the lumbar spine indicative for spondylodiscitis. Antibiotic treatment over a week did not lead to significant clinical improvement. Blood cultures, cardiologic, otorhinolaryngologic, and dental examinations turned out negative for a focus of infection. A computed tomography (CT) guided biopsy was indicated after discontinuation of antibiotic treatment for less than 24 hours. Rapid clinical deterioration with concomitant onset of abdominal pain resulted in the diagnosis of cholecystitis, which required cholecystectomy. We performed a systematic literature review using the Pubmed database for the keywords \"spondylodiscitis,\" \"spine,\" \"abdominal,\" and \"cholecystitis,\" to identify abdominal diseases that mimic spine pathologies and spinal diseases that mimic abdominal pathologies. No other report in English literature of cholecystitis associated with initial onset of lower back pain was identified. Eighteen reports referred to abdominal conditions that mimic spinal diseases, among them a patient with cyclic lumbar back pain who received a lumbar spinal fusion who, after persisting symptoms led to further diagnostic procedures, was ultimately diagnosed with endometriosis. Spinal symptoms included paraplegia and urinary incontinence as results of acute aortic pathologies. Eleven reports presented spinal pain mimicking abdominal conditions including abdominal pain and diarrhea as well as have had surgical procedures such as an appendectomy before the spinal condition was discovered. Clinical symptoms of the spine such as lower back pain can be unspecific and lead to false conclusions in the presence of concomitant pathologies in MRI. Only clinical deterioration in our case patient prompted correction of the diagnosis on day 7. Initial workup for alternative common infectious foci such as lung and urinary tract was performed, but further abdominal workup despite the absence of abdominal symptoms may have led to an earlier diagnosis. Our literature review found several cases of misdiagnosed spinal and abdominal conditions. Some had undergone unnecessary surgical procedures before the right diagnosis was made. Because of the high incidence of symptoms such as lumbar back pain and abdominal pain, considering optimal patient care as well as economic aspects, it would be essential to conduct an interdisciplinary clinical management to avoid errors in the early stage of diagnostics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_12984", "title": "[X-ray of small bowel with a probe--indications and diagnostic yield in a 10-year material].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We wanted to evaluate the indications for ordering small bowel enema, and whether specific clinical symptoms and signs are associated with the diagnostic yield. Medical charts and requisition slips for 241 patients examined with small bowel enema at Harstad Hospital from 1986 to 1995 were reviewed. The most common symptom leading to small bowel radiography was pain, registered in almost three fourths of the patients; about one half reported diarrhoea. Elevated sedimentation rate and occult blood in the faeces were reported in one fourth of the patients. For a large proportion of the patients, there was no information about adequate preliminary tests in the medical charts. Normal radiography was reported in three fourths of the patients. Lesions consistent with Crohn's disease were found in one of eight patients. No symptoms or signs, except for elevated sedimentation rate, clearly indicate a positive diagnostic finding. Many requisition slips did not contain available information. Small bowel radiography is performed on wide indications. It is difficult to make a careful selection of patients based on reported symptoms and signs. However, some preliminary tests are helpful and should be done." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0827_6331", "title": "Should routine MRI of the lumbar spine be required prior to lumbar epidural steroid injection for sciatica pain?", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We describe three patients who received lumbar epidural steroid injections (LESI) for lumbosacral radicular pain that resulted in worsening of their symptoms. The procedures were performed following a review of remote diagnostic imaging studies. These cases demonstrate the lack of consensus in pain management domains for how to approach the workup and treatment of persistent/chronic low back pain, with a noted fragmentation in pain management strategies and applied therapies. We present three patients; two female patients (37 and 38 years old) undergoing LESI for remotely diagnosed disc herniations, and one 61-year-old male receiving an LESI for a presumed, unverified lumbar intervertebral disc disorder. Following a worsening of symptoms after LESI, neurosurgical consultations ultimately determined the presence of, respectively, an epidural hematoma, a neurilemoma, and a lung cancer metastasis to the sacrum as the source of symptoms, instead of being due to the intervertebral disc pathology. We would like to emphasize several principles in the diagnosis and use of imaging of the lumbosacral region prior to undertaking invasive neuraxial procedures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0254_9902", "title": "[What is the value of clinical symptoms in the diagnosis of nonspecific inflammatory bowel disease?].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Due to controversial evaluation of the contribution of clinical signs for the diagnosing of non-specific inflammatory bowel disease, as well as due to the lack of similar data, we tried to find our own answer to the question as to whether the clinical signs of ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (MC) are helpful, unhelpful, or even confusing for the diagnosis. A group of patients with MC and UC was analyzed from this aspect. Individuals in their twenties and thirties prevailed in the sample, mostly intellectual workers, the number of males and females was equal. Our attempt to analyze all the available diagnostic methods originated in an observation that a long period of health problems precedes the diagnosis of MC, namely 1.5 y in males and as long as 4 y in females. Other striking information was that surgery represented the initial treatment in 66% of cases and the correct diagnosis was made peroperatively only in 56% of cases. We compared our results with those of the OMGE study, one of the largest projects which evaluated positively the contribution of clinical signs to the diagnosing of MC and UC. We found that the main signs of CU have not changed in the last century, and some additional signs occur rather due to complications than due to the disease per se. Frequency of pain increased by 25% in our patients, and approximately 1/3 of it represented intermittent pain caused by tenesms. Pain in MC must be properly analyzed in order to discriminate acute appendicitis. Other indicators did not differ from the OMGE study. In accordance with its results, we confirmed the importance of correct evaluation of clinical signs for the diagnosis and differential diagnosis of UC and MC. The number of diagnostic methods still increases. Their validity must be continuously re-evaluated, however the clinical examination in the dynamic process stays to be of crucial value." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1011_15606", "title": "Six-year-old boy with a slow-onset persistent back pain.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 6-year-old boy was evaluated for a 6-week history of low back pain. Initially, the pain was exacerbated by movements, eventually showing a milder and fluctuating trend. History was unremarkable for previous traumatic events, fever or nocturnal pain. Physical examination revealed localised pain at palpation of the spinous processes at the lumbosacral level. Blood tests showed a normal blood count, negative C reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, normal lactic acid dehydrogenase (LDH) and creatine phosphokinase. A posterior-anterior radiograph of the lumbar spine resulted normal. An MRI scan revealed a lumbosacral transitional vertebra with bone oedema of the posterior arch until the spinous process. For better bone definition, a CT scan was performed ( figure 1 ). edpract;106/5/286/F1F1F1Figure 1 CT scan of the transitional lumbosacral (L5) vertebra. QUESTIONS: Which causes of persistent low back pain should be ruled out in children under 10 years of age? OsteochondrosisNeoplasmFunctional painInfectionsWhat is the diagnosis in this patient?How is the diagnosis performed?How is this condition managed? <i<bAnswers can be found on page 2.</b</i" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0605_3631", "title": "Efficient diagnosis of suspected functional bowel disorders.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Functional bowel disorders (FBDs) are common disorders that are characterized by various combinations of abdominal pain and/or discomfort, bloating and changes in bowel habits. At present, diagnosing FBDs often incurs considerable health-care costs, partly because unnecessary investigations are performed. Patients are currently diagnosed as having an FBD on the basis of a combination of typical symptoms, normal physical examination and the absence of alarm features indicative of an organic gastrointestinal disease. Basic laboratory investigations, such as a complete blood count, measurement of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate and serological tests for celiac disease, are useful in the initial evaluation. No further investigations are needed for most patients who have typical symptoms and no alarm symptoms. The most important alarm symptoms include signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, symptom onset above 50 years of age, a family history of colorectal cancer, documented weight loss and nocturnal symptoms. The presence of alarm symptoms obviously does not exclude an FBD, but further investigation is needed before confirmation of the diagnosis. For patients with predominant and severe diarrhea, a more thorough diagnostic work-up should normally be considered, including colonoscopy with colonic biopsies and a test for bile-acid malabsorption." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_55946", "title": "Whipple's disease", "score": 0.008893692873667841, "content": "Diagnosis Common clinical signs and symptoms of Whipple's disease include diarrhea, steatorrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, migratory arthropathy, fever, and neurological symptoms. Weight loss and diarrhea are the most common symptoms that lead to identification of the process, but may be preceded by chronic, unexplained, relapsing episodes of nondestructive seronegative arthritis, often of large joints. Endoscopy of the duodenum and jejunum can reveal pale yellow shaggy mucosa with erythematous eroded patches in patients with classic intestinal Whipple's disease, and small bowel X-rays may show some thickened folds. Other pathological findings may include enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes, hypercellularity of lamina propria with \"foamy macrophages\", and a concurrent decreased number of lymphocytes and plasma cells, per high power field view of the biopsy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en601_24575", "title": "Checkpoint inhibitor induced colitis", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Checkpoint inhibitor induced colitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the colon (colitis), which is caused by cancer immunotherapy (checkpoint inhibitor therapy). Symptoms typically consist of diarrhea, abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. Less commonly, nausea and vomiting may occur, which may suggest the present of gastroenteritis. The severity of diarrhea and colitis are graded based on the frequency of bowel movements and symptoms of colitis, respectively. The gold standard for the diagnosis of checkpoint inhibitor induced colitis is colonoscopy with evaluation of the terminal ileum. However, in most cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is sufficient. Infection should be ruled out with stool studies, including Clostridioides difficile, bacterial culture, ova and parasites. Symptoms of upper abdominal pain, nausea or vomiting warrant evaluation with upper endoscopy." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23036", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Because IBS is a disorder for which no pathognomonic abnormalities have been identified, its diagnosis relies on recognition of positive clinical features and elimination of other organic diseases. Symptom-based criteria have been developed for the purpose of differentiating patients with IBS from those with organic diseases. These include the Manning, Rome I, Rome II, and Rome III criteria (Table 352-1). The diagnostic values of these criteria are shown in Table 352-3. In a validation study, Rome III performed less well than either the Rome I and II criteria and all criteria studied to date showed positive predictive values of <50%, which underscores the need for developing diagnostic strategies for IBS that are more cost-effective than the current approaches. A careful history and physical examination are frequently helpful in establishing the diagnosis. Clinical features suggestive of IBS include the following: recurrence of lower abdominal pain with altered bowel habits over a" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_52213", "title": "Lower gastrointestinal bleeding", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The history in these patients should focus on factors that could be associated with potential causes: blood coating the stool suggests hemorrhoidal bleeding while blood mixed in the stool implies a more proximal source; bloody diarrhea and tenesmus is associated with inflammatory bowel disease while bloody diarrhea with fever and abdominal pain especially with recent travel history suggests infectious colitis; pain with defecation occurs with hemorrhoids and anal fissure; change in stool caliber and weight loss is concerning for colon cancer; abdominal pain can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, infectious colitis, or ischemic colitis; painless bleeding is characteristic of diverticular bleeding, arteriovenous malformation (AVM), and radiation proctitis; nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use is a risk factor for diverticular bleeding and NSAID-induced colonic ulcer; and recent colonoscopy with polypectomy suggests postpolypectomy bleeding. Patients should be" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_22952", "title": "Crohn's disease in the elderly: a comparison with young adults.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "We compare the clinicopathological features of 98 Crohn's disease (CD) patients with initial symptoms at 40 years of age or older (elderly; male n = 56, female n = 42) with those of 347 CD patients with onset of symptoms between the age of 16 and 40 years (young adults; male n = 166, female n = 181). The frequency of presenting symptoms, such as diarrhea, rectal blood loss, and weight loss were comparable in both groups, except for abdominal pain/cramps, which occurred somewhat less frequently in the elderly (59% vs. 71%, p &lt; 0.05). The mean lag time between onset of symptoms and first visit to a general practitioner (GP) was considerably shorter in the elderly than in the young adults (0.2 years vs. 0.6 years, p &lt; 0.001), as was the lag time between GP and referral to a specialist (0.6 years vs. 1.0 years, p &lt; 0.07). Overall, this resulted in a significantly (p &lt; 0.01) shorter time to establish the diagnosis in the elderly (1.8 years vs. 2.7 years). Crohn's disease as correct initial diagnosis was in the elderly less frequently observed than in the young adults (49% vs. 61%, p &lt; 0.05), in contrast to diverticulitis (7.1% vs. 0%) and malignancy (6.1% vs. 0.9%), which were more frequently encountered as incorrect preliminary diagnosis in the elderly (both p &lt; 0.005). The percentage of patients who underwent an abdominal operation was similar in both groups (83% vs. 77%), but the diagnosis CD was in the elderly more frequently established at first operation than in young adults (25% and 12%, p &lt; 0.005). The elderly were found to undergo a bowel operation or resection earlier after onset of symptoms. The development of recurrence after bowel resection, although occurring in a lower percentage of patients, was significantly shorter than in the young adults (3.7 years vs. 5.8 years, p &lt; 0.02). Arthritic extraintestinal manifestations were equally frequent in both groups, but elderly patients had significantly less relatives in the first or second degree affected by CD (3.1% vs. 12%, p &lt; 0.02). We conclude that the diagnosis Crohn's disease is more readily established in elderly patients. Moreover, these patients less frequently have abdominal pain/cramps as a presenting symptom, a shorter time interval between onset of symptoms and first resection, and subsequent recurrence of the disease. In addition, elderly CD patients have less relatives affected by the same disease. Thus, CD in the elderly appears to be characterized by a more rapid development." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en573_3535", "title": "Indolent T cell lymphoproliferative disorder of the gastrointestinal tract", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Presentation ITCLD-GT occurs more commonly in males of middle age (median age 48.4, range 15–77 years in one study). Individuals with the disease present with GI tract symptoms which often are serious and/or debilitating and may mimic those occurring in malignant lymphoproliferative, inflammatory, or autoimmune bowel diseases. These symptoms include chronic epigastric pain, abdominal pain, heartburn, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, weight loss, relapsing oral ulcers, relapsing colorectal ulcers, rectal bleeding, and/or night sweats. Several patients presenting with these symptoms have been diagnosed with and unsuccessfully treated for peripheral T-cell lymphoma, an inflammatory bowel disease (either Crohn disease or ulcerative colitis), or the autoimmune GI tract disorder, celiac disease. It has been shown or appears very likely that these patients had ITCLD-GT rather than the cited diagnoses." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 207 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 34 ] ], "text": "There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 207 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 34 ] ], "text": "There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 134, 207 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 34 ] ], "text": "There is no data in the statement to suggest any of the other etiologies." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 133 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "The pain is of mechanical characteristics, and the most frequent cause of mechanical back pain in adolescents is mechanical overload." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Scheuermann's disease.", "2": "Thoracic scoliosis.", "3": "Malignant tumor of the vertebral body.", "4": "It is a mechanical overload.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0319_15354", "title": "[One hundred years of orthopedics in the Netherlands. IV. Spinal abnormalities].", "score": 0.017998385794995964, "content": "In recent years there has been spectacular progress in the approach to various disorders of the spinal column. Owing to improved methods of osteosynthesis there is no longer so much need for long periods of postoperative bed rest. Of all the scolioses, idiopathic scoliosis is most common. The vast majority of these cases are not clinically significant. What is seen in the remaining cases if left untreated is a progression in the curvature during growth. Progressive idiopathic scoliosis can be effectively treated using conservative methods. Screening at school is an important part of this process. If the curvature proves progressive and skeletal growth is not complete a brace can be prescribed. Use of this strategy and form of treatment can avoid progression of the curvature and development of serious deformities. This conservative therapy has markedly reduced the need for corrective surgery. Scheuermann's disease is characterized by a fixed dorsal thoracic kyphosis. Progressive Scheuermann's kyphosis can be effectively treated using a brace. The majority of fractures of the vertebral bodies can be treated conservatively. However, serious fractures normally require surgical intervention. In the industrialised Western world, low back pain is a major health problem and the foremost cause of disability and unfitness for work. Low back pain caused by degenerative disease of the spinal column should be treated using a multidisciplinary approach. The development of advanced operative techniques and osteosynthesis methods has made it possible to treat metastases of the spine surgically. The effects of this treatment on the quality of life are encouraging." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0746_22232", "title": "Back pain during growth.", "score": 0.01793758043758044, "content": "It is wrong to believe that back pain only burdens adults: the yearly incidence during growth ranges from 10-20%, continuously increasing from childhood to adolescence. Rapid growth-related muscular dysbalance and insufficiency, poor physical condition in an increasingly sedentary adolescent community or - vice versa - high level sports activities, account for the most prevalent functional pain syndromes. In contrast to adults the correlation of radiographic findings with pain is high: the younger the patient, the higher the probability to establish a rare morphologic cause such as benign or malignant tumours, congenital malformations and infections. In children younger than 5 years old, the likelihood is more than 50%. The following red flags should lower the threshold for a quick in-depth analysis of the problem: Age of the patient &lt;5 years, acute trauma, functional limitation for daily activities, irradiating pain, loss of weight, duration &gt;4 weeks, history of tumour, exposition to tuberculosis, night pain and fever. High level sport equals a biomechanical field test which reveals the biologic individual response of the growing spine to the sports-related forces. Symptomatic or asymptomatic inhibitory or stimulatory growth disturbances like Scheuermann disease, scoliosis or fatigue fractures represent the most frequent pathomorphologies. They usually occur at the disk-growth plate compound: intraspongious disk herniation, diminuition of anterior growth with vertebral wedging and apophyseal ring fractures often occur when the biomechanical impacts exceed the mechanical resistance of the cartilaginous endplates. Spondylolysis is a benign condition which rarely becomes symptomatic and responds well to conservative measures. Associated slippage of L5 on S1 is frequent but rarely progresses. The pubertal spinal growth spurt is the main risk factor for further slippage, whereas sports activity - even at a high level - is not. Therefore, the athlete should only be precluded from training if pain persists or in case of high grade slips. Perturbance of the sagittal profile with increase of lumbar lordosis, flattening of the thoracic spine and retroflexion of the pelvis with hamstrings contractures are strong signs for a grade IV olisthesis or spondyloptosis with subsequent lumbosacral kyphosis. Idiopathic scoliosis is not related to pain unless it is a marked (thoraco-) lumbar curve or if there is an underlying spinal cord pathology. Chronic back pain is an under recognised entity characterised by its duration (&gt;3 months or recurrence within 3 months) and its social impacts such as isolation and absence from school or work. It represents an independent disease, uncoupled from any initial trigger. Multimodal therapeutic strategies are more successful than isolated, somatising orthopaedic treatment. Primary and secondary preventive active measures for the physically passive adolescents, regular sports medical check-up's for the young high level athletes, the awareness for the rare but potentially disastrous pathologies and the recognition of chronic pain syndromes are the cornerstones for successful treatment of back pain during growth." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0504_7739", "title": "Benefits of F.E.D. treatment in Scheuermann's disease.", "score": 0.017182890855457225, "content": "Scheuermann's disease or deforming vertebral osteochondritis affects about 5% of the population. These patients become permanent users of rehabilitation services due to their discomfort. In periods of acute pain patients can only receive palliative and not very effective treatment. In this study 30 patients who fulfil the criteria for diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease were treated with the F.E.D. device. By using this method, a back pressure of up to 100 kg can be applied at the apex of the kyphosis, stretching the anterior common vertebral ligament in an attempt to diminish complaint. There were 14 men and 16 women with ages ranging from 15 to 35 years old. The mean kyphotic angle was 53 degrees (range, 45-65). Patients had an average Risser of 4.75 (range, 3-5). Schöber's test disclosed a range of values from 0 to 2.5 cm (mean, 0.78). The average period of treatment was 4 months (80 sessions of treatment). SUMMARY OF RESULTS AND FINDINGS: All the 30 patients referred disappearance of thoracic back pain after treatment. This pain relief effect was permanent for the time of follow-up. Kyphotic angle decreased from a mean of 30 degrees Cobb to 45 degrees (16% correction). A home physiotherapy program was recommended to all the patients in order to maintain dorsal elasticity as measured by Schöber's test. After treatment, the mean Schöber test value was 2.92. In cases treated during the growing period, where alterations in the spine were minimal or did not show radiographic alterations, progression of the kyphotic deformity was stopped. The F.E.D. device has shown to be a promising method both for the treatment of complaints in stabilised Scheuermann's disease and control of the progression of kyphotic deformity in the growing spine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_16095", "title": "[Adult Scheuermann's disease as cause of mechanic dorsalgia].", "score": 0.016748366013071895, "content": "Scheuermann's disease (SD) or vertebral osteochondrosis is the most frequent cause of non postural kyphosis and one of more frequent cause of adolescent's dorsalgia. The criteria for the diagnosis are: more than 5 degrees of wedging of at least three adjacent vertebrae at the apex of the kyphosis; a toracic kyphosis of more than 45 of Cobb's degree; Schmorl's nodes and endplates irregularities. In addition to classic SD, there are radiological alterations that remain asymptomatic for a long time to reveal in adult age: in that case it speaks of adult Scheuermann's disease (ASD). We considered the diagnosis of patients came from April 2006 to April 2007 on Day Hospital in our Clinic. ASD was diagnosed, besides, in 10 of these patients. 7 patients had previous diagnosis such as: dorsal Spondiloarthrosis (4 subjects); Osteoporosis with vertebral fractures (3 subjects). All these diagnosis was not confirmed by us. In case of chronic dorsalgia of adult, ASD is rarely considered as differential diagnosis. Besides, the vertebral dorsalgia, even in absence of red flags as fever, asthenia,hypersedimetry, functional loss and aching spinal processes to tapping, could hide a serious scene that lead us to be careful in the differential diagnosis, because of similar radiological pictures of the MSA to other pathology as spondylodiscitis, primitive or metastasic spinal tumors, and brittleness vertebral fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0518_4218", "title": "[The particularities of the adult Scheuermann's disease: study about 45 patients].", "score": 0.01554001554001554, "content": "Our aim was to find out which factors favor the occurrence of pain in adult patients with Scheuermann's disease--a juvenile manifestation of osteochondrosis of the spine, to study the clinical and radiological signs, the role of rehabilitation and the means to avoid the recurrence of pain. Descriptive and retrospective study about 45 adults treated by rehabilitation. A data sheet listed the patient's occupation, current practice of sport, antecedents (violent sport, traumatism, pain), presence of a family form, motive of consultation, clinical and paraclinical examinations and immediate and long-term results of rehabilitation. Average age 35 years (18 to 65), male predominance (1.8:1), occupational risk factors: 16%; only 24% practiced sports currently. sports 49%, spinal column traumatism 13%, dorsal and lumbar pain during adolescence 16%. Consultation motive: abnormal posture 4% and pain 96%. According to the examination: abnormal spinal column in 80% of cases. According to radiography, our patients were divided into 49% who were carriers of growth vertebral dystrophy and 51% who were carriers of the real Scheuermann's disease. The immediate results of rehabilitation were satisfactory, 75% of the results were very good and good. Between six months and four years, 70% of the results were very satisfactory. Exercises were observed in only 11% of the cases, and stopped after two months on average. Scheuermann's disease in adults is a different entity from that of the teenager for the major manifestation is pain and not aesthetic quality. The patient's occupation is rather sedentary; sport is beneficial. The functional rehabilitation is the basic treatment and recourse to surgery or dorso-lumbar braces is rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0711_1808", "title": "Untreated Scheuermann's disease: a 37-year follow-up study.", "score": 0.015483022477283597, "content": "There are only a few follow-up studies of untreated Scheuermann's disease. The aim of this study was to investigate the relationship between vertebral changes, back pain, and disability in patients with untreated Scheuermann's disease after a 37-year follow-up. Eighty patients responded to a postal questionnaire concerning back pain and disability and 49 of them had classic Scheuermann's disease. Degree of kyphosis, lordosis, scoliosis, the number of affected vertebrae, and mean and maximum wedge angles were measured from radiographs. Back pain and disability scores were compared to a sample of the general Finnish population (n = 3,835). At follow-up, the patients were on average 59 (SD 8) years old (range 44-79 years), and the mean follow-up time was 37 (SD 7) years (26-54 years). The patients comprised more males than females (3.1:1). At follow-up, male patients were on average 3 cm taller than controls (p = 0.007). At age 20, female patients compared to controls were on average 6 kg heavier (p = 0.016) and had higher body mass index (BMI) (mean 23.9 kg/m(2) vs. 20.8 kg/m(2), p = 0.001). Scheuermann's patients had 2.5-fold [odds ratio (OR); 95% confidence interval (CI); 1.4-4.5, p = 0.003] increased risk for constant back pain compared to controls. The risk for disability because of back pain during the past 5 years (OR 2.6; 95% CI 1.4-4.7, p = 0.002), risk for back pain during the past 30 days (OR 3.7; 95% CI 1.9-7.0, p &lt; 0.001) and risk for sciatic pain (OR 2.3; 95% CI 1.3-4.3, p = 0.005) were higher compared to controls. Scheuermann's patients had higher risk for difficulties in mounting stairs (OR 5.4; 95% CI 2.8-10.3, p &lt; 0.001) and in carrying a 5 kg load for at least 100 m (OR 7.2; 95% CI 3.9-13.3, p &lt; 0.001). Scheuermann's patients had a higher risk for back pain and disabilities during activities of daily living than controls. However, the degree of thoracic kyphosis among Scheuermann's patients was not related to back pain, quality of life, or general health." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0783_2667", "title": "Scheuermann's disease: an update.", "score": 0.015309281251758879, "content": "Scheuermann's disease is a juvenile osteochondrosis of the spine. It is a disease of the growth cartilage endplate, probably due to repetitive strain on the growth cartilage weakened by a genetic background. The radiographic aspects are related to the vertebral endplate lesions and include vertebral wedging, irregularity of the vertebral endplate, and Schmorl's node (intraossous disk herniation). Disc alterations are frequent and may be secondary to dysfunction of the disc-vertebra complex. The definitions of Scheuermann's disease are varied; it can refer to the classical form of juvenile kyphosis, described by Scheuermann as well as asymptomatic radiographic abnormalities. Lumbar involvement is probably as frequent as the thoracic form and might be more painful. The first-line treatment is medical and includes rehabilitation and bracing. The earlier the start of treatment, the better the outcome, which highlights the importance of early diagnosis. Surgery is uncommon and must be limited to severe involvement after failure of conservative treatment. The natural history of Scheuermann's disease is unknown, but it might be associated with increased risk of back pain. The evolution of thoracolumbar and lumbar disease is unknown. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0041_5120", "title": "[The protrusion of thoracic intervertebral disc-thoracic spondylosis (author's transl)].", "score": 0.014188861985472156, "content": "The protrusion of cervical intervertebral discs was divided into three pathological entities by Spurling; soft disc, hard disc and spondylosis. We applied these concept to the dorsal intervertebral disc disease and treated two cases of thoracic spondylosis. Case 1. A 41-year-old male entered the hospital because of the gradual progression of weakness of both legs of two months' duration. Since ten days before admission he had not had an errection and had not been to able to walk and micturate. He also complained of paresthesia radiating down the abdomen into both legs. There were no visceral complaints. Neurological examination revealed severe weakness of both legs with bilateral impairment of deep sensations and hypalgesia up to the level of T6. Reflexes in both legs were hyperactive with sustained clonus. Plantar responses were extensor bilaterally. Though plain X-rays showed no changes, tomography revealed a calcified intervertebral spur formation at the T5-6 interspace. A myelogram showed a complete block of the contrast medium at the level of the upper part of T6. The patient underwent a complete laminectomy from T3 through T6 and extradural anterior decompression with the removal of the calcified disc at the T5-6 interspace using an air drill. Postoperatively, he demonstrated an immediate improvement in sensation and a gradual recovery in motor power. At his follow-up examination 14 months after surgery he could walk without assistance. Case 2. A 47-year-old dwarfish woman (130 cm) with a low back pain and difficulty in walking for a few years duration was admitted. A few months before admission she felt pain at her left lateral abdomen. There was weakness of both legs, greater in the left. Reflexes in her left lower extremity were hyperactive with sustained clonus. Plantar responces were flexor bilaterally. Palin X-rays showed scoliosis of thoracic spine with the top at T7 level and calcified intervertebral masses at T10-11, T11-12 and T12-L1, extending into the canal that were confirmed more clearly by tomography. Myelography by a cisternal puncture disclosed a complete block at the level of T10. The patient underwent total laminectomy of T9 through L2 and extradural anterior decompression with the removal of calcified discs. At her follow-up examination 12 months after surgery she could walk for herself with some residual neurological signs, minimal weakness in the right leg and hypesthesia up to the level of T12 in the left. We have discussed the incidental, related diagnostic and operative problems of this disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en007_12939", "title": "Scoliosis", "score": 0.013315525335923587, "content": "See also Back brace Kyphosis Lordosis Neuromechanics of idiopathic scoliosis Pott disease Scheuermann's disease Schooliosis Scoliosis Research Society References External links Early Onset Scoliosis is the abnormal, side-to-side curve of the spine in children under five years old, often including children with congenital scoliosis (present at birth, with spine abnormalities) and infantile scoliosis (birth to three years). Questions and Answers about Scoliosis in Children and Adolescents – US National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases Bones of the vertebral column Congenital disorders of musculoskeletal system Deforming dorsopathies Wikipedia medicine articles ready to translate" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_57148", "title": "Spinal fusion", "score": 0.012439061164999748, "content": "Lumbar and cervical spinal fusions are more commonly performed than thoracic fusions. Degeneration happens more frequently at these levels due to increased motion and stress. The thoracic spine is more immobile, so most fusions are performed due to trauma or deformities like scoliosis, kyphosis, and lordosis. Conditions where spinal fusion may be considered include the following: Degenerative disc disease Spinal disc herniation Discogenic pain Spinal tumor Vertebral fracture Scoliosis Kyphosis (e. g., Scheuermann's disease) Lordosis Spondylolisthesis Spondylosis Posterior rami syndrome Other degenerative spinal conditions Any condition that causes instability of the spine" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en018_57191", "title": "Australopithecus afarensis", "score": 0.012419470293486041, "content": "Australopithecines, in general, seem to have had a high incidence rate of vertebral pathologies, possibly because their vertebrae were better adapted to withstand suspension loads in climbing than compressive loads while walking upright. Lucy presents marked thoracic kyphosis (hunchback) and was diagnosed with Scheuermann's disease, probably caused by overstraining her back, which can lead to a hunched posture in modern humans due to irregular curving of the spine. Because her condition presented quite similarly to that seen in modern human patients, this would indicate a basically human range of locomotor function in walking for A. afarensis. The original straining may have occurred while climbing or swinging in the trees, though, even if correct, this does not indicate that her species was maladapted for arboreal behaviour, much like how humans are not maladapted for bipedal posture despite developing arthritis. KSD-VP-1/1 seemingly exhibits compensatory action by the neck and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en112_25549", "title": "Scheuermann's disease", "score": 0.010752688172043012, "content": "While there is no explanation for what causes Scheuermann's Disease, there are ways to treat it. For less extreme cases, manual medicine, physical therapy and/or back braces can help reverse or stop the kyphosis before it does become severe. Because the disease is often benign, and because back surgery includes many risks, surgery is usually considered a last resort for patients. In severe or extreme cases, patients may be treated through an extensive surgical procedure in an effort to prevent the disease from worsening or harming the body. In Germany, a standard treatment for both Scheuermann's disease and lumbar kyphosis is the Schroth method, a system of specialized physical therapy for scoliosis and related spinal deformities. The method has been shown to reduce pain and decrease kyphotic angle significantly during an inpatient treatment program." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_36561", "title": "Copenhagen disease", "score": 0.010539651733247075, "content": "Signs and Symptoms Clinical Studies and Case Reports 15‐Year‐Old Male A 15-year-old male presented with major thoracolumbar kyphosis with spinal stiffness. However, there was no presentation of pain, scoliosis, neurologic symptoms, or trouble with ambulating. Through a combination of MRI of the spine, radiography findings, and absence of sacroiliac joint movement, Copenhagen disease was diagnosed. In this individual, exam findings showed anterior vertebral body fusion, as well as multilevel lumbar anterior disc space obliteration and erosion. The narrowing and erosion of end plates can occur in early childhood and progress during adolescence as well. The narrowing can extend posteriorly, leading to complete vertebral fusion. In this 15-year-old male, trans-pedicle osteotomy of T12-L1 was performed in order to treat the individual. 12‐Year‐Old Female" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_24267", "title": "Kümmell' s disease: A rare spine entity in a young adult.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Over 100 years ago, Dr Hermann Kümmell described a rare clinical entity in which patients, after a trivial trauma and an asymptomatic period, developed a progressive vertebral body collapse and a painful kyphosis. We present the case of a 31years old heavy labourer, fitting Kümmell's criteria. The patient referred to us in an incapacitated state, due to persistent back pain. Radiographic examination revealed a body collapse of L1 vertebra. The patient had no previous medical record, other than a prolonged history of transient back pain episodes, related to heavy-weight lifting. Last attack was 1 year before presentation. Through course of time, he had undergone several clinical and radiological evaluations, by different orthopaedists, on different occasions, including the last episode, with no major findings. After an extensive workup, a percutaneous kyphoplasty of the affected vertebra was performed and a biopsy was obtained. The histologic examination of the specimen revealed vertebral osteonecrosis. A triggering pattern of repetitive spinal loading in hyperflexion is, for the first time, being recognized. We conclude that Kümmell's disease, although a rare condition, should be considered in any patient with refractory back pain symptoms. In such patients, vigorous follow-up turns to be of the essence." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_51794", "title": "Kyphosis", "score": 0.009853819072401654, "content": "Scheuermann's kyphosis (M42.0) is significantly worse cosmetically and can cause varying degrees of pain, and can also affect different areas of the spine (the most common being the midthoracic area). Scheuermann's kyphosis is considered a form of juvenile osteochondrosis of the spine and is more commonly called Scheuermann's disease. It is found mostly in teenagers and presents a significantly worse deformity than postural kyphosis. A patient suffering from Scheuermann's kyphosis cannot consciously correct posture. The apex of the curve, located in the thoracic vertebrae, is quite rigid. The patient may feel pain at this apex, which can be aggravated by physical activity and by long periods of standing or sitting. This can have a significantly detrimental effect on their lives, as their level of activity is curbed by their condition; they may feel isolated or uneasy amongst peers if they are children, depending on the level of deformity. Whereas in postural kyphosis, the vertebrae" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1111_12534", "title": "Pediatric cervical kyphosis in the MRI era (1984-2008) with long-term follow up: literature review.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Cervical kyphosis is rare in the pediatric population. It may be syndromic or acquired secondary to laminectomy, neoplasia, or trauma. Regardless, this should be avoided to prevent progressive spinal deformity and neurological deficit. Long-term follow-up is needed to evaluate fusion status, spine growth, potential instability, and neurological function. A retrospective review of 27 children (6 months to 16 years) with cervical kyphotic deformity was performed and limited to the MRI era until 2008, to provide a long-term follow-up after which complex instrumentation was available. There were 27 patients, 19 syndromic (average age 5.36 years), and 8 non-syndromic (average age 14 years). Syndromes encountered were spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED) 4, spondylometaphyseal dysplasia 1, unnamed collagen abnormality syndrome 1, osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) 2, Aarskog syndrome 1, Weaver syndrome 1, Larsen syndrome 1, multiple cervical level disconnection syndrome 1, Klippel-Feil 3, congenital absence of C2 pars 4. Non-syndromic cases; 2 with neurofibromatosis (NF1) and prevertebral tumors, fibromatosis 1, spontaneous kyphosis 1, and postlaminectomy 4. Factors considered were age, pathology, flexibility on cervical spine dynamic films, reduction with traction and spinal cord compression. Patients with flexible kyphosis underwent dorsal fixation. Children with non-flexible ventral compression/kyphosis had crown halo traction. Irreducible kyphosis had ventral decompression and fusion as well as dorsal fusion. Eleven of 19 syndromic children with flexible and reducible kyphosis underwent dorsal fixation alone. Four of 8 non-syndromic (2 NF1) needed ventral and dorsal approaches. The preoperative deformity (global and local Cobb angles) as well as neurological status improved. Growth during follow-up was not impaired, and we did not encounter instability or junctional kyphosis. The only complications were seen in syndromic patients. One patient with SED showed delayed cantilever bending of the ventral fusion mass requiring reoperation, and 1 other OI child had left C5 and C6 nerve root weakness after anterior C4 and C5 decompression which resolved over 1 year. One child with SED developed cervicothoracic junction scoliosis 18 years later after thoracic scoliosis surgery. Syndromic pathology presented early with neurological dysfunction and 24% had rigid kyphosis. An attempt at traction/reduction was successful as in Tables 1 and 2. The majority exhibited long-term improvement in kyphosis and function. A treatment algorithm and literature review is presented. Table 1 Motor function of the modified Japanese Orthopedic Association (JOA) score in children [24, 37] Score Upper extremity •Unable to move hands or feed oneself 0 •Can move hands; unable to eat with spoon 1 •Able to eat with spoon with difficulty 2 •Able to use spoon; clumsy with buttoning 3 •Healthy; no dysfunction 4 Lower extremity •Unable to sit or stand 0 •Unable to walk without cane or walker 1 •Walks independently on level floor but needs support on stairs 2 •Capable to walking, clumsy 3 •No dysfunction 4 Table 2 Pediatric cervical kyphosis-preoperative evaluations Case ID, year presented Age Sex Diagnosis Presentation Imaging Apex Cobb angle degree Reducibility Preop traction Syndromic #1 2003 4 years M SED Progressive quadriparesis Bladder incontinence Severe C2-4 kyphosis with cord compression C3-4 85° No No #2 2001 3 years M SED Progressive quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis. No dorsal C2. Buckled cord C2-3 25° No No Recurrent weakness after recovery 2 years later Kyphosis at fusion site C2-3 33° No No #3 1997 13 years M SED Neck pain. Hand weakness. Thoracic scoliosis C1-3 kyphosis Os odontoideum C2-3 30° Yes No #4 2006 6 years F SED Tingling in hands Bladder incontinence Deformed C2 body and odontoid C1-2 instability C2-3 27° Yes No #5 1997 4 years M SMD Quadriparesis. Previous C2-3 kyphosis with O-C3 dorsal fusion elsewhere Fixed C1-2 dislocation. C2-3 kyphosis. O-C4 fusion C2 35° Partial Yes 4 days #6 2007 13 years F Syndromic collagen abnormality Neck pain. Leg length discrepancies. T-L scoliosis. Quadriparesis Bilateral C2 and partial C3 spondylolysis C-T levoscoliosis C2-3 35° Partial Yes 4 days #7 2003 14 years F Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) Only able to use right upper extremity C3-5 kyphosis. Canal diameter 4 mm at C4 C4 25° No No #8 1989 3 years F OI - Bruck's syndrome Quadriparesis age 9 months. Had C1-C3 posterior decompression and fusion elsewhere Progressive kyphosis Worse weakness Bend in fusion C1-2 40° No No #9 1996 11 years M Aarskog syndrome Neck pain with limited neck motion Cervical myelopathy Psychomotor delay C4-5 spondylolysis C5-6 kyphosis C5 30° No Yes 3 days #10 1989 3½ years F Weaver syndrome Quadriparesis age 2 years. Elsewhere C1-C3 dorsal rib fusion and wires Fusion failure C2-3 subluxation Cord compression C2-3 3° Yes Yes 1 day #11 1986 11 years F Larsen syndrome Neck pain in extension Quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis. Deformed bodies C2-5 Os odontoideum C1-2 instability C2-3 28° Yes Yes 1 day #12 1996 5 years M Multilevel cervical disconnect syndrome Horner pupil on right Small right arm Quadriparesis C4, C5 vertebral bodies behind C5 C5 body in canal Left vertebral artery in C5 body C4-5 35° No No #13 1985 3 years F Klippel-Feil Neck pain. Weak hands Atlas assimilation C3-4 kyphosis No posterior bony arches C3, C4 C3-4 40° Yes No #14 1994 3 years F Klippel-Feil Unable to sit. Floppy. Quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis No posterior arches C2-3 and L4 C2-3 45° Yes No #15 1993 11 months F Tuberous sclerosis Spondylolysis C2 Salam seizures Quadriparesis No pars C2 C2-3 kyphosis C2-3 30° Yes No #16 1998 2 years M C2 spondylolysis Quadriparesis, arms worse than legs C2 spondylolysis C2-3 kyphosis C2-3 35° Yes No #17 1998 6 months M C2 spondylolysis Failure to thrive Apneic spells Weak in arms after endoscopy C2-3 kyphosis No C2 lamina Cord compression C3-4 on MRI C2-3 45° Yes No #18 1990 4 years F C2 spondylolysis Developmental delay Quadriparesis C2 spondylolysis C2-3 kyphosis C3 45° Yes No #19 1994 4 years F Klippel-Feil No posterior C2 Torticollis age 6 mo Quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis No posterior arch C2 Fused C3-4 bodies C2-3 45° Yes No Non-syndromic #20 1996 15 years M NF1. Ventral prevertebral plexiform neurofibroma Neck pain Weak arms Cervical myelopathy C4-5 kyphosis Cord draped over C4-5 Enhanced prevertebral tumor C4-5 60° Partial Yes 4 days #21 1996 6 years M NF1 Age 6 mo had C1-3 laminectomies elsewhere Progressive kyphosis Quadriparesis C3-5 plexiform neurofibromas C2-4 kyphosis C3-4 45° No No #22 1993 11 years M \"Fibromatosis\" Neck pain Gag ↓ Right hemiparesis C2 body and odontoid curved dorsally C2-3 kyphosis C2 40° No Yes 3 days #23 2007 13 F Mid-cervical kyphosis Neck pain Unable to move neck C3-4 kyphosis C3-4 45° Yes Halo vest elsewhere 6 weeks Repeat traction on referral #24 1998 12 years M Chiari I Syringohydromyelia Difficulty swallowing Quadriparesis Previous posterior fossa and C1-3 decompression Basilar invagination C3-4 kyphosis C3-4 50° Yes Halo traction 3 days #25 1994 16 years M Chiari I. SHM Difficult speech Quadriparesis Previous posterior fossa and C1-4 laminectomies C3-4 kyphosis Basilar invagination C3-4 55° Yes Halo traction 3 days #26 2002 11 years M Chordoma C3-5 Initial quadriparesis improved after posterior decompression then worse Dorsal and lateral tumor C3-4 C3-4 20° Yes Traction 3 days #27 2006 13 years M C4 lamina Aneurysmal bone cyst Neck and shoulder pain C4 laminectomy for tumor resection Worse 4 months later C4-5 kyphosis C3-4 40° Yes No Table 3 Pediatric cervical kyphosis-postoperative evaluations Case ID Diagnosis Treatment-operation Complication PO orthosis F/U time Fusion status Preop Cobb Postop Cobb Preop JOA Postop JOA Comments Syndromic #1 SED Crown halo traction 1. Median mandibular glossotomy. Resection C2-3 bodies with rib graft fusion 2. Dorsal O-C3 rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months Soft collar 3 months 8 years Complete anterior and posterior fusion 85° 10° 2 8 Complete neurological recovery #2 SED Crown halo traction 1. Median mandibular glossotomy. C2-4 corpectomies. C2-5 anterior rib graft fusion Recurrent weakness 2 years s later Halo vest 3 months 2 years Fused 25° 20° 4 5 T. scoliosis. Cardiac abnormalities. Walking then quadriparesis Redo ventral resection and C1-4 iliac bone graft Worsening quadriparesis Minerva brace 1 year 18 years Fused 33° 15° 3 5 Much improved in 6 months #3 SED Crown halo traction Dorsal O-C4 fusion with loop and rib graft None Miami J collar 3 months 10 years Fused 30° 13° 4 7 Works in bookstore #4 SED Crown halo traction Dorsal O-C3 fusion with loop and rib graft 4 years later developed C-T scoliosis after T. scoliosis surgery Miami J collar 3 months 14 years Fused 27° 5° 5 7 C-T scoliosis developed after thoracic scoliosis correction #5 SMD Crown halo traction Transoral C2 odontoid resection None Minerva brace 6 months 20 years No from preop status 35° 10° 1 4 In wheelchair. Works as programmer #6 Collagen abnormality Crown halo traction C2-5 ACDF C2-5 plate with C3-4 lag screws Junctional kyphosis 7 years later after scoliosis correction Miami J collar 6 weeks 12 years Fused 36° 5° 4 7 Abnormal vertebral arteries. Thoracic outlet syndrome May-Thurner syndrome #7 OI Crown halo traction C3-5 corpectomies C2-6 Orion plate with iliac crest graft None Soft collar 4 years Fused 25° 30° 1 5 Restrictive lung disease. Multiple fractures Expired #8 OI - Bruck syndrome 1. Redo C1-2 dorsal rib graft fusion No change Molded Minerva brace 4 years Fused 40° 35° 3 4 Increased weakness age 7 2. 11 years age anterior C3-7 decompression and plate C3-7 Worsening left deltoid and biceps function Molded Minerva brace 30 years Fused 52° 34° 3 5 Lives alone. Wheelchair. Computer technologist Uses hands well #9 Aarskog syndrome Crown halo traction C2-6 anterior cervical fusion with iliac crest graft None Molded Minerva brace 20 years Fused 30° 14° 4 7 Works on a farm. No myelopathy. Syndrome in family #10 Weaver syndrome Crown halo traction Redo C1-4 dorsal rib graft fusion None Miami J collar 2 years Fused 3° 10° 2 5 Neuroblastoma age 3 months. Chemotherapy Stable #11 Larsen syndrome Crown halo traction O-C5 dorsal fusion None Halo vest 6 weeks Miami J 3 months 6 years Fused 28° 10° 3 7 Doing well #12 Multilevel cervical disconnect syndrome Crown halo traction C5 corpectomy C4-6 iliac bone fusion anteriorly Dorsal C4-6 fusion None Halo vest 3 months 5 years Fused 35° 5° 3 7 Persistent Horner pupil #13 Klippel-Feil Crown halo traction C2-6 posterior rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months 19 years Fused 40° 12° 3 7 Hearing loss Genitourinary abnormalities Sprengel's deformity #14 Klippel-Feil Crown halo C2-5 dorsal rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months 35 years Fused 45° 10° 1 6 Hearing loss Genitourinary abnormalities #15 Tuberous sclerosis Spondylolysis C2 C1-4 dorsal interlaminar rib fusion None Halo vest 3 months 6 years Fused 30° 5° 1 6 Psychomotor delay #16 C2 spondylolysis C1-4 dorsal interlaminar fusion None Halo vest 3 months 4 years Fused 35° 10° 2 6 Recovered full function in one year #17 C2 spondylolysis Tracheostomy Molded cervicothoracic brace None Mold brace 4 years 6 years Formed C2 posterior arches 45° 20° 1 3 Reformed C2 at 4 years on CT Parents did not wish surgery #18 C2 spondylolysis Intraoperative traction C1-3 dorsal rib graft fusion None Neck brace 4 months 8 years Fused 45° 12° 2 5 Developed C2 posterior elements #19 Klippel-Feil Intraoperative traction O-C4 fusion with rib graft None Molded brace 6 months 1 years Fused O-C2 dorsally 45° 16° 1 4 Able to sit and use hands Non-syndromic #20 NF1 Resection of ventral tumor C3-6 C4-5 corpectomies; C4-5 iliac graft; C3-7 Orion plate None Halo vest 6 weeks 14 years Fused 60° 15° 3 7 Recovered in 6 weeks. Works on a farm #21 NF1 Intraoperative traction Resect prevertebral tumor C2-5 kyphectomies; C2-6 anterior fusion iliac crest None Halo vest 3 months 2 years Fused 45° 20° 3 5 Initial C1-3 decompression done elsewhere #22 Fibromatosis 1. Transoral C2 decompression 2. Dorsal O-C3 fusion with loop None Brace 3 months 12 years Fused 40° 12° 4 6 Age 2 years had neck mass resected. Diagnosis \"fibromatosis\" #23 Mid-cervical kyphosis Traction C2-5 lateral mass fusion with screws, rods and rib grafts Worse after removal of initial traction Brace 3 months 8 years Fused 45° 15° 7 8 Doing well #24 Chiari I SHM Intraoperative traction O-C5 rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months 21 years Fused 50° 7° 2 6 Facets atrophied C2, C3 at surgery #25 Chiari I SHM Intraoperative traction O-C5 dorsal fusion with loop and rib None Miami J brace 4 months 22 years Fused 55° 10° 3 6 Facets atrophied C2-4 at surgery #26 Chordoma C3-4 1. Dorsal lateral C3-6 fusion 2. C2-5 anterior fusion with iliac bone None Miami J brace 6 months 18 years Fused 20° 12° 5 8 Weak in hands after initial surgery elsewhere #27 ABC tumor C4 Anterior C3-5 fusion with plate and bone None Miami J brace 4 weeks 12 years Fused 40° 15° 5 8 No recurrence SED spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, SMD spondylometaphyseal dysplasia, JOA Japanese Orthopedic Association, MRI magnetic resonance imaging, SHM syringohydromyelia, NF1 neurofibromatosis type 1, f/u follow up, OI osteogenesis imperfecta, CT computed tomography, JK junctional kyphosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_18090", "title": "Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Two cases are discussed to illustrate two different presentations, progressions and treatments of Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis. In one case, a 13-yr-old boy suffered from a 2-yr history of lower back pain. Radiographs demonstrated irregularity of the upper lumbar vertebral endplates, associated with Schmorl's nodes. The second case is one of a 14-yr-old boy who was seen in an orthopedic outpatient clinic. Radiographs revealed wedging of the anterior border of T6, T7, and T8 vertebrae with a thoracic spine kyphotic deformity measuring 72 degrees. The first case was treated conservatively. The patient maintained his improvement at 6 month follow-up. The second case was initially treated with a brace that the patient did not wear regularly as directed. The kyphotic deformity progressed from 72 degrees to 92 degrees. An operation was performed to reduce the kyphotic curve and prevent further progression. On review 6 yr later, the patient was well without back pain or other complications. The kyphotic curve measured 65 degrees. Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis is a common spinal deformity in the adolescent. A radiographic appearance of wedging of the anterior portion of the vertebral bodies with marked kyphotic deformity suggests the diagnosis of classical Scheuermann's disease. However, the lumbar type of Scheuermann's disease should be considered in young patient with radiographic evidence of irregular vertebral endplates, Schmorl's nodes and a decreased disc space without wedging. Nevertheless, significant progression of the curve in both the typical and atypical types of Scheuermann's disease is rare, but can occur. An algorithm is presented to facilitate decision making in the management of Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0774_13684", "title": "[Lumbar and lumbo-sacral fusion using Twinflex devices in 114 cases with minimal follow-up of 1 year].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The author presents a series of 114 cases of lumbo-sacral fusion with a minimum follow-up of 1 year and a mean of 21.7 months.Since the use of the first transpedicular screws (1963 R. Roy-Camille) spinal instrumentation has considerably eased post-operative care in lumbo-sacral fusion as well as fusion rate. Recently, instrumentation has became more and more rigid. But rigidity has it's limits. Pain as well as poor bone grafting frequently occurs eventhough surgery was performed correctly. This is why the author has developed a concept of flexible transpedicular instrumentation. The aims are: - To avoid stress-shielding of the graftsimplify implantation during surgery - Avoid excessive stress on the bone and adjacent disc - Improved short and long term acceptance of instrumentation - Avoid removal of implants. Some elements guided instrumentation design. Low profile - Ease of removal - restricted number of implants and instruments. The system developed is based on transpedicular screws with 2.5 mm rods. Stainless steel was prefered to Titanium because of it's flexibility. The mechanical results of the first prospective series of 114 cases are studied. Follow up ranges from 12 to 39 months maximum with an average of 21.7 months. 65% of the patients are female. Age ranges from 14 to 89 years old with an average of 50 years.•Pathologies are : 74 cases of discopathy with or without associated disc, 8 cases of degenerative lumbar scoliosis and 32 cases of spondylolisthesis with 13 cases of isthmus lysis and 19 cases of degenerative spondylolisthesis.During the post operative period patients stand between 24 and 48 hours. Walking is allowed with twill corset during the day for the first 3 months.•Length of fixation: In 32 cases it is a floating arthrodesis (L4-5 18 cases, others 14 cases). In 82 cases sacrum is included in the fusion (L3-S1.15 cases, L4-S1.35 cases, L5-S1 20 cases, others 12 cases).• No infections were seen. No phlebitis or pulmonary embolism.•Mechanical complications: They are analysed with an average follow up of 21.7 months and a minimum of 12 months. Screw fractures: Only one case occured at 4 months post op in a L4-5 isthmic spondylolisthesis. Fusion was still obtained within the usual 6 months. Patient went back to work on the 8 th post op month without further complication 14th month post operative. Rod fractures: Fracture of the rod is the demonstration of a pseudarthrosis when occuring between 8 to 12 months post-op. The average pseudarthrosis rate is 3.5% (4 cases). In this series we used two different size of rods. The first group consists of 65 cases with 2 mm diameter rods. The second group consists of 49 cases with 2.5 mm rods. All the pseudarthroses occured in the first group (4 cases). In the second group with an average follow up of 17.2 month no pseudarthroses occured.In 4 cases (3.5%) revision surgery was necessary. Two cases were related to pseudarthrosis and 2 cases to remove instrumentation.Fusion rate in this first prospective series is 96.5%. Rod failure in the first post operative year is the demonstration of pseudarthrosis. On the reverse non failure is a way of assessing fusion without doubt.This homogeneous series demontrates the ability of flexible fixation to obtain a high rate of fusion and a good medium term acceptibility for the patient. Instrumentation was removed only in two cases at patient request." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0910_16273", "title": "Familial lumbar Scheuermann disease with idiopathic scoliosis in China: First case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Given that Scheuermann disease rarely occurs in the lumbar region and that the co-occurrence of Scheuermann disease and idiopathic scoliosis (IS) has not been reported-the etiology of Scheuermann disease and IS is not clear. In this case report, we present familaiar lumbar Scheuermann disease with IS, in a Chinese proband, who was successfully treated with surgery. A 16-year-old boy presented at the Second XiangYa Hospital of Central South University with a chief complaint of kyphotic deformity in the lower back for 4 years and obvious lower back pain. In addition, he complained of limited lumbar activity. And The proband's family history was obtained by routine inquiring. In this Chinese family with 17 members over 3 generations. The 3 patients (proband, proband's sister and father) shared the characteristics of vertebral wedging from L1 to L3 and a kyphosis Cobb angle of 37°, 70°, or 73°, respectively. The main deformity of the proband's mother was at T7-L1 with a Cobb angle of 102° in the coronal plane at T7-L1, thoracic kyphosis of 73°, and lumbar lordosis of 62°. Scheuermann's disease. Clinical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and radiographs of those in the pedigree were recorded, and the related literature was reviewed. The proband accepted osteotomy and orthopedic surgery for treatment. After 3 months of treatment, postoperative lateral radiographs showed a significantly improved sagittal vertical axis (SVA). The other patients were continued to be seen in follow-up visits. This series of lumbar Scheuermann patients with IS in a pedigree support the genetic contribution to Scheuermann disease. Therefore, this study provides some insight into the genetic etiology of Scheuermann disease with IS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0931_18320", "title": "The True Ponte Osteotomy: By the One Who Developed It.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Technique and applications. To define the anatomy, biomechanics, indications, and surgical technique of the true Ponte osteotomy. The Ponte osteotomy, originally developed for thoracic kyphosis, was the first one to obtain posterior shortening of the thoracic spine, maintaining the anterior column load-sharing capacity. It has become a widely applied technique in various types of spine deformities and a frequent topic of presentations at meetings and in scientific articles. Several of them offer unquestionable evidence of an incorrect execution, with consequently distorted outcomes and erroneous conclusions. A clearing up became essential. Our original experience is based on a series of 240 patients with thoracic hyperkyphosis operated in the years 1969-2015, at first with a standard posterior Harrington technique and then by using the Ponte osteotomy with different instrumentations. A series of 78 of them, operated in the years 1987-1997, who had Ponte osteotomies at every level, is presented. The average preoperative kyphosis has been corrected from 80° (range 61°-102°) to 31° (range 15°-50°) by a substantial posterior shortening. A number of publications use the term Ponte osteotomy loosely for by far incomplete resections and mixing it up with Smith-Petersen's osteotomy. The true Ponte osteotomy is capable of producing marked flexibility in extension, flexion and rotation, justifying its wide use in thoracic deformities, mainly in scoliosis. An exact performance of the osteotomy with adequate bony resections, including the laminae, is an absolute condition to take full advantage of its properties. Level IV, therapeutic study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0776_15857", "title": "Spinal intramedullary arachnoid cyst: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Intramedullary arachnoid cysts are extremely rare; only 14 cases have been reported in the literature so far. We report on the case of a 31-year-old woman who presented with back pain and progressive paraparesis secondary to a dorsal intramedullary arachnoid cyst detected on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): the surgical planning and clinico-radiological outcome are discussed along with a review of the relevant literature. Case report and literature review. One patient affected by intramedullary arachnoid cyst. Magnetic resonance imaging and pathological findings from operative specimens were used to confirm the diagnosis. A 31-year-old woman presented with a 7-year history of back pain that had worsened 3 months before admission to our department; for this reason, the patient had undergone a spinal MRI revealing the presence of a 1-cm cystic intramedullary lesion at the level T11-T12, with no contrast enhancement. After 2 months, the patient presented with a worsening of clinical symptoms complaining of severe back pain radiating to the lower extremities associated with a progressive paraparesis, urinary incontinence, and abdominal pain. Referred to our department, at the time of admission the patient was bedridden because of the impossibility of maintaining a standing position. The patient underwent a T11-T12 laminectomy with fenestration of the cyst. She experienced an immediate relief of pain symptoms, and by the seventh postoperative day she was able to stand without help and walk a few meters with assistance. By the sixth postoperative month, the patient had significantly improved, having gained the ability to walk alone without assistance with complete resolution of the bladder dysfunctions, with no cyst recurrence after approximately 2 years of follow-up. Intramedullary arachnoid cysts should be considered in the differential diagnosis for intramedullary cystic lesions. A particular consideration deserves their occurrence in asymptomatic patients, who should be adequately informed on the possible natural evolution: when symptomatic, surgical therapy should be promptly offered, considering that a postoperative complete recovery is usually observed, regardless of the surgical technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1012_21844", "title": "Severe Thoracic and Spinal Bone Abnormalities in neurofibromatosis type 1.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is an autosomal dominant, multi-system, neurocutaneous disorder that predisposes to the development of benign and malignant tumors. Classical skeletal abnormalities encompass sphenoid wing dysplasia, congenital bowing of the long bones and vertebral osteopathy associated with non-dystrophic or dystrophic scoliosis found in about 10% of NF1 patients. We report a 17-year-old boy affected by NF1 with extreme severe spinal and thoracic malformations affecting bone and lung tissues, including hypoplasia of the right lung, unilateral costal agenesis and severe dystrophic scoliosis characterized by association of hemivertebra, fusion of adjacent vertebral bodies and defective pedicles. At birth, he presented an acute respiratory distress requiring invasive ventilator support. The diagnosis of NF1 was confirmed at age 5 by the identification of a de novo heterozygous mutation c.4537C &gt; T, p.Arg1513* in NF1. Trio-based Whole Exome Sequencing (WES) was performed to exclude coexistence of a second hit but no clearly other pathogenic variant has been identified. Until now, only one similar NF1 patient suffering from the same association of severe scoliosis and chest deformity leading to respiratory insufficiency was described. The severe prenatal NF1-related scoliosis could explain the lung abnormal development by absence of mechanical constraints. Severe Thoracic and Spinal Bone Abnormalities may be part of the NF1 bone phenotype and should be taken into account to allow adequate genetic counseling." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0220_14250", "title": "[Evolution-linked, stress-related damage to the spine].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "During physiological growth of the juvenile vertebral column, various stages of stability occur which are characterized by the condition of the marginal rim of the vertebral bodies. If the vertebral juvenile column is overstrained, these variations in stability result in a variety of damage to the vertebral bodies and vertebral disks. One of these lesions corresponds to Scheuermann's disease (osteochondrosis of vertebral epiphyses in juveniles). Damage of the vertebral column due to overstrain can occur only if the overstrain is applied in upright position. Since Man alone can damage his vertebral column in upright position (as a result of his evolutionary development), Scheuermann's thesis is confirmed that Scheuermann's disease is confined to Man. Spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis is also a damage caused by overstrain. Here, too, the damage can occur only if the load is exercised in upright position, with the exception of a slanted positioning of the intervertebral components." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0522_15212", "title": "Evaluation of spinal fusion using autologous anterior strut grafts and posterior instrumentation for thoracic/thoracolumbar kyphosis.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A retrospective cohort study. To evaluate anterior strut grafts in spinal fusion for thoracic/thoracolumbar kyphosis. Autologous strut grafts harvested from the fibula, iliac crest, and rib are frequently used for treating severe kyphosis and kyphoscoliosis. However, a majority of the studies have presented mixed patient populations kyphosis and/or scoliosis, treated either with anterior or anteroposterior fusion. Very few reports have presented an evaluation of autologous strut grafts for anterior fusion with posterior instrumentation for the treatment of kyphotic deformities. A total of 23 patients comprised the study. Diagnosis was granulomatous infection (9 patients), congenital (6), posttraumatic (4), neurofibromatosis (1), ankylosing spondylitis (1), Scheuermann disease (1), and plasmacytoma of the vertebral body with pathologic fracture (1). Average age at surgery was 41 years (range 6-77). Indication for surgery was pain with or without progression in 15 patients and additional progressive neurologic deficit in the other 8. Anterior strut grafts consisted of the autologous fibula (9 patients), iliac (10), fibula and ribs (2), fibula and iliac (1), and fibula, iliac, and ribs (1). The fusion areas were thoracic (11 patients), thoracolumbar (11), and cervicothoracic (1). Anterior decompression was performed in 8 patients because of the presence of neurologic symptoms caused by cord compression. Dorsal fusion was performed in all patients with third-generation systems. Average 4.2 vertebrae were fused anteriorly. Mean follow-up bracing time was 9.7 months. Average kyphosis measured 50.9 degrees before surgery and 32.5 at a mean follow-up of 4.5 years (P &lt; 0.0001). No graft breakages were noted at final follow-up. Solid fusion was achieved in all patients. No donor site complications were observed. Of the 8 patients presenting with neurologic deficits, 4 had full recovery, 3 had partial recoveries, and 1 had no improvement. Loss of postoperative correction &gt; 5 degrees was observed in 3 patients. At final follow-up, 3 patients complained of occasional pain, and 1 complained of pain when lying on the back, particularly on hard surfaces. Adequate correction was maintained throughout an average follow-up of 4.5 years, and solid fusion was obtained in all patients. Anterior strut grafts, supplemented with posterior fusion with instrumentation provide a good treatment alternative for the treatment of kyphosis deformity of the spine as a result of various etiologies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0421_2128", "title": "[Spinal deformations as a cause for the clinical signs of spinal cord neoplasm].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "An attempt was made to explain the unusual clinical manifestations at the example of an observation of a spinal-marrow tumor, which had the neurological lesion symptoms only below the upper-thoracic level. Scoliosis with a minor spinal deformation at the level of the fourth thoracic vertebra was a tumor symptom. It is suggested that the spinal scoliosis, having a mechanical impact on the spinal marrow and on its provision with blood in the minor-deformation location, was the reason of impaired sensitivity and movements, which is indicative of the spinal-marrow lesion not only in the mentioned locations but also in the total length of tumor localization. Since scoliosis can be, for some time, a single sign of the spinal-marrow lesion, the authors believe it advisable to make the magnetic-resonance therapy (MRT) in all patients with persistent scoliosis for the purpose of an early detection of a spinal-marrow neoplasm, thus, ensuring better treatment results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_1015", "title": "Tumoral calcinosis presenting as a deformity of the thoracic spine.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The authors describe a rare case of tumoral calcinosis (TC) of the thoracic spine in a 13-year-old boy with thoracic scoliosis. The patient presented with a 2-year history of back pain. He had no personal or family history of bone disease, deformity, or malignancy. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed a heterogeneously enhancing mass involving the T-7 vertebral body and the left pedicle. Computed tomography findings suggested that the mass was calcified and that this had resulted in scalloping of the vertebral body. The lesion was resected completely by using a left T-7 costotransversectomy and corpectomy. The deformity was corrected with placement of a vertebral body cage and pedicle screw fixation from T-5 to T-9. Pathological analysis of the mass demonstrated dystrophic calcification with marked hypercellularity and immunostaining consistent with TC. This represents the third reported case of vertebral TC in the pediatric population. Pediatric neurosurgeons should be familiar with lesions such as TC, which may be encountered in the elderly and in hemodialysis-dependent populations, and may not always require aggressive resection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_20978", "title": "[Myelopathies caused by dorsal spinal canal spondylotic stenosis. 3 cases and a review of the literature].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Thoracic spondylotic myelopathies are exceptional, only 29 observations could be found in the literature; we intend to describe three new cases here. The patients, two women and one man, 64, 69 and 72 years old, complained of weakness of the lower limbs, more marked on one side, which had been progressing slowly from several months to eight years. Examination revealed asymmetrical paraparesis with distal sensitivity deficits without thoracic sensory level. In the first case, the myelography remained virtually unchanged in front of T11, T12; in the second and third cases, there was slight extradural compression at T9 and T10 respectively. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (M.R.I.) performed in two patients was evocative of a thoracic disk herniation. A chest CT scan enabled us to establish correct diagnosis: in the three cases irregular hypertrophy of the posterior elements was evident at T11 and T12, T9 and T10, T10 and T11 respectively, with osteophytes originating in the articular process and deeply embedded in the spinal canal. Decompressive laminectomy associated with medial facetectomy resulted in the gradual improvement of walking in all three patients. Myelography and MRI are both useful in demonstrating the level compression, usually situated in the low thoracic spine, however only the CT allows differential diagnosis with other etiologies, especially anterior compression such as disk herniation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en343_33528", "title": "Neuromechanics of idiopathic scoliosis", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Physiology Cobb angle is a common measure to classify scoliosis. The greater the angle, the more serious is the disease but the smaller is the number of patients. One to three out of every hundred people have idiopathic scoliosis curves greater than 10° with an equal proportion of boys and girls. One to three out of every thousand people have idiopathic scoliosis curves greater than 30° with a ratio of eight girls for every one boy. Scoliosis is also classified according to the region(s) they affect. The vertebral column can be deformed at the thoracic level, at the lumbar level or at both. In the lumbar region, scoliosis induces perturbations to standing balance. The thoracic region is the location that most impacts movement strategies. Scoliosis impedes on the movement of the ribs, places the respiratory muscles at a mechanical disadvantage and displaces the various organs of the thoracic cavity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_36572", "title": "Copenhagen disease", "score": 0.009123486283878409, "content": "History Progressive non-infectious anterior vertebral fusion (PAVF), later known as Copenhagen disease, was first fully described by Knutsson in 1949 in a 14-year-old boy. The initial stages of this disease closely resemble that of Scheuermann's disease, where “there is a disturbance in the zone of growth of the vertebral bodies”, leading to a wedged-shaped deformation in the spine. However, the deformity in the vertebrae in Copenhagen's disease progresses differently than in Scheuermann's disease. In Copenhagen disease, there is a narrowing of the anterior wall of the intervertebral disc with adjacent end plate erosions. The narrowing progresses until the disc space is completely eliminated, resulting in bony ankylosis, or stiffness in the joints, and eventually fusion of the anterior vertebral body. In Scheuermann's disease, however, it is very rare for adults to develop ankylosis in their adult life." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en112_25546", "title": "Scheuermann's disease", "score": 0.009121370067014148, "content": "The seventh and tenth thoracic vertebrae are most commonly affected. It causes backache and spinal curvature. In very serious cases it may cause internal problems and spinal cord damage, but these cases are extremely rare. The curvature of the back decreases height, thus putting pressure on internal organs, wearing them out more quickly than the natural aging process; surgical procedures are almost always recommended in this case. Pain: Scheuermann’s patients had a higher risk for back pain and disabilities during activities of daily living than controls. However, the degree of thoracic kyphosis among Scheuermann’s patients was not related to back pain, quality of life, or general health." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0976_14768", "title": "The Effect of Schroth Therapy on Thoracic Kyphotic Curve and Quality of Life in Scheuermann's Patients: A Randomized Controlled Trial.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Randomized controlled single-blinded clinical trial. To evaluate the efficacy of Schroth therapy on thoracic curve angle, pain, and self-perceived body image (SPBI) of the back in Scheuermann's patients in comparison with the efficacy of classic anti-gravitation exercises. Scheuermann disease is the most common cause of hyperkyphosis of the thoracic and thoracolumbar spine during adolescence. However, very few studies evaluated the effect of exercises on the progression of kyphosis in Scheuermann patients. Schroth three-dimensional exercise therapy was found in several studies to be effective in the treatment of adolescent scoliosis, however, we found no randomized controlled trials that evaluated the efficacy of this method in Scheuermann patients. A total of 50 young adults (males and females) with Scheuermann's disease were randomly divided into either the experimental group (Schroth therapy treatment, n=25) or the control group (classic anti-gravitation exercises, n=25). Participants in both the groups were provided a course of individual treatment sessions during few weeks, with one appointment per week. They were required to perform the exercises daily throughout the study period (12 months) and fill their performance in a research log. We evaluated the thoracic Cobb angle (main outcome measure), pain, SPBI, flexion of the shoulder (supine), flexion of the shoulder (standing), kyphotic deformity measured using inclinometer, and L5 kyphosis apex line (L5-KAL) as well as administered the Scoliosis Research Society-22 Questionnaire for the participants before the treatment, after 6 months, and 1 year postoperatively. These results were then compared. In the mixed analysis of variance, the main effect of time was significant in the thoracic kyphosis (F [1]=5.72, p=0.02), and in the L5-KAL (F [1]=5.76, p=0.02). The main effect of time on the kyphotic deformity, measured using an inclinometer, did not reach the significance level; however, it showed the tendency (F [1]=2.80, p=0.07). In the group-by-time interaction, a significant difference was found in the thoracic kyphosis (F [1]=4.91, p=0.03) and in the kyphotic deformity, measured using an inclinometer (F [1]=4.05, p=0.02). Thus, the Schroth therapy group showed significantly greater improvement than the classic anti-gravitation exercises group. The present findings indicate that back exercises in general, and Schroth therapy in particular, is an effective treatment for preventing and significantly improving the thoracic Cobb angle and symptomatic representation in Scheuermann's patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_7834", "title": "[Significance of isthmic spondylolisthesis in expert assessment of occupational disease of the lumbar spine].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "In Germany, disc-related disease of the lumbar spine is eligible for workmen's compensation if caused by long-standing work requiring heavy lifting or carrying or extreme trunk-bending (BK 2108). The appraisal of causality is particularly difficult if conditions like isthmic spondylolisthesis preexist. 250 consecutive appraisals in nurses concerning the BK 2108 were analysed, 12 applicants (4.8%) had isthmic spondylolisthesis (4.6% of females and 5.9% of males). The literature about the natural history of isthmic spondylolisthesis is reviewed. A person who has isthmic spondylolisthesis is up to 25% more likely to have significant back trouble during his life than one who does not. Back pain in adults associated with spondylolisthesis is usually heralded by back pain in the late teens or early twenties. Progression of the slip is rarely seen after maturity. Due to the loss of protection by the posterior elements the disc is prone to premature degeneration which, however, does not become clinically apparent in most cases. Longstanding vocational heavy lifting or excessive stooping can negatively influence the natural history of isthmic spondylolisthesis. It can produce symptomatic disease in a person who would otherwise have remained asymptomatic, or it can cause a deterioration in those with preexisting symptoms. Criteria for the appraisal of causality are proposed. It is stressed that the course of the disease in relation to age and vocational strains has to be analysed in each individual case." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Knee and ankle arthritis.", "2": "Hematuria.", "3": "Plateletopenia.", "4": "Fecal occult blood.", "5": "Scrotal edema." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0520_9818", "title": "A patient with abdominal distension.", "score": 0.013776034370038293, "content": "A 74-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of vomiting and abdominal pain. She had been well until 24 hours before admission, when she had had her last meal. She had not eaten anything unusual. She developed pain in the left lower abdominal quadrant, and difficulties with her bowel movements. An enema was given unsuccessfully. There was progressive distension of the abdomen. The patient started to vomit gastric and later bilious contents. No history of abdominal symptoms or weight loss was reported. She currently takes oral antidiabetic agents and an angiotensin II blocker because of hypertension. On physical examination she was not in distress and was afebrile, blood pressure 130/100 mmHg, pulse rate 88 beats/min. On auscultation increased bowel sounds with rushes of high-pitched sounds were heard. Her abdomen was distended and a large tender mass filling the whole left lower quadrant without signs of peritoneal irritation was found. There were no faeces on rectal examination. The leucocyte count was 10.2 mmol/L, haemoglobin 7.2 mmol/L, C-reactive protein 36 mg/l and lactate dehydrogenase 535 U/l. Under suspicion of a mechanical bowel obstruction without signs of peritonitis, the patient was treated with a nasogastric tube, fasting and enemas on which she improved. An abdominal X-ray in bed taken on day two showed no bowel distension (figure 1). After removing the nasogastric tube on day two the nausea returned. Abdominal examination was unchanged. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan after drinking oral contrast and intravenous contrast was performed (figure 2)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0693_24623", "title": "An extremely uncommon case of parasitic infection presenting as eosinophilic ascites in a young patient.", "score": 0.013032772966547802, "content": "We report the case of a 24-year-old male patient admitted for recent ascites and splenomegaly of unknown origin. The patient was referred to our institution with complaints of diarrhea, epigastric pain, abdominal cramping and weight loss over the past three weeks. The acute onset presented with colicky abdominal pain and peritoneal effusion. History revealed reduced appetite and weight gain of 7 kg over the last one month. His past medical history and family history was negative. He had no history of alcohol abuse or viral hepatitis infection. Laboratory data revealed normal transaminases and bilirubin levels, and alkaline phosphatase and gammaglutamyltransferase were within normal range. A diagnostic laparoscopy was performed which showed free peritoneal fluid and normal abdominal viscera. Upper gastrointestinal system endoscopy performed a few days later revealed diffuse severe erythematous pangastritis and gastroduodenal gastric reflux. Duodenal biopsies showed chronic nonspecific duodenitis. Antrum and corpus biopsies showed chronic gastritis. The ascitic fluid was straw-colored and sterile with 80% eosinophils. Stool exam was negative for parasitic infection. Treatment with albendazole 400 mg twice daily for 5 days led to the disappearance of ascites and other signs and symptoms. Three months after albendazole treatment the eosinophilic cell count was normal. The final diagnosis was consistent with parasitic infection while the clinical, sonographic and histological findings suggested an eosinophilic ascites. We emphasize the importance of excluding parasitic infection in all patients with eosinophilic ascites. We chose an alternative way (albendazole treatment) to resolve this clinical picture. With our alternative way for excluding this parasitic infection, we treated the patient and then found the cause." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_75418", "title": "Henoch–Schönlein purpura", "score": 0.013016745159602303, "content": "Purpura, arthritis, and abdominal pain are known as the \"classic triad\" of Henoch–Schönlein purpura. Purpura occur in all cases, joint pains and arthritis in 80%, and abdominal pain in 62%. Some include gastrointestinal hemorrhage as a fourth criterion; this occurs in 33% of cases, sometimes, but not necessarily always, due to intussusception. The purpura typically appear on the legs and buttocks, but may also be seen on the arms, face and trunk. The abdominal pain is colicky in character, and may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, constipation or diarrhea. There may be blood or mucus in the stools. The joints involved tend to be the ankles, knees, and elbows, but arthritis in the hands and feet is possible; the arthritis is nonerosive and hence causes no permanent deformity. Forty percent have evidence of kidney involvement, mainly in the form of hematuria (blood in the urine), but only a quarter will have this in sufficient quantities to be noticeable without laboratory tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en250_32084", "title": "Amoebic liver abscess", "score": 0.011179687077039684, "content": "A amoebic liver abscess is a type of liver abscess caused by amebiasis. It is the involvement of liver tissue by trophozoites of the organism Entamoeba histolytica and of its abscess due to necrosis. Presentation Approximately 90% of patients with E histolytica are asymptomatic. The two most common manifestations of E histolytica include colitis (bloody stool with mucus, abdominal pain, and/or diarrhea), and discovery of a liver abscess on imaging. Liver abscess' commonly present as right upper quadrant abdominal pain and fever, with worsening features associated with abscess rupture. Symptoms Pain right hypochondrium referred to the right shoulder Pyrexia (100.4 F) Profuse sweating and rigors Loss of weight Earthy complexion Signs Pallor Tenderness and rigidity in right hypochondrium Palpable liver Intercostal tenderness Basal lung signs" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en571_14799", "title": "Natural killer cell enteropathy", "score": 0.010579839429081177, "content": "Most cases of NKCE and LG have been reported in middle-aged or older individuals. Patients diagnosed with NKCE (medium age 46 years) have presented with vague abdominal pain, indigestion, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, weight loss, anemia, and/or GI bleeding. Two patients complained of biliary colic (i.e. gallbladder pain) and were found to have typical lesions of NKCE in their cystic ducts. These two cases indicate that NKCE involvement is not totally limited to the alimentary canal. Three of 15 individuals diagnosed with NKCE disease reported no symptoms, their disease being found on endoscopy conducted for screening purposes. Typically, patients diagnosed with LG (medium age 58 years) have been asymptomatic at presentation with their disease being detected during GI tract examinations done for other reasons. Three of twenty patients diagnosed with LG complained of pain or discomfort in the upper abdominal region. Symptomatic individuals with either disease generally have a long" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0519_23864", "title": "Palpable purpura and a visible sock line.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 21-year-old woman came to the clinic, frightened by a painful purpuric rash on her lower extremities. The lesions appeared suddenly 3 days before, with no prior similar episodes. The pain, and some swelling that happened when she stood, had finally driven her to take some time off from her job and seek medical advice. She was diagnosed with a case of pharyngitis earlier that week; due to multiple drug allergies, she was prescribed a course of clindamycin. She had not experienced any nausea or vomiting, fever, abdominal cramping, or gross hematuria. On examination, the patient was friendly and good-humored, although she was concerned about her rash and visibly uncomfortable. She was walking with the aid of a borrowed cane, but her lesions were no longer tender to palpation. The rash consisted mainly of purpuric papules almost entirely limited to her legs, although some isolated lesions were on her back as well. The papules were concentrated around her distal lower extremities, with a clear line of lesions encircling her calves bilaterally where her knee-high socks had applied pressure for the last 2 days. Mild edema was noted, but the rest of her physical exam was normal. By dipstick, the patient had blood in her urine but no protein. What is the diagnosis? What is the treatment for this condition?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_17938", "title": "[Comparison of symptoms and clinical and laboratory findings in the first and last weeks of typhoid fever].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In this study we examined the clinical and laboratory findings of 80 in-patients. There is an important difference between sexes (p greater than 0.05). Comparison of ages showed that 7-30 age is more vulnerable than the older group. We found clinical symptoms of fever, chills, headache, abdominal pain, disturbances in bowel function, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and lassitude in the first two weeks more frequently when compared with the 3rd, 4th, 5th weeks of illness (p less than 0.001). Where physical finding of rose spots, discordant pulse rate are important in the first two weeks (p less than 0.001). Abdominal discomfort is an important symptom both in the first two and in the last three weeks (% 40.3 and % 36 respectively). Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, were found more frequently in the last three weeks. According to laboratory findings of anemia, leukopenia, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive blood and feces cultures there is no important difference between the first two and last three weeks (p greater than 0.05). Increase in polynuclear leucocytes is important for the first two weeks, and increase in lymphocytes is important in the last three weeks (p less than 0.001). Positivity of group agglutination tests is 57%, in the first two weeks and 83% in the last three weeks. This difference is found to be important." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0785_6991", "title": "An 8-month-old boy with purpuric skin lesions. Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A previously healthy 8-month-old Hispanic boy presented with a 5-day history of an erythematous, non-pruritic papular eruption on both legs. The eruption was initially diagnosed as impetigo by his primary care practitioner but progressed despite trimethoprim / sulfamethoxazole therapy, with extension to the face, trunk, and all extremities. When the patient subsequently developed a fever of 100.8° F, emesis, diarrhea, and upper respiratory symptoms, he was referred to the pediatric dermatology clinic for evaluation. Further questioning revealed a 3-day febrile illness 6 weeks prior to presentation that was treated with ceftriaxone. Review of systems failed to identify any hematuria, blood in stool, or abdominal pain, but the parents did report swelling of the extremities and face, as well as decreased oral intake. On examination, the infant was in no apparent distress, afebrile, and had mild rhinorrhea. His mucous membranes were unaffected, and no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly was noted. Cutaneous exam revealed numerous edematous erythematous to violaceous plaques on the cheeks, arms, buttocks, and legs with minimal involvement of the trunk. Several lesions on the arms had a distinct cockade (rosette or iris-like) pattern. There were no vesicles, bullae, or necrosis. Edema of the bilateral lower extremities was noted. Laboratory work up revealed a normal complete blood count (CBC), comprehensive metabolic panel, creatinine, and urinalysis. Platelets were borderline elevated at 439 TH/μL (140-440 TH/μL), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein (CRP) were minimally elevated at 22 mm (0-15 mm) and 3.1 mg/dL (0.0-0.99 mg/dL), respectively." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0552_20431", "title": "[Severity assessment of acute diarrhoea].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Clinician should recognize any life-threatening causes of diarrhoea, such as intussusceptions, surgical abdomen, and haemolytic uraemic syndrome. The following clinical features should alert: abdominal pain with tenderness, with or without guarding, pallor, jaundice, oligo-anuria, bloody diarrhoea, systemically unwell out of proportion to the level of dehydration, shock. The risk of dehydration is related to age (highest in young infants&lt;6 months), and frequency of watery stools (&gt;8/day) and vomiting (&gt;2/day before 1 year and &gt;4/day after 1 year), but these historical points have a moderate sensitivity. The severity of dehydration is rarely estimated with accuracy in terms of weight loss (third sector with full colon, absence of accurate baseline pre-dehydration weight). Combinations of examination signs perform markedly better than any individual sign in predicting dehydration (poor rate agreement, clinically unhelpful likelihood ratio). The presence of at least three signs better correlate with dehydration. Laboratory tests are not helpful. New studies are mandatory to validate severity scoring systems." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en114_9174", "title": "Brodifacoum", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In another case reported in 2013, a 48-year-old female patient reported 4 days of mild dyspnea, dry cough, bilateral popliteal fossae pain, and diffuse upper abdominal pain. She had no history of liver disease or alcohol or illicit substance abuse. Initial physical examination was remarkable only for mildly pale conjunctivae and mild abdominal tenderness and pain in the left popliteal fossa. A complete blood count and complete metabolic panel were normal. Prothrombin time (PT) was above 100 s, partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was above 200 s and international normalized ratio (INR) was reported as above 12.0. Urinalysis revealed hematuria (blood in the urine). Venous Doppler ultrasound of lower extremities demonstrated left popliteal vein thrombosis. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen demonstrated transmural hematoma, and a fecal occult blood test was positive. A full anticoagulant work-up showed critical reduction of vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X. PT and PTT" }, { "id": "article-17434_12", "title": "Amebic Colitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "On physical examination, the patient may have either localized or diffuse tenderness on palpation. Rarely, a palpable mass may be present. If undiagnosed and untreated, a patient may present with toxic megacolon, which presents as an acute dilatation of the colon. This complication carries a high mortality due to associated necrosis and perforation. Fewer than 1% of patients with amebic colitis have associated extraintestinal infection, the commonest being a liver abscess. Patients with liver abscesses may have symptoms such as fever, chills, and pain in the upper right quadrant or can be asymptomatic. Weight loss, increased white blood cell counts, or elevated liver enzyme levels may be present. Jaundice is usually absent. [13] Lung abscesses may develop due to penetration of the diaphragm by amebae from hepatic abscesses or hematogenous spread. Invasion of the lung can cause symptoms such as chest pain, dyspnea, and a productive cough. [14]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_5433", "title": "[Chronic diarrhea: clinical aspects].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A retrospective study on the syndrome of chronic diarrhea was carried out on 50 revised clinical histories. The patients were hospitalized at the E. Rebaglati M. Hospital between April 1983 and March 1988. The purpose of the study was to evaluate the signs and symptoms of the syndrome, as well as the etiological agents and the methodology used for diagnoses. The selection criteria involved patients diagnosed as suffering from \"chronic diarrhea of undetermined causes\" upon entry. Seven were excluded due to incomplete study whereas 2 were diagnosed as acute infections diarrhea. Forty one patients were definite cases of chronic diarrhea and they were divided between 2 groups: the first one or Chronic Organic Diarrhea (58.53%) and the second one or Chronic Functional Diarrhea (41.46%). Out of the 41 revised clinical histories with chronic diarrhea, the following were the foundings: (1) the syndrome affects the economically active populations mainly and the length of the disease was more than 3 weeks in all the patients; (2) anemia, fever, weight loss, nightime bowel movements and bloody stools suggest organic problems whereas psychiatric disorders, daytime bowel movements, abdominal pain, disease recurrence and absence of detectable organic pathology suggest functional problems; (3) the most common cause of chronic diarrhea is the Irritable Bowel Syndrome followed by infectious diseases, with parasitosis in the first place; and (4) bearing in mind the mainly colonic affection and the predominant infectious diseases, the methodology used for their diagnosis would bring out good results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0739_8453", "title": "A Case of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura with P369S Mutation in MEFV Gene.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is the most common vasculitis of childhood. HSP can affect multiple organs presenting with a characteristic rash in most of the patients. Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF) is an inherited inflammatory disease common in mediterranean populations. HSP is the most common vasculitis seen in children with FMF. A 16 year old boy was referred with history of abdominal pain lasting for 20 days. He was hospitalized and had appendectomy. Due to the persistence of his abdominal pain after surgery he was admitted to our hospital. His physical examination showed palpable purpuric rashes symmetrically distributed on lower extremities. Abdominal examination revealed periumbilical tenderness. Laboratory tests showed elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, Creactive protein and fibrinogen. Urinalysis revealed microscopic hematuria and severe proteinuria. The fecal occult blood testing was positive. Based on these clinic findings, the patient was diagnosed as HSP with renal, gastrointestinal tract and skin involvement. We performed DNA analysis in our patient because he had diagnosis of vasculitis with severe symptoms and found that he was carrying heterozygote P369S mutation. Our case is noteworthy as it indicates that it may be important not to overlook presence of FMF mutations in patients with a diagnosis of severe vasculitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0750_22768", "title": "Red flags of organic recurrent abdominal pain in children: study on 100 subjects.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A variety of sign, symptoms and laboratory findings are more common in children with organic abdominal pains. This study was performed to evaluate the prevalence of organic and functional abdominal pains and relation of red flags to organic pains in 100 children with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). One hundred consecutive patients with RAP were enrolled in the study. A complete interview and physical examination was made for each patient, accompanied by a series of laboratory, clinical and para-clinical examinations. The data were recorded and analyzed. Logistic regression analysis was used to model and formulize correlations between sign, symptoms, and laboratory findings with organic and functional abdominal pain. Among 100 patients (52% male, 48% female, Age: 9.29±3.17) diagnostic works up revealed organic pain for 57 patients. The most common symptoms of the patients included constipation, diarrhea, chest pain, cough, headache, vomiting, hematuria, and dysuria. Fecal incontinence, delayed puberty, organomegaly, jaundice, and family history of inflammatory bowel disease were reported in none of the patients with RAP. Fever, pain not located in periumbilical area, nocturnal pain, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, weight loss, growth disorder, and abdominal tenderness were among the red flags which revealed diagnosis of organic pain in this study. A series of red flags could increase likelihood of finding organic pain in children with RAP." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0702_16040", "title": "Henoch-Schönlein purpura in an older man presenting as rectal bleeding and IgA mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis: a case report.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Henoch-Schönlein purpura is the most common systemic vasculitis in children. Typical presentations are palpable purpura, abdominal pain, arthritis, and hematuria. This vasculitic syndrome can present as an uncommon cause of rectal bleeding in older patients. We report a case of an older man with Henoch-Schönlein purpura. He presented with rectal bleeding and acute kidney injury secondary to IgA mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis. A 75-year-old Polish man with a history of diverticulosis presented with a five-day history of rectal bleeding. He had first noticed colicky left lower abdominal pain two months previously. At that time he was treated with a 10-day course of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole for possible diverticulitis. He subsequently presented with rectal bleeding to our emergency department. Physical examination revealed generalized palpable purpuric rash and tenderness on his left lower abdomen. Laboratory testing showed a mildly elevated serum creatinine of 1.3. Computed tomography of his abdomen revealed a diffusely edematous and thickened sigmoid colon. Flexible sigmoidoscopy showed severe petechiae throughout the colon. Colonic biopsy showed small vessel acute inflammation. Skin biopsy resulted in a diagnosis of leukocytoclastic vasculitis. Due to worsening kidney function, microscopic hematuria and new onset proteinuria, he underwent a kidney biopsy which demonstrated IgA mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis. A diagnosis of Henoch-Schönlein purpura was made. Intravenous methylprednisolone was initially started and transitioned to prednisone tapering orally to complete six months of therapy. There was marked improvement of abdominal pain. Skin lesions gradually faded and gastrointestinal bleeding stopped. Acute kidney injury also improved. Henoch-Schönlein purpura, an uncommon vasculitic syndrome in older patients, can present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding, extensive skin lesions and renal involvement which responds well to systemic steroid therapy. A history of diverticulosis can mislead physicians to the diagnosis of diverticular bleeding which is more common in this age group. The clinical manifestations of the disease, including characteristic skin rash, abdominal pain, joint inflammation and renal involvement raised the suspicious of Henoch-Schönlein purpura." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_16357", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Amebic Liver Abscess Extraintestinal infection by E. histolytica most often involves the liver. Of travelers who develop an amebic liver abscess after leaving an endemic area, 95% do so within 5 months. Young patients with an amebic liver abscess are more likely than older patients to present in the acute phase with prominent symptoms of <10 days’ duration. Most patients are febrile and have right-upperquadrant pain, which may be dull or pleuritic in nature and may radiate to the shoulder. Point tenderness over the liver and right-sided pleural effusion are common. Jaundice is rare. Although the initial site of infection is the colon, fewer than one-third of patients with an amebic abscess have active diarrhea. Older patients from endemic areas are more likely to have a subacute course lasting 6 months, with weight loss and hepatomegaly. About one-third of patients with chronic pre sentations are febrile. Thus, the clinical diagnosis of an amebic liver abscess may be difficult to" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_18550", "title": "An unusual cutaneous manifestation of Crohn's disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 61-year-old man with a 12-year history of quiescent Crohn's disease on mesalamine presented to his gastroenterologist in April 2009, complaining of abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and a 25-lb weight loss over 6 weeks. He did not respond to prednisone 50 mg and 6-mercaptopurine 100 mg daily. Abdominal computed tomography findings revealed diffuse submucosal edema consistent with extensive colitis. Colonoscopy demonstrated diffuse inflammation with erythema, friability, and shallow ulcerations in the rectum and colon. Biopsies were consistent with Crohn's colitis. He was admitted for infliximab infusion for his unremitting diarrhea. Five days before admission, the patient noted mild swelling and redness of the left lower eyelid, which progressed to involve the right lower eyelid with frank pus draining from both eyes. He had no visual impairment or eye pain. Two days before admission, an ophthalmologist prescribed a steroid eyedrop with no relief. He also complained of seropurulent painful skin lesions on his face and scalp, which spread to involve his upper trunk and proximal arms. On admission to the hospital, dermatology, ophthalmology, and infectious disease consultations were obtained to rule out disseminated infection before initiation of infliximab therapy. The patient was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His oral mucosa was normal. He had prominent bilateral lower eyelid edema, erythema, and superficial erosions with hemorrhagic crusting and frank green purulent drainage from both eyes, with crusting along the lower lash line and bilateral sclera injection (Figure 1). On his scalp, face, trunk, and proximal extremities, he had 25 to 30 erythematous, 4- to 8-mm papulopustules with narrow red halos, some with central necrosis and crusting (Figure 2). Cultures from the purulent ocular drainage and pustules on the trunk and arms were all negative for bacteria, virus, and fungi. Gram stain from the eye drainage showed polymorphonuclear leukocytes without organisms. Tissue cultures were negative for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial infection. Skin biopsy taken from the central upper back demonstrated subcorneal pustules with areas of eroded epidermis and collections of neutrophils in the superficial dermis (Figure 3). Special stains were negative for organisms. He received infliximab infusion 5 mg/kg for a total dose of 420 mg over 2 hours. Within 48 hours of infusion, there was notable decrease in size of lesions, in addition to reduction of purulent drainage from both eyes. The patient was discharged home following infliximab infusion. His skin lesions resolved during a period of 2 weeks, leaving small pink atrophic scars. He received his second infusion of infliximab 2 weeks after discharge with continued improvement in his gastrointestinal symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_11741", "title": "[Diagnosis of abdominal tuberculosis in children].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To improve the recognition and diagnosis of abdominal tuberculosis (TB) in children. The data from 30 cases with abdominal TB hospitalized in Beijing Children's Hospital were analyzed retrospectively. The clinical significance of various tests was discussed respectively. Twenty of the 30 cases were misdiagnosed as having upper respiratory tract infection, gastroenteritis, indigestion, and only 6 cases were diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis while the diagnosis of abdominal TB was made in just 4 cases at initial consultation. Twenty-one cases (70%) experienced the symptoms of abdominal pain or distension, diarrhoea, or constipation. The positive abdominal signs existed in all children including doughy sensation (9 cases), tenderness (8 cases), mass (4 cases), and hepatosplenomegaly (3 cases). Extraabdominal TB was found in 24 children, the positive PPD and abnormal ultrasonic image were seen in 93% and 100% of the cases, respectively. The exploratory laparotomy and colonoscopic biopsy confirmed the diagnosis in 3 and 2 cases, respectively. Twenty-four children received systematic treatment with good results. The abdominal TB in children which is easily misdiagnosed in it's early stage usually consisted of gastrointestinal symptoms and signs. The TB beyond the abdomen can be a clue for making correct diagnosis. PPD and ventral ultrasonic examination are important for ultimate clinical diagnosis while colonoscopy, and laparotomy can provide pathological evidence." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_47017", "title": "Intussusception (medical disorder)", "score": 0.00933075933075933, "content": "Signs and symptoms Early symptoms can include periodic abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting (sometimes green in color from bile), pulling legs to the chest area, and intermittent moderate to severe cramping abdominal pain. Pain is intermittent—not because the intussusception temporarily resolves, but because the intussuscepted bowel segment transiently stops contracting. Later signs include rectal bleeding, often with \"red currant jelly\" stool (stool mixed with blood and mucus), and lethargy. Physical examination may reveal a \"sausage-shaped\" mass, felt upon palpating the abdomen. Children, or those unable to communicate symptoms verbally, may cry, draw their knees up to their chest, or experience dyspnea (difficult or painful breathing) with paroxysms of pain. In neonates it may present with bilious vomiting and blood stained stools" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_51050", "title": "Dientamoebiasis", "score": 0.009321305841924398, "content": "Dientamoebiasis is a medical condition caused by infection with Dientamoeba fragilis, a single-cell parasite that infects the lower gastrointestinal tract of humans. It is an important cause of traveler's diarrhea, chronic abdominal pain, chronic fatigue, and failure to thrive in children. Signs and symptoms The most commonly reported symptoms in conjunction with infection with D. fragilis include abdominal pain (69%) and diarrhea (61%). Diarrhea may be intermittent and may not be present in all cases. It is often chronic, lasting over two weeks. The degree of symptoms may vary from asymptomatic to severe, and can include weight loss, vomiting, fever, and involvement of other digestive organs. Symptoms may be more severe in children. Additional symptoms reported have included: Weight loss Fatigue Nausea and vomiting Fever Urticaria (skin rash) Pruritus (itchiness) Biliary infection Cause" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1025_3349", "title": "Unusual Presentation of Methicillin-Resistant <i>Staphylococcus aureus</i> Colitis Complicated with Acute Appendicitis.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Clostridium difficile colitis has been the most recognized bacterial enterocolitis for years and other bacteria such as Staphylococcus colitis has been relegated. Staphylococcus enterocolitis following antibiotics had been one of the most frequent complications in surgical patients in the 1950s and 1960s and now reappear with more resistance such as methicillin-resistant<iStaphylococcus aureus</i(MRSA) colitis which brings a new challenge. A 32-year-old Hispanic female with a history of type I diabetes mellitus presenting with altered sensorium and a 2-day history of watery, nonbloody diarrhea, intractable emesis, and diffuse crampy abdominal pain. About a month before the presentation, the patient had a soft-tissue laceration on the left foot requiring a 7-day course of cephalexin and clindamycin that healed appropriately. On physical examination, she was tachycardic with heart rate of 110 bpm and tachypneic with respiratory rate of 28, somnolent but arousable with the Glasgow Coma Scale &gt;12. The abdomen was soft, tender diffusely to palpation without rebound or guarding. On the biochemical analysis, her blood glucose was 968 mg/dL with anion gap metabolic acidosis (AG 46). In the intensive care unit, she initiated on intravenous (IV) fluids, insulin, and IV antibiotics for suspicion of colitis. Clostridium difficile testing was negative, but stool cultures grew MRSA for which she was started on vancomycin and TMP-SMX. Due to continued abdominal pain on antibiotics, computed tomography of the abdomen with contrast showed acute appendicitis with inflammatory debris and without perforation or abscess requiring laparoscopic appendectomy. Our case presented with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which complicates the etiology of abdominal pain on admission for the clinician masking-MRSA colitis associated with a rare complication of appendicitis double challenge and difficult to diagnose as most DKA patients present with abdominal pain. This is the first case report describing MRSA enterocolitis in patient with DKA complicated by acute appendicitis." }, { "id": "article-27923_18", "title": "Pseudoappendicitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Y enterocolitica infections are mostly asymptomatic. However, mild abdominal pain and diarrhea may occur. Severe yersiniosis presents with watery or bloody diarrhea, fever, chills, and increased abdominal pain. If mesenteric lymph nodes are involved, patients will have moderate-to-severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, which could masquerade as acute appendicitis. These patients may exhibit abdominal guarding and rebound tenderness with a positive McBurney sign, predicting localized terminal ileitis. Patients with severe watery or bloody diarrhea may be misdiagnosed with salmonellosis, shigellosis, or Giardia enteritis. Patients with advanced infections, mainly if left untreated, may present with signs of sepsis, dehydration, and shock. [11]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_61746", "title": "Nephritic syndrome", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Children/adolescents IgA nephropathy (Note: Contrast time of onset with Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis) - Most commonly diagnosed in children who recently had an upper respiratory tract infection (URI). Symptoms typically present within 1–2 days of a non-specific URI with severe flank/abdominal pain, gross hematuria (characterized by dark brown or red colored urine), and edema of the hands, feet, and/or face. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) - Similar to IgA nephropathy, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) most often occurs in children who have recently had an upper respiratory infection (URI). In contrast with IgA nephropathy, however, PSGN typically presents 2–3 weeks after recovering from an URI that was caused specifically by a Streptococcus bacteria. The symptoms at onset are very similar to IgA nephropathy and include abdominal pain, hematuria, edema, and oliguria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0859_8540", "title": "A Case of an 11-year-old With Cough, Diarrhea, and Findings of Concern in His Lungs and Spleen.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "This is the case of a previously healthy, 11-year-old male of Indian descent who presented to the emergency department with a 2-month history of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue, cough, and 7-lb weight loss. Acutely, he developed 5 days of fever as high as 39.4°C. He had a remote travel history to the Middle East. On physical examination, he was febrile and tachycardic, was thin but otherwise had a normal examination. His inflammatory markers were elevated: erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 93 mm/hour and his C-reactive protein was 25.4 mg/L. A complete blood count revealed a white blood cell count of 17,000 × 10(3)/µL with increased bands. His hemoglobin level was 8.8 g/dL with a mean corpuscular volume of 81 fl. Platelets were 556 × 10(3)/µL. A chest radiograph was concerning for a cavitary lung lesion and an abdominal ultrasound revealed multiple hypoechoic lesions in his spleen. Our panel of experts reviews his case and examines the workup of this patient with diverse symptoms and focal findings on chest radiograph and abdominal ultrasound." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1134_14116", "title": "Adult-Onset Immunoglobulin A Vasculitis With Renal Involvement.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 50-year-old male presented with worsening bilateral lower extremities swelling for a month, associated with a purpuric rash over bilateral upper and lower extremities, joint pain over bilateral hands and ankles, and intermittent generalized abdominal pain. Physical examination was notable for pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities and palpable, non-blanching purpuric rashes and crusts, joint tenderness over bilateral hands/wrists/ankles, and mild generalized abdominal tenderness. Laboratory tests were remarkable for sub-nephrotic range proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. The skin biopsy revealed leukocytoclastic vasculitis. Renal biopsy showed mild mesangial expansion and immunoglobulin A (IgA)-dominant mesangial deposits. The patient was diagnosed with IgA vasculitis (IgAV) nephritis (IgAVN) and was subsequently treated with oral prednisone 80 mg daily for seven days followed by slow tapering doses, oral lisinopril 2.5 mg daily, and oral furosemide 40 mg daily. At the one-month follow-up as an outpatient, his skin rash and lower extremity swelling had resolved along with an improvement of proteinuria." }, { "id": "article-30658_22", "title": "Gastrointestinal Tuberculosis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Patients with gastrointestinal tuberculosis commonly present with the following complaints: [10] [37] Abdominal pain Anorexia Fever Change in bowel habits – diarrhea more common than constipation Nausea and vomiting Melena However, some patients may not manifest any symptoms of GI TB. [38] On examination, they are commonly found to have the following signs: [10] [37] Weight loss Pallor and anemia Rectal bleeding Abdominal distension and ascites Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Lymphadenopathy Abdominal mass" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1014_25815", "title": "[Adrenal hemorrhage in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 58-year-old female was referred to our department with intermittent suffocation for 1.5 years, aggravated for a month. 1.5 years before she developed oral ulcer, raynaud phenomenon, proteinuria, bilateral pleural effusion, ANA and anti-dsDNA positive. This patient was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). After given hormones, hydroxychloroquine sulfate (HCQ), her symptom relieved soon. The patient stopped her pills 1 year ago. One month ago, she had chest tightness, increased urine foam, and suffered from oliguria. Her admission medical examination: blood pressure (BP) 130/80 mmHg, conjunctiva pale, and lower lung breath sounds reduced. There was no tenderness, rebound pain and abdominal muscle tension in the abdomen. Liver and spleen rib inferior, mobile dullness negative, and lower extremity edema. Blood routine tests were performed with hemoglobin (HGB) 57 g/L. Urine routine: BLD (3+). 24-hour urinary protein 3.2 g. serum albumin 20.5 g/L, C-reactive protein (CRP) 12.85 mg/L, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 140 mm/h. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) (H)1:10 000, anti-dsDNA antibody 1:3 200; anti-Smith antibody, anti-U1-snRNP/Sm antibody were positive, blood complement 3(C3) 0.43 g/L, complement 4(C4) 0.07 g /L. Anticardiolipin antibody (ACL), anti-β2-GP1, lupus anticoagulant (LA) were negative; HRCT suggested bilateral medial pleural cavity product liquid. Admission diagnosis: SLE lupus nephritis, anemia, pleural effusion, and hypoproteinemia. We treated her with methylprednisolone 1 000 mg×3 d, late to 48 mg/d and cyclophosphamide 1.0 g, HCQ 0.2 g bid, gamma globulin 10 g×5 d. Day 2 of treatment, this patient developed acute right upper quadrant pain, not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, blood stool and diarrhea. Antipyretic antispasmodic treatment was invalid, after the morning to ease their own abdominal pain. Day 4 of treatment, daytime blood HGB 77 g/L. Bilateral renal vascular ultrasound: bilateral renal artery blood flow velocity was reduced. The abdominal pain of the above symptoms recurred at night, BP was 120/80 mmHg, and no positive signs were found on abdominal examination. No abnormality was found in the vertical abdominal plain film. Blood routine examination: HGB 53 g/L, Plasma D dimer 2 515 μg/L, amylase in hematuria was normal, the stool occult blood was negative. Abdominal computed tomography (CT): normal structure of right adrenal gland disappeared, irregular mass shadow could be seen in adrenal region, CT value was about 50 HU. Morphological density of left adrenal gland was not abnormal. The retroperitoneum descended along the inferior vena cava to the right iliac blood vessel and showed a bolus shadow. The density of some segments increased. The lesion involved the right renal periphery and reached the left side of abdominal aorta. Most lesions surrounded the inferior vena cava, the right renal vein and part of the small intestine. The boundary between the upper lesion and the vena cava was unclear. Iodinecontaining contrast agent was taken orally. No sign of contrast agent overflowing was found in the abdominal cavity. Hematoma and exudative changes were considered in retroperitoneum. CONCLUSION of contrast-enhanced ultrasound of blood vessels: The retroperitoneal inferior vena cava (volume 3.5 cm×3.5 cm×1.5 cm) was hypoechoic and had no blood flow lesion. The adrenal gland had a high possibility of origin. Left renal vein thrombosis extended to inferior vena cava. According to the above data, it was analyzed that the cause of retroperitoneal hematoma of the patient was left adrenal vein thrombosis caused by hypercoagulable state, which led to vascular rupture and hemorrhage caused by increased vascular pressure in adrenal gland. Therefore, on the basis of continuing to actively treat the primary disease, and on the basis of dynamic observation of no active hemorrhage for 3 days, the anticoagulant therapy was continued with 10 mg/d of apixaban. Clinical symptoms were gradually eased, HGB did not decrease. Two weeks later, the ultrasonic examination showed that the irregular cluster hypoechoic range behind the inferior vena cava was significantly smaller than that before (1.8 cm×1.2 cm×0.7 cm). Abdominal CT examination after 1 month showed that there was no abnormal morphological density of bilateral adrenal glands and basic absorption of retroperitoneal exudation. Adrenal hemorrhage is uncommon. SLE with adrenal hemorrhage is rarer. In SLE patients, especially those complicated with APS, if abdominal pain accompanied by HGB decrease occurs, except after gastrointestinal hemorrhage, the possibility of adrenal hemorrhage should be warned." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_12279", "title": "Abdominal tuberculosis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Forty-two cases of abdominal tuberculosis seen between June 1984 and June 1988 at Amiri Hospital in Kuwait were reviewed retrospectively. The clinical diagnosis was correct in only 35%. Nine patients presented as an emergency, but in none was a diagnosis of tuberculosis considered. Abdominal pain and tenderness were the commonest clinical findings; \"doughy abdomen\" and a mass in right iliac fossa were uncommon. Thus, symptoms were vague, signs nonspecific and investigations nonpathognomonic. In spite of this, abdominal tuberculosis should be considered in any patient who has obscure abdominal symptoms, weight loss and lethargy. Laparoscopy and colonoscopy with biopsy for histologic and bacteriologic study led to a definitive diagnosis in 66% of cases, obviating the need for exploratory laparotomy in many. Histologic examination was the surest way to establish the diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0804_11301", "title": "Pneumatosis intestinalis associated with Henoch-Schönlein purpura.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is the most common vasculitis in children. It is a disorder of the inflammatory cascade leading to immunoglobulin A deposition and leukocytoclastic vasculitis of small vessels of skin, kidneys, joints, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract. A wide variety of GI manifestations are seen in ∼50% to 75% of patients with HSP. Diffuse colicky abdominal pain is the most common GI symptom. The small bowel is the most frequently involved GI site. Intussusception is rare but is the most common surgical complication. We report the case of a 2-year-old girl with a 5-day history of abdominal pain followed by a palpable purpuric rash. Her urinalysis, complete blood cell count, and tests of renal function were normal. An acute abdominal series was unremarkable initially, and abdominal ultrasound imaging showed ascites and thickened small bowel loops. She was diagnosed with HSP. The abdominal pain worsened, and an abdominal computed tomography scan demonstrated distal small bowel wall thickening and pneumatosis intestinalis in the descending colon. She was started on total parenteral nutrition and antibiotics and placed on bowel rest. She was given 2 mg/kg of intravenous immunoglobulin. Her abdominal pain gradually improved over the next week, and a repeat computed tomography scan showed significant improvement of the small bowel wall thickening and pneumatosis. The purpuric rash improved, and her abdominal pain resolved. We report a case of HSP and pneumatosis intestinalis, an association that has not been reported previously. " }, { "id": "article-17026_6", "title": "Abdominal Angina -- History and Physical", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The typical clinical presentation of abdominal angina is severe pain out of proportion to the physical exam. The patient usually complains of severe abdominal pain that starts after eating a meal. In most cases, the pain gradually subsides after a few hours. Because the pain is so severe, most people develop a fear of eating and hence lose weight. One should always ask about a history of smoking, claudication, and hyperlipidemia. On physical exam, marked weight loss is obvious. The abdomen is often soft, and there are no peritoneal signs. An abdominal bruit may be heard in some patients. One may also find features of peripheral vascular disease with diminished pulses in the leg. The digital rectal exam is usually guaiac negative." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1466", "title": "Chronic hip pain in a boy with mental retardation and cerebral palsy.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Jonny is a 13 year old boy with spastic quadriparesis and severe mental retardation following Haemophilus influenza type B (HIB) meningitis at 2-months of age. Signs of meningitis started on the evening of his 2-month immunizations that included the HIB vaccine. He presented to his pediatrician with left hip pain that occurred intermittently for a few years and more frequently in the past six months. His parents initially attributed the pain to whizzing around the back yard in a motorized wheelchair. An earlier evaluation of hip pain led to bilateral femoral osteotomies for hip dysplasia. Obesity, associated with inactivity and a tendency to consume fatty foods, complicates Jonny's disabilities. His only activity is a modest amount of physical therapy at school and \"floor time\" for about one hour each day at home. In the office of his pediatrician, Jonny is friendly, smiling, and verbalizing a few words with his limited expressive vocabulary. He is resistant to a hip examination and grimaces with manipulation of his left hip. Spasticity of the left leg appears increased compared to previous examinations. He has nonpitting edema of his lower legs and feet, a cryptorchid left testicle, and a somewhat tender left inguinal area. Jonny lives with his mother and father in a small house on a busy street less than one-half mile from the pediatrician's office. Jonny's pediatrician often sees him in his wheelchair, accompanied by his mother or grandmother, and waves or stops to chat. He has van services to school, and there is a Hoyer lift in the home, but his parents do not own a van. Recently, Jonny's father finds it more difficult to lift him. The family has also been challenged by the mental health problems of Jonny's two older brothers, and a serious eye injury suffered by his middle brother in a motor-vehicle accident. Jonny's pediatrician has cared for him and his two brothers since birth. Although the parents continue to believe that the HIB vaccine caused his catastrophic illness, they remain with the pediatrician. In general, they are satisfied with the individualized educational plan at a local public school. When he was 6.5 years old, Jonny's school aid reported that he attempted to touch her in the genital area. The pediatrician attended the meeting to review this incident and successfully advocated for Jonny by pointing out that this was an isolated incident; it did not occur again. At 6 years old Jonny functioned in the 1.5-2.5 year old range with motor skills in the 6-12 month level according to the Bayley Scales of Infant Development and the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales. In the past a neurologist and a physiatrist saw Jonny, but both of these individuals moved from the community. He had prior evaluations at a children's orthopedic clinic at a small community hospital and at the local Shriner's hospital. He had a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy at 7 years old. He is currently treated for constipation and receives dental care at a clinic for people with disabilities. His pediatrician has always respected the parents for their care and obvious love for their disabled child. However, parental resistance to addressing major issues such as obesity has frustrated his pediatrician. When the pediatrician suggested that Jonny was eligible for the state's managed care program, which would convert Medicaid coverage to a state sponsored program with more extensive services and case management, Jonny's mother repeatedly said that she would \"think it over.\" At the current visit, the pediatrician recommended an adjustment of Jonny's wheelchair, a hip x-ray, a referral to Shriner's Hospital, and an appointment with a pediatric surgeon to address the undescended testicle and possible hernia. Jonny's mother mentioned that he had been to Shriner's Hospital for hip pain two years earlier but was told nothing could be done \"because nothing was wrong with his bone.\" The hip x-ray was normal as well as a complete blood count and a C-reactive protein. The pediatric surgeon did not find a hernia and deferred treatment of the cryptorchid testicle. His parents contacted the wheelchair company to arrange adjustments. The pediatrician called the medical director at the Shriner's Hospital to discuss Jonny's case, but 2 months after the initial visit, the parents had not arranged for an appointment at the Shriner's Hospital. Jonny's hip pain persisted. The pediatrician now wonders how he can more effectively address Jonny's current problems and improve overall care for him and his family." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0564_3269", "title": "Dengue fever mimicking acute appendicitis.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We report 12 patients [5 males, mean age 28 years (SD 4.6)] presenting with clinical features suggestive of acute appendicitis who were later diagnosed as having dengue fever (DF). Seven were admitted to hospital by surgeons and then referred to physicians due to thrombocytopenia (one of them following appendicectomy). Five were admitted to medical wards and then referred to surgeons due to abdominal pain. The mean time from onset of fever to abdominal pain was 2.2 d (SD 0.9). Clinical features included: right iliac fossa tenderness in 12 patients, rebound tenderness in nine, vomiting in nine, erythematous rash in eight, arthralgia/myalgia in eight, headache in six, diarrhea in three and palatal petechiae in three. All patients had C-reactive protein &lt;12mg/l, and DF was confirmed serologically. Leucocytopenia and thrombocytopenia occurred by the third or fourth day of illness in all patients. Seven had free fluid around the appendix on abdominal ultrasound. The mean duration of abdominal symptoms and signs was 1.8 d (SD 1.3). DF may present with features suggestive of acute appendicitis in dengue-endemic areas. A carefully obtained history, clinical examination and a full blood count done on the third or fourth day of illness may help to differentiate DF from acute bacterial appendicitis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 251 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "They refer to a concept that has emerged relatively recently and is not present in all clinical guidelines as uncomplicated symptomatic diverticular disease. In these cases, the therapeutic trial with rifaximin is recommended, being the true number 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 442 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 73 ] ], "text": "The absence of acute phase reactants in the CBC suggests that she does not have acute diverticulitis at the time of consultation that would lead us to request an imaging test to rule it out." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 442 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 73 ] ], "text": "The absence of acute phase reactants in the CBC suggests that she does not have acute diverticulitis at the time of consultation that would lead us to request an imaging test to rule it out." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Empirical treatment with antibiotics.", "2": "Request a preferential colonoscopy.", "3": "Request urgent abdominal ultrasound.", "4": "Refer to surgery to evaluate sigmoidectomy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en014_100819", "title": "Colonoscopy", "score": 0.015333818344619173, "content": "Fecal occult blood is a quick test which can be done to test for microscopic traces of blood in the stool. A positive test is almost always an indication to do a colonoscopy. In most cases the positive result is just due to hemorrhoids; however, it can also be due to diverticulosis, inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis), colon cancer, or polyps. Colonic polypectomy has become a routine part of colonoscopy, allowing quick and simple removal of polyps during the procedure, without invasive surgery. Colon cancer screening Colonoscopy is one of the colorectal cancer screening tests available to people in the US who are 45 years of age and older. The other screening tests include flexible sigmoidoscopy, double-contrast barium enema, computed tomographic (CT) colongraphy (virtual colonoscopy), guaiac-based fecal occult blood test (gFOBT), fecal immunochemical test (FIT), and multitarget stool DNA screening test (Cologuard)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en034_9031", "title": "Colitis", "score": 0.013214957859422307, "content": "More severe symptoms may include: shortness of breath, a fast or irregular heartbeat and fever. Other less common or rare non-specific symptoms that may accompany colitis include: arthritis, mouth ulcers, painful, red and swollen skin and irritated, bloodshot eyes. Signs seen on colonoscopy include: colonic mucosal erythema (redness of the colon's inner surface), ulcerations and hemorrhage. Diagnosis Symptoms suggestive of colitis are worked-up by obtaining the medical history, a physical examination and laboratory tests (CBC, electrolytes, stool culture and sensitivity, stool ova and parasites et cetera). Additional tests may include medical imaging (e.g. abdominal computed tomography, abdominal X-rays) and an examination with a camera inserted into the rectum (sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25402", "title": "Diverticulitis", "score": 0.01235636162259449, "content": "Signs and symptoms Diverticulitis typically presents with lower quadrant abdominal pain of a sudden onset. Patients commonly have elevated C-reactive protein and a high white blood cell count. In North America and Europe the abdominal pain is usually on the left lower side (sigmoid colon), while in Asia it is usually on the right (ascending colon). There may also be fever, nausea, diarrhea or constipation, and blood in the stool. Complications" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3098", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011422527763088313, "content": "APPROACH TO THE PATIENT: The decision to evaluate acute diarrhea depends on its severity and duration and on various host factors (Fig. 55-2). Most episodes of acute diarrhea are mild and self-limited and do not justify the cost and potential morbidity rate of diagnostic or pharmacologic interventions. Indications for evaluation include profuse diarrhea with dehydration, grossly bloody stools, fever ≥38.5°C (≥101°F), duration >48 h without improvement, recent antibiotic use, new community outbreaks, associated severe abdominal pain in patients >50 years, and elderly (≥70 years) or immunocompromised patients. In some cases of moderately severe febrile diarrhea associated with fecal leukocytes (or increased fecal levels of the leukocyte proteins, such as calprotectin) or with gross blood, a diagnostic evaluation might be avoided in favor of an empirical antibiotic trial (see below)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23076", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01125957375957376, "content": "Presentation, Evaluation, and Staging of Diverticulitis Acute uncomplicated diverticulitis characteristically presents with fever, anorexia, left lower quadrant abdominal pain, and obstipation (Table 353-1). In <25% of cases, patients may present with generalized peritonitis indicating the presence of a diverticular perforation. If a pericolonic abscess has formed, the patient may have abdominal distention and signs of localized peritonitis. Laboratory investigations will demonstrate a leukocytosis. Rarely, a patient may present with an air-fluid level in the left lower quadrant on plain abdominal film. This is a giant diverticulum of the sigmoid colon and is managed with resection to avoid impending perforation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25516", "title": "Diverticulosis", "score": 0.011020252645153727, "content": "Diverticulitis Infection of a diverticulum can result in diverticulitis. A recent study found that it happens only about 4% of the time. That contradicts the prevailing thinking that 10% to 25% of people with diverticulosis go on to develop diverticulitis. Tears in the colon leading to bleeding or perforations may occur; intestinal obstruction may occur (constipation or diarrhea does not rule this possibility out); and peritonitis, abscess formation, retroperitoneal fibrosis, sepsis, and fistula formation are also possible occurrences. Rarely, an enterolith may form. Infection of a diverticulum often occurs as a result of stool collecting in a diverticulum. It is defined as diverticular disease with signs and symptoms of diverticular inflammation. Clinical features of acute diverticulitis include constant abdominal pain, localized abdominal tenderness in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen, nausea, vomiting, constipation or diarrhea, fever and leukocytosis." }, { "id": "article-19739_15", "title": "Colon Cancer -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010864978902953586, "content": "Most all CRC will present by diagnostic colonoscopy for suspicious signs and symptoms (80%), asymptomatic, routine screening (11%), or incidental finding at an acute abdomen emergent admission (7%). Patients diagnosed with routine cancer screening are frequently earlier stage compared to advanced disease of incidental surgical findings. Diagnostic colonoscopy’s triggers are blood per rectum (37%), abdominal pain (34%) and anemia (23%). Most common indications of emergency surgery are an obstruction (57%), peritonitis (25%) and perforation (18%). Tumor location on clinical presentation can be separated on left-sided with more changes in bowel habits and hematochezia, and right-sided with obscured anemia impacting on late stage at diagnosis. Late presentation with metastatic disease at diagnosis will depend on the symptoms at the organ-affected by the route of spread; to the liver via the portal system, to lungs via the inferior vena cava, to supraclavicular adenopathy via lymphatic or to neighbor structures by contiguous invasion. The provider should perform a thorough physical examination for signs of ascites, hepatomegaly, and lymphadenopathy.  A comprehensive family history is of great relevance to identify familial clusters and inherent patterns that would alter surveillance and therapy on the high-risk patient." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en090_22349", "title": "Valentino's syndrome", "score": 0.010745949960544027, "content": "When patients present with right lower quadrant pain their vitals, such as blood pressure, pulse, oxygen saturation, and temperature, are monitored. A complete blood count (CBC) is done to determine the number of white blood cells present in the patient’s blood and test for leukocytosis, a condition in which the white blood cells are above the normal levels. Abdominal examination usually discloses generalized tenderness, rebound tenderness in the right iliac fossa, guarding, and rigidity. A physical examination that is positive for abdominal pain categorized as McBurney’s point tenderness, Von Blumberg's sign, Rovsing's sign, Dunphy's sign and Psoas sign, could all indicate acute appendicitis and lead to misdiagnosis. However, these physical examination findings are also present in Valentino’s Syndrome." }, { "id": "article-17784_11", "title": "Appendicitis -- History and Physical -- Uncommon Presentations", "score": 0.010549100022784233, "content": "Several practical scores have been defined to facilitate the prompt diagnosis of acute appendicitis, mainly based on the history and physical examination, accompanied by laboratory tests and imaging measures, including abdominal ultrasonography. Accordingly, evaluation of patients with suspicious signs and symptoms suggestive of acute appendicitis has been widely undertaken with Alvarado criteria since 1986. The highest score among Alvarado criteria is allocated to the tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leukocytosis, and each of the other predicted symptoms, including migratory right iliac fossa pain, nausea, and or vomiting, and anorexia, hold one score. Moreover, positive findings in the remaining indexes of physical examination, including fever and rebound tenderness in the right iliac fossa, would hold a similar score of one. [13]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_31490", "title": "Descending colon", "score": 0.010432900432900433, "content": "Colon cancer Cancer of the descending colon is a serious disease. A person can have colon cancer yet have no symptoms in the early stages. As such, regular colorectal examinations or fecal occult blood testing are necessary for catching the disease in its early stages. However, there are some signs that can indicate colon cancer; they include abrupt changes in bowel habits, bleeding from the rectum, black stools, frequent constipation, and mucus in the stools. Treatment options depend on the stage of the cancer and the overall health of the patient. See also Colonoscopy Ascending colon References External links Lotti M. Anatomy in relation to left colectomy - \"The large intestine.\" Large intestine" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10663", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010099018576936557, "content": "Fulminant (rapidly progressive and severe) CDI presents the most difficult treatment challenge. Patients with fulminant disease often do not have diarrhea, and their illness mimics an acute surgical abdomen. Sepsis (hypotension, fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis) may result from severe CDI. An acute abdomen (with or without toxic megacolon) may include signs of obstruction, ileus, colon-wall thickening and ascites on abdominal CT, and peripheral-blood leukocytosis (≥20,000 WBCs/μL). With or without diarrhea, the differential diagnosis of an acute abdomen, sepsis, or toxic megacolon should include CDI if the patient has received antibiotics in the past 2 months. Cautious sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy to visualize PMC and abdominal CT are the best diagnostic tests in patients without diarrhea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0742_24378", "title": "Diverticulosis of the colon: a report of two cases.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Diverticula are bulging pouch-like herniations in the wall of the hollow organ anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract from the oesophagus to the colon. Diverticula are thought to occur more commonly in the colon than in any other segment of the gastrointestinal tract. It may be asymptomatic or complicated by diverticulitis (diverticular inflammation), bleeding, or perforation with peritonitis. It could be potentially life threatening. It was thought to be rare in this part of the world, but is increasingly diagnosed with the advent of modern imaging techniques and colonoscopy. Two cases of colonic diverticula discovered during colonoscopy were highlighted. Case 1--This patient was a 79-year old traditional ruler who presented with 2 months history of progressive left- sided abdominal pain, dull in nature and sometimes colicky but non-radiating. There was no known aggravating or relieving factors. There was associated history of chronic constipation dating back to over 15 years relieved with use of laxatives. There was no diarrhoea, vomiting or haematochezia. He had no history of previous surgeries. Physical examination showed mild tenderness at the left iliac fossa. Digital rectal examination was normal. Plain abdominal x-ray and abdomino-pelvic ultrasound scan showed no abnormalities. Colonoscopy revealed multiple diverticula with diverticulitis at the descending and sigmoid colon 40 cm-60 cm from the anal verge. Case 2--This patient is a 64-year old retired military officer who presented with constipation of 5 years and rectal bleeding of 10 months. Pre-morbid bowel habit was 1-2 bowel motions per day but now once in 2 days. Constipation was characterized by recurrent passage of hard pellet-like stools. This became associated with passage of fresh blood in the stool 10 months ago, and anal pain. Volume of blood was about 5 mls per episode, and this occurred only when stool was hard. The anal pain was sometimes severe enough to prevent the patient from sitting comfortably on both buttocks. There was no weight loss or constipation alternating with diarrhoea. He had no history of any chronic medical illness. Colonoscopy revealed anal fissure, internal haemorrhoids, and multiple diverticula in the sigmoid and descending colon. Both patients are being managed conservatively with dietary advice and antibiotics, and still being followed up in the clinic. Reports of colonic diverticula with diverticulitis in this part of the world are few. This is the first report of colonic diverticulosis from Ilorin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0758_18668", "title": "Fever of unknown origin as the first manifestation of colonic pathology.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Fever of unknown origin (FUO) is an entity caused by more than 200 diseases. Haematologic neoplasms are the most common malignant cause of FUO. Fever as a first symptom of colonic tumour pathology, both benign and malignant, is a rare form of presentation. Our work is a descriptive study of a series of 23 patients with colonic tumoral pathology who presented with fever of unknown origin. The mean age was 67.6 years; 56.5% of patients were men and 43.5% were women. Primary malignant neoplasia was the most common diagnosis. Blood cultures were positive in 45% of the samples. Coagulase-negative staphylococci were the most common cause of bacteraemia. Nine of 10 faecal occult blood tests performed were positive. Fever secondary to colon neoplasms, both benign and malignant, usually presents with a bacteraemic pattern, with positive results for blood-culture tests in a high percentage of cases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en114_9174", "title": "Brodifacoum", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In another case reported in 2013, a 48-year-old female patient reported 4 days of mild dyspnea, dry cough, bilateral popliteal fossae pain, and diffuse upper abdominal pain. She had no history of liver disease or alcohol or illicit substance abuse. Initial physical examination was remarkable only for mildly pale conjunctivae and mild abdominal tenderness and pain in the left popliteal fossa. A complete blood count and complete metabolic panel were normal. Prothrombin time (PT) was above 100 s, partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was above 200 s and international normalized ratio (INR) was reported as above 12.0. Urinalysis revealed hematuria (blood in the urine). Venous Doppler ultrasound of lower extremities demonstrated left popliteal vein thrombosis. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen demonstrated transmural hematoma, and a fecal occult blood test was positive. A full anticoagulant work-up showed critical reduction of vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X. PT and PTT" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_17938", "title": "[Comparison of symptoms and clinical and laboratory findings in the first and last weeks of typhoid fever].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In this study we examined the clinical and laboratory findings of 80 in-patients. There is an important difference between sexes (p greater than 0.05). Comparison of ages showed that 7-30 age is more vulnerable than the older group. We found clinical symptoms of fever, chills, headache, abdominal pain, disturbances in bowel function, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and lassitude in the first two weeks more frequently when compared with the 3rd, 4th, 5th weeks of illness (p less than 0.001). Where physical finding of rose spots, discordant pulse rate are important in the first two weeks (p less than 0.001). Abdominal discomfort is an important symptom both in the first two and in the last three weeks (% 40.3 and % 36 respectively). Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, were found more frequently in the last three weeks. According to laboratory findings of anemia, leukopenia, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive blood and feces cultures there is no important difference between the first two and last three weeks (p greater than 0.05). Increase in polynuclear leucocytes is important for the first two weeks, and increase in lymphocytes is important in the last three weeks (p less than 0.001). Positivity of group agglutination tests is 57%, in the first two weeks and 83% in the last three weeks. This difference is found to be important." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_107193", "title": "Appendicitis", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Rovsing's sign: Pain in the lower right abdominal quadrant with continuous deep palpation starting from the left iliac fossa upwards (counterclockwise along the colon). The thought is there will be increased pressure around the appendix by pushing bowel contents and air toward the ileocaecal valve provoking right-sided abdominal pain. Sitkovskiy (Rosenstein)'s sign: Increased pain in the right iliac region as the person is being examined lies on their left side. Perman's sign: In acute appendicitis palpation in the left iliac fossa may produce pain in the right iliac fossa.Emil Samuel Perman 1856-1946 \"About the indications for surgery in appendicitis and an account of cases of Sabbatsberg Hospital in Hygiea 1904" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_15065", "title": "[Value of admission for observation in the management of acute abdominal right iliac fossa pain. Prospective study of 205 cases].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Because of the potential severity of acute appendicitis, many authors recommend the broad use of appendectomy. In this case, 15 to 20% of appendectomies are ultimately found to have been unnecessary. Hospital observation with repeated clinical and laboratory exams can be useful for patients with atypical clinical presentation. This paper assesses our approach, in which some patients with pain in the right iliac fossa (RIF) are admitted for observation before a decision about appendectomy. All patients (205 cases) admitted from March 2002 through February 2003 for acute abdominal pain of the RIF were included in this prospective study. The 120 women and 85 men (sex ratio=0.7) had a mean age of 27 years. We classified the patients into 3 groups: those who had an emergency appendectomy, those who had surgery after an observation period, and those discharged without appendectomy after observation. The first group included 110 patients: 63% had a (rectal) temperature greater than 38 degrees C; 44% had guarding of the RIF and 87% elevated white blood cell counts (&gt;10000/mm3). At surgery, appendicitis was diagnosed in 92%. After a mean delay of 36 hours of observation, 50 of the patients in the second group underwent surgery: 44% with (rectal) temperature &gt; 38 degrees C, RIF guarding in 8%, and elevated white blood cell count (&gt;10000/mm3) in 74%. In this group, 94% were diagnosed with appendicitis during surgery. Forty-five patients were discharged without surgery after 36 hours of observation. In this study, pain and RIF guarding, associated with temperature greater than 38 degrees C and elevated white blood cell counts, were predictive of appendicitis in 96% of cases. Admission for observation of patients with atypical presentation avoided 45 unnecessary appendectomies (22%)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_100816", "title": "Colonoscopy", "score": 0.009645061728395061, "content": "Colonoscopy is similar to sigmoidoscopy—the difference being related to which parts of the colon each can examine. A colonoscopy allows an examination of the entire colon (1200–1500mm in length). A sigmoidoscopy allows an examination of the distal portion (about 600mm) of the colon, which may be sufficient because benefits to cancer survival of colonoscopy have been limited to the detection of lesions in the distal portion of the colon. A sigmoidoscopy is often used as a screening procedure for a full colonoscopy, often done in conjunction with a fecal occult blood test (FOBT). About 5% of these screened patients are referred to colonoscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_1843", "title": "Ovarian abscess as a complication of assisted reproduction techniques: a case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "AMP makes true great strides these last decades. Logically some complications were noticed even due to ovarian puncture such as hemorrhage, perforation or infection. The aim of this report is to try, through a review of literature, to draw the attention of physicians to a rare entity, ovarian abscess after follicle aspiration for in-vitro fertilization, and to means of prevention. We report a 38-year-old woman who was plainting from lower abdominal pain located in the left iliac fossa one month after failed IVF trial. The pain was associated with fever and vomiting. The patient's past medical history involves 2 myomectomys (2003-2007). On admission, her temperature was 38.9 degrees C and her blood pressure was 90/60 mm Hg. Physical examination found nondistended abdomen. Tenderness to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant, without peritoneal signs, was detected. No masses were palpated. Mild tenderness in the left cul-de-sac was found. A full blood count showed a white cell count of 17,500 cells/mm3 with 84.5% polymorph nuclear cells, CRP 173 mg/dl. Pelvic ultrasound shows a left latero uterine mass; right ovary and the uterus are unremarkable; there was no free abdominal fluid. The laparotomy was performed 24 hours later and a left ovarian abscess was found. The treatment was conservative. Antibiotics were associated during 15 days. The clinical evolution was satisfying. The ovarian puncture might be technically difficult, incomplete, and even impossible which exposes to a greater infection risk. An ultrasound evaluation of ovarian accessibility is necessary before starting an IVF attempt, especially in case of overweight or history of abdominal or pelvic surgery, endometriosis, tubal abnormalities or myomas. The treatment is based on surgery and antibiotics." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1703", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The diagnostic yield of echocardiography, sinus radiography, radiologic or endoscopic evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract, and bronchoscopy is very low in the absence of PDCs. Therefore, these tests should not be used as screening procedures. After identification of all PDCs retrieved from the history, physical examination, and obligatory tests, a limited list of the most probable diagnoses should be made. Since most investigations are helpful only for patients who have PDCs for the diagnoses sought, further diagnostic procedures should be limited to specific investigations aimed at confirming or excluding diseases on this list. In FUO, the Fever ˜38.3° C (101° F) and illness lasting ˜3 weeks and no known immunocompromised state History and physical examination Stop antibiotic treatment and glucocorticoids Obligatory investigations:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0848_4676", "title": "Case reports of adult colo-colonic intussusception.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Adult colo-colonic intussusception is a rare abnormality and it may pose a diagnostic challenge. To report two cases of adult colo-colonic intussusception with benign lesion as the lead points. The Clinical records of the two patients containing the management details were retrieved and reviewed. The 1st case was a 60 year old man presenting with a year history of recurrent left abdominal pain a two week history of fullness left upper and lower abdomen. Examination showed an 8cm by 6 cm mass in the left hypochondrium continuing with another 16cm by 8 cm mass spanning the left lumbar and left iliac fossa. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a huge mixed echogenic mass in the central abdomen spanning the left hypochondriac, left lumber and suprapubic regions. He had exploratory laparotomy which revealed cob-cobonic intussusception involving the ascending colon up to sigmoid colon. He had subtotal colectomy done. The lead point was a hamartomatous polyp The 2nd case was a 35 year old man with a two month history of recurrent abdominal pain and haematochezia, a month history change in bowel habit and five day history of abdominal distension. Examination showed distended abdomen with generalised tenderness. There was a firm mass in the left hypochondrium extending to the left iliac fossa. Abdominal ultrasound scan confirm intussusception: Exploratory laparotomy showed perforation of transverse colon at the neck of cob-colonic intussusception involving the distal third of the transverse colon to the rectum. He had extended left hernicolectomy and Devine colostomy done. He died 36 h6urs post operation. The lead point was an inflammatory polyp. Adult colo-colonic intussusception is an uncommon disease which may not present in a typical feature of intussusception as occur in children thus posing diagnostic dilemma. High index of suspicion with radiological investigation will serve to aid rapid and accurate diagnosis." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1724", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In patients with unexplained fever after all of the above procedures, the last step in the diagnostic workup—with only a marginal diagnostic yield—comes at an extraordinarily high cost in terms of both expense and discomfort for the patient. Repetition of a thorough history-taking and physical examination and review of laboratory results and imaging studies (including those from other hospitals) are recommended. Diagnostic delay often results from a failure to recognize PDCs in the available information. In these patients with persisting FUO, waiting for new PDCs to appear probably is better than ordering more screening investigations. Only when a patient’s condition deteriorates without providing new PDCs should a further diagnostic workup be performed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en616_4345", "title": "Postpolypectomy coagulation syndrome", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Postpolypectomy coagulation syndrome (Postpolypectomy syndrome or PPCS) is a condition that occurs following colonoscopy with electrocautery polypectomy, which results in a burn injury to the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. The condition results in abdominal pain, fever, elevated white blood cell count and elevated serum C-reactive protein. Signs and symptoms PPCS causes abdominal pain and fever. The condition usually onsets within 1–5 days after colonoscopy with polypectomy using electrocautery. Physical examination may show evidence of peritonitis. Etiology PPCS is caused by an electrocautery-induced injury to the wall of the colon that occurs during removal of colon polyps. PPCS occurs when the electric current extends beyond the mucosa, entering the muscularis propria and serosa, resulting in a full thickness (transmural) burn injury. The transmural burn results in localized inflammation of the peritoneum (peritonitis)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0751_1595", "title": "Segmental colitis associated with diverticulosis: systematic evaluation of 486 cases with meta-analysis.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Segmental colitis associated with colonic diverticulosis is a new and emerging entity. We systematically evaluated 486 cases of this entity and performed qualitative meta-analysis on this information. This diagnosis was made on a 64-year old man by colonoscopic biopsy. His clinical symptoms included hematochezia and crampy lower abdominal pain. PubMed Search using terms such as segmental colitis, colitis associated with diverticulosis was made without language or time barrier. Additional papers were manually added from the reference lists of key articles. Qualitative meta-analysis was done using the well-established methods of qualitative research, e.g. diagramming, theme repetition without serious contradiction, theme saturation and investigator reflexivity. To facilitate qualitative meta-analysis, summary sheets of publications were created. This search produced 486 cases with this entity. The prevalence in patients with diverticulosis is 0.3% to 1.3%. There were 58.7% men. The mean age was 63.6 (range 26-87) years. The most common presenting symptoms were rectal bleeding, diarrhea and abdominal pain. Fever, leucocytosis and rectal involvement were characteristically absent. Endoscopic appearance and histology may resemble ulcerative colitis. Many of these patients have a benign course with spontaneous resolution or may respond to 5-aminosalucylates or steroids. This is a new and emerging entity. There is male predominance and it occurs in relatively elderly patients. It can be distinguished from acute diverticulitis by clinical, endoscopic and histological features. Most have a benign course." }, { "id": "article-19724_11", "title": "Colon Diverticulitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Laboratory findings include leukocytosis and possibly elevated inflammatory markers. [15] Those patients with complicated diverticulitis may present with signs of sepsis and physical findings consistent with peritonitis. Physical findings may include abdominal tenderness, abdominal distension, a tender mass in the abdomen, absent bowel sounds, and findings related to fistula formation. The presence of fecaluria and pneumaturia must alert the clinician to the possibility of a colovesical fistula." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_227546", "title": "Large intestine", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Colonoscopy is similar to sigmoidoscopy—the difference being related to which parts of the colon each can examine. A colonoscopy allows an examination of the entire colon (1200–1500 mm in length). A sigmoidoscopy allows an examination of the distal portion (about 600 mm) of the colon, which may be sufficient because benefits to cancer survival of colonoscopy have been limited to the detection of lesions in the distal portion of the colon. A sigmoidoscopy is often used as a screening procedure for a full colonoscopy, often done in conjunction with a stool-based test such as a fecal occult blood test (FOBT), fecal immunochemical test (FIT), or multi-target stool DNA test (Cologuard) or blood-based test, SEPT9 DNA methylation test (Epi proColon). About 5% of these screened patients are referred to colonoscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0271_21418", "title": "[Acute appendicitis. A clinicopathological analysis of 200 cases].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "a) to carry out a prospective study of 200 cases of acute appendicitis in adult patients; b) to correlate clinical, laboratory, radiological, and pathological findings. clinical data were collected from all patients; every patient had hematic biometry, urine exam (UE), abdominal radiography, an histopathological study appendix. the patients were 98 males and 102 females; 66.5% were between 15 and 25 years old. All patients had abdominal pain, 56.5% nausea and vomit, 49% fever, 10.5% diarrhea, and 6% urinary symptoms. Post-operatory complications were seen in 24.5%. Leucocytosis greater than 10,000 was found in 82.5%, some alteration of UE in 45%, and abnormal radiography in 56.5%. Histopathological study showed simple appendicitis in 16.5%, hemorrhagic in 8%, purulent in 22%, hemo-purulent in 30.5%, an perforated in 21%. the diagnosis of appendicitis is basically a clinical one, since 17.5% showed normal white-cell count, and 43.5% normal radiography." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_5662", "title": "An unusual abdominal mass in a renal transplant recipient.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Renal transplant recipients are at increased risk of malignancy and infection. We present the case of a 72-year-old-man with recurrent bladder carcinoma, abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, and end-stage renal failure due to renovascular disease. He received a cadaveric renal allograft into his left iliac fossa, was given cyclosporin A, azathioprine, and prednisolone triple therapy immunosuppression, and had no rejection episodes. He presented four years post-transplantation with a two-year history of intermittent sweats and fevers. Previous episodes had been investigated with no firm diagnosis made. This time he had right iliac fossa pain of three weeks' duration. Examination revealed a tender mass. Investigations showed unchanged graft function, but elevated inflammatory indices. Ultrasonography and computed tomography detailed an infiltrating mass associated with the sigmoid colon, which colonoscopy failed to visualise. At laparotomy a 6-cm tumor was removed, with adherent sigmoid colon and bladder dome. Macroscopically the mass was an abscess, and microscopy found acute and chronic inflammatory giant cells and fibrillary masses suggestive of actinomycosis, with no malignancy. The patient recovered uneventfully on antibiotics. At six months' follow-up, examination, inflammatory markers, and radiographic imaging showed no evidence of recurrence. Twelve months later the patient died of rupture of his proximal abdominal aorta. There was no evidence of recurrence at postmortem examination. We conclude with a brief review of actinomycosis in transplant recipients." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23128", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Presentation and Evaluation Perianal pain and fever are the hallmarks of an abscess. Patients may have difficulty voiding and have blood in the stool. A prostatic abscess may present with similar complaints, including dysuria. Patients with a prostatic abscess will often have a history of recurrent sexually transmitted diseases. On physical examination, a large fluctuant area is usually readily visible. Routine laboratory evaluation shows an elevated white blood cell count. Diagnostic procedures are rarely necessary unless evaluating a recurrent abscess. A CT scan or MRI has an accuracy of 80% in determining incomplete drainage. If there is a concern about the presence of inflammatory bowel disease, a rigid or flexible sigmoidoscopic examination may be done at the time of drainage to evaluate for inflammation within the rectosigmoid region. A more complete evaluation for Crohn’s disease would include a full colonoscopy and small-bowel series." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0651_18953", "title": "Succesful [Successful] endovascular repair of an abdominal mycotic aneurysm. A case report.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 73-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department presenting with cramping pain in the left iliac fossa that had persisted for ten days, with diarrhoea and dysuria. A recent onset of high fever had urged him to the hospital. A routine blood sample showed a leukocytosis of 11.9 x 10(3)/mm(3) and an elevated CRP of 16 mg/dl. Haemocultures and a urine sample were taken. A colonoscopy and ultrasound showed no abnormalities. The urine culture contained salmonella enteritidis. On day 5 a CT scan of the abdomen was performed. This showed a saccular aneurysm of the abdominal aorta, approximately 2 cm in length, with clear signs of a contained rupture. An urgent EVAR procedure was performed. An Excluder bifurcation-endoprosthesis was placed under antibiotic coverage. Control CT scan showed a thrombosis of the aneurysm and a type II endoleakage. The endoleakage spontaneously resolved within 3 months. The patient was kept on antibiotics (levofloxacine) for 4 months. We suggest that the use of an endoprosthesis could be a good and safe alternative for the repair of infrarenal mycotic aorta aneurysm." }, { "id": "article-20628_15", "title": "Diverticulosis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Acute diverticulitis (e.g., inflammation, infection, or perforation) is typically suspected when a patient presents with lower abdominal pain (particularly on the left side). Patients may additionally present with abdominal tenderness to palpation and an elevated white blood cell count (leukocytosis). An abdominal CT will help differentiate between complicated versus uncomplicated disease in this case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0866_23650", "title": "Generalized Pyoderma Gangrenosum Associated with Ulcerative Colitis: Successful Treatment with Infliximab and Azathioprine.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is a rare ulcerative skin disease, part of the spectrum of neutrophilic and auto-inflammatory dermatoses. Its pathogenesis is unknown, although immune pathways have been implicated. Lesion biopsies show a predominantly neutrophilic infiltrate. The incidence of PG is uncertain, but it is estimated to be 3-10 per million per year, occurring at any age but most commonly between 20 and 50 years with a possible slightly higher incidence in women. Approximately 50% of patients with PG also have another disease associated with PG. The most common is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), particularly Crohn's and ulcerative colitis (UC). Local treatment may be sufficient for mild cases, while for severe cases systemic immunosuppressants are the mainstay (1,2). We report the case of a patient with bullous PG and UC successfully treated with infliximab and azathioprine. A 32-year-old male Caucasian patient presented with painful violaceous vesicles and enlarging bullae of various sizes and with acute onset, located on the trunk and bilaterally on both the lower and the upper extremities. Lesions on the trunk were composed of hemorrhagic pustules with a surrounding erythematous overhanging border. Some of the lesions had undergone central necrosis and ulceration (Figure 1, a-d). The patient reported of the lesions had appeared one week ago, simultaneously with the exacerbation of a known inflammatory bowel disease with hemorrhagic mucoid diarrhea and fever of up to 38.5°C. The patient's medical history included UC affecting the whole colon (pancolitis), diagnosed 5 months prior to the onset of the epidermal lesions, for which the patient was receiving treatment with oral prednisolone 10 mg/day and mesalazine granules. Blood tests showed severe anemia, leukocytosis, and increased inflammatory markers (C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) andtibodies, antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA), perinuclear neutrophil antibodies (p-ANCA), antiphospholipid antibodies, and tumor markers were within normal limits. The patient was negative for cryoglobulins, viral hepatitis (B, C) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Blood cultures were negative. Microscopy and cultures for mycobacteria and fungi gave negative results. Stool samples tested negative for infections agents. The Mantoux skin test was negative. Colonoscopy showed severe pancolitis, and biopsies from the rectum and sigmoid colon were consistent with chronic ulcerative colitis. Abdominal ultrasound and chest and abdominal X-rays did not result in significant findings. Because of severe anemia, the patient received 2 blood transfusions. The histopathologic examination carried out on the erythematous border of a lesion on the lower leg showed a neutrophilic infiltrate, confined to the dermis. On the basis of clinical findings, the diagnosis of PG was established. Topical wound care consisted of local wound care and a topical corticosteroid. Systemic therapy was initiated with 40 mg/day methylprednisolone for 7 days, 30 mg/day for 7 days, then 25 mg/day, and then tapered down further. The patient received an infusion of infliximab 7.5 mg/kg at weeks 0, 2, and 6 and every 8 weeks thereafter. After week 2, oral azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg daily was added to the treatment. The patient also received mesalazine tablets (2 g ×2/day) and mesalazine enema (1-2/day). The patient showed good response to treatment, with clinical remission of skin lesions. Lesions healed with characteristic thin, atrophic scars (Figure 2, a-d). At 7-month follow-up the patient was continuing with infusions of infliximab 7.5 mg/kg and azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg and was still in remission. We reported our experience with a case of generalized bullous pyoderma gangrenosum associated with ulcerative colitis. Generalized pyoderma gangrenosum is very rare. Bullous or atypical PG was first described by Perry and Winklemann in 1972 (1). Brunsting et al. coined the term pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) to describe a series of patients with recurrent ulcerations (3). The incidence of this disease is uncertain. Its pathogenesis is unknown, but an immunological background has been suggested. In approximately 50% of patients, an underlying immunological disease is present, commonly inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) (4-6). In larger series of patients with PG, approximately 50% present with a primary disorder. Ulcerative colitis is found in 10-15% of cases. Crohn's disease is associated with PG closed than UC. Less than 3% of patients with Crohn's disease or UC develop PG (6). PG is characterized by cutaneous ulcerations with mucopurulent or hemorrhagic exudate. It begins as an inflammatory pustule with a surrounding halo that enlarges and begins to ulcerate. These very painful ulcers present with undermined bluish borders with surrounding erythema. The lesions of PG most commonly occur on the legs, but they may occur anywhere on the body. The clinical picture of PG is very characteristic. Therefore the diagnosis of PG is based firstly on clinical signs and on the patient's history of underlying diseases and then supported by biopsy. PG has four distinctive clinical and histological variants. Some have morphological and histological features that overlap with other reactive neutrophilic skin conditions. There are no diagnostic serologic features (6,7). There is no evidence that the efficacy of treatment strategies for PG differs between IBD and non-IBD patients. For patients with a diffuse disease or rapidly progressive process, systemic treatment is essential. Immunosuppression is the mainstay of treatment. Traditionally, the most commonly used drugs with the best clinical experience are systemic corticosteroids. Corticosteroids have been considered as first line treatment (6,8). As reported by the European Crohn's and Colitis Organisation (ECCO) in 2008, an evidence-based consensus on the management of special situations in patients with ulcerative colitis, systemic corticosteroids are recommended (9). Treatment with corticosteroids (e.g. prednisolone 1-2 mg per kg/day or pulse therapy with 1 g of methylprednisolone) aims to prevent progression and rapidly stop inflammation (6). Additional mesalamine and corticosteroids may be effective in patients with bowel disease (10). In recent years, tumor necrosis alpha (TNF-α) inhibitors, such as infliximab and adalimumab, were reported to be effective for PG associated with IBD. These drugs block the biological activity of TNF-α, which effects regulatory T cells, restoring their capacity to inhibit cytokine production. The TNF-α inhibitors thus suppress the inflammatory processes that is involved in the pathogenesis of PG (11). Infliximab, a chimeric monoclonal antibody, is given by infusion at weeks 0, 2, and 6 and then every 8 weeks, usually at a dosage of 5 mg/kg. UC of patients with frequent disease relapse or those that are resistant or dependent on corticosteroids is often treated with purine antimetabolites, such as azathioprine (AZA) (10). AZA, a purine antimetabolite (2.5 mg per kg/day) is administered for its steroid-sparing effects. The response occurs after 2 to 4 weeks (6, 10). Infliximab can be combined with AZA. Patients with UC treated with infliximab plus AZA were more likely to achieve corticosteroid-free remission at 16 weeks than those receiving either monotherapy (10,12). " } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 57 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 5 ] ], "text": "Discontinue lisinopril and initiate sacubitril/valsartan." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Add sacubitril/valsartan.", "2": "Add ivabradine.", "3": "Discontinue lisinopril and start sacubitril/valsartan.", "4": "Discontinue carvedilol and start ivabradine.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0919_5513", "title": "Update of treatment of heart failure with reduction of left ventricular ejection fraction.", "score": 0.019324122479462285, "content": "Underlying and precipitating causes of heart failure (HF) with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (HFrEF) should be identified and treated when possible. Hypertension should be treated with diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and β-blockers. Diuretics are the first-line drugs in the treatment of patients with HFrEF and volume overload. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and β-blockers (carvedilol, sustained-release metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol) should be used in treatment of HFrEF. Use an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) (candesartan or valsartan) if intolerant to ACE inhibitors because of cough or angioneurotic edema. Sacubitril/valsartan may be used instead of an ACE inhibitor or ARB in patients with chronic symptomatic HFrEF class II or III to further reduce morbidity and mortality. Add an aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone) in selected patients with class II-IV HF who can be carefully monitored for renal function and potassium concentration. (Serum creatinine should be ≤ 2.5 mg/dl in men and ≤ 2.0 mg/dl in women. Serum potassium should be &lt; 5.0 mEq/l). Add isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine in patients self-described as African Americans with class II-IV HF being treated with diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and β-blockers. Ivabradine can be used in selected patients with HFrEF." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1059_22345", "title": "[Ivabradine for Treatment of Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction].", "score": 0.01838731443994602, "content": "Aim      To evaluate the effect of combination ivabradine-containing therapy for chronic heart failure (CHF) with preserved ejection fraction on quality of life (QoL) and the primary composite endpoint during a one-year follow-up.Material and methods  This study included 160 patients aged 45 to 65 years with NYHA functional class (FC) II-III CHF with preserved left ventricular ejection fraction (CHF-PEF) and grade I and II diastolic dysfunction associated with FC III stable angina with sinus rhythm and a heart rate (HR) higher than 70 bpm. Presence of CHF-PEF was confirmed by results of echocardiography and myocardial tissue Doppler imaging. During one year of prospective observation, effects of bisoprolol and ivabradine as a part of the combination therapy on the primary composite endpoint, including death from cardiovascular complications (CVC) and hospitalizations for myocardial infarction (MI) or CHF, were evaluated in patients with CHF-PEF. Patients were randomized to three groups: A, bisoprolol with dose titration from 2.5 to 10 mg; В, combination of bisoprolol 2.5-10 mg and ivabradine 10-15 mg/day; and С, ivabradine 10-15 mg/day. All patients were on a chronic background therapy, including angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (lisinopril) or, if not tolerated, angiotensin II receptor blockers (valsartan), antiaggregants, statins (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin), and short-acting nitrates as required. If edema developed diuretics were added. The follow-up duration was one year.Results After 12 weeks of follow-up, the achievement of goal HR in group A was associated with a tendency to increased distance in the 6-min walk test from 279±19 to 341±21 m (р&amp;gt;0,05); in group B the distance increased from 243±25 to 319±29 m (р&amp;lt;0.05); and in group C the distance increased from 268±21 to 323±22 m (р&amp;lt;0.05). In the combination ivabradine and bisoprolol treatment group, results of the 24-h electrocardiogram monitoring showed a more pronounced anti-ischemic effect associated with a decrease in the number of myocardial ischemic episodes (p&amp;lt;0.05). QoL was evaluated with the Minnesota questionnaire against the background of treatment. At 12 weeks of observation, the total score decreased from 44.5±2.6 to 38.4±2.1 in group A; from 45±2.9 to 38±2.2 in group B; and from 50.9±3.2 to 42.7±2.8 in group C (р&amp;lt;0.05). The risk of acute MI and repeated hospitalization for CHF during the year of observation, as evaluated according to the Kaplan-Meier method, decreased in both bisoprolol and ivabradine combination treatment groups.Conclusion      The inclusion of bisoprolol and ivabradine into the background therapy of CHF-PEF patients with stable IHD provided an improvement of QoL and a decrease in the risk of hospitalization for acute MI and CHF during the year of observation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0959_12213", "title": "[Pharmacological therapy of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction].", "score": 0.015548567435359888, "content": "Pharmacological therapy of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction Abstract. Pharmacological therapy for heart failure has made great progress over the last three decades and evidence-based therapies have significantly improved survival and quality of life. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers and beta-blockers are the cornerstone of the heart failure therapy; indicated in virtually every patient with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction. As soon as the left ventricular ejection fraction decreases below 35 % and / or symptoms are still present (NYHA II-IV), a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist should be added. A rather recent addition to current heart failure therapy with convincing data is the substance combination sacubitril / valsartan. It is indicated for patients with persistent symptomatic heart failure despite optimal medical therapy with ACE inhibitors or ARBs, beta-blockers, and MRAs. Crucial for all mentioned substances is to aim for the maximal tolerated dose. Various additional therapies have no proven survival benefit but are important for symptom control in everyday life. Above all the diuretics, where loop diuretics show a better effect profile compared to thiazide diuretics. Furthermore, achieving an optimal iron status (the limit to start a substitution is significantly higher than in patients without heart failure), decreasing the heart frequency with Ivabradine (if heart rate persists above 70 / min despite fully dosed betablocker) and «lifestyle changes» can add to the success of the medical treatment. The importance of digoxin has been steadily decreasing. The previously advocated therapeutic anticoagulation in patients with severely reduced LVEF is not propagated anymore. Significant arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation and ventricular arrhythmias) are common in advanced diseases. In addition to beta-blockers, amiodarone is clearly the antiarrhythmic drug of choice. According to latest data, an early interventional treatment of atrial fibrillation by pulmonary vein ablation may be beneficial and has the potential to reduce mortality in special subgroups of patients. New developments in the field of antidiabetic drugs seem to be promising for reduction of mortality and hospitalization in patients with heart failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_6924", "title": "Pharmacologic therapy for patients with chronic heart failure and reduced systolic function: review of trials and practical considerations.", "score": 0.014681970349115257, "content": "Heart failure (HF) is a complex clinical syndrome resulting from any structural or functional cardiac disorder impairing the ability of the ventricles to fill with or eject blood. The approach to pharmacologic treatment has become a combined preventive and symptomatic management strategy. Ideally, treatment should be initiated in patients at risk, preventing disease progression. In patients who have progressed to symptomatic left ventricular dysfunction, certain therapies have been demonstrated to improve survival, decrease hospitalizations, and reduce symptoms. The mainstay therapies are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers (bisoprolol, carvedilol, and metoprolol XL/CR), with diuretics to control fluid balance. In patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors because of angioedema or severe cough, valsartan can be substituted. Valsartan should not be added in patients already taking an ACE inhibitor and a beta-blocker. Spironolactone is recommended in patients who have New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III to IV symptoms despite maximal therapies with ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, diuretics, and digoxin. Low-dose digoxin, yielding a serum concentration &lt;1 ng/mL can be added to improve symptoms and, possibly, mortality. The combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate might be useful in patients (especially in African Americans) who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or valsartan because of hypotension or renal dysfunction. Calcium antagonists, with the exception of amlodipine, oral or intravenous inotropes, and vasodilators, should be avoided in HF with reduced systolic function. Amiodarone should be used only if patients have a history of sudden death, or a history of ventricular fibrillation or sustained ventricular tachycardia, and should be used in conjunction with an implantable defibrillator [corrected]. Finally, anticoagulation is recommended only in patients who have concomitant atrial fibrillation or a previous history of cerebral or systemic emboli." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1093_21018", "title": "Ropinirole-Associated Orthostatic Hypotension as Cause of a Prescribing Cascade in an Elderly Man.", "score": 0.013936216688510267, "content": "Ropinirole is an overall well-tolerated antiparkinsonian medication that is also used to treat restless leg syndrome (RLS). The incidence of side effects is low, with orthostatic hypotension (OH) only anecdotally reported. Additionally, it is known that the elderly population is very susceptible to adverse drug effects and the prevalence of prescribing cascades that these can trigger is unknown. A 71-year-old male with history of atrial fibrillation, well-controlled diabetes on oral agents, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, ischemic heart failure status post (s/p) implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement with improved ejection fraction (EF), transient ischemic attack (TIA), rheumatoid arthritis, RLS, aortic stenosis s/p mechanical aortic valve replacement on anticoagulation, deep venous thrombosis (DVT), and right knee replacement, presented to the ED with generalized weakness, with difficulty standing from seated position, followed by a fall without head trauma. Over the eight months prior to this presentation, the patient had had similar symptoms that resulted in four falls, two hospital admissions, and new prescriptions of midodrine and compression stockings. On admission, vital signs were remarkable for positive orthostatics with blood pressure (BP) 110/74 mmHg, heart rate (HR) of 86 bpm in supine position and BP 87/51 mmHg, HR of 70 bpm while in standing position. Physical exam was unremarkable except for a known ejection murmur and dry oral mucous membranes. Labs included a creatinine 3.6 mg/dl, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 66 mg/dl, international normalized ration (INR) of 4.1, B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 313 pg/mL, troponin &lt;0.03 ng/mL. A kidney ultrasound was normal, and a transthoracic echocardiogram showed left ventricle ejection fraction (LVEF) of 55-65%, improved compared to a prior study. Furosemide, carvedilol and canagliflozin were discontinued and IV fluids were administered. In the subsequent days, his creatinine improved, and so did the patient's volume status, but he continued to be orthostatic despite midodrine and stockings. On further interview, the patient disclosed starting ropinirole 0.25 mg three times daily approximately 10 months prior to this admission, due to asymptomatic RLS that was reported in a sleep study. Decision was made to discontinue this medication, which resulted in improvement of symptoms. We were able to discontinue IV fluids, midodrine and stockings, and reintroduce carvedilol, furosemide and canagliflozin in a stepwise manner. In a follow-up visit one month after discharge, the patient was symptom-free. This case illustrates two major points. First, this prescribing cascade potentially induced by ropinirole, as well as the increase in health care costs associated to iatrogenic admissions, is major preventable problem faced mostly by the geriatric population. Second, although OH associated with ropinirole has only been reported in patients treated for Parkinson's disease, this side effect should be considered when prescribing ropinirole for other indications, with cautious assessment of risks and benefits. Further studies need to be conducted to establish the frequency of OH related to ropinirole." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_13360", "title": "The power of optimal medical therapy using angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor in acute decompensated heart failure, sparing a critical patient open-heart surgery with a device therapy: a case report.", "score": 0.013494505494505496, "content": "Timely use of Sacubitril/Valsartan has the potential to significantly improve cardiac function and dramatically reduce secondary mitral regurgitation (MR) severity even in patients presenting with acute decompensated heart failure (HF), not only in compensated chronic HF patients. The outstanding impact of echocardiography is obvious in monitoring improvement of cardiac function and MR severity in patients with HF with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). We report a relevant case of an elderly patient who presented with acute decompensated HF and severe MR. He was symptomatic despite being on maximally tolerated doses of ACEI, beta-blockers, and diuretics. Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) improved from 15% to 35% 2 weeks following initiation of Sacubitril/Valsartan during second HF hospitalization. There was a dramatic improvement of patient's symptoms from New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class IV to NYHA I. N-terminal pro B-type natriuretic peptide reduced from 9000 pg/mL to 800 pg/mL. Coronary angiography depicted three-vessel coronary artery disease. The patient was advised to undergo coronary artery bypass graft surgery with mitral valve repair, then followed by implantation of a cardiac resynchronization therapy-defibrillator device (CRT-D) if no LV function improvement is observed after revascularization. The electrocardiogram showed Q waves in inferior leads with QRSd ≥ 125 ms, hence a good candidate for CRT. Following an elective percutaneous coronary intervention, LVEF further improved to 50%. The patient became asymptomatic with preserved LVEF on follow-up for 18 months later. This case report documents the swift echocardiographic and symptom improvement in a decompensated end-stage HF patient when Sacubitril/Valsartan initiated during acute setting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0983_23100", "title": "Sacubitril/valsartan effect on left ventricular remodeling: the case of a super-responder.", "score": 0.012801932367149759, "content": "Sacubitril/valsartan has been shown to improve clinical outcomes in patients with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), but its effects on left ventricular (LV) systolic function and reverse remodeling parameters remain to be established. We hereby describe the case of a 41 year old man with HFrEF and severe reduction of left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF). The patient was first treated with triple HF therapy (beta-blocker, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor and mineralocorticoid antagonist), but after three months he was still symptomatic and with an LVEF firmly low. In consideration of poor response to therapy, we switched angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor to sacubitril/valsartan to the maximum tolerated dose (49/51 mg bid) with a marked improvement in LV systolic function and reduction in LV volumes at follow-up. In light of the almost normalized LVEF the patient was also removed from the list for the implantation of a cardiac resynchronization therapy defibrillator. In conclusion, our case showed a strong beneficial effect of sacubitril/valsartan on reverse remodeling and LVEF beyond the benefits of concomitant optimal medical therapy. This result is particular noteworthy because it was obtained although the patient wasn't able to reach the full dose of the drug. Physicians should always consider this drug effect when more demanding therapeutic strategies are needed for their HF patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0882_13342", "title": "Current treatment of heart failure with reduction of left ventricular ejection fraction.", "score": 0.011860897638347896, "content": "Heart failure is the commonest cause of hospitalization and of rehospitalization This review paper is a comprehensive review of current treatment of heart failure in 2016. The target of this review is all health care professionals who treat patients with heart failure. Areas covered: This article discusses stages of heart failure, treatment of heart failure with general measures, and drug therapy with diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, aldosterone antagonists, isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine, digoxin, other neurohormonal antagonists, sacubitril/valsartan, calcium channel blockers, and ivabradine. This article also discusses treatment of heart failure with use of cardiac resynchronization therapy, implantable cardioverter-defibrillators, and surgical therapy, and management of end-stage heart failure. This paper was written after an extensive Medline search reviewing articles written from 1970 through May, 2016. Expert commentary: Our approach as physicians must emphasize prevention of heart failure as well as treating it. Risk factors for developing heart failure, especially hypertension, must be better controlled starting in childhood. I concur with the current heart failure treatment guidelines (Tables 1 and 2 in this paper)." }, { "id": "article-24161_14", "title": "Left Ventricular Failure -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.01135522664199815, "content": "Treating the underlying cause is of extreme importance as some heart failure conditions may be reversible when the precipitating factors are addressed, like cardiomyopathies induced by alcohol, tachycardia or ischemia. Tight control of blood pressure will also help prevent further deterioration. [15] Besides loop diuretics for volume overload, the pharmacologic treatment differs between HFrEF and HFpEF [16] [17] [18] : -For HFrEF, the mainstay of treatment is the combination of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) with a beta blocker (carvedilol, metoprolol or bisoprolol). If the patient remains symptomatic on a maximal dose of ACE inhibitor or ARB, an angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor may be substituted. Other medications include hydralazine, nitrates, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists such as spironolactone, ivabradine, and digoxin (as a last resort). Nitrates in combination with hydralazine may be especially efficacious in African American patients. Digoxin, ivabradine and the diuretics have not been shown to offer any mortality benefit." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_1325", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.010560504825538233, "content": "Candesartan, valsartan, many other ARBs: Like losartan Chronic heart failure: To slow failure • many other indications in Chapter 10 Oral • duration 10–12 h • Toxicity: Bronchospasm, bradycardia, atrioventricular block, acute • Metoprolol, bisoprolol, nebivolol: Select group of b blockers that have been shown to reduce heart failure mortality •Digoxin(otherglycosides are used outside the USA) Na+/K+-ATPase inhibition results in reduced Ca2+ expulsion and increased Ca2+ stored in sarcoplasmic reticulum Increases cardiac contractility •cardiacparasympathomimeticeffect (slowed sinus heart rate, slowed atrioventricular conduction) Chronic symptomatic heart failure•rapidventricularrateinatrialfibrillation•hasnotbeen shown to reduce mortality but does reduce rehospitalization Oral,parenteral•duration36–40h•Toxicity: Nausea, vomiting,diarrhea•cardiacarrhythmias CARDIAC GLYCOSIDE Enalapril Generic, Vasotec, Vasotec I.V. Fosinopril Generic, Monopril Lisinopril Generic, Prinivil, Zestril" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en369_3292", "title": "Sacubitril/valsartan", "score": 0.010269502457002457, "content": "Research The PARADIGM-HF trial (in which Milton Packer was one of the principal investigators) compared treatment with sacubitril/valsartan to treatment with enalapril. People with heart failure and reduced LVEF (10,513) were sequentially treated on a short-term basis with enalapril and then with sacubitril/valsartan. Those that were able to tolerate both regimens (8442, 80%) were randomly assigned to long-term treatment with either enalapril or sacubitril/valsartan. Participants were mainly white (66%), male (78%), middle aged (median 63.8 +/- 11 years) with NYHA stage II (71.6%) or stage III (23.1%) heart failure." }, { "id": "article-29371_2", "title": "Spironolactone -- Indications", "score": 0.010137666229631016, "content": "Spironolactone has indications in both certain cardiovascular diseases and non-cardiovascular disease entities. Spironolactone is FDA approved for the treatment of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), resistant hypertension, primary hyperaldosteronism, edema secondary to cirrhosis, edema secondary to a nephrotic syndrome that is not adequately controlled using alternative therapies, and hypokalemia. The Randomized Aldactone Evaluation Study (RALES) was a landmark trial that used spironolactone in New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III-IV HFrEF patients with an ejection fraction less than 35%, and the trial was stopped early due to but not limited to positive findings including a 30% relative risk reduction in all-cause mortality. [1] In the 2017 American College of Cardiology heart failure guidelines, spironolactone is indicated in NYHA class II-IV HFrEF patients who have a creatinine clearance greater than 30 mL/min and a serum potassium level less than 5 mEq/L, and the guidelines also mention that select heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) patients may benefit from spironolactone use to help in reducing the number of hospitalizations. [2] There is some evidence that spironolactone may reduce myocardial fibrosis, reduce left ventricular mass, and decrease the amount of extracellular volume expansion in HFpEF patients. [3] This medication is not yet generally recommended for end-stage renal disease patients either on or not on dialysis; even though more large randomized controlled trials are needed, some reports do suggest that it would be well tolerated in chronic kidney disease patients if clinicians carefully manage the risk of hyperkalemia. [4] [5] The definition of resistant hypertension is elevated blood pressure above the goal despite a patient being on optimal doses of three different antihypertensive agents of which one is a diuretic is another condition for which clinicians can prescribe spironolactone. The typical triple antihypertensive regimen in these patients is a thiazide diuretic, calcium channel blocker, and wither an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or an aldosterone receptor antagonist. Researchers tested low dose spironolactone as an agent added on in both White race and African American patients with resistant hypertension with and without primary hyperaldosteronism, and results showed it to help lower blood pressure when added to these patients' multidrug antihypertensive regimens. [6] Spironolactone was also tested against bisoprolol and doxazosin to determine which of the three was the most effective fourth agent for treating resistant hypertension, and research showed spironolactone to be superior to the other two in reducing systolic home blood pressure in these patients. [7] A study tested spironolactone against clonidine as the fourth agent in treating resistant hypertension and found to be non-inferior base on the primary endpoints of the trial and preferable to clonidine based on secondary endpoints of 24-hour systolic and diastolic blood pressure as well as diastolic daytime ambulatory blood pressure being lowered greater by spironolactone than by clonidine. [8] Spironolactone is considered the main option for the treatment of ascites in cirrhosis after the dietary salt restriction is not sufficient. [9] The typical starting dose ratio of oral furosemide to spironolactone is 40 mg to 100 mg, respectively. A study in children with severe edema secondary to nephrotic syndrome showed that oral spironolactone in conjunction with intravenous furosemide was safe and helpful in treating these children who had edema with volume expansion. [10] Spironolactone was studied concurrently with metolazone in patients with cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome and found to be effective adjunctively, and it mitigated the hypokalemia associated with metolazone use. [11]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_66473", "title": "Heart failure", "score": 0.009940036900369004, "content": "In people with symptomatic heart failure with markedly reduced ejection fraction (anyone with an ejection fraction of 35% or lower or less than 40% if following a heart attack), the use of an mineralocorticoid antagonist, such as spironolactone or eplerenone, in addition to beta blockers and ACE-I (once titrated to the target dose or maximum tolerated dose), can improve symptoms and reduce mortality. Sacubitril/valsartan should be used in those who still have symptoms while on an ACE-I or ARB, beta blocker, and a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist as it reduces the risks of cardiovascular mortality and hospitalisation for heart failure by a further 4.7% (absolute risk reduction). However, the use of this combination agent requires the cessation of ACE-i or ARB therapy 48 hours before its initiation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0937_1691", "title": "Adoption of Sacubitril/Valsartan for the Management of Patients With Heart Failure.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The US Food and Drug Administration approved the use of sacubitril/valsartan in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction in July 2015. We aimed to assess the adoption and prescription drug costs of sacubitril/valsartan in its first 18 months after Food and Drug Administration approval. Using a large US insurance database, we identified privately insured and Medicare Advantage beneficiaries who filled a first prescription for sacubitril/valsartan between July 1, 2015, and December 31, 2016. We compared them to patients treated with an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Outcomes included adoption, prescription drug costs, and 180-day adherence, defined as a proportion of days covered ≥80%. A total of 2244 patients initiated sacubitril/valsartan. Although the number of users increased over time, the proportion of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction patients taking sacubitril/valsartan remained low (&lt;3%). Patients prescribed sacubitril/valsartan were younger, more often male, with less comorbidity than those taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor/angiotensin receptor blocker. Although a majority of prescription costs were covered by the health plan (mean, $328.37; median, $362.44 per 30-day prescription), out-of-pocket costs were still high (mean, $71.16; median, $40.27). By comparison, median out-of-pocket costs were $2 to $3 for lisinopril, losartan, carvedilol, and spironolactone. Overall, 59.1% of patients were adherent to sacubitril/valsartan. Refill patterns suggested that nearly half of nonadherent patients discontinued sacubitril/valsartan within 180 days of starting. Adoption of sacubitril/valsartan after Food and Drug Administration approval has been slow and may be associated with the high cost." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0734_24998", "title": "Recent developments in the management of heart failure.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The typical presentation of heart failure in primary care is insidious, with progressive breathlessness on exertion, ankle swelling, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Not all patients will have all these symptoms, and in many patients there may be other causes. If a GP suspects heart failure, then the key blood test is B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP). If the BNP is normal then heart failure is unlikely and other diagnoses should be considered. If it is raised, or if there is a past history of myocardial infarction, the patient requires further assessment, which must include echocardiography and a specialist assessment. The underlying cardiac abnormality should be identified. An ECG is often very useful and if it is completely normal it makes heart failure less likely. Both the NICE and the ESC guidance emphasise the importance of lifestyle management (regular appropriate exercise, avoiding excessive salt and alcohol consumption). ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin receptor blockers) and beta-blockers licensed for heart failure (carvedilol, bisoprolol, nebivolol) remain the mainstay of treatment in addition to as small a dose of diuretic as possible to control any fluid retention. Aldosterone antagonism is recommended by the 2012 ESC guidance for all patients who remain symptomatic despite an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. If the rhythm is sinus but the heart rate is 75 beats per minute, therapy needs to be optimised, perhaps by increasing the beta-blocker dose, if possible, or by the addition of ivabradine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0886_5034", "title": "Rhabdomyolysis After Coadministration of Atorvastatin and Sacubitril/Valsartan (Entresto™) in a 63-Year-Old Woman.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 63-year-old woman previously stable on a regimen of atorvastatin 40 mg daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, digoxin 0.125 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, spironolactone 25 mg daily, rivaroxaban 15 mg daily, and enalapril 20 mg twice daily for heart failure developed rhabdomyolysis 26 days after enalapril was stopped and sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto™) started. The patient received sacubitril/valsartan at 24/26 mg twice daily for heart failure; however, after 26 days she developed muscle and skin pain. Investigations revealed elevated creatine kinase and liver function tests, and rhabdomyolysis with raised transaminases was diagnosed. Sacubitril/valsartan and atorvastatin were discontinued and the patient was hydrated. She returned to baseline in 23 days and has not had any reoccurrence of rhabdomyolysis and elevated transaminases for 46 days. A Naranjo assessment score of 5 was obtained, indicating a probable relationship between the patient's rhabdomyolysis and her use of sacubitril/valsartan. The Drug Interaction Probability Scale score was 3, consistent with a possible interaction as a cause for the reaction, with sacubitril/valsartan as the precipitant drug and atorvastatin as the object drug." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0818_4900", "title": "Nemaline myopathy and heart failure: role of ivabradine; a case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Nemaline myopathy (NM) is a rare congenital myopathy characterized by muscle weakness, hypotonia and the presence in muscle fibers of inclusions known as nemaline bodies and a wide spectrum of clinical phenotypes, ranging from severe forms with neonatal onset to asymptomatic forms. The adult-onset form is heterogeneous in terms of clinical presentation and disease progression. Cardiac involvement occurs in the minority of cases and little is known about medical management in this subgroup of NM patients. We report a rare case of heart failure (HF) in a patient with adult-onset NM in whom ivabradine proved to be able to dramatically improve the clinical picture. We report a case of a 37-year-old man with adult-onset NM, presenting with weakness and hypotonia of the proximal limb muscles and shoulder girdle, severely limiting daily activities. He developed progressive HF over a period of 6 months while attending a rehabilitation program, with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF = 20%), manifested by dyspnea and signs of systemic congestion. The patient was started HF therapy with enalapril, carvedilol, spironolactone and loop diuretics. Target HF doses of these drugs (including carvedilol) were not reached because of symptomatic hypotension causing a high resting heart rate (HR) ≥70 beats per minute (bpm). Further deterioration of the clinical picture occurred with several life-threatening arrhythmic episodes requiring external defibrillation. An implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) was then implanted. Persistent high resting HR was successfully treated with ivabradine with HR lowering from 90 bpm to 55 bpm at 1 month follow up, LVEF rising to 50% at 3 month follow up and to 54% at 2,5 year follow up. To date no more hospitalizations for heart failure occurred. A single hospitalization due to aspiration pneumonia required insertion of a tracheostomy tube to protect airways from further aspiration. At present, the patient is attending a regular rehabilitation program with net improvement in neuromotor control and less limitations in daily activities. HF is a rare feature of NM, but it can negatively influence prognosis. Conventional HF therapy and/or heart transplant are the only reasonable strategy in these patients. Ivabradine is a useful, effective and safe drug for therapy in NM patients with HF and should be considered when resting HR remains high despite beta-blockers' full titration or beta-blockers' underdosing due to intolerance or side effects." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_18275", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009573351984612694, "content": "Ivabradine, an inhibitor of the If current in the sinoatrial node, slows the heart rate without a negative inotropic effect. The Systolic Heart Failure Treatment with Ivabradine Compared with Placebo Trial (SHIFT) was conducted in patients with class II or III HFrEF, a heart rate >70 beats/min, and history of hospitalization for heart failure during the previous year. Ivabradine reduced hospitalizations and the combined endpoint of cardiovascular-related death and heart failure hospitalization. The study population was not necessarily representative of North American patients with HFrEF since, with a few exceptions, most did not receive internal cardioverter-defibrillation or cardiac resynchronization therapy and 40% did not receive a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist. Although 90% received beta blockers, only a quarter were on full doses. Whether this agent, now available outside the United States, would have been effective in patients receiving robust, guideline-recommended" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1043_22332", "title": "Sacubitril/valsartan use in a real-world population of patients with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Practice guidelines recommend sacubitril/valsartan for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. The aim of our study was to describe the use of sacubitril/valsartan in real-world clinical practice to help identify patients best able to tolerate titration to higher doses. We retrospectively analyzed clinical data for 201 patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction prescribed sacubitril/valsartan at our heart failure clinic (Centro Cardiologico Monzino) between September 2016/December 2018. Patients had a mean age of 67.2 years, mean left ventricular ejection fraction of 30.1%, New York Heart Association class II (65%), class III (35%), and poor cardiopulmonary exercise capacity. Median 2-year risk of death/urgent cardiac transplantation was 8.9% [Metabolic Exercise Cardiac Kidney Index (MECKI) score]. After a median follow-up of 230 (interquartile interval: 105-366) days, 57 patients achieved higher-dose sacubitril/valsartan, 103 tolerated medium/low doses, nine died, and 20 interrupted treatment. The highest dose of sacubitril/valsartan was reached by younger patients with better hemoglobin (Hb) levels, renal function, and blood pressure (BP). Patients continuing on sacubitril/valsartan had significantly higher serum Hb and sodium, better BP, and lower MECKI scores than patients who discontinued treatment or died during follow-up. Our patients were older and frailer than those in the pivotal PARADIGM-HF trial. In our experience, more than one-third of the patients were able to tolerate the higher dose of sacubitril/valsartan, and these patients were younger, had higher Hb, and better BP and renal function. MECKI score stratification was useful to discriminate patients who continued treatment from those who did not. Future prospective studies should test if these clinical variables can guide the up-titration of sacubitril/valsartan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_468", "title": "The management of heart failure--an overview.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "National and international societies have issued guidelines on the management of heart failure: The European Society of Cardiology, WHO, ACC/AHA Task Force Report, US Department of Health and Human Services, German Society of Cardiology. The therapeutic approaches to heart failure have undergone considerable changes during the last few years. The guidelines have to be updated almost yearly due to new results from prospective randomized studies. Although an agreement could be reached with respect to general measures and drug treatment, no agreement on mechanical devices, pacemakers and surgical interventions has been reached. The basis for medical treatment of chronic heart failure depends on diuretics, digitalis, ACE inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Calcium antagonists and other positive inotropic drugs, other than digitalis, should be avoided as far as possible. Thiazides, loop diuretics and aldosterone antagonists are needed for acute and chronic treatment of heart failure, alone or in combination (diuretic resistant heart failure!). Digitalis glycosides are needed in patients with atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate or atrial flutter and in patients with systolic dysfunction, large hearts and symptomatic failure class NYHA III and IV. However, digitalis does not convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm. Today there is no question that ACE inhibitors improve the prognosis of all patients with heart failure in all stages, if ejection fraction is reduced. Therefore, most patients after myocardial infarction or after having experienced pump failure due to myocarditis or cardiomyopathy are treated with ACE inhibitors and diuretics. The beneficial effects of ACE inhibitors seem to be most pronounced the worse the situation is. Relative risk reductions (mortality!) between 10% and 40% have been published depending on the severity of symptomatic left ventricular dysfunction. Those patients with high absolute risk have more to gain than those with low risk for any given \"risk reduction\", of course. Recent studies also indicate that most high risk cardiac patients profit from ACE inhibitors even if pump function is normal (i.e., patients with coronary heart disease, diabetes mellitus, cerebral vascular disease, hypertension) (15). AT1 antagonists can substitute for ACE inhibitors, if the latter are not tolerated due to cough. Up to now, beta-blocking agents apart from diuretics seem to be the best investigated drugs in heart failure. Large controlled studies with bisoprolol, carvedilol and metoprolol in addition to diuretics, digitalis and ACE inhibitors convincingly yielded positive results in chronic left ventricular failure patients. Reduction of mortality by 35% and even of sudden cardiac deaths by 40% have been proven beyond doubt. Thus, heart failure patients today should also receive beta-blocking agents in all stages of the disease. In the era of controlled prospective studies (evidence-based medicine), physicians are well advised to use only drugs that have been proven beneficial in large controlled studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1039_21255", "title": "Pharmacist- or Nurse Practitioner-Led Assessment and Titration of Sacubitril/Valsartan in a Heart Failure Clinic: A Cohort Study.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Sacubitril/valsartan is a first-in-class angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor indicated in the management of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, based on the results of the PARADIGM-HF trial. Practice-based studies are needed to validate its effect in real-world settings. Clinical pharmacists are ideally situated to assess and titrate sacubitril/valsartan. To evaluate the utilization, safety, and tolerability of sacubitril/valsartan in a multidisciplinary heart failure clinic, with assessment and titration by a clinical pharmacist or a nurse practitioner. A retrospective cohort study was conducted at a heart failure clinic in Abbotsford, Canada. Included were adult patients with heart failure who were currently or formerly taking sacubitril/valsartan. Data collected for the period October 2015 to February 2019 included patient characteristics, New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, concurrent medications, sacubitril/valsartan dose, adverse effects, and discontinuation rate. In total, 128 patients were included. Mean age was 70.1 years, 98 (77%) of the patients were men, and 79 (62%) had NYHA class 2 heart failure. The clinical pharmacist managed care for 78 (61%) of the patients, and the nurse practitioner managed care for 50 (39%). Forty-one (32%) of the patients met modified PARADIGM-HF inclusion criteria. Eighty-five (66%) of the patients achieved the target dose of sacubitril/valsartan, with similar proportions for the clinical pharmacist and nurse practitioner groups, over a mean of 2.2 clinic visits. Patients who achieved the sacubitril/valsartan target dose, relative to those who did not, were significantly younger and had higher mean systolic blood pressure at baseline. Twenty-nine percent of patients (35/119) had an improvement in NYHA classification from before initiation of sacubitril/valsartan to achievement of target or maximally tolerated dose. Eighty-five (66%) of the patients experienced an adverse effect, primarily hypotension, and 12 (9%) required a dose reduction. Only 9 (7%) patients discontinued therapy. This study demonstrates the real-world safety and tolerability of sacubitril/valsartan in the treatment of heart failure, and reinforces that clinical pharmacists can effectively assess and titrate medications in a multidisciplinary heart failure clinic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_18330", "title": "Stable patient with heart failure - the fact or the myth?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A treated patient with heart failure (HF), whose signs and symptoms have remained generally unchanged for at least 1 month is said to be 'stable'. Majority of patients with heart failure who are properly treated complain of slight symptoms described as functional class I and II NYHA. There is a belief that oligosymptomatic patients with heart failure have a good prognosis. Nevertheless, results of registries and randomized trials (e.g. ESC-HF-LT-R, CHARM, EMPHASIS-HF, PARADIGM-HF) disclosed that there is high risk of death and hospitalization for heart failure. Consequently, risk of every patient with heart failure should be evaluated with the use of validated scales - for example MAGGIC. Even in mild symptoms, remodeling of a left ventricle and dysfunction of the heart is progressing. It was revealed in the TRED-HF trial that withdrawal of guideline-directed medical therapy causes deterioration of clinical state in patients who were devoid of HF symptoms and presented improvement of echocardiographic parameters (left ventricle ejection fraction, left ventricle end diastolic volume) and laboratory parameters (N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide). This fact indicates that a chronic therapy in HF is necessary even in a situation where symptoms disappear, and heart function normalizes. An analysis of QUALIFY and ESC-HF-LT-R registries revealed that minority of patients with HF are treated according to current guidelines and doses of medications are not optimized. This management leads to deterioration of patient's prognosis. In addition to standard therapies (beta blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists, ivabradine), novel drugs (e.g. sacubitril/valsartan) and individualized medical procedures should be applied in therapy." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19588", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009407407407407408, "content": "Diuretics Thiazides Hydrochlorothiazide 6.25–50 mg (1–2) Diabetes, dyslipidemia, hyperuricemia, gout, hypokalemia Chlorthalidone 25–50 mg (1) Loop diuretics Furosemide 40–80 mg (2–3) CHF due to systolic dysfunc-Diabetes, dyslipidemia, hypertion, renal failure uricemia, gout, hypokalemia Aldosterone antagonists Spironolactone 25–100 mg (1–2) CHF due to systolic dysfunc-Renal failure, hyperkalemia tion, primary aldosteronism Renal failure, hyperkalemia Triamterene 50–100 mg (1–2) Beta blockers Asthma, COPD, 2ndor 3rd-degree heart block, sick- Cardioselective Atenolol 25–100 mg (1) Angina, CHF due to systolic sinus syndrome dysfunction, post-MI, sinus tachycardia, ventricular tachyarrhythmias Metoprolol 25–100 mg (1–2) Nonselective Propranolol 40–160 mg (2) Propranolol LA 60–180 (1) Combined alpha/beta Labetalol 200–800 mg (2) ?Post-MI, CHF Carvedilol 12.5–50 mg (2) Alpha antagonists" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_19051", "title": "The Effect of Sacubitril/Valsartan Treatment on Cardiac and Renal Functions of a Patient With Cardiorenal Syndrome Type 4 and Stage 5 CKD After More Than Three Years of Follow-Up.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "It is difficult to treat cardiorenal syndrome (CRS) in clinical practice, which is the common reason for the death of patients. This report aimed to describe the effects of sacubitril/valsartan treatment on cardiac and renal functions of a patient with cardiorenal syndrome type 4 (CRS4) after more than 3 years of follow-up. A 77-year-old Chinese woman was admitted to our hospital because of CRS4 and stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), who had a history of long-term proteinuria and renal failure. The patient's cardiothoracic ratio (CTR) measured by chest X-ray was 0.6. Cardiac ultrasonography showed that the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) was 0.40. The patient had been treated for heart failure (HF) for 5 months, but there was no improvement in clinical manifestations, and the renal function gradually deteriorated. In our hospital, she received sacubitril/valsartan treatment for at least 40 months. The symptoms of HF relieved, and the indices of cardiac function improved. In addition, the patient's renal function was stable. During the treatment, the dosage of sacubitril/valsartan needed to be adjusted to achieve the optimal therapeutic effect. Follow-up results showed that she achieved cardiac function of New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II with an ejection fraction of 0.60 and E/A &gt; 1 indicated by echocardiogram, and did not develop hyperkalemia. In summary, the improvement of cardiac and renal functions of the CRS4 patient was associated with the long-term sacubitril/valsartan treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_10801", "title": "Left ventricular diastolic heart failure with normal left ventricular systolic function in older persons.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Underlying causes and precipitating causes of congestive heart failure (CHF) should be treated when possible. Older persons with CHF and normal left ventricular (LV) ejection fraction should have maintenance of sinus rhythm, treatment of hypertension and myocardial ischemia, slowing of the ventricular rate below 90 beats/minute, and reduction of salt overload. First-line drug treatment in the management of these persons is the use of loop diuretics combined with beta blockers as tolerated. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be administered if CHF persists despite diuretics and beta blockers. If persons are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors because of cough, rash, or altered taste sensation, angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists should be given. If CHF persists despite diuretics, beta blockers, and ACE inhibitors or the person is unable to tolerate beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, and angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists, isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine should be administered. Calcium channel blockers should be used if CHF persists despite administration of diuretics and the person is unable to tolerate beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists, and isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine. Digoxin, beta blockers, verapamil, and diltiazem may be used to slow a rapid ventricular rate in persons with supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Digoxin should not be used in persons with CHF in sinus rhythm with normal LV ejection fraction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1005_14716", "title": "Optimizing heart failure treatment following cardiac resynchronization therapy.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Device therapy in addition to medical treatment improves prognosis in a subset of patients with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction. However, some patients remain symptomatic or their heart failure even progresses despite cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT). The aim of the study was to evaluate the proportion of patients who could benefit from optimization of medical therapy using sacubitril/valsartan, ivabradine, or both following CRT implantation. We conducted a post hoc analysis of a single-centre, patient and outcome-assessor blinded, randomized-controlled trial, in which patients scheduled for CRT were randomized to empiric (n = 93) or imaging-guided left-ventricular lead placement (n = 89). All patients underwent clinical evaluation and blood sampling at baseline and 6 months following CRT implantation. The proportion of patients meeting the indication for sacubitril/valsartan (irrespective of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin 2 receptor blocker dosage) and/or ivabradine according to current guidelines was evaluated at baseline and after 6 months. Of 182 patients with an indication for CRT, 146 (80%) also had an indication for optimization of medical therapy at baseline by adding sacubitril/valsartan, ivabradine, or both. Of the 179 survivors at 6 months, 136 (76%) were still symptomatic after device implantation; of these, 51 (38%) patients had an indication for optimization of medical therapy: sacubitril/valsartan in 37 (27%), ivabradine in 7 (5%), and both drugs in 7 (5%) patients. Seven (18%) patients without indication at baseline developed an indication for medical optimization 6 months after CRT implantation. In the present study, 38% of those who remained symptomatic 6 months after CRT implantation were eligible for optimization of medical therapy with sacubitril/valsartan, ivabradine, or both. Patients with CRT may benefit from systematic follow-up including evaluation of medical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0543_12562", "title": "[Contemporary approaches to the treatment of chronic heart failure in adults (after materials of recommendations of American College of Cardiology and American Heart Association, 2005)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Detailed and critical analysis of a novel version of the \"Updated Guideline for the Diagnosis and Management of Chronic Heart Failure (CHF) in the Adult\" prepared by experts of American College of Cardiology and American Heart Association is given. The novel version contains somewhat modified recommendations on the management of patients with CHF. In particular this relates to the place of various classes of drugs in the treatment of CHF due to systolic left ventricular dysfunction. For the first time recommendations on the treatment of patients with CHF and normal left ventricular ejection fraction are presented in detail. Among statements of the updated guideline the following are considered controversial or deserving special discussion. Perindopril is mentioned among recommended ACE inhibitors despite the fact that it has never been studied in long term trials. Results of SENIORS trial are ignored and nebivolol is not included in the number of beta-blockers with proven efficacy. Despite multiple proofs of beneficial effects of aldosterone receptor blockers on clinical course of CHF wide use of spironolactone and eplerenone is not recommended because of multiple communications about life threatening hyperkalemia. Inherent dangers of digoxin therapy are disregarded and the use of cardiac glycosides in patients with sinus rhythm is not prohibited." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_21452", "title": "Combination of ivabradine and sacubitril/valsartan in patients with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Ivabradine and sacubitril/valsartan are second-line therapies for patients with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) based on guideline recommendations. We aimed to evaluate the synergistic effects of these two medications. Patients' data were extracted from a multicentre database between 2016 and 2018. Patients were classified into (1) Simultaneous group: simultaneous prescription of ivabradine and sacubitril/valsartan within 6 weeks; (2A) Sequential group, ivabradine-first: ivabradine was prescribed first, followed by sacubitril/valsartan; and (2B) Sequential group, sacubitril/valsartan-first: sacubitril/valsartan was prescribed first, followed by ivabradine. A total of 464 patients with HFrEF were enrolled. Cardiovascular death and/or unplanned re-hospitalizations for HF were less frequent (28.6% vs. 44.8%, P = 0.01), and the improvement of left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) was significantly greater in patients from the Simultaneous group than those from the Sequential group (∆LVEF 12.8 ± 12.9% vs. 9.3 ± 12.6%, P = 0.007). Among Sequential subgroups, the ivabradine-first treatment decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure (SBP) compared with sacubitril/valsartan-first treatment (∆heart rate -9.1 ± 12.9 b.p.m. vs. 2.6 ± 16.0 b.p.m., P &lt; 0.001; ∆SBP 4.6 ± 16.5 mmHg vs. -4.8 ± 17.2 mmHg, P &lt; 0.001), whereas sacubitril/valsartan-first treatment showed a higher degree of LVEF improvement (∆LVEF 3.6 ± 7.8% vs. 0.7 ± 7.7%, P = 0.002) than ivabradine-first treatment. At the end of follow-up, SBP, LVEF, and left ventricular volume were comparable between two Sequential subgroups. Among patients with HFrEF, simultaneous rather than sequential treatment with sacubitril/valsartan and ivabradine was a better strategy to reduce adverse events and achieve left ventricular reverse remodelling. Ivabradine treatment had a more significant benefit on improving haemodynamic stability, whereas sacubitril/valsartan treatment showed a more significant effect on improving LVEF." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0580_17386", "title": "Treatment of heart failure with decreased left ventricular ejection fraction.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Class I recommendations for treating patients with current or prior symptoms of heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) include using diuretics and salt restriction in individuals with fluid retention. Use angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, beta blockers, and angiotensin II receptor blockers if intolerant to ACE inhibitors because of cough or angioneurotic edema. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, most antiarrhythmic drugs, and calcium channel blockers should be avoided or withdrawn. Exercise training is recommended. Implant cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is recommended in individuals with a history of cardiac arrest, ventricular fibrillation, or hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia. ICD is indicated in patients with ischemic heart disease for at least 40 d post-myocardial infarction or nonischemic cardiomyopathy, an LVEF of 30% or less, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II or III symptoms on optimal medical therapy, and an expectation of survival of at least 1 yr. Cardiac resynchronization therapy should be used in individuals with an LVEF of 35% or below, NYHA class III or IV symptoms despite optimal therapy, and a QRS duration greater than 120 ms. An aldosterone antagonist can be added in selected patients with moderately severe to severe symptoms of heart failure who can be carefully monitored for renal function and potassium concentration (serum creatinine should be &lt;or=2.5 mg/dL in men and &lt;or=2.0 mg/dL in women; serum potassium should be &lt;5.0 mEq/L)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1104_23572", "title": "Impact of sacubitril/valsartan on implantable defibrillator eligibility in heart failure: a real-world experience.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Current guidelines recommend an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) in patients with symptomatic heart failure and reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF; left ventricular ejection fraction [LVEF] ≤35%) despite ≥3 months of optimal medical therapy. Recent observations demonstrated that sacubitril/valsartan induces beneficial reverse cardiac remodeling in eligible HFrEF patients. Given the pivotal role of LVEF in the selection of ICD candidates, we sought to assess the impact of sacubitril/valsartan on ICD eligibility and its predictors in HFrEF patients. We retrospectively evaluated 48 chronic HFrEF patients receiving sacubitril/valsartan and previously implanted with an ICD in primary prevention. We assumed that ICD was no longer necessary if LVEF improved &gt;35% (or &gt;30% if asymptomatics) at follow-up. Over a median follow-up of 11 months, sacubitril/valsartan induced a significant drop in LV end-systolic volume (-16.7 ml/m2, p=0.023) and diameter (-6.8 mm, p=0.022), resulting in a significant increase in LVEF (+3.9%, p&lt;0.001). As a consequence, 40% of previously implanted patients resulted no more eligible for ICD at follow-up. NYHA class improved in 50% of the population. A dose-dependent effect was noted, with higher doses associated to more reverse remodeling. Among patients deemed no more eligible for ICD, lower NYHA class (odds ratio (OR) 3.73 [95% CI 1.05; 13.24], p=0.041), better LVEF (OR 1.23 [95% CI 1.01; 1.48], p=0.032) and the treatment with the intermediate or high dose of sacubitril/valsartan (OR 5.60 [1.15; 27.1], p=0.032) were the most important predictors of status change. In symptomatic HFrEF patients, sacubitril/valsartan induced beneficial cardiac reverse remodeling and improved NYHA class. These effects resulted in a significant reduction of patients deemed eligible for ICD in primary prevention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0584_10591", "title": "Treatment of heart failure with normal left ventricular ejection fraction.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Underlying causes and precipitating causes of heart failure (HF) should be treated when possible. Persons with HF and normal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) should have maintenance of sinus rhythm, treatment of hypertension, myocardial ischemia, dyslipidemia, and anemia, slowing of the ventricular rate below 90 bpm, and reduction of salt overload. First-line drug treatment in the management of these persons is the use of loop diuretics combined with beta blockers and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. If persons are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors because of cough, angioneurotic edema, rash, or altered taste sensation, angiotensin II type I receptor antagonists (ARBs) should be given. If HF persists despite diuretics, beta blockers, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs, isosorbide dinitrate plus hydralazine should be administered. Beta blockers, verapamil, diltiazem, and digoxin may be used to slow a rapid ventricular rate in persons with supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Digoxin should not be used in persons with HF in sinus rhythm with normal LVEF. Exercise training should be encouraged in persons with mild to moderate HF to improve functional status and to decrease symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0990_2588", "title": "Early Experience With Sacubitril/Valsartan in Adult Patients With Congenital Heart Disease.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Heart failure (HF) is the leading cause of hospitalizations and death in patients with adult congenital heart disease (ACHD). Sacubitril/valsartan is a new agent in the treatment of HF, but its effects have not been assessed in ACHD. We retrospectively studied all 15 patients with ACHD at our center who were prescribed sacubitril/valsartan between June 2017 and June 2018. We assessed baseline characteristics and clinical and laboratory changes after initiation of sacubitril/valsartan. Adverse events, including renal function, medication intolerance, and worsening HF were documented. The median age was 53.2 (27.6-83.6) years, with a median follow-up duration of 69 (8-419) days. At baseline, all patients had refractory HF despite guideline-directed medical therapy, with ten (67%) patients as New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II, and five (33%) patients NYHA class III. The medication was discontinued in one (7%) patient secondary to worsening kidney function. No patients reported clinical deterioration; four NYHA class III patients with complex CHD, pulmonary hypertension, and cyanosis reported significant improvement to NYHA class II. Baseline creatinine was 1.1 (0.9-1.7) and two weeks after starting sacubitril/valsartan it was 1.3 (0.8-2.5, P = .22). Sacubitril/valsartan seems to be well tolerated in patients with ACHD who present with refractory HF symptoms. Patients with complex CHD associated with cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension could benefit the most, but larger studies are needed to assess the safety as well as the effectiveness of sacubitril/valsartan in this patient population." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 504 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 82 ] ], "text": "The Rosenthal fibers may confuse us as they are not very specific, and make us think, for example, of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in which they can also be found, but the cell morphology described (long and thin cytoplasmic processes, which are the ones that give the name \"pilocytic\") keeps us the first option as the correct one." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 504 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 82 ] ], "text": "The Rosenthal fibers may confuse us as they are not very specific, and make us think, for example, of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in which they can also be found, but the cell morphology described (long and thin cytoplasmic processes, which are the ones that give the name \"pilocytic\") keeps us the first option as the correct one." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Pilocytic astrocytoma.", "2": "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.", "3": "Central neurocytoma.", "4": "Liponeurocytoma.", "5": "Prion disease." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0708_3570", "title": "Hemorrhagic onset of cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma in an adult: a case report and review of the literature implying a possible relation of degenerative vascular changes to the massive intratumoral hemorrhage.", "score": 0.0196078431372549, "content": "Pilocytic astrocytoma (PA) is a low-grade astrocytic tumor arising predominantly during the first two decades of life. Hemorrhagic onset of PAs is uncommon, and the etiology of hemorrhage remains unclear. Here we report a case of hemorrhagic onset of cerebellar PA in a 29-year-old man who presented with a week-long history of headache and gait instability. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging revealed a hemorrhagic tumor located in the right cerebellar hemisphere, and total resection was performed. Histological examination showed bipolar glial cell proliferation in a biphasic pattern in a compact area and a loose microcystic area with Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies, indicating PA. Prominent changes in tumor vasculature, including aggregation of sclerotic thick-walled and ectatic thin-walled vessels, was observed, and nodules of thrombi containing complex vascular proliferation suggesting recanalized thrombi formed in partially ruptured vessels were also found. Thus, rupture of these abnormal vessels appeared to be the cause of hemorrhage. Review of the literature revealed that age distribution of patients with hemorrhagic PAs tends to be older than that of patients with general PAs. These findings imply a possibility that degenerative changes in blood vessels in long-standing PAs might be related to the mechanisms of spontaneous intratumoral hemorrhage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0692_20104", "title": "Primary cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma with anaplastic features in a patient with neurofibromatosis type 1 - case report - .", "score": 0.01913919413919414, "content": "A 70-year-old woman with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1) presented with a primary cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma (PA) with anaplastic features manifesting as worsening headache and ataxia. Magnetic resonance (MR) imaging on admission showed a diffusely enhanced solid mass in the left cerebellar hemisphere, although MR imaging showed no abnormalities 2 years before admission. Histological examination after gross total removal of the tumor exhibited a biphasic pattern with marked Rosenthal fibers, together with some malignant features including frequent mitoses and invasive growth pattern. The final diagnosis was PA with anaplastic features. Previous PA cases with mitotic activity and endothelial proliferation, and/or palisading necrosis have been classified as anaplastic PA (or PA with anaplastic features). In the present case, the tumor histology corresponded to this designation. The present case indicates that PAs with anaplastic features can occur in patients with NF-1." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0631_10231", "title": "[A case report of cerebellar pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma].", "score": 0.018102883355176933, "content": "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA) is a type of astrocytic neoplasm, classified as WHO grade II, which mainly occurs supratentorially, and rarely infratentorially. We report an unusual case of PXA in the cerebellar vermis. A 36-year-old man presented with headache and gait disturbance. Magnetic resonance imaging and computed tomography demonstrated a mass lesion with cyst in the cerebellar vermis. The patient underwent total resection. Histological examination demonstrated nuclear and cytoplasmic pleomorphism, and xanthomatous change. Immunohistochemical examination demonstrated xanthomatous cells expressing glial fibrillary acidic protein. The histological diagnosis was PXA of the cerebellar vermis. The patient did not receive radiation therapy or chemotherapy after resection, and has experienced no recurrence for 12 months. This case suggests that PXA should be considered in the differential diagnosis of cystic lesion in the cerebellar vermis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_20392", "title": "A rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor of the fourth ventricle: infratentorial form of dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor?", "score": 0.018018018018018018, "content": "Eleven cases of a distinctive tumor of the posterior fossa are described. The patients (age range 12-59 years) presented with headache and/or ataxia. Neuroimaging revealed a relatively discrete, focally enhancing mass(es) primarily involving the aqueduct, fourth ventricle, and cerebellar vermis. Hydrocephalus was present in seven cases, and two lesions were multicentric. In two cases a significant increase in tumor size was documented. Gross total or subtotal resections were achieved in 10 cases. One patient underwent biopsy alone and another received postoperative irradiation. Histologically, two components were identified in all cases. One consisted of neurocytes forming neurocytic and/or perivascular pseudorosettes in a fibrillary, partly microcystic matrix. The second, astrocytic component resembled pilocytic astrocytoma in 10 cases and consisted of fibrillated spindle cells with oval nuclei associated with occasional Rosenthal fibers, granular bodies, glomeruloid capillaries, and microcalcifications. Regionally, this component was more diffuse and patternless, consisting of sheets of round to oval, oligodendrocyte-like cells. Rare ganglion cells were seen in four cases. The rosettes were consistently synaptophysin and MAP-2 immunoreactive, whereas the spindle cells were positive for S-100 protein and glial fibrillary acidic protein. Overall, atypia was minimal; no mitoses were found, and Ki67 labeling indices were low. Ultrastructurally, the neurocytic cells featured processes containing microtubules and occasional dense core granules. Mature synapses were found in one of the four cases studied. Although the histologic features of this unique tumor superficially resemble those of dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor, rosette formation by neuronal cells, the frequent presence of a pilocytic astrocytoma component, and the growing nature of the lesion argue against that diagnosis, as does occasional multifocality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1040_10896", "title": "Rapid Recurrence and Anaplastic Transformation of a Pilocytic Astrocytoma in an Elderly Patient: Case Report and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.017331932773109245, "content": "Rapid recurrence of a pilocytic astrocytoma with anaplastic transformation is extremely rare. The case of an elderly patient with a cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma with anaplastic transformation during short-term follow-up is reported. An 83-year-old woman presented initially with dizziness and a gait deviation to the right. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a homogeneously enhanced mass in the right cerebellar hemisphere, and the tumor was subtotally removed by right suboccipital craniotomy. Histologic examination showed that the tumor cells contained eosinophilic cytoplasm and spindle-shaped processes with Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies, diagnosed as a typical pilocytic astrocytoma (PA). The MIB-1 index was &lt;1%. The patient did not receive postoperative adjuvant radiation and chemotherapy. Two months after surgery, magnetic resonance imaging showed growth of the residual tumor adjacent to the fourth ventricle, causing obstructive hydrocephalus. She underwent surgery again, and the tumor was totally removed. Histologic findings showed mitotic cells and increased cellularity compared with the primary tumor, which was compatible with anaplastic transformation of PA with a MIB-1 index of 50%. Postoperatively, she was observed with best supportive care without postoperative adjuvant therapy. Nine months after the second operation, she died due to tonsillar herniation and obstructive hydrocephalus caused by a recurrent tumor. An autopsy was performed. It is extremely rare, as in the present case, that a cerebellar PA in an elderly patient recurs rapidly with anaplastic transformation, despite deferred postoperative adjuvant therapy including radiation and chemotherapy. A novel molecular-targeted therapy is needed for anaplastic PA showing aggressive biological behavior." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0703_24744", "title": "[Pilocytic astrocytoma of the cerebrum presenting in an elderly patient: a case report].", "score": 0.017242660720921593, "content": "We report a case of pilocytic astrocytoma of the cerebrum presenting in an elderly patient. A 76-year-old man was admitted to our department due to the development of dysarthria. MRI showed a cystic mass with an enhanced small mural nodule in the left frontal lobe. At surgery, the cyst contents were aspirated, and the mural nodule was excised. Histological examination showed a pattern that is usually seen in pilocytic astrocytoma of the cerebellum, including loose and compact areas composed of pilocytic and stellate cells, a few eosinophilic granular bodies, but not Rosenthal fibers. Pilocytic astrocytoma is a common type of pediatric brain tumor that can arise within either the cerebellum or the hypothalamic/chiasmatic region, but rarely seen in the cerebral hemisphere at an advanced age. To our knowledge, only 45 cases of pilocytic astrocytoma of the cerebrum developing in an adult are reported. In those cases, the symptoms of the disease developed during the third decade of life. The onset at a most advanced age as in the present case is thought to be extremely rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0839_3802", "title": "Cerebellar pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in a patient with neurofibromatosis type 1: a case report and literature review.", "score": 0.01655359565807327, "content": "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA) is an uncommon tumor of young adults that typically occurs supratentorially. It is generally considered to be a low-grade, circumscribed tumor that when treated by surgical resection has a relatively favorable outcome. Cases of cerebellar PXA are rare, and those associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) are even less common, with only 2 cases reported to date. We present herein a third case of PXA-NF1 with unusual features. A 33-year-old woman presented with a history of headache. Her medical and family history was significant for NF1. Brain MRI revealed a 3.4 cm ill-defined lesion with a gyriform enhancing pattern in the left cerebellum, superficially mimicking Lhermitte-Duclos disease. The patient underwent a gross total resection of the lesion and had an unremarkable postoperative course. While the lesion had histological features typical of \"pure\" PXA (WHO grade II) it had an unusual growth pattern with thickening of the superficial cerebellar folia and predominant leptomeningeal involvement. No BRAF, IDH-1, or IDH-2 mutation was identified. Three months after surgery, local recurrence was detected, and the patient was treated with radiation therapy. One year after the first surgery, she underwent surgical resection of the recurrent/residual tumor. Histologically, the recurrent tumor showed very similar features to the initially resected tumor, with no anaplastic features. Most cerebellar PXAs have an indolent clinical behavior as do most cerebral PXAs. Whether co-existence of NF1 was a factor in altering the clinical course and biologic behavior of this patient's tumor is currently unknown." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0617_16603", "title": "A 16-year-old male with a cerebellar mass.", "score": 0.016145371660124096, "content": "A 16-year-old male presented to an emergency room after falling on his head while inebriated. The patient had only a history of recent fatigue and demonstrated no focal neurological deficit. MRI revealed a cystic and solid, enhancing midline cerebellar lesion. A suboccipital craniotomy was performed. Histologically, the mass showed large bizarre cells arranged in sheets with admixed small lymphocytes. The pleomorphic population had ample glassy eosinophilic cytoplasm and intranuclear inclusions. An infiltrating component resembling diffuse astrocytoma could be found in areas. Rosenthal fibers were particularly abundant in the areas of infiltrating glioma. Mitotic activity was very low, and necrosis was absent. Reticulin fibers between individual cells were focally abundant. Glial fibrillary acidic protein and vimentin were strongly expressed in many cells, while synaptophysin and neurofilament protein were not. Ki-67 showed a very low proliferation index. The pathologic diagnosis was pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA) of the cerebellum. PXA is a diagnosis typically regarded as a superficial meningocerebral neoplasm. This case is one of sixteen cerebellar PXAs reported in the literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0376_10116", "title": "[A case of juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma with unusual neuroimaging features].", "score": 0.01538021726700972, "content": "We present a case of cerebellar juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma(JPA) with unusual neuroimaging features. The patient was a 14-year-old male who suffered from chronic headaches for a couple of weeks. Plain craniogram showed a decalcification and bulging of the occipital bone. Computed tomography(CT) scans demonstrated low density multiple components with small calcifications in the right cerebellar hemisphere extending to the left. These calcifications were found at the margin of these multi-lobular components. Magnetic resonance imaging(MRI) revealed iso or low intensity on T1 weighted image, and slightly high intensity on T2 weighted image. The lesion indicated more heterogeneous and higher intensity than brain parenchyma on FLAIR imaging, and remarkable higher intensity than brain parenchyma with some small low intensity areas on diffusion weighted imaging. He underwent the complete resection except for the cranial tissue surrounding the pons. Histologic diagnosis was juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, because of biphasic pattern of bipolar cells and a number of Rosenthal fibers. Generally JPA has sharp and smooth demarcated cysts with well-enhanced mural nodule. It was difficult to diagnose the presented tumor as JPA before operation, since its unusual neuroimaging resembled both dermoid and high grade gliomas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1124_20472", "title": "Intra-cerebellar schwannoma with various degenerative changes: a case report and a systematic review.", "score": 0.01450494008829094, "content": "Intra-cranial schwannomas account for less than 8% of brain tumors, among which more than 80% arise from the vestibular nerve. Intra-cerebellar schwannomas are extremely rare. Several cases have been previously reported but without remarkable degenerative changes on histology. A 61-year-old man presented with worsening disorientation, and an imaging study revealed a cystic lesion (6.5 cm in the largest diameter) in the left hemisphere of the cerebellum accompanied by a mural nodule (2.5 cm) located just inside the skull with enhancement and focal calcification, in addition to hydrocephalus. The lesion was more than 5 mm from the left acoustic nerve. The patient underwent gross total resection. Pathological examination revealed remarkable degenerative changes with various morphological features. Tumor cells were pleomorphic with rich cytoplasm containing numerous eosinophilic granules. Blood vessels and extracellular matrix showed remarkable hyalinization. Immunohistochemical staining revealed that the tumor cells were positive for S-100 protein and negative for Olig2. The tumor was diagnosed as a schwannoma with marked degenerative changes. The present case is discussed with reference to a systematic review of previous reports of intra-cerebellar schwannoma. Intra-cerebellar schwannoma should be included in the differential diagnosis of cystic lesions with heterogeneous histopathological morphology in the cerebellum." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0729_19940", "title": "[Cerebellar hemangioblastoma with marked pleomorphism: a case report].", "score": 0.014092553799276328, "content": "We reported an extremely rare case of cerebellar hemangioblastoma with marked pleomorphism and reviewed the literature. A 68-year-old male presented with a one-month history of headache and vomiting. Neurological examination revealed right-sided dysmetria and truncal ataxia. Contrast-enhanced T1-weighted MR imaging revealed a heterogeneously enhancing tumor with solid and cystic components in the right cerebellum. The solid portion of the tumor was low intensity on diffusion-weighted imaging and low intensity on susceptibility-weighted imaging. &lt;sup&gt;18&lt;/sup&gt;F-fluorodeoxyglucose PET showed low uptake in the cerebellar tumor and the whole body examination was negative for malignancy. Vertebral angiogram demonstrated moderate tumor staining and no early filling veins. The patient underwent total removal of the tumor through suboccipital craniotomy. Microscopically, the solid tumor contained a cellular rich component consisting of stromal cells and a markedly pleomorphic component including atypical and multinucleated giant cells. The MIB-1 positive rate was 8.2%, which was slightly higher compared to that of hemangioblastomas. We observed strong staining for inhibin-α, aquaporin 1 and neuron specific enolase (NSE) in the tumor cells. PAX-2, cytokeratin and epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) were completely negative in the tumor cells, whereas the tumor cells demonstrated focal staining for CD10. The histological diagnosis was hemangioblastoma. Follow-up MR images showed no evidence of recurrent tumor 14 months after the resection. The study using a combination of immunohistochemical markers (e.g. inhibin-α, aquaporin 1 and PAX-2) is useful for differential diagnosis of hemangioblastoma from metastatic renal cell carcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0618_4920", "title": "[Clinicopathologic study of pilocytic astrocytoma].", "score": 0.013620689655172415, "content": "To study clinicopathologic features, treatment and prognosis of pilocytic astrocytoma (PA). Histopathological, ultrastructural, immunohistochemical (EnVision method) and clinical features of 68 cases of PA were studied by microscopic investigation with correlation of clinical follow-up information when available. Thirty-five male patients and 33 female patients were studied. The patient's age ranged from 3 to 66 years (mean = 20.1 years). The mean time from symptom onset to surgery was 371 days (range, 3 days to 14 years). Cystic degeneration was noted in 41 cases (60.3%), and enhancement of the tumor was noted in 43 cases (87.8%). On postcontrast imaging examination there were 33 cases involving the cerebellum (48.5%). Total tumor excision was performed in 35 patients, subtotal tumor excision was performed in 31 patients, and the procedures of other 2 patients were not clear. Among 51 patients with follow-up information, 44 were alive, 7 had recurrent tumor, and 7 died. The post-operative survival ranged from 2 months to 124 months (mean survival = 48.1 months). Five years and ten years survival rates were 89%, respectively. Tumors with classic histopathology demonstrated biphasic pattern of growth, consisting of compact elongated bipolar astrocytes associated with rosenthal fibers, and less cellular areas of multipolar cells with granular bodies and microcyst. Some cases showed atypia of nuclei, and occasional mitoses. Involvement of subarachnoid space was seen in 17 cases. One case had anaplastic features. All cases showed diffuse positive staining for GFAP and low expression for Ki-67, except 1 anaplastic tumor with 10% Ki-67 indices. Tumors with subarachnoid space involvement showed positive reticular fiber staining and negative EMA staining. PA is a benign, WHO grade I tumor with favorable prognosis, and does not require radiotherapy after total resection. The tumor can be mistaken as higher-grade astrocytoma when involving the subarachnoid space, and with cytological atypia, leading to unnecessary radiotherapy after surgery. Recurrence rate is increased when only partial resection is achieved. The outcome for patients with brainstem tumor or anaplastic PA is poor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0295_8654", "title": "Clear cell variants of intracranial tumors: meningioma and ependymoma.", "score": 0.013541666666666667, "content": "We report two cases of rare histological types of intracranial clear cell tumor. Case 1: The tumor, on the left frontal convexity in a 64-year-old woman, consisted largely of polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm which were divided into lobules of uneven size by abundant fibrous connective tissue. Most of the tumor cells were immunopositive for epithelial membrane antigen and vimentin. Ultrastructurally, the tumor cells showed conspicuous interdigitations of their plasma membranes with frequent junctional complexes, and contained numerous glycogen granules in the cytoplasm and its processes. Occasionally, amianthoid collagen fibers were found in the fibrous stroma. Our diagnosis of this tumor was clear cell meningioma. Case 2: The tumor, in the right cerebellar hemisphere in a 64-year-old woman, consisted of round, clear cells with a honeycomb-like pattern. The tumor cells were positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein, vimentin and S-100 protein. Ultrastructurally, the tumor was composed of round cells arranged in a cell-to-cell pattern, and the adjacent cells often formed microrosettes containing microvilli in their lumina. There were scattered cells with accumulatios of glycogen granules in their cytoplasm. Our diagnosis of this tumor was clear cell ependymoma. From the light microscopic features of these tumors, it does not necessarily seem easy to discriminate them from other intracranial tumors composed of similar clear cells, such as oligodendroglioma, central neurocytoma, hemangioblastoma and metastic renal cell carcinoma. Ultrastructural examination is crucial in the identification of the clear cell variants of meningioma and ependymoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0756_8399", "title": "Pilomyxoid astrocytoma of the cerebellum with Williams syndrome: a case report.", "score": 0.01332921392946992, "content": "A 3-year-old boy with Williams syndrome associated with supravalvular aortic stenosis was admitted to our hospital with disturbance of consciousness and a 2-month history of truncal ataxia. T1-weighted magnetic resonance imaging with contrast medium showed a heterogeneously enhanced tumor in the right cerebellum with severe hydrocephalus. The patient underwent tumor resection via suboccipital craniotomy. At the end of resection of the tumor, sudden cardiac arrest occurred after ST segment elevation. Despite immediate cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the patient died. Histological examination of the cerebellar tumor revealed that the tumor consisted of monomorphous bipolar spindle cells on a background of myxoid matrix, and angiocentric arrangement without Rosenthal fibers or eosinophilic granular body. The final diagnosis was pilomyxoid astrocytoma. This case of Williams syndrome with cerebellar pilomyxoid astrocytoma suggests the importance of investigation of the development of brain tumors and occurrence of intraoperative cardiac arrest associated with Williams syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_15518", "title": "Tanycytic ependymoma in association with neurofibromatosis type 2.", "score": 0.01309931506849315, "content": "A rare case of tanycytic ependymoma associated with neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) is presented for the first time, with emphasis on its clinical course and histopathological features. A 30-year-old man had developed gait disturbance in his childhood, and harbored multiple tumors in spinal nerve roots, in the intradural extramedullary and intramedullary spinal cord. The spinal root tumor and intradural extramedullary tumor were histologically diagnosed as schwannoma and meningioma, respectively. Magnetic resonance imaging showed two intramedullary cystic lesions, one in the cervical and the other in the thoracic spine. Because his sensorimotor dysfunction in the lower extremities continued to worsen gradually, three of the multiple nodular tumors in the thoracic cystic lesion were removed. All three tumors were composed of eosinophilic piloid cells with modest nuclear pleomorphism. No Rosenthal fibers were found. A concentration of slender eosinophilic cellular processes surrounding the vascular wall was seen. Periodic acid Schiff and Masson trichrome-positive balloons were seen in the extracellular space. Detection of ependymal rosettes, although only few in number, led the diagnosis as a tanycytic ependymoma. Recognition of this ependymoma variant should be emphasized to avoid confusion with pilocytic astrocytoma or intramedullary schwannoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en072_22071", "title": "Pilocytic astrocytoma", "score": 0.012959094074545069, "content": "Microscopic appearance Pilocytic astrocytomas are often cystic tumors, and, if solid, tend to be well-circumscribed. Under the microscope, the tumor is seen to be composed of bipolar cells with long \"hair-like\" GFAP-positive processes, giving the designation \"pilocytic\" (that is, made up of cells that look like fibers when viewed under a microscope). Some pilocytic astrocytomas may be more fibrillary and dense in composition. The presence of Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies, and microcysts can often be seen. Myxoid foci and oligodendroglioma-like cells may also be present, though these are not specific to pilocytic astrocytoma. Long-standing lesions may show hemosiderin-laden macrophages and calcifications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0834_8417", "title": "Cerebellar Liponeurocytoma, an Unusual Tumor of the Central Nervous System--Ultrastructural Examination.", "score": 0.012548562548562549, "content": "Cerebellar liponeurocytoma is a rare tumor of the central nervous system which shows neuronal and variable astrocytic differentiation, along with foci of lipomatous differentiation. It is usually located in the cerebellum, and may be mistaken for medulloblastoma with lipidized cells or lipomatous ependymoma. Histopathological examination, supplemented by immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy, is required to distinguish between these entities. This 35-year-old male presented with vomiting and headache for three months, followed by gait imbalance. Neurological examination showed positive cerebellar signs with ataxic gait. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a lesion measuring 4.4 cm× 4.3 cm× 3.9 cm involving the cerebellum. The patient underwent midline suboccipital craniotomy to excise the tumor. Histopathological examination showed a circumscribed, cellular tumor composed of round to polygonal cells with moderate cytoplasm and minimal pleomorphism. Clear intracytoplasmic vacuoles were seen within the tumor cells. These tumor cells were immunopositive for synaptophysin, NSE, and MAP-2, confirming their neurocytic origin. On ultrastructural examination, lipid vacuoles as well as dense-core neurosecretory granules were identified within these neurocytic cells, confirming the diagnosis of liponeurocytoma. No cilia, microvilli, or gap junctions were identified in the tumor cells, ruling out the possibility of lipomatous ependymoma. The differentiation of liponeurocytoma from its morphological mimics is imperative, as their treatment differs drastically. The role of electron microscopy is extremely important in this differential diagnosis. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0380_87", "title": "Neurofibromatosis type 1-associated unusual pleomorphic astrocytoma displaying continual malignant progression.", "score": 0.011727469598534067, "content": "Patients with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) often have gliomas as a complication, most of which are benign pilocytic astrocytomas which have arisen in optic pathways. In the present case, a 17-year-old girl (at death) with stigmata of NF1, initially had a bulky tumor mass in the left thalamus, developing into the lateral ventricle, at 13 years of age. Partially resected tissue samples showed pleomorphic astrocytoma with abundant xanthoma cells and degenerative structures such as Rosenthal fibers (RF) and eosinophilic granular bodies. Fine eosinophilic granules identical to RF, both immunophenotypically and ultrastructurally, were also seen. The residual tumor was subtotally resected 6 months later, and the tumor histology was essentially similar as before, accompanying the regenerative structures; this was believed to be a good prognostic indicator. However, several anaplastic features such as mitosis, necrosis and vascular proliferation appeared even in areas rich in the regenerative structures. After a 2-year, disease-free interval, multiple tumor relapse occurred in June 1997. Partially resected tumor tissues were composed of monotonous small anaplastic cells with prominent proliferative activity. Surprisingly, the tumor cells had retained eosinophilic granules within the cell bodies. Postoperative chemotherapy with procarbazine, MCNU and vincristine (PCV) suppressed the residual tumor dramatically, but the regrowing tumor finally became uncontrollable, leading to the patient's death. TP53 mutation was not detected, while p27 immunopositivity was constantly high during malignant progression, suggesting acquisition of proliferative activity to overcome p53 and p27 inhibitory functions. A review of previously published reports failed to reveal any cases of this type." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_8134", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.011516595602374382, "content": "The cerebellar hemangioblastoma typically develops in the fourth decade and causes symptoms of ataxia and headache. On imaging studies, the lesions have a striking appearance of a cyst with a nodule contained in its wall, and angiography demonstrates the highly vascular nature of the nodule, which represents the actual neoplasm (see Fig. 30-13). The other identifying features of the disease, retinal hemangiomas, are smaller but indistinguishable histologically from the craniospinal ones. They are multiple and bilateral, usually appearing earlier than the cerebellar lesions but remaining asymptomatic until they become extensive (retinal detachment is one feature). Their diagnosis is made by funduscopy, by which a large feeding vessel leading to an irregularly shaped ovoid tumor in the retina can usually be appreciated. Imaging studies of the cranium that use dye enhancement will reveal them as well." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_22104", "title": "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma arising from the suprasellar region: A report of two cases.", "score": 0.010840824960338447, "content": "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA) is a rare astrocytic neoplasm that usually arises in children and young adults. Typically, lesions of PXA are superficially located in the cerebral hemispheres. Herein, we report two extremely rare patients with PXA arising from suprasellar regions. One of the patients is a 29-year-old man admitted to our hospital with a history of progressive headache for 1month. The patient's brain MRI revealed a large tumor arising from the suprasellar cistern of the third ventricle. The second patient, a 52-year-old woman, presented with progressive dizziness and visual disturbance that had developed over the course of 1year. The MRI revealed a well-enhanced suprasellar solid mass measuring 1.4×1.2×1.4cm. Both patients underwent surgical removal of their tumors, and both patients showed similar microscopic structures and immunohistochemical phenotypes: the tumor cells were pleomorphic with mixtures of spindle-shaped, and multinuclear giant cells. In addition, eosinophilic granular bodies and xanthomatous cells were seen on section. Immunohistochemistry was positive for GFAP, S-100, and CD34, and was negative for IDH 1, CK, and Syn. The Ki-67 proliferation index was less than 1%. Silver impregnation revealed reticulin fibers surrounding the individual tumor cells, and small cell groups. Based on these findings, the two patients were diagnosed with PXA in the suprasellar region. To date, only five such patients have been reported in the literature. PXA should be included in the differential diagnosis for tumors arising in the sellar region." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0260_10811", "title": "Delayed occurrence of cerebellar pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma after supratentorial pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma removal. Case report.", "score": 0.010656942559927635, "content": "The authors report the case of a 36-year-old woman who underwent gross total resection of a right cerebellar pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma with atypical features. She had undergone surgery 16 years previously for what was thought to be a right frontal glioblastoma multiforme. In retrospect, based on the histopathology and the clinical course, both lesions were considered to represent atypical variants of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma. This report examines the histological and clinical characteristics of this posterior fossa lesion, which exhibited histologically malignant features but has run a relatively indolent course." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_1729", "title": "[Immunohistochemical study is helpful for the diagnosis of cerebellar clear cell ependymoma with atypical radiological findings--case report].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 67-year-old male presented with a clear cell ependymoma with symptoms of ataxic gait and dizziness. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a ring enhanced and circumscribed mass lesion with some cysts in the left cerebellar hemisphere, and the vertebral artery angiogram showed the vascurality of the tumor fed by both the left posterior inferior cerebellar artery and the left superior cerebellar artery mainly. They demonstrated suspicious finding of metastatic tumor, glioblastoma, or cystic meningioma. Surgery via the left suboccipital approach revealed a whitish and solid tumor, which was demarcated from the cerebellar parenchyma and had no continuity with the 4th ventricle. Total resection of the tumor was successfully performed. The hematoxilyn-eosin staining of the surgical specimen was similar to hemangioblastoma or oligodendroglioma, however, immunohistochemical findings for glial fibrillary acidic protein, vimentin, epithelial membrane antigen, and factor VIII were compatible with clear cell ependymoma. The patient's postoperative course was uneventful, and his symptoms improved. Clear cell ependymoma is known as a variant of ependymoma, which is usually located at the foramen of Monro. We think that the immunohistochemical study is highly helpful for the diagnosis of the cerebellar tumor with atypical presentation such as our case." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en274_15595", "title": "WHO classification of tumours of the central nervous system", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "1.4.2 High-grade astrocytoma with piloid features 1.4.3 Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma 1.4.4 Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma 1.4.5 Chordoid glioma 1.4.6 Astroblastoma, MN1-altered 1.5 Glioneuronal and neuronal tumours 1.5.1 Ganglioglioma 1.5.2 Desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma / desmoplastic infantile astrocytoma 1.5.3 Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor 1.5.4 Diffuse glioneuronal tumor with oligodendroglioma-like features and nuclear clusters 1.5.5 Papillary glioneuronal tumor 1.5.6 Rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor 1.5.7 Myxoid glioneuronal tumor 1.5.8 Diffuse leptomeningeal glioneuronal tumor 1.5.9 Gangliocytoma 1.5.10 Multinodular and vacuolating neuronal tumor 1.5.11 Dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma (Lhermitte-Duclos disease) 1.5.12 Central neurocytoma 1.5.13 Extraventricular neurocytoma 1.5.14 Cerebellar liponeurocytoma 1.6 Ependymal tumours 1.6.1 Supratentorial ependymoma 1.6.1.1 Supratentorial ependymoma, ZFTA fusion-positive" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0101_13593", "title": "[Cerebellar ganglioglioma: a case report].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A case of cerebellar ganglioglioma is reported. A 22-year-old female was admitted to the Kurume University Hospital on August 19, 1985, suffering from headache, vomiting and gait disturbance. On admission, neurological examination revealed staggering gait and the right cerebellar ataxia showing dysmetria and dysdiadochokinesis. Mild choked disc in the right fundus was also noted. Plain CT scan showed the low-density area involving the right cerebellar hemisphere and the part of the vermis with internal hydrocephalus. Enhanced CT scan showed the high-density area adjacent to the low-density area suggesting a mural nodule. A vertebral angiogram in the arterial phase showed an expansive lesion in the posterior fossa and the tumor stain, which was also visualized in the venous phase. An emergency suboccipital craniectomy was then performed. With opening the tense dura mater, the cyst formation was noted and 30 ml of xanthochromic fluid was then aspirated. A well demarcated mural nodule was noted in the lateral wall of the cyst. The nodule was then extirpated in toto. The hypertrophy of the cerebellar cortex was not observed. Histologically, the tumor was consisted of nerve fiber, glial fiber and neuronal cells. Its architecture was differed distinctly from that of hamartomatous diffuse hypertrophy of the cerebellar cortex (Lhermitte-Duclos' disease). Immunohistochemically, the neuronal cells revealed positive staining for NSE and S-100, and the glial cells displayed positive staining for GFAP, S-100. The authors reviewed previously reported eleven cases of cerebellar ganglioglioma including the present case. These results showed that cerebellar gangliogliomas have some characteristic clinical features among general intracranial gangliogliomas.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0745_19200", "title": "Pilocytic astrocytoma: a retrospective study of 32 cases.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pilocytic astrocytoma (PA) is a neoplasia which is considered as a grade I astrocytoma by the World Health Organization (WHO). Its most common location is the cerebellum and it develops during the first two decades of life. Prognosis is mostly excellent if gross-total resection can be achieved, with 10-year survival rates of up to 95%. In rare cases, however, the patient has a bad outcome. Our aims were to retrospectively describe the clinicopathological features of 32 PAs, and identify factors that may be associated with aggressive behavior. The study included 21 males and 11 females with a median age of 10.5 years. Tumors demonstrated predilection for infratentorial location (74.9%), especially the cerebellum (59.3%), followed by cerebral ventricles (15.6%), supratentorial location (12.5%) and optic pathway (3.12%). Gross total resection was achieved in 14 tumors only. On histopathology, moderate cellularity (68.7%), microcystic changes (71.9%), Rosenthal fibers (62.5%) and eosinophilic granular bodies (53.2%) were present in the majority of cases. Atypia was present in 62.5% of cases, while endothelial proliferation and necrosis was noted in 3 and 2 cases, respectively. Median follow-up for all patients was 24 months. Four patients died in the postoperative period, one of whom was 62-year-old men and two others had brainstem location or invasion. Recurrence was observed in a 56-year-old patient whom first tumor was locally invasive. The patient died after the second surgery and anaplastic features was found in the recurrent tumor without previous radiotherapy. PA is a benign tumor, but some clinicopathological factors, such as partial resection, brainstem location and adult age have a worse prognosis. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_9269", "title": "\"Integrated diagnosis\" of pilocytic astrocytoma: Molecular diagnostic procedure for an unusual case.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 24 year-old female presented with a mass lesion in the right temporal lobe. This case was difficult to diagnose using histological and immunological methods and therefore molecular analyses were applied to provide a definitive diagnosis. The tumor was well-demarcated, partially cystic, and irregularly-enhanced on gadolinium-enhanced T1-weighted magnetic resonance images. Pathologically, a large part of the tumor consisted of cells with fine cytoplasmic processes on a myxoid and mucinous background. Cells formed a microcystic structure around the mucinous tissue. Numerous eosinophilic granular bodies, but not Rosenthal fibers, were present. The solid and compact regions of the tumor were composed of fasciculation of dense fibrous glial tissues and occasional multinucleated giant cells. Tumor cells and their fragmented cytoplasmic processes were positively stained with GFAP, while eosinophilic granular bodies were both positive and negative. Xanthomatous changes were not detected and the reticulin fibers were restricted to vascular tissues. The MIB1 index was scored as approximately 10%. In molecular analyses of BRAF, the KIAA1549-BRAF (K16-B9) fusion gene was detected in all tumor regions, whereas BRAF V600E mutation was not detected by either conventional Sanger sequencing or the Eprobe-PCR method. Based on the results of the molecular analyses, this case was diagnosed as pilocytic astrocytoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en274_15594", "title": "WHO classification of tumours of the central nervous system", "score": 0.009468526529531208, "content": "1. Gliomas, glioneuronal tumors, and neuronal tumours 1.1 Adult-type diffuse gliomas 1.1.1 Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant 1.1.2 Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant, and 1p/19q-codeleted 1.1.3 Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype 1.2 Pediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas 1.2.1 Diffuse astrocytoma, MYB- or MYBL1-altered 1.2.2 Angiocentric glioma 1.2.3 Polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial tumor of the young (PLNTY) 1.2.4 Diffuse low-grade glioma, MAPK pathway-altered 1.3 Pediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas 1.3.1 Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered 1.3.2 Diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant 1.3.3 Diffuse pediatric-type high-grade glioma, H3-wildtype and IDH-wildtype 1.3.4 Infant-type hemispheric glioma 1.4 Circumscribed astrocytic gliomas 1.4.1 Pilocytic astrocytoma 1.4.2 High-grade astrocytoma with piloid features 1.4.3 Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma 1.4.4 Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma 1.4.5 Chordoid glioma 1.4.6 Astroblastoma, MN1-altered" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0239_10600", "title": "[Vertebral angiography of cerebellar hemangioblatoma -tumor stain, tumor circulation, CT and angiography in diagnosis(author's transl)].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Tumor \"stain\" and pathological tumor circulation were investigated mainly by cerebral angiography in 8 patients of cerebellar hemangioblastoma who were hospitalized in the Hokkaido University Hospital and considered to be suitable for this study. The results are presented with some speculation in this paper. (1) Tumor stain was found in all of the 8 cases. (2) Histologically all 8 cases were composed of endothelial cells with numerous vascular channels. The characteristic tumor \"stain\" in cerebellar hemangioblastoma was supposed to be closely related to the histologic features. (3) Review of the reports published on tumor stain indicates that tumor staining patterns have been classified into 3 to 5 types. Similar items were established in all the classifications. (4) The 8 cases were divided into 4 types: cystic type, cystic and solid type, solid type, and multiple type based on macroscopic natures of the tumor. Tumor staining patterns in angiography were also tentatively classified into types 1 to 4 according to the natures of the tumor. (5) Concerning pathological tumor circulation, (a) the time of appearance of tumor \"stain\" was long; (b) early filling veins in the tumor were found in 4 of the 8 cases; (c) almost all feeding arteries had one or two branches; (d) arteries originating from meningeal vessels were enlarged in 2 cases and angiography of the external carotid artery was useful for their identification; and (3) draining veins were enlarged more markedly than feeding arteries and were mostly a single superficial vein. (6) CT was performed in 4 of the 8 cases. It was compared with vertebral angiography regarding diagnostic capability in consideration of the published reports. Vertebral angiography was superior to CT in (a) verification of the presence of multiple lesions in cerebellar hemangioblastoma and (b) differential diagnosis between cerebellar astrocytoma and hemangioblastoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_259025", "title": "Brain tumor", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Specific types Anaplastic astrocytoma, Anaplastic oligodendroglioma, Astrocytoma, Central neurocytoma, Choroid plexus carcinoma, Choroid plexus papilloma, Choroid plexus tumor, Colloid cyst, Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumour, Ependymal tumor, Fibrillary astrocytoma, Giant-cell glioblastoma, Glioblastoma multiforme, Gliomatosis cerebri, Gliosarcoma, Hemangiopericytoma, Medulloblastoma, Medulloepithelioma, Meningeal carcinomatosis, Neuroblastoma, Neurocytoma, Oligoastrocytoma, Oligodendroglioma, Optic nerve sheath meningioma, Pediatric ependymoma, Pilocytic astrocytoma, Pinealoblastoma, Pineocytoma, Pleomorphic anaplastic neuroblastoma, Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, Primary central nervous system lymphoma, Sphenoid wing meningioma, Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, Subependymoma, Trilateral retinoblastoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0547_2857", "title": "Large cystic cavernous angioma of the cerebellum mimicking pilocytic astrocytoma.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Cavernous angiomas are relatively rare vascular malformations. They are generally located supratentorially with a rare incidence in the cerebellum. Cavernous angiomas, accompanied by a large cyst, are very rare. We present a case of a cavernous angioma with the unusual MRI findings of a large cyst and a small mural nodule. The patient was a 48-year-old man who complained of a history of dizziness for several weeks. The neurologic examination in the neurosurgery clinic was without deficit. The cyst measured 4.7x4.0 cm and contained serous fluid with a nodular mass in the lower part of the cyst. The cystic wall and the solid mural nodule were completely removed through a midline suboccipital approach. Postoperatively, the patient remained neurologically intact. When a large cystic lesion is present in the cerebellum, preoperative radiological and intraoperative findings led to misdiagnosis. Therefore, a rare cystic angioma must be considered in the differential diagnosis of infratentorial cystic masses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0704_10049", "title": "Cerebellar pilocytic astrocytomas with spontaneous intratumoral hemorrhage in adult.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Cerebellar pilocytic astrocytomas (PAs) are benign gliomas predominantly found in the pediatric population. Intracranial hemorrhages are extremely rare in initial presentations of cerebellar PAs. There are no reports in the medical literature of adult cerebellar PA cases presenting with intratumoral hemorrhage. We report 2 cases of adult cerebellar pilocytic astrocytomas with intratumoral hemorrhage. The first case is a 37-year-old woman presenting with severe headache, nausea, and vomitting. Computed tomography demonstrated an acute hemorrhage adjacent to the right cerebellar hemisphere and hydrocephalus. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a cerebellar vermian tumor with the hemorrhage as a mixed isointense area in the T2-weighted image, and as a mixed hyperintense area in the contrast-enhanced T1-weighted image. The second case is a 53-year-old man presenting with headache for 3 weeks. MRI revealed a cerebellar hemispheric tumor with the hemorrhage as a mixed hyperintense area. It had a cystic mass with a heterogeneous enhanced mural nodule in the gadolinium-enhanced T1-weighted image and a fluid-fluid level within the cyst in the T2-weighted image. Both of them underwent radical resections of their respective lesions. Histological examination of the specimens revealed typical astrocytoma, including a hemorrhagic portion. Both patients recovered postoperatively and continue to do well at present. The medical literature on hemorrhagic cerebellar PAs is also reviewed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0881_21099", "title": "Massive Calcified Cerebellar Pilocytic Astrocytoma with Rapid Recurrence : A Rare Case.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Pilocytic astrocytomas (PAs) are World Heath Organization Grade I tumors and are most common in children. PA calcification is not a common finding and has been reported more frequently in the optic nerve, hypothalamic/thalamus and superficially located cerebral tumors. We present a cerebellar PA in a 3-year-old male patient with cystic components and massive calcification areas. The residual tumor grew rapidly after the first operation, and the patient was operated on again. A histopathological examination revealed polar spongioblastoma-like cells. Massive calcification is not a common feature in PAs and can lead to difficulties in radiological and pathological differential diagnoses. " } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 147 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "Correct answer 1. 75% of patients with radiculopathy improve with non-surgical treatment, this being the treatment of choice in the initial stages." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 148, 345 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 50 ] ], "text": "Magnetic resonance imaging is of choice in certain \"red flags\": fever, weight loss, nocturnal pain, persistence of symptoms despite conservative treatment and loss of strength (incorrect answer 3)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Conservative treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, local heat and relative rest.", "2": "Urgent call to the neurosurgeon for surgical evaluation.", "3": "Preferential request for MRI and electromyogram.", "4": "Preferential referral to traumatology outpatients.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0938_6536", "title": "Sudden Onset of Severe Cervical Pain in an Adolescent Girl: Case Report and Review of Literature.", "score": 0.01890999910801891, "content": "A previously healthy 13-year-old girl presented with a 9-day history of acute onset severe neck pain associated with limited range of movement. Medical evaluation at day 2 was suggestive of muscle contracture, and she was discharged home with diazepam, antiinflammatory agents, and rest; however, she returned because of progressive clinical worsening with left arm distal paresthesia and paralysis since day 3. There was no history of trauma or other systemic complaints, and her familial medical history was unremarkable.Physical examination revealed left cervical and paravertebral tenderness on palpation with severe limitation of cervical and trunk movements; neurologic examination revealed left forearm and hand weakness and paralysis (grade II/V) with thenarhypothenar atrophy. Laboratory studies including coagulation profile were normal. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed an epidural hematoma from C4-T1 without underlying cause apparent on magnetic resonance angiography. On day 12, she underwent C3-7 laminotomy with laminoplasty and complete drainage of the hematoma. After 5 months of follow-up, she displays no neurological deficits. The spontaneous spinal epidural hematoma is a rare neurosurgical emergency in children. It usually presents acutely with neurologic deficits, but the initial presentation may be atypical or insidious, delaying diagnosis and intervention. Definitive diagnosis is made by magnetic resonance imaging and implies a high index of suspicion. Surgical drainage of the hematoma is the mainstay of treatment with favorable prognosis even in cases with a delayed diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en050_22369", "title": "Stinger (medicine)", "score": 0.013875598086124402, "content": "Diagnosis and treatment Stingers are best diagnosed by a medical professional. This person will assess the athlete's pain, range of head and neck motion, arm numbness, and muscle strength. Often, the affected athlete is allowed to return to play within a short time, but persistent symptoms will result in removal. Athletes are also advised to receive regular evaluations until symptoms have ceased, specifically, the restoration of pain-free mobility. If they have not after two weeks, or increase, additional tests such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be performed to detect a more serious injury, such as a herniated disc. The order of treatments applied depends on whether the athlete's main complaint is pain or weakness. Both can be treated with an analgesic, anti-inflammatory medication, ice and heat, restriction of movement, and if necessary, cervical collar or traction. Surgery is only necessary in the most severe cases." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1692", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.011479591836734693, "content": "A common cause of neck, shoulder, and arm pain is disc herniation in the lower cervical region; the process is comparable to disc herniation in the lumbar region but gives rise, of course, to a different set of symptoms (Table 10-1). The problem appears most often without a clear and immediate cause, but it may develop after trauma, which may be major or minor (from sudden hyperextension of the neck, falls, diving accidents, forceful manipulations as discussed by Kristoff and Odom). The roots most commonly involved are the seventh (in 70 percent of cases) and the sixth (in 20 percent of cases); fifthand eighth-root compression makes up the remaining 10 percent (Yoss et al). The clinical diagnosis is established by a fairly discrete distribution of pain or paresthesias that corresponds to a single cervical root, reflex loss in the segment of the root, and by elicitation of exaggerated root pain with mechanical tests such as the Spurling maneuver, in which the examiner exerts downward" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_22580", "title": "[Hyperextension trauma in patients with cervical spondylosis].", "score": 0.010723937668909205, "content": "PURPOSE OF THE STUDY To evaluate retrospectively a group of patients with hyperextension injury to the cervical spine who were treated at the Department of Spinal Surgery of the University Hospital in Motol, Prague, between 2003 and 2006. MATERIAL The group comprised 22 patients, 17 men (77 %) and five women (23 %) in the age range of 35 to 81 years, with an average of 59.5 years. All patients had, in association with the injury, neurological deficit of varying degree. METHODS All patients underwent X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging examination and received methylprednisolone according to the National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study (NASCIS) 2 trial. Eleven patients had urgent surgery within 24 hours of injury; eight patients were operated on within an interval of 3 days to 2 months because of the seriousness of their state and multiple morbidity; and three patients were treated conservatively. Neurological deficit in terms of upper- and lower-limb mobility was evaluated by the American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA) motor score. The values obtained for the urgently operated patients and for those operated on after a time interval were compared by Wilcoxons two-sample test. The other aspects evaluated included trauma aetiology, level of spinal cord injury, manner of treatment, and intra-operative and post-operative complications. RESULTS The most frequent cause of injury was a low-height fall (13 patients; 59 %); car accidents ranked second (9 patients; 41 %). In five patients (22.7 %) ebriety was found. Eighteen patients had no skeletal injury (81.8 %). Four patients (18.2 %). Four patients (18.2 %) suffered fractures of articular or spinous processes, but the anterior column skeleton was intact in all. The segment most frequently affected by myopathy was C3-C4, then C4-C5 and C5-C6. Decompression was carried out to the extent of myopathy; and in the adjacent segments only if significant stenosis was present. In both subgroups of surgically treated patients (urgent and delayed management), comparisons of the ASIA scores at the time of injury and at one-year follow-up showed no significat improvement in post-operative mobility, as evaluated by Wilcoxons two-sample test at a level of significance a = 5 %. No intra-operative or post-operative complications, except for early death, were recorded. In all patients the wound healed by first intention and no loosening of instrumentation was foud on follow-ups at the out-patient departments. DISCUSSION Although the greatest narrowing of the spinal canal due to spondylosis occurs at the C5-C6 segment, the C4-C5 segment sustained most injuries. Although some relevant papers report no significant difference in improved neurological deficit between patients treated surgically and those undergoing conservative therapy, we prefer surgical management, in most of the cases from the anterior approach, which allows us to remove dorsal osteophytes and perform careful decompression to prevent damage to nerve structures and to preserve those which are still intact. There was no significant difference in the outcome between urgent and delayed trauma management, which is unusual amongst other injuries associated with neurological lesions and this indicates that the timing of surgery must be strictly individual and should be carried out at a time when operative benefit outweighs operative burden. The surgical treatment used should, in the first place, lead to early recuperation and rehabilitation. CONCLUSIONS Hyperextension injuries of the cervical spine are usually associated with serious neurological deficit. A correct algorithm of examination will result in good treatment outcomes. However, these injuries require a therapy that is long-lasting and difficult, with a need for cooperation of anaesthesiologists, spinal surgeons, physical therapists and, last but not least, psychologists. Key words: cervical spine, hyperextension injury, spondylosis, myelopathy." }, { "id": "article-19244_2", "title": "Cervical Radiculopathy -- Introduction", "score": 0.010347417840375586, "content": "Neck pain is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disability in patients of different ages. Workers who have experienced neck pain account for up to 40% of work absenteeism. [1] [2] [3] Cervical radiculopathy, on the other hand, is a condition where the nerve root of a spinal nerve is compressed or impaired, causing the pain and symptoms to spread beyond the neck and radiate to other areas of the body, such as the arms, neck, chest, upper back, and shoulders. Due to the nerve impingement, muscle weakness and impaired deep tendon reflexes are often observed." }, { "id": "article-19241_6", "title": "Cervical Myofascial Pain -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010257687604728047, "content": "The history of a patient presenting with the cervical myofascial syndrome can vary greatly. Patients can sometimes present with a history of acute trauma, or the pain may be insidious. Symptoms may be worse with repetitive tasks, certain movements, or even certain postural positions throughout the day. The pain can be nagging or acute, and it can be local or radiate out from the neck to the surrounding area. The range of motion of the cervical spine may be limited and painful, and the patient may also complain of some tightness or a local twitch response, similar to a spasm. Generally, the area is tender to palpation and can be described as deep, and constant. On physical exam, poor posture may be noted, with slumped shoulders or decreased cervical lordosis. No atrophy should be noted in cervical musculature. On palpation, finding trigger points in the area of pain is very likely. A trigger point is an area of hyperirritability that radiates pain when palpated. A taut band may be noted in the skeletal muscle or surrounding fascia. [4] Limitation of the range of motion of the cervical spine may be associated. The neurological exam, including strength, sensation, and reflexes of the upper extremities will be normal." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1577", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The natural history of neck pain with acute radiculopathy due to disk disease is favorable, and many patients will improve without specific therapy. Although there are no randomized trials of NSAIDs for neck pain, a course of NSAIDs, acetaminophen, or both, with or without muscle relaxants, is reasonable as initial therapy. Other nonsurgical treatments are commonly used, including opioid analgesics, oral glucocorticoids, cervical traction, and immobilization with a hard or soft cervical collar. However, there are no randomized trials that establish the effectiveness of these treatments. Soft cervical collars can be modestly helpful by limiting spontaneous and reflex neck movements that exacerbate pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1155_11644", "title": "Spinal Cord Injury and Postdural Puncture Headache following Cervical Interlaminar Epidural Steroid Injection: A Case Report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "<iBackground</i: Cervical interlaminar epidural steroid injection (CIESI) is increasingly used as an interventional treatment for pain originating from the cervical spine. However, serious neurological complications may occur during CIESI because of direct nerve damage following inappropriate needle placement. <iCase report</i: A 35-year-old woman presented with posterior neck pain radiating to the left upper arm. Cervical magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed left C6 nerve impingement. CIESI under fluoroscopic guidance was performed at another hospital using the left C5/6 interlaminar approach. Immediately after the procedure, the patient experienced dizziness, decreased blood pressure, motor weakness in the left upper arm, and sensory loss. She visited our emergency department with postdural puncture headache (PDPH) that worsened after the procedure. Post-admission cervical MRI revealed intramedullary T2 high signal intensity and cord swelling from the C4/5 to C6/7 levels; thus, a diagnosis of spinal cord injury was made. The patient's PDPH spontaneously improved after 48 h. However, despite conservative treatment with steroids, the decrease in abduction of the left fifth finger and loss of sensation in the dorsum of the left hand persisted for up to 6 months after the procedure. As noticed in the follow-up MRI performed 6 months post-procedure, the T2 high signal intensity in the left intramedullary region had decreased compared to that observed previously; however, cord swelling persisted. Furthermore, left C7/8 radiculopathy with acute denervation was confirmed by electromyography performed 6 months after the procedure. <iConclusions</i: Fluoroscopy does not guarantee the prevention of spinal cord penetration during CIESI. Moreover, persistent neurological deficits may occur, particularly due to intrathecal perforation or drug administration during CIESI. Therefore, in accordance with the recommendations of the Multisociety Pain Workgroup, we recommend performing CIESI at the C6/7 or C7/T1 levels, where the epidural space is relatively large, rather than at the C5/6 level or higher." }, { "id": "article-19244_7", "title": "Cervical Radiculopathy -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "When performing a physical examination, it is crucial to position the patient in a way that allows for the isolation of individual reflex arcs. This helps accurately assess the patient's overall reflex response. Given the individual variation in deep tendon reflexes, comparing both sides of the neck is more important than overall magnitude. If there is nerve impingement, the affected side is reduced relative to the unaffected side. Reduced muscle strength, innervated by the affected nerve, is a significant physical sign." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_14385", "title": "Nicolau's syndrome: A rare but preventable iatrogenic disease.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Dear Editor, Nicolau's syndrome, also called embolia cutis medicamentosa or livedoid dermatitis, is a rare injection site reaction characterized by immediate intense pain at the injection site followed by erythema and a hemorrhagic patch with a livedoid reticular pattern after injections of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), antiepileptics, antibiotics, antihistaminics, corticosteroids, etc. (1). To the best of our knowledge, only one case of Nicolau's syndrome has been reported after the use of triamcinolone acetonide. Herein we report two cases of Nicolau's syndrome caused by intramuscular injections of triamcinolone acetonide and diclofenac sodium, respectively. CASE 1 A 24-year-old male patient presented with severe pain and bluish discoloration of the right arm for 2 days, which he had noticed shortly after receiving an intramuscular injection of triamcinolone for recurrent episodes of urticaria by a local practitioner in the right deltoid region. On examination, there was a livedoid pattern of non-blanchable, violaceous discoloration extending from the deltoid area to the distal third of the forearm with associated induration (Figure 1, a, b). The local area was warm and tender to the touch. There was no regional lymphadenopathy, and the rest of the examination was normal. The patient's platelet count, bleeding and clotting times, prothrombin time, and international normalized ratio (INR) were unremarkable. There was no previous history of any bleeding disorder. The patient denied any intake of drugs like aspirin, warfarin, etc. Subsequently, the patient developed an ulcer on the forearm, which was managed by topical and systemic antibiotics to prevent any secondary infection of the wound. CASE 2 A 40-year-old female patient presented with complaints of pain and discoloration of the left gluteal region after receiving an intramuscular injection of diclofenac sodium for her arthralgia. A large ecchymotic patch with reticular borders was found on the gluteal region, extending to the lateral aspect of thigh (Figure 2). It was tender to the touch, non-indurated, and the local temperature was raised. There was no regional lymphadenopathy. No other abnormality was detected on examination. All routine investigations were within normal limits. Platelet count, bleeding, clotting and prothrombin times, and international normalized ratio (INR) were within normal limits. The lesions resolved within few weeks without any complications. Nicolau syndrome was first described in the early 1920s by Freudenthal and Nicolau as an adverse effect of using intramuscular injections of bismuth salts in the treatment of syphilis. Since then, several case reports of this disease occurring after intramuscular, intra-articular, intravenous, and subcutaneous injections have appeared in the literature associated with a variety of drugs like NSAIDs, vitamin K, penicillin, antihistamines, corticosteroids, local anesthetics, vaccines, polidocanol, and pegylated interferon alpha (1). The pathogenesis of Nicolau syndrome is unknown, though intra and periarterial injection of the drug is a possible cause. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerve due to periarterial injection causes spasms and consequent ischemia. Inadvertent intra-arterial injections may cause emboli and occlusion. A lipophilic drug may penetrate the vessel and produce physical occlusion like fat embolism. Cytotoxic drugs may produce perivascular inflammation and ischemic necrosis. NSAIDs are believed to additionally induce ischemic necrosis due to their inhibition of cyclooxygenase and, consequently, prostaglandins (2). The clinical features of the disease have been divided into three phases in a review by Kim et al. (3). The authors describe an initial phase characterized by intense pain with subsequent erythema. This is followed 1-3 days later by an acute phase, when an indurated, tender plaque with livedoid pattern develops. The final phase occurs between 5 days and 2 weeks later. Necrosis ensues in this stage, with possible ulceration. Diagnosis is chiefly clinical, and histopathology shows necrotic changes and vascular thrombosis. However, a biopsy was not performed in our cases because both lesions were painful. Management strategies are variable and range from conservative management with analgesics and antibiotics to active surgical debridement (4). Complications include deformities, contractures or even death. The patient in our first case developed ulceration which healed normally, while the second case resolved without any complications. Nicolau syndrome can be avoided by precautions such as aspirating the needle before injecting to check for blood, use of Z-track injection technique, proper site of injection, avoiding large doses at a single site, and regular change of sites if multiple injections are to be given (5). Nicolau syndrome is a rare disease. There are a few case reports of it occurring after diclofenac injection (1-5). We could only find one case report of this syndrome after intramuscular injection (IM) of triamcinolone in a patient with lichen planus (3), and our case is the second reported case of this syndrome as a result of triamcinolone acetonide injection, which adds to the significance to the present article." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_731", "title": "[A case of delayed cervical epidural hematoma with C5 nerve root palsy after posterior cervical laminoplasty].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Delayed postoperative spinal epidural hematoma (DPSEH) is a rare and potentially devastating complication of laminoplasty, and cervical nerve root palsy occurs more frequently than DPSEH, especially with C5 nerve root palsy. The authors describe a case of DPSEH with C5 nerve root palsy that developed in a patient 3 days after he underwent laminoplasty. In this case, a 78-year-old man with a history that having taken Aspirin without the doctor's instruction for 5-6 years, he underwent cervical laminoplasty for mild myelopathy. On the 3rd postoperative day, he complained of weakness of his left upper extremity and could not raise his left arm. The symptom aggravated in the next few days. On the 9th postoperative day, there was an obvious motor deficit of both upper and lower extremities. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated abnormal signal characteristics consistent with a hematoma at levels C3-C4, compressing spinal cord. The clot was evacuated during emergency revision surgery, and the postoperative course after the operation was uneventful and the muscle strength was improved five days later. Therefore, the symptoms of DPSEH are not so typical that its possibility should be kept in mind. Sometimes a differential diagnosis should be made with C5 nerve root palsy which may only represent weakness of upper extremities. The authors recommend that magnetic resonance imaging is helpful for the diagnosis of DPSEH and a revision surgery should be taken as soon as possible once the hematoma causing the neurologic deterioration was confirmed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0794_24328", "title": "The potential contributing effect of ketorolac and fluoxetine to a spinal epidural hematoma following a cervical interlaminar epidural steroid injection: a case report and narrative review.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Cervical interlaminar epidural steroid injections (ESIs) are commonly performed as one part of a multi-modal analgesic regimen in the management of upper extremity radicular pain. Spinal epidural hematoma (SEH) is a rare complication with a reported incidence ranging from 1.38 in 10,000 to 1 in 190,000 epidurals. Current American Society of Regional Anesthesia (ASRA), American Society of Interventional Pain Physicians (ASIPP), and the International Spine Intervention Society (ISIS) recommendations are that non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) do not need to be withheld prior to epidural anesthesia. We report a case wherein intramuscular ketorolac and oral fluoxetine contributed to a SEH and tetraplegia following a cervical interlaminar (ESI). A 66 year-old woman with chronic renal insufficiency and neck pain radiating into her right upper extremity presented for evaluation and was deemed an appropriate CESI candidate. Cervical magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed multi-level neuroforaminal stenosis and degenerative intervertebral discs. Utilizing a loss of resistance to saline technique, an 18-gauge Tuohy-type needle entered the epidural space at C6-7. After negative aspiration, 4 mL of saline with 80 mg of methyl-prednisolone was injected. Immediately thereafter, the patient reported significant spasmodic-type localized neck pain with no neurologic status changes. A decision was made to administer 30 mg intramuscular ketorolac as treatment for the spasmodic-type pain. En route home, she developed a sudden onset of acute tetraplegia. She was brought to the emergency department for evaluation including platelet and coagulation studies which were normal. MRI demonstrated an epidural hematoma extending from C5 to T7. She underwent a bilateral C5-T6 laminectomy with epidural hematoma evacuation and was discharged to an acute inpatient rehabilitation hospital. Chronic renal insufficiency, spinal stenosis, female gender, and increasing age have been identified as risk factors for SEH following epidural anesthesia. In the present case, it is postulated that after the spinal vascular system was penetrated, hemostasis was compromised by the combined antiplatelet effects of ketorolac, fluoxetine, fish oil, and vitamin E. Although generally well tolerated, the role of ketorolac, a potent anti-platelet medication used for pain relief in the peri-neuraxial intervention period, should be seriously scrutinized when other analgesic options are readily available. Although the increased risk of bleeding for the alternative medications are minimal, they are nevertheless well documented. Additionally, their additive impairment on hemostasis has not been well characterized. Withholding NSAIDs, fluoxetine, fish oil, and vitamin E in the peri-procedural period is relatively low risk and should be considered for all patients with multiple risk factors for SEH. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_11718", "title": "[Acute radicular paralysis of arm and hand].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Patients with cervical radicular lesions present themselves with neck pain and stiffness on the one side and with neurological deficits of radicular distribution on the other side. The most frequent cause is a root compression due to a herniated disk or spondylotic changes of the spine. The management of the patients and the differential diagnosis are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0842_9815", "title": "[Pediatric intervertebral disc calcification: A rare cause of acquired torticollis. Case report].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pain and cervical muscle spasm are common reasons why parents bring children to the pediatric emergency department. The first steps are the gathering of medical history of the patient and a physical examination. If musculoskeletal damage is suspected, cervical spine x-rays should be obtained. An intervertebral disc calcification finding, in the absence of other radiological lesions should suggest pediatric intervertebral disc calcification. To present a case of intervertebral disc calcification, a rare condition that must be considered in the differential diagnosis of torticollis and neck pain in childhood. A seven-year-old male patient without morbid history and no history of trauma or rough sport practice. He consulted the emergency room for pain and cervical contracture for the last six days. C reactive protein and red cell sedimentatio rates were slightly elevated. Imaging studies showed calcification of the C5-C6 intrvertebral disc and anterior disc protrusion. The patient was hospitalized for evaluation and pain management, with good clinical response and continue afterwards with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and a soft collar. At the 6-month-follow up, the patient had resolved symptoms and calcifications. Pediatric intervertebral disc calcification is a rare cause of acquired torticollis, with a benign and self-limited outcome. Conservative management, as well as clinical and imaging follow-up is recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_83509", "title": "Radium", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "History" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en162_876", "title": "Vertebral compression fracture", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Diagnosis Compression fractures are usually diagnosed on spinal radiographs, where a wedge-shaped vertebra may be visible or there may be loss of height of the vertebra. In addition, bone density measurement may be performed to evaluate for osteoporosis. When a tumor is suspected as the underlying cause, or the fracture was caused by severe trauma, CT or MRI scans may be performed. Treatment Conservative treatment Back brace for support while the bone heals—either a Jewett brace for relatively stable and mild injuries, or a thoracic lumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO) for more severe ones. Opioids or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain. For osteoporotic patients, calcitonin may be helpful. Surgical Kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty are minimally invasive procedures that inject cement into the bone of the back that is fractured. However, the data examining the effectiveness of these procedures is mixed. References Further reading" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1148_1011", "title": "Diagnostic Uncertainty in Cervical Radiculopathy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Cervical radiculopathy is defined as a pathological process affecting the cervical nerve root(s). While not an uncommon entity, this report describes a case of cervical radiculopathy in an active duty Marine with unique features to include the C5 nerve root as the primary point of injury with corresponding severe motor weakness that warranted expedited workup. This expedited workup included early referral to Neurology for nerve conduction and electromyography (EMG) studies that were ultimately diagnostic in the setting of equivocal Magnetic Resonance Imaging findings. This highlight of this case is the demonstration of the utility of EMG in cervical radiculopathy evaluation, which aided in an efficient and effective treatment course. We contend that in cases of cervical radiculopathy with a focal deficit of profound weakness with shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, obtaining nerve conduction studies and EMGs within the first 4 to 6 weeks of presentation should be viewed as essential for the long-term recovery and effective management of the injured service member, particularly when injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus can also account for these specific motor deficits. This report will cover a brief review of the pathophysiology, evaluation, and natural history of cervical radiculopathy with special attention paid to the timing and efficacy of EMG." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1138_15678", "title": "Contralateral Recurrence of a Lumbar Juxtafacet Cyst Following Spontaneous Resolution.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We present a patient who had spontaneous resolution of a right L3/4 lumbar juxtafacet cyst (LJFC); and in whom, 2.5 years after regression of the previous cyst, a new contralateral L3/4 LJFC developed. Furthermore, with an extensive review, we discuss the selection criteria for patients for conservative treatment. A 44-year woman presented with right leg pain for two months. Neurological examination findings were normal; however, hypoesthesia was observed in right L4. There was no medical history of any trauma or a specific condition. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a right L3/4 LJFC and L4/5 spondylolysis. The patient refused surgical treatment and was referred to a physical therapy department. A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug was administered for four weeks. At two months' follow-up, her leg pain was relieved. After 2.5 years, she was readmitted due to radiating left leg pain. The MRI showed regression of the previous right L3/4 LJFC and a newly formed left L3/4 LJFC. Thus, cyst excision and posterior fusion were performed. The symptoms were resolved immediately following the surgery and the patient continued to be symptom-free at a one-year follow-up. In the setting of significant instability, conservative treatment for LJFCs can still be beneficial; however, its role in preventing recurrence of LJFCs may be inadequate. In such patients, early surgical correction of instability may result in better long-term outcomes. Key Words: Degeneration, Juxtafacet cyst, Recurrence, Spinal instability, Spontaneous resolution." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_31118", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "lumbosacral radiculoplexus neuropathy, some patients develop thoracic radiculopathy or, even less commonly, a cervical polyradiculoneuropathy. CSF protein is usually elevated, while the cell count is normal. ESR is often increased. EDx reveals evidence of active denervation in affected proximal and distal muscles in the affected limbs and in paraspinal muscles. Nerve biopsies may demonstrate axonal degeneration along with perivascular inflammation. Patients with severe pain are sometimes treated in the acute period with glucocorticoids, although a randomized controlled trial has yet to be performed, and the natural history of this neuropathy is gradual improvement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1163_12266", "title": "Cervical Spondylosis as a Hidden Contributing Factor to Fibromyalgia: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The present case study describes the long-term symptomatic remission in a patient with fibromyalgia (FM) after multimodal spinal manipulation. A 44-year-old woman presented with a chronic headache, severe neck pain, shoulder pain, and back pain lasting for 2 years after experiencing domestic violence. She had sleep disorders, fatigue, and depressive mood. Her primary care physician diagnosed her with FM and comorbid depression. Despite treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, muscle relaxants, anti-depressants, anti-epileptics, acupuncture, and aqua-therapy, she experienced no appreciable relief from her symptoms. The patient then sought a chiropractic evaluation and potential treatment for her symptoms. At presentation, widespread tenderness was palpable over the neck, shoulder, back, anterior chest, abdominal wall, and buttock. Radiographs showed loss of cervical lordosis, widespread degenerative spondylosis, and osteitis pubis. Surface electromyography (sEMG) revealed neck and thoracic paraspinal muscular spasms. The patient was diagnosed with FM based on the American College of Rheumatology diagnostic criteria and the associated comorbidities. Multimodal chiropractic approaches, which consisted of spinal manipulation, massage, and intermittent motorized cervical traction, were used twice weekly to relieve soft-tissues and intervertebral joints and stretch core musculatures. The patient's physical and mental complaints were mostly resolved near the end of 9 months of treatment. Her symptom alleviation was associated with corresponding change in normalized sEMG signal and cervical spine realignment at the 16th- and 26th-month follow-ups. Widespread pain in FM can lead to confused thinking and a lack of awareness of cervical spondylosis. In this example, it is assumed that the noxious cervical inputs triggered an ongoing FM process. Chiropractic treatment blocked noxious inputs coming from pain sources, corrected pain thresholds, and lowered excitability, thereby eradicating FM symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0836_18100", "title": "[Cervical radiculopathy].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Cervical radiculopathy is a common cause of pain in the arm. It is caused by nerve root compression in the neck, as a consequence of a herniated disc, or spondyliotic foraminal stenosis. It causes severe pain, especially during the first few weeks, and paraesthesias in the forearm and hand. Patients also suffer from neck pain and loss of strength in the relevant arm. The arm pain can be exacerbated by certain movements of the head; these should be avoided as much as possible. Diagnosis can be made on the basis of history and physical examination. The pain generally disappears without active patient treatment. A semi-rigid cervical collar is recommended to accelerate pain relief. In cases of persistent pain, surgery will be considered. In such cases an MRI should be performed to show the cause and level of nerve root compression. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_22458", "title": "Acute Calcific Tendonitis of the Longus Colli: An Uncommon Cause of Neck Pain in the Emergency Department.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The longus colli muscle has three major parts that originate and insert in the upper cervical and thoracic spine. It is a weak flexor of the neck, and when contracted also serves to rotate the neck to the ipsilateral side. It is innervated by the anterior rami of the C2-C6 spinal nerves and receives its blood supply from the anterior cervical and inferior thyroid arteries. In a post motor vehicle collision (MVC) patients presenting weeks later, the physician has to ensure there is no subacute fracture. Clinically, these patients present with severe anterior neck pain that will often be described as a deep pain. A 43-year-old female with a past medical history of diabetes and prior surgical history of a tonsillectomy and uvulectomy presented with sudden onset of sore throat that woke her up from sleep at 3:00 am. Associated with the sore throat, she had hoarseness of her voice, difficulty breathing and felt that her throat was closing. She forced herself to vomit and then felt better. She denied any fevers or chills. Later, the patient mentioned that she had chronic neck pain from a prior accident and had been told that she has C5-C6 stenosis. About a week prior, she had been involved in another MVC and had some neck pain after that. Significantly, she was also on lisinopril for her hypertension (HTN). She was tolerating secretions, protecting her airway and no gross inflammation was noted on physical exam. On labs, there was no leukocytosis noted. Soft tissue neck X-ray showed reversal of the cervical lordosis, degenerative and erosive changes at C4-C5 and C5-C6, and thickening of the prevertebral soft tissues. She obtained a CT of the neck and cervical spine that showed osteophyte complexes at C4-C5 and C5-C6, as well as calcific tendonitis of the longus colli with a moderate amount of prevertebral free fluid. Neurosurgery was consulted from the ED who recommended getting an MRI of the neck, and consulting ENT as well. ENT happened to be in the ED and performed a bedside laryngoscopy that showed edema of the left arytenoid with full functionality of the vocal cords, and no signs of airway compromise. The patient was started on steroids, antibiotics, H2 blockers, and the ACE-inhibitor was discontinued due to suspected angioedema per ENT. She was also admitted to the ICU for airway monitoring. The MRI of the neck again showed calcific tendonitis of the longus colli with moderate prevertebral fluid. Meanwhile, the patient had complete resolution of her symptoms in 24 hours and she was cleared from both neurosurgery and ENT to be discharged. Acute calcific tendonitis is due to the deposition of calcium hydroxyapatite, which can cause significant pain and edema. In terms of calcific tendonitis of the longus colli muscle, this condition is frequently misdiagnosed and continues to be a challenge, especially in the emergency department. The differential diagnosis is diverse in etiology and severity, ranging from meningitis and retropharyngeal abscess to vertebral fracture and muscle strain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0867_19728", "title": "Nonoperative Management of Cervical Radiculopathy.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Cervical radiculopathy describes pain in one or both of the upper extremities, often in the setting of neck pain, secondary to compression or irritation of nerve roots in the cervical spine. It can be accompanied by motor, sensory, or reflex deficits and is most prevalent in persons 50 to 54 years of age. Cervical radiculopathy most often stems from degenerative disease in the cervical spine. The most common examination findings are painful neck movements and muscle spasm. Diminished deep tendon reflexes, particularly of the triceps, are the most common neurologic finding. The Spurling test, shoulder abduction test, and upper limb tension test can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Imaging is not required unless there is a history of trauma, persistent symptoms, or red flags for malignancy, myelopathy, or abscess. Electrodiagnostic testing is not needed if the diagnosis is clear, but has clinical utility when peripheral neuropathy of the upper extremity is a likely alternate diagnosis. Patients should be reassured that most cases will resolve regardless of the type of treatment. Nonoperative treatment includes physical therapy involving strengthening, stretching, and potentially traction, as well as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, muscle relaxants, and massage. Epidural steroid injections may be helpful but have higher risks of serious complications. In patients with red flag symptoms or persistent symptoms after four to six weeks of treatment, magnetic resonance imaging can identify pathology amenable to epidural steroid injections or surgery. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_63191", "title": "Radish", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "History" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1136_2938", "title": "Case Report: Posterolateral Epidural Supra-C2-Root Approach (PESCA) for Biopsy of a Retro-Odontoid Lesions in Same Sitting After Occipitocervical Fixation and Decompression in a Case of Crowned Dens Syndrome With Brainstem Compression and Displacement.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "'Crowned dens syndrome' (CDS) is a special form of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease which is characterized radiologically by a halo-like or crown-like distribution in the periodontoid region and clinically by cervical pain. Herein, we will describe our experience of posterolateral epidural supra-C2-root approach (PESCA) for biopsy of retro-odontoid lesions in one surgical session after occipitocervical fixation and decompression in a patient with CDS and massive brainstem compression. A 70-year-old woman presented to our department with a 4-week history of progressive walking impairment, neck pain, neck rigidity, fever, dizziness, slight palsy of the left hand, and multiple fall episodes. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the craniovertebral junction (CVJ) and cervical spine revealed a lesion of the odontoid process and the retro-odontoid region with mainly solid components, as well as small cystic components, and brainstem compression and displacement. In first step, fusion surgery of the CVJ C0-C4 was performed with occiptocervical decompression. After fusion and decompression the lower lateral part of the C1 arc and the lateral superior part of the left side of the C2 arc were removed. The entry point was located directly above the superior part of the C2 root. A biopsy of the lateral portions of the lesions was obtained by bioptic forceps under microscope guidance. Pathologic examination of the mass revealed deposition of birefringent crystals compatible with calcium pyrophosphate. In addition to the clinical symptoms (especially neck pain), the diagnosis of CDS was made. Non-steroidal inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine (and later magnesium) were started. At follow-up examination 6 months after surgery, an MRI scan of the cervical spine revealed regression of the pannus and the cyst with replacement of the brainstem, clinical improvement of walking, and increased strength of the left hand. This study demonstrates that PESCA can be used to obtain tissue for pathological analysis in one surgical sitting after fusion and decompression and that fusion, decompression, and PESCA (in the same session) together with subsequent conservative management could be a good alternative for the treatment of CDS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0854_13954", "title": "Basilar impression presenting as intermittent mechanical neck pain: a rare case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Neck pain is one of the most common musculoskeletal disorders in clinical practice. However neck pain may mask more serious pathology. Although uncommon in most musculoskeletal physiotherapy practices, it is possible to encounter rare and extremely life-threatening conditions, such as craniovertebral congenital anomalies. Basilar invagination is an abnormality where the odontoid peg projects above the foramen magnum and is the commonest malformation of the craniocervical junction. Its prevalence in the general population is estimated to be 1%. Furthermore, it is a well-recognised cause of neck pain insomuch as it can be easily overlooked and mistaken for a musculoskeletal disorder. Diagnosis is based on the patient's symptoms in conjunction with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). If life-threatening symptoms, or pressure on the spinal cord are present, the recommended treatment is typically surgical correction. This case report describes the history, relevant examination findings, and clinical reasoning used for a 37 year old male who had the chief complaint of neck pain and occipital headache. After the history and the physical examination, there were several key indicators in the patient's presentation that appeared to warrant further investigation with diagnostic imaging: (1) the drop attack after a triggering event (i.e., heading a football), (2) several episodes of facial numbness immediately and shortly after the trauma, (3) the poorly defined muscle upper extremity muscle weakness, and (4) the modification of symptoms during the modified Sharp-Purser test. Therefore, the decision was made to contact the referring neurosurgeon to discuss the patient's history and his physical examination. The physician requested immediate cervical spine MRI, which revealed a \"basilar impression\". This case report highlights the need for more research into a number of issues surrounding the prevalence, diagnosis, and the central role of primary care clinicians such as physiotherapists. Furthermore it underlines the importance of including Basilar invagination in the differential diagnosis. Physiotherapists working within a direct access environment must take a comprehensive history and be capable of screening for non-musculoskeletal medical conditions (on a systems, not diagnosis level) in order to avoid providing potentially harmful musculoskeletal treatments (e.g., cervical mobilization or manipulation, stretching, exercise) to patients with sinister medical pathologies, not benign musculoskeletal disorders." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0763_14041", "title": "History of head trauma in a 6-year-old boy: maybe more than meets the eye (and head).", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "It is spring and you are meeting for the first time, Eddie, a recently turned 6-year-old boy who moved to the area in September of the previous year and is here for his 6-year-old health maintenance visit. Eddie's mother is concerned that although he is \"only\" in kindergarten, he is not retaining any information at school. His mother reports he knew some of his letters before kindergarten. Currently, when he is trying to write a word, for example, \"daddy\" he will need to ask his mother: \"what letter is the letter D?\" Before kindergarten, he knew his numbers 1 to 10. At times now, Eddie will forget these numbers. For example, \"if he is counting he will forget what comes after 4 and what comes after 9.\" Mother reports he will start crying for no apparent reason and if she asks why, he will say \"I don't know why.\" Mother is worried that Eddie is sad, although she denies suicidal ideation. She reports he used to like making noise with other kids, and now he cannot stand when the children are noisy. Eddie will comment he does not want to go to school because the kids make lots of noise and his head hurts. He complains of headaches as often as 2 to 3 times a month. She next states, \"This was not an issue before his head trauma.\" At this point, she reveals to you that in August, before the family relocated, Eddie fell from a 7-foot deck onto concrete while playing. He struck his head on the left side and lost consciousness for several seconds until shaken awake. He was nauseous and disoriented initially but without emesis or incontinence. He was taken to the local emergency department where he was admitted for 1 day and diagnosed with closed head injury, left frontal epidural hematoma, and question of postconcussive syndrome. Eddie has gone back to see the neurosurgeon twice over the last 6 months for scheduled visits and since the accident has had no further treatment.Eddie's mother reports that before the accident, if she read him a story from a book, he could remember the details from the story. Currently, he does not have good memory recall. Before the trauma, he did not attend a preschool program but stayed home with his mother full time. Eddie's first formal schooling has been kindergarten this year. When they moved, the neurosurgeon recommended he start school at the end of September given his head trauma in August. He had a recent computed tomography completed 3 months ago showing the epidural hematoma had completely resolved and the study was otherwise normal. His mother reports he had an evaluation the spring before the accident for a kindergarten screening test and was reported as \"excellent.\" Eddie's birth and medical history are otherwise unremarkable except for some seasonal allergies. He has not had a loss in language skill, although his mother reports he did not speak during his hospitalization. He would just stare and nod his head if someone would ask him a question. No family history of any learning or behavioral difficulties on either side of the family. Eddie has 2 older brothers, 10 and 7 years of age, with no learning issues.What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en417_9693", "title": "Radico Khaitan", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "History" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_12500", "title": "Acute posterior neck pain in adult: a case series.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Calcification around the cervical spine is thought to be relatively rare case, among these conditions the calcification at the longus colli muscle is called retropharyngeal tendinitis and only several cases were reported in the literature. In this disease, the three characteristic clinical features are acute severe posterior neck pain without any trigger, severely restricted range of motion, and odynophagia. The radiographic findings include swelling of the retropharyngeal space and amorphous calcification anterior to C1-C2 in lateral view of the cervical spine. Diagnosis is established by sound history taking coupled with computed tomography (CT) scan of the affected area, treatment is the administration of oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID), for a few weeks and/or oral steroid. We present a new 3 cases (27, 35, and 24 years old, male) and review of literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_9781", "title": "9. Painful shoulder complaints.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Painful shoulder complaints have a high incidence and prevalence. The etiology is not always clear. Clinical history and the active and passive motion examination of the shoulder are the cornerstones of the diagnostic process. Three shoulder tests are important for the examination of shoulder complaints: shoulder abduction, shoulder external rotation, and horizontal shoulder adduction. These tests can guide the examiner to the correct diagnosis. Based on this diagnosis, in most cases, primarily a conservative treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs possibly in combination with manual and/or exercise therapy can be started. When conservative treatment fails, injection with local anesthetics and corticosteroids can be considered. In the case of frozen shoulder, a continuous cervical epidural infusion of local anesthetic and small doses of opioids or a pulsed radiofrequency treatment of the nervus suprascapularis can be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en069_46071", "title": "Sacroiliitis", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Treatment Treatment of sacroiliitis can vary depending on the severity of the condition and the amount of pain the patient is currently experiencing. However, it typically falls into one of two categories non-surgical and surgical: Non-surgical In most cases sacroiliitis can be treated without surgery. Often patients will find relief through a combination of rest, heat / ice therapy, physical therapy and anti-inflammatory medication, like ibuprofen. Together these simple treatments help reduce inflammation in the affected SI joints. For more severe forms of sacroiliitis, sacroiliac joint injections might be recommended to help combat symptoms. If chosen, a physician will inject a numbing agent, usually lidocaine, and a steroid containing powerful anti-inflammatory medication into the joint using fluoroscopic guidance. These steroid injections can be delivered up to three or four times a year and should be accompanied with physical therapy to help rehabilitate the affected joint." }, { "id": "article-24839_21", "title": "Median Nerve Palsy -- History and Physical", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Diagnosticians must always evaluate the neck in patients with presumed median nerve injury or carpal tunnel syndrome. Double crush syndrome is defined as an injury to a nerve at both a distal site of compression as well as proximally such as in the case of a coexistent cervical disk herniation or foraminal stenosis. This condition is most commonly identified when patients have an unsatisfactory resolution of symptoms after a carpal tunnel release. [10] Osterman et al. found in a prospective study that patients who suffered from double crush syndrome reported more \"paresthesias\" rather than \"numbness\" compared to patients who had isolated carpal tunnel syndrome. He also found that grip strength was decreased more with double crush syndrome compared to carpal tunnel syndrome. [11] Of note, radiography of the cervical spine is not currently recommended for evaluation of double crush syndrome by current literature, particularly in the older patient population as there is a very high incidence of asymptomatic degenerative changes of the spine. MRI may be useful but is cost-prohibitive and not necessary in most cases. Therefore, history and physical examination with documentation of such examination techniques as Spurling's cervical spine maneuver to identify cervical nerve root compression, are important tools to identify double crush syndromes. [10] [12] [13]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 483, 638 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 82, 108 ] ], "text": "having had two pregnancies in these years of stay in Spain, it should be suggested that her children also be tested for the probable vertical transmission." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 69 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 12 ] ], "text": "The sexual route is not a means of transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 219, 472 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 36, 81 ] ], "text": "The woman was already infected by the parasite when she arrived in Spain, it may be correct to suggest that her siblings have a T. cruzi serology test because of the risk that her mother may have transmitted the infection vertically to all her siblings." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Recommend that their children have a T. cruzi serology because of the risk of transplacental transmission.", "2": "Inform the patient of the risk of T. cruzi transmission and the attitude to be taken during pregnancy, delivery and postpartum.", "3": "Recommend that her husband have T. cruzi serology because of the risk of having sexually transmitted the disease to her.", "4": "Recommend that her siblings have T. cruzi serology because of the risk of vectorial transmission.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0726_23953", "title": "[Prevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi infection and vertical transmission in Latin-American pregnant women in a health area of Biscay].", "score": 0.019327731092436976, "content": "To estimate the prevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi infection, the epidemiological factors associated with it, and the risk of maternal-foetal transmission in pregnant women from endemic areas seen in the catchment area of Cruces Hospital (Basque Country, Spain). Descriptive study. Diagnosis of T. cruzi infection in pregnant women and neonates by performing serological tests and parasitological diagnosis using PCR. Epidemiological survey and multivariate analysis to identify the risk factors associated with T. cruzi infection. A total of 158 women participated in the study between December 2008 and January 2010, with mean age of 28.5 (±5.3). Nineteen (12%) pregnant mothers were seropositive, of whom 16 (84.2%) came from Bolivia, with a prevalence, in this group, of 22.2%. Independent epidemiological risk factors associated with T. cruzi infection were a history of living in mud houses (OR: 4.62; 95%IC: 1.54-13.87; P=.006) and knowledge of the vector (OR: 9.07; 95%IC: 1.91-43.11; P=.006). There was one newborn infected, which assumed a congenital transmission rate of 5.8% On the basis of the high prevalence of T. cruzi infection detected in Latin-American pregnant women and the risk of vertical transmission, a screening program would be recommended, which would be fundamentally based on the identification of geographic origin and epidemiological variables." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_7608", "title": "[Seroprevalence and vertical transmission of Chagas disease in a cohort of Latin-american pregnant women in a tertiary hospital in Madrid].", "score": 0.019149715961150816, "content": "Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi (T. cruzi), is endemic in Latin-America and is emerging in Spain due to immigration. The vertical transmission rate is around 5%. A routine prenatal screening with serology of all pregnant women from endemic areas is recommended to identify infected newborns, allowing early treatment and cure. The aim of this study was to estimate the prevalence of positive Chagas serology in a cohort of pregnant women from Latin-America and its vertical transmission. An observational, prospective, follow-up study was conducted on women with positive serology to T. cruzi, as well as their newborns, from January 2013 to April 2015. Congenital Chagas was ruled out using a PCR technique at birth and at 1 month, and with serology at 9-12 months old. A child was considered infected when PCR was positive, and uninfected when PCR was negative, and/or it had a negative serology. Screening was performed on 1244 pregnant women from Latin-America, and there were positive results in 40 (prevalence 3.2%, 95% CI: 2.4-4.4%), with 85% of them from Bolivia. There was only one infected newborn (rate of vertical transmission 2.8% (95% CI: 0-15%)), who had a positive PCR at birth. Relative studies enabled an 8-year-old sister with an asymptomatic disease to be diagnosed and treated. Both were treated successfully with benznidazole (later the PCR and serology were negative). Screening during pregnancy in Latin-American women helped to detect those with Chagas disease. The rate of vertical transmission was 2.8%, in keeping with literature. Screening led to the detection and treatment of previously unidentified familial cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0706_15399", "title": "Surveillance of Chagas disease in pregnant women in Madrid, Spain, from 2008 to 2010.", "score": 0.018268268268268266, "content": "One of the most important modes of transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in areas where it is not endemic is vertical transmission: from mother to child. The objective of this report is to assess the efficacy of different programmes of serological screening to monitor infection with T. cruzi in pregnant Latin American women living in Madrid (Spain). To achieve this, a retrospective study was undertaken from January 2008 to December 2010 in seven hospitals in the Autonomous Community of Madrid. Serological screening programmes were classified in two main strategies: a selective one (pregnant women from Bolivia) and a universal one (pregnant women from Latin America). A total of 3,839 pregnant women were tested and the overall prevalence was 3.96%. The rate of congenital transmission was 2.6%. The current monitoring programmes have variable coverage ranging between 26% (selective screening) and 100% (universal screening). Monitoring of pregnant women from Latin America only reaches full coverage if universal screening of pregnant women is carried out at any moment of pregnancy, including at delivery. A common national regulation is necessary in order to ensure homogenous implementation of screening." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0771_2942", "title": "[Control of Chagas disease in pregnant Latin-American women and her children].", "score": 0.016825733474726053, "content": "Chagas disease is a chronic and systemic infection caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. According to estimates from WHO, 10 million people are affected by this parasite. In the last years, birthrate among the immigrant women from Latin America settled in the Comunidad Autónoma de Madrid has been increasing, and as T. cruzi can be transmitted from mother to child, in fact 11 cases of congenital Chagas disease have been confirmed. Therefore, the aim of this paper is encouraging improvements in the coverage of the anti-T. cruzi antibodies detection in pregnant women from endemic areas. By this strategy, an active search for infected pregnant women and early detection of her infected newborns could be conducted, and then an early specific treatment could be administrated. Thus, there could be an important contribution to the control of Chagas disease in non-endemic area. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0824_20101", "title": "Trypanosoma cruzi-infected pregnant women without vector exposure have higher parasitemia levels: implications for congenital transmission risk.", "score": 0.016368354514605096, "content": "Congenital transmission is a major source of new Trypanosoma cruzi infections, and as vector and blood bank control continue to improve, the proportion due to congenital infection will grow. A major unanswered question is why reported transmission rates from T. cruzi-infected mothers vary so widely among study populations. Women with high parasite loads during pregnancy are more likely to transmit to their infants, but the factors that govern maternal parasite load are largely unknown. Better understanding of these factors could enable prioritization of screening programs to target women most at risk of transmission to their infants. We screened pregnant women presenting for delivery in a large urban hospital in Bolivia and followed infants of infected women for congenital Chagas disease. Of 596 women screened, 128 (21.5%) had confirmed T. cruzi infection; transmission occurred from 15 (11.7%) infected women to their infants. Parasite loads were significantly higher among women who transmitted compared to those who did not. Congenital transmission occurred from 31.3% (9/29), 15.4% (4/26) and 0% (0/62) of women with high, moderate and low parasite load, respectively (χx2 for trend 18.2; p&lt;0.0001). Twin births were associated with higher transmission risk and higher maternal parasite loads. Infected women without reported vector exposure had significantly higher parasite loads than those who had lived in an infested house (median 26.4 vs 0 parasites/mL; p&lt;0.001) with an inverse relationship between years of living in an infested house and parasite load. We hypothesize that sustained vector-borne parasite exposure and repeated superinfection by T. cruzi may act as an immune booster, allowing women to maintain effective control of the parasite despite the down-regulation of late pregnancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_2120", "title": "[Control of congenital transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi in Argentina].", "score": 0.016139486647653616, "content": "The vertical transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi has been augmenting its relative importance as vector and transfusion-mediated transmission routes have been, and continue to be, increasingly controlled. The vertical transmission of T. cruzi cannot be prevented; but early detection and treatment of congenital infection achieve cure rates close to 100%. In Argentina, the Subprogram of Control of Pregnant Women examined 58,196 women from 13 provinces in 1997 and found a 9% seropositivity to T. cruzi. In spite of such high maternal prevalence rates of T. cruzi, only a small proportion of live newborns to infected mothers acquires the infection. The probability of vertical transmission was 1.9% (range: 0.1% to 3.5%) in surveys carried out in the '70s, and 2.5% (range: 0.7% to 10.4%) in others conducted in the '70-'80s. Other more recent studies in Argentina estimated the probability of transmission in 2.6%-6.7%, but studies from Paraguay estimated 10.5% by PCR or serodiagnosis. The microhematocrit technique is the recommended parasitologic method to detect congenital infection. Routine serodiagnosis that detects IgG against T. cruzi is only helpful after the newborn reaches 6 months of age. Detection of specific IgM using recombinant antigens and PCR constitute excellent alternatives, but their feasibility from operational and cost-effective viewpoints in affected endemic areas remains to be considered. In a longitudinal project carried out in Maternidad Nuestra Señora de la Merced in the city of Tucumán between 1992-1994, the majority of congenital cases were asymptomatic. They were diagnosed through the microhematocrit technique, but a number of cases could only be detected later as a result of the parasitological and/or serological follow-up. Of a total of 32 newborns infected with T. cruzi who were treated with nifurtimox or benznidazole, 30 had a negative microhematocrit and serodiagnosis between 6 months and 2 years post-treatment. The magnitude of congenital transmission, and its associated morbidity and mortalidad, largely justify the efforts needed to detect T. cruzi infection in the mothers and newborns. This project demonstrated that the transmission of T. cruzi can be successfully controlled at a provincial scale through a specific program inserted in the primary health care system or at the first level of attention. The congenital transmission of T. cruzi clearly represents a public health problem in areas that in the past were of active transmission, even years after being under entomologic surveillance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1069_21940", "title": "Seroprevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi in pregnant women in Midwest Brazil: an evaluation of congenital transmission.", "score": 0.01588198367859385, "content": "Chagas disease (CD) is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi and it is mainly acquired through the vector route, however, blood transfusion and congenital transmission are implicated in the spread of the illness worldwide. The congenital route can occur at any stage of pregnancy and its frequency varies. In the Federal District, in Brazil, the frequency of T. cruzi infection in pregnant women and their offspring has not been updated. Thus, the aim of this study was to estimate the prevalence of T. cruzi infection in pregnant women and the rate of congenital transmission in the Federal District. A cross-sectional study was conducted to estimate the seroprevalence of T. cruzi from 2014 to 2016 in the population of pregnant women attended by the public health service throughout the Federal District and a descriptive cohort for the evaluation of congenital transmission. During the study, prenatal data of 98,895 women were consulted and pregnant women registered in 2016, presenting with positive T. cruzi serology, were part of the descriptive cohort. The estimated prevalence of T. cruzi infection in the three years was 0.19% and the congenital transmission rate was 1/40 (2.5%). Our results have shown that, although the main routes of transmission of CD have been interrupted, there is still a risk of congenital transmission in the Federal District. This present study highlights the need for the continuous implementation of a screening program for pregnant women and timely treatment of infected newborns and children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0711_24152", "title": "Prevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in pregnant Latin American women and congenital transmission rate in a non-endemic area: the experience of the Valencian Health Programme (Spain).", "score": 0.015746109246261825, "content": "This study describes the results of the health programme implemented in the Valencian Community (Spain) to achieve an early diagnosis of Chagas disease in pregnant Latin American women and their newborns. During 2009 and 2010, 1975 women living in the health districts of three university hospitals were enrolled via midwives or at the time of delivery. Diagnosis of disease was performed using two serological tests with different antigens. Congenital infection was diagnosed by parasitological, molecular or serological methods from blood samples obtained at birth or in subsequent controls. The overall seroprevalence of Chagas infection in pregnant women from 16 different endemic countries was 11·4%. Infection was higher in those from countries in the Gran Chaco Region (Bolivia, 34·1%; Paraguay, 7·4%; Argentina, 5·3%). Eight newborn infants from Bolivian mothers had congenital Chagas which represents a vertical transmission rate of 3·7%. In conclusion, this work supports the benefits of offering an early diagnosis to pregnant women and newborns during routine prenatal healthcare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_3614", "title": "Congenital Chagas disease: diagnostic and clinical aspects in an area without vectorial transmission, Bermejo, Bolivia.", "score": 0.01538021726700972, "content": "The authors carried out a 1-year study of a population of pregnant women delivering at Bermejo hospital, South Bolivia. In this area, vectorial transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi is negligible and women infect themselves during displacements in close endemic areas. The prevalence of T. cruzi in 508 pregnant women, diagnosed by several serological tests, was 33.9%. In eight infants, we observed T. cruzi in the umbilical cord (congenital transmission rate of 5.2%). The means of birth weights, lengths and hemoglobin rates were similar in the children from both seronegative and seropositive women, and in children infected or not by T. cruzi. This study could confirm a less severity of the congenital disease of Chagas in the absence of re-infestation of the mother during pregnancy. Serological screening of pregnant women by rapid diagnostic tests and examination of babies born from seropositive mothers by microhematocrit method at birth is a suitable strategy to detect and prevent congenital Chagas disease in non-endemic areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0705_16539", "title": "Chagas disease in Latin American pregnant immigrants: experience in a non-endemic country.", "score": 0.0150650789255054, "content": "Chagas disease is a systemic chronic parasitic infection by Trypanosoma cruzi endemic in Latin America. Migration of women of childbearing age from Latin America to developed countries may spread the disease to non-endemic areas through vertical transmission. Prospective study of seroprevalence of T. cruzi infection in immigrant Latin American pregnant women during a 5-year period (from 2006 to 2010) in Spain. Seven out of 545 participants were seropositive for T. cruzi [prevalence 1.28%, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.06-2.56]. Four (57%) were from Bolivia and three (43.%) from Paraguay. The seroprevalence in pregnant women from Bolivia was 10.26% (95% CI 4.06-23.58) and in participants from Paraguay was 6.52% (95% CI 2.24-17.5). No congenital transmission occurred. Seroprevalence of T. cruzi infection in Latin American pregnant women coming from Bolivia and Paraguay is high. Those women should be screened for T. cruzi to control mother-to-child transmission in non-endemic areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0600_13014", "title": "Seroprevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in at-risk blood donors in Catalonia (Spain).", "score": 0.014921438363387114, "content": "The increasing arrival of Latin Americans to Europe and, particularly, to Spain has led to the appearance of new pathologies, such as Chagas disease, a zoonotic infection endemic to rural areas of Central and South America. In the absence of the triatomid vector, one of the main modes of transmission of Chagas disease in nonendemic regions is through blood transfusion. The Catalonian Blood Bank has implemented a screening program for Chagas disease in at-risk blood donors and has performed a study to determine the seroprevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in the donor population. The two commercial tests used in all samples were the ID-PaGIA Chagas antibody test (DiaMed) and the bioelisa Chagas assay (Biokit). Overall seroprevalence was 0.62 percent, with 11 donors confirmed positive among the 1770 at-risk donors studied; the highest rate (10.2%) was in Bolivian donors. Interestingly, 1 of the 11 positive donors was a Spaniard who had resided various years in a Chagas disease endemic area. Furthermore, 1 of the positive donors presented detectable parasitemia. The results of this study emphasize the need for T. cruzi screening in at-risk blood donors in nonendemic countries. An important finding is the relevance of including in the at-risk category persons who have resided in, but were not necessarily born in, an endemic region. If T. cruzi screening is not routinely performed in all donations, it remains highly dependent on proper identification of at-risk donors during the predonation interview." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0912_5828", "title": "Extended screening of Trypanosoma cruzi among the offspring of infected women. Barcelona North metropolitan area, Catalonia (Spain), 2005-2016.", "score": 0.014819237867766802, "content": "To date, very little data is available on the extensive, familiar, serological screening of Trypanosoma cruzi from infected-index cases. As it is a parasite with possibility of mother-to-child fetal transmission, the study of the offspring of chronically infected women has a special relevance. An observational study using a capture-recapture method that evaluates the offspring serological status of women diagnosed with T. cruzi infection (positive serology) in the northern metropolitan area of Barcelona during 2005-2016. A total of 238 women with positive serology for T. cruzi were identified. Of these, 117 (49.2%) could be localized. Their offspring summarized 300 individuals, of which 192 (64%) had serology records, with 23 positive for T. cruzi (11.98%; CI95%: 8.1-17.3). Among the 53 children born within the study area, 5 (9.8%, CI95%: 4.2-20.9) cases of vertical transmission were recorded. All children born as of 2010 (the starting year of mother screening) had serological outputs. Offspring of T. cruzi-seropositive women showed a high rate of seropositivity. The prevalence of vertical transmission is also remarkably high but comparable to that obtained in other European studies. The main source of loss was non-accessible women. It is reasonable to formaly include extensive, familiar, serological assessment in Chagas screening guidelines. In order to avoid losses, any eventual screening should be implemented at the time of the maternal diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0516_12215", "title": "[The prevalence of Chagas' disease in puerperal women and congenital transmission in an endemic area of Peru].", "score": 0.014154704944178628, "content": "To determine the prevalence of antibodies against Trypanosoma cruzi in puerperal women and to assess possible congenital transmission of Chagas' disease in the department of Arequipa, Peru, where the disease is endemic. Women who had given birth between December 2001 and July 2002 in three hospitals (two urban and one rural) and four health centers (three rural and one urban) of the department of Arequipa, Peru, were studied. The serological study included screening all the puerperal women in order to detect antibodies against T. cruzi through indirect immunofluorescence (IIF), with confirmatory testing done with enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) testing and the titration of immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies by IIF. IIF tests to screen for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies were done with the seropositive women and their newborns, and infection was evaluated through xenodiagnosis (evaluated at 30 and 60 days) and the direct micromethod of Freilij et al. The results were analyzed in terms of the presence of the vector and of cases of Chagas' disease in the places where the puerperal women had been born and where they were living. Two neonatologists clinically evaluated the newborns in order to detect abnormalities and signs of congenital Chagas' disease. The overall prevalence of Chagas' disease in the 3 000 puerperal women studied was 0.73%. Prevalence was highest in two health centers located in rural areas (2.2% in El Pedregal and 4.1% in La Joya) (P=0.018). The disease was associated with previous direct contact with the vector (P&lt;0.05) and with having been born in an area considered endemic (P&lt;0.01). Four (20%) of the 20 seropositive puerperal women were also positive by xenodiagnosis. However, none of the women was aware of her infectious carrier state, and none showed the characteristic symptoms or signs of acute or chronic Chagas' disease. IgM antibodies were not detected in any of the puerperal women. One neonate (whose mother did not have evidence of parasitemia) presented an IgM titer of 1/8, but in later controls neither IgM nor IgG antibodies were detected. Parasites were not detected in the blood of the neonates by either of the two testing methods used. Of the 20 neonates evaluated, one presented microcephaly and hepatosplenomegaly; although the child had specific IgG antibodies against T. cruzi at birth, the antibodies were not present at the age of two months. The growth and development of the other 19 newborns were normal. The prevalence of Chagas' disease in puerperal women of the department of Arequipa, Peru, is low. No cases of intrauterine congenital transmission were found. We recommend carrying out studies on prenatal detection that evaluate more mothers and in which women who give birth at home also participate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1077_6289", "title": "Chagas disease screening in pregnant Latin American women: Adherence to a systematic screening protocol in a non-endemic country.", "score": 0.013986013986013986, "content": "Chagas disease (CD) is a chronic parasitic disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and is endemic to continental Latin America. In Spain, the main transmission route is congenital. We aimed to assess adherence to regional recommendations of universal screening for CD during pregnancy in Latin American women in the province of Alicante from 2014 to 2018. Retrospective quality study using two data sources: 1) delivery records of Latin American women that gave birth in the 10 public hospitals of Alicante between January 2014 and December 2018; and 2) records of Chagas serologies carried out in those centers between May 2013 and December 2018. There were 3026 deliveries in Latin American women during the study period; 1178 (38.9%) underwent CD serology. Screening adherence ranged from 17.2% to 59.3% in the different health departments and was higher in Bolivian women (48.3%). Twenty-six deliveries (2.2%) had a positive screening; CD was confirmed in 23 (2%) deliveries of 21 women. Bolivians had the highest seroprevalence (21/112; 18.7%), followed by Colombians (1/333; 0.3%) and Ecuadorians (1/348; 0.3%). Of 21 CD-positive women (19 Bolivians, 1 Colombian, 1 Ecuadorian), infection was already known in 12 (57.1%), and 9 (42.9%) had already been treated. Only 1 of the 12 untreated women (8.3%) was treated postpartum. Follow-up started in 20 of the 23 (87.0%) neonates but was completed only in 11 (47.8%); no cases of congenital transmission were detected. Among the 1848 unscreened deliveries, we estimate 43 undiagnosed cases of CD and 1 to 2 undetected cases of congenital transmission. Adherence to recommendations of systematic screening for CD in Latin American pregnant women in Alicante can be improved. Strategies to strengthen treatment of postpartum women and monitoring of exposed newborns are needed. Currently, there may be undetected cases of congenital transmission in our province." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0728_11860", "title": "Maternal fetal transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi: a problem of public health little studied in Mexico.", "score": 0.013362433744599351, "content": "The first case of neonatal Chagas was reported in Mexico in 1998, but there have been no studies since then. Therefore, we investigated the rates of congenital infection of Trypanosoma cruzi by examining the seroprevalence among 1448 pregnant women in Oaxaca, Jalisco and Mexico City. We performed ELISAs to screen for recombinant and total antigens in mothers, and examined the frequency of congenital T. cruzi transmission by PCR with cord blood and antibody testing in children when they reached two years old. Our results showed that the prevalence of infection in pregnant women was 7.32% (106/1448) overall, and 4.4% (35/794) in Oaxaca, 12.02% (67/557) in Jalisco and 4.12% (4/97) in the Mexico City. In Oaxaca, T. cruzi infection was detected by PCR in 20% (7/35) of infants born to seroreactive mothers and 11.9% (8/67) in Jalisco. No infections were identified in infants from the Mexico City. From these only eleven serological follow up their children are agree to take blood. Therefore, the maternal-fetal overall transmission rate was 4.08% (4/98) in Oaxaca and 9.1% (3/33) in Jalisco 1.5% (1/65) children with positive serology were given specific treatment Chagas. In conclusion, these are the first reports of the rates of congenital Chagas disease in Mexico. The seroprevalence was higher in mothers from Jalisco, and could be related to that there is not the periodic fumigation of the transmitting vector performed in that state. The high rates of maternal-fetal transmission found in Oaxaca could be related to the differences of pathogenicity of trypanosome. No association between both the rate of congenital transmission and the gynecologic anthropometric data was observed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_11882", "title": "[Endemic level of congenital Trypanosoma cruzi infection in the areas of maternal residence and the development of congenital Chagas disease in Bolivia].", "score": 0.013342025206431987, "content": "In Bolivia, the prevalence of infection by T. cruzi in women in fertile age can vary between 20 and 60%. The present study made in the Maternity Germin Urquidi of Cochabamba - Bolivia, it has demonstrated, that 19.9% of the mothers who go to this hospitable center to be taken care of in the childbirth, they are carrying of the infection and that 4,6% of them, they are going to transmit, by transplacentaria route, the infection to its babies. Of the 71 children born with congenital Chagas, only 47,8 % present/display some type of alteration or of development(Apgar to 1 minute low, BPN, prematuridad, pathological dismadurez) or signs (SDR, hepatomegalia, esplenomegalia, neurological signs, cardiomegalia, anasarca, petequias). When investigating the effect of the differences in the vectorial density (low, medium and high) of the zone of maternal residence, on the transmission of the infection of the mother infected to the fetus, we concluded that the rate of transmission of the congenital infection of T. cruzi is not modified by the level of endemicidad of the zone of maternal residence. By another infected new born sides whose mothers reside in zones of high endemicidad present/display, most frequently and of significant way, Apgar to 1 minute &lt; to 7, low weight when being born and prematuridad or an association of these alterations with respiratory syndrome of distress or anasarca, when one compares them with new born of resident mothers in the zones of loss or medium endemicidad, mortality in this group is greater. These results suggest calls to account it of the mothers, in areas of high endemicidad, she is associate with a serious increase in the risk of Disease of newborn severe and mortal congenital Chagas in." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0806_20565", "title": "Mother-to-Child Transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi.", "score": 0.013253433645350362, "content": "Among the world's most neglected tropical diseases, Chagas disease is vector-borne and caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. T cruzi infection is endemic to South and Central America as well as Mexico. Due to population migration, T cruzi is increasingly becoming a public health problem in nonendemic settings. Success with vector control strategies has led to a relative increase in the burden attributable to congenital transmission of T cruzi. In endemic settings, approximately 5% of infected pregnant women transmit to their offspring. Congenital T cruzi infection is generally asymptomatic and parasitological and serological testing is required for diagnosis. This review highlights research gaps with a focus on (1) improving screening, diagnostic, and treatment options and (2) designing epidemiologic studies to understand risk factors for congenital T cruzi. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0706_15398", "title": "The current screening programme for congenital transmission of Chagas disease in Catalonia, Spain.", "score": 0.012863005050505052, "content": "Due to considerable numbers of migrants from Chagas disease-endemic countries living in Catalonia, the Catalonian Health Department has recently implemented a screening programme for preventing congenital transmission, targeting Latin American pregnant women who attend antenatal consultations. Diagnosis of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in women is based on two positive serological tests. Screening of newborns from mothers with positive serology is based on a parasitological test during the first 48 hours of life and/or conventional serological analysis at the age of nine months. If either of these tests is positive, treatment with benznidazole is started following the World Health Organization's recommendations. The epidemiological surveillance of the programme is based on the Microbiological Reporting System of Catalonia, a well established network of laboratories. Once a positive case is reported, the responsible physician is asked to complete a structured epidemiological questionnaire. Clinical and demographic data are registered in the Voluntary Case Registry of Chagas Disease, a database administered by the Catalonian Health Department. It is expected that this programme will improve the understanding of the real burden of Chagas disease in the region. Furthermore, this initiative could encourage the implementation of similar programmes in other regions of Spain and even in other European countries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0558_399", "title": "Congenital transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi in Europe (Spain): a case report.", "score": 0.012725844461901021, "content": "Here we report a documented case of congenital transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi from a Bolivian mother with chronic Chagas disease living in Spain. The serology and blood nested polymerase chain reaction (PCR) were positive for the mother, and amastigote forms were observed in histopathological study of the placenta and umbilical cord. Direct examination, culture, and nested PCR were positive in the blood of the neonate. At the age of 8 days, the neonate began treatment with 5-7.5 mg/kg/day of benznidazol, which was continued for 60 days. Direct examination, blood culture, and nested PCR were negative to T. cruzi 20 days after the start of treatment and remained negative 4 and 7 months thereafter. Serological tests were negative at 4 months. To detect congenital infection and initiate early treatment of infected newborns, protocols are required to detect Chagas disease in pregnant women who migrate from endemic to non-endemic areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_15934", "title": "Chagas disease in pregnancy: a non-endemic problem in a globalized world.", "score": 0.012719106482769586, "content": "Chagas disease, caused by the Trypanosoma cruzi infection, is an endemic cause of morbidity and mortality in Latin America. Infection during pregnancy may increase the risk for adverse maternal-foetal outcome. Review of significant articles regarding maternal-foetal T. cruzi infection in free-vector non-endemic regions. Vertical transmission, even in vector-free world regions, occurs in 1 out of 20 seropositive mothers. T. cruzi infection increases the risk of miscarriage, preterm birth and neonatal infection which may cause infant death or severe sequelae. Prevention of T. cruzi vertical transmission is not feasible, although early diagnosis allows appropriate treatment of newborns with a 100% efficacy. The present document will recall the importance of T. cruzi mother-to-child transmission and maternal-foetal consequences in non-endemic areas. It is highly recommended that infected pregnant women in non-endemic regions be accurately assessed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0757_14112", "title": "Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) in Mexico: an update.", "score": 0.012538828699143873, "content": "Chagas disease is a parasitic infection caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi, a flagellated organism that is transmitted mainly to humans through the infected feces of triatomine kissing bugs (vector transmission in endemic areas) or by transfusion of infected blood, donations of infected organ, or transmission from an infected mother to her child at birth. Chagas disease was first described in 1909 by the Brazilian physician Carlos Chagas, and due to the parasite's distribution throughout North, Central and South America, the disease is commonly known as American trypanosomiasis. However, this disease is now present in non-endemic countries such as Canada, the United States of America, and several countries in Europe (principally Spain). Moreover, Chagas disease was recently designated by the World Health Organization as one of the main neglected tropical diseases. The aim of this review is to summarize the research efforts recently described in studies conducted in Mexico on Chagas disease. In this country, there are no existing vector control programs. In addition, there is no consensus on the diagnostic methods for acute and chronic Chagas disease in maternity wards and blood banks, and trypanocidal therapy is not administered to chronic patients. The actual prevalence of the disease is unknown because no official reporting of cases is performed. Therefore, the number of people infected by different routes of transmission (vector, congenital, blood transfusion, organ transplantation, or oral) is unknown. We believe that by promoting education about Chagas disease in schools starting at the basic elementary level and including reinforcement at higher education levels will ensure that the Mexican population would be aware of this health problem and that the control measures adopted will have more acceptance and success. We hope that this review sensitizes the relevant authorities and that the appropriate measures to reduce the risk of infection by T. cruzi are undertaken to provide the Mexican people a better quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0547_5875", "title": "Serological and parasitological screening of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in mothers and newborns living in two Chagasic areas of Mexico.", "score": 0.01245310747573191, "content": "Maternal-fetal transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi generally occurs in 2-12% of pregnant infected mothers. This transmission form has been poorly studied in Mexico where only one case of congenital infection published in 1998 has been reported. We screened 145 mothers and their delivered babies in two hospitals of endemic regions in Mexico (states of Chiapas and Veracruz) searching for anti-T. cruzi antibodies and circulating parasites by hemoculture and PCR. In Poza Rica, Veracruz, 3/85 (3.5%) mothers were seropositive for T. cruzi infection and in Palenque, Chiapas, 3/60 (5%) cases. In total 6/145 (4.1%) were seropositive subjects. Although cord blood samples of delivered babies from seropositive mothers have IgG anti-T. cruzi antibodies, none presented PCR and positive hemoculture. Although a high relative seroprevalence of T. cruzi infection in pregnant women was detected, no case of vertical transmission was recognized. Undoubtedly, further studies of large samples are necessary to evaluate maternal transmission risk in Mexico." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0650_2610", "title": "[Screening for congenital infection by Trypanosoma cruzi in France].", "score": 0.012375859434682964, "content": "The importance of congenital transmission of Chagas' disease increases with its emergence in communities infected with Trypanosoma cruzi, but where vector transmission has never existed or is fully controlled through vector control campaigns. In both endemic and non-endemic areas, the rates of mother-to-child transmission (MTCT) could be the same, by 5%, generating a constant source of new cases of the disease. Risk factors for vertical transmission are not fully elucidated, but the effectiveness of the adaptive immune response and the genetic susceptibility of both the mother and the child are suspected. Besides the risk of miscarriage or premature birth, neonatal infection by T. cruzi causes an acute form of Chagas disease, which may be accompanied by a severe infectious syndrome that can causes death if not treated early. This form of the disease is a real public health priority because it is frequent, severe, identifiable and curable. Indeed, almost all newborns diagnosed and treated before the end of their first year of life will be definitely cured. In all non-endemic areas, detection of cases of congenital Chagas disease is hampered by a very low prevalence of the disease in the general population of pregnant women, the lack of symptoms in most infected women and the disregard of these problems from health personnel in charge of monitoring pregnancy. Secondary prevention firstly consists in identifying infected women (with history of exposure and positive serology for Chagas disease) and secondly to look for the parasite in newborns from infected mothers. No primary prevention is indeed possible during pregnancy, since the only two drugs are toxic and possibly teratogenic. However, after birth, treatment could be offered to all infected women in order to prevent late complications of the disease and to make an attempt at breaking the chain of MTCT in future pregnancies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_102944", "title": "Chagas disease", "score": 0.011259191176470588, "content": "T. cruzi can be transmitted independent of the triatomine bug during blood transfusion, following organ transplantation, or across the placenta during pregnancy. Transfusion with the blood of an infected donor infects the recipient 10–25% of the time. To prevent this, blood donations are screened for in many countries with endemic Chagas disease, as well as the United States. Similarly, transplantation of solid organs from an infected donor can transmit to the recipient. This is especially true for heart transplant, which transmits T. cruzi 75–100% of the time, and less so for transplantation of the liver (0–29%) or a kidney (0–19%). An infected mother can pass to her child through the placenta; this occurs in up to 15% of births by infected mothers. As of 2019, 22.5% of new infections occurred through congenital transmission. Pathophysiology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1050_15767", "title": "Trypanosoma cruzi infection in Latin American pregnant women living outside endemic countries and frequency of congenital transmission: a systematic review and meta-analysis.", "score": 0.011201501877346684, "content": "Chagas disease, as a consequence of globalization and immigration, is no more restricted to Central and Latin America. Therefore, congenital transmission represents a growing public health concern in non-endemic countries. The aim of this study was to assess the prevalence of Trypanosoma cruzi infection in pregnant Latin American (LA) women living outside endemic countries and the rate of congenital transmission. Data were extracted from studies indexed in PubMed, Scopus, Embase, Lilacs and SciELO databases without language restriction. Two investigators independently collected data on study characteristics, diagnosis, prevalence of infection in pregnant women and congenital infection rate. The data were pooled using a random effects model. The search identified 1078 articles of which 29 were eligible regarding prevalence of T. cruzi infection among pregnant women and 1795 articles of which 32 were eligible regarding the congenital transmission rate. The estimated pooled prevalence of T. cruzi infection in LA pregnant women was 4.2% [95% confidence interval (CI): 3.0-5.5]. The prevalence of T. cruzi infection in pregnant women from Bolivia was 15.5% (95% CI: 11.7-19.7) and 0.5% (95% CI: 0.2-0.89) for those coming from all other LA countries. The estimated global rate of congenital transmission was 3.5% (95% CI: 2.5-4.5); excluding poor-quality studies, the rate of congenital transmission was 3.8% (95% CI: 2.4-5.1). Prevalence of Chagas disease among LA pregnant women living outside endemic countries is high, particularly in Bolivian women. The rate of vertical transmission of T. cruzi infection is similar to the rate reported in South and Central American countries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1140_10627", "title": "Family cluster of Chagas disease among Bolivian immigrants in Italy: High rate of maternal-fetal transmission.", "score": 0.011146299056135123, "content": "Chagas disease (CD) or American trypanosomiasis is a neglected anthropozoonosis caused by Trypanosoma cruzi that affects 6-8 million people worldwide (mainly in Latin America), 30-40% of whom develop cardiac or digestive complications. Once confined to endemic areas of Latin America, CD has more recently become a global disease as a result of migration flows from endemic to non-endemic regions, particularly in northern America and Europe. Congenital transmission is a particular challenge as it may be sustained for multiple generations and perpetuate the infection even in non-endemic countries. Subjects were identified during a cross-sectional survey of CD among Latin American people living in Milan, Italy. Serology was carried out using tests based on either a lysate and a recombinant antigen of Trypanosoma cruzi. They were also tested by a conventional Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) targeting the 330 bp variable region of the T. cruzi kinetoplast minicircle genome and a commercial real-time PCR. We here describe a Bolivian family cluster with seven affected people with at least two autochthonous congenital T. cruzi infection which was identified during the course of a CD screening programme. We also review the epidemiology, diagnosis and control of congenital CD, with particular emphasis on the challenges facing the control and management of such a complex and still largely hidden disease. Our experience confirms the need to screen for CD all family members once a case is diagnosed and shows the possible high rate of congenital CD also in non-endemic areas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_12706", "title": "Risk factors and primary prevention of congenital Chagas disease in a nonendemic country.", "score": 0.011142147734326506, "content": "In this longitudinal cohort study we evaluated the congenital transmission of Chagas disease (CD) in a nonendemic area. The aim of this work was to analyze the predictive value of a Trypanosoma cruzi-positive polymerase chain reaction (PCR) result in pregnant women for the diagnosis of vertical transmission and to evaluate the use of PCR as a tool for early detection of infection. The offspring of 59 seropositive pregnant mothers were followed up. The parasitological status of mothers was studied by PCR in a total of 64 pregnancies; 10 of these women had received treatment before pregnancy. Sixty-five infants (including a pair of twins) were monitored at 0, 6, 9, and 12 months of age by PCR and serology. In cases of congenital transmission, hemoculture and parasite lineage typing were performed. Nine infants had acquired CD congenitally. This represents a transmission rate of 13.8% among seropositive mothers (9 infected newborns of 65 total live births). All infants were infected with T. cruzi discrete typing unit V strain. A statistically significant correlation was found between T. cruzi vertical transmission and a positive PCR result during pregnancy (31%; 9 infected newborns in 29 live births). No infected infants were detected among 10 mothers who were treated before they became pregnant, compared with 16.4% (9 of 55 live births) among untreated mothers. PCR is a useful tool for the detection of congenital CD, and the treatment of infected women of childbearing age seems to be useful for preventing vertical transmission." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_102954", "title": "Chagas disease", "score": 0.009903174408628508, "content": "Other modes of transmission have been targeted by Chagas disease prevention programs. Treating -infected mothers during pregnancy reduces the risk of congenital transmission of the infection. To this end, many countries in Latin America have implemented routine screening of pregnant women and infants for infection, and the World Health Organization recommends screening all children born to infected mothers to prevent congenital infection from developing into chronic disease. Similarly to blood transfusions, many countries with endemic Chagas disease screen organs for transplantation with serological tests. There is no vaccine against Chagas disease. Several experimental vaccines have been tested in animals infected with and were able to reduce parasite numbers in the blood and heart, but no vaccine candidates had undergone clinical trials in humans as of 2016. Management" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0255_17771", "title": "Chagas disease in pregnancy.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Chagas disease is a tropical disease now making its appearance in the United States as more immigration from Latin America occurs. Pregnant women with chronic infection with Trypanosoma cruzi may present with cardiac or gastrointestinal symptoms and transmit the infection to their fetuses. A 32-year-old Mexican woman presented with cardiac symptoms at 16 weeks' gestation. She was found to have a left anterior hemiblock on her electrocardiogram. Her indirect immunofluorescent antibody titer for T cruzi was positive at greater than 1:2048. Subsequently, she had a normal pregnancy and delivery. The infant's T cruzi immunofluorescent antibody titer was 1:256 at birth and had not declined at his 6-week follow-up. Obstetric care providers in the United States need to be familiar with American trypanosomiasis because it may present during pregnancy. Serious maternal disease is possible, and perinatal transmission may be seen in 2-10% of cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_11903", "title": "[Cost effectiveness study of a control program of congenital Chagas disease in Bolivia].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Cost effectiveness analysis of Chagas' vertical transmission control program in Bolivia: Today, Bolivia is the most concerned country in America by Chagas disease: Trypanosoma cruzi infection affects 20% of whole population, around 1800000 inhabitants, and mother-to-child transmission is around 5%, from 1.6 to 9.8%. Direct and indirect costs derived from disease complications and death, from birth to adulthood, add up around US$ 21 millions per year for 2,718 infected new-borns. This cost falls on individual, family and society, when the nation is struggling in a depressed economy. On the other side, an effective control program could detect and treat all cases with an investment of US$ 123 per infected new-born, or US$ 1.2 per new-born in Bolivia. Indirect benefits, apart of suffering relieve and improving of life quality, are related with Chagas vector control program, increasing the demand thanks to increasing risk awareness and also induced demand testing all pregnant women in endemic areas. So the conclusion is that such investment is profitable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_15341", "title": "Chagas disease among the Latin American adult population attending in a primary care center in Barcelona, Spain.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The epidemiology of Chagas disease, until recently confined to areas of continental Latin America, has undergone considerable changes in recent decades due to migration to other parts of the world, including Spain. We studied the prevalence of Chagas disease in Latin American patients treated at a health center in Barcelona and evaluated its clinical phase. We make some recommendations for screening for the disease. We performed an observational, cross-sectional prevalence study by means of an immunochromatographic test screening of all continental Latin American patients over the age of 14 years visiting the health centre from October 2007 to October 2009. The diagnosis was confirmed by serological methods: conventional in-house ELISA (cELISA), a commercial kit (rELISA) and ELISA using T cruzi lysate (Ortho-Clinical Diagnostics) (oELISA). Of 766 patients studied, 22 were diagnosed with T. cruzi infection, showing a prevalence of 2.87% (95% CI, 1.6-4.12%). Of the infected patients, 45.45% men and 54.55% women, 21 were from Bolivia, showing a prevalence in the Bolivian subgroup (n=127) of 16.53% (95% CI, 9.6-23.39%). ALL THE INFECTED PATIENTS WERE IN A CHRONIC PHASE OF CHAGAS DISEASE: 81% with the indeterminate form, 9.5% with the cardiac form and 9.5% with the cardiodigestive form. All patients infected with T. cruzi had heard of Chagas disease in their country of origin, 82% knew someone affected, and 77% had a significant history of living in adobe houses in rural areas. We found a high prevalence of T. cruzi infection in immigrants from Bolivia. Detection of T. cruzi-infected persons by screening programs in non-endemic countries would control non-vectorial transmission and would benefit the persons affected, public health and national health systems." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0730_23906", "title": "Prevalence of Chagas disease in pregnant women and incidence of congenital transmission in Santa Cruz de la Sierra, Bolivia.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Congenital transmission of Chagas disease stand out as a major public health problem since the vector control was performed in all endemic areas and has shown its effectiveness. An epidemiological study was performed in three maternity hospitals of the city of Santa Cruz de la Sierra, Bolivia from 2006 to 2008. The serological screening for Trypanosoma cruzi infection was carried out in 15,767 pregnant women. Chagas infection was detected in 3725 women (23.6%), who gave birth to 125 newborns infected by T. cruzi at birth, representing an incidence of 790 per 100,000 births during a period of 16 months and a vertical transmission rate by 3.4%. There was a significant difference between hospitals that might be explained by socio-economic origins of mothers and diagnostic constraints." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 88, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 40 ] ], "text": "to reduce edema in these patients, it is recommended that it be low-protein and low-salt, so options 1 and 3 would be true." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 212, 415 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 73 ] ], "text": "ACE inhibitors are also administered as primary treatment for nephrotic syndrome, since they decrease urinary protein excretion, as do ARA II and loop diuretics, so options 2 and 5 would also be correct." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 88, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 40 ] ], "text": "to reduce edema in these patients, it is recommended that it be low-protein and low-salt, so options 1 and 3 would be true." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 597, 677 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 104, 118 ] ], "text": "since precisely one of the causes of nephrotic syndrome is the intake of NSAIDs," }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 212, 415 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 73 ] ], "text": "ACE inhibitors are also administered as primary treatment for nephrotic syndrome, since they decrease urinary protein excretion, as do ARA II and loop diuretics, so options 2 and 5 would also be correct." } }

{ "1": "Low-protein diet.", "2": "Administration of loop diuretics.", "3": "Restriction of salt in the diet.", "4": "Administration of NSAIDs.", "5": "Administration of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0268_21890", "title": "[The effect of a low-protein diet and certain pharmaceutical agents on the course of ablation nephropathy in rats].", "score": 0.01743396226415094, "content": "The beneficial effect of a low-protein diet on the course of renal failure after ablation nephropathy in the rat is known; also calcium channel antagonists (CaA) and angiotensin I converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) have a protective effect. Because even simple energy restriction retards the development of spontaneous or ablation-induced glomerulosclerosis the authors decided to replace the lacking dietary protein in the low protein diet by starch (disaccharide) and by fat (cereal oil) and compare these two low-protein diets as to their effect on the development of chronic renal failure (CRI) caused by surgical removal of 5/6 of renal parenchyma (5/6 NX). In Wistar rats just after weaning, 5/6 of renal parenchyma were removed surgically. Thereafter, the rats were fed either a \"high-protein\" (21%) or two types of a \"low-protein\" (6%) diet, in one of the latter, the lack of protein was substituted by saccharide, in the other by fat making the substitution \"isocaloric\" in either case. In all three diet groups, subgroups drinking either tap water or water containing either the ACE-inhibitor enalapril (ena) or the calcium antagonist diltiazem (dil) or both (ena+dil) were formed. On the high-protein diet, an increase in the weight of kidney remnants, in proteinuria and in systolic blood pressure (SBP) was seen. This was prevented by feeding either type of the low-protein diet but also by ena and ena+dil. Ena and ena+dil not only prevented the increase in SBP but actually lowered it significantly. Dil alone also had a SBP-lowering action but offered no protection from kidney hypertrophy and it significantly. Dil alone also had a SBP-lowering action but offered no protection from kidney hypertrophy and proteinuria. No additive protective action of ena+dil or ena+low-protein or ena+dil+low-protein was seen suggesting that the lower limit of these protective actions was reached by the low-protein diet alone. There was no substantial difference between either type of low-protein diet except a small and transient decrease in body weight in the first week on a fat-rich diet. In the described experiments and with the set-up used the low-protein diet had no effect on the plasma creatinine and urea levels nor on creatinine clearance. The weight of the kidney remnants and proteinuria were significantly higher in animals on a high-protein diet who drank water or water with diltiazem. These changes were suppressed by administration of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors either alone or combined with diltiazem. A low- protein diet (both types tested) as well as angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors improve the course of chronic renal failure in ablation nephropathy in the rat; the authors did not prove an additive effect of the combination of this diet with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0081_14473", "title": "Diuretic effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition: comparison of low and liberal sodium diet in hypertensive patients.", "score": 0.017170228445099484, "content": "Inhibitors of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) acutely increase sodium excretion. Whether or not continued treatment induces net negative sodium balance is not clear, and may depend on initial sodium balance. We therefore investigated the effects of 8 days of treatment with enalapril, 10 mg b.i.d., on sodium balance in 10 subjects with uncomplicated essential hypertension, in balance on a low (50 mmol sodium/24 h) and a liberal (200 mmol sodium/24 h) sodium intake. Sodium excretion exceeded intake during the first days of treatment, amounting to sodium losses of 101 +/- 24 and 112 +/- 15 mmol in the low and the liberal sodium diets, respectively. The sodium loss was accompanied by a fall in body weight with both regimens. The blood pressure response to enalapril was potentiated by the sodium-restricted diet. The net increase in sodium excretion after enalapril administration, however, was similar for both diets. This was particularly true for individual patients, suggesting an individual response pattern to ACE inhibition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_12063", "title": "[Management of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in childhood].", "score": 0.01594258130081301, "content": "The management of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome (INS) in children includes immunosuppressive and symptomatic treatment. The response to corticosteroid therapy is the best prognostic marker of the disease. The majority of children with INS (about 85%) are steroid-sensitive as they normalize proteinuria within 4 weeks of daily, oral prednisone administration. The most of steroid-sensitive patients (94%) has minimal change of nephrotic syndrome, while the majority (80.5%-94.4%) of those who are steroid-resistant has focal segmental glomerulosclerosis or mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis. Initial therapy of INS consists of 60 mg/m2/day prednisone daily for 4 weeks followed by 40 mg/m2 on alternate days for 4 weeks, thereafter decreasing alternate day therapy every month by 25% over the next 4 months. Thus, the overall duration of the initial corticosteroids course is 6 months that may be significantly protective against the future development of frequent relapses. Approximately 30% of patients experience only one attack and are cured after the first course of therapy; 10-20% have only 3 or 4 steroid-responsive episodes before permanent cure; the remaining 40-50% of patients are frequent relapsers, or steroid-dependent. Standard relapse therapy consists of 60 mg/m2/ day prednisone until urine is protein free for at least 3 days, followed by 40 mg/m2 on alternate days for 4 weeks. The treatment of frequent-relapses and steroid-dependent INS includes several different regimens: maintenance (6 months) alternate steroid therapy just above steroid threshold (0.1-0.5 mg/kg/48h), levamisole, alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide or chlorambucil) or cyclosporine. The worse prognosis is expected in steroid-resistant patients who are the most difficult to treat. Renal biopsy should be performed in them. At present, there is no consensus on therapeutic regimen for steroid-resistant patients. The following immunosuppressive drugs have been used with varying success: cyclosporine, intravenous methyl prednisone pulses alone or combined with or followed by alkylating agents, plasma-exchange, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. Symptomatic treatment includes: 1) dietary regimen with normal protein intake and salt restriction, 2) calcium and vitamin D are prescribed with steroids, 3) diuretics should be used in case of severe edema, 4) infusion of albumin in case of severe hypovolemia, 5) treatment of hypertension, 6) anticoagulant therapy, and 7) prophylactic antibiotics in high-risk patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_22445", "title": "Diuretic and enhanced sodium restriction results in improved antiproteinuric response to RAS blocking agents.", "score": 0.015765765765765764, "content": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and diuretics may exert synergistic antiproteinuric effects. Eighteen patients with a proteinuria &gt;1 g/24 h after 6 mo of treatment with ramipril at 5 mg/d were assigned to receive in random order ramipril at 10 mg/d, valsartan at 160 mg/d, or combined ramipril at 5 mg/d and valsartan at 80 mg/d in addition to their antihypertensive treatment. The treatment periods lasted 4 wk and were separated by a 4-wk washout with ramipril at 5 mg/d. At the end of this crossover sequence, patients received combined ramipril at 5 mg/d, valsartan at 80 mg/d, and an increased furosemide dosage for an additional 4-wk period. The primary end point was the urinary protein/creatinine ratio for two 24-h urine collections at the end of each treatment period. No significant differences were noted between the study end points of the ramipril 10, valsartan 160, and combined ramipril 5 and valsartan 80 treatment groups. However, the urinary protein/creatinine ratio was lower with combined ramipril 5 and valsartan 80-increased furosemide dosage than with valsartan 160 and combined ramipril 5 and valsartan 80, with a similar tendency compared with ramipril 10. Combined ramipril 5 and valsartan 80-increased furosemide dosage decreased systolic home BP and increased serum creatinine but did not significantly increase the number of symptomatic hypotension cases compared with the other three treatments. Thus, in patients with severe proteinuria and hypertension, a cautious increase in diuretic dosage in addition to combined angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers decreases proteinuria and BP but may expose the patient to prerenal failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0288_22064", "title": "Renal effects of captopril, indomethacin and nifedipine in nephrotic patients after an oral protein load.", "score": 0.01444906444906445, "content": "In this study we investigated whether the increase in proteinuria induced by an oral protein load may be prevented by the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) captopril in patients with nephrotic syndrome, and whether the effects of captopril on renal haemodynamics and/or glomerular selectivity are comparable to those obtained with the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) indomethacin and the calcium-channel blocker (CaCB) nifedipine. Twelve subjects underwent the following treatments: (1) low-protein meal (0.2 g protein/kg body wt), (2) high-protein meal (1.3 g protein/kg body wt), (3) high-protein meal plus oral captopril (50 mg), (4) high-protein meal plus oral nifedipine (10 mg), (5) high-protein meal plus oral indomethacin (50 mg). Urine and blood samples were obtained after meals and tested for total protein, immunoglobulin G and albumin. GFR and renal plasma flow (RPF) were calculated from iothalamate and p-aminohippuric acid clearances respectively. Mean arterial pressure decreased significantly after both captopril (-4%, P = 0.001) and nifedipine (-5%, P = 0.0019). Compared with the low-protein meal, mean values of GFR and RPF increased significantly after the high-protein meal alone (+21%, P = 0.0002; +10%, P = 0.0491 respectively), and after captopril (+18%, P = 0.0025; +24%, P = 0.0034 respectively) or nifedipine administration (+30%, P = 0.0001; +21%, P = 0.0036 respectively), whereas they remained unchanged after the high-protein meal plus indomethacin administration. FF did not change significantly under the five experimental conditions. The increase in urinary protein excretion induced by the meat load (total protein +18%, P = 0.0102; albumin +26%, P = 0.0316; IgG +28%, P = 0.0203) was entirely blocked by both captopril and indomethacin, whereas it was further increased by nifedipine administration. Both captopril and indomethacin, but not nifedipine, are able to prevent the increase in urinary protein excretion rate following a meat meal. The antiproteinuric effect of captopril is comparable to that of indomethacin, but the renal haemodynamic changes induced by these drugs differ considerably, because the filtration capacity and the renal functional reserve were preserved by captopril and decreased by indomethacin. The reduction in systemic blood pressure following administration of both captopril and nifedipine does not account for changes in proteinuria, since, with a similar degree of blood pressure lowering, urinary protein excretion is reduced by captopril and increased by nifedipine." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_3433", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.013431503792949577, "content": "NS edema is treated by restricting salt intake. Severe edema may require the use of loop diuretics. When these therapies do not alleviate severe edema, cautious parenteral administration of 25% albumin (0.5 to 1.0 g/kg intravenously over 1 to 2 hours) with an intravenous loop diuretic usually results in diuresis. The administered albumin is excreted rapidly, and, thus, salt restriction and diuretics must be continued. Significant pleural effusions may require drainage. Acute HTN is treated with β-blockers or calcium channel blockers. Persistent HTN usually responds to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_9342", "title": "Moderate dietary sodium restriction added to angiotensin converting enzyme inhibition compared with dual blockade in lowering proteinuria and blood pressure: randomised controlled trial.", "score": 0.013117283950617283, "content": "To compare the effects on proteinuria and blood pressure of addition of dietary sodium restriction or angiotensin receptor blockade at maximum dose, or their combination, in patients with non-diabetic nephropathy receiving background treatment with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibition at maximum dose. Multicentre crossover randomised controlled trial. Outpatient clinics in the Netherlands. 52 patients with non-diabetic nephropathy. All patients were treated during four 6 week periods, in random order, with angiotensin receptor blockade (valsartan 320 mg/day) or placebo, each combined with, consecutively, a low sodium diet (target 50 mmol Na(+)/day) and a regular sodium diet (target 200 mmol Na(+)/day), with a background of ACE inhibition (lisinopril 40 mg/day) during the entire study. The drug interventions were double blind; the dietary interventions were open label. The primary outcome measure was proteinuria; the secondary outcome measure was blood pressure. Mean urinary sodium excretion, a measure of dietary sodium intake, was 106 (SE 5) mmol Na(+)/day during a low sodium diet and 184 (6) mmol Na(+)/day during a regular sodium diet (P&lt;0.001). Geometric mean residual proteinuria was 1.68 (95% confidence interval 1.31 to 2.14) g/day during ACE inhibition plus a regular sodium diet. Addition of angiotensin receptor blockade to ACE inhibition reduced proteinuria to 1.44 (1.07 to 1.93) g/day (P=0.003), addition of a low sodium diet reduced it to 0.85 (0.66 to 1.10) g/day (P&lt;0.001), and addition of angiotensin receptor blockade plus a low sodium diet reduced it to 0.67 (0.50 to 0.91) g/day (P&lt;0.001). The reduction of proteinuria by the addition of a low sodium diet to ACE inhibition (51%, 95% confidence interval 43% to 58%) was significantly larger (P&lt;0.001) than the reduction of proteinuria by the addition of angiotensin receptor blockade to ACE inhibition (21%, (8% to 32%) and was comparable (P=0.009, not significant after Bonferroni correction) to the reduction of proteinuria by the addition of both angiotensin receptor blockade and a low sodium diet to ACE inhibition (62%, 53% to 70%). Mean systolic blood pressure was 134 (3) mm Hg during ACE inhibition plus a regular sodium diet. Mean systolic blood pressure was not significantly altered by the addition of angiotensin receptor blockade (131 (3) mm Hg; P=0.12) but was reduced by the addition of a low sodium diet (123 (2) mm Hg; P&lt;0.001) and angiotensin receptor blockade plus a low sodium diet (121 (3) mm Hg; P&lt;0.001) to ACE inhibition. The reduction of systolic blood pressure by the addition of a low sodium diet (7% (SE 1%)) was significantly larger (P=0.003) than the reduction of systolic blood pressure by the addition of angiotensin receptor blockade (2% (1)) and was similar (P=0.14) to the reduction of systolic blood pressure by the addition of both angiotensin receptor blockade and low sodium diet (9% (1)), to ACE inhibition. Dietary sodium restriction to a level recommended in guidelines was more effective than dual blockade for reduction of proteinuria and blood pressure in non-diabetic nephropathy. The findings support the combined endeavours of patients and health professionals to reduce sodium intake. Trial registration Netherlands Trial Register NTR675." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_100443", "title": "Chronic kidney disease", "score": 0.012968474761586588, "content": "Screening at-risk people is recommended. Initial treatments may include medications to lower blood pressure, blood sugar, and cholesterol. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) or angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs) are generally first-line agents for blood pressure control, as they slow progression of the kidney disease and the risk of heart disease. Loop diuretics may be used to control edema and, if needed, to further lower blood pressure. NSAIDs should be avoided. Other recommended measures include staying active, and certain dietary changes such as a low-salt diet and the right amount of protein. Treatments for anemia and bone disease may also be required. Severe disease requires hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, or a kidney transplant for survival." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_18059", "title": "[Comparison of the effects of a low protein diet and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors on renal insufficiency in hypertensive rats].", "score": 0.012223600671385828, "content": "It is known that hypertension to aggravate the course of chronic renal insufficiency (CRI). It is too know the beneficial effect of the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) and the low-protein diet. In this study, the effect of a low protein diet on the course of CRI was compared with that of administration of enalapril (ENA), an ACEI. A new model of genetic hypertension, the Prague Hypertensive Rat (PHR) was used. In rats just after weaning, 5/6 of renal parenchyma were removed surgically (5/6NX). The rats were observed for 8 weeks after 5/6NX. The animals were fed either a normal rat chow containing 23% of protein, or a low-protein diet containing only 6% protein. Control groups drank tap water, experimental groups received water containing ENA at a dose of 5 mg/kg BW. The rats on normal diet drinking water had the highest levels of blood pressure (200 +/- 4.3 mm Hg), proteinuria (56.2 +/- 14.6 mg/24 hours) and heaviest kidney remnants i.e. highest compensatory hypertrophy (2352 +/- 239.4 mg). Both ENA and low-protein diet significantly improved these functions to the same extent. However, a combination of low-protein diet with ENA had no further beneficial effect as against any of these manoeuvres alone. We assume every manoeuvre (low-protein diet and enalapril) exerts a maximal beneficial effect per se: the mechanism of this effect is highly speculative: inhibition of growth factors seems to be the most logical explanation. ACEIs are known to inhibit the production of angiotensin II, low-protein diet should inhibit transforming growth factor beta." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en256_32543", "title": "Diffuse proliferative nephritis", "score": 0.011909184726522188, "content": "If the DPGN is caused by IgA nephropathy then corticosteroids, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEIs), angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), or both ACEIs and ARBs should be used. Corticosteroids are used to suppress the immune system and to reduce inflammation. ACEIs will decrease hypertension by preventing the body from creating angiotensin II, which narrows the blood vessels. ARBs block angiotensin II from acting. The patient's diet should also be changed. The patient should restrict salt intake to improve the hypertension and nephrosis. Protein restriction may reduce the progression of the disease. Fluid restriction may also be necessary if the patient is experiencing edema. Prognosis Prognosis is determined by the stage of the disease. Aggressive therapy is recommended to avoid progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD), which is a strong possibility. About 10% of DPGN patients will go into ESRD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_9015", "title": "The effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition and dietary protein restriction in the treatment of proteinuria.", "score": 0.01145074588886415, "content": "Both angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and dietary protein restriction have been reported to reduce urinary protein losses in patients with chronic glomerular diseases. We evaluated these two therapies in 12 such patients ingesting a constant metabolic diet containing 1.6 g protein/kg body weight per day. After a steady-state was achieved during a 3-week baseline period, patients were randomly assigned to either enalapril, titrated to reduce mean arterial pressure by 10 mm Hg, or an isocaloric 0.8 g/kg protein diet. Five patients in each group completed 3 additional weeks of observation during the treatment period. Enalapril resulted in an average reduction in urinary protein and albumin losses of 26% and 33%, respectively, without reducing creatinine clearance. Albumin synthesis was unchanged and nitrogen balance increased slightly (+142.8 +/- 85.7 mmol/d [+2.0 +/- 1.2 g/d], P = 0.075). Dietary protein restriction had no consistent effect on proteinuria or albuminuria, whereas albumin synthesis (25.9 +/- 3.4 v 21.5 +/- 2.9 g/d/1.73 m2, P less than 0.05) and nitrogen balance (-135.6 +/- 92.8 mmol/d [-1.9 +/- 1.3 g/d], P = 0.10) decreased. Both therapies resulted in a modest increase in plasma potassium concentration. Whether the maintenance of albumin synthesis in the presence of a reduction in urinary protein losses will convey a long-term advantage to treatment of proteinuric patients with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors remains to be determined." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_22891", "title": "Renal safety of combined cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2) inhibitor and angiotensin II receptor blocker administration in mild volume depletion.", "score": 0.010465116279069767, "content": "Drugs that either inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or antagonise angiotensin II effects are likely to impair renal function, especially in patients with an activated renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Of the former, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are widely used, and newer agents with cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2) specific inhibition may have fewer renal side effects compared to non-selective NSAIDs. We therefore investigated whether combination of a COX-2 inhibitor with an angiotensin II subtype 1 (AT1) receptor blocker is safe with regard to preservation of normal renal function in a state of slight volume contraction. Mild volume depletion was induced by a salt-restricted diet in 5 healthy volunteers who were then given a single dose of 400 mg celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, alone or in combination with 150 mg irbesartan, an AT1 receptor blocker. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) were determined by measuring inulin and PAH clearance respectively, along with plasma renin activity (PRA) and urinary electrolyte excretion before and over 100 minutes after drug administration. PRA was high prior to drug administration, indicating slight salt depletion, and dropped by 65% after intake of celecoxib alone (p = 0.008) but only by 25% after combined intake with irbesartan (p = n.s.). GFR was not affected either by celecoxib alone or by combined administration with irbesartan. In contrast, ERPF increased by 28% 80 minutes after simultaneous drug intake (p = 0.029), but not after celecoxib alone. Renal sodium and potassium excretion did not significantly change under celecoxib alone or in combination with irbesartan. Selective COX-2 inhibition by celecoxib in combination with an AT1 receptor blocker (irbesartan) has no acute adverse effects on renal haemodynamics and renal salt handling in slightly volume-depleted subjects with normal renal function. Moreover, our data obtained in humans appear to confirm the co-regulatory interaction of COX-2 and angiotensin II in the control of renin release, as suggested by animal studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0085_5804", "title": "Efficacy and variability of the antiproteinuric effect of ACE inhibition by lisinopril.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We studied the efficacy of the ACE inhibitor lisinopril in treating overt proteinuria in comparison with the NSAID indomethacin, and evaluated some of the conditions that could influence this antiproteinuric effect. In 12 patients with a proteinuria varying from 3.2 to 10.5 g/24 hr, a diastolic BP ranging from 64 to 105 mm Hg, and a GFR varying from 34 to 127 ml/min, the effect of different lisinopril doses and of changing dietary sodium intake was evaluated. Proteinuria fell by 27 +/- 20% from 6.1 +/- 2.1 to 4.5 +/- 1.9 g/24 hr on a low dose (median 5 mg/day) lisinopril and by 50 +/- 17% to 3.1 +/- 1.4 g/24 hr on a higher dose (median 10 mg/day), irrespective of initial proteinuria, BP, or GFR. This antiproteinuric effect was abolished by increasing salt intake from 50 to 200 mmol/day, and was recovered again by re-instituting the sodium restricted diet. The antiproteinuric effect of 10 mg/day lisinopril was comparable to the reduction in proteinuria (by 57 +/- 21% to 2.8 +/- 2.0 g/24 hr) on 150 mg/day indomethacin, while adverse effects were less and renal hemodynamic effects were more favorable during lisinopril. In some patients it took several weeks before the effect of the ACE inhibitor on proteinuria was stabilized. Thus, the antiproteinuric effect of the ACE inhibitor lisinopril appears to be dose and time related, and is strongly dependent on dietary sodium restriction, whereas it does not depend on initial proteinuria, BP, or GFR. The effect is comparable to that of indomethacin, while adverse effects are less." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_4442", "title": "Fatal hyperkalemia related to combined therapy with a COX-2 inhibitor, ACE inhibitor and potassium rich diet.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We describe the case of a 77-year old mildly hypertensive woman with no underlying renal disease who was admitted to the Emergency Department (ED) in a comatose state with fever. The patient had been on low dose enalapril and a potassium rich diet. Five days before admission, rofecoxib, a new selective COX-2 inhibitor nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), was added for leg pain. She was found to have severe hyperkalemia and died 90 min after her arrival. We cannot absolutely determine whether the COX-2 inhibitor was the dominant contributor to the development of hyperkalemia or the combination itself, with an intercurrent infection and some degree of dehydration. Physicians should be aware of this possible complication and only prescribe NSAIDs, including the new COX-2 drugs, to the elderly under close monitoring of kidney function and electrolyte tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en186_8959", "title": "First-dose phenomenon", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The cause is not clear. It occurs more commonly in patients who are salt and fluid volume depleted (as happens due to the use of diuretics), or were using beta blockers. Diuretics and beta blockers are frequently used to control hypertension. For this reason, treatment with prazosin (Minipress) should always be initiated with a low dose and should be taken at bedtime to avoid standing position. Other drug classes with observed first dose hypotension This effect is also observed after the administration of the first dose of drugs in the ACEi class (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor). This may occur with the class's better known side effect of dry cough (due to decreased breakdown of bradykinin), though there is no clear relationship between the two side effects. The first dose phenomenon in ACEi is reduced and made safer by avoiding diuretics for 24 hours prior to first dose, taking first dose at night (so avoiding falls, etc) and starting on low doses and titrating upwards." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0234_6927", "title": "The effect of salt restriction and furosemide in patients investigated for renovascular hypertension.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The effect of five days' regimen with a low-sodium diet (approximately 20 mmol Na+ per day) and with 40 mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily on the blood pressure, the renin-aldosterone system and the electrolyte balance was studied in 42 hypertensive patients who received no antihypertensive drugs for four weeks prior to the investigation. Twenty-three of the patients had renal artery stenosis. Both patients with and those without such stenosis showed a significant decrease in systolic and diastolic blood pressure and in the serum concentrations of sodium and potassium and urinary excretion of sodium. A concomitant increase in plasma renin activity in peripheral veins and in urinary excretion of aldosterone was found both in patients without and in those with renal artery stenosis, but in the latter group this response seemed to be less pronounced." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_4908", "title": "Early administration of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor captopril, prevents the development of hypertension programmed by intrauterine exposure to a maternal low-protein diet in the rat.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "1. Associations of intrauterine exposure to maternal undernutrition with later hypertension and coronary heart disease in the human population have been duplicated in the rat. Fetal exposure to low protein diets produces offspring that develop raised systolic blood pressure by the age of weaning. This animal model of 'programmed' hypertension was used to investigate the role of the renin-angiotensin system in the initiation and maintenance of high blood pressure. 2. Pregnant rats were fed diets containing 18 or 9% casein from conception until littering. The offspring from these pregnancies were administered captopril either between 2 and 4 weeks of age, or from 10 to 12 weeks of age. 3. The feeding of low protein diets in pregnancy had no effect upon the reproductive ability of female rats and the offspring generated were of normal birthweight. By 4 weeks of age the male and female offspring of low-protein-fed dams had systolic blood pressures that were 24-25 mmHg higher than those of rats exposed to a control diet in utero. 4. Treatment of 10-week-old female offspring with captopril for 2 weeks indicated that angiotensin II formation may play a role in the maintenance of high blood pressure in low-protein-exposed rats. While captopril had no significant effect upon systolic pressures of rats exposed to the control diet in intrauterine life, the systolic blood pressures of low-protein animals rapidly declined by 31 mmHg. 5. Administration of captopril to male and female offspring between 2 and 4 weeks of age exerted long-term effects upon systolic blood pressure. Eight weeks after cessation of treatment, at an age where maximal blood pressures are achieved, captopril-treated, low-protein-exposed rats had similar blood pressures to normotensive rats exposed to the protein-replete diet in utero. 6. In conclusion, we have demonstrated that the elevation of adult blood pressure associated with fetal exposure to a maternal low-protein diet, is prevented by early administration of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. The actions of angiotensin II in the late suckling period may be a critical determinant of long-term cardiovascular functions in these animals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0049_9903", "title": "Additive antiproteinuric effect of converting enzyme inhibition and a low protein intake.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The hypothesis that converting enzyme inhibition and a protein-restricted diet could have additive antiproteinuric effects has been tested. A group of 17 patients with proteinuria in excess of 3 g/24 h per 1.73 m2 of body surface area were submitted to a 3-wk period of study, after a 4-wk wash-out period during which protein intake was 1.0 g/kg per day and in the absence of any medication. During the first and second weeks of the study, protein intake was lowered to 0.3 g/kg per day, and in the third week, it returned to 1.0 g/kg per day. Enalapril (20 mg daily) was administered during the second and third weeks of the study. Initially and at the end of each week thereafter, we determined blood pressure, GFR (inulin clearance), RPF (para-aminohippurate clearance), plasma sodium and potassium, PRA and aldosterone, and the 24-h urine excretion of sodium potassium, protein, and urea. The low protein intake during the first week induced a significant fall of proteinuria (P &lt; 0.01), GFR (P &lt; 0.01), and RPF (P &lt; 0.01) in the absence of changes in filtration fraction. The addition of enalapril induced a further decrease of proteinuria (P &lt; 0.01) and a fall in filtration fraction (P &lt; 0.05), whereas plasma potassium, PRA, GFR, and RPF values increased (P &lt; 0.01). The rise in protein intake during the last week of the study induced a significant rise in proteinuria, GFR, and RPF (P &lt; 0.01), although the first of these parameters attained values significantly lower (P &lt; 0.05) than those observed initially.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en090_40142", "title": "Fibromuscular dysplasia", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Children Pediatric FMD medical and surgical treatments or interventions are available. Treatment is determined by factors such as age and disease location but routinely involve controlling hypertension, re-establishing vascular flow, clot prevention, and improving lifestyle such as diet, exercise and smoking cessation. Medical therapy for pediatric population may involve the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitors) and/or angiotensin II receptor blockers, multiple anti-hypertensive medications, diuretics, calcium channel blockers, and beta-blockers. Prevention of thrombosis of affected arteries may be taken through administration of an antiplatelet medication such as aspirin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0003_9434", "title": "Is \"idiopathic\" edema idiopathic?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Ten women with \"idiopathic\" edema had sodium and water retention and a rapid gain in weight when their accustomed intake of diuretics was suddenly stopped. The magnitude of these changes was directly related to the levels of plasma-rening activity before withdrawal of diuretics. Nine patients became edematous. Within 10 days of stopping diuretics, plasma-renin activity and urinary aldosterone excretion decreased to normal or below and within 20 days weight-gain and edema had subsided in seven patients. But the greatest gains in weight, in three patients, were sustained beyond 20 days. Nevertheless, a year later, two of these three patients were free of edema without the use of diuretics. Intermittent edema of unknown cause in most, if not all, otherwise healthy women seems to result from their use of diuretics, abetted in some patients by self-imposed flucuation of sodium and carbohydrate intake, and does not appear to be idiopathic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_69811", "title": "Diabetic nephropathy", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The status of diabetic nephropathy may be monitored by measuring two values: the amount of protein in the urine - proteinuria; and a blood test called the serum creatinine. The amount of the proteinuria reflects the degree of damage to any still-functioning glomeruli. The value of the serum creatinine can be used to calculate the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which reflects the percentage of glomeruli which are no longer filtering the blood. Treatment with an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, which dilates the arteriole exiting the glomerulus, thus reducing the blood pressure within the glomerular capillaries, which may slow (but not stop) progression of the disease. Three classes of diabetes medications – GLP-1 agonists, DPP-4 inhibitors, and SGLT2 inhibitors– are also thought to slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en089_42493", "title": "Captopril challenge test", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The captopril challenge test (CCT) is a non-invasive medical test that measures the change in renin plasma-levels in response to administration of captopril, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor. It is used to assist in the diagnosis of renal artery stenosis. It is not generally considered a useful test for children, and more suitable options are available for adult cases. Procedure Plasma concentration of renin is measured prior to and following the administration of captopril. The CCT is considered positive if the renin levels increase substantially or the baseline renin level is abnormally high. An abnormal captopril test is indicative of the presence of renovascular disease. In adults CCT in adults is known to have high sensitivity, but a low specificity. Subtraction angiography is considered a more suitable test for renal artery stenosis in adults. See also captopril suppression test used to diagnose primary aldosteronism References" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0321_13303", "title": "The blunting of the antiproteinuric efficacy of ACE inhibition by high sodium intake can be restored by hydrochlorothiazide.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Dietary sodium restriction enhances the antiproteinuric and blood pressure lowering effect of ACE inhibition. In clinical practice, however, long-term compliance to a low-sodium diet may be difficult to obtain. We therefore investigated whether the blunting of the antiproteinuric and blood pressure lowering efficacy of ACE inhibition by high sodium intake can be restored by the addition of a diuretic. Seven proteinuric patients with non-diabetic renal disease on chronic ACE inhibition were studied during three consecutive 4-week periods: low sodium (50 mmol/day), high sodium (200 mmol/day) and high sodium plus hydrochlorothiazide (50 mg o.i.d.). During low sodium intake proteinuria was 3.1 (0.7-5.2) g/day, during high sodium intake proteinuria increased to 4.5 (1.6-9.2) g/day (P &lt; 0.05). Interestingly, addition of hydrochlorothiazide again reduced proteinuria to 2.8 (0.6-5.8) g/day (P &lt; 0.05). Mean arterial blood pressure was 89 (84-96), 98 (91-104) and 89 (83-94) mmHg (P &lt; 0.05) during the three periods, respectively. Addition of hydrochlorothiazide can overcome the blunting of the therapeutic efficacy of ACE inhibition on proteinuria and blood pressure by a high sodium intake." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en048_18007", "title": "Protein toxicity", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Treatment Treatment options for protein toxicity can include renal replacement therapies like hemodialysis and hemofiltration. Lifestyle modifications like a diet low in protein, decreased sodium intake, and exercise can also be in incorporated as part of a treatment plan. Medications may also be prescribed depending on symptoms. Common medications prescribed for kidney diseases include hypertension medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) and angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB) as they have been found to be kidney protective. Diuretics may also be prescribed to facilitate with waste excretion as well as any fluid retention. A kidney transplant surgery is another treatment option where a healthy kidney is donated from a living or deceased donor to the recipient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_337", "title": "Normal-sodium diet compared with low-sodium diet in compensated congestive heart failure: is sodium an old enemy or a new friend?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The aim of the present study was to evaluate the effects of a normal-sodium (120 mmol sodium) diet compared with a low-sodium diet (80 mmol sodium) on readmissions for CHF (congestive heart failure) during 180 days of follow-up in compensated patients with CHF. A total of 232 compensated CHF patients (88 female and 144 male; New York Heart Association class II-IV; 55-83 years of age, ejection fraction &lt;35% and serum creatinine &lt;2 mg/dl) were randomized into two groups: group 1 contained 118 patients (45 females and 73 males) receiving a normal-sodium diet plus oral furosemide [250-500 mg, b.i.d. (twice a day)]; and group 2 contained 114 patients (43 females and 71 males) receiving a low-sodium diet plus oral furosemide (250-500 mg, b.i.d.). The treatment was given at 30 days after discharge and for 180 days, in association with a fluid intake of 1000 ml per day. Signs of CHF, body weight, blood pressure, heart rate, laboratory parameters, ECG, echocardiogram, levels of BNP (brain natriuretic peptide) and aldosterone levels, and PRA (plasma renin activity) were examined at baseline (30 days after discharge) and after 180 days. The normal-sodium group had a significant reduction (P&lt;0.05) in readmissions. BNP values were lower in the normal-sodium group compared with the low sodium group (685+/-255 compared with 425+/-125 pg/ml respectively; P&lt;0.0001). Significant (P&lt;0.0001) increases in aldosterone and PRA were observed in the low-sodium group during follow-up, whereas the normal-sodium group had a small significant reduction (P=0.039) in aldosterone levels and no significant difference in PRA. After 180 days of follow-up, aldosterone levels and PRA were significantly (P&lt;0.0001) higher in the low-sodium group. The normal-sodium group had a lower incidence of rehospitalization during follow-up and a significant decrease in plasma BNP and aldosterone levels, and PRA. The results of the present study show that a normal-sodium diet improves outcome, and sodium depletion has detrimental renal and neurohormonal effects with worse clinical outcome in compensated CHF patients. Further studies are required to determine if this is due to a high dose of diuretic or the low-sodium diet." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_1276", "title": "Acute administration of captopril lowers the natriuretic and diuretic response to a loop diuretic in patients with chronic cardiac failure.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors suppress plasma concentrations of the sodium retaining hormones angiotensin II and aldosterone. This action should potentiate the natriuretic and diuretic effects of loop diuretics. Some studies indicate, however, that the introduction of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for the treatment of cardiac failure is associated with transient weight gain and the development of oedema. We have compared the natriuretic and diuretic response to intravenous frusemide 40 mg alone with the natriuretic and diuretic response to intravenous frusemide 40 mg following the administration of a single dose of captopril in 12 supine male patients with stable chronic cardiac failure. Captopril lowered the 4 h diuretic response to frusemide from 1160 (60) to 685 (77) ml (P less than 0.05) and the natriuretic response from 120 (9.6) to 68 (11.7) mmol (P less than 0.05). Creatinine clearance fell after captopril from 91 (7.2) to 57 (7.7) ml min-1 (P less than 0.05). Systolic and diastolic blood pressures were lower after the administration of captopril but these changes were not significant. Plasma renin activity rose from 3.8 (1.04) to 12.34 (2.94) ng ml h-1 (P less than 0.05) and plasma angiotensin II was reduced from 24.9 (5.05) to 8.14 (1.8) pg ml-1 (P less than 0.05). Plasma aldosterone concentrations were not significantly lower following captopril. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors cause an acute fall in creatinine clearance which may reduce the effects of loop diuretics and attention must be paid to diuretic dosage when initiating angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for the treatment of cardiac failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0130_5410", "title": "Sulindac and ibuprofen inhibit furosemide-stimulated renin release but not natriuresis in men on a normal sodium diet.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We compared the effect of two commonly prescribed nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, ibuprofen and sulindac, and placebo on intravenous furosemide-induced natriuresis and renin stimulation in 11 healthy male volunteers, consuming a 100 mEq sodium, 80 mEq potassium diet. Chronic (6-day) therapy with each agent was followed by a 1-week washout period. There were no significant treatment-related differences in either urine volume or sodium excretion for any of the designated collection periods or for the cumulative value for the 4 h after furosemide administration. Similarly, differences among groups were not observed for creatinine clearance, urinary potassium and urinary chloride excretion. Mean basal plasma renin activity levels prior to furosemide administration on day 6 were significantly lower in the presence of ibuprofen (1.5 +/- 2.0 ng/ml/h;p less than 0.01) and sulindac (2,3 +/- 0.9 ng/ml/h; p less than 0.05), compared with placebo (3.3 +/- 1.1 ng/ml/h); the difference between the two NSAIDs was also significant (p less than 0.05). Mean plasma renin activity levels in the 4 h after furosemide increased significantly at all time points in comparison to basal values, but were significantly less for ibuprofen and sulindac groups in the first hour. Our data suggest that the natriuresis following intravenous furosemide in men consuming a normal sodium intake is not prostaglandin-dependent. Furthermore, the observation that sulindac suppressed basal and stimulated plasma renin activity levels, albeit to a lesser extent than ibuprofen, questions the claim that sulindac \"spares' the kidney and compels further evaluation of this issue." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21628", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009110208792794278, "content": "Dietary salt restriction and the use of loop diuretics, occasionally in combination with metolazone, may be needed to maintain euvolemia. In contrast, overzealous salt restriction or diuretic use can lead to ECFV depletion and precipitate a further decline in GFR. The rare patient with salt-losing nephropathy may require a sodium-rich diet or salt supplementation. Water restriction is indicated only if there is a problem with hyponatremia. Intractable ECFV expansion, despite dietary salt restriction and diuretic therapy, may be an indication to start renal replacement therapy. Hyperkalemia often responds to dietary restriction of potassium, the use of kaliuretic diuretics, and avoidance of both potassium supplements (including occult sources, such as dietary salt substitutes) and potassium-retaining medications (especially angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers [ARBs]). Kaliuretic diuretics promote urinary potassium excretion, whereas" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25252", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The events that tend to progressive kidney failure are not unique to IgA nephropathy and non-specific measures to reduce the same would be equally useful. These include a low-protein diet and optimal control of blood pressure. The choice of the antihypertensive agent is open as long as the blood pressure is controlled to desired level. However, Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and Angiotensin II receptor antagonists are favoured due to their anti-proteinuric effect. In December 2021, budesonide (Tarpeyo) was approved for medical use in the US to reduce proteinuria in adults with primary IgA nephropathy at risk of rapid disease progression." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0224_18721", "title": "Enhanced renin levels after discontinuation of furosemide: additional effects of loop diuretics on renin release.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The rate of recovery of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis after stopping diuretic administration was examined in 18 male patients with essential hypertension. Upright plasma renin activity (PRA) and plasma aldosterone (PA) were measured during sodium restriction (10 mEq sodium intake), after three days of furosemide administration (40 mg BID po) and for five days following cessation of the diuretic. After diuretic administration, the mean PRA level (8.2 +/- 1.7 ng/ml/hr) was significantly elevated compared to the level on low sodium diet (4.2 +/- 0.5 ng/ml/hr). However, the major finding was that PRA levels continued to increase significantly compared to levels during diuresis on days 1 (11.3 +/- 1.7 ng/ml/hr) and 2 (10.8 +/- 1.5 ng/ml/hr) of the postdiuretic period. Mean PA values paralleled PRA responses in the study. Infusion of normal saline on postdiuretic day 1 failed to suppress PRA to levels seen in subjects not receiving diuretics. The postdiuretic period was accompanied by increased urinary sodium reabsorption and decreased urinary potassium excretion and by significant decreases in creatinine, PAH and free water clearance. The mechanism of this sustained renin response several days after cessation of diuretic therapy may be best explained by a prolonged action of furosemide or by partial ongoing volume depletion with reduced sodium load to the distal nephron. Since all patients demonstrated a marked and consistent PRA response after diuretic withdrawal, this time period represents a potent stimulatory challenge for monitering renin responses." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_705", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The ratio of CCBs' anti-proteinuria effect, non-dihydropyridine to dihydropyridine was 30 to -2. ACE inhibitors ACE inhibitors inhibit the activity of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), an enzyme responsible for the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. captopril enalapril fosinopril lisinopril moexipril perindopril quinapril ramipril trandolapril benazepril A systematic review of 63 trials with over 35,000 participants indicated ACE inhibitors significantly reduced doubling of serum creatinine levels compared to other drugs (ARBs, α blockers, β blockers, etc.), and the authors suggested this as a first line of defense. The AASK trial showed that ACE inhibitors are more effective at slowing down the decline of kidney function compared to calcium channel blockers and beta blockers. As such, ACE inhibitors should be the drug treatment of choice for patients with chronic kidney disease regardless of race or diabetic status." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0421_22347", "title": "Responsiveness vs. basal activity of plasma ANG II as a determinant of arterial pressure salt sensitivity.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Infusion of angiotensin II (ANG II) causes salt-sensitive hypertension. It is unclear whether this is due to the body's inability to suppress ANG II during increased salt intake or, rather, an elevated basal level of plasma ANG II itself. To distinguish between these mechanisms, Sprague-Dawley rats were instrumented with arterial and venous catheters for measurement of arterial pressure and infusion of drugs, respectively. The sensitivity of arterial pressure to salt was measured in four groups with the following treatments: 1) saline control (Con, n = 12); 2) administration of the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor enalapril to block endogenous ANG II (ANG-Lo, n = 10); 3) administration of enalapril and 5 ng.kg(-1).min(-1) ANG II to clamp plasma ANG II at normal levels (ANG-Norm, n = 10); and 4) administration of enalapril and 20 ng.kg(-1).min(-1) ANG II to clamp ANG II at high levels (ANG-Hi, n = 10). Rats ingested a 0.4% NaCl diet for 3 days and then a 4.0% NaCl diet for 11 days. Arterial pressure of rats fed the 0.4% NaCl diet was lower in ANG-Lo (84 +/- 2 mmHg) compared with Con (101 +/- 3 mmHg) and ANG-Norm (98 +/- 4 mmHg) groups, whereas ANG-Hi rats were hypertensive (145 +/- 4 mmHg). Salt sensitivity was expressed as the change in arterial pressure divided by the change in sodium intake on the last day of the 4.0% NaCl diet. Salt sensitivity (in mmHg/meq Na) was lowest in Con rats (0.0 +/- 0.1) and progressed from ANG-Lo (0.8 +/- 0.2) to ANG-Norm (1.5 +/- 0.5) to ANG-Hi (3.5 +/- 0.5) rats. We conclude that the major determinant of salt sensitivity of arterial pressure is the basal level of plasma ANG II rather than the responsiveness of the renin-angiotensin system." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 30, 70 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 9 ] ], "text": "amiodarone (the dose is correct, 300mg)," }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Administration of 150 mg of intravenous amiodarone.", "2": "Administration of 300 mg of intravenous amiodarone.", "3": "Administration of 1 mg of intravenous atropine.", "4": "Administer 2 mg of intravenous atropine.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en176_11464", "title": "Pediatric advanced life support", "score": 0.0178585665311329, "content": "Defibrillations/shocks first shock should be 2 J/kg second shock should be 4 J/kg all other shocks should be ≥ 4 J/kg with max of 10 J/kg Medicines that can be given during treatment of cardiac arrest are listed below. The doses listed below are for IV/IO medicationa. Medications via endotracheal tube (ET) are often given at higher doses. epinephrine: 0.01 mg/kg every 3–5 minutes with max single dose of 1 mg amiodarone: 5 mg/kg initially, can repeat 2 more times (total of 3 doses), max of 300 mg per dose, max 15 mg/kg, given for refractory VF and pVT lidocaine: 1 mg/kg initially with continuous infusion of 20-50 mcg/kg/min after, given for refractory VF and pVT magnesium sulfate: 25–50 mg/kg diluted in 10 ml D5W (5% dextrose) and infused over 1–2 minutes, max 2g per dose, given for pulseless torsades de pointes (a type of ventricular tachycardia)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0550_1858", "title": "[The new 2005 resuscitation guidelines of the European Resuscitation Council: comments and supplements].", "score": 0.017273471818926363, "content": "The new CPR guidelines are based on a scientific consensus which was reached by 281 international experts. Chest compressions (100/min, 4-5 cm deep) should be performed in a ratio of 30:2 with ventilation (tidal volume 500 ml, Ti 1 s, FIO2 if possible 1.0). After a single defibrillation attempt (initially biphasic 150-200 J, monophasic 360 J, subsequently with the respective highest energy), chest compressions are initiated again immediately for 2 min. Endotracheal intubation is the gold standard; other airway devices may be employed as well depending on individual skills. Drug administration routes for adults and children: first choice IV, second choice intraosseous, third choice endobronchial [epinephrine dose 2-3x (adults) or 10x (pediatric patients) higher than IV]. Vasopressors: 1 mg epinephrine every 3-5 min IV. After the third unsuccessful defibrillation attempt amiodarone IV (300 mg); repetition (150 mg) possible. Sodium bicarbonate (1 ml/kg 8.4%) only in excessive hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, or intoxication with tricyclic antidepressants. Consider atropine (3 mg) and aminophylline (5 mg/kg). Thrombolysis during spontaneous circulation only in myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism; during CPR only during massive pulmonary embolism. Cardiopulmonary bypass only after cardiac surgery, hypothermia or intoxication. Pediatrics: best improvement in outcome by preventing cardiocirculatory collapse. Alternate chest thumps and chest compression (infants), or abdominal compressions (&gt;1-year-old) in foreign body airway obstruction. Initially five breaths, followed by chest compressions (100/min; approximately 1/3 of chest diameter): ventilation ratio 15:2. Treatment of potentially reversible causes (4 \"Hs\", \"HITS\": hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo- and hyperkaliemia, hypothermia, cardiac tamponade, intoxication, thrombo-embolism, tension pneumothorax). Epinephrine 10 microg/kg IV or intraosseously, or 100 microg (endobronchially) every 3-5 min. Defibrillation (4 J/kg; monophasic oder biphasic) followed by 2 min CPR, then ECG and pulse check. Newborns: inflate the lungs with bag-valve mask ventilation. If heart rate&lt;60/min chest compressions:ventilation ratio 3:1 (120 chest compressions/min). Postresuscitation phase: initiate mild hypothermia [32-34 degrees C for 12-24 h; slow rewarming (&lt;0.5 degrees C/h)]. Prediction of CPR outcome is not possible at the scene; determining neurological outcome within 72 h after cardiac arrest with evoked potentials, biochemical tests and physical examination. Even during low suspicion for an acute coronary syndrome, record a prehospital 12-lead ECG. In parallel to pain therapy, aspirin (160-325 mg PO or IV) and in addition clopidogrel (300 mg PO). As antithrombin, heparin (60 IU/kg, max. 4000 IU) or enoxaparine. In ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction, define reperfusion strategy depending on duration of symptoms until PCI (prevent delay&gt;90 min until PCI). Stroke is an emergency and needs to be treated in a stroke unit. A CT scan is the most important evaluation, MRT may replace a CT scan. After hemorrhage exclusion, thrombolysis within 3 h of symptom onset (0.9 mg/kg rt-PA IV; max 90 mg within 60 min, 10% of the entire dosage as initial bolus, no aspirin, no heparin within the first 24 h). In severe hemorrhagic shock, definite control of bleeding is the most important goal. For successful CPR of trauma patients, a minimal intravascular volume status and management of hypoxia are essential. Aggressive fluid resuscitation, hyperventilation, and excessive ventilation pressure may impair outcome in severe hemorrhagic shock. Despite bad prognosis, CPR in trauma patients may be successful in select cases. Any CPR training is better than nothing; simplification of contents and processes remains important." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1123_8234", "title": "Anaphylactic Shock as a Rare Side Effect of Intravenous Amiodarone.", "score": 0.016703711187445274, "content": "Amiodarone is a very commonly used antiarrhythmic agent. However, it has a wide variety of systemic side effects as well as many hypersensitivity and allergic reactions, ranging from angioedema to anaphylactic shock in patients who have iodine allergies. We present a rare and unique case of an 86-year-old female who developed anaphylactic shock from intravenous (IV) amiodarone. She had no reported allergies to iodine or iodinated contrast. She had a history of chronic persistent atrial fibrillation and was being maintained on oral amiodarone as an outpatient. She was admitted with shortness of breath and was found to have atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. She was started on an IV amiodarone bolus. Immediately after a few milliliters of infusion, she complained of shortness of breath, with facial flushing and generalized blanching erythema, followed by severe hypotension and cardiopulmonary arrest. IV amiodarone infusion was suspected to be the culprit and was discontinued immediately. IV epinephrine 0.3 mg was administered, followed by the advanced cardiovascular life support (ACLS) protocol for cardiopulmonary arrest. She did not respond to the standard ACLS protocol and continued to remain in cardiopulmonary arrest. A spot diagnosis of anaphylactic reaction to IV amiodarone was made, and she was started on IV epinephrine infusion 0.1 µg/kg/minute, and immediate return of spontaneous circulation was achieved. She was started on IV methylprednisolone 125 mg, IV famotidine 20 mg, and IV diphenhydramine 25 mg. She was intubated and required mechanical ventilation. She was successfully extubated later and safely discharged, receiving oral metoprolol 25 mg for rate control and PO rivaroxaban 20 mg once daily. Anaphylactic shock from IV amiodarone administration is a potentially fatal complication observed in patients with prior reported allergies to iodine or iodinated contrast media. It has rarely been reported in the absence of prior allergy to iodine or iodinated contrast media. Prompt recognition by clinicians is prudent for early diagnosis and appropriate treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0680_16690", "title": "[Comments on the 2010 guidelines on cardiopulmonary resuscitation of the European Resuscitation Council].", "score": 0.016421024295040044, "content": "Administer chest compressions (minimum 100/min, minimum 5 cm depth) at a ratio of 30:2 with ventilation (tidal volume 500-600 ml, inspiration time 1 s, F(I)O₂ if possible 1.0). Avoid any interruptions in chest compressions. After every single defibrillation attempt (initially biphasic 120-200 J, monophasic 360 J, subsequently with the respective highest energy), chest compressions are initiated again immediately for 2 min independent of the ECG rhythm. Tracheal intubation is the optimal method for securing the airway during resuscitation but should be performed only by experienced airway management providers. Laryngoscopy is performed during ongoing chest compressions; interruption of chest compressions for a maximum of 10 s to pass the tube through the vocal cords. Supraglottic airway devices are alternatives to tracheal intubation. Drug administration routes for adults and children: first choice i.v., second choice intraosseous (i.o.). Vasopressors: 1 mg epinephrine every 3-5 min i.v. After the third unsuccessful defibrillation amiodarone (300 mg i.v.), repetition (150 mg) possible. Sodium bicarbonate (50 ml 8.4%) only for excessive hyperkaliemia, metabolic acidosis, or intoxication with tricyclic antidepressants. Consider aminophylline (5 mg/kgBW). Thrombolysis during spontaneous circulation only for myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism; during on-going cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) only when indications of massive pulmonary embolism. Active compression-decompression (ACD-CPR) and inspiratory threshold valve (ITV-CPR) are not superior to good standard CPR. Most effective improvement of outcome by prevention of full cardiorespiratory arrest. Basic life support: initially five rescue breaths, followed by chest compressions (100-120/min depth about one third of chest diameter), compression-ventilation ratio 15:2. Foreign body airway obstruction with insufficient cough: alternate back blows and chest compressions (infants), or abdominal compressions (children &gt;1 year). Treatment of potentially reversible causes: (\"4 Hs and 4 Ts\") hypoxia and hypovolaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia, hypothermia, and tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxic/therapeutic disturbances, thrombosis (coronary/pulmonary). Advanced life support: adrenaline (epinephrine) 10 µg/kgBW i.v. or i.o. every 3-5 min. Defibrillation (4 J/kgBW; monophasic or biphasic) followed by 2 min CPR, then ECG and pulse check. NEWBORNS: Initially inflate the lungs with bag-valve mask ventilation (p(AW) 20-40 cmH₂O). If heart rate remains &lt;60/min, start chest compressions (120 chest compressions/min) and ventilation with a ratio 3:1. Maintain normothermia in preterm babies by covering them with foodgrade plastic wrap or similar. POSTRESUSCITATION PHASE: Early protocol-based intensive care stabilization; initiate mild hypothermia early regardless of initial cardiac rhythm [32-34°C for 12-24 h (adults) or 24 h (children); slow rewarming (&lt;0.5°C/h)]. Consider percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients with presumed cardiac ischemia. Prediction of CPR outcome is not possible at the scene, determine neurological outcome &lt;72 h after cardiac arrest with somatosensory evoked potentials, biochemical tests and neurological examination. ACUTE CORONARY SYNDROME: Even if only a weak suspicion of an acute coronary syndrome is present, record a prehospital 12-lead ECG. In parallel to pain therapy, administer aspirin (160-325 mg p.o. or i.v.) and clopidogrel (75-600 mg depending on strategy); in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and planned PCI also prasugrel (60 mg p.o.). Antithrombins, such as heparin (60 IU/kgBW, max. 4000 IU), enoxaparin, bivalirudin or fondaparinux depending on the diagnosis (STEMI or non-STEMI-ACS) and the planned therapeutic strategy. In STEMI define reperfusion strategy depending on duration of symptoms until PCI, age and location of infarction. TRAUMA: In severe hemorrhagic shock, definitive control of bleeding is the most important goal. For successful CPR of trauma patients a minimal intravascular volume status and management of hypoxia are essential. Aggressive fluid resuscitation, hyperventilation and excessive ventilation pressure may impair outcome in patients with severe hemorrhagic shock. Any CPR training is better than nothing; simplification of contents and processes is the main aim." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en049_47026", "title": "Advanced life support", "score": 0.016216565447732267, "content": "Algorithms ALS assumes that basic life support (bag-mask administration of oxygen and chest compressions) are administered. The main algorithm of ALS, which is invoked when actual cardiac arrest has been established, relies on the monitoring of the electrical activity of the heart on a cardiac monitor. Depending on the type of cardiac arrhythmia, defibrillation is applied, and medication is administered. Oxygen is administered and endotracheal intubation may be attempted to secure the airway. At regular intervals, the effect of the treatment on the heart rhythm, as well as the presence of cardiac output, is assessed. Medication that may be administered may include adrenaline (epinephrine), amiodarone, atropine, bicarbonate, calcium, potassium and magnesium. Saline or colloids may be administered to increase the circulating volume." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_63943", "title": "Asystole", "score": 0.015813117699910152, "content": "Asystole is treated by cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) combined with an intravenous vasopressor such as epinephrine (a.k.a. adrenaline). Sometimes an underlying reversible cause can be detected and treated (the so-called \"Hs and Ts\", an example of which is hypokalaemia). Several interventions previously recommended—such as defibrillation (known to be ineffective on asystole, but previously performed in case the rhythm was actually very fine ventricular fibrillation) and intravenous atropine—are no longer part of the routine protocols recommended by most major international bodies. Asystole may be treated with 1 mg epinephrine by IV every 3–5 minutes as needed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0475_7387", "title": "Arrhythmias in the intensive care patient.", "score": 0.015763076188201577, "content": "Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, AV-nodal reentry tachycardia with rapid ventricular response, atrial ectopic tachycardia, and preexcitation syndromes combined with atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachyarrhythmias are typical arrhythmias in intensive care patients. Most frequently, the diagnosis of the underlying arrhythmia is possible from the physical examination, the response to maneuvers or drugs, and the 12-lead surface electrocardiogram. In all patients with unstable hemodynamics, immediate DC-cardioversion is indicated. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm is possible using antiarrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone has a conversion rate in atrial fibrillation of up to 80%. However, caution in the use of short-term administration of intravenous amiodarone in critically ill patients with recent-onset atrial fibrillation is absolutely necessary, and the duration of therapy should not exceed 24 to 48 hours. Ibutilide represents a relatively new class III antiarrhythmic agent that has been reported to have conversion rates of 50% to 70%; it seems that ibutilide is even successful when intravenous amiodarone failed to convert atrial fibrillation. Newer studies compared the outcome of patients with atrial fibrillation and rhythm- or rate-control. Data from these studies (AFFIRM, RACE) clearly showed that rhythm control is not superior to rate control for the prevention of death and morbidity from cardiovascular causes. Therefore, rate-control may be an appropriate therapy in patients with recurrent atrial fibrillation after DC-cardioversion. Acute therapy of atrial flutter in intensive care patients depends on the clinical presentation. Atrial flutter can most often be successfully cardioverted to sinus rhythm with energies less than 50 joules. Ibutilide trials showed efficacy rates of 38-76% for conversion of atrial flutter to sinus rhythm compared with conversion rates of 5-13% when intravenous flecainide, propafenone, or verapamil was administered. In addition, a high dose (2 mg) of ibutilide was more effective than sotalol (1.5 mg/kg) in conversion of atrial flutter to sinus rhythm (70% versus 19%). There is general agreement that bystander first aid, defibrillation, and advanced life support is essential for neurologic outcome in patients after cardiac arrest due to ventricular tachyarrhythmias. The best survival rate from cardiac arrest can be achieved only when (1) recognition of early warning signs, (2) activation of the emergency medical services system, (3) basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation, (4) defibrillation, (5) management of the airway and ventilation, and (6) intravenous administration of medications occurs as rapidly as possible. Public access defibrillation, which places automatic external defibrillators in the hands of trained laypersons, seems to be an ideal approach in the treatment of ventricular fibrillation. The use of automatic external defibrillators by basic life support ambulance providers or first responder in early defibrillation programs has been associated with a significant increase in survival rates. Drugs such as lidocaine, procainamide, sotalol, amiodarone, or magnesium were recommended for treatment of ventricular tachyarrhythmias in intensive care patients. Amiodarone is a highly efficacious antiarrhythmic agent for many cardiac arrhythmias, ranging from atrial fibrillation to malignant ventricular tachyarrhythmias, and seems to be superior to other antiarrhythmic agents." }, { "id": "article-20310_19", "title": "Defibrillation -- Technique or Treatment", "score": 0.01497939636930616, "content": "According to the ACLS VF/pulseless VT algorithm outlined by AHA 1 mg of epinephrine should be administered intravenously every 3 to 5 minutes during the resuscitation after the first unsuccessful defibrillation. High-quality CPR is immediately resumed after the second shock for 2 minutes. If VF or pulseless VT persists at the next pulse and rhythm check, the ACLS algorithm allows for 300 mg of amiodarone to be administered as a bolus intravenously during the resuscitation. If additional doses of antiarrhythmic drugs are needed, 150 mg of amiodarone may be given or 1 mg/kg to 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine may be administered. According to the current AHA guidelines, epinephrine and amiodarone are preferred over lidocaine. [6]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_48104", "title": "Atropine", "score": 0.014306006493506494, "content": "Heart Injections of atropine are used in the treatment of symptomatic or unstable bradycardia. Atropine was previously included in international resuscitation guidelines for use in cardiac arrest associated with asystole and PEA, but was removed from these guidelines in 2010 due to a lack of evidence for its effectiveness. For symptomatic bradycardia, the usual dosage is 0.5 to 1 mg IV push, may repeat every 3 to 5 minutes up to a total dose of 3 mg (maximum 0.04 mg/kg). Atropine is also useful in treating second-degree heart block Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach block), and also third-degree heart block with a high Purkinje or AV-nodal escape rhythm. It is usually not effective in second-degree heart block Mobitz type 2, and in third-degree heart block with a low Purkinje or ventricular escape rhythm. Atropine has also been used in an effort to prevent a low heart rate during intubation of children; however, evidence does not support this use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0894_22433", "title": "Comparison of the effects of sternal and tibial intraosseous administered resuscitative drugs on return of spontaneous circulation in a swine model of cardiac arrest.", "score": 0.01339909217877095, "content": "Compare vasopressin, amiodarone, and epinephrine administration by sternal intraosseous (SIO), tibial intraosseous (TIO), and intravenous (IV) routes in a swine model of cardiac arrest. Prospective, randomized, between subjects, experimental design. Laboratory. Male Yorkshire-cross swine (N = 35), seven per group. Swine were randomized to SIO, TIO, IV, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) with defibrillation, or CPR-only groups. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) was induced under general anesthesia. Mechanical CPR began 2 minutes postarrest. Vasopressin (40 U) was administered to the SIO, TIO, and IV groups 4 minutes postarrest. Defibrillation was performed and amiodarone (300 mg) was administered 6 minutes postarrest. Defibrillation was repeated, and epinephrine (1 mg) was administered 10 minutes postarrest. Defibrillation was repeated every 2 minutes and epinephrine repeated every 4 minutes until return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) or 26 postarrest minutes elapsed. Rate of ROSC, time to ROSC, and odds of ROSC. There were no significant differences in rate of ROSC between the SIO and TIO (p = 0.22) or IV groups (p = 1.0). Time to ROSC was five times less in the SIO group than the TIO group (p = 0.003) but not compared to IV (p = 0.125). Time to ROSC in the IV group was significantly less than the TIO group (p = 0.04). Odds of ROSC for the SIO group were five times higher compared to the TIO group but same as IV. Odds of ROSC in the IV group were higher than the TIO group. There was a statistically significant delay in the time to ROSC and a clinically significant difference in odds of ROSC when resuscitative drugs, including lipophilic amiodarone, were administered by the TIO route compared to the SIO and IV routes in a swine model of sudden cardiac arrest. Further investigations are warranted to isolate the mechanism behind these findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0557_10927", "title": "[Pediatric advanced life support].", "score": 0.013203463203463203, "content": "Advanced life support (ALS) includes all the procedures and maneuvers used to restore spontaneous circulation and breathing, thus minimizing brain injury. The fundamental steps of ALS are airway control with adjuncts, ventilation with 100% oxygen, vascular access and fluid and drug administration, and monitoring to diagnose and treat arrhythmias. Airway control can be achieved by means of oropharyngeal airway, endotracheal intubation, and alternative methods (laryngeal mask and cricothyroidotomy). Vascular access can be achieved by the peripheral venous, intraosseous, central venous, and tracheal routes. The most frequent rhythms found in children with cardiorespiratory arrest are nonshockable (asystole, severe bradycardia, pulseless electrical activity, and complete atrioventricular block). In these cases, adrenaline continues to be the essential drug. Currently, low adrenaline doses (0.01 mg/kg IV and 0.1 mg/kg intratracheal administration) are recommended throughout the resuscitation period. Amiodarone (5 mg/kg) is the drug of choice in cases of ventricular fibrillation refractory to electric shock. The treatment sequence for shockable rhythms (ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia) is one 4 J/kg electric shock, followed by cardiopulmonary resuscitation (chest compressions and ventilation) for 2 minutes with subsequent reassessment of the electrocardiographic rhythm. Adrenaline must be administered immediately before the third electric shock and subsequently every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone must be administered immediately before the fourth shock." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_57744", "title": "Pulseless electrical activity", "score": 0.012987548445617218, "content": "A priority in resuscitation is placement of an intravenous or intraosseous line for administration of medications. The mainstay of drug therapy for PEA is epinephrine (adrenaline) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes. Although previously the use of atropine was recommended in the treatment of PEA/asystole, this recommendation was withdrawn in 2010 by the American Heart Association due to lack of evidence for therapeutic benefit. Epinephrine too has a limited evidence base, and it is recommended on the basis of its mechanism of action. Sodium bicarbonate 1meq per kilogram may be considered in this rhythm as well, although there is little evidence to support this practice. Its routine use is not recommended for patients in this context, except in special situations (e.g. preexisting metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, tricyclic antidepressant overdose)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_22545", "title": "Cardiac arrest after intravenous metoclopramide - a case of five repeated injections of metoclopramide causing five episodes of cardiac arrest.", "score": 0.01298141030669072, "content": "We describe a patient where intravenous injection of metoclopramide was immediately followed by asystole repeatedly. The patient received metoclopramide 10 mg i.v. five times during 48 h. After interviewing the attending nurses and reviewing the written documentation, it is clear that every administration of metoclopramide was immediately (within s) followed by asystole. The asystole lasted 15-30 s on four occasions, on one occasion it lasted 2 min. The patient received atropine 0.5-1 mg and chest compressions, before sinus rhythm again took over. We interpret this as episodes of cardiac arrest caused by metoclopramide. The rapid injection via the central venous route and the concomitant tapering of dopamine infusion might have contributed in precipitating the adverse drug reaction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1118_15261", "title": "Current and investigational therapies for the treatment of refractory ventricular fibrillation.", "score": 0.012903225806451613, "content": "Esmolol, dual sequential defibrillation, vector change defibrillation, and left stellate ganglion block are presented and reviewed for the treatment of refractory ventricular fibrillation. Although no formal definition has been established for refractory ventricular fibrillation, the literature describes it as a pulseless ventricular arrhythmia that persists despite 3 standard defibrillation attempts, administration of amiodarone 300 mg intravenously, and provision of three 1-mg intravenous doses of epinephrine. Evolving literature surrounding resuscitation in this particular subset of cardiac arrest challenges the efficacy of traditional therapies, such as epinephrine, and suggests that other treatment modalities may improve outcomes. Case reports, case series, and small retrospective studies have pointed to benefit when utilizing a variety of therapies, namely, esmolol, dual sequential defibrillation, vector change defibrillation, or left stellate ganglion block, in patients with refractory ventricular fibrillation arrest. A mounting, although limited, body of evidence suggests that esmolol, dual sequential defibrillation, vector change defibrillation, or left stellate ganglion block may be effective at terminating refractory ventricular fibrillation and improving patient outcomes. Further evidence is required before these therapies can be adopted as standard practice; however, as key members of the code response team, it is imperative for pharmacists to be familiar with the supporting evidence, safety considerations, and logistical challenges of utilizing these treatments during arrest." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21076", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012883358471593767, "content": "500–800 mg, followed by continuous infusion at 2–5 mg/min) is now rarely used in this setting but may be tried for persisting, hemodynamically stable arrhythmias. Intravenous calcium gluconate is no longer considered safe or necessary for routine administration. It is used only in patients in whom acute hyperkalemia is known to be the triggering event for resistant VF, in the presence of known hypocalcemia, or in patients who have received toxic doses of calcium channel antagonists. Cardiac arrest due to bradyarrhythmias or asystole (B/A cardiac arrest) is managed differently (Fig. 327-3B). The patient is promptly intubated, CPR is continued, and an attempt is made to control hypoxemia and acidosis and identify other reversible causes. Epinephrine may be given intravenously or by an intraosseous route. Atropine is no longer considered effective for asystole or PEA, but can be used for bradyarrhythmias. External pacing devices are used to attempt to establish a regular rhythm when" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_10551", "title": "[Drug therapy in cardiopulmonary resuscitation].", "score": 0.012858619798397518, "content": "In the year 2000, new international guidelines for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) were published by the American Heart Association, and the European Resuscitation Council. These guidelines are evidence-based, indicating that these recommendations are based primarily on interpretation of data from clinical studies. Levels of recommendation range from class I (proven safe and useful), class IIa (intervention of choice), IIb (alternative intervention), indeterminate (research stage), and class III (unacceptable, no benefit). Administration of drugs during CPR should be performed intravenously or intraosseously (class IIa) or, as a second-line approach, endotracheally (class IIb). Due to lack of evidence, the standard dose of 1 mg epinephrine to treat ventricular fibrillation, pulseless electrical activity, or asystole was categorized as class indeterminate; while a single dose of 40 units vasopressin to treat adults with shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation received a IIb recommendation. Owing to a lack of clinical data, the use of vasopressin was neither recommended to treat adults with pulseless electrical activity or asystole, nor for the use in children. Both endothelin and calcium were not recommended for routine use (class indeterminate). Careful titration of acid-base status with 1 mL/kg 8.4% sodium bicarbonate should only be administered if indicated by blood gas analysis (class indeterminate). If 1 mg epinephrine fails to be effective in adult patients with pulseless electrical activity or asystole, 1 mg atropine can be administered (class indeterminate). Regarding antiarrhythmic drugs, 300 mg amiodarone (class IIb) showed the best results in shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation. The postresuscitation phase has the goal to achieve the best possible neurological performance after return of spontaneous circulation, which requires careful optimization of organ functions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_2970", "title": "Amiodarone for resuscitation after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation.", "score": 0.012817422050787529, "content": "Whether antiarrhythmic drugs improve the rate of successful resuscitation after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest has not been determined in randomized clinical trials. We conducted a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study of intravenous amiodarone in patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. Patients who had cardiac arrest with ventricular fibrillation (or pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and who had not been resuscitated after receiving three or more precordial shocks were randomly assigned to receive 300 mg of intravenous amiodarone (246 patients) or placebo (258 patients). The treatment groups had similar clinical profiles. There was no significant difference between the amiodarone and placebo groups in the duration of the resuscitation attempt (42+/-16.4 and 43+/-16.3 minutes, respectively), the number of shocks delivered (4+/-3 and 6+/-5), or the proportion of patients who required additional antiarrhythmic drugs after the administration of the study drug (66 percent and 73 percent). More patients in the amiodarone group than in the placebo group had hypotension (59 percent vs. 48 percent, P=0.04) or bradycardia (41 percent vs. 25 percent, P=0.004) after receiving the study drug. Recipients of amiodarone were more likely to survive to be admitted to the hospital (44 percent, vs. 34 percent of the placebo group; P=0.03). The benefit of amiodarone was consistent among all subgroups and at all times of drug administration. The adjusted odds ratio for survival to admission to the hospital in the amiodarone group as compared with the placebo group was 1.6 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.1 to 2.4; P=0.02). The trial did not have sufficient statistical power to detect differences in survival to hospital discharge, which differed only slightly between the two groups. In patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest due to refractory ventricular arrhythmias, treatment with amiodarone resulted in a higher rate of survival to hospital admission. Whether this benefit extends to survival to discharge from the hospital merits further investigation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_9469", "title": "Cardiac arrest", "score": 0.012751786874593891, "content": ", medications other than epinephrine (adrenaline), while included in guidelines, have not been shown to improve survival to hospital discharge following out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. This includes the use of atropine, lidocaine, and amiodarone. Epinephrine in adults, as of 2019, appears to improve survival but does not appear to improve neurologically normal survival. It is generally recommended every five minutes. Epinephrine acts on the alpha-1 receptor, which in turn increases the blood flow that supplies the heart. This would assist with providing more oxygen to the heart. Based on 2019 guidelines, 1mg of epinephrine may be administered to patients every 3-5 minutes, but doses higher than 1mg epinephrine are not recommended for routine use in cardiac arrest. If the patient has a non-shockable rhythm, the epinephrine should be administered as soon as possible. For a shockable rhythm, epinephrine should only be administered after initial defibrillation attempts have failed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0013_8079", "title": "Asystole and its treatment: the possible role of the parasympathetic nervous system in cardiac arrest.", "score": 0.01274423516986446, "content": "Parasympathetic tone may be high during ventricular asystole because of reflex vagal stimulation from a number of sources. Eight patients in cardiac arrest were treated with cardiopulmonary resuscitation. All eight patients had ventricular asystole as the initial rhythm or as the result of defibrillation. Six patients failed to respond to 5 cc to 20 cc of 1:10,000 epinephrine intravenously (IV). In all eight cases a regular rhythm (sinus in seven, idioventricular in one) appeared within 30 seconds of administration of the last dose of atropine (1 mg to 2 mg IV). Five patients (62.5%) lived 12 hours, three (37.5%) were discharged from the hospital. These results suggest that atropine may be of value in the treatment of ventricular asystole." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0393_17305", "title": "Amiodarone as compared with lidocaine for shock-resistant ventricular fibrillation.", "score": 0.012020905923344948, "content": "Lidocaine has been the initial antiarrhythmic drug treatment recommended for patients with ventricular fibrillation that is resistant to conversion by defibrillator shocks. We performed a randomized trial comparing intravenous lidocaine with intravenous amiodarone as an adjunct to defibrillation in victims of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. Patients were enrolled if they had out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation resistant to three shocks, intravenous epinephrine, and a further shock; or if they had recurrent ventricular fibrillation after initially successful defibrillation. They were randomly assigned in a double-blind manner to receive intravenous amiodarone plus lidocaine placebo or intravenous lidocaine plus amiodarone placebo. The primary end point was the proportion of patients who survived to be admitted to the hospital. In total, 347 patients (mean [+/-SD] age, 67+/-14 years) were enrolled. The mean interval between the time at which paramedics were dispatched to the scene of the cardiac arrest and the time of their arrival was 7+/-3 minutes, and the mean interval from dispatch to drug administration was 25+/-8 minutes. After treatment with amiodarone, 22.8 percent of 180 patients survived to hospital admission, as compared with 12.0 percent of 167 patients treated with lidocaine (P=0.009; odds ratio, 2.17; 95 percent confidence interval, 1.21 to 3.83). Among patients for whom the time from dispatch to the administration of the drug was equal to or less than the median time (24 minutes), 27.7 percent of those given amiodarone and 15.3 percent of those given lidocaine survived to hospital admission (P=0.05). As compared with lidocaine, amiodarone leads to substantially higher rates of survival to hospital admission in patients with shock-resistant out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en146_6553", "title": "History of cardiopulmonary resuscitation", "score": 0.011800254452926208, "content": "Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, also known by the acronym CPR, is an emergency procedure performed in an effort to manually preserve intact brain function by maintaining adequate perfusion of tissue until further measures are taken to restore spontaneous blood circulation and breathing in a person who is in cardiac arrest. CPR is a fundamental component of first aid that is practiced across the world. It is an effective method of keeping a victim of cardiac arrest alive long enough for definitive treatment to be delivered, usually through defibrillation and administration of intravenous drugs such as epinephrine and amiodarone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0665_2311", "title": "Tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias and acute coronary syndromes.", "score": 0.011115919294639476, "content": "The incidence of bradyarrhythmias in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is 0.3% to 18%. It is caused by sinus node dysfunction (SND), high-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, or bundle branch blocks. SND presents as sinus bradycardia or sinus arrest. First-degree AV block occurs in 4% to 13% of patients with ACS and is caused by rhythm disturbances in the atrium, AV node, bundle of His, or the Tawara system. First- or second-degree AV block is seen very frequently within 24 h of the beginning of ACS; these arrhythmias are frequently transient and usually disappear after 72 h. Third-degree AV blocks are also frequently transient in patients with infero-posterior myocardial infarction (MI) and permanent in anterior MI patients. Left anterior fascicular block occurs in 5% of ACS; left posterior fascicular block is observed less frequently (incidence &lt;0.5%). Complete bundle branch block is present in 10% to 15% of ACS patients; right bundle branch block is more common (2/3) than left bundle branch block (1/3). In patients with bradyarrhythmia, intravenous (IV) atropine (1-3 mg) is helpful in 70% to 80% of ACS patients and will lead to an increased heart rate. The need for pacemaker stimulation (PS) is different in patients with inferior MI (IMI) and anterior MI (AMI). Whereas bradyarrhythmias are frequently transient in patients with IMI and therefore do not need permanent PS, there is usually a need for permanent PS in patients with AMI. In these patients bradyarrhythmias are mainly caused by septal necrosis. In patients with ACS and ventricular arrhythmias (VTA) amiodarone is the drug of choice; this drug is highly effective even in patients with defibrillation-resistant out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. There is general agreement that defibrillation and advanced life support is essential and is the treatment of choice for patients with ventricular flutter/fibrillation. If defibrillation is not available in patients with cardiac arrest due to VTA, cardiopulmonary resuscitation is mandatory." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21077", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01041139347305187, "content": "route. Atropine is no longer considered effective for asystole or PEA, but can be used for bradyarrhythmias. External pacing devices are used to attempt to establish a regular rhythm when atropine fails for a bradyarrhythmia, but chronotropic agents given intravenously are now recognized as an equally effective alternative. The success rate may be good when B/A arrest is due to acute inferior wall MI or to correctable airway obstruction or drug-induced respiratory depression or with prompt resuscitation efforts. For acute airway obstruction, prompt removal of foreign bodies by the Heimlich maneuver or, in hospitalized patients, by intubation and suctioning of obstructing secretions in the airway is often successful. The prognosis is generally very poor in other causes of this form of cardiac arrest, such as end-stage cardiac or noncardiac diseases. Treatment of PEA is similar to that for bradyarrhythmias, but its outcome is also dismal." }, { "id": "article-31086_15", "title": "Ventricular Fibrillation -- Treatment / Management -- Acute Management", "score": 0.01039601872548606, "content": "Due to the high mortality rate and extreme acuity of the condition, VF patients warrant immediate attention. Healthcare professionals should immediately initiate guideline-directed management as per Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) protocol. There is a lower likelihood of survival if the healthcare professional deviates from the ACLS guidelines. [9] All patients with cardiac arrest should have an initial assessment while receiving quality CPR. Pulseless VT and VF are both shockable rhythm, and once the staff identifies the rhythm as VF, patients should be shocked immediately with 120 to 200 joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 joules using a monophasic. Patients receiving prompt defibrillation have shown improved survival (39.3%) compared to patients in whom defibrillation was delayed by 2 minutes or more (22.2%). [10] Administer epinephrine and amiodarone as per ACLS protocol in patients sustaining VF rhythm regardless of receiving 3 shocks. Amiodarone significantly improves survival to hospital admission without affecting survival to hospital discharge. [11] Identifying and addressing the cause of inciting event is equally important. Professionals should undertake cause-specific measures such as securing the airway, correcting electrolytes, administrating fluids, decompressing pneumothorax, draining tamponade while resuscitating the patient. Once the patient attains return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), physicians should begin a definitive evaluation for coronary artery disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0608_20487", "title": "Should amiodarone or lidocaine be given to patients who arrest after cardiac surgery and fail to cardiovert from ventricular fibrillation?", "score": 0.01017212437050585, "content": "A best evidence topic in cardiac surgery was written according to a structured protocol. The question addressed was whether the administration of amiodarone or lidocaine in patients with refractory VT/VF after cardiac surgery results in successful cardioversion. Altogether more than 434 papers were found using the reported search, from which 23 articles were used to answer the clinical question. No randomized trials have been found in which amiodarone was studied in patients with refractory VF/VT after cardiac surgery. Recommendations on the use of amiodarone in patients with refractory VF/VT in both European and American 2005 Guidelines on Resuscitation are mainly based on expert consensus and are supported by a few randomized trials in patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. We would therefore recommend that amiodarone is the first line drug that should be used in patients with refractory ventricular arrhythmias after cardiac surgery that persist after three failed attempts at cardioversion. Lidocaine should only be used if amiodarone is not available or if its use is contraindicated. Amiodarone should be administered as an intravenous bolus of 300 mg after the third unsuccessful shock." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_3034", "title": "Effects of early amiodarone administration during and immediately after cardiopulmonary resuscitation in a swine model.", "score": 0.009901227464518603, "content": "Aim of this experimental study was to compare haemodynamic effects and outcome with early administration of amiodarone and adrenaline vs. adrenaline alone in pigs with prolonged ventricular fibrillation (VF). After 8 min of untreated VF arrest, bolus doses were administered of adrenaline (0.02 mg/kg) and either amiodarone (5 mg/kg) or saline (n = 8 per group) after randomisation. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) was commenced immediately after drug administration, and defibrillation was attempted 2 min later. CPR was resumed for another 2 min after each defibrillation attempt, and the same dose of adrenaline was given every 4th minute during CPR. Haemodynamic monitoring and mechanical ventilation continued for 6 h after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), and the pigs were euthanised at 48 h. Researchers were blinded for drug groups throughout the study. There was no difference in rates of ROSC and 48-h survival with amiodarone vs. saline (5/8 vs. 7/8 and 0/8 vs. 3/8, respectively). Diastolic aortic pressure and coronary perfusion pressure were significantly lower with amiodarone during CPR and 1 min after ROSC (P &lt; 0.05). The number of electric shocks required for terminating VF, time to ROSC and adrenaline dose were significantly higher with amiodarone (P &lt; 0.01). The incidence of post-resuscitation tachyarrhythmias tended to be higher in the saline group (P = 0.081). Early administration of amiodarone did not improve ROSC or 48-h survival rates, and was associated with worse haemodynamics in this swine model of cardiac arrest." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_72178", "title": "Amiodarone", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In India, amiodarone is marketed (produced by Cipla Pharmaceutical) under the brand name Tachyra. It is also available in intravenous ampules and vials. The dose of amiodarone administered is tailored to the individual and the dysrhythmia that is being treated. When administered orally, the bioavailability of amiodarone is quite variable. Absorption ranges from 22 to 95%, with better absorption when it is given with food. Administration Amiodarone IV should be administered via a central venous catheter. It has a pH of 4.08. If administered outside of the standard concentration of 900 mg/500mL it should be administered using a 0.22 micron filter to prevent precipitate from reaching the patient. Amiodarone IV is a known vesicant. For infusions of longer than 1 hour, concentrations of 2 mg/mL should not be exceeded unless a central venous catheter is used. References Further reading External links" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21071", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009842845326716296, "content": "If return of circulation fails If return of circulation fails Continue chest compressions, intubate, IV access Epinephrine, 1 mg IV or vasopressin, 40 units IV; follow with repeat defibrillation at maximum energy within 30–60 seconds as required; repeat epinephrine If return of circulation fails Epinephrine, °Dose NaHCO3, 1 meq/kg (° K+) (no longer for routine use; may be used for persistent acidosis -see text) Antiarrhythmics If return of circulation fails Defibrillate, CPR: Drug – Shock – Drug – Shock a second shock is delivered. Multiple shocks given in sequence are 1769 no longer recommended, in order to minimize interruptions of chest compressions. This sequence is continued until personnel capable of, and equipped for, advanced life support are available, although not much data support the notion that shocks and chest compressions alone will revert VF after three shocks have failed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en088_13113", "title": "Pralidoxime", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Pralidoxime has an important role in reversing paralysis of the respiratory muscles but due to its poor blood–brain barrier penetration, it has little effect on centrally-mediated respiratory depression. Atropine, which is choice of drug to antagonise the muscarinic effects of organophosphates, is administered even before pralidoxime during the treatment of organophosphate poisoning. While the efficacy of atropine has been well-established, clinical experience with pralidoxime has led to widespread doubt about its efficacy in treatment of organophosphorus poisoning. Dosage Adults: 30 mg/kg (typically 1–2 g), administered by intravenous therapy over 15–30 minutes, repeated 60 minutes later. It can also be given as a 500 mg/h continuous IV infusion. Children: 20–50 mg/kg followed by a maintenance infusion at 5–10 mg/kg/h. Intravenous infusions can lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest if given too quickly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0497_17045", "title": "[Changes in the management of cardiac arrest].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "NEW RECOMMENDATIONS: for cardio-pulmonary resuscitation Methods such as mouth to mouth or the search for a pulse, until now the fundamental preliminaries, have now become second line. Everything must be organised to allow for defibrillation as rapidly as possible. NEW MODALITIES FOR CARDIAC MASSAGE: The frequency of compressions recommended is currently 100 per minute in the adult with a rhythm of compression-ventilation reaching 15/2 before intubation. Concerning the haemodynamic agents for cardiac arrest, the efficacy of high doses of adrenalin is not greater than with conventional doses. Vasopressin is not superior to intravenous adrenalin regarding survival at 24 hrs exepet in case of asystoly. Dopamine at a \"renal\" dose is no longer used. ANTIARRYTHMICS: Amiodarone is part of the decisional tree in the case of ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia without a pulse. Semi-automatic defibrillator accessibility should be generalized. INFUSED SOLUTIONS: Sodium bicarbonate does not improve the survival except in particular cases. Physiological serum should be preferred to glucosed serum during reanimation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en238_21745", "title": "Paracetamol poisoning", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Intravenous acetylcysteine is given as a continuous infusion over 20 hours for a total dose 300 mg/kg. Recommended administration involves infusion of a 150 mg/kg loading dose over 15 to 60 minutes, followed by a 50 mg/kg infusion over four hours; the last 100 mg/kg are infused over the remaining 16 hours of the protocol. Intravenous acetylcysteine has the advantage of shortening hospital stay, increasing both doctor and patient convenience, and allowing administration of activated charcoal to reduce absorption of both the paracetamol and any co-ingested drugs without concerns about interference with oral acetylcysteine. Intravenous dosing varies with weight, specifically in children. For patients less than 20 kg, the loading dose is 150 mg/kg in 3 mL/kg diluent, administered over 60 minutes; the second dose is 50 mg/kg in 7 mL/kg diluent over 4 hours; and the third and final dose is 100 mg/kg in 14 mL/kg diluent over 16 hours." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0582_14687", "title": "[Adult cardio-respiratory arrest: guidelines 2005-2010].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "At the end of 2005 the new guidelines for the treatment of cardiac arrest were published. The diagnostic criteria of cardiac arrest were simplified and priority is given to thoracic compressions. The ratio of thoracic compressions to insufflations is 30/2. The frequency of thoracic compression is 100/min. In ventricular tachycardia (VT) without pulse or in ventricle fibrillation (VF), defibrillation is attempted with a single external electric shock per cycle. The reanimation cycles are divided in periods of 2 minutes. The two drugs, used to treat VF and VT without pulse, are amiodarone and adrenaline. Adrenaline is not given before the fourth minute into the reanimation and it is administered before the third electrical external shock. In case of asystole or pulse less electrical activity adrenaline is administered as early as possible. Atropine is used in case of pulse less electrical activity with a ventricular response lower than 60/min. In advanced life support a priority is given to whether or not there are treatable secondary causes (4H, 4T), furthermore controlled hypothermia is installed when systemic circulation is restored and optimal support to all vital functions is given." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 830, 863 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 131, 137 ] ], "text": "in thalassemia the ADE is normal." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 109, 266 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 46 ] ], "text": "the bone marrow has not responded with an exaltation of erythropoiesis; in this way we have already eliminated the options that speak of regenerative anemia." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 109, 266 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 46 ] ], "text": "the bone marrow has not responded with an exaltation of erythropoiesis; in this way we have already eliminated the options that speak of regenerative anemia." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 287, 566 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 90 ] ], "text": "orients us towards the cause is that it is microcytic and hypochromic, which is characteristic of iron deficiency anemia, since folic deficiency gives rise to megaloblastic anemia and active hemorrhage does not give microcytosis or hypochromia, but normocytosis and normochromia." } }

{ "1": "Thalassemic trait.", "2": "Central anemia, arregenerative, due to folic acid deficiency.", "3": "Peripheral, regenerative, hemolytic anemia.", "4": "Peripheral anemia, regenerative, due to acute active hemorrhage.", "5": "Central anemia, arregenerative, due to iron deficiency." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en022_91106", "title": "Iron-deficiency anemia", "score": 0.01809771141048531, "content": "Blood tests Anemia is often discovered by routine blood tests. A sufficiently low hemoglobin by definition makes the diagnosis of anemia, and a low hematocrit value is also characteristic of anemia. Further studies will be undertaken to determine the anemia's cause. If the anemia is due to iron deficiency, one of the first abnormal values to be noted on a complete blood count, as the body's iron stores begin to be depleted, will be a high red blood cell distribution width, reflecting an increased variability in the size of red blood cells. A low mean corpuscular volume also appears during the course of body iron depletion. It indicates a high number of abnormally small red blood cells. A low mean corpuscular volume, a low mean corpuscular hemoglobin or mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration, and the corresponding appearance of red blood cells on visual examination of a peripheral blood smear narrows the problem to a microcytic anemia (literally, a small red blood cell anemia)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_200652", "title": "Anemia", "score": 0.015716374269005847, "content": "A blood test will provide counts of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets. If anemia appears, further tests may determine what type it is, and whether it has a serious cause. although of that, it is possible to refer to the genetic history and physical diagnosis. These tests may include: complete blood count (CBC); a CBC is used to count the number of blood cells in a sample of the blood. For anemia, it will likely to be interested in the levels of the red blood cells contained in blood (hematocrit), hemoglobin, mean corpuscular volume. determine the size and shape of red blood cells; some of red blood cells might also be examined for unusual size, shape and color. serum ferritin; This protein helps store iron in the body, a low levels of ferritin usually indicates a low levels of stored iron. serum vitamin B12; low levels usually develop an anemia, vitamin B12 is needed to make red blood cells, which carry oxygen to all parts of human body." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en055_48739", "title": "Microcytic anemia", "score": 0.01526510212950891, "content": "Microcytic anaemia is any of several types of anaemia characterized by small red blood cells (called microcytes). The normal mean corpuscular volume (abbreviated to MCV on full blood count results, and also known as mean cell volume) is approximately 80–100 fL. When the MCV is <80 fL, the red cells are described as microcytic and when >100 fL, macrocytic (the latter occur in macrocytic anemia). The MCV is the average red blood cell size. In microcytic anaemia, the red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain less hemoglobin and are usually also hypochromic, meaning that the red blood cells appear paler than usual. This can be reflected by a low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC), a measure representing the amount of hemoglobin per unit volume of fluid inside the cell; normally about 320–360 g/L or 32–36 g/dL. Typically, therefore, anemia of this category is described as \"microcytic, hypochromic anaemia\"." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_91166", "title": "Mean corpuscular hemoglobin", "score": 0.013782940360610263, "content": "The MCH decreases when Hb synthesis is reduced, or when RBCs are smaller than normal, such as in cases of iron-deficiency anemia. Conversion to SI-units: 1 pg of hemoglobin = 0.06207 femtomole (fmol). Normal value converted to SI-units: 1.68 – 1.92 fmol/cell. See also Red blood cell indices Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration Mean corpuscular volume References External links FP Notebook Medline Blood tests" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_1933", "title": "Simultaneous measurement of reticulocyte and red blood cell indices in healthy subjects and patients with microcytic and macrocytic anemia.", "score": 0.013761467889908258, "content": "Using the new Bayer H*3 hematology analyzer (Leverkusen, Germany), we have determined red blood cell and reticulocyte indices in 64 healthy subjects, in patients with microcytosis due to iron deficiency (58 patients) and heterozygous beta-thalassemia (40 patients), and in patients with macrocytosis (28 patients). We found in all cases that reticulocytes were larger than mature red cells by 24% to 35%, with a hemoglobin concentration 16% to 25% lower and a similar hemoglobin content. The correlation between red cell and reticulocyte indices was strikingly tight (r = .928 for volume, r = .929 for hemoglobin concentration, r = .972 for hemoglobin content) in all four groups, regardless of red blood cell size. The ratio of reticulocyte to red blood cell mean corpuscolar volume (MCV ratio) was constantly above 1. Inversion of the MCV ratio was observed only in four patients. It was always abrupt and transitory and was associated with erythropoietic changes leading to the production of red blood cells of a different volume (treatment of megaloblastic anemia, functional iron deficiency, bone marrow transplantation). In two cases of marrow transplantation, reticulocyte volume fell during the aplastic phase after conditioning chemotherapy and then rapidly increased up to values higher than before; this production of macroreticulocytes was the earliest sign of engraftment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en201_19352", "title": "Red blood cell indices", "score": 0.013731759304804065, "content": "Red blood cell indices are blood tests that provide information about the hemoglobin content and size of red blood cells. Abnormal values indicate the presence of anemia and which type of anemia it is. Mean corpuscular volume Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is the average volume of a red blood cell and is calculated by dividing the hematocrit (Hct) by the concentration of red blood cell count. Normal range: 80–100 fL (femtoliter) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) is the average amount of hemoglobin (Hb) per red blood cell and is calculated by dividing the hemoglobin by the red blood cell count. Normal range: 27-31 pg/cell Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is the average concentration of hemoglobin per unit volume of red blood cells and is calculated by dividing the hemoglobin by the hematocrit. Normal range: 32-36 g/dL Red blood cell distribution width" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_200660", "title": "Anemia", "score": 0.013624338624338624, "content": "* For instance, sickle cell anemia with superimposed iron deficiency; chronic gastric bleeding with B12 and folate deficiency; and other instances of anemia with more than one cause. ** Confirm by repeating reticulocyte count: ongoing combination of low reticulocyte production index, normal MCV and hemolysis or loss may be seen in bone marrow failure or anemia of chronic disease, with superimposed or related hemolysis or blood loss. Here is a schematic representation of how to consider anemia with MCV as the starting point: Other characteristics visible on the peripheral smear may provide valuable clues about a more specific diagnosis; for example, abnormal white blood cells may point to a cause in the bone marrow. Microcytic Microcytic anemia is primarily a result of hemoglobin synthesis failure/insufficiency, which could be caused by several etiologies:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en041_40284", "title": "Megaloblastic anemia", "score": 0.013591800356506239, "content": "Blood findings The blood film can point towards vitamin deficiency: Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count and hemoglobin levels Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV, >100 fL) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) Normal mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC, 32–36 g/dL) Decreased reticulocyte count due to destruction of fragile and abnormal megaloblastic erythroid precursor. The platelet count may be reduced. Neutrophil granulocytes may show multisegmented nuclei (\"senile neutrophil\"). This is thought to be due to decreased production and a compensatory prolonged lifespan for circulating neutrophils, which increase numbers of nuclear segments with age. Anisocytosis (increased variation in RBC size) and poikilocytosis (abnormally shaped RBCs). Macrocytes (larger than normal RBCs) are present. Ovalocytes (oval-shaped RBCs) are present. Howell-Jolly bodies (chromosomal remnant) also present." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_91165", "title": "Mean corpuscular hemoglobin", "score": 0.01356619366910962, "content": "The mean corpuscular hemoglobin, or \"mean cell hemoglobin\" (MCH), is the average mass of hemoglobin (Hb) per red blood cell (RBC) in a sample of blood. It is reported as part of a standard complete blood count. MCH value is diminished in hypochromic anemias. It is calculated by dividing the total mass of hemoglobin by the number of red blood cells in a volume of blood. MCH=(Hb*10)/RBC A normal MCH value in humans is 27 to 31 picograms (pg)/cell. The amount of hemoglobin per RBC depends on hemoglobin synthesis and the size of the RBC. The mass of the red cell is determined by the iron (as part of the hemoglobin molecule), thus MCH in picograms is roughly the mass of one red cell. In iron deficiency anemia the cell mass becomes lighter, thus a MCH below 27 pg is an indication of iron deficiency." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_27130", "title": "Anemia in pregnancy", "score": 0.013454056216137595, "content": "The most useful test with which to render a diagnosis of anemia is a low RBC count, however hemoglobin and hematocrit values are most commonly used in making the initial diagnosis of anemia. Testing involved in diagnosing anemia in the pregnant person must be tailored to each individual patient. Suggested tests include: hemoglobin and hematocrit (ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume), mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), erythrocyte count (number of red blood cells in the blood), red cell distribution width (RDW), reticulocyte count, and a peripheral smear to assess red blood cell morphology. If iron deficiency is suspected, additional tests such as: serum iron, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC), transferrin saturation, and plasma or serum ferritin may be warranted. It is important to note that references ranges for these values are often not the same for pregnant women. Additionally, laboratory values for pregnancy often change throughout" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0519_5136", "title": "The platelet count/mean corpuscular hemoglobin ratio distinguishes combined iron and vitamin B12 deficiency from uncomplicated iron deficiency.", "score": 0.013354037267080746, "content": "Combined deficiencies of iron and cobalamin are common. The aims of this study were to investigate the significance of the parameters of the complete blood count (CBC) in differentiating microcytic anemia due to pure iron deficiency anemia (IDA) from anemia due to combined deficiencies of vitamin B(12) and iron (IDA-B12). The study was carried out with 122 patients (100 female) who had microcytic red blood cell indices with IDA-B12 and 105 patients (95 female) with IDA. Group IDA-B12 patients had decreased hemoglobin levels, mean corpuscular volumes, mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) levels, and MCH concentrations but had increased platelet counts (PLT). Using these parameters, we developed a PLT/MCH ratio parameter that has high values when IDA is accompanied by cobalamin deficiency. The cutoff value of &gt;12.00, with a 74.6% sensitivity and a 41.9% specificity, appears to be the most convenient value for screening. We advise measuring the levels of cobalamin in patients with IDA associated with a high PLT/MCH ratio." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1061_10486", "title": "Inherited microcytic anemias.", "score": 0.013338139870223503, "content": "Inherited microcytic anemias can be broadly classified into 3 subgroups: (1) defects in globin chains (hemoglobinopathies or thalassemias), (2) defects in heme synthesis, and (3) defects in iron availability or iron acquisition by the erythroid precursors. These conditions are characterized by a decreased availability of hemoglobin (Hb) components (globins, iron, and heme) that in turn causes a reduced Hb content in red cell precursors with subsequent delayed erythroid differentiation. Iron metabolism alterations remain central to the diagnosis of microcytic anemia, and, in general, the iron status has to be evaluated in cases of microcytosis. Besides the very common microcytic anemia due to acquired iron deficiency, a range of hereditary abnormalities that result in actual or functional iron deficiency are now being recognized. Atransferrinemia, DMT1 deficiency, ferroportin disease, and iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia are hereditary disorders due to iron metabolism abnormalities, some of which are associated with iron overload. Because causes of microcytosis other than iron deficiency should be considered, it is important to evaluate several other red blood cell and iron parameters in patients with a reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV), including mean corpuscular hemoglobin, red blood cell distribution width, reticulocyte hemoglobin content, serum iron and serum ferritin levels, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin saturation, hemoglobin electrophoresis, and sometimes reticulocyte count. From the epidemiological perspective, hemoglobinopathies/thalassemias are the most common forms of hereditary microcytic anemia, ranging from inconsequential changes in MCV to severe anemia syndromes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en225_11366", "title": "Normocytic anemia", "score": 0.01312688109656598, "content": "Normocytic anemia is a type of anemia and is a common issue that occurs for men and women typically over 85 years old. Its prevalence increases with age, reaching 44 percent in men older than 85 years. The most common type of normocytic anemia is anemia of chronic disease. Classification A normocytic anemia is when the red blood cells are of normal size. Normocytic anemia is defined when the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is between 80 and 100 femtolitres (fL), which is within the normal and expected range. However, the hematocrit and hemoglobin are decreased. In contrast, microcytic anemias are defined as an anemia with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) less than 80 fL and macrocytic anemias have a mean corpuscular volume over 100 fL." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_91170", "title": "Mean corpuscular volume", "score": 0.012884978001257071, "content": "Interpretation The normal reference range is typically 80-100 fL. High In pernicious anemia (macrocytic), MCV can range up to 150 femtolitres. (as are an elevated GGT and an AST/ALT ratio of 2:1). Vitamin B12 and/or folic acid deficiency has also been associated with macrocytic anemia (high MCV numbers). Low The most common causes of microcytic anemia are iron deficiency (due to inadequate dietary intake, gastrointestinal blood loss, or menstrual blood loss), thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia or chronic disease. In iron deficiency anemia (microcytic anemia), it can be as low as 60 to 70 femtolitres. In some cases of thalassemia, the MCV may be low even though the patient is not iron deficient. Worked example" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en092_41894", "title": "Hypochromic anemia", "score": 0.012639074321317313, "content": "Hypochromic anemia is a generic term for any type of anemia in which the red blood cells are paler than normal. (Hypo- refers to less, and chromic means colour.) A normal red blood cell has a biconcave disk shape and will have an area of pallor in its center when viewed microscopically. In hypochromic cells, this area of central pallor is increased. This decrease in redness is due to a disproportionate reduction of red cell hemoglobin (the pigment that imparts the red color) in proportion to the volume of the cell. Clinically the color can be evaluated by the mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) or mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC). The MCHC is considered the better parameter of the two as it adjusts for effect the size of the cell has on its amount of hemoglobin. Hypochromia is clinically defined as below the normal MCH reference range of 27–33 picograms/cell in adults or below the normal MCHC reference range of 33–36 g/dL in adults." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0868_9943", "title": "Laboratory diagnosis of anemia: are the old and new red cell parameters useful in classification and treatment, how?", "score": 0.012583826429980276, "content": "Anemia is a global problem affecting the population in both developing and developed countries, and there is a debate on which hemoglobin level limit should be used to define anemia in general population and particularly in the elderly. We present herein a laboratory approach to diagnosing the possible causes of anemia based on traditional and new erythroid parameters. In this article, we provide practical diagnostic algorithms that address to differential diagnosis of anemia. Based on both morphological and kinetic classifications, three patterns were considered: microcytic, normocytic, and macrocytic. Main interest is on the clinical usefulness of old and new parameters such as mean cell volume (MCV), red blood cell distribution width (RDW), hypochromic and microcytic erythrocytes, immature reticulocyte fraction (IRF), and some reticulocyte indices such as reticulocyte hemoglobin content and mean reticulocyte volume. The pathophysiologic basis is reviewed in terms of bone marrow erythropoiesis, evaluated by reticulocyte count (increased or normal/decreased) and IRF. The utility of reticulocyte indices in the diagnosis of iron-deficient erythropoiesis (absolute or functional) and in monitoring of response to treatment in nutritional anemia (iron and cobalamin) was also investigated. For each parameter, the availability, the possible clinical applications, and the limitations were evaluated. A discussion on intraindividual biological variation and its implication on the usefulness of conventional reference intervals and in longitudinal monitoring of the patients was also reported. Red cell parameters and reticulocyte indices play an essential role in differential diagnosis of anemia and in its treatment. More efforts are needed in harmonizing parameters whose results are still too different when produced by different analyzers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_23071", "title": "Complete blood count", "score": 0.012262526805400345, "content": "Microcytic anemia is typically associated with iron deficiency, thalassemia, and anemia of chronic disease, while macrocytic anemia is associated with alcoholism, folate and B12 deficiency, use of some drugs, and some bone marrow diseases. Acute blood loss, hemolytic anemia, bone marrow disorders, and various chronic diseases can result in anemia with a normocytic blood picture. The MCV serves an additional purpose in laboratory quality control. It is relatively stable over time compared to other CBC parameters, so a large change in MCV may indicate that the sample was drawn from the wrong patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0867_3951", "title": "Evaluation of Reticulocyte Parameters in Iron Deficiency, Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Mixed Anemia.", "score": 0.012048630012701868, "content": "Reticulocytes are the youngest erythrocytes released from the bone marrow into the blood and they circulate for 1-2 days before becoming mature erythrocytes. In literature, there were studies about reticulocyte parameters that could help in differentiation of iron deficiency anemia (IDA) from vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. However, in those studies there were no data about differentiation of mixed anemia (vitamin B12 deficiency and IDA). The purpose of this study is to explore a response to 'could reticulocyte parameters help in differential diagnosis of mixed anemia?' in 6-12 years old children. The study enrolled 26 patients with IDA, 22 patients with mixed anemia, 32 patients with vitamin B12 deficiency, and 32 age and gender matched healthy controls. Blood for hematological parameters such as complete blood count, reticulocyte count, CHr, MCVr, CHCMr were collected into standard tubes containing EDTA. There is a statistically significant difference of both MCV (mean corpuscular volume)/MCVr (Reticulocyte mean corpuscular volume) ratio and MCVr between IDA and controls; in controls and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia; in controls and mixed anemia; in IDA and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia; in IDA and mixed anemia. Also in terms of both CHr and CHCMr (Corpuscular mean hemoglobin concentration of reticulocyte), there is a statistically significant difference between controls and IDA; controls and mixed anemia; IDA and mixed anemia; IDA and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. In mixed anemia, MCV could be normal or decreased, and in peripheral blood smear erythrocytes cells could be morphologically normal. For this reason diagnosis of mixed anemia is not easy and needs additional laboratory investigations. Our results suggest that in a differential diagnosis of mixed anemia from vitamin B12 deficiency, IDA, and healthy controls, CHr, CHCMr, and MCVr (together with MCV and individually) could be useful. So, with a simple and cheap laboratory parameter, differentiation of mixed anemia could be done." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0627_1873", "title": "Anemia analyzer: algorithm and reflex testing in clinical practice leading to efficiency and cost savings.", "score": 0.011828564257028112, "content": "Anemia is a common disease affecting about 3.5 million people in the United States. In present day clinical practice, a clinician makes a diagnosis of anemia based on low hemoglobin levels discovered during a complete blood count (CBC) test. If the etiology of the anemia is not readily apparent, the clinician orders additional testing to discover the cause of the anemia. Which tests are ordered, in what order these tests are run, and how the information gathered from the tests is used is based primarily on the individual physician's knowledge and expertise. Using this system to determine the cause of anemia is not only labor and resource intensive but it carries a potential for morbidity and an occasional mortality. Utilizing previously published data, we created an algorithmic approach to analyze the cause of anemia in the majority of cases. The algorithm accepts as input three parameters from a CBC test: (1) mean corpuscular volume, (2) red cell distribution width, and (3) reticulocyte count. With these three parameters, the algorithm generates a probable etiology of the anemia. Additionally, the algorithm will automatically order reflex tests needed to confirm the diagnosis. These reflex tests can be modified depending on the policies of the institution using the algorithm, as different institutions may order different tests based on availability and costs. This is a simple algorithm that could be integrated into the CBC test output. When a low hemoglobin level is found, the algorithm suggests the probable etiology and orders reflex tests if they are desired. Such an approach would not only provide cost efficiency and time savings but would also elevate the level of every clinician ordering a CBC to that of an expert hematologist." }, { "id": "article-129206_12", "title": "Overview on Ordering and Evaluation of Laboratory Tests -- Diagnostic Tests -- Complete Blood Count (CBC)", "score": 0.011779092111502083, "content": "Common terms in CBC and their normal values are as follows Red Blood Cell (RBC) Count: The number of RBCs per volume of blood (normal value: 4.2 to 6.9 x 109/mm3 Hemoglobin (Hb): Amount of oxygen-carrying capacity of blood (normal value: 130 to 180 g/L in males, 120 to 160 g/L in females) Hematocrit (Hct): Percentage of whole blood occupied by packed RBCs (normal value: 45% to 62% in males, 37% to 48% in females) Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): The measure of RBC size (normal value: 80 to 100 micromillimeter) Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH): Amount of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin inside RBCs (normal value: 27 to 32 pg/cell) Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC): Average concentration of Hb inside RBCs (normal value: 32% to 36%) White Blood Cell (WBC) Count: The number of WBCs per volume of blood (normal value: 4.3 to 11 x 109/mm3) WBC differential:" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4452", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01177100053504548, "content": "The components of the CBC also help in the classification of anemia. Microcytosis is reflected by a lower than normal MCV (<80), whereas high values (>100) reflect macrocytosis. The MCH and MCHC reflect defects in hemoglobin synthesis (hypochromia). Automated cell counters describe the red cell volume distribution width (RDW). The MCV (representing the peak of the distribution curve) is insensitive to the appearance of small populations of macrocytes or microcytes. An experienced laboratory technician I. Complete blood count (CBC) A. Red blood cell count 1. 2. 3. B. Red blood cell indices 1. 2. 3. 4. C. White blood cell count 1. 2. Nuclear segmentation of neutrophils D. Platelet count E. Cell morphology 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. II. A. B. C. III. A. 1. 2. 3. B. Biopsy 1. 2. Morphology aM/E ratio, ratio of myeloid to erythroid precursors. PART 2 Cardinal Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_200671", "title": "Anemia", "score": 0.011673021606796442, "content": "A dimorphic appearance on a peripheral blood smear occurs when there are two simultaneous populations of red blood cells, typically of different size and hemoglobin content (this last feature affecting the color of the red blood cell on a stained peripheral blood smear). For example, a person recently transfused for iron deficiency would have small, pale, iron deficient red blood cells (RBCs) and the donor RBCs of normal size and color. Similarly, a person transfused for severe folate or vitamin B12 deficiency would have two cell populations, but, in this case, the patient's RBCs would be larger and paler than the donor's RBCs. A person with sideroblastic anemia (a defect in heme synthesis, commonly caused by alcoholism, but also drugs/toxins, nutritional deficiencies, a few acquired and rare congenital diseases) can have a dimorphic smear from the sideroblastic anemia alone. Evidence for multiple causes appears with an elevated RBC distribution width (RDW), indicating a" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_200657", "title": "Anemia", "score": 0.011591821832785688, "content": "Red blood cell size In the morphological approach, anemia is classified by the size of red blood cells; this is either done automatically or on microscopic examination of a peripheral blood smear. The size is reflected in the mean corpuscular volume (MCV). If the cells are smaller than normal (under 80 fl), the anemia is said to be microcytic; if they are normal size (80–100 fl), normocytic; and if they are larger than normal (over 100 fl), the anemia is classified as macrocytic. This scheme quickly exposes some of the most common causes of anemia; for instance, a microcytic anemia is often the result of iron deficiency. In clinical workup, the MCV will be one of the first pieces of information available, so even among clinicians who consider the \"kinetic\" approach more useful philosophically, morphology will remain an important element of classification and diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1055_20899", "title": "[Reticulocyte hemoglobin equivalent as a diagnostic marker for the current iron deficiency : Old wine in new bottles].", "score": 0.011465930744464156, "content": "The reticulocyte hemoglobin equivalent (RET-He) is presented as a biomarker for the diagnostics and monitoring of iron deficiency. The marker is independent of the acute phase and can be determined within a few minutes by a blood count. Due to the approximately 120-day lifetime of erythrocytes, iron deficiency and changes in the iron status of erythropoiesis can first be recognized at a relatively late stage using classical hematological parameters, such as hemoglobin, mean corpuscular volume, mean cellular hemoglobin content and also with determination of hypochromic erythrocytes (% hypo). The RET-He is a cost-effective parameter for the diagnosis and monitoring of the iron supply for erythropoiesis. Reticulocytes, the precursors of mature erythrocytes, are washed out of the bone marrow into the peripheral blood and normally mature within 2 days to mature erythrocytes. The determination of the reticulocyte number therefore enables a timely statement about erythropoiesis. A measurement of the hemoglobin content of reticulocytes therefore reflects the actual iron metabolism of erythropoiesis and enables assessment of the quality of the cells. Changes in the iron status of erythropoiesis can thus be detected much earlier than by determining only the hemoglobin content of mature erythrocytes, i.e. the mean cellular hemoglobin content. It is recommended that the evaluation of RET-He should be carried out as an inexpensive routine preoperative marker of latent anemia in order to identify patients at risk. In the sense of a perioperative prehabilitation and the enhanced recovery after surgery (ERAS) concept, patients with iron deficiency can be treated proactively at an early stage in order to prevent complications and extended hospital stays." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0058_831", "title": "Automated measurement of red blood cell microcytosis and hypochromia in iron deficiency and beta-thalassemia trait.", "score": 0.011411665257819104, "content": "Some routine red blood cell (RBC) measurements and indexes (count, mean volume, volume dispersion, and mean hemoglobin [HGB] concentration) can be used to differentiate iron deficiency from heterozygous beta-thalassemia. A number of formulas that incorporate two or more of these measurements have been described to amplify such differences. The H*1 hematology analyzer directly measures volume and HGB concentration of individual RBCs. We have assessed the diagnostic usefulness of conventional and new RBC measurements provided by the H*1 on a learning data set that comprised 119 patients with iron deficiency and 172 patients with beta-thalassemia trait, both untreated and uncomplicated. The most striking finding was the inverse behavior of percentages of microcytes (volume, less than 60 fL) and hypochromic RBCs (HGB concentration, less than 280 g/L) in the two conditions. In 162 of 172 patients with beta-thalassemia trait, the percentage of microcytes (mean, 33.1%; central 95th percentile range, 9.2% to 54.5%) was higher than the percentage of hypochromic RBCs (mean, 13.9%; central 95th percentile range, 1.7% to 24.7%). In 105 of 119 patients with iron deficiency, on the contrary, the percentage of hypochromic cells (mean, 34.6%; central 95th percentile range, 9.7% to 73.1%) was higher than the percentage of microcytes (mean, 12.8%; central 95th percentile range, 1.7% to 29.6%). The ratio between the percentage of microcytes and the percentage of hypochromic cells provided by the H*1 (microcytic-hypochromic ratio) was useful in differentiating the two types of microcytic anemia: with the use of a discriminant value of 0.9, the discriminant efficiency of the microcytic-hypochromic ratio was 92.4% (95% confidence interval, 88.8% to 95.2%), higher than that of the five previously described discriminant formulas and simple RBC measurements. When assessed on a test data set that comprised 149 unselected cases of microcytic anemia, a microcytic-hypochromic ratio lower than 0.9 demonstrated high sensitivity (94.0%), specificity (92.3%), and predictive value (94.0%) for the presence of iron-deficient erythropoiesis in patients with isolated iron deficiency, polycythemia vera treated by phlebotomy, and iron deficiency complicating heterozygous thalassemia. In conclusion, our results showed that iron-deficient erythropoiesis is characterized by the production of RBCs with a severely decreased HGB concentration, while microcytes of beta-thalassemia trait are generally smaller, with a more preserved HGB concentration. Such properties, as assessed by the H*1 hematology analyzer, are very useful in distinguishing these two common types of microcytic anemia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_23072", "title": "Complete blood count", "score": 0.011337004921490508, "content": "A low RDW has no clinical significance, but an elevated RDW represents increased variation in red blood cell size, a condition known as anisocytosis. Anisocytosis is common in nutritional anemias such as iron deficiency anemia and anemia due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, while people with thalassemia may have a normal RDW. Based on the CBC results, further steps can be taken to investigate anemia, such as a ferritin test to confirm the presence of iron deficiency, or hemoglobin electrophoresis to diagnose a hemoglobinopathy such as thalassemia or sickle cell disease. White blood cells The white blood cell and platelet counts are markedly increased, and anemia is present. The differential count shows basophilia and the presence of band neutrophils, immature granulocytes and blast cells." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_265", "title": "Evaluation of anemia in children.", "score": 0.011227499849497322, "content": "Anemia is defined as a hemoglobin level of less than the 5th percentile for age. Causes vary by age. Most children with anemia are asymptomatic, and the condition is detected on screening laboratory evaluation. Screening is recommended only for high-risk children. Anemia is classified as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic, based on the mean corpuscular volume. Mild microcytic anemia may be treated presumptively with oral iron therapy in children six to 36 months of age who have risk factors for iron deficiency anemia. If the anemia is severe or is unresponsive to iron therapy, the patient should be evaluated for gastrointestinal blood loss. Other tests used in the evaluation of microcytic anemia include serum iron studies, lead levels, and hemoglobin electrophoresis. Normocytic anemia may be caused by chronic disease, hemolysis, or bone marrow disorders. Workup of normocytic anemia is based on bone marrow function as determined by the reticulocyte count. If the reticulocyte count is elevated, the patient should be evaluated for blood loss or hemolysis. A low reticulocyte count suggests aplasia or a bone marrow disorder. Common tests used in the evaluation of macrocytic anemias include vitamin B12 and folate levels, and thyroid function testing. A peripheral smear can provide additional information in patients with anemia of any morphology." }, { "id": "article-24805_4", "title": "Mean Corpuscular Volume -- Etiology", "score": 0.011189516129032257, "content": "Microcytic anemia is a type of anemia where the average erythrocyte is smaller than normal and much smaller than a leukocyte. On the complete blood count (CBC), its measure is under 80 fL while normal MCV is between 80 to 100 fL. It is commonly seen in chronic iron-deficient anemia, anemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia, and thalassemias but can also occur in other conditions. Microcytic cells can appear to have a larger area of central pallor, especially in the setting of iron-deficient anemia and anemia of chronic disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en222_11072", "title": "Microcytosis", "score": 0.011101064898533252, "content": "Red blood cells can be characterised by their haemoglobin content as well as by their size. The haemoglobin content is referred to as the cell's colour. Therefore, there are both \"normochromic microcytotic red cells\" and \"hypochromic, microcytotic red cells\". The normochromic cells have a normal concentration of haemoglobin, and are therefore 'red enough' while the hypochromic cells do not; thus the value of the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration.The most common cause of microcytosis is iron deficiency anemia. Every time Hb synthesis being impaired in bone marrow microcytosis can occurs such as iron deficiency and Hb pathy may occur in fact when Hb production was impaired: size of each RBCs is decreased in early stage to save mean corpuscular Hb concentration : ie MCHC: so MCV is decreased as compensating mechanism. Treatment See also Macrocytosis References External links" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en331_26872", "title": "Mechanical hemolytic anemia", "score": 0.011077794436115276, "content": "Hemolytic phenomena March haemoglobinuria March hemoglobinuria, occurs when hemoglobin is seen in the urine after repetitive impacts on the body, particularly affecting the feet. The word \"march\" is in reference to the condition arising in soldiers who have been marching for long periods; the condition was first documented in 1881. Runner’s macrocytosis Runner's macrocytosis is a phenomenon of increased red blood cell size as a compensatory mechanism for increased red blood cell turnover. The impact forces from running can lead to red blood cell hemolysis and accelerate red blood cell production. This can shift the ratio of red blood cells towards younger, larger cells. This shift may be reflected in higher than normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) values, an indicator of red blood cell size. This is not a pathological condition but may indicate a propensity toward iron deficiency anemia due to high red blood cell turnover. References Acquired hemolytic anemia" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0423_9395", "title": "Red cell indices and therapeutic trial of iron in diagnostic work-up for anemic Thai females.", "score": 0.011076262326580204, "content": "Anemia is common among Thai females. Thalassemia and iron deficiency are highly prevalent in the Thai population. A therapeutic trial of iron has been used to differentiate between the two conditions, however, no previous study on its usefulness in a Thai population has been reported. Otherwise healthy persons who had complete blood count (CBC) as routine 'check-up' and found to be anemic (Hb &lt; 12 g/dl) at a preventive medicine clinic were tested for hemoglobin typing, serum ferritin, serum iron, and were given oral iron sulfate (120 mg elemental iron per day for at least 2 months) and a repeat CBC on a follow-up visit. Sixty-six individuals, all females, with pre-treatment hemoglobin (Hb) level of 9.5 +/- 1.7 g/dl (mean +/- SD), had complete data for analysis. Final diagnoses were isolated iron deficiency in 23 (34.8%), iron deficient thalassemia traits in 6 (9.1%) and iron-sufficient thalassemia syndromes in 29 (43.9%) anemic subjects. After a therapeutic trial of iron, Hb rose to 12.8 +/- 1.0 g/dl (n = 16, p = 2 x 10(-8)) among the iron deficient group, but not in thalassemia. The authors have identified that the most useful red cell indices that will discriminate between iron deficiency and thalassemia is a combination of red blood cell counts (RBC) &gt; 4.4 x 10(6)/microl and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) &lt; 69 fl. High RBC (&gt; 4.4 x 10(6)/microl) and very low MCV (&lt; 69 fl) is a sensitive (92.9%) and highly specific (100%) criteria for diagnosis of mild thalassemia diseases (Hemoglobin H (HbH), Hemoglobin H-Constant Spring (HbH-CS), and homozygous Hemoglobin E (HbEE)). Conversely, a low RBC (&gt; 4.4 x 10(6)/microl) and/or low to normal MCV (69-85 fl) is highly sensitive (91.3%) but not specific (60%) for the diagnosis of iron deficiency. The authors conclude that a therapeutic trial of iron is useful as a diagnostic test in anemic females except those with high RBC (&gt; 4.4 x 10(6)/microl) and very low MCV (&lt; 69 fl), a subgroup which most likely has thalassemia and are least likely to benefit from iron treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_91107", "title": "Iron-deficiency anemia", "score": 0.010868347338935574, "content": "The blood smear of a person with iron-deficiency anemia shows many hypochromic (pale, relatively colorless) and small red blood cells, and may also show poikilocytosis (variation in shape) and anisocytosis (variation in size). With more severe iron-deficiency anemia, the peripheral blood smear may show hypochromic, pencil-shaped cells and, occasionally, small numbers of nucleated red blood cells. The platelet count may be slightly above the high limit of normal in iron-deficiency anemia (termed a mild thrombocytosis), but severe cases can present with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count)." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Clinical history.", "2": "Electrocardiogram.", "3": "Holter recording.", "4": "EEG.", "5": "Cranial CT scan." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0482_9183", "title": "[Syncope: many studies and few diagnoses?].", "score": 0.019049346879535557, "content": "Syncope is a frequent disorder shows diagnostic difficulties, so that an important percentage of patients remain without diagnosis after the implementation of diagnostic tests that sometimes are unnecessary. A retrospective analysis of the patients admitted during a period of two years because of syncope in an Internal Medicine Service was carried out. Of a total of 2,878 patients hospitalized during the years 1999 and 2000, 79 were admitted because of syncope (2.74%). Forty-five (57%) were men and 34 (43%) were women, with a median age of 68.8 years. Twenty-seven patients (34%) had history of syncope. After a median hospitalization of 9.5 days, the etiological diagnosis was established in 53 (67%) patients: in 25 patients (31.6%) the syncope was mediated by neurological mechanisms, in 16 (20.25%) it was of cardiology origin, in 4 (5.06%) it was of neurological origin and in 8 (10.1%) the syncope was secondary to other causes. In 54 patient (68.8%) at least one cardiology test was carried out (41 Holter, 32 echocardiograms, 6 tilt board tests, 3 maneuvers of massage of the carotid sinus, 3 ergometry studies, 3 electrophysiological studies, 2 coronary angiographies and 3 ventilation perfusion lung gammagraphies). In 51 patient (64%) at least one neurological test was carried out (31 EEG, 42 CT, 2 MNR, 1 Doppler cranial ultrasound and 3 electroneuromyogram). Only 4 of the Holter carried out were diagnostic, as well as 3 of the echocardiograms and only 2 of the CT carried out. No EEG was useful for the etiological diagnosis of the syncope. There is an excessive utilization of some diagnostic tests (EEG, Holter, cerebral CT), in spite of which in an important percentage of patients with syncope the etiological diagnosis is no done (33%). The use of diagnostic algorithms based on detailed clinical history, physical exploration and assessment of the ECG is proposed, that they would make it possible to issue a diagnostic hypothesis from which there could be begun the diagnostic study with a use as rational as possible of the complementary examinations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0696_11362", "title": "Diagnostic yield of syncope investigation (initiated) in the emergency department: a pilot study.", "score": 0.017905459175553078, "content": "To determine the diagnostic yield of investigations in patients presenting to the emergency department (ED) with syncope. To determine the cause of the syncope. We retrospectively identified consecutive patients presenting to the ED who underwent investigations for syncope at a 1900 bed university teaching hospital during 4 months. From the medical records we abstracted clinical information, results of testing and the cause of syncope. A total of 117 patients participated in the study. The mean age was 57 year (range 6-93 year), and 45% were male. Diagnostic procedures most often performed were blood analysis, ECG, chest X-ray and Holter monitoring (respectively in 94.1%, 88.8%, 74.4% and 36,8% of the patients). The corresponding diagnostic yield for these test was 4.5%, 6.7%, 0% and 16.3%. Other procedures were (% of patients; diagnostic yield): Ct scan of the head (35.1%; 0%), transthoracic echocardiogram (24.8%; 6.9%), ECG monitoring (24.8%; 27.6%), EEG (19.7%; 0%), neurovascular imaging (19.7%; 0%), abdominal ultrasound (11.1%; 0%), Ct scan of the chest (11.1%; 23.1%), head up tilt test (7.7%; 11.1%), carotid sinus massage (3.4%; 0%), pulmonary ventilation perfusion scintigraphy (2.6%; 33%) and exercise test (1.7%; 0%). The most common cause of syncope was neurocardiogenic (58,5% of patients), followed by orthostatic (11.1%), cardiac (11.1%), unknown (9.3%), hyperventilation (3.4%), pulmonary embolism (2.5%), drug related (2.5%) and others (1.7%). Patients admitted in the ED for syncope undergo various investigations. However, the diagnostic yield is poor.The most common cause of syncope is neurocardiogenic, followed by orthostatic and cardiac." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0236_5088", "title": "Evaluation and outcome of emergency room patients with transient loss of consciousness.", "score": 0.016835016835016835, "content": "We identified 198 patients who presented to our emergency room with transient loss of consciousness. Seizures (29 percent of patients) and vasovagal/psychogenic episodes (40 percent of patients) were the most common presumptive causes of loss of consciousness, but the cause of loss of consciousness remained uncertain even at follow-up in 11 +/- 6 months in 13 percent of the patients. The history and physical examinations were sufficient for diagnosis in 85 percent of the patients in whom a diagnosis could be established. These data guided inpatient and outpatient with potentially dangerous causes of loss of consciousness except for one patient who had pulmonary embolism. In selected patient, diagnostic tests such as blood chemistries (three patients), electrocardiograms (four patients) electroencephalograms (three patients), and Holter monitoring (four patients) provided crucial information, and CT scans identified new brain tumors in four patients with focal neurologic presentations. At the time of follow-up, 7.5 percent of patients had suffered either major morbidity or death related to the cause of the index episode of loss of consciousness. Patients with cardiac causes represented a high risk (33 percent) group for such poor outcome, whereas patients who were under age 30, or who were under age 70 and had loss of consciousness on a vasovagal/psychogenic or unknown basis, constituted a low risk (1 percent) subgroup." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0084_7635", "title": "[Short loss of consciousness: etiology and diagnostic approach. Results of a prospective study].", "score": 0.015584415584415586, "content": "Transient loss of consciousness is a frequent reason for hospitalization, but very few prospective studies have been devoted to this topic. Our study involved 150 patients who were admitted for sudden and total loss of consciousness (syncope) with spontaneous return to normality. All patients underwent thorough physical examination, standard laboratory tests, electrocardiography (ECG) and radiography of the chest. Depending on the results of this first evaluation, the patients were investigated for postural hypotension and had carotid sinus massage, electroencephalography (EEG), computerized tomography of the brain, cardiac Holter recording, electrophysiological exploration and, if necessary, other special examinations. The cause of the syncope was found in 93 cases (62 per cent); it was cardiac in 39 cases (bradycardia 25, tachycardia 14), vascular in 20 cases (vagal 14, postural hypotension 6), epileptic \"grand mal\" type in 32 cases and \"miscellaneous\" in 2 cases. The syncope occurred in a state of acute drunkenness in 14 cases and was unquestionably due to the absorption of medicines in 6 cases. Clinical findings and ECG or EEG provided the aetiological diagnosis in 82.7 per cent of the patients and the other, sophisticated examinations in 17.3 per cent. These results are similar to those of other prospective studies found in the literature. It may be concluded that the causes of the syncope are only found in about 2 out of 3 cases, that clinical data are all-important in the diagnostic approach and that complementary examinations are either unnecessary or yield little that is not already suggested by clinical examination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0308_14978", "title": "[Head injuries in the pediatric emergency department: a 5-year experience at the Pediatric Clinic of Modena].", "score": 0.015443560271146479, "content": "We re-evaluated the cases of 436 children with minor head injury admitted in the paediatric department of Modena University Hospital in the years 1991-1995 in order to revise diagnostic and therapeutic protocols. The external lesions, the presence of loss consciousness, vomiting, vegetative reactions, late complications, skull X ray, TC scan and EEG were considered. Signs and symptoms at admission have been faced with instrumental findings and eventual late complications to evaluate the prognostic significance. External lesions and vomiting did not correspond to TC scan and EEG positivity or significant sequelae. A more close connection to these parameters was found when an history of immediate loss of consciousness after trauma, or presence of vegetative reactions. Skull X ray appeared useless both to judge the seriousness of the lesion and to formulate a prognosis. EEG appeared a sensible tool to evaluate the gravity of the trauma and its late consequences. TC has confirmed to be the unique instrument able to solve any diagnostic or prognostic doubt. When symptoms suggest a bad prognosis, diagnostic procedures should be limited to TC and EEG. By our point of view, patients that at admission have a normal neurological examination at the Glasgow Coma Scale, no significant symptoms and signs, an history of a minor impact dynamic and no signs of child abuse, can be discharged from the emergency department; in this case parents should be instructed how to do an observation at home in order to evaluate eventual complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0948_6456", "title": "Diagnostic yield of neuroimaging in syncope patients without high-risk symptoms indicating neurological syncope.", "score": 0.014978761457634698, "content": "Diagnostic tests are widely used for patients with syncope in the emergency department (ED). This study aimed to determine the diagnostic yield of neuroimaging in patients with syncope without high-risk symptoms. Adult patients who presented to the ED with syncope in 2016 were screened retrospectively. Patients who suffered from mild head trauma due to syncope were also included. Patients with neurological examination findings (confusion, amnesia, focal neurological deficit, severe headache, dizziness, nausea and vomiting), patients on anticoagulants, patients with known intracranial malignancies and those whose loss of consciousness was attributed to reasons other than syncope were excluded from the study. A total of 1114 patients were included in the study. The median age was 48 years (IQR = 34-66 years) and 576 (51.7%) of the patients were male. The neuroimaging tests performed were cranial computerized tomography (CT) in 694 (62.3%) cases and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in 114 (10.2%) cases. Mild head trauma due to syncope was observed in 116 (10.4%) patients. None of the neuroimaging studies revealed any clinically significant findings. Neuroimaging is not beneficial in patients whose medical history and physical examination do not indicate neurogenic syncope, even if the patient has mild head trauma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0713_16264", "title": "Urgent computed tomography brain scan for elderly patients: can we improve its diagnostic yield?", "score": 0.01243894993894994, "content": "We conducted a retrospective study of 291 patients aged 75 years or older who were admitted to the emergency department and who underwent a computed tomography (CT) brain scan. Our aims were to assess the reasons for requesting an urgent CT brain scan, to record the diagnostic yield of cerebral imaging, and to seek out predictive factors of an intracranial pathology. The three main reasons for requesting an urgent CT brain scan were the presence of localizing signs (60%), delirium (21%), and disorders of consciousness with a Glasgow Coma Score of less than 14 (14.5%). In our elderly population, we found no typical patient profile when concerned with the risk of having an intracranial pathology. The multivariate logistic regression found that predictive factors for intracranial bleeding were localizing signs, disorders of consciousness with a Glasgow Coma Score of less than 14, head trauma, sudden-onset headache, or headache associated with at least two episodes of vomiting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0718_22570", "title": "The role of EEG in patients with syncope.", "score": 0.012059002978860854, "content": "EEG is a popular, low-cost examination used in neurologic and nonneurologic evaluations. Nevertheless, the diagnostic usefulness of EEG has some limitations, and it may increase medical costs. The manifestations of syncope may lead to misdiagnoses, and frequently, it is mislabeled as epilepsy. An EEG is usually obtained, yet some studies have suggested that EEGs have little value in diagnosing this condition. We aimed to determine the diagnostic usefulness of EEG in patients with syncope. We retrospectively examined EEG recordings of 10,408 patients. EEG findings were evaluated for all patients with a diagnosis of syncope (syncope, convulsive syncope, loss of consciousness, or sudden unexplained falls), including requests from neurologists and nonneurologists. EEGs were classified into (1) normal, (2) epileptiform discharges (spike/sharp waves), and (3) slow waves. The EEGs were separated according to gender and age. From 1,003 patients with the diagnosis of syncope, 899 (89.53%) were normal, 62 (6.18%) showed bilateral slow waves, 19 (1.89%) right slow waves, 18 (1.79%) epileptiform discharges, and 6 (0.6%) left slow waves. Epileptiform discharges only occurred among females. Left focal sharp waves were disclosed in 18 (50%), generalized discharges in 8 (44.4%), and right focal discharges in 1 (5.6%). Bilateral slow waves were more prevalent among adults. We conclude that EEG is not useful for evaluating the diagnosis of syncope because of its very low diagnostic yield. Patients with syncope must have a correct history and physical examination plus cardiovascular tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_9006", "title": "[Head injuries in children. Considerations on 3,715 consecutive cases].", "score": 0.01130589430894309, "content": "The authors present their personal experience of 3715 cases of head injury in pediatric patients, occurring during the last three years (1997-1999), admitted to the Emergency ward at the \"Anna Meyer\" children's hospital in Florence. A prospective study was made, starting from the evaluation made by the paediatric surgeon and following the subsequent diagnostic and clinical course. Depending on the severity of injury, this took the form of immediate discharge with a written sheet of instructions, \"short observation\" (up to 12 hours) in an Emergency ward and/or admission to neurosurgery or general medicine or to intensive care. The authors also analyse the diagnostic and instrumental tests carried out at the various stages (cranial X-ray, direct cranial CT, EEG) and the specialist consultations required (neurosurgery, neurology, paediatrics, resuscitation). Data for injured children transferred from other hospitals for neurosurgery were excluded from the study which only included patients examined primarily at our hospital. If admitted for more than 48 hours, a neurosurgical outpatient check-up was programmed one week later. In more severe cases, patients were admitted to day hospital between six months and one year later. Injuries were minor in 91% of cases and the age of patients ranged between 5 days and 14 years; moreover, 60% of the patients observed were male. Only 1.5% of cases seen in Emergency were admitted to hospital and 8.4% of all head injuries, with a total stay of between 1 and 6 days. There were 4 deaths in severely polytraumatised patients. There was only one case of firearm injury which was not fatal. Head X-rays were performed in 13.4% of patients showing evidence of fracture in 19.1% of cases. Direct cranial CT was performed in 10.2% of cases with pathological findings in 23.9% of cases. Neurosurgery was performed in one of the 5.9% patients admitted to hospital. The late sequelae to head injury included one case of epilepsy that occurred 7 months after injury. Anamnesis showed that the most frequent reason leading to head injury was lack of adult supervision and that the majority of severe injuries were caused by road accidents, both as pedestrians and as passengers. Lastly, the authors emphasise the importance of recognising and correctly treating so-called secondary cerebral damage, which has a non-immediate onset but is potentially severe, and identifying the risk factors for head injury in order to reduce the incidence and severity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0616_13947", "title": "Cranial computed tomography in the resuscitated patient with cardiac arrest.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The incidence of out-of-hospital and in-hospital cardiorespiratory arrest from all causes in the United States occurs not infrequently. Postresuscitation care should include the identification of the inciting arrest event as well as therapy tailored to support the patient and treat the primary cause of the decompensation. The application of one particular testing modality, cranial computed tomography (CT) of the head, has not yet been determined. We undertook an evaluation of the use of head CT in patients who were resuscitated from cardiac arrest. Prehospital (emergency medical services), ED, and hospital records were reviewed for patients of all ages with cardiorespiratory arrest over a 4-year period (July 1996-June 2000). Information regarding diagnosis, management, and outcome was recorded. The results of cranial CT, if performed, and any apparent resulting therapeutic changes were recorded. Patients with a known traumatic mechanism for the cardiorespiratory arrest were excluded. A total of 454 patients (mean age 58.3 years with 60% male) with cardiorespiratory arrest were entered in the study with 98 (22%) individuals (mean age 58.5 years with 53% male) undergoing cranial CT. Arrest location was as follows: emergency medical services, 41 (42%); ED, 11 (11%); and hospital, 46 (47%). Seventy-eight (79%) patients demonstrated 111 CT abnormalities: edema, 35 (32%); atrophy, 24 (22%); extra-axial hemorrhage, 14 (13%); old infarct, 12 (11%); new infarct, 11 (10%); intraparenchymal hemorrhage, 6 (5%); skull fracture, 5 (4%); mass, 3 (2%); and foreign body, 1 (1%). Therapeutic and diagnostic alterations in care were made in 38 (39%) patients-35 abnormal and 3 normal CTs. The following alterations occurred: medication administration, 26; withdrawal of life support, 7; additional diagnostic study, 6; neurologic consultation, 6; and intracranial pressure monitoring. 4. No patient survived to discharge. In this subset of resuscitated patients with cardiac arrest, abnormalities on the head CT were not uncommon. Alterations in management did occur in those patients with abnormalities. The indications and impact of head CT in the population of resuscitated patients with cardiac arrest remain unknown, warranting further investigation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0220_7941", "title": "Paired receiver operating characteristic curves and the effect of history on radiographic interpretation. CT of the head as a case study.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The use of a statistical technique for paired comparisons using receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves is illustrated by studying the extent to which clinical history altered the interpretation of computed tomographic (CT) examinations of the head. Eighty-nine CT examinations of the head were presented in random order to four readers, first with minimum history (age and sex) and then several weeks later with complete neurological history as of the time the CT examination had been obtained. Using a paired ROC analysis, a small but significant (p less than .05) improvement was detected for the interpretations in the presence of complete history; for readings without history the average area was 94.4% and for readings with history it was 97.7%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en331_34060", "title": "Healthcare in Belgium", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In a general hospital any of the following departments may be at the disposal of patients, but not all general hospitals offer all these facilities and departments: Emergencies and trauma center usually backed up by an intensive care unit. Operating theatres. Polyclinic consultations, ambulance or out-patient care: patients can come during office hours to see a specialist either in the diagnostic phase, therapeutic phase or post-therapy follow-up consultations. Technical diagnostics such as collection of blood or bodily fluid-samples, and lab testing; medical imaging; X-rays, CT-scan, MRI or ultrasound); EEG, ECG and extended monitoring outside acute illness situations; Nursing units: standard hospital ward type of sections where patients get 24/7 care, post-op recovery Specialized units may be sections in a general hospital, independent units within a general hospital or independent specialized clinics: Neo-natal and Pediatric clinics Re-hab and recovery clinics" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0339_4929", "title": "Syncope-related trauma: rationale and yield of diagnostic studies.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Syncope occasionally occurs in trauma patients. The most appropriate and cost-effective evaluation for such patients is unknown. Trauma patients admitted to a Level I trauma center with a diagnosis of syncope or possible syncope between 1988 and 1994 were reviewed. History, physical examination, and past medical history were noted, as were the results of tests done as part of the syncope evaluation. Eighty-eight patients were reviewed; 45% had been injured in falls. Thirteen patients who remembered their entire injury and denied syncope as a cause had negative evaluations. History, physical examination, and admission laboratory values were helpful in diagnosis 59% of the time. Subsequent evaluation provided useful diagnostic information 30% of the time. No patients with normal admission electrocardiograms (EKGs) had cardiac causes for their syncope. (1) Patients with possible syncope without loss of consciousness require no further evaluation. (2) A cerebrovascular evaluation should be the initial diagnostic approach in patients with signs and symptoms suggestive of stroke or transient ischemic attack. (3) Possible syncope patients with normal admission EKGs should undergo computed tomography of the head and electroencephalography. Those with abnormal EKGs should undergo echocardiography." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_12476", "title": "Syncope of unknown origin. The need for a more cost-effective approach to its diagnosis evaluation.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The records of 121 patients hospitalized in Presbyterian-University Hospital, Pittsburgh, during 1976 to 1980 for syncope of unknown origin were reviewed. The were 58 men and 63 women, whose mean age was 63.1 years. Cardiac monitoring in 67 patients showed abnormalities in seven patients, considered diagnostic of the cause of syncope. In 13 patients with electrophysiologic studies, four patients had abnormal results, suggesting a probable cause for the syncope. Cardiac catheterization in 14 patients showed significant findings that demonstrated the cause of syncope in three patients. Glucose tolerance tests in 37 patients, head computed tomographic scans in 39 patients, radionuclide brain scans in 15 patients, lumbar punctures in 22 patients, and skull roentgenograms in 46 patients did not aid in the diagnosis of the cause of syncope in any patient. In 67 patients, EEGs produced abnormal results in 26, but the role of EEGs in the diagnostic workup of syncope could not be completely defined. The definitive cause for syncope was diagnosed in only 13 of 121 patients, with an average hospitalization of nine days and an average cost of $2,463 per patient. These findings suggest that an extensive evaluation of syncope is cost--ineffective and that prospective goal-directed approaches need to be developed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0815_22389", "title": "Clinical history in management of suspected syncope: A powerful diagnostic tool.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In this paper, the role of history taking as a diagnostic tool in patients with transient loss of consciousness (TLOC) is addressed. From a literature review it can be demonstrated that, if properly performed, the history is a powerful diagnostic tool, which in the majority of cases proves to be the only 'test' necessary to establish a diagnosis other than physical examination and electrocardiogram in patients with TLOC. In order to substantiate this conclusion, we examine the different levels of history taking according to the skills and training of the physician involved, the diagnostic yield of each level, the methodology, and the influence of the venue and urgency of the case. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0987_14628", "title": "The Yield of Computed Tomography of the Head Among Patients Presenting With Syncope: A Systematic Review.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Overuse of head computed tomography (CT) for syncope has been reported. However, there is no literature synthesis on this overuse. We undertook a systematic review to determine the use and yield of head CT and risk factors for serious intracranial conditions among syncope patients. We searched Embase, Medline, and Cochrane databases from inception until June 2017. Studies including adult syncope patients with part or all of patients undergoing CT head were included. We excluded case reports, reviews, letters, and pediatric studies. Two independent reviewers screened the articles and collected data on CT head use, diagnostic yield (proportion with acute hemorrhage, tumors or infarct), and risk of bias. We report pooled percentages, I<sup2</sup , and Cochran's Q-test. Seventeen articles with 3,361 syncope patients were included. In eight ED studies (n = 1,669), 54.4% (95% confidence interval [CI] = 34.9%-73.2%) received head CT with a 3.8% (95% CI = 2.6%-5.1%) diagnostic yield and considerable heterogeneity. In six in-hospital studies (n = 1,289), 44.8% (95% CI = 26.4%-64.1%) received head CT with a 1.2% (95% CI = 0.5%-2.2%) yield and no heterogeneity. In two articles, all patients had CT (yield 2.3%) and the third enrolled patients ≥ 65 years old (yield 7.7%). Abnormal neurologic findings, age ≥ 65 years, trauma, warfarin use, and seizure/stroke history were identified as risk factors. The quality of all articles referenced was strong. More than half of patients with syncope underwent CT head with a diagnostic yield of 1.1% to 3.8%. A future large prospective study is needed to develop a robust risk tool." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1055_18239", "title": "A Clinical Challenge in the Emergency Department: A Case of Klebsiella Infective Endocarditis Presenting With Splenic Abscess.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Infective endocarditis (IE) is a serious bacterial infection of the endocardium and/or heart valves that carries considerable morbidity and mortality. Often presenting with very non-specific symptoms, this disease presents many challenges to the emergency medicine practitioner. A 47-year-old male with no pertinent medical history presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. He stated that his symptoms had been persistent for the last three weeks and were associated with malaise and fatigue. CT of the abdomen/pelvis with IV contrast revealed a 7-cm hypodensity of the spleen concerning for abscess versus infarct. He denied any trauma or IV drug use. Follow-up ultrasound was ordered, which characterized the hypodensity as a splenic abscess. An echocardiogram was recommended for possible IE, and cardiology was consulted. The transthoracic echocardiogram was performed on hospital day 2, which showed minimal mitral valve thickening with mild mitral regurgitation. The interventional radiology (IR) service was consulted for the splenic abscess in order to perform CT-guided drainage. An IR drain was successfully placed on hospital day 3. On the same day, blood cultures grew Klebsiella pneumoniae. On hospital day 5, that patient was transferred to the ICU for possible empyema formation with signs of respiratory distress. The patient underwent CT of the chest that showed the development of a left-sided effusion. The patient had also been persistently tachycardic and febrile, with high leukocytosis since admission and worsening respiratory status. Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) was scheduled but put on hold due to worsening respiratory status. Repeat TEE was scheduled five days later, which showed mitral regurgitation and increased size of the vegetation despite antibiotic therapy. Two days later, he was scheduled for mitral valve repair. When reviewing our case, the patient had both common and uncommon aspects of splenic abscess or IE. First, despite having respiratory symptoms for two weeks, the primary reason he came to the hospital was due to the new onset of fevers. He was febrile, tachycardic, and with significant leukocytosis. He continued to have fevers despite antibiotic therapy and IR drainage of the abscess. With no history of IV drug use history, negative transthoracic echocardiography, lack of immunocompromising condition, and blood cultures with gram-negative rods, IE became less likely of a diagnosis.  Establishing the diagnosis of IE proved to be exceptionally complicated, especially in the setting of a COVID-19 pandemic. The most notable challenge was having a high index of suspicion despite any risk factors. The patient was a previously healthy 47-year-old male with no medical problems. IE continues to be a clinical challenge for physicians, especially in the emergency department, due to the lack of diagnostic criteria such as positive blood cultures or vegetations visualized on echocardiographic studies. IE has a wide gamut of presentations with different levels of acuity. Diagnosis is more straightforward when patients present with obvious risk factors, but, in many cases, such as this one, those risk factors may be absent. A high index of suspicion is required, especially in patients with additional findings such as splenic abscess, embolic phenomenon, focal neurologic deficit, mycotic aneurysm, decompensated heart failure, new murmurs, or pleural effusions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_5806", "title": "Reliability of the early syndromic diagnosis in adults with new-onset epileptic seizures: A retrospective study of 116 patients attended in the emergency room.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "New-onset seizures (NOS) are a common reason for emergency department (ED) consultations. Decisions regarding treatment and further examinations are made based on the initial evaluation. We aimed to evaluate the reliability of the early syndromic diagnosis in NOS and find predictive factors to establish a consistent early diagnosis based on the semiology and prompt supplementary examinations. We recruited patients attended in our ED for NOS over 2 years (2014-2015), excluding patients with a loss of consciousness of suspected non-epileptic origin. All patients were assessed by a neurologist. A baseline diagnosis was established according to clinical findings and neuroimaging/EEG data. Over 1 year of follow-up in our Epilepsy Unit, a definite diagnosis was made based on clinical progress and further examinations. 116 patients were recruited (mean age 56.5 ± 22.1 years; 50% women). 47% were seizures of unknown cause. The concordance index between the baseline and definite diagnosis was κ = 0.662 (the diagnosis changed during follow-up in 25% of patients). Focal epilepsy of unknown cause was the baseline diagnosis that most often changed at follow-up (diagnostic change, 41.2%; p &lt; 0.001). Lesions detected on CT-scanning and EEG abnormalities predicted the final diagnosis with the greatest accuracy (p = 0.009 and p = 0.026, respectively). Pathological findings in the MRI studies performed and seizure recurrence were not key factors for diagnostic changes. Despite prompt examinations, the baseline epilepsy diagnosis changes within a short time period in 25% of patients. The presence of neuroimaging lesions and EEG abnormalities was associated with the greatest diagnostic accuracy in these cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_5526", "title": "Clinical predictors of abnormal head computed tomography scan in patients who are conscious after head injury.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Indication of a head computed tomography (CT) scan in a patient who remains conscious after head injury is controversial. We aimed to determine the clinical features that are most likely to be associated with abnormal CT scan in patients with a history of head injury, and who are conscious at the time of presentation to casualty. This is a prospective observation study of patients presented to casualty with history of head injury, and who were conscious, i.e., Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) 15 at the time of evaluation. All patients underwent head CT scan. The CT scan was reported as abnormal if it showed any pathology ascribed to trauma. The following variables were used: age, gender, mode of injury (road traffic accident, fall, assault, and others), duration since injury, and history of transient loss of consciousness, headache, vomiting, ear/nose bleeding, and seizures. Logistic regression analysis was used to identify the clinical features that predicted an abnormal CT scan. During the observation period, a total of 1629 patients with head injury were evaluated, out of which 453 were in GCS 15. Abnormal CT scan was present in 195 (43%) patients. Among all the variables, the following were found significantly associated with abnormal CT scan: duration since injury (&gt;12 h) <iP</i &lt; 0.001; vomiting odds, ratio (OR) 1.89 (1.23, 2.80), <iP</i &lt; 0.001; and presence of any symptom, OR 2.36 (1.52, 3.71), <iP</i &lt; 0.001. A patient with GCS 15 presenting after 12 hours of injury with vomiting or combination of symptoms has a significant risk of abnormal head CT scan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0816_8595", "title": "Journal Club: Head CT scans in the emergency department for syncope and dizziness.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The purpose of this study was to determine the yield of acutely abnormal findings on head CT scans in patients presenting to the emergency department with dizziness, near-syncope, or syncope and to determine the clinical factors that potentially predicted acutely abnormal head CT findings and hospital admission. We retrospectively reviewed the electronic medical records of all patients presenting to an HMO emergency department between July 1, 2012, and December 31, 2012, who underwent head CT for a primary complaint of dizziness, syncope, or near-syncope. The primary outcomes were head CT scans with acutely abnormal findings and hospital admission. Binary logistic regression was used to assess the association between clinical variables and acute head CT findings and between clinical variables and hospital admission. Of the 253 patients who presented with dizziness, 7.1% had head CT scans with acutely abnormal findings, and 18.6% were admitted. Of the 236 patients who presented with syncope or near-syncope, 6.4% had head CT scans with acutely abnormal findings, and 39.8% were admitted. The following three clinical factors were found to be significantly correlated with acutely abnormal head CT findings: a focal neurologic deficit (p = 0.003), age greater than 60 years (p = 0.011), and acute head trauma (p = 0.026). Our results suggest that most patients presenting with syncope or dizziness to the emergency department may not benefit from head CT unless they are older, have a focal neurologic deficit, or have a history of recent head trauma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0625_19376", "title": "Diagnostic accuracy and yield of multidetector CT angiography in the evaluation of spontaneous intraparenchymal cerebral hemorrhage.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Multidetector CT angiography (MDCTA) is emerging as the favored initial diagnostic examination in the evaluation of patients presenting with spontaneous intraparenchymal hemorrhage (IPH). This study aims to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy and yield of MDCTA for the detection of vascular etiologies in adult patients presenting to the emergency department with IPH. We conducted a retrospective study of 623 consecutive adult patients presenting to the emergency department with IPH, who were evaluated with MDCTA during a 9-year period. CT angiograms were reviewed by 2 neuroradiologists to determine the IPH site and the presence of a vascular etiology. Patients with associated subarachnoid hemorrhage in the basal cisterns were excluded from the study. Medical records were reviewed for risk factors and correlation with final diagnosis. The diagnostic accuracy of MDCTA compared with conventional angiography, intraoperative evaluation, and pathologic findings was determined, when available. Multiple-variable logistic regression analysis was performed to determine clinical and radiologic factors that predict a higher yield of MDCTA. MDCTA demonstrated a vascular etiology in 91 patients (14.6%), with a sensitivity of 96%, specificity of 99%, and diagnostic accuracy of 98%. We found independent, statistically significant higher yields of MDCTA in patients with the following characteristics: 1) age younger than 46 years (47%); 2) lobar (20%) or infratentorial (16%) IPH, especially lobar IPH with associated intraventricular hemorrhage (25%); 3) female sex (18%); or 4) neither known hypertension nor impaired coagulation at presentation (33%). MDCTA is an accurate diagnostic examination in the evaluation of adult patients presenting with spontaneous IPH and should be performed in all patients with the aforementioned clinical and radiologic characteristics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0017_757", "title": "High yield criteria and emergency department skull radiography: two community hospitals' experience.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A retrospective analysis of 75 patients admitted with the diagnosis of skull fracture to two community hospitals revealed that 48% of these patients would not have been diagnosed if the high yield criteria recently proposed by the Food and Drug Administration had been adhered to in selecting patients for skull radiography. This included four patients with depressed skull fractures and 32 with linear fractures. The remaining 39 patients had at least one high yielded criterion, the most common being loss of consciousness (21.3%)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0683_4467", "title": "Neurocardiogenic syncope and epilepsy in pediatric age: the diagnostic value of electroencephalogram-electrocardiogram holter.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Neurocardiogenic syncope is induced by a hyperrecruitment of parasympathetic nerve tone elicited by emotional stress or pain. The presence of a transient loss of consciousness associated with involuntary motor activity or with urinary incontinence and the misinterpretation of anamnestic data or of electroencephalogram (EEG) abnormalities often leads to wrong diagnosis of epilepsy in children with this disorder.Careful and systematic history taking, pressure measurement, electrocardiogram (ECG), and, in selected cases, head-up tilt table testing are generally enough to rule out a cardiogenic or a neurocardiogenic syncope. Simultaneous EEG-ECG Holter represents a useful instrument for differential diagnosis between neurocardiogenic syncope and epilepsy.We report 3 case reports to demonstrate how simultaneous EEG-ECG Holter can contribute to characterize functional heart-brain interactions and the exact sequence of the physiopathologic events leading to the loss of consciousness in cases in which the clinical borders with epileptic disorders are particularly subtle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_7702", "title": "[The value of conventional skull x-rays after head injuries].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A retrospective study was used in an attempt to clarify whether skull fractures or clinical findings can be used for diagnosing intracranial injuries and which clinical features indicate that skull X-rays are unnecessary. 78 patients (1.5%) had a skull fracture and 41 patients (0.8%) had suffered intracranial injuries. Of 57 patients with skull fractures, 40% (23) showed evidence of intracranial injury and 60% (34) did not. Amongst 41 patients with intracranial injuries, 44% (18) failed to show a skull fracture. Patients with a skull fracture (without intracranial injury) showed just as many symptoms as patients without skull fracture. Patients with intracranial injuries most commonly showed neurological deficits, unconsciousness, or required intubation. Any one of these criteria or a combination of these indicated the presence of intracranial injury with a high degree of probability. These criteria permit economy with skull X-rays and indicate when to use other diagnostic means (CT). For this the patient should be mentally quite normal. There should be a definite history and a reliable observation period of 24 hours." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_19012", "title": "Prospective evaluation of patients with syncope: a population-based study.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To determine the diagnostic yield of a standardized sequential evaluation of patients with syncope in a primary care teaching hospital. All consecutive patients who presented to the emergency department with syncope as a chief complaint were enrolled. Their evaluation included initial and routine clinical examination, including carotid sinus massage, as well as electrocardiography and basic laboratory testing. Targeted tests, such as echocardiography, were used when a specific entity was suspected clinically. Other cardiovascular tests (24-hour Holter monitoring, ambulatory loop recorder ECG, upright tilt test, and signal-averaged electrocardiography) were performed in patients with unexplained syncope after the initial steps. Electrophysiologic studies were performed in selected patients only as clinically appropriate. Follow-up information on recurrence and mortality were obtained every 6 months for as long as 18 months for 94% (n = 611) of the patients. After the initial clinical evaluation, a suspected cause of syncope was found in 69% (n = 446) of the 650 patients, including neurocardiogenic syncope (n = 234, 36%), orthostatic hypotension (n = 156, 24%), arrhythmia (n = 24, 4%), and other diseases (n = 32, 5%). Of the 67 patients who underwent targeted tests, suspected diagnoses were confirmed in 49 (73%) patients: aortic stenosis (n = 8, 1%), pulmonary embolism (n = 8, 1%), seizures/stroke (n = 30, 5%), and other diseases (n = 3). Extensive cardiovascular workups, which were performed in 122 of the 155 patients in whom syncope remained unexplained after clinical assessment, provided a suspected cause of syncope in only 30 (25%) patients, including arrhythmias in 18 (60%), all of whom had abnormal baseline ECGs. The 18-month mortality was 9% (n = 55, including 8 patients with sudden death); syncope recurred in 15% (n = 95) of the patients. The diagnostic yield of a standardized clinical evaluation of syncope was 76%, greater than reported previously in unselected patients. Electrocardiogram-based risk stratification was useful in guiding the use of specialized cardiovascular tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0380_14581", "title": "Diagnostic patterns and temporal trends in the evaluation of adult patients hospitalized with syncope.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Syncope is a common clinical problem that is often difficult and expensive to diagnose. We examined diagnostic patterns and trends and use of specialty consultations in the evaluation of syncope. We retrospectively reviewed the medical records of consecutive adult patients hospitalized with the principal diagnosis of syncope (International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, code 780.2) during 1994 and 1998 at 2 community teaching hospitals. A total of 649 patients (57% female) with a mean (+/-SD) age of 68 +/- 15 years were identified in 1994 (n = 451) and 1998 (n = 198). Three hundred forty-one patients (53%) underwent at least 1 neurologic test, including brain computed tomographic (CT) scan (n = 283), electroencephalography (n = 253), carotid Doppler echocardiography (n = 185), and brain magnetic resonance imaging (n = 10). Only brain CT scan and electroencephalography yielded diagnoses in 5 (2%) and 6 patients (2%), respectively with history consistent with seizures or stroke. Cardiovascular tests providing the highest diagnostic yields (postural blood pressure check in 52 [30%], head-up tilt-table test in 32 [24%], and electrophysiologic study in 5 [16%]) were used in 176 (27%), 132 (20%), and 31 patients (5%), respectively. Differences in the use of some tests were noted at the participating hospitals and over time (1994 vs 1998). The total number of diagnosed cases was similar for patients undergoing evaluation by primary care physicians alone (65/103 [63%]), compared with cardiology (48/85 [56%]), neurology (29/48 [60%]), or both (81/141 [57%]). After a mean (+/-SD) length of stay of 5 +/- 4 days, 320 (49%) of 649 cases remained undiagnosed. Despite a reduction in the use of some tests (eg, brain CT scan and carotid Doppler) over time, lower-yield neurologic tests were overused and higher-yield cardiovascular tests were likely underused. The untargeted, seemingly random use of specialty evaluations did not seem to contribute to an increase in the overall number of diagnosed cases. Increased use of specific tests directed by history and results of physical examination may improve diagnostic yield and decrease the cost of evaluating syncope." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en350_15351", "title": "Computed tomography of the head", "score": 0.00896057347670251, "content": "Even in emergency situations, when a head injury is minor as determined by a physician's evaluation and based on established guidelines, CT of the head should be avoided for adults and delayed pending clinical observation in the emergency department for children. Many people visit emergency departments for minor head injuries. CT scans of the head can confirm a diagnosis of skull fracture or brain bleeding, but even in the emergency department, such things are uncommon and not minor injuries, so CT of the head is usually not necessary. Clinical trials have shown the efficacy and safety of using CT of the head in emergency settings only when indicated, which would be at the indication of evidence-based guidelines following the physical examination and a review of the person's history." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0741_21223", "title": "Recurrent syncope in a hypertensive subject with vascular cognitive impairment and permanent pacemaker.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Syncope following permanent pacemaker (PM) implantation is a nightmare for electrophysiologists. We describe a case of daily recurrent syncope in an 84-year-old man having a dual-chamber pacemaker implanted for complete atrio-ventricular block occurred 4 years before the admission to our department. He had a history of arterial hypertension, parossistic atrial fibrillation, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, stage-III chronic renal failure, mild vascular cognitive impairment and glaucoma. The initial work-up including electrocardiogram (ECG), repeated PM interrogations, Holter electrocardiogram, blood pressure measurement in orthostatic position, complete blood count, serum glycaemia, electrolytes and thyroid function tests showed normal findings. Syncope occurred in lying position and during 90° left clockwise neck rotation and was associated to pallor, sweating, tonic-clonic seizures and transient self-limited loss of consciousness lasting a few seconds. Electroencephalogram was normal. During continuous ECG monitoring, the right rotation of the head determined a ventricular asystolic pause lasting 9 seconds associated with loss of consciousness. Restoration of sinus rhythm was observed after bringing back the head in axis. The PM interrogation, performed during pacing failure, recorded low impedance of bipolar ventricular lead, suggesting a damage in lead insulation. It is likely that lead movements during clockwise neck rotation produced an intermittent short circuit that prevented sufficient energy delivery to the myocardium with a consequence of sudden loss of capture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_4596", "title": "Confirmation of brain death with portable isotope angiography: a review of 204 consecutive cases.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Intravenous isotope angiography is a rapid, safe, and specific bedside test for confirming brain death by demonstrating the lack of critical cerebral perfusion that occurs in this condition, regardless of etiology. A review of 204 consecutive cases of suspected brain death studied with isotope angiography has reaffirmed our confidence in the specificity of the technique and has convinced us to make less stringent our radiographic criteria for confirming brain death by this method. A technically satisfactory single flow study that shows arrest of the carotid circulation at the base of the skull and absence of the intracranial arterial circulation may be considered confirmatory of a carefully established clinical diagnosis of brain death, even though there may be some visualization of the intracranial venous sinuses. Arbitrary waiting periods, withdrawal of sedative drugs, and electrophysiological studies are not needed when this technique is used." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0423_23782", "title": "Efficacy of implantable loop recorders in establishing symptom-rhythm correlation in young patients with syncope and palpitations.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To evaluate efficacy of the recently introduced implantable loop recorder (ILR) in establishing symptom-rhythm correlation in young patients with syncope, near syncope, palpitations, and acute life-threatening events (ALTEs). A retrospective study was conducted with patients with ILR from 3 pediatric centers. Inclusion criteria were age &lt;or=25 years and a minimum follow-up of 1 month. All ILR-stored events were analyzed regularly for the presence or absence of an arrhythmia at the time of the symptomatic event. Twenty-one patients (12 male, 9 female) with an average age of 12.3 +/- 5.3 years (range: 0.8-22 years) were included in the study. Five (24%) patients had structural heart disease, 2 (10%) had a family history of sudden cardiac death, 3 (14%) had QT prolongation on electrocardiogram, and 11 had no cardiovascular disease. Indications for ILR were recurrent syncope and near syncope (n = 15), palpitations (n = 2), and ALTE (n = 2). Fourteen (67%) patients continued to have symptoms, and 7 (33%) had no symptoms after ILR over a follow-up period of 8.4 +/- 4.7 months (range: 1.9-16 months). Symptom-rhythm correlation was possible in all 14 patients who continued to have symptoms (supraventricular tachycardia in 4, ventricular tachycardia in 2, torsades de points in 1, asystole in 1, junctional bradycardia in 1, and sinus rhythm in 5). ILR is useful in determining the presence or absence of an arrhythmia during symptoms of syncope, near syncope, and palpitations as well as ALTEs in patients with and without structural heart disease when conventional diagnostic testing, such as electrocardiogram, Holter monitoring, and/or external loop recording, is inconclusive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_12862", "title": "The fainting patient. First and foremost, a meticulous evaluation.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "It is sobering to consider the vast spectrum of causes of syncope. It is fortunate, however, that 30% to 74% of cases are assigned the correct cause on the basis of a thorough history and physical examination. However, a shotgun approach to evaluation is costly and may expose the patient to unnecessary risk and concern. Examples of diagnostic excess are routine CT scanning of the head and routine EEG, both of which have a very low yield on routine use. These procedures should only be used if they are necessary to answer questions raised by the initial evaluation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_23151", "title": "S1-induced vasospastic angina-diagnostic utility of Holter ECG: a report of a case.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Vasospastic angina is a rare but potentially life-threatening adverse event (AE) of S1, an oral fluoropyrimidine anticancer agent. However, this AE is not well known owing to its low incidence. We report herein a case of a patient who suffered from vasospastic angina associated with S1 chemotherapy for unresectable gastric adenocarcinoma, along with a review of the literature. A 68-year-old woman was endoscopically diagnosed with gastric adenocarcinoma of the diffuse type. Abdominal pelvic contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) revealed small nodules in the omentum and ascites in the pouch of Douglas. The patient was clinically diagnosed with unresectable gastric adenocarcinoma with peritoneal metastasis, and primary chemotherapy with S1 plus cisplatin was selected. Around midnight of day 1, the patient complained of sudden oppressive chest pain. The pain disappeared spontaneously after 3-5 min, but similar events happened every midnight thereafter. No significant change was found on bedside electrocardiograms (ECGs) recorded immediately after the pain attacks. The patient was suspected to have unstable angina and underwent Holter ECG on day 4 of treatment. Holter ECG revealed ST segment elevations and short-run ventricular tachycardia during a pain attack. S1 chemotherapy was discontinued, and no attack was observed thereafter. Coronary CT angiography showed no significant stenosis of coronary arteries. Clinicians should be aware of vasospastic angina as a serious AE in the chemotherapy with S1. Holter ECG is useful for the early diagnosis of this rare and clinically important AE." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 576 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 104 ] ], "text": "The maternal grandmother carried the mutation in one copy of the gene on an X chromosome (we are not told that she had the disease, but a son of hers, Isabel's maternal uncle, did have the disease). Isabel's mother continues to carry it, since one of Isabel's brothers has suffered from the disease but not her father. Thus, Isabel has a 50% chance of having inherited the mutated gene from her mother (as her children are all healthy, we are not sure if she is a carrier), and therefore her daughter has a 25% chance of having inherited the mutated gene from her grandmother." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "2/3.", "2": "1/2.", "3": "1/4.", "4": "Less than 1/4.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104757", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.01960972796308757, "content": "In the case of families at risk for X-linked diseases, patients are provided with a single PGD assay of gender identification. Gender selection offers a solution to individuals with X-linked diseases who are in the process of getting pregnant. The selection of a female embryo offspring is used in order to prevent the transmission of X-linked Mendelian recessive diseases. Such X-linked Mendelian diseases include Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), and hemophilia A and B, which are rarely seen in females because the offspring is unlikely to inherit two copies of the recessive allele. Since two copies of the mutant X allele are required for the disease to be passed on to the female offspring, females will at worst be carriers for the disease but may not necessarily have a dominant gene for the disease. Males on the other hand only require one copy of the mutant X allele for the disease to occur in one's phenotype and therefore, the male offspring of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0018_8771", "title": "[The use of Bayes theorum in genetic counseling in cases of Duchenne muscular dystrophy].", "score": 0.018608274190756446, "content": "Bayes' law or theorem (1763) allows the expression of a posterior probability of heterozygosity for an X-linked gene, from two different kinds of information, namely: 1. the prior probability for the mother of an isolated case of Duchenne muscular dystrophy: --to be a carrier by mutation of the gene in one of her parents, or by segregation from earlier generations; --to be herself the origin of the mutation; 2. conditional probabilities, taking into consideration the existence of this woman's normal brothers, sons or maternal uncles and the serum creatine-kinase levels in the possible carrier(s) of the mutant gene. In some situations, these calculations give a recurrence risk which is lower than expected at first and allows sometimes to reassure anxious consultants on their genetic risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_18508", "title": "[Carrier detection of Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy by analysis of STRs loci linked to the gene of dystrophin in Venezuelan families].", "score": 0.017711598746081504, "content": "The Duchenne/Becker Muscular Dystrophy (DMD/BMD) is an X linked recessive lethal disease. The female carrier will transmit the disease gene to half of her sons and half of her daughters; half of the daughters will be carriers, while half will be normal. Half of the sons will be normal and, on average, half will have the disease. It is of particular relevance to be able to detect carrier status among female relatives of the patients for genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis. The method of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) sequence polymorphism analysis can determine haplotype at normal status or at risk status and, to establish genetic linkage between the mutated gene and the segregated haplotype. We have analyzed 105 members from 15 unrelated Venezuelan families with one or more siblings affected with DMD/DMB and 7 unrelated males. Of the 105, 37 were male (26 affected and 11 normal) and 68 were female. STR sequences (STR44, STR45, STR49, STR50, STR3'DYS) of the gene of the Dystrophin were amplified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to analyze allelic polymorphism in the families. Five of the 15 families (33%) had a deletion of one or several of the exons. Of the 68 females, 27 (39.7%) were carriers, 27 (39.7%) were non-carriers and in 14 cases (20.58%) it was not possible to reach a definitive diagnosis. The definitive diagnosis could be established in 79% of the females. This analysis also shows that the mutation occurred on the grandpaternal X chromosome in one family. Hemizygocity was detected and carrier status ascertained in the mother of other patient and in one family we were able to do prenatal diagnosis. The germinal mosaicism could not be excluded in 3 patients." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_1748", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.01616688396349413, "content": "Incest is defined as a sexual relationship between first-degree relatives such as parent-child or brother-sister and is universally illegal. Progeny of such unions carry the highest risk of abnormal outcomes, and older studies reported that up to 40 percent of ofspring were abnormal as a result of recessive and multifactorial disorders (Baird, 1982; Freire-Maia, 1984). Most X-linked diseases are recessive. Common examples include color blindness, hemophilia A and B, and Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy. Males with an X-linked recessive gene are usually afected by the disease it causes, because they lack a second X chromosome to express the normal dominant gene. A male with an X-linked disease cannot have afected sons because they cannot receive his X chromosome. When a woman carries a gene causing an X-linked recessive condition, each of her sons has a 50-percent risk of being afected, and each daughter has a 50-percent chance of being a carrier." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0114_10466", "title": "[Carrier diagnosis and prenatal prognosis using DNA analysis in X-chromosome-linked Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy].", "score": 0.015270935960591134, "content": "Haplotypes for 7 flanking and 16 \"intragenic\" X-linked DNA polymorphisms were determined in 204 members of 31 families with Duchenne (DMD) and 27 members of 4 families with Becker type muscular dystrophy (BMD) and combined with CK and pedigree data to estimate carrier and fetal risks. All of the 27 younger female relatives of the familial cases (8 DMD, 2 BMD) could either be identified (11) or ruled out (16) as carriers with 95% or higher probability. Out of 49 possible carriers in the 23 DMD and 2 BMD families with isolated cases, 19 were classified as carriers and 18 as homozygote-normal females. In 3 families the mutation could be traced indirectly to a defined ancestor (mother, grand-parent), and in 5 families a molecular deletion was found. In all identified carriers and in medium risk females an informative DNA-constellation for prenatal predictions was present for at least one \"intragenic\" or two flanking markers. Prenatal DNA-investigations were carried out during pregnancy in 9 possible DMD carriers. There was one termination due to an XYY karyotype. Of the remaining 8 cases, the carrier state could be ruled out in 4 mothers, the fetal sex was female in another 3, and one male fetus was predicted normal. All babies (3 boys, 5 girls) are healthy. The practical significance of these findings with regard to the prevention of DMD/BMD and the present diagnostic strategies are discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_11159", "title": "Lesch–Nyhan syndrome", "score": 0.01514135657615376, "content": "If a woman is the first in her family with an affected son, Haldane's rule predicts a 2/3 chance that she is a carrier and a 1/3 chance that the son has a new germline mutation. The risk to siblings of an affected individual depends upon the carrier status of the mother herself. A 50% chance is given to any female who is a carrier to transmit the HPRT1 mutation in each pregnancy. Sons who inherit the mutation will be affected while daughters who inherit the mutation are carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy, a carrier female has a 25% chance of having a male that is affected, a 25% chance of having a female that is a carrier, and a 50% chance of having a normal male or female. Males with LNS do not reproduce due to the characteristics of the disease. However, if a male with a less severe phenotype reproduces, all of his daughters are carriers, and none of his sons will be affected. Pathophysiology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_18087", "title": "How does the mode of inheritance of a genetic condition influence families? A study of guilt, blame, stigma, and understanding of inheritance and reproductive risks in families with X-linked and autosomal recessive diseases.", "score": 0.014328808446455506, "content": "While the mode of inheritance of a genetic condition has long been considered to have not only medical, but also psychosocial consequences for families, this supposition has never been tested. We surveyed 112 members of 51 families (59% response) with chronic granulomatous disease to determine the influence of mode of inheritance on parents', siblings', and patients' (1) knowledge of inheritance and reproductive risk; (2) concern about risk to future family-members; (3) feelings of guilt and blame; and (4) feelings of stigmatization. Ninety-six members of 51 families (49% response) with Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy and spinal muscular atrophy types II/III were also studied. X-linked families had better understanding of inheritance (P &lt; 0.001) and reproductive risks (P &lt; 0.01). X-linked mothers worried more about risks to future generations; other autosomal-recessive family members were as worried. X-linked mothers were more likely to feel guilty (P &lt; 0.01) and blame themselves (P &lt; 0.001). X-linked fathers blamed their child's mother (P &lt; 0.05) and X-linked mothers felt more blamed by the father (P &lt; 0.01). X-linked family-members were more likely to consider being a carrier stigmatizing (P &lt; 0.05). When providing genetic counseling, attention should be given to guilt and blame in X-linked families and understanding reproductive risks in autosomal recessive families." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0240_2653", "title": "[Genetic counseling of parents of children with eye diseases].", "score": 0.013984133387118462, "content": "What is the empirical risk for children to be born with a disease or a malformation? In healthy families, the parents being normal, the probability is 2 to 4% and when the parents are first cousins, although healthy, it is 5%. Of course, the risk is greater in affected families. When the mother or the father is affected and when there is no consanguinity, the risk is 20%, but when the parents are first cousins, it is 32,5%. When the two parents are affected, it is 100%. When the parents are normal, but when already one child is affected, the risk for the other children is 25%. When the mother or the father is affected and when there is already one child affected, the risk for the other children is 50%. When a grand parent is affected, the risk for the grand children is 10%. When an aunt or an uncle is affected, the risk for the nephews and nieces is 7%. In the case of genetic counseling, the parents must understand that no physician can guarantee that a child will be normal. On the other side, they must understand that the mendelian risks are the same for each pregnancy. Finally, they must know that at each birth there is a risk of 2 to 4% of having a major congenital anomaly. On the human and psychological point of view, the physician must convince the parents that they are not responsible and that, if a woman may be a gene carrier, the husband may also carry pathological genes, as each individual carries 2 to 10 pathological recessive genes. Finally, it is not the geneticist who has to impose a procreative decision. Only the parents have to decide if they want or do not want other children." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_187942", "title": "Genetic disorder", "score": 0.013639035861258085, "content": "X-linked recessive conditions are also caused by mutations in genes on the X chromosome. Males are much more frequently affected than females, because they only have the one X chromosome necessary for the condition to present. The chance of passing on the disorder differs between men and women. The sons of a man with an X-linked recessive disorder will not be affected (since they receive their father's Y chromosome), but his daughters will be carriers of one copy of the mutated gene. A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder (XRXr) has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers of one copy of the mutated gene. X-linked recessive conditions include the serious diseases hemophilia A, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and Lesch–Nyhan syndrome, as well as common and less serious conditions such as male pattern baldness and red–green color blindness. X-linked recessive conditions can sometimes manifest in females due to" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_2070", "title": "[Manifesting carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy over two generations].", "score": 0.013048102094240838, "content": "We report a family with manifesting DMD carriers over two generations. Sixty years old female (case 1) suffered from slowly progressive weakness since her thirties. Her youngest daughter aged 30 (case 2) had cramping calf muscle pain since her 5 years old. Progressive muscle weakness developed and lost her ambulation by the age of 20. Grandson of case 1 (son of case 1's eldest daughter who has no clinical symptoms) was diagnosed as DMD with deletion of exon 19-21 in dystrophin gene. Case 1 and case 2 were revealed to be DMD carriers. We speculate that, in this family, X-inactivation process was not random and paternal X was preferentially inactivated by maternal mutant X." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_5457", "title": "Detection of new paternal dystrophin gene mutations in isolated cases of dystrophinopathy in females.", "score": 0.01294881588999236, "content": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy is one of the most common lethal monogenic disorders and is caused by dystrophin deficiency. The disease is transmitted as an X-linked recessive trait; however, recent biochemical and clinical studies have shown that many girls and women with a primary myopathy have an underlying dystrophinopathy, despite a negative family history for Duchenne dystrophy. These isolated female dystrophinopathy patients carried ambiguous diagnoses with presumed autosomal recessive inheritance (limb-girdle muscular dystrophy) prior to biochemical detection of dystrophin abnormalities in their muscle biopsy. It has been assumed that these female dystrophinopathy patients are heterozygous carriers who show preferential inactivation of the X chromosome harboring the normal dystrophin gene, although this has been shown for only a few X:autosome translocations and for two cases of discordant monozygotic twin female carriers. Here we study X-inactivation patterns of 13 female dystrophinopathy patients--10 isolated cases and 3 cases with a positive family history for Duchenne dystrophy in males. We show that all cases have skewed X-inactivation patterns in peripheral blood DNA. Of the nine isolated cases informative in our assay, eight showed inheritance of the dystrophin gene mutation from the paternal germ line. Only a single case showed maternal inheritance. The 10-fold higher incidence of paternal transmission of dystrophin gene mutations in these cases is at 30-fold variance with Bayesian predictions and gene mutation rates. Thus, our results suggest some mechanistic interaction between new dystrophin gene mutations, paternal inheritance, and skewed X inactivation. Our results provide both empirical risk data and a molecular diagnostic test method, which permit genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis of this new category of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0126_1432", "title": "DUCHEN: an interactive computer program for calculating heterozygosity (carrier) risks in X-linked recessive lethal diseases, and its application in Duchenne muscular dystrophy.", "score": 0.012727272727272726, "content": "The program DUCHEN calculates the probability that a woman is a carrier of an X-linked, lethal recessive disease on the basis of information in the woman's family and any available biochemical data. It is easily used by persons without computer knowledge or experience. The present version can accommodate families consisting of up to 100 people in seven generations. Risks may be estimated on the basis of pedigree information only, or with the inclusion of one or more types of biochemical test results. Biochemical data are incorporated with pedigree information into final risks using the powerful statistical technique of logistic discrimination, a procedure particularly suited for the separation of non-normal populations on the basis of overlapping quantitative characteristics. Mutation rates are specified separately for males and females. DUCHEN is available in FORTRAN 77, IBM BASIC, and Applesoft BASIC, and may be used on a variety of mainframe or microcomputers. The model was used to calculate risks for 375 girls and women in 46 families with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD); serum creatine kinase tests had been carried out on 167 of these subjects who were of reproductive age. Carrier probabilities equal to or lower than the population risk (0.0004) were obtained for 21% of the aunts and 43% of the cousins of affected boys from families with an isolated case of DMD and for 14% of the cousins of affected boys from families with a known DMD history. DUCHEN should assist counsellors in determining which members of large families should be further examined using either standard biochemical carrier detection methods or DNA marker studies.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step1_41", "title": "First_Aid_Step1", "score": 0.012301587301587301, "content": "Aa  risk in consanguineous families. Unaffected individual with affected sibling has 2/3 probability of being a carrier. X-linked recessive Sons of heterozygous mothers have a 50% Commonly more severe in males. Females chance of being affected. No male-to-male usually must be homozygous to be affected. transmission. Skips generations. transmit to all daughters but no sons. XXXXXXXYXYXYXXXXXXXYXYXY X-linked dominant Transmitted through both parents. Mothers Examples: fragile X syndrome, Alport syndrome, transmit to 50% of daughters and sons; fathers hypophosphatemic rickets (also called X-linked hypophosphatemia)—phosphate wasting at proximal tubule • rickets-like presentation. Mitochondrial Transmitted only through the mother. All inheritance offspring of affected females may show signs of disease. Variable expression in a population or even within a family due to heteroplasmy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0630_1113", "title": "Recurrence risk due to germ line mosaicism: Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy.", "score": 0.011851851851851853, "content": "The presence of multiple affected offspring from apparently non-carrier parents is caused by germ line mosaicism. Although germ line mosaicism has been reported for many diseases, figures for recurrence risks are known for only a few of them. In X-linked Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies (DMD/BMD), the recurrence risk for non-carrier females due to germ line mosaicism has been estimated to be between 14% and 20% (95% confidence interval 3-30) if the risk haplotype is transmitted. In this study, we have analyzed 318 DMD/BMD cases in which the detected mutation was de novo with the aim of obtaining a better estimate of the 'true' number of germ line mosaics and a more precise recurrence risk. This knowledge is essential for genetic counseling. Our data indicate a recurrence risk of 8.6% (4.8-12.2) if the risk haplotype is transmitted, but there is a remarkable difference between proximal (15.6%) (4.1-27.0) and distal (6.4%) (2.1-10.6) deletions. Overall, most mutations originated in the female. Deletions occur more often on the X chromosome of the maternal grandmother, whereas point mutations occur on the X chromosome of the maternal grandfather. In unhaplotyped de novo DMD/BMD families, the risk of recurrence of the mutation is 4.3%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en230_28429", "title": "Obligate carrier", "score": 0.011837692823608317, "content": "In X-linked recessive disorders, only females can be the carriers of the recessive mutation, making them obligate carriers of this type of disease. Females acquire one X-chromosome from their father and one from their mother, and this means they can either be heterozygous for the mutated allele or homozygous. If heterozygous, she is a carrier of the mutated allele because the disease is recessive. If homozygous, she has the disease. An affected father with an X-linked recessive trait will always pass the trait on to the daughter. Therefore, all daughters of an affected male are obligate carriers. On the other hand, a carrier mother has a 50% chance of passing her mutated X-chromosome to the daughter. This makes all daughters of carrier mothers possible carriers but not necessarily obligate carriers. Males cannot be obligate or possible carriers of X-linked recessive traits because they only have one X-chromosome, and so are always phenotypically affected when receiving the mutated" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0294_376", "title": "Genetic counseling of isolated carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.", "score": 0.011550486336266791, "content": "It has recently become possible to detect female carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy with no affected male relative in the family. These \"isolated carriers\" represent about 10% of women with high serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK) levels and clinical evidence of a muscle disease. Most isolated carriers ascertained by clinical and/or CPK levels and diagnosed by dystrophin immunostaining of muscle biopsy show symptoms of a muscular dystrophy, and often carry the diagnosis of recessive \"limb-girdle muscular dystrophy\" prior to dystrophin analysis. It has been difficult to offer genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy in the families of these isolated carriers, largely due to the difficulty in determining which of the dystrophin alleles segregating in the family harbors the mutation in the heterozygote. Here we report genetic counseling of three isolated carriers and their families. In two cases, prenatal diagnosis of at-risk pregnancies was conducted. We determined X inactivation patterns and inheritance of X chromosomes in each family, and used this information to define the at-risk dystrophin gene. In all three families, the mutation was a de novo event, two in the paternal germ-line, and one in the maternal germ-line. In each case we show that sibs of the heterozygous woman are at population risk, while pregnancies of each propositus are at high risk. Our results show that accurate genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis can be offered to these families." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0846_4551", "title": "Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: a Survey of Perspectives on Carrier Testing and Communication Within the Family.", "score": 0.011107294171533265, "content": "Carrier testing is widely available for multiple genetic conditions, and several professional organizations have created practice guidelines regarding appropriate clinical application and the testing of minors. Previous research has focused on carrier screening, predictive testing, and testing for X-linked conditions. However, family perspectives on carrier testing for X-linked lethal diseases have yet to be described. In this study, we explored communication within the family about carrier testing and the perspectives of mothers of sons with an X-linked lethal disease, Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). Twenty-five mothers of sons with DMD participated in an anonymous online survey. Survey questions included multiple choice, Likert scale, and open ended, short answer questions. Analysis of the multiple choice and Likert scale questions revealed that most mothers preferred a gradual style of communication with their daughters regarding risk status. In addition, most participants reported having consulted with a genetic counselor and found it helpful. Comparisons between groups, analyzed using Fisher's exact tests, found no differences in preferred style due to mother's carrier status or having a daughter. Thematic analysis was conducted on responses to open ended questions. Themes identified included the impact of family implications, age and maturity, and a desire for autonomy regarding the decision to discuss and undergo carrier testing with at-risk daughters, particularly timing of these discussions. Implications for genetic counseling practice are discussed." }, { "id": "article-87096_3", "title": "Genetics, X-Linked Inheritance -- Introduction -- X linked Recessive Inheritance", "score": 0.010625737898465172, "content": "RISK CALCULATION: The X chromosome from a male is transmitted to daughters, and the Y chromosome is transferred to sons. If an affected male has kids with a healthy female, none of his male offsprings will be affected, but all of his female offspring will be carriers.  If a carrier female has kids with a healthy male, each male offspring has a 50% chance of being affected, and female offspring have a 50% chance of being a carrier." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104758", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.010570647626485189, "content": "the disease. Males on the other hand only require one copy of the mutant X allele for the disease to occur in one's phenotype and therefore, the male offspring of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of having the disease. Reasons may include the rarity of the condition or because affected males are reproductively disadvantaged. Therefore, medical uses of PGD for selection of a female offspring to prevent the transmission of X-linked Mendelian recessive disorders are often applied. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis applied for gender selection can be used for non-Mendelian disorders that are significantly more prevalent in one sex. Three assessments are made prior to the initiation of the PGD process for the prevention of these inherited disorders. In order to validate the use of PGD, gender selection is based on the seriousness of the inherited condition, the risk ratio in either sex, or the options for disease treatment." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4867", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010554233997757909, "content": "x-linkeD DisorDers Males have only one X chromosome; consequently, a daughter always inherits her father’s X chromosome in addition to one of her mother’s two X chromosomes. A son inherits the Y chromosome from his father and one maternal X chromosome. Thus, the characteristic features of X-linked inheritance are (1) the absence of father-to-son transmission, and (2) the fact that all daughters of an affected male are obligate carriers of the mutant allele (Fig. 82-13C). The risk of developing disease due to a mutant X-chromosomal gene differs in the two sexes. Because males have only one X chromosome, they are hemizygous for the mutant allele; thus, they are more likely to develop the mutant phenotype, regardless of whether the mutation is dominant or recessive. A female may be either heterozygous or homozygous for the mutant allele, which may be dominant or recessive. The terms X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive are therefore only applicable to expression of the mutant" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0118_16010", "title": "Prenatal diagnosis and detection of carriers with DNA probes in Duchenne's muscular dystrophy.", "score": 0.010348820379215515, "content": "We performed genetic analyses for the prenatal diagnosis of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy and detection of the carrier state in five families with seven pregnancies at risk for the disease. As genetic markers for the disorder, we used DNA-sequence polymorphisms detected with 12 different DNA probes derived from the vicinity of the Duchenne's muscular dystrophy locus or from within the gene, on the X chromosome. One male fetus of a proved carrier mother was predicted to be unaffected, and this was confirmed after birth. Another male fetus was predicted to be unaffected (probability, 95 percent or greater), although a crossover event had been identified in a region of the X chromosome thought to be distal to the Duchenne gene. Unfortunately, an elevated serum creatine kinase level after birth indicated that the infant had inherited the Duchenne mutation. Three male fetuses predicted to be affected with 66 percent or 95 percent probabilities were aborted, and the presence of the DNA-marker alleles was confirmed in fetal tissues. In one family, in which the maternal grandparents were unavailable, the initial genetic interpretation had to be revised after a second male fetus was analyzed with intragenic probes. Our experience suggests that despite the large number of intragenic and flanking DNA polymorphisms available, uncertainties often remain in the prenatal diagnosis of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pitfalls are presented by the large size of the region in which Duchenne's mutations can occur. Crossover events in this region, which result in an exchange of DNA between two X chromosomes, can render DNA-marker studies inaccurate. Also, an autosomal recessive mutation can produce the same clinical picture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0940_11246", "title": "The Process of Disclosure: Mothers' Experiences of Communicating X-Linked Carrier Risk Information to At-Risk Daughters.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "When a boy is diagnosed with an X-linked condition such as Duchenne or Becker muscular dystrophy (D/BMD), the mother learns not only of her own potential carrier risk but also that of her daughters. Before the daughters are seen in the Genetics Clinic, responsibility for disclosing carrier risk information falls mainly to their mothers. We know little about if when and how these daughters are being told about their risk, and how mothers find the experience. Should we be doing more to help and support them? Using qualitative methods, six mothers known to the Manchester Centre for Genomic Medicine were interviewed about the disclosure of D/BMD carrier risk information to their daughters. The four key themes that arose are presented: communication process, facilitators of disclosure, barriers to disclosure and support and information. Despite the participants' endeavours to be open and honest with their daughters and their belief that they had fully disclosed, key information was often withheld. Major barriers to discussion of the future, including reproductive options, were apparent. These were partly overcome by the involvement of genetic counsellors (GCs). The participants suggested a greater involvement of GCs, proactively sending appointments and written information, and offering carrier testing more flexibly." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_9594", "title": "Sex differences in medicine", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Prostate cancer, testicular cancer and other diseases of the male reproductive system occur in men. Diseases of X-linked recessive inheritance, such as colour blindness, occur more frequently in men, and haemophilia A and B occur almost exclusively in men. The presence of a single X chromosome in males (rather than two in females) may explain why males are more susceptible to genetic diseases linked to the X chromosome, including hemophilia, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and Hunter syndrome. Certain neurodegenerative diseases (Parkinson's disease (2:1 ratio) and Lewy body dementia (4:1 ratio)) are more prevalent in males. Parkinson's also displays phenotypic differences: males are more likely to present with sleep disturbances and deficits in verbal fluency and facial expression. Abdominal aortic aneurysms are six times more common in men, and thus some countries have introduced screening for males at risk of suffering the condition." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en189_566", "title": "CLCN5", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Genetic testing is useful to determine the status of healthy carrier in the mother of an affected male. In fact, being Dent disease an X-linked recessive disorder, males are more frequently affected than females, and females may be heterozygous healthy carrier. Due to skewed X-inactivation, female carriers may present some mild symptoms of Dent disease such as low-molecular-weight proteinuria or hypercalciuria. Carriers will transmit the disease to half of their sons whereas half of their daughters will be carriers. Affected males do not transmit the disease to their sons since they pass Y chromosome to males, but all their daughters will inherited mutated X chromosome. Preimplant and prenatal genetic testing is not advised for Dent disease 1 since the prognosis for the majority of the patients is good and a clear correlation between genotype and phenotype is lacking. See also Chloride channel Notes References Further reading External links Ion channels" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_589", "title": "Prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia A by DNA analysis of chorionic villi.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive single gene disease. If a female is a carrier, her sons have a 50% risk of being affected. Five gravidas, each with a positive family history of hemophilia A, were collected for prenatal diagnosis using DNA analysis on chorionic villi. We used two closely linked extragenic DNA markers, St14 and DX13, and three restriction enzymes, TaqI, MspI, and BglII, to study four restriction fragment length polymorphisms in the Xq28 region. From family analysis, haplotypes were constructed to track the inheritance of X-chromosomes. In family 1, the male fetus inherited the X-chromosome from his normal grandfather, thus his probability of being affected was predicted to be less than 5%. In families 2 and 3, the gravidas inherited the maternal X-chromosome with a different haplotype from that of the affected brother or nephew, thus they both have a low probability (less than 5%) of being carriers. In family 4, the gravida and her male fetus inherited the same X-chromosome as her affected brother. With coagulation assay also showing a high probability of the gravida being a carrier, the fetus was at high risk for the disease. On pregnancy termination, fetal plasma analysis confirmed the diagnosis. In family 5, the gravida's mother had homozygous haplotypes, making the distinction between two X-chromosomes impossible. Coagulation assay classified the gravida as a probable carrier.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_19879", "title": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy in Wales: a 15 year study, 1971 to 1986.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A register of families with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) in Wales was set up in 1973 and has been regularly maintained ever since. All women at significant risk in these families were offered estimation of their carrier status by creatine kinase and pedigree analysis. A total of 225 of the 512 women tested was assigned a risk of carrying the DMD gene of less than 5%. One hundred and twenty live births from this group were notified to the register and only one was an affected male. This was the expected number and shows that the risks given were largely accurate. Women given a risk of 5% or greater were offered fetal sexing with termination of any male. Amniocentesis was of limited value and chorionic villus sampling, introduced in 1984, was acceptable to more women at risk. The incidence of DMD in Wales dropped from one in 3435 at the beginning of the study to one in 4046 by 1982, and the proportion of recurrent cases from 40% to 22%. Common reasons for recurrence were birth of a second affected boy before diagnosis of the first, and failure of families with affected dead members in previous generations to be notified to the register. Maintaining an accurate register of DMD families is an essential tool in their management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0246_4275", "title": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy: data from family studies.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In an extensive epidemiological survey of Duchenne muscular dystrophy carried out in Venetia (Italy) the incidence was found to be 28.2 X 10(-5) and female gamete mutation rate was estimated by the direct method between 61 and 35 X 10(-6). The percentage of isolated cases was 0.54. Indirect and direct estimates of this proportion suggest, however, that only a minor fraction arises from maternal mutation (from 0.11 to 0.18 of the total number of cases). Studies on pedigrees collected in the course of the survey indicate that there is a higher frequency of Duchenne carrier females than normal females in affected sibships. Additional evidence supporting the hypothesis of a reproductive heterozygote advantage and gametic selection is reported." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en239_25378", "title": "Klinefelter syndrome", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The testicles of affected males are usually less than 2 cm in length (and always shorter than 3.5 cm), 1 cm in width, and 4 ml in volume. XXY males are more likely than other men to have certain health problems, such as autoimmune disorders, breast cancer, venous thromboembolic disease, and osteoporosis. In contrast to these potentially increased risks, rare X-linked recessive conditions are thought to occur less frequently in XXY males than in XY males, since these conditions are transmitted by genes on the X chromosome, and people with two X chromosomes are typically only carriers rather than affected by these X-linked recessive conditions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0415_3246", "title": "No reason for a reduction in the number of offspring per sperm donor because of possible transmission of autosomal dominant diseases.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A limit of 25 offspring per sperm donor has been imposed in The Netherlands since 1992, in order to prevent children from donors having a greater risk of consanguineous relationships than would occur in random individuals. An incident with a donor who developed a serious hereditary brain disease raised the question whether the limit of 25 should be reduced. Here I consider this suggestion from a genetic, psychological and legal standpoint. There appears to be no valid population genetics argument for limiting the number of donor offspring to below the figure that would prevent an increased chance of inbreeding. Reduction of the number of children per donor theoretically only results in transmission of greater diversity to donor offspring. Moreover, as within the general population, the total number of children conceived from sperm donors is negligible, the impact of donor offspring on the population genetics is anyhow insignificant. From a psychological standpoint, it should be noted that individuals making use of a donor, or their offspring, have no knowledge of other offspring conceived with their particular donor. This implies that the number of offspring per donor is of no relevance to them (provided of course there is an acceptably low chance of inbreeding). The new Dutch law on disclosure of donor identity to donor-insemination children, also produces no compelling reasons for a general reduction in the number of offspring per donor. Reduction desired by individual donors can be obtained by means of mutual agreements between sperm banks and donors. In conclusion neither the possible transmission of late-onset autosomal dominant diseases, nor other considerations necessitate a reduction in the offspring limit calculated to prevent increased risks of inbreeding among donor offspring." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104750", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Monogenic disorders PGD is available for a large number of monogenic disorders—that is, disorders due to a single gene only (autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant or X-linked)—or of chromosomal structural aberrations (such as a balanced translocation). PGD helps these couples identify embryos carrying a genetic disease or a chromosome abnormality, thus avoiding diseased offspring. The most frequently diagnosed autosomal recessive disorders are cystic fibrosis, Beta-thalassemia, sickle cell disease and spinal muscular atrophy type 1. The most common dominant diseases are myotonic dystrophy, Huntington's disease and Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease; and in the case of the X-linked diseases, most of the cycles are performed for fragile X syndrome, haemophilia A and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Though it is quite infrequent, some centers report PGD for mitochondrial disorders or two indications simultaneously." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0107_10539", "title": "A simple method for calculating risks before DNA analysis.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Calculation of carrier risk of an X linked disease may be performed on a small computer after DNA analysis, but a method for rapid hand estimation of the risk is still useful for a quick check of the results and weighing the relative importance of each element of information, such as the determination of a haplotype. Each risk estimation is a function of a prior risk and the product of likelihood ratios and these terms are derived themselves from parameters such as fitness or the relative mutation rate in male and female gametes. Even if it is often difficult to have strong experimental estimation of these variables, the existence of a normal father or grandfather must be considered whenever male fitness is not null. The likelihood ratio for a woman for not being a carrier, when her father is not affected and her mother has herself a likelihood R for not having the mutated gene, may be expressed as the ratio 2R/(CmR + 1), with Cm being a function of male fitness and relative mutation rate. Cm represents the odds ratio for the mother of a carrier not to be a carrier, given that the father of the known carrier is not affected. This formula can be used recurrently and reduces to 2R/(R + 1) in lethal X linked disease. When likelihood ratios are expressed as an algebraic function, maximum values are easily determined, hence fixing the limits of DNA analysis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en513_36933", "title": "Ezutromid", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Ezutromid is an orally administered small molecule utrophin modulator currently involved in a Phase 2 clinical trial produced by Summit Therapeutics for the treatment of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). DMD is a fatal x-linked recessive disease affecting approximately 1 in 5000 males and is a designated orphan disease by the FDA and European Medicines Agency. Approximately 1/3 of the children obtain DMD as a result of spontaneous mutation in the dystrophin gene and have no family history of the disease. Dystrophin is a vital component of mature muscle function, and therefore DMD patients have multifarious forms of defunct or deficient dystrophin proteins that all manifest symptomatically as muscle necrosis and eventually organ failure. Ezutromid is theorized to maintain utrophin, a protein functionally and structurally similar to dystrophin that precedes and is replaced by dystrophin during development. Utrophin and dystrophin are reciprocally expressed, and are found in different" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 20, 196 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 2, 28 ] ], "text": "Peri- or menopause: - Due to the high prevalence of organic pathology during this period it is necessary to systematically perform endometrial biopsy (Cornier or Hysteroscopy)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Prescribe cyclic progesterone.", "2": "Endometrial biopsy.", "3": "Random biopsies of the cervix.", "4": "Hormonal assessment with FSH, LH and estradiol.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0356_10102", "title": "Transvaginal ultrasonography of the endometrium in women with postmenopausal bleeding: is it always necessary to perform an endometrial biopsy?", "score": 0.01827436582109479, "content": "This study was undertaken to evaluate whether it was possible to abstain from performing an endometrial biopsy when endometrial thickness according to transvaginal ultrasonography was &lt;/=4 mm in women with postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy. Transvaginal ultrasonography was performed in 361 women aged &gt;/=50 years who were referred because of postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy. If endometrial thickness was &lt;/=4 mm, a Papanicolaou cervical smear was performed and the woman was reexamined with transvaginal ultrasonography after 4 and 12 months. Subjects were also instructed to return if they had recurrent bleeding, in which case transvaginal ultrasonography was performed and an endometrial biopsy specimen was obtained. Women with an endometrial thickness &gt;/=5 mm underwent either curettage or endometrial biopsy. One hundred sixty-three women had an endometrial thickness &lt;/=4 mm. In this group one endometrial cancer that was missed by ultrasonography was diagnosed by cervical cytologic examination and two adnexal malignancies were diagnosed by ultrasonography. Endometrial malignancy was diagnosed in 0.6% of the women with an endometrial thickness &lt;/=4 mm. Endometrial biopsy was performed because of recurrent bleeding in 6.1% of cases and because of endometrial thickening in 8.1%. No cancer or hyperplasia was subsequently diagnosed among the women with an endometrial thickness &lt;/=4 mm. Endometrial cancer was diagnosed in 18.7% of the women with an endometrial thickness &gt;/=5 mm. The corresponding figure when atypical hyperplasia and endometrial metastases were included was 20. 2%. If the false-negative rate of endometrial biopsy techniques is taken into account, then the combination of transvaginal ultrasonography and cervical cytologic examination is an adequate form of management for women with postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy as long as endometrial thickness is &lt;/=4 mm. A randomized prospective study is necessary to verify this finding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0391_1186", "title": "Atypical complex endometrial hyperplasia treated with the GyneLase system.", "score": 0.01672449687716863, "content": "A 47-year-old premenopausal, para 1, gravida 1 woman complained of menometrorrhagia. She had no risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, and office endometrial biopsy indicated focal, nonatypical endometrial hyperplasia. Seven months later the patient was scheduled for hysteroscopic endometrial resection. Instead she was treated by hysteroscopy, curettage, and the GyneLase system. The curetting indicated atypical, complex endometrial hyperplasia. The woman refused hysterectomy and salpingo-oophorectomy and adjunctive therapy with progesterone. She agreed to close surveillance and further treatment if she had any vaginal bleeding. At 13 months she remains amenorrheic, the endometrial echo is 2 mm, and follicle-stimulating hormone level is 63 IU/L. Based on the patient's amenorrhea and ultrasound uterine measurement, it is tempting to assume that GyneLase treatment may have cured her atypical hyperplasia. However, at this time, we have no evidence to substantiate this assumption." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0013_9950", "title": "A prospective, controlled trial of six forms of hormone replacement therapy given to postmenopausal women.", "score": 0.013743564191994684, "content": "This study was undertaken to investigate the effect of various forms of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) upon postmenopausal women while controlling as many variables as possible. It was felt that the age, duration of amenorrhoea and the general health of the patients should be as comparable as possible and that each patient should provide her own pretherapy and post-therapy control data. In addition, it was felt that any placebo effect should be investigated and the patients were therefore randomly allocated to placebo tablets or one of six available forms of HRT. The age/sex registers of two large general practices were scrutinized and all women between 49 and 54 years of age were asked to cooperate; for a variety of reasons only 56 women were suitable and willing to take part in the project, yielding 8 women for each of the seven possible therapy groups. Blood samples were taken at 7-day intervals three times before therapy was given and the mean of the three values was used as the control value. The women returned on day 21 of each subsequent therapy cycle for six consecutive months and finally three months after discontinuing therapy. From the data the following broad conclusions can be drawn: (i) some women have classic symptoms of hot flushes and sweating despite high endogenous oestrogen concentrations; (ii) vaginal cytology is a relatively poor indicator of endogenous oestrogen status; (iii) while follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations are reduced on HRT neither is decreased to anywhere near premenopausal values while prolactin is unaffected; (iv) plasma cholesterol levels are reduced on HRT, the pulse rate is slower and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure are reduced to a small but significant extent; (v) there is no adverse effect upon blood clotting; and (vi) most women experience significant or complete relief of symptoms on all forms of HRT as do some women taking a placebo. The combined preparations containing an oestrogen and progestogen produced vaginal bleeding in only 80 per cent of the women. Thus protection by regular endometrical shedding may not be afforded to all women. As vaginal bleeding is unacceptable to most women if they can achieve the same symptomatic relief without inducing menstruation, it is suggested that women have a low dose oestrogen preparation prescribed cyclically for 6 to 12 months. If therapy is to be maintained for a longer time, uterine curretage should be undertaken at regular intervals to exclude the possibility of endometrial carcinoma developing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_15945", "title": "Endometrial biopsy", "score": 0.012333333333333333, "content": "Medical uses There are a number of indications for obtaining an endometrial biopsy in a non-pregnant woman: Women with chronic anovulation such as the polycystic ovary syndrome are at increased risk for endometrial problems and an endometrial biopsy may be useful to assess their lining specifically to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or cancer. In women with abnormal vaginal bleeding the biopsy may indicate the presence of abnormal lining such as endometrial hyperplasia or cancer. In patients with suspected uterine cancer, the biopsy may discover the presence of cancer cells in the endometrium or cervix. In female infertility the assessment of the lining can determine, if properly timed, that the patient ovulated, however, the same information can be obtained by a blood test of the progesterone level." }, { "id": "article-21104_28", "title": "Endometrial Hyperplasia -- Treatment / Management -- Treatment duration and follow up:", "score": 0.011499336576735956, "content": "In order to induce the regression of the hyperplasia, treatment should be for at least six months. Endometrial surveillance with office endometrial biopsy is recommended at six-monthly intervals. Before discharging the patient, two consecutive 6 – monthly negative biopsies should be obtained. Women who have a BMI of more than 35 and who were treated with oral progestogens are at a higher risk of relapse and should be advised annual follow -up. All women should be advised to come for a follow -up if they experience the symptoms of abnormal uterine bleeding.[2]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0562_22248", "title": "Unopposed estradiol therapy in postmenopausal women: results from two randomized trials.", "score": 0.011239147592738752, "content": "To estimate the rates of endometrial hyperplasia, bleeding episodes, and interventions among menopausal women receiving unopposed oral estradiol or placebo therapy with ultrasound monitoring over 3 years. Two-hundred eighteen healthy women with intact uteri enrolled in the Estrogen in the Prevention of Atherosclerosis Trial (EPAT) or the Women's Estrogen-Progestin Lipid-Lowering Hormone Atherosclerosis Regression Trial (WELL-HART) were randomly assigned to either 1 mg of micronized 17beta-estradiol (n=96) or placebo (n=122) daily for up to 3 years in a double-blind fashion. Patients were followed with annual measurement of endometrial thickness using transvaginal ultrasonography. Logistic regression was used to identify predictors of uterine bleeding and endometrial biopsy. Over the study periods, nine women (9.4% of patients, 95% confidence interval [CI] 3.6-15.2%) in the estradiol group developed hyperplasia. Eight of the nine cases (88.9%) of hyperplasia were simple without atypia. Women receiving estradiol were more likely than those receiving placebo to have at least one episode of uterine bleeding (67% versus 11% at 3 years, respectively, P&lt;.001). Women in the estradiol group were also more likely to have an endometrial biopsy (48% versus 4% at 3 years, P&lt;.001). Among women on estradiol, obesity (body mass index [BMI] greater than 30 kg/m(2)) significantly increased the odds of uterine bleeding compared with normal-weight patients (BMI 25 or less) (OR 3.7, 95% CI 1.2-11.8). Short-term, unopposed estradiol therapy with gynecologic monitoring may be an option for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. Menopausal women choosing estradiol therapy, especially if obese, should anticipate uterine bleeding and the possibility of an endometrial biopsy. Clinicaltrials.gov, www.clinicaltrials.gov, NCT 00000559 and NCT 00115024. I." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_1988", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.0107429718875502, "content": "3. If this hormonal therapy is not effective, the patient should be reevaluated and the diagnosis should be reassessed. The failure of hormonal management suggests that a local cause of bleeding is more likely. In this event, consideration should be given to a pelvic ultrasonographic examination to determine any anatomic causes of bleeding (such as uterine leiomyomas, endometrial polyps, or endometrial hyperplasia) and to assess the presence of intrauterine clots that may impair uterine contractility and prolong the bleeding episode. Although anatomic causes of heavy menstrual bleeding are rare in adolescents, they become increasingly common in women of reproductive age. 4. If intrauterine clots are detected, evacuation of the clots (suction curettage or D&C) is indicated. Although a D&C will provide effective immediate control of the bleeding, it is unusual to reach this step in adolescents." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_819", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.010674668121476633, "content": "First step: Obtain a β-hCG to rule out ectopic pregnancy. Second step: Order a CBC to rule out anemia. Third step: Pap smear to rule out cervical cancer (which can present with bleeding). TFTs to rule out hyper-/hypothyroidism and hyperprolactinemia. Obtain platelet count, bleeding time, and PT/PTT to rule out von Willebrand’s disease and factor XI def ciency. Order an ultrasound to evaluate the ovaries, uterus, and endometrium. Look for uterine masses, polycystic ovaries, and thickness of the endometrium. If the endometrium is ≥ 4 mm in a postmenopausal woman, obtain an endometrial biopsy. An endometrial biopsy should also be obtained if the patient is > 35 years of age, obese (BMI > 35), and diabetic. Heavy bleeding: Since heavy or prolonged uterine bleeding has likely denuded the endometrial cavity, estrogen is needed to rapidly promote endometrial growth." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2049", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010287747524752476, "content": "Endometrial Sampling Endometrial sampling should be performed to evaluate abnormal bleeding in women who are at risk for endometrial pathology, including polyps, hyperplasia, or carcinoma. Such sampling is mandatory in the evaluation of anovulatory bleeding in women older than 35 to 40 years of age, in younger women who are obese, and in those who do not respond to medical therapy or those with a history of prolonged anovulation (143). The technique of D&C, which was used extensively for the evaluation of abnormal bleeding, was largely replaced by endometrial biopsy in the office. The classic study in which a D&C was performed before hysterectomy with the conclusion that less than one-half of the endometrium was sampled in more than one-half of the patients led to questioning the use of D&C for endometrial diagnosis (176,177). Hysteroscopy, either diagnostic or operative, with endometrial sampling, can be performed either in the office or operating room (178)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0769_20667", "title": "Management of hypogonadism in adolescent girls and adult women with Prader-Willi syndrome.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by an insatiable appetite, dysmorphic features, cognitive and behavioral difficulties, and hypogonadism. The heterogeneous reproductive hormone profiles indicate that some PWS women may have symptoms of hypoestrogenism, while others may potentially be fertile. We describe our experience in the assessment and treatment of hypogonadism in adolescents and adult females with PWS. The study population consisted of 20 PWS females, age ≥16 years (27.3 ± 7.9 years), followed in our clinic (12 deletion, 7 uniparental disomy, 1 imprinting-center defect). General physical examination, pubertal assessment, body mass index (BMI), gynecological examination, ultrasonography, bone densitometry, and hormonal profiles [FSH, LH, inhibin B, estradiol, prolactin, and TSH] were performed. The relevant assessed factors were: FSH and inhibin B, menstrual cycles (oligo/amenorrhea or irregular bleeding), ultrasound findings (endometrial thickness, uterine/ovarian abnormalities), BMI, bone densitometry, and patient/caregivers attitude. We classified seven women with inhibin B &gt;20 ng/ml as potentially fertile. Following the assessment of the above factors, we recommended the individual-specific treatment; contraceptive pills, intra-uterine device, estrogen/progesterone replacement, and cyclic progesterone, in 3, 1, 4, and 1 patients, respectively. Four patients did not follow our recommendations due to poor compliance or family refusal. We recommended contraception pills for one 26-year-old woman with inhibin B and FSH levels 53 ng/ml and 6.4 IU/L; however, she refused treatment, conceived spontaneously and had an abortion. Guidelines for hormonal replacement therapy in PWS need to be tailored individually depending on physical development, hormonal profiles, bone density, and emotional and social needs of each PWS adolescent and adult." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_19555", "title": "[Women's opinion on hormone pills and the main sources of information].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The aim of this paper was to analyze and to evaluate women's opinion on hormone pills and the influence on hormone pill usage and reveal the main sources of information. Women who came for pregnancy termination (Group A) and women who came for consultation on further usage of contraception (Group K) have been interrogated. Interrogation according the special questionnaire has been performed at four consultation centers and three gynecologic clinics of Kaunas city. It was find out that due to the wrong information 25.1% of women in group A and 35% of women in group K thought that hormone pills cause irregular bleeding (p=0.01). Another myth - the possibility to become pregnant when taking pills - was indicated by 17% of women in group A and 32.4% of women in group K (p=0.01). Nine percent in group A and 12% in group K were confident that when taking hormone pills for some period of time one will not be able to become pregnant in the future. Seventy three percent of group A women and 80% of group K women indicated that the use of hormone pills increases the body weight (p=0.01). This research showed that the women that used hormone pills were properly informed about their treatment and side effects. Fifty four percent of group A women and 36% of group K women indicated that hormone pills were not suitable in case of several diseases (p=0.01). Eighty three percent of group A women and 71% of group K knew that hormone pills did not protect from cervical cancer (p=0.01). This information was mainly obtained from medical workers. The main reason why women of fertile age who took part in our research used little of hormone pills was false information received from insufficiently skilled persons and accordingly the negative opinion about hormone pills. Women's opinion on hormone pills is a very important factor for its usage. This opinion depends on sources of information, whether women received correct or false information on hormone pills. The most reliable source of information indicated by investigated women was medical personnel." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_19913", "title": "Menstrual restoration in severe panhypopituitarism many years after cranial irradiation for suprasellar germinoma.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report a very rare case showing menstrual restoration in severe pan-hypopituitarism many years after cranial irradiation for suprasellar germinoma. A 30-year-old, almost primarily amenorrheic woman with severe panhypopituitarism presented with cyclic genital bleeding for the previous five months. She had menstruated once, when she was 13 years old. When she was 14 years old, she was diagnosed with a suprasellar germinoma measuring 10 mm in diameter, which led to diabetes insipidus. Cranial irradiation with a total dose of 24 Gy and chemotherapy resulted in complete tumor remission. She developed severe hypopituitarism [luteinizing hormone (LH) = 0.4 mIU/mL, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) = 1.7 mIU/mL, and serum estradiol (E2) level &lt; 10 pg/mL]. She had received multiple hormone replacement therapies for many years. When she was 29 years old, she expressed a desire to become pregnant. Serum gonadotropin and E2 levels increased (LH = 5.8 mIU/mL, FSH = 5.9 mIU/mL, and E2 = 58 pg/mL). She conceived with clomiphene therapy, and then delivered a healthy baby. Eight months after parturition, her basal body temperature and serum progesterone levels indicated recovery of ovulatory cycles. Ten months after parturition, she also spontaneously conceived. Menstrual restoration is very rare in severe panhypopituitarism after cranial irradiation. A relatively low dose of irradiation and small tumor size may have contributed to the recovery of menstruation in our patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_9120", "title": "[Evaluation of weight and morphotype of French women in gynecological consultation].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Weight and morphology change with age in proportions which depend on numerous environmental factors. This French study on 3,000 women age between 40 and 70, seeing their gynecologist, has shown that the average body mass index of this population is 23.97 kg/m2, and that the waist hip ratio is 0.81. Those two parameters increase with age and are reduced when women have a physical activity for more than 2 hours a week and are on oral contraception or hormone replacement therapy. Women on percutaneous hormone replacement therapy have a lower body mass index and a lower waist hip ratio. Cigarette smoking goes with a lower body mass index. When it dates back to more than 5 years, menopause is associated with a body mass index increase. In this population, the proportion of women under hormone replacement therapy is 69%, mostly percutaneous estrogenotherapy on a discontinuous sequential rhythm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1080_739", "title": "Estrogen-secreting adrenocortical tumor in a postmenopausal woman: a challenging diagnosis.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC) is a malignant disorder with rapid evolution and severe prognosis in adults and most produce cortisol and androgen. Estrogen-secreting adrenocortical carcinomas are extremely rare, especially in women, tend to be larger and have worse prognosis compared with other types of ACCs. We report the case of a 58-year-old woman who presented with bilateral breast enlargement and postmenopausal genital bleeding. She presented high estradiol (818 pg/mL - 25 times above upper normal limit for postmenopausal women) and testosterone (158 ng/dL - 2 times above upper normal limit) levels and no suppression of cortisol after overnight 1 mg dexamethasone test (12.5 µg/dL; normal reference value: &lt; 1.8 µg/dL). The patient had no clinical features of cortisol excess. MRI showed a 12 cm tumor in the right adrenal. Clinical findings of bilateral breast enlargement and postmenopausal genital bleeding with no signs of hypercortisolism associated with hormonal findings of elevated estradiol and testosterone levels would indicate either an ovarian etiology or an adrenal etiology; however, in the context of plasma cortisol levels non-suppressive after dexamethasone test and the confirmation of an adrenal tumor by MRI, the diagnosis of an adrenal tumor with mixed hormonal secretion was made. The patient underwent an open right adrenalectomy and pathological examination revealed an ACC with a Weiss' score of 6. Estradiol and testosterone levels decreased to normal range soon after surgery. She was put on mitotane treatment as adjuvant therapy, but due to side effects, we were unable to up-titrate the dose and she never achieved serum mitotane dosage above the desired 14 µg/mL. The patient remained in good health without any local recurrence or metastasis until 5 years after surgery, when increased levels of estradiol (81 pg/mL - 2.5 times above upper normal limit) and testosterone (170 ng/dL - 2.1 times above upper normal limit) were detected. MRI revealed a retroperitoneal nodule measuring 1.8 × 1.2 cm. The pathological finding confirmed the recurrence of the estrogen-secreting ACC with a Weiss' score of 6. After the second procedure, patient achieved normal estrogen and androgen serum levels and since then she has been followed for 3 years. The overall survival was 8 years after the diagnosis. In conclusion, although extremely rare, a diagnosis of an estrogen-secreting ACC should be considered as an etiology in postmenopausal women presenting with bilateral breast enlargement, genital bleeding and increased pure or prevailing estrogen secretion. Estrogen-secreting adrenocortical carcinomas are exceedingly rare in adults and account for 1-2% of adrenocortical carcinomas. Estrogen-secreting adrenal tumors can be present in females, but are even more rare, we found few cases described in the literature. In women, they present with precocious puberty or postmenopausal bleeding. Feminization in the context of an adrenal tumor is considered almost pathognomonic of malignancy. Feminizing ACCs tend to be larger and with worse prognosis compared with nonfeminizing ACCs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0363_22476", "title": "[Guideline for the diagnosis of postmenopausal bleeding. PMPB Working Group of the SGGG].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "2.1. History and clinical-gynecological investigation including a Pap smear are the first step in the clarification. The history should make sure if there is in fact bleeding from the genital and not from the urological or the intestinal region. Drug intake should be recorded, and risk factors for the development of endometrial carcinoma should be considered. This will not affect further investigation. The clinical-gynecological investigation should prove the source of postmenopausal bleeding according to the anatomical site--uterine, infra-, or suprauterine. The causes of infrauterine bleeding may easily be diagnosed by means of inspection of the external genitalia and further by using a speculum. The causes of uterine bleeding are of major importance. Cytology and colposcopy, supported by bimanual investigation, exclude cervical carcinoma as a cause of bleeding. Atypical endometrial cells on the cytological smear arouse suspicion of endometrial carcinoma. 2.2. Transvaginal sonography (TVS) is the next step if the above-mentioned investigations are negative. Both adnexa should always be investigated and the findings sonographically documented, so that solid cystic masses in the adnexal area can be better identified as suprauterine causes of postmenopausal bleeding. Then the uterus should be investigated. Further procedures are decided from the results of measurement of the longitudinal section of the endometrium at the level of maximum endometrial thickness. If the endometrial thickness is _&lt;4 mm, an observant attitude can be assumed. After 3 months the patient should be controlled against using TVS. If bleeding recurs or the endometrial thickness is &gt;4 mm on TVS, the procedure given in subparagraph 2.3 should be followed. In case the endometrial thickness is &gt;4mm or not measurable, a histomorphological investigation according to subparagraph 2.3 should be performed. In such cases, saline infusion sonohysterography(SIS) is useful as a simple method to supplement TVS. It can aid in the decision making as to which further, more invasive measures should be taken (endometrial biopsy/hysteroscopic resection). Computerized tomography or magnetic resonance imaging are, as a rule, not indicated in patients with postmenopausal bleeding. 2.3. A definite diagnosis is possible only on the basis of a histological investigation. If TVS or SS show evidence of a polypoid state, removal under hysteroscopic control is the diagnostic method of choice. In cases of symmetrical or asymmetrical thickening of the endometrium on SIS, a less invasive biopsy may be sufficient. If the biopsy specimen does not yield representative diagnostic material, one should proceed as described above. A fractionated curettage should as a rule not be performed solely, but in combination with hysteroscopy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_103786", "title": "Heavy menstrual bleeding", "score": 0.009706397896581946, "content": "Pap smear to rule out cervical neoplasia Pelvic ultrasound scan is the first line diagnostic tool for identifying structural abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy in women with high risk endometrial cancer or atypical hyperplasia or malignancy. Hysteroscopy (anaesthesia should be offered) Thyroid-stimulating hormone and thyrotropin-releasing hormone dosage to rule out hypothyroidism" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_64064", "title": "Female infertility", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Lab tests Hormone testing, to measure levels of female hormones at certain times during a menstrual cycle. Day 2 or 3 measure of FSH and estrogen, to assess ovarian reserve. Measurements of thyroid function (a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level of between 1 and 2 is considered optimal for conception). Measurement of progesterone in the second half of the cycle to help confirm ovulation. Anti-Müllerian hormone to estimate ovarian reserve. Examination and imaging An endometrial biopsy, to verify ovulation and inspect the lining of the uterus. Laparoscopy, which allows the provider to inspect the pelvic organs. Fertiloscopy, a relatively new surgical technique used for early diagnosis (and immediate treatment). Pap smear, to check for signs of infection. Pelvic exam, to look for abnormalities or infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_14440", "title": "Clinical practice guidelines on menorrhagia: management of abnormal uterine bleeding before menopause.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Normal menstrual periods last 3-6 days and involve blood loss of up to 80ml. Menorrhagia is defined as menstrual periods lasting more than 7 days and/or involving blood loss greater than 80ml. The prevalence of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is estimated at 11-13% in the general population and increases with age, reaching 24% in those aged 36-40 years. A blood count for red cells+platelets to test for anemia is recommended on a first-line basis for women consulting for AUB whose history and/or bleeding score justify it. A pregnancy test by an hCG assay should be ordered. A speculum examination and Pap smear, according to the French High Health Authority guidelines should be performed early on to rule out any cervical disease. Pelvic ultrasound, both abdominal (suprapubic) and transvaginal, is recommended as a first-line procedure for the etiological diagnosis of AUB. Hysteroscopy or hysterosonography can be suggested as a second-line procedure. MRI is not recommended as a first-line procedure. In idiopathic AUB, the first-line treatment is medical, with efficacy ranked as follows: levonorgestrel IUD, tranexamic acid, oral contraceptives, either estrogens and progestins or synthetic progestins only, 21 days a month, or NSAIDs. When hormone treatment is contraindicated or immediate pregnancy is desired, tranexamic acid is indicated. Iron must be included for patients with iron-deficiency anemia. For women who do not wish to become pregnant in the future and who have idiopathic AUB, the long-term efficacy of conservative surgical treatment is greater than that of oral medical treatment. Placement of a levonorgestrel IUD (or administration of tranexamic acid by default) is recommended for women with idiopathic AUB. If this fails, a conservative surgical technique must be proposed; the choices include second-generation endometrial ablation techniques (thermal balloon, microwave, radiofrequency), or, if necessary, first-generation techniques (endometrectomy, roller-ball). A first-line hysterectomy is not recommended in this context. Should a hysterectomy be selected for functional bleeding, it should be performed by the vaginal or laparoscopic routes." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2127", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.0095950936428383, "content": "Table 14.16 Etiology of Postmenopausal Bleeding From Hacker NF, Moore JG. Essentials of obstetrics and gynecology, 3rd ed. Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 1998:635, with permission. Endometrial sampling is indicated for any unexpected bleeding that occurs with hormonal therapy. A significant change in withdrawal bleeding or breakthrough bleeding (e.g., absence of withdrawal bleeding for several months followed by resumption of bleeding or a marked increase in the amount of bleeding) should prompt endometrial sampling. Patient adherence to hormonal regimens is a significant issue with hormone therapy, with the challenges of oral therapy mitigated by nonoral routes of administration (247). Missed doses of oral medication and failure to take the medication in the prescribed fashion can lead to irregular bleeding or spotting that is benign in origin but that can result in patient dissatisfaction (248)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_113881", "title": "Menopause", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The stages of the menopause transition have been classified according to a woman's reported bleeding pattern, supported by changes in the pituitary follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels. In younger women, during a normal menstrual cycle the ovaries produce estradiol, testosterone and progesterone in a cyclical pattern under the control of FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are both produced by the pituitary gland. During perimenopause (approaching menopause), estradiol levels and patterns of production remain relatively unchanged or may increase compared to young women, but the cycles become frequently shorter or irregular. The often observed increase in estrogen is presumed to be in response to elevated FSH levels that, in turn, is hypothesized to be caused by decreased feedback by inhibin. Similarly, decreased inhibin feedback after hysterectomy is hypothesized to contribute to increased ovarian stimulation and earlier menopause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_12308", "title": "[Endometrial hyperplasias resistant to progestins: alternatives to traditional treatments].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Endometrial hyperplasias are mainly regarded as a response to unopposed endogenous estrogenic stimulation and concern 12% of perimenopausal women. They are usually diagnosed because of irregular bleeding. They are divided into two categories based on the presence or absence of cytological atypia and further classified as simple or complex according to the extent of architectural abnormalities. Endometrial hyperplasias with cytological atypia are classically treated by hysterectomy. Endometrial hyperplasias without cytological atypia are classically treated by progestins. The bad observance (25% spontaneously stopping), the 30% recurrence rate after stopping progestin and the 12-53% resistance rate to treatment lead to propose a second-line therapy after endocrinological check-up, exploration of haemostasis, pelvic ultrasonography, hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsies. Standard treatments include uterine curettage which is not very effective and hysterectomy. Medical alternatives (gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device) and surgical alternatives (endometrial resection, thermal balloon endometrial ablation) were developed to avoid treating functional pathology radically. These conservative procedures correct 80% of endometrial hyperplasia symptoms with a low rate of lateral effects. However, these results need to be confirmed by long-term studies. Some economical, legal or material factors can also limit carrying out the procedures. Clinical trials need to be performed to better define the place of medical and surgical alternatives to hysterectomy in the treatment of endometrial hyperplasias resistant to progestins." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_5911", "title": "[Two cases of myasthenia gravis associated with transient amenorrhea].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Two cases of acquired autoimmune myasthenia gravis (MG) presenting transient amenorrhea were reported. Case 1, 28 years old, developed blepharoptosis and generalized fatigability at the age of 20 years. She had been treated only by anti-cholinesterase. Amenorrhea appeared at the age of 26 years. Then, physical examinations showed normal secondary sexual development and moderate myasthenic features. On laboratory examinations, SLE findings such as leucopenia (1,600/mm3), biologically false positivity in the serological tests for syphilis, negative Mantoux reaction, positive anti-nuclear and -DNA antibodies, were noted. Anti-AChR antibody was highly positive (max.: 353 nmol/l). Decreased E2 (13-15 pg/ml) and progesterone (0.21-0.29 ng/ml) values in serum, elevated LH (110-160 mIU/ml) and FSH (78-90 mIU/ml) and highly reactive LH-RH loading test were consistent with the hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Thymus pathology of thymectomy which was done during amenorrhea, showed hyperplasia. Bilateral ovarian biopsy revealed a number of arrested primordial follicles, but neither inflammatory changes nor fibrosis. Immune complexes were not localized in the ovarian biopsy. The Kaufmann's therapy aggravated myasthenic symptoms. Menstruation recurred after 13 months of thymectomy. Amenorrhea continued for 18 months. Case 2, 37 years old, has had anti-epileptic regimens since the age of 4 years. She has been highly myasthenic for 15 years and treated by thymectomy, steroid hormone, plasmapheresis and some other therapies for 10 years. Amenorrhea occurred at the age of 34 years. Sexual development was normal. Myasthenia was very severe. On laboratory examinations, anti-AChR antibody was positive (max.: 941 nmol/l). Transient elevation of serum LH (37 mIU/l) and FSH (14 mIU/l) values was observed.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_22359", "title": "Postmenopausal bleeding should be referred urgently.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Postmenopausal bleeding is an episode of bleeding 12 months or more after the last menstrual period. It occurs in up to 10% of women aged over 55 years. All women with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred urgently. Endometrial cancer is present in around 10% of patients; most bleeding has a benign cause. The peak incidence for endometrial carcinoma is between 65 and 75 years of age. Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include: endometrial carcinoma; cervical carcinoma; vaginal atrophy; endometrial hyperplasia +/- polyp; cervical polyps; hormone-producing ovarian tumours; haematuria and rectal bleeding. The aim of assessment and investigation of postmenopausal bleeding is to identify a cause and exclude cancer. Assessment should start by taking a detailed history, with identification of risk factors for endometrial cancer, as well as a medication history covering use of HRT, tamoxifen and anticoagulants. Abdominal and pelvic examinations should be carried out to look for masses. Speculum examination should be performed to see if a source of bleeding can be identified, assess atrophic changes in the vagina and look for evidence of cervical malignancy or polyps. Ultrasound scan and endometrial biopsy are complementary. Ultrasound scan can define endometrial thickness and identify structural abnormalities of the uterus, endometrium and ovaries. Endometrial biopsy provides a histological diagnosis. The measurement of endometrial thickness aims to identify which women with postmenopausal bleeding are at significant risk of endometrial cancer. If the examination is normal, the bleeding has stopped and the endometrial thickness is &lt; 5 mm on transvaginal ultrasound scan, no further action need be taken." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2126", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Differential Diagnosis The causes of postmenopausal bleeding and the percentage of patients who seek treatment for different conditions are presented in Table 14.16. Hormone therapy may be used to manage troublesome menopausal symptoms; it is recommended to treat with the lowest effective dose with the risks versus benefits regularly reviewed by a woman and her doctor (246). Women who are taking hormone therapy during menopause may be using a variety of hormonal regimens that can result in bleeding (see Chapter 34). Because unopposed estrogen therapy can result in endometrial hyperplasia, various regimens of progestins are typically added to the estrogen regimen; they are given in a continuous fashion, although they may be given in a sequential fashion for women within 1 year of menopause (246). Table 14.16 Etiology of Postmenopausal Bleeding From Hacker NF, Moore JG. Essentials of obstetrics and gynecology, 3rd ed. Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 1998:635, with permission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1026_22092", "title": "A Case of Uterine Cervical Adenocarcinoma in Which Initial Total Laparoscopic Hysterectomy Was Performed for Suspected Atypical Endometrial Hyperplasia.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The patient was a 69-year-old multiparous female (gravida/para, 3/3) who had hypertension and arrhythmia. Her history included cerebral infarction treated with conservative therapy. She visited our hospital for atypical genital bleeding. She was diagnosed with atypical glandular cells (AGC) based on cervical cytology, atypical cells in endometrial cytology, and atypical endometrial hyperplasia on preoperative endometrial biopsy, and underwent total laparoscopic hysterectomy. However, in a postoperative pathologic examination, she was diagnosed with stage IB1 cervical adenocarcinoma without endometrial abnormality. AGC appeared in cervical cytology before surgery, but a surgical plan was not made with consideration of cervical adenocarcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0388_3803", "title": "Effective bleeding control and symptom relief by lower dose regimens of continuous combined hormone replacement therapy: a randomized comparative dose-ranging study.", "score": 0.009175084175084175, "content": "We compared two different continuous combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT) regimens of estradiol valerate (E(2)V) and medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) with a combination of micronized estradiol (E(2)) and norethisterone acetate (NETA) to determine bleeding pattern, control of climacteric symptoms, lipid profile, endometrial and general safety in a 1-year multicenter study. 440 postmenopausal women were randomized to three treatment groups to receive: 1 mg E(2)V+2.5 mg MPA; 1 mg E(2)V+5 mg MPA; or 2 mg of E(2)+1 mg NETA. After the first 6 months, the E(2)V dose was increased to 2 mg in both E(2)V/MPA groups. Information on bleeding was recorded on diaries by the women and intensity of climacteric symptoms was assessed using VAS scales. Physical and laboratory examinations, endometrial biopsy and vaginal ultrasonography were performed at baseline and follow-up visits. Significantly fewer bleeding days were experienced in the first 3 months by women taking E(2)V/MPA compared with women taking E(2)/NETA. When the dose of E(2)V was increased in the E(2)V/MPA groups, an increase in maximum bleeding intensity was observed in the group receiving 2.5 mg of MPA, but not in the group taking 5 mg of MPA. All dose combinations effectively relieved climacteric symptoms and beneficial effects on the lipid profile were seen after 6 months in all groups. Tolerability and endometrial safety were good and no cases of hyperplasia were observed. More women discontinued treatment prematurely in the E(2)/NETA group compared with either of the E(2)V/MPA groups. The overall continuation rates ranged from 70 to 86%. These results confirm that lower dose combinations of continuous combined HRT are usually sufficient to control symptoms or avoid breakthrough bleeding. However, if higher E(2)V dose is needed for symptom control, it should be combined with the higher dose of progestin (5 mg) to avoid bleeding disturbances. Flexible treatment regimens should be available for individualized HRT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1107_13669", "title": "Cyclic Progesterone Therapy in Androgenic Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)-A 6-Month Pilot Study of a Single Woman's Experience Changes.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "<iBackground and Objectives:</i Women with androgenic Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) have increased endometrial cancer risk that cyclic progesterone will prevent; it may also reverse PCOS's neuroendocrine origins. This pilot study's purpose was to document 6-month <iexperience changes</i in a woman with PCOS taking cyclic progesterone therapy because she was intolerant of combined hormonal contraceptive therapy, the current PCOS standard of care. A 31-year-old normal-weight woman with PCOS had heavy flow, irregular cycles, and was combined hormonal contraceptives-intolerant. She was prescribed cyclic oral micronized progesterone (OMP) (300 mg/<ih.s.</i cycle days 14-27). She kept Menstrual Cycle Diary© (Diary) records, starting with the 1st treatment cycle for six cycles; she was on no other therapy. Statistical analysis <ia priori</i hypothesized progesterone decreases high estradiol (E2) experiences (flow, cervical mucus, fluid retention, front-of-the-breast tenderness and anxiety); analysis focused on these. Our objectives: (1) changes from cycles 1 to 6 in E2-related experiences; and (2) follicular phase E2-related changes from cycle 1 (no therapy) to cycles 3 and 6. <iMaterials and Methods:</i Data from consecutive Diaries were entered into an SPSS database and analyzed by Wilcoxon Signed Rank Test (Objective #1) within-person whole cycle ordinal data, and (Objective #2 follicular phase) repeated measures ANOVA. <iResults:</i Cyclic OMP was associated with regular, shorter cycles (±SD) (28.2 ± 0.8 days). Comparison of cycles 1-6 showed decreased fluid retention (<ip</i = 0.001), breast tenderness (<ip</i = 0.002), and cervical mucus (<ip</i = 0.048); there were no changes in flow or anxiety. Fluid retention in the follicular phase also significantly decreased over time (F (1.2, 14.7) = 6.7, <ip</i = 0.017). <iConclusions:</i Pilot daily Diary data suggest women with PCOS have improved everyday experiences on cyclic progesterone therapy. Larger prospective studies with more objective outcomes and randomized controlled trials of this innovative PCOS therapy are needed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0211_10370", "title": "[Endometrial biopsy in hormonal imbalance].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Despite the new techniques of biochemical evaluation of steroid hormones in the plasma and urines, the endometrial biopsy remains an easy valuable method of evaluation of ovarian activity. The clinical indications of the endometrial biopsy are mainly a history of sterility or an abnormal uterine bleeding if we exclude the diagnosis of cancer. Different technical procedures should be followed carefully in order to get a valuable answer. The biopsy should be taken at the right time of the cycle which means 10 to 12 days after ovulation. The danger of interrupting a pregnancy is minimal but in a case of sterility, the biopsy can be performed 4 to 6 days after ovulation to prevent any interference with a early pregnancy. Proper fixation, embedding and staining must be the rule. A fragment of the middle layer of the functionalis must be present to evaluate accurately the hormonal stimulation. Isthmic or cervical tissues are unsuited for functional diagnosis. The existence of an endometritis or the administration of steroid hormones are clinical circumstances which prevent any functional evaluation. The normal menstrual cycle can be divided into different functional phases: the early, the middle and the late proliferative phases, and the early and late secretory phases followed by the menstruation period. The different cellular components of the endometrial mucosa will exhibit various changes corresponding to each of the phases. The interpretation of the endometrial biopsy lies in the correlation between the observed image and the image corresponding to that date of the cycle. The functional disturbances are associated with absent, deficient or excessive function of the ovarian hormonal secretion. The endometrial mucosa will reflect these anomalies revealing atrophic, hypoplastic or hyperplastic conditions of the glandular and stromal components. It is essential to obtain the clinical informations including the knowledge of any hormone administration to provide a valuable diagnosis. Properly interpreted, the endometrial biopsy remains a very useful technique in the study of hormonal ovarian disturbances." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_8086", "title": "[A \"no-bleeding\" substitute hormone treatment with an oral microdose progesterone. A prospective multicenter study].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Study of influence of different sequences of oral micronized progesterone (Pg) on endometrial morphology and the incidence of bleeding. Prospective comparative multicentric study conducted in 101 post-menopausal patients. 98 patients who did not wish any regular withdrawal bleeding were given percutaneous oestradiol 17-beta (E2) (1.5 mg/d) associated with micronized Pg (100 mg/d) at bedtime during either 21 out of 28 days (group I), or 25 days per calendar month (group III), during a minimum of 6 months. For those wishing withdrawal bleeding (n = 3), E2 (3 mg/d) during 25 days was associated with Pg (300 mg/d) from the 16th to the 25th day of the month (group III). Endometrial biopsies were performed after 6 months of the same treatment and blindly analysed; transvaginal ultrasonography (measurement of endometrial mucosa thickness) was done in case of insufficient amount of tissue. Groups I and II: 61% of the endometrium were quiescent without mitosis, 23% were slightly active with rare mitoses, 8% partly secretory and 4% subatrophic. Sampling was inadequate in the remaining 4%. Mitotic activity of glands was low on the overall samplings (average &lt; 0.53/1,000 cells). The average mucosa thickness was at 3.9 mm. No bleeding (spotting or withdrawal bleeding) occurred in 73.3% and 82.1% of cycles at the 3rd and 6th months of administration, respectively. Group III: endometrium were quiescent or slightly active and combined with frequent withdrawal bleeding. A relatively low dose of oral progesterone (100 mg/d) combined with E2 during 21d/28d or 25 d/month efficiently controls proliferation, induces a very low endometrial cyclic activity--while reducing spottings--and maintains an amenorrhea in the majority of women. This simple treatment is likely to improve compliance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_21966", "title": "Pharmacodynamics of estradiol", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Generally, estrogens are antigonadotropic and inhibit gonadotropin secretion. However, in women, a sharp increase in estradiol levels to about 200 to 500 pg/mL occurs at the end of the follicular phase (mid-cycle) during the normal menstrual cycle and paradoxically triggers a surge in LH and FSH secretion. This occurs when estradiol concentrations reach levels of about 250 to 300 pg/mL. During the mid-cycle surge, LH levels increase by 3- to 12-fold and FSH levels increase by 2- to 4-fold. The surge lasts about 24 to 36 hours and triggers ovulation, the rupture of the dominant ovarian follicle and the release of the egg from the ovary into the oviduct. This estrogen-mediated gonadotropin surge effect has also been found to occur with exogenous estrogen, including in transgender women on hormone therapy and pre-hormone therapy transgender men acutely challenged with a high dose of an estrogen, but does not occur in men, pre-hormone therapy transgender women, or transgender men on" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0588_3672", "title": "What is the recurrence rate of postmenopausal bleeding in women who have a thin endometrium during a first episode of postmenopausal bleeding?", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To determine the incidence and significance of recurrent postmenopausal bleeding among women diagnosed with an endometrial thickness &lt; or =4 mm after a first episode of postmenopausal bleeding. Consecutive patients not using hormone replacement therapy (HRT) presenting with a first episode of postmenopausal bleeding and an endometrial thickness &lt; or =4 mm at transvaginal ultrasonography (TVU) were managed expectantly. In case of recurrent bleeding, the patient was evaluated according to the hospital's local policy with TVU, office endometrial sampling, hysteroscopy or dilatation and curettage (D&amp;C) or a combination of these tests. We evaluated the incidence of recurrent bleeding, potential risk factors for recurrent bleeding, and the diagnosis made after recurrent bleeding. A total of 607 patients were registered with a first episode of postmenopausal bleeding, of whom 249 had an endometrial thickness &lt; or =4 mm. Follow-up took place with a median of 174 weeks (range: 4-250 weeks). During follow-up, 25 of the 249 patients (10%; 95% CI: 6.6-14%) had recurrent bleeding. Median time until recurrence of bleeding was 49 weeks (range: 9-186 weeks). Two patients with recurrent bleeding turned out to have an endometrial carcinoma (8%; 95% CI: 2.2-25%), and 1 patient had a malignant melanoma. Time since menopause, age, body mass index, hypertension, diabetes and anticoagulants were not predictive for recurrent bleeding. The recurrence rate after a first episode of postmenopausal bleeding managed expectantly is low and cannot be predicted by patient characteristics. Patients with recurrent bleeding should be re-evaluated, as they bear a considerable risk of carcinoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_90829", "title": "Anorgasmia", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Women suffering from anorgasmia with no obvious psychological cause would need to be examined by their GP to check for absence of disease. Blood tests would also need to be done (full blood count, liver function, oestradiol/estradiol, total testosterone, SHBG, FSH/LH, prolactin, thyroid function, lipids and fasting blood sugar) to check for other conditions such as diabetes, lack of ovulation, low thyroid function or hormone imbalances. The normal thresholds for these tests and timing in a woman's menstrual cycle is detailed in Berman et al., 2005. They would then need to be referred to a specialist in sexual medicine. The specialist would check the patient's blood results for hormonal levels, thyroid function and diabetes, evaluate genital blood flow and genital sensation, as well as giving a neurological work-up to determine the degree (if any) of nerve damage." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 31, 170 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 6, 28 ] ], "text": "the indications for cardiac surgery include the appearance of heart failure or new conduction disorders, and in this case it presents both." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Cardiac surgery for aortic valve replacement by mechanical prosthesis with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram.", "2": "Antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram and implantation of intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation and transient pacemaker for up to 3 weeks, after which a permanent pacemaker will be implanted.", "3": "Implantation of transient pacemaker, antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram and percutaneous implantation of aortic valve prosthesis.", "4": "Urgent implantation of definitive pacemaker with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram for 6 weeks.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0413_8692", "title": "Complete heart block resulting from quadricuspid aortic valve penicillin-resistant pneumococcal endocarditis: a case report.", "score": 0.01905453225660103, "content": "A 62-year-old woman was referred to hospital to be treated for complete heart block with syncope. A quadricuspid aortic valve without vegetation and aortic valve regurgitation (AR) were observed by transesophageal echocardiography. Blood culture showed penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae. The patient received a permanent pacemaker implantation (VDD type) and was given antibiotics. Although infection improved, heart failure was not improved because AR hemodynamic changes became worse. An aortic valve replacement was performed using a prosthesis on the 26th day of hospitalization. The patient recovered and was discharged." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0599_11711", "title": "[Aortic homograft implantation in severe endocarditis].", "score": 0.017170228445099484, "content": "Severe endocarditis of the native aortic valve or a prosthetic valve with destruction of the cusps, paravalvular abscess formation and/or fistulas caused by aggressive bacteria has a mortality of almost 100% without surgery. The objective was to evaluate the results of treatment with an aortic homograft in combination with antibiotics. 24 patients with either aortic prosthetic valve endocarditis (n = 16) or severe aortic endocarditis (n = 8) were operated with implantation of an aortic homograft at a Danish university hospital from 1997-2006. Staphylococcus species were the most common pathogens followed by streptococcus. Intravenous antibiotic therapy was started before surgery and continued for 4-6 weeks. The patients were followed-up for (1/2)-10 years (mean 5 years). 3 patients with prosthetic valve endocarditis died within the first 24 hours from heart failure. 2 of these patients required in addition implantation of mitral valve prostheses. 5 patients died 1-7 years after the operation from non-cardiac causes. Within the follow-up period no patients had relapse of endocarditis, and only one episode of recurrence endocarditis in an intravenous drug abuser was registered after 4 years. An aortic homograft in combination with intravenous antibiotics is an excellent treatment of severe endocarditis in the aortic valve or an aortic valve prosthesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0841_12612", "title": "Urgent splenectomy in the course of prosthetic valve endocarditis.", "score": 0.017158294392523366, "content": "We present a case of a 51-year-old male patient hospitalized due to acute coronary syndrome requiring stent implantation to the left main stem. Double antiplatelet therapy was commenced. After 2-3 days, the patient presented with high fever, dyspnea on exertion, pain in the chest, myalgia, and general weakness. Transthoracic (TTE) and transesophageal (TEE) echocardiography revealed abnormal, turbulent flow across the aortic prosthesis, which was probably caused by the presence of a pathological smooth and mobile structure (10 × 9 × 5 mm) in front of the aortic annulus. Blood cultures were positive and staphylococcal prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE) was diagnosed. Despite antibiotic treatment, the patient's condition deteriorated, and he was referred for prosthesis reimplantation. After being transferred to the Cardiac Surgery Clinic, he presented with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The results of imaging examinations suggested spleen hematoma. The patient underwent an urgent splenectomy. Histopathological examination revealed a spleen infarction consequent to an embolic event and subscapular hematoma. On the 10(th) day after the laparotomy, cardiac surgery was performed. No large vegetations were found on the aortic prosthesis. The mechanical valve, implanted 20 years earlier, was functioning properly; it was intact and well healed. Several fragments of a thrombus and fibrous tissue, resembling a pannus and covered with minor calcifications, were removed from the ventricular surface of the discs. A decision was reached to leave the aortic prosthesis in situ. The valvular material culture revealed the presence of Streptococcus anginosus, and the antibiotic scheme was modified. The postoperative period was uneventful. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0229_8371", "title": "Surgical management of late prosthetic valve endocarditis.", "score": 0.0151259559154296, "content": "Among 32 patients with late prosthetic valve endocarditis selected from two cooperative retrospective studies, ten had valve replacement: six men and four women, mean age being 48 years, ranging from 23 to 65 years old. An emergency reoperation was undertaken for refractory heart failure in seven out of ten cases, with an average delay of 6.6 days after the beginning of antibiotic therapy. In the other three cases, the operation was carried out at the end of 40 days of antibiotic therapy, once for recurrent endocarditis and twice for severe aortic insufficiency. The most common causative micro organism was the staphylococcus (7 out of 10 cases). The infected prosthetic valves were, in 8 out of the 10 cases, in the aortic position. The outcome was poor as the mortality rate was 60% (6 out of the 7 patients operated on in an emergency). Death was attributed to heart failure with conduction disturbances and severe aortic regurgitation (2 cases), cerebral emboli (2 cases), septicopyemia (2 cases). Four patients of the ten, after a mean follow up of 10 months, are cured without prosthetic valve dysfunction. The extreme gravity of prognosis seems related to the microorganism (staphylococcus), to the delay between the beginning of antibiotic therapy and the onset of the fever, and finally to the extension of destructive lesions under the prosthetic valve implantation base; the reimplantation of the prosthesis on frail and abscessed tissue implies a substantial risk of disinsertion. The indications for systematic early reoperation in cases of severe acute heart failure are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0309_7603", "title": "[Pedicled aortic wall flap for the reconstruction of aortico-ventricular discontinuity--a case report].", "score": 0.012702433034001075, "content": "A 55-year-old man was operated on urgently for aortic valve endocarditis complicated by an annular abscess at the base of the non-coronary leaflet extending down to the left ventricle. Rapidly progressive heart failure and presence of a friable-appearing vegetation on echocardiography were the indications for urgent operation. Preoperative electrocardiogram showed first degree A-V block. At operation the aortic valve was generally thickened with mild calcification about the commissures. Non-coronary cusp was severely deformed and was nearly detached at its base due to annular abscess formation. Native valve was completely excised and the abscess was debrided. A club or a tongue-shaped pedicled aortic wall flap was prepared to the left of the oblique aortotomy incision with its free end to the distal side of the aorta. The flap was folded inward at its pedicle about 1 cm above the non-coronary annulus and was used to patch the abscess cavity. The aortic valve was replaced with a SJM 23 mm aortic valve prosthesis. The remaining defect of the aortic wall was repaired with a patch of woven-dacron vascular prosthesis. Post-operative hemodynamics of the patient was uneventful and he was given a 6-week course of parenteral antibiotics. He developed complete A-V block during the operation, and a permanent pacemaker was implanted on the 6th postoperative day. One year after operation he has not had recurrent infection and is leading a normal life. When used in the repair of ventriculo-aortic discontinuity created by infective endocarditis, the pedicled aortic wall flap has several advantages. It is easily obtainable and can cover abscesses of almost any shape and size. Unlike aortic root homograft, there is no problem of availability. Technically it is relatively simple to prepare a flap, bring it down through the non-coronary sinus and suture over the abscess. Aortic wall has just appropriate thickness and strength to reinforce the weakened periannular area, and if the debrided cavity is deep, the flap can be folded to obtain double thickness. By using this flap, potentially infected cavity is covered and packed by autologous tissue alone, and the synthetic patch to repair the aortic wall defect is placed well away from the site of possible contamination. In addition to the use in infective endocarditis, the aortic wall flap can predictably be used in the repair of aortic annular defect created by over-zealous removal of calcium in the surgery of calcific aortic stenosis, and in intracardiac patching in aortic annular enlargement operation such as Manouguian operation. To our knowledge, the use of pedicled aortic wall flap for aortic annular reconstruction has not been reported in the literature." }, { "id": "article-613_22", "title": "Bioprosthetic Stented Pericardial Porcine Aortic Valve Replacement -- Indications", "score": 0.01156791830656313, "content": "A full culture-driven course of antibiotics should be the first-line treatment until one of the following scenarios pushes the multidisciplinary team toward early surgical source control: deteriorating heart failure, highly virulent or resistant organisms, new heart block, annular abscess, relapsing infection, persistent bacteremia for five to seven days, presence of a prosthetic valve infection, infected defibrillator, pacemaker, or leads, recurrent emboli, persistent vegetations, or mobile vegetation >1.0 cm." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10314", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011364846162035558, "content": "Timing of Cardiac Surgery With the more life-threatening indications for surgery (valve dysfunction and severe CHF, paravalvular abscess, major prosthesis dehiscence), early surgery—i.e., during the initial week of therapy—is associated with a greater chance of survival than later surgery. With less compelling indications, surgery may reasonably be delayed to allow further treatment as well as improvement in overall health (Table 155-6). After 14 days of recommended antibiotic therapy, excised valves are culture-negative in 99% and 50% of patients with streptococcal and S. aureus endocarditis, 826 respectively. Recrudescent endocarditis on a new implanted prosthetic valve follows surgery for active NVE and PVE in 2% and 6–15% of patients, respectively. These frequencies do not justify the risk of an adverse outcome due to a delay in surgery, particularly in patients with severe heart failure, valve dysfunction, and uncontrolled staphylococcal infections. Delay is justified when" }, { "id": "article-619_10", "title": "Aortic Valve Endocarditis Surgical Treatment -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.01107419712070875, "content": "Infective endocarditis management is with prolonged duration of bactericidal antibiotics. The choice of antibiotic regimen (whether single or combination therapy) and the treatment duration are selected according to the pathogen’s susceptibility and resistance patterns, whether it’s a native or prosthetic valve endocarditis. Accordingly, the duration can vary from two weeks to as long as six weeks. Treatment is usually started in the hospital and completed as an outpatient once the fever subsides and the blood cultures are negative. But in some instances, antibiotic therapy alone is insufficient, and patients require surgery. Class I indications for surgery in patients with infective endocarditis include valvular dysfunction with symptoms of congestive heart failure, left-sided IE caused by S. aureus , fungal, or other highly resistant microorganisms, IE with conduction defects or heart block, annular or aortic abscess, persistent infection 5 to 7 days after initiation of antibiotic therapy. [2]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_6416", "title": "Outcome of aortic homograft implantation in 24 cases of severe infective endocarditis.", "score": 0.010845295055821371, "content": "The objective of the study was to evaluate the results of treatment of severe aortic endocarditis with an aortic homograft (an aortic valve and root from a donor) in combination with antibiotic therapy. 24 patients with either aortic prosthetic valve endocarditis (n=16) or severe aortic native valve endocarditis (n=8) with destruction of 1 or more cusps, paravalvular abscess formation and/or cardiac fistulas caused by aggressive bacteria, underwent surgery in 1997-2006. Staphylococcal species were the most common pathogens followed by streptococci. Intravenous antibiotic therapy was started before surgery and continued for at least 4-6 weeks. Three patients with prosthetic valve endocarditis died within the first 24 h after surgery from heart failure. Two of these patients required an additional implantation of a mitral valve prosthesis. Five patients died from non-cardiac causes within 1-7 y of surgery. Within the follow-up period no patients had relapse of endocarditis, and only 1 episode of recurrent endocarditis in an intravenous drug abuser was registered. In conclusion, an aortic homograft in combination with intravenous antibiotics is an excellent option for treatment of severe aortic endocarditis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7528", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.010668748373666406, "content": "Hospital stay and recovery time After aortic valve replacement, the patient will usually stay in an intensive care unit for 12–36 hours. Unless complications arise, the patient is then able to go home after approximately four to seven days. Common complications include disturbances to the heart’s rhythm (heart block), which typically require the permanent insertion of a cardiac pacemaker. Recovery from aortic valve replacement takes about three months if the patient is in good health. Patients are advised not to lift anything heavier than 10 lbs for several weeks, and not to do any heavy lifting for 4–6 months after surgery to avoid damaging their breastbone. Often patients will be referred to participate in cardiopulmonary rehabilitation, which optimizes recovery and physical function in patients with recent cardiac surgeries. This can be done in an outpatient setting. Outcomes" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7530", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.010444177671068427, "content": "The risk of dying as a result of aortic valve replacement is estimated at 1–3%. Combining aortic valve replacement with coronary artery bypass grafting increases the risk of mortality. Older patients, as well as those who are frail and/or have other health problems (comorbidities), have a higher risk of experiencing complications. Possible problems include cardiac infarction/failure, arrhythmia or heart block (typically requires the permanent insertion of a cardiac pacemaker), mediastinal bleeding, stroke and infection. Late complications include endocarditis, thromboembolic events (blood clots), prosthetic valve dysfunction and paravalvular leak (blood flowing between the edge of the prosthetic valve and the cardiac tissue). Patient–prosthesis mismatch" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0405_16091", "title": "Thrombosis and endocarditis in prosthetic heart valves, a case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The authors report the case of a 49-year-old female with a history of rheumatic valvular heart disease who underwent valve surgery in 1997, with implantation of St. Jude prosthetic valves in aortic and mitral position. She was asymptomatic until the end of July 2001, when she was admitted to Garcia de Orta Hospital emergency unit because of heart failure, fever and suspicion of endocarditis. Cardiologic evaluation was requested and the transthoracic (TTE) and transesophageal (TEE) echocardiograms revealed vegetations on the prosthetic mitral valve. Blood cultures were negative. She started empiric antibiotic therapy and the clinical course stabilized in the first week. After ten days of medical therapy her symptoms became worse and TTE and TEE were repeated. TTE showed significant left ventricular-aortic gradient, suggesting aortic valve obstruction. Decreased left ventricular function was now present with hypokinesia in the anterior descending coronary artery territory. In the TEE, a large thrombotic process on the mitral prosthesis valve was seen, with a prosthesis disk blocked. There were similar findings in the aortic valve. Cardiac fluoroscopic images were obtained at the mitral and aortic position confirming the TEE report. The coronary angiogram was normal. Promptly transferred to a cardiac surgery center, the patient underwent aortic and mitral prosthetic valve replacement. The intraoperative findings were compatible with those from echocardiography and cardiac fluoroscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_8813", "title": "[Prosthesis-endocarditis in the aortic position in a 22-year case load. Surgical versus conservative treatment].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "During the period 1965-1986, a total of 852 patients underwent isolated aortic valve replacement. With 4,875 patients-years at risk, 24 patients developed prosthetic valve endocarditis (PE; 0.49% per patient-year). The five, ten and fifteen year cumulative freedoms from PE were 98.2%, 95.4% and 93.0%, respectively. PE was unrelated to pre- or intraoperative data. No patients submitted to operation for acute/subacute bacterial endocarditis of the native aortic valve developed PE. Out of the 12 episodes of PE within two years of the operation, seven (58%) were caused by Staphylococcus albus compared with two out of 12 (17%; p less than 0.05) subsequent episodes of PE. Seven of the nine infections with Staphylococcus albus were caused by a highly resistant nosocomial variant. Ten of the PE patients underwent replacement of the prosthesis while 14 were treated conservatively. The two therapeutic groups were comparable, although the surgically treated patients tended to be younger and to have more impaired cardiac status. All surgically treated patients and all patients treated conservatively and in whom post mortem verification was possible had paravalvular defects, annular abscesses and/or vegetations on the prosthesis. The thirty-day, one year and ten year cumulative survivals were 80%, 80% and 50%, respectively, after replacement of the prosthesis and 64%, 21% and 7%, respectively, after conservative treatment (p = 0.02). A Cox regression analysis identified conservative treatment, infection with Escherichia coli or Haemophilus influenzae and the need to intensify digitalis/diuretic treatment for congestive heart failure as independent risk factors. It is concluded that replacement of the prosthesis early in the course of the disease should be considered as the treatment of choice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0652_15638", "title": "Factors associated with cardiac conduction disorders and permanent pacemaker implantation after percutaneous aortic valve implantation with the CoreValve prosthesis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Cardiac conduction disorders and requirement for permanent pacemaker implantation (PPI) are not uncommon after surgical aortic valve replacement and have important clinical implications. We aimed to investigate the incidence of cardiac conduction disorders after percutaneous aortic valve implantation (PAVI) and to identify possible clinical factors associated with their development. We studied 34 patients (mean age 80 +/- 8 years, 18 male) who underwent PAVI with the CoreValve bioprosthesis (Corevalve Inc, Irvine, CA). Electrocardiographic evaluation was performed pre- and postprocedurally, and at 1-week and 1-month follow-up. Other clinical variables were obtained from the medical history, echocardiography, and angiography. After PAVI, 7 patients required PPI, all of whom developed total atrioventricular block within 3 days postprocedurally. A smaller left ventricular outflow tract diameter (20.3 +/- 0.5 vs 21.6 +/- 1.8 cm, P = .01), more left-sided heart axis (-20 degrees +/- 29 degrees vs 19 degrees +/- 36 degrees , P = .02), more mitral annular calcification (10 +/- 1 vs 5 +/- 4 mm, P = .008), and a smaller postimplantation indexed effective orifice area (0.86 +/- 0.20 vs 1.10 +/- 0.26 cm(2)/m(2), P = .04) were associated with PPI. The incidence of new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) was 65% and was associated with a deeper implantation of the prosthesis: 10.2 +/- 2.3 mm in the new-LBBB group versus 7.7 +/- 3.1 mm in the non-LBBB group (P = .02). Percutaneous aortic valve implantation with the CoreValve prosthesis results in a high incidence of total atrioventricular block requiring PPI and new-onset LBBB. Preexisting disturbance of cardiac conduction, a narrow left ventricular outflow tract, and the severity of mitral annular calcification predict the need for permanent pacing, whereas the only factor shown to be predictive for new-onset LBBB is the depth of prosthesis implantation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0640_22039", "title": "[Results of surgical treatment of aortic root infection].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To investigate preoperative status and results of surgery of patients with confirmed diagnosis of aortic root infection. We have analyzed data of 21 patients who were operated on at the Heart Surgery Center, Vilnius University, since January 1, 1997, till December 31, 2006. All these patients underwent surgery because of aortic root infection. The patients were aged 25-72 years (mean age, 53+/-14 years). There were 17 (80.9%) male patients. Sixteen patients (76%) preoperatively were in NYHA class IV. The abscesses of aortic root were confirmed preoperatively by means of esophageal echocardiography in 18 patients (86%). Blood cultures positive for Staphylococcus aureus were found in four patients (19.9%). All the patients underwent replacement of the aortic valve by mechanic prosthesis; one of these patients was reoperated because of persistent sepsis, and replacement of the aortic root with homograft was performed. The duration of follow-up of the patients was 1 to 10 years. Inhospital mortality rate was 14.3%. The causes of death included sustained heart failure and sepsis. All these patients were in NYHA functional class IV preoperatively; one of these patients had culture positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Inhospital survival was 85.7%, one-year postoperative survival - 80.9%, and both five-year and ten-year survivals were 76.0%. The long-term survival was negatively influenced by recurrent infective endocarditis, heart failure, and age. Death occurred in 1 patient (11.1%) of the 9 patients who at the time of surgery were younger than 50 years and 4 patients (33.3%) of the 12 who were older than 50 years at the time of operation. The infection of aortic root is not common pathology; however, it is a complicated disease. Esophageal echocardiography is an informative method while diagnosing aortic root abscesses. The inhospital mortality is increased by the heart failure persisting after the operation and sepsis. The long-term survival is decreased by preoperative infective endocarditis of the prosthesis and heart failure. The mortality rate of patients older than 50 years is 3-fold higher than mortality rate of younger ones." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0087_13814", "title": "[Endocarditis with Ionescu-Shiley's bioprosthesis. Long-term results].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "With the aim to attesting the ability of treated pericardial tissue to resist infection we analyzed the incidence of prosthetic valve endocarditis in 541 operative survivors with the Ionescu-Shiley (I-S) valve since January 1977. A total of 580 valves were available for the study, 21 (3.8%) sustained I-S endocarditis or 0.65% patients/annum. The mean age was 53.2 years; male/female ratio was 16/5. Native endocarditis was present in 20 cases (3.6%). There were 13 aortic endocarditis (2 in cases of multiple replacement) and eight mitral. The interval between insertion and endocarditis ranged from 2 weeks to 108 months (means 31); 8 cases were early I-S endocarditis (38%) and 13 late endocarditis (62%). The organisms isolated were: Staphylococcus (epidermidis, aureus) in 10 cases. Streptococcus (viridans, fecalis) in 7 cases, gram negative in three and no organism was cultured in 3 cases. The outcome was as follows: specific medical treatment in 4 cases (one early), valve re-replacement in 11 (four early) from whom eight survived, and 6 patients died with unspecific medical treatment. The total mortality rate 9/21 (43%), in early endocarditis 5/8 (62.5%) and in late endocarditis 5/13 (38%). Operative and necropsy findings in 12/21 showed always periprosthetic abscess but no leaflet perforations. The rate of I-S valve endocarditis compares favourably with other valve substitutes. Early re-replacement combined with adequate antibiotic treatment is mandatory according to our experience." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0863_12114", "title": "Complete atrioventricular block after isolated aortic valve replacement.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Temporary atrioventricular (AV) conduction disturbances are a common complication following cardiac surgery, especially involving the aortic valve. Permanent complete AV block is a serious and rare complication. Its prevalence has been estimated at 3-6% of all patients undergoing aortic valve replacement. Identification of factors that affect the occurrence of complete AV block requiring permanent pacemaker implantation might help reduce the risk of this problem in the future. To evaluate clinical, anatomical and surgical factors that might affect occurrence of complete AV, resulting in the need for permanent pacemaker implantation. In our prospective study, we analysed clinical data of consecutive 159 patients operated due to isolated aortic valve disease between February 2011 and March 2012. Patients with a pacemaker implanted before that time were excluded from the study. The main indication for surgery was aortic stenosis (n = 114, 71.7%). Infectious endocarditis was an indication in 6 (3.8%) cases. Mean patient age was 65.3 ± 11.4 years, and the proportion of males to females was 56.6%/43.4%. Overall, 135 (84.9%) patients had sinus rhythm preoperatively. All operations were performed using median sternotomy, cardiopulmonary bypass, and hypothermia at 30-32°C. A biological prosthesis was implanted in 120 (70.4%) patients. Patients who needed an additional procedure such as another valve surgery, aortic surgery or coronary artery bypass grafting were excluded from the study. Permanent pacemaker implantation was required in 11 (6.9%) patients. The pacemaker was implanted after at least 7 days of complete AV block which was then considered permanent. Univariate analysis showed that permanent pacemaker implantation was associated with prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass time, prolonged aortic cross-clamp time, and the occurrence of electrolyte disturbances. Univariate logistic regression revealed that the need for permanent pacemaker implantation depended on 5 factors including prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass time, prolonged aortic cross-clamp time, larger size of the implanted valve prosthesis, endocarditis as the indication for surgery, and electrolyte disturbances. In both backward and forward stepwise multivariate regression models, two parameters, prolonged aortic cross-clamp time and the presence of electrolyte disturbances, correlated with the occurrence of complete AV block. Permanent complete AV block is a serious complication after aortic valve surgery. Of all analysed clinical, anatomical and surgical factors, prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass time, prolonged aortic cross-clamp time, larger size of the implanted valve prosthesis, endocarditis as the indication for surgery, and electrolyte disturbances were found to be statistically significant predictors of permanent pacemaker implantation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0321_6185", "title": "[Right-heart endocarditis after pacemaker implantation as a cause of a round pulmonary infiltrate].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 57-year-old man developed intermittent fever and fatigue 11 months after a two-chamber cardiac pacemaker had been implanted because of 2 degrees and 3 degrees A-V block. Antituberculosis treatment was initiated as tuberculosis was suspected. The infiltrate regressed, but the other symptoms persisted. Four months later he was admitted as an emergency because of septicaemia. In addition to a recently discovered cardiac murmur there was a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (116 mm) and leucocytosis (13 600/microliters) with shift to the left. Coagulase-negative staphylococci were grown on several blood cultures. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) demonstrated vegetation on the tricuspid valve, the pacing wires and the right ventricular outflow tract. After the diagnosis of infective endocarditis had been established, antibiotic treatment was give with imipenem, gentamycin and teicoplanin, the pacemaker system and adherent thrombotic material were removed and a DDD pacemaker implanted from the other side. The patient remained free of symptoms during a follow-up period of 12 months. Delayed diagnosis of infective endocarditis is not uncommon, because of the scarcity of typical symptoms. Repeated blood cultures and TOE are essential for the diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en333_2588", "title": "Adventist HealthCare White Oak Medical Center", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "CT imaging Angiography Emergent and routine abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) stent graft Carotid stenting Arterial embolization Full spectrum of cardiac surgery Bypass Surgery Beating Heart Surgery Aortic Valve Surgery Mitral Valve Surgery Tricuspid Valve Surgery Thoracic Aortic Procedures Atrial Fibrillation (Maze) Surgery Endoscopic Vein Harvesting Cardiac Tumor Registry Full spectrum of vascular surgery Comprehensive electrophysiology service Catheter ablation Pacemaker and defibrillator implants Monitored Cardiac Rehabilitation Cardiac and Vascular Research through the Center for Cardiac and Vascular Research (CCVR) Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) Primary PCI- an early life-saving medical procedure for heart attack patients" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1124_15051", "title": "Rapid Evolution of an Aortic Endocarditis.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Cardiac surgery is necessary in almost 50% of patients with endocarditis. Early surgery, i.e., the surgery performed during the first hospitalization, is required in the following cases: heart failure secondary to valve regurgitation; <iS. aureus</i, fungal organism, or other highly resistant organism infection; heart block, annular or aortic abscess, or destructive penetrating lesions; evidence of persistent infection as manifested by persistent bacteremia or fevers lasting &gt;5 days after onset of appropriate antimicrobial therapy. A 62-year-old man developed a fever (38 °C) 3 days after a transaortic electrophysiological study; blood cultures were positive for <iS. aureus</i, and were sensitive to vancomycin and ceftaroline. Antibiotic therapy was started, controlling the fever and the patient's infective and inflammatory profiles well; however, 3 days later, acute aortic regurgitation developed. At transesophageal echocardiography (TEE), a rare condition was revealed-vegetation was attached to the aortic wall, impeding correct aortic valve closure. Cardiac operation was carried out and the time for surgery was discussed; based on the patient's clinically stable condition, and on the infection, which was controlled well by antibiotics therapy, surgery was not performed in emergency circumstance (within 24-48 h)-rather, it was programmed during the hospitalization. A TEE surveillance was initiated, and after 7 days, TEE revealed a new picture, with images of an aortic abscess with small perforation in the right atrium, requiring emergency surgery, carried out 20 h later. In our case, the rapid evolution of the vegetation attached to the aortic wall suggested the following: (1) that the time for the surgery cannot be guided only by clinical procedure but must also be guided by imaging pictures; (2) that strictly TEE surveillance is mandatory in patients with aortic endocarditis not initially referred for emergency surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_12550", "title": "A novel solution to prosthetic valve dehiscence after aortic valve surgery in Behçet's disease.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Prosthetic valve dehiscence after aortic valve surgery in Behçet's disease patients is common. We aimed to validate the usefulness of our new technique 'subannular endomyocardial implantation of valve prosthesis' designed to prevent prosthetic valve dehiscence. Subannular endomyocardial implantation of valve prosthesis involves suturing the sewing cuff of the valve prosthesis in the endomyocardium below the aortic annulus, which is based on the idea that annular tissue should be excluded from the suture line in Behçet's disease patients. Medical records of 7 patients in whom the new technique was performed between 2002 and 2014 were reviewed. Five men and two women were included (median age, 44 years). Aortic root replacement was performed in 6 cases, and aortic valve replacement in 1. No operative mortality occurred. Postoperatively, complete atrioventricular block developed in 3 cases, and permanent pacemakers were implanted in 2. No reoperation was performed for prosthetic valve dehiscence during the median 7.8-year follow-up. One late death occurred due to sudden cardiac arrest 8.4 years after surgery. One additional permanent pacemaker was implanted for complete atrioventricular block, which developed at 4.2 years postoperatively. The last echocardiography (median, 6.7 years after surgery) revealed no paravalvular leakages. Subannular endomyocardial implantation of valve prosthesis seems useful for preventing prosthetic valve dehiscence after aortic valve surgery for Behçet's disease. It poses a risk of complete atrioventricular block, but considering the high reoperation rate and mortality due to prosthetic valve dehiscence after conventional aortic valve surgery, this risk seems reasonable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_9581", "title": "[Prosthetic valve endocarditis after double valve replacement].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "This is a report of a patient who underwent re-AVR due to prosthetic valve endocarditis after double valve replacement (MVR, AVR). A 54-year-old female was admitted to other hospital on April 14, 1990, because of high fever, progressive anemia, and cardiomegaly. The patient was hospitalized to our department urgently with the diagnosis of prosthetic valve endocarditis. Arterial blood culture grew methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis. Echocardiography showed a vegetation at the disc of the mechanical valve in the mitral position, but we could not find any vegetation or thrombus there at the reoperation, and the aortic mechanical valve seemed to be intact. Signs of inflammation continued to be positive after reoperation. On the 33rd hospital day, a diastolic murmur was heard, and emergency cardiac catheterization was done. Detachment of the prosthetic aortic valve and rupture of the sinus of Valsalva due to mycotic aneurysm, and the dissection of the aorta had occurred. We performed re-AVR and replacement of the ascending aorta. The patient died of multiple organ failure following drug-induced hepatic failure. It is suggestive that we missed the prosthetic aortic valve endocarditis during the reoperation. Our thoughts and introspections on the echocardiographic diagnosis of the prosthetic valve endocarditis after double valve replacement were discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0671_22846", "title": "Transcatheter aortic valve implantation for treatment of patients with degenerated aortic bioprostheses--valve-in-valve technique.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The management of patients with degeneration of surgical bioprosthetic valve replacement remains a challenge because of the higher risk of re-do aortic valve replacement. We present a case series of five patients with degenerated aortic bioprostheses treated with transfemoral transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI). From December 2009 to May 2010, five patients with degenerated aortic valve bioprostheses (aortic valve area &lt; 1 cm(2) or severe aortic regurgitation), an excessive operative risk (EuroSCORE ≥ 30%), symptoms of heart failure (NYHA ≥ III) and an internal diameter of bioprosthetic aortic valve 20.5 ± 0.5 mm were included. Procedures were performed without hemodynamic support using femoral arteries. Balloon valvuloplasty with a 20-mm balloon under rapid pacing was carried out before valve implantation. The 26-mm CoreValve prosthesis, 18-F-generation (Medtronic, Minneapolis, Minnesota) was inserted retrograde under fluoroscopic guidance. Invasive and echocardiographic measurements were done immediately before and after TAVI. Clinical followup and echocardiography were performed after procedure (mean followup 72 days ± 60, range: 176-30 days). In all patients TAVI was successful with immediate decrease of transaortic peak-to-peak pressure (P = 0.002). Mild aortic regurgitation occurred in two patients and one patient received a new permanent pacemaker. Major adverse cardiac and cerebrovascular events did not arise. NYHA functional class improved in all patients and left ventricular ejection fraction increased (P = 0.019). Our experiences with the valve-in-valve technique using the CoreValve prosthesis suggest that transfemoral TAVI is feasible in high risk patients with degenerated aortic bioprostheses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_8032", "title": "[Early results of surgical treatment in acquired heart diseases during endocarditis in own material].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Endocarditis can concern natural as well as artificial heart valves. In conservative treatment mortality reaches 24-60%. Surgical procedure is the only way to save these patients in most cases. Between 1998-2001, 114 patients underwent surgery because of valve endocarditis, 86 male and 28 female. 43 patients underwent mitral valve replacement (MVR), (13 MV reoperation), 51 aortic valve replacement (AVR), (16 AV reoperation) and 20 patients underwent MVR and AVR (3 both valves replacement). Three groups were similar regarding age, gender, emergency or elective procedures and NYHA class four. All patients underwent open heart surgery in ECC with hypothermia and crystalloid cardioplegia done by the same group of surgeons. Operative mortality in the MVR group was 11.6% (five of 43) compared to 3.9% (two of 51) AVR patients and 25% (five of 20) MVR and AVR group. The highest mortality rate was in both infected artificial valves procedures. There was growth of the bacteria in intraoperative material in 37.6% (33) of cases, mainly Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus. Incidence of postoperative sepsis, multiorgan failure, high grade atrio-ventricular block or low cardiac output was the highest in MVR and AVR patients. Independent predictors of operative mortality included increasing patient age, female gender, infected valve reoperation, and history of stroke. Our study suggests that patients with endocarditis and compromised hemodynamic status can be operated with acceptable morbidity and mortality. If echocardiography shows the cuspids perforations or vegetations, chords tendinous rupture or perivalvular leak, the patients should undergo cardiac surgery as soon as possible, in order to avoid severe embolic complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0898_971", "title": "Low permanent pacemaker rates following Lotus device implantation for transcatheter aortic valve replacement due to modified implantation protocol.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Conduction disturbances requiring permanent pacemaker implantation following transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) are a common problem. Pacemaker implantation rates after TAVR appear to be higher compared to conventional aortic valve replacement. The aim of this study was to analyze whether a high annulus implantation conveys the benefit of a decreased rate of permanent pacemaker implantation while being safe and successful according to Valve Academic Research Consortium 2 (VARC2)-criteria. A total of 23 patients with symptomatic severe aortic valve stenosis, an aortic annulus of 19-27 mm and at high risk for surgery were treated with the Lotus valve. In all patients the valve was implanted in a high annulus position via femoral access. The primary device performance endpoint was VARC2-defined device success after 30 days and the primary safety endpoint was the need for permanent pacemaker implantation. The mean age was 73.23 ± 7.65 years, 46% were female, 38% were New York Heart Association class III/IV at baseline. Thirty-day follow-up data were available for all patients. The VARC2-defined device success rate after 30 days was 22/23 (96%). 2/21 (10%) patients required a newly implanted pacemaker due to 3rd degree atrioventricular block. 25% of the patients developed a new left bundle branch block after valvuloplasty or device implantation. 21 of the 23 patients (96%) had no other signs of conduction disturbances after 30 days. The approach of the modified implantation technique of Lotus TAVR device was safe and effective. The incidence of need for a permanent pacemaker following TAVR could be significantly reduced due to adopted implantation protocol." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0719_13610", "title": "[Pacemaker infection developed one month after the surgery for prosthetic valve endocarditis].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 57-year-old man underwent mitral valve replacement and tricuspid annuloplasty for mitral and tricuspid regurgitation. Pacemaker implantation was conducted because of postoperative sick sinus syndrome 2 months after the operation. One year later, the patient was readmitted to the hospital because of high fever. Echocardiography showed 2 vegetations of 10 mm in diameter attached to the mitral mechanical valve. No vegetations were detected on the tricuspid valve or the pacemaker leads. Mitral valve re-replacement was urgently performed under the diagnosis of prosthetic valve endocarditis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. One month after the reoperation, pacemaker infection developed in spite of suitable infection control by daily intravenous injection of sensitive antibiotics. We proceeded to place a temporary pacing wire and extracted the entire permanent pacing system. A new permanent pacemaker was implanted 5 days later. The patient was discharged on the 62th postoperative day without recurrence of infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1102_6320", "title": "Conduction delays after transcatheter aortic valve implantation with balloon-expandable prosthesis and high implantation technique.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Performing transcatheter aortic valve implantation with high implantation technique, i.e. with an aorto-ventricular ratio &gt; 60/40, reduces the need of permanent pacemaker implantation. Valve calcification and prosthesis oversizing are predictors of permanent pacemaker implantation, but there are no available data on their role when transcatheter aortic valve implantation is performed with an aorto-ventricular ratio &gt; 60/40. The aim of this study was to evaluate the effect of leaflets/annulus calcification and prosthesis oversizing on the incidence of permanent pacemaker implantation after transcatheter aortic valve implantation with a high implantation technique. Transcatheter aortic valve implantation was performed in 48 patients implanting a balloon-expandable transcatheter heart valve with an aorto-ventricular ratio &gt; 60/40. Calcium burden was assessed by preprocedural multidetector computed tomography. An invasive electrophysiological study was performed before and after transcatheter aortic valve implantation. Five patients (10.4%) needed permanent pacemaker implantation. At univariate analysis, baseline right bundle branch block and postprocedural PR, QRS and His-ventricular interval elongation significantly predicted permanent pacemaker implantation (p &lt; 0.05). Receiver-operating characteristic curve analysis showed a correlation between transcatheter heart valve oversizing and permanent pacemaker implantation need, with the best cut-off being 17% (AUC = 0.72, p = 0.033). Linear regression analysis demonstrated that QRS complex elongation was related to total, left and non-coronary leaflet calcification (p &lt; 0.05). This study demonstrates that, when transcatheter aortic valve implantation is performed using a balloon-expandable transcatheter heart valve deployed with an aorto-ventricular ratio &gt; 60/40, the presence of leaflets/annulus calcification or the need to oversize the prosthesis correlate with the occurrence of pathological cardiac conduction delays." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0033_523", "title": "Immediate and long-term results of emergency aortic valve replacement in acute bacterial endocarditis.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A surgically treated material comprising 18 patinets with heart failure from aortic insufficiency during acute endocarditis has been reviewed. At the time of operation the mean duration of heart failure was 3 weeks and duration of endocarditis 9 weeks. Blood culture was positive in half of the patients, 39% had predisposing valve disease, 14 (78%) had a preoperative heart catheterization. The peroperatively measured regurgitation averaged 55%. All 18 patients had an artifical valve implanted, and the mean observation time for 13 long-term survivors was 3 1/3 years. There were 3 postoperative and 2 late deaths. A long-term survival rate of 73% strongly supports early surgical treatment in patients with aortic insufficiency and heart failure during acute endocarditis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en216_27080", "title": "Cardiothoracic anesthesiology", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Cardiac surgical training Fellows are trained to provide perioperative anesthetic management for patients with severe cardiopulmonary pathology. Some of the cardiac surgeries they train for include the following: coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG) both on cardiopulmonary bypass as well as on a beating heart, heart valve surgery, aortic reconstruction requiring deep hypothermic arrest, mechanical ventricular assist device (VAD) placement, thoracic aortic aneurysm repair, aortic dissection repair, heart transplants, lung transplants, heart/lung transplants, and adult congenital heart surgery. Adequate exposure and experience provided in the management of adult patients for cardiac pacemaker and automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator placement, surgical treatment of cardiac arrhythmias, and the complete gamut of invasive cardiologic (catheter-based) and electrophysiological procedures is expected as well." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0841_12597", "title": "Surgical treatment of late aortic prosthetic valve endocarditis: 19 years' experience.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We retrospectively analyzed the results of operations conducted for aortic prosthetic valve endocarditis in a single center over 19 years. From February 1992 to January 2011, we performed operations on 27 patients with aortic prosthetic valve endocarditis. Seventeen patients (63.0%) were male, and the mean age was 39.1 ± 14.2 (16-67) years. Blood cultures were positive in 11 patients (40.7%), and the most commonly identified microorganism was Streptococcus (7 patients, 25.9%). The mean duration of follow-up was 8.6 ± 4.7 years (0.5-18.2), adding up to a total of 136.9 patient/years. Forty procedures were performed on these 27 patients. The most commonly performed procedure was aortic valve replacement with a prosthetic valve - 16 patients (59.3%). Fifteen patients were operated on during the active phase of infection. In-hospital mortality was observed in 11 patients (40.7%). Postoperatively, 12 patients (44.4%) had low cardiac output, 3 (11.1%) suffered from a heart block; none of them required permanent pacemaker implantation. The actuarial survival for 1 and 5 years was 55.6 ± 9.6% and 47.6 ± 9.7%, respectively. Prosthetic valve endocarditis of the aortic valve is a challenging situation for the surgeon. The surgical treatment carries a high mortality rate and long-term survival is low. Among the survivors, however, recurrence and the need for reoperation are unlikely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1152_22807", "title": "Results of new-generation self-expanding transcatheter Porticoтм valve implantation in patients with degenerative aortic stenosis.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Aim    To evaluate 30-day results of the transcatheter correction of degenerative aortic stenosis using a novel self-expandable valve, PorticoTM.Material and methods    Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) was performed in 42 patients with an intermediate surgical risk (mean age, 74.3±6.5 years, 8 men, 34 women, EuroSCORE II risk, 2.5 (1.5;4.1)) with severe degenerative aortic stenosis (AS). 20 (48 %) patients had ischemic heart disease; 8 (19%) of patients had atrial fibrillation, and 16 (38%) of patients had type 2 diabetes mellitus. Most of the patients (88 %) had preserved systolic function, and 5 patients had a pronounced decrease in left ventricular ejection fraction. Early efficacy and safety of the intervention were evaluated with VARC-2 criteria.Results    In-hospital and 30-day mortality following TAVI was absent. Also, there were no adverse events, including cerebrovascular disorders, perioperative myocardial infarction, and conversion to open surgery. One patient had prosthesis migration to the aorta, which required implantation of the second self-expandable valve. Mean duration of the procedure was 90 min (80;110), fluoroscopy time was 21 min (19;24), and contrast volume 154 ml (200;240). Following TAVI, the mean aortic valve (AV) pressure gradient significantly decreased from 56.1±21.2 to 11.2±4.0 mm Hg, the maximal gradient decreased from 88.9±27.8 to 20.0±7.0 mm Hg, and the AV effective orifice area increased from 0.67±0.2 to 1.9±0.3 cm2 (p&amp;lt;0.001). By the time of discharge from the hospital, all patients showed regression of AS clinical manifestations. The percentage of patients with NYHA functional class III chronic heart failure reduced from 62 % to 7 % (p&amp;lt;0.001) after TAVI. In one case after the implantation, grade 3 aortic regurgitation was observed, which required endovascular occlusion to close the paraprosthetic fistula. Moderate paraprosthetic regurgitation (grade &amp;lt;2) was observed in 3 (7 %) patients. Only 2 (4.8%) patients required permanent pacemaker implantation.Conclusion    Results of the single-center prospective TAVI study using a novel self-expandable valve Porticoтм showed satisfactory hemodynamic parameters, efficacy and safety of the procedure for the 30-day follow-up period. A relatively low radial force of the carcass can be beneficial for reducing the incidence of permanent pacemaker implantation after TAVI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_12110", "title": "[Infective endocarditis of a valve prosthesis. Multicenter study (179 cases)].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Over a 5-year period (1982-1986) 176 cases of infective endocarditis on prosthesis (IEP) were recorded in 40 cardiology departments. 65 p. 100 of the patients were male, and the mean age of the population was 51 years. Mechanical prostheses were involved in 57 p. 100 of the cases and bioprosthesis in 43 p. 100. There was a high proportion of initial indications for bacterial endocarditis (18 p. 100) and for reoperation on prosthesis (10 p. 100). IEP developed early in 40 cases and late in 139 cases; 19 (48 p. 100) of the early IEPs were staphylococcal, while 31 p. 100 of late IEPs were streptococcal (p less than 0.01). 143 patients were reoperated upon within less than 1 month in 41 p. 100 of the cases, with a pre-operative antibiotic therapy of less than 10 days in 39 p. 100. Reoperation was performed in stage IV or as an emergency in 45 p. 100 of the cases. Abscesses were three times more frequent with aortic prostheses than with mitral prostheses (58 p. 100 vs 20 p. 100, p less than 0.001). Vegetations were more frequent on mechanical prostheses than on bioprostheses (43 p. 100 vs 31 p. 100, NS). The operative mortality rate was 25 p. 100; the mortality rate of unoperated patients was even higher (31 p. 100). The survival rate in operated IEP was 51 p. 100 at 30 months, as against 46 p. 100 at 12 months in unoperated IEP.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 23 ] ], "text": "both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 23 ] ], "text": "both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 23 ] ], "text": "both hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril can also produce falls in the elderly, but they would generally be accompanied by dizziness." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Allopurinol.", "2": "Hydrochlorothiazide.", "3": "Lisinopril.", "4": "Paroxetine.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0298_4063", "title": "Prevalence and persistency of orthostatic blood pressure fall in older patients with isolated systolic hypertension. Syst-Eur Investigators.", "score": 0.01739782527184102, "content": "Postural hypotension in older people has been the subject of many studies, but there remains some doubt as to its true prevalence. This study investigated the prevalence and persistency of an exaggerated orthostatic blood pressure (BP) fall in a large group of older patients with isolated systolic hypertension. A total of 2716 patients, 917 men and 1799 women, whose age ranged from 60-100 years, were examined at three separate outpatient visits on a placebo in the single-blind run-in phase of the Syst-Eur Trial. The supine and standing BPs at each visit were the averages of two readings. An exaggerated BP fall was defined as a drop in systolic pressure by at least 20 mm Hg 2 min after assuming the standing from the supine position, or as a drop in the diastolic pressure by at least 10 mm Hg. The reproducibility of orthostatic BP changes was evaluated by the Bland and Altman technique. With the three run-in visits combined, the sitting pressure averaged ( +/- standard deviation) 174 +/- 11 mm Hg systolic and 86 +/- 6 mm Hg diastolic. Systolic pressure fell on average by 5 +/- 12 mm Hg from the supine to the standing position, whereas diastolic pressure increased by 2 +/- 7 mm Hg. The percentage of patients showing an exaggerated orthostatic BP fall was constant at each of the three run-in visits, ie 11-12% for systolic pressure and 4% for diastolic pressure. An exaggerated BP fall at each of the three run-in visits was only present in 3% of the patients for systolic pressure and in 0.4% for diastolic pressure. An exaggerated BP fall at the run-in visits was not associated with dizziness and syncope, which occurred in only 1% of the patients. The orthostatic fall in systolic, but not diastolic pressure, was greater (0.6 mm Hg; P &lt; 0.05) at the second than at the first visit. The repeatability coefficients tended to be higher (60-65%), signifying lower reproducibility, than those for the BP levels (45-55%). An exaggerated fall in systolic or diastolic pressure may occasionally occur in nearly 10% of older patients with isolated systolic hypertension even without antihypertensive drug therapy, but a persistent orthostatic response in only rarely observed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en186_8958", "title": "First-dose phenomenon", "score": 0.012280701754385965, "content": "The first-dose phenomenon is a sudden and severe fall in blood pressure that can occur when changing from a lying to a standing position the first time that an alpha blocker drug is used or when resuming the drug after many months off. This postural hypotension usually happens shortly after the first dose is absorbed into the blood and can result in syncope (fainting). Syncope occurs in approximately 1% of patients given an initial dose of 2 mg prazosin or greater. This adverse effect is self-limiting and in most cases does not recur after the initial period of therapy or during subsequent dose titration. The alpha blocker prazosin (Minipress) is most notorious for producing a first dose phenomenon. Other drugs of the same family, doxazosin (Cardura) and terazosin (Hytrin), can also cause this phenomenon, though less frequently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0672_19193", "title": "Hypotension and bradycardia associated with concomitant tizanidine and lisinopril therapy.", "score": 0.012230989956958392, "content": "A case of severe bradycardia and hypotension associated with concomitant tizanidine and lisinopril therapy is reported. An 85-year-old man with a chief complaint of profound weakness was admitted to the hospital with a blood pressure reading of 60/32 mm Hg and a heart rate of 37 beats/min. His medical history included type 2 diabetes mellitus, congestive heart failure, gastroesophageal reflux disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, osteoarthritis, restless leg syndrome, benign prostatic hyperplasia, generalized anxiety disorder with depression, and severe chronic back pain for which he was receiving treatment at a pain clinic. Two days before hospital admission, he had been seen at the pain clinic and started on ti-zanidine. Additional medications included acetaminophen, chlorpromazine, citalopram, finasteride, lidocaine patch, lisinopril, metformin, pramipexole, omeprazole, simvastatin, theophylline, diclofenac topical gel, hydrocodone-acetaminophen, and ondansetron. After taking three doses of the newly prescribed tizanidine, he developed severe hypotension and bradycardia. Notable laboratory test values included a serum creatinine concentration of 1.90 mg/dL, a blood urea nitrogen concentration of 21 mg/dL, a serum potassium concentration of 5.5 meq/L, and a serum sodium concentration of 128 meq/L. Upon admission, tizanidine, lisinopril, theophylline, omeprazole, and simvastatin were withheld, and i.v. fluids were administered. The patient's vital signs began to gradually improve. Within 24 hours, the patient's blood pressure and heart rate had improved, as had the previously abnormal laboratory test values. Tizanidine was discontinued, and all of his other preadmission medications were restarted at discharge. The addition of tizanidine in a patient receiving long-term treatment with lisinopril was associated with severe hypotension and bradycardia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3641", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011100494604316547, "content": "A 76-year-old woman presented with a several-month history of diarrhea, with marked worsening over the 2–3 weeks before admission (up to 12 stools a day). Review of systems was negative for fever, orthostatic dizziness, nausea and vomiting, or headache. Past medical history included hypertension, kidney stones, and hypercholesterolemia; medications included atenolol, spironolactone, and lovastatin. She also reliably consumed >2 L of liquid per day in management of the nephrolithiasis. The patient received 1 L of saline over the first 5 h of her hospital admission. On examination at hour 6, the heart rate was 72 sitting and 90 standing, and blood pressure was 105/50 mmHg lying and standing. Her jugular venous pressure (JVP) was indistinct with no peripheral edema. On abdominal examination, the patient had a slight increase in bowel sounds but a nontender abdomen and no organomegaly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0892_4743", "title": "Clinical Case of the Month: A 49 Year-Old Man Who Presents with Left Sided Weakness: An Update on Ischemic Stroke.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 49 year-old man with a past medical history significant for essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease status post percutaneous coronary intervention and stent placement in the right coronary artery in 2010 presented for evaluation of left hemiplegia. He was feeling well until three hours prior to presentation, at which time he fell while walking from his bedroom into the kitchen. After falling, he noticed that his left upper and lower extremities felt weak. He denied any symptoms preceding the fall or any loss of consciousness. On initial exam, the temperature was 99°F, the pulse was 93 beats per minute, the blood pressure was 191/100 mmHg, the respiratory rate was 22 breaths per minute, and the oxygen saturation was 100% while breathing room air. His neurological exam revealed diminished strength in the left upper extremity: 4/5 arm abduction and adduction of the left shoulder; 4/5 elbow and wrist extension and flexion; and 4/5 extension, abduction, and adduction of the digits. The patient also exhibited slight left upper extremity pronator drift. The strength was also diminished in the left lower extremity: 2/5 hip flexion, extension, and rotation; 3/5 knee flexion and extension; and 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. Initial NIH stroke scale score was 5, otherwise, there were no focal neurological deficits and the remainder of his exam was unremarkable. Initial computed tomography (CT) of the head was negative for any acute intracranial hemorrhage or infarct. A subsequent CT cerebral perfusion scan (Figure 1) was notable for areas of ischemia in the right cingulate gyrus as well as the medial frontal and parietal lobes. CT angiogram of the neck revealed bilateral atherosclerotic plaque in the carotid arteries; however, there was no evidence of any flow-limiting stenosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0781_22846", "title": "[A man in his eighties with recurrent syncope].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Syncope is usually a benign event that affects up to 50% of people over a lifetime, needing no extensive examination. The challenge is to diagnose the few with underlying life-threatening disease in need of immediate medical attention. Guidelines are clear, but unfortunately, clinical practice does not always follow recommendations, as illustrated by this case report. A diabetic, hypertensive male in his eighties had a myocardial infarction in his medical history. He presented to his GP with recurrent syncopal episodes that had occurred while erect and in motion. Physical examination was found to be normal for his age, and he was referred to a cardiologist and seen three months later. An ECG showed sinus rhythm and a previous inferior wall myocardial infarction. A 24-hour ECG recorder was fitted, and a consultation was scheduled for the next day. At home the patient died. The ECG recording revealed sinus rhythm with increasing depression of the ST segment, followed by rapidly conducted atrial fibrillation, and then rapid ventricular tachycardia followed by terminal ventricular fibrillation. A patient with a history where there is suspicion of cardiac syncope should be immediately and intensively examined when presenting to the healthcare services." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0801_24029", "title": "ECG of the Month. Unexpected Atrioventricular Conduction in High-Grade Atrioventricular Block. DIAGNOSIS: Sinus rhythm; high-grade second-degree atrioventricular block with a junctional escape rhythm and three capture complexes, each with right bundle branch block aberration; possible septal myocardial infarct of indeterminate age; ST-T and U wave changes suggesting hypokalemia.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 90-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure, a cerebrovascular accident without focal residua, dementia, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease went to the emergency department because of dizziness and near syncope. His medications were aspirin 81 mg qd, clopidogrel 75 mg qod, escitalopram oxalate 10 mg qd, quetiapine fumarate 25 mg qd, and memantine hydrochloride 10 mg qd. He had orthrostatic hypotension with supine blood pressure of 173/77 mmHg falling to 116/68 on standing, while pulse increased from 66 to 84 beats/min. He received IV fluid and returned home. Two days later, he saw his primary care physician because of episodes of dizziness and confusion. The Figure shows an electrocardiogram recorded during that visit. " }, { "id": "article-26349_16", "title": "Orthostatic Hypotension -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Patients often present with generalized symptoms of lightheadedness, dizziness, or syncope and less commonly with leg buckling, headache, or chest pain. It is important to determine preceding events or precipitating events and look at the medication list. One must perform a detailed cardiovascular and neurologic exam to rule out a cardiogenic origin of the symptoms. In the elderly, it is also important to rule out neurogenic causes and hypovolemia secondary to diuretics, blood loss, vomiting, and polypharmacy. Particularly in the case of syncope, it is important to rule out other common causes such as seizure and neurocardiogenic syncope (vasovagal syncope)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0830_6507", "title": "ECG Case of the Month: Unexpected Atrioventricular Conduction in High-Grade Atrioventricular Block. Sinus rhythm; high-grade second degree atrioventricular block with a junctional escape rhythm and three capture complexes, each with right bundle branch block aberration; possible septal myocardial infarct of indeterminate age; ST-T and U wave changes suggesting hypokalemia.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 90-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure, a cerebrovascular accident without focal residua, dementia, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease went to the emergency department because of dizziness and near syncope. His medications were aspirin 81 mg qd, clopidogrel 75 mg qod, escitalopram oxalate 10 mg qd, Seroquel 25 mg qd, and memantine hydrochloride 10 mg qd. He had orthostatic hypotension with supine blood pressure of 173/77 mm Hg falling to 116/68 on standing, while pulse increased from 66 to 84 beats/ min. He received IV fluid and returned home. Two days later he saw his primary care physician because of episodes of dizziness and confusion. The figure shows an electrocardiogram recorded during that visit. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_12524", "title": "Initial orthostatic hypotension as a cause of recurrent syncope: a case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 60-year-old male patient with recurrent unexplained syncope on standing was studied. During continuous, noninvasive blood pressure (BP) recording with a Finapres device, an abnormally large and symptomatic initial decrease in systemic BP was documented. After 2 minutes of standing, BP had recovered. The transient decrease in BP was attributed to the use of a combination of antidepressants known to interfere with sympathetic function. This case shows the importance of continuous, noninvasive BP measurement on standing: routine intermittent BP recording would have missed the abnormality. In patients using medications such as antidepressants, initial transient hypotension should be considered as the cause of falls and syncope." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_12274", "title": "[Life-threatening sleepwalking (Elpenor's syndrome) in a 10-year-old child].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Though benign in the majority of cases, sleepwalking sometimes causes injuries due, among other causes, to falls. Such accidents can be life-threatening - a situation that has been termed Elpenor syndrome (in reference to an accident experienced by a character in Homer's epic The Odyssey) - in particular when entailing defenestration. This syndrome has been described in adults and adolescents; we report here a case in a child. This 10-year-old girl was admitted at night to our hospital after a 3-m fall at home. She was alert (Glasgow score, 15) at admission; a frontal wound and a deformation of the right wrist were noted. Brain CT scans showed a frontal skull fracture and frontal lobe contusion, wrist x-rays showed a displaced right fracture. The patient underwent urgent neurosurgery (wound excision and suture after reduction of skull fracture) and closed reduction and immobilization of the wrist fracture, both under general anesthesia. She underwent a psychiatric assessment in the intensive care unit 3 days after her fall. She was alert, well-oriented in time and space, and spoke fluently. She had no memory of her fall, only remembering going to bed in the evening before the accident and waking up in the ambulance on the way to the hospital. She displayed no sign of a concurrent mental illness and no suicidal ideas. Her parents reported that the evening of the accident she and her two brothers had all fallen asleep about 11:00 pm while watching TV, in the double bed of the guest room, placed just beside its window. At approximately 1:00 am, her father, who was going to bed and had just made noise in the hall, heard a cry from the guest room. He entered the room immediately and saw the opened window and his daughter lying on the outside ground; the brothers only awakened after the fall. The family had returned 2 days before from a 6-month stay in the United States, with jet-lag, sleep deprivation, and a disorganized sleep/wake rhythm in the patient. There was no medication before the accident, no substance use (including caffeine), and no concurrent medical problem. Over the 2 preceding years, the patient had undergone two witnessed episodes of early-nighttime arousal with altered consciousness and calm wandering (including going downstairs on one occasion), both strongly suggesting sleepwalking. There was a history of sleepwalking in her father and her older brother. Life-threatening sleepwalking (Elpenor syndrome) was diagnosed. The child and her parents were educated about sleepwalking; regularization of sleep schedules and sleep extension (avoidance of sleep deprivation, short napping when possible) were prescribed. We also recommended securing the home (bed, windows, and stairways). No pharmacological treatment was instituted. During the following 18 months, the child manifested only one noted sleepwalking episode, without risk-taking. She had no neurological or psychopathological sequela from her accident, of which she never had a memory. Elpenor syndrome can occur in a child; consequently, it is important to inform parents of children with sleepwalking about the necessity of always securing the night-time environment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_12749", "title": "Postural hypotension in elderly family practice patients.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Postural hypotension (PH) was investigated in 100 ambulatory patients aged 65 years or older, who were seen in a university family practice clinic. Thirty-one percent had a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg or more, while 16 percent had a diastolic drop of 10 mmHg or more. Twelve percent had a significant drop in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure upon standing. Patients with both systolic and diastolic PH were more likely to have had a fall during the year prior to evaluation and decreased functional ability compared with those without PH. The group with systolic PH was more likely to have symptoms on standing and a history of weakness, but dizziness and lightheadedness were not correlated with PH. Postural hypotension occurred in only 13 percent of patients without risk factors for PH and in 35 percent of patients with risk factors. However, this difference was not statistically significant. Demographics and functional ability were similar between the risk factor groups. Thus, PH occurred frequently in our patients, could not be reliably predicted on the basis of risk factors or symptoms, and was correlated with a history of a recent fall and decreased functional ability." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0414_10991", "title": "Combination risperidone and SSRI-induced serotonin syndrome.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To report 2 cases of serotonin syndrome associated with combined therapy of risperidone and selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in elderly patients. An 86-year-old white man was admitted to the emergency department because of increased confusion and generalized weakness over the past several days. His medication history indicated paroxetine 10 mg/d and risperidone 0.25 mg/d. The patient's confusion worsened and underwent acute changes that resembled delirium. He was placed in a geri chair and he became extremely agitated. He was then treated with escalating doses of risperidone. The patient died on day 5 of admission, at which time he was being treated with risperidone 2-3 mg/d. A 78-year-old white female nursing home resident was admitted to the emergency department because of increased confusion and generalized weakness. She was being treated with paroxetine for depression and risperidone for agitation. Her risperidone dose was increased to manage agitation. The patient's agitation worsened with increasing doses of risperidone; she developed tremor, dizziness, and muscle incoordination. After psychopharmacologic consultation, the risperidone and paroxetine were discontinued and she was treated with lorazepam. The patient recovered, returned to baseline status in 2 days, and was later transferred back to the nursing home. We believe that in both cases, serotonin syndrome was precipitated by risperidone in combination with SSRI antidepressants. A literature search indicated one report of serotonin syndrome with a combination of risperidone and paroxetine. An objective causality assessment revealed that the adverse drug event was probable in the first patient and definite in the second patient. We caution clinicians treating elderly patients with combined risperidone and SSRIs to include serotonin syndrome in differential diagnosis if the patient is showing signs of increasing agitation with escalating doses of risperidone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0346_11815", "title": "[A study on fall accident].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The study was conducted from November 1995 to May 1996 at the one general hospital in Seoul. The total subjects of this study were 412 patients who have the experience of fall accident, among them 31 was who have fallen during hospitalization and 381 was who visited emergency room and out patient clinic. The purposes of this study were to determine the characteristics, risk factors and results of fall accident and to suggest the nursing strategies for prevention of fall. Data were collected by reviewing the medical records and interviewing with the fallers and their family members. For data analysis spss/pc+ program was utilized for descriptive statistics, adjusted standardized X2-test. The results of this study were as follows: 1) Total subjects were 412 fallers, of which 245 (59.5%) were men and 167 (40.5%) were women. Age were 0-14 years 79 (19.2%), 15-44 years 125 (30.4%), 45-64 years 104 (25.2%), over 65 years 104 (25.2%). 2) There was significant association between age and the sexes (X2 = 39.17, P = 0.00). 3) There was significant association between age and history of falls (X2 = 44.41, P = .00). And history of falls in the elderly was significantly associated with falls. 4) There was significant association with age and medical diagnosis (X2 = 140.66, P = .00), chief medical diagnosis were hypertension (34), diabetes mellitus (22), arthritis (11), stroke (8), fracture (7), pulmonary tuberculosis (6), dementia (5) and cataract (5). 5) There was significant association between age and intrinsic factors: cognitive impairment, mobility impairment, insomnia, emotional problems, urinary difficulty, visual impairments, hearing impairments, use of drugs (sedatives, antihypertensive drugs, diuretics, antidepressants) (P &lt; 0.05). But there was no significant association between age and dizziness (X2 = 2.87, P = .41). 6) 15.3% of total fallers were drunken state when they were fallen. 7) Environmental factors of fall accident were unusual posture (50.9%), slips (35.2%), trips (9.5%) and collision (4.4%). 8) Most of falls occurred during the day time, peak frequencies of falls occurred from 1 pm to 6 pm and 7 am to 12 am. 9) The places of fall accident were roads (22.6%), house-stairs (16.7%), rooms, floors, kitchen (11.2%), the roof-top, veranda, windows (10.9%), hospital (7.5%), ice or snowy ways (5.8%), bathroom (4.9%), playground, park (4.9%), subway-stairs (4.4%) and public-bathrooms (2.2%). 10) Activities at the time of fall accident were walking (37.6%), turning around or reaching for something (20.9%), going up or down stairs (19.2%), exercise, working (17.4%), up or down from a bed (2.7%), using wheelchair or walking aids, standing up or down from a chair (2.2%) and standing still (2.2%). 11) Anatomical locations of injuries by falls were head, face, neck (31.3%), lower extremities (29.9%), upper extremities (20.6%), spine, thorax, abdomen or pelvic contents (11.4%) and unspecified (2.9%). 12) Types of injures were fracture (47.6%), bruises (13.8%), laceration (13.3%), sprains (9.0%), headache (6.6%), abrasions (2.9%), intracranial hemorhage (2.4%) and burns (0.5%). 13) 41.5% of the fallers were hospitalized and average of hospitalization was 22.3 days. 14) The six fallers (1.46%) died from fall injuries. The two fallers died from intracranial hemorhage and the four fallers died of secondary infection; pneumonia (2), sepsis (1) and cellulitis (1). It is suggested that 1) Further study is needed with larger sample size to identify the fall risk factors. 2) After the fall accident, comprehensive nursing care and regular physical exercise should be emphasized for the elderly person. 3) Safety education and safety facilities of the public place and home is necessary for fall prevention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0951_16579", "title": "[Tips for taking the medical history in patients with syncope].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Transient loss of consciousness represents one of the most frequent reasons for patients to present in the emergency room. Already at the very beginning, the diagnostic work-up is faced with fundamental questions: (1) Was it really a loss of consciousness? (2) Which department (neurology, cardiology, or others) should check the patient? (3) Is an in-hospital diagnostic work-up required? These questions can be answered from a meticulous patient history which needs to be adjusted to the individual case but also has to systematically go through a list of questions. Patient history has to clarify whether syncope was present. Nonsyncopal events such as falls, transient global amnesia, epilepsy, psychogenic pseudosyncope, transient ischemic attack and drop attacks should be distinguished. In a second step, the four groups of causes of syncope can be assessed. Neurocardiogenic reflex syncope usually occurs with typical prodromes in typical situations in (younger) patients without heart disease. Orthostasis always occurs in upright position, typically associated with standing up and in patients treated with antihypertensive drugs. Arrhythmogenic syncope frequently shows an abrupt onset without prodromes, associated with injury and with palpitations or fast heart beat before the attack, in older patients frequently associated with known heart disease, in young patients without heart disease frequently with a family history positive for arrhythmias or sudden cardiac death. A positive history of structural cardiovascular disease should be considered as a cause of syncope, particularly if it occurs during exercise or in supine position, or is associated with chest pain or dyspnea. This review summarizes the most important questions that can elucidate the cause of syncope." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0867_4686", "title": "An 80-Year-Old Man With Dyspnea and Bilateral Pleural Effusions After Partial Nephrectomy for Renal Cell Carcinoma.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "An 80-year-old man presented because of superficial head trauma sustained after falling from bed. On review of systems, he reported worsening dyspnea on exertion, nonproductive cough, and weight loss over the preceding 2 to 3 months. There was no report of chest pain or leg swelling. He had a past medical history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, subclinical hypothyroidism, and renal cell carcinoma treated with partial right nephrectomy approximately 1 year before this presentation. Two months earlier he had been evaluated in the dermatology clinic for painful, dystrophic fingernails. At that time he was diagnosed with acropachy with onycholysis and suspected superinfection, and after failing to improve with vinegar soaks and topical antimicrobials, he underwent surgical nail removal on the second and fourth digits of the right hand. Histological examination of the operative specimens revealed dystrophic nails with negative fungal stains. His medications included levothyroxine, hydrochlorothiazide, and clopidogrel. He had never smoked and had done clerical work until retirement. He was originally from Colombia. " }, { "id": "article-26353_5", "title": "Orthostatic Syncope -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The history and physical examination are essential components in the evaluation of a patient with orthostatic syncope. The history may reveal a cause for hypovolemia such as vomiting, diarrhea, and decreased oral intake. Melena, hematemesis, hematuria, menorrhagia or hematochezia point to blood loss. Elderly deconditioned patients, especially after prolonged hospitalization, may have reduced muscle tone. Review of the patients' medication list may show polypharmacy, culprit medications (including diuretics, vasodilators, other antihypertensives) and steroids (a clue to steroid-induced adrenal insufficiency). Review of the past medical history will reveal associated predisposing medical conditions (diabetes, Parkinsonism, dementia)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_16097", "title": "[Amnesic presentations of the compulsive obsessional confusions (about 3 patients appearing in a consultation of memory)].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Disorders or complaints of memory are a frequent cause of consultation in depression, major anxiety and psychiatry disease with personality disorders. We report 3 patients with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), without diagnosis and treatment, examined in a specialized memory consultation. They always had OCD with cognitive checking. Diagnosis of transient global amnesia and temporal complex seizure were discussed in 2 cases. Psychometric impairment only was observed in first free recall of a verbal memory task and was no specific. Behavioural during testing seemed to be very important to analyse. First, a 49-year-old man consulted because he had stereotyped transient amnesia lasted one minute, 2 or 3 times a week, since 6 months. He was a teacher. Transient amnesia always occurred during lessons. Suddenly he didn't know where he was or what he was speaking about. Episodes lasted one minute. After them, he had no confusion and no difficulty in concentration but intense anxiety. In an another hand, when he was in his car, after lessons, he could forget where he was during some minutes. CT scan and EEG were normal. Neuropsychological tests only objectived impairment in first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. Patient explained that he could not prevent to check responses. He told us checking obsessive compulsive disorder during since long time ago. We discussed clear differences which existed between seizure and ruminations or preoccupations. Secondly, a 55-year-old woman was afraid of her memory performances. She was medical secretary and had no problem in her work but she would like a memory consultation to reassure herself. She was neither depressed nor anxious. She presented curious production in fluency task. She had to produce as many animals's names as possible: she could say 35 names which was an excellent performance but only in alphabetic order! Neuropsychological tests objectived impairment in her first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. She tried in her first free recall to remember words in alphabetic order. She explained how she was bound to range everything in alphabetic order! She had a lot of rituals. She thought that she had an obsessive compulsive disorder but never consulted about this. The observation illustrated suspiscions about memory operations which could be observed in patients group with obsessive compulsive disorders. Finally, a 62-year-old man told us that he had presented a transient global amnesia during 4 hours. He had an important appointment and was upset about that. He didn't go to it and wandered in his flat. He always asked the same questions and forgot everything. He had no neurological deficit. He was anxious, sad and cried several times. He perfectly remembered the episod and thought that he had a panic attack! Verbal memory tests only objectived difficulties in his first free recall of Grober and Buschke words as the two others patients. He had a story of obsessive compulsive disorder with checking and rituals. In this observation, we discussed clear differences which existed between panic attacks and global transient amnesia. We analyzed patterns of neuropsychological performances which illustrated clinical features of obsessive compulsive disorder. These three patients impaired in their first free recall of verbal memory task. It is not a specific result. We observed during psychometric evaluation, strategic processing which impaired episodic memory: patients tried to check their performances. Memory complaints only were observed in checking obsessive compulsive disorder. It is a difficulty or a doubt about memory capacities. Difficulties could be due to particular cognitive processes who pertubate normal memory capacities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0979_19159", "title": "[Infrequent systemic drug interaction: repeated syncope caused by combined treatment with timolol-containing eye drops and lercanidipine tablet].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The control and planning of the treatment of hypertensive patients need specific attention. As regards concomitant diseases and treatments, glaucoma and the use of eye drops should be taken into consideration. The ingredients of the administered eye drops get through the nasolacrimal canal and can be absorbed by the nasal mucosa. Because of the lack of enterohepatic 'first pass' effect, they can act systemically - like after intravenous administration. This way they can cause systemic side effects. The authors present a case of a patient, too, who was examined and medically checked regularly for years with negative results because of repeated syncope. It became clear only at the Hypertension Centre that the timolol-containing combined eye drops caused the symptoms. The authors draw attention to the fact that in the case of systemic side effects which can be connected to beta-blocking agents (blood pressure fall, bradycardia, breathing disturbance, depression), the role of the eye drops should be taken into consideration. At the same time, the possibility of the systemic drug interactions should not be forgotten either. The interaction with dihydropyridine-type calcium-channel blockers can be of great importance. In these cases, after consultation with an ophthalmologist, the glaucoma treatment with eye drops containing beta-blockers should be modified. Orv Hetil. 2019; 160(8): 309-313." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_20395", "title": "Postural blood pressure electrocardiographic changes are associated with falls in older people.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To determine the magnitude of postural blood pressure change, differences in ECG between fallers and non-fallers were measured. Postural blood pressure change is associated with symptoms of dizziness, presyncope, and syncope. In this cross-sectional study were included participants from The Malaysian Falls Assessment and Intervention Trial: fallers, aged 65 years or older with two or more falls or one injurious fall in 12 months, from a teaching hospital; and non-fallers, aged 65 years and older found through word-of-mouth and advertising. Noninvasive beat-to-beat blood pressure was measured at 10 min supine rest and 3 min standing. The maximal drop in systolic and diastolic pressure was calculated from a 12-lead ECG interpreted by a cardiologist. Basic demographics, medical history, and symptoms of dizziness, presyncope, and syncope were recorded for all patients. We recruited 155 fallers and 112 non-fallers. Fallers had a significantly longer PR interval (179 ± 32 vs. 168 ± 27 ms, p = 0.013) and a longer corrected QT interval (449 ± 41 vs. 443 ± 39 msec, p = 0.008), and larger change in SBP (28 ± 14 vs. 19 ± 9 mmHg, p &lt; 0.001) with posture change. SBP drop of ≥30mmHg associated with recurrent and injurious falls [odds ratio [95 % confidence interval] = 7.61 (3.18-18.21)]. The changes remained significant after adjustment for symptoms of dizziness, presyncope and syncope. Older individuals with recurrent and injurious falls have significantly longer PR and QT intervals and larger SBP reduction with posture change as compared to non-fallers, and these are not explained by the presence of dizziness, presyncope, or syncope. SBP cut-off of ≥30mmHg considered for postural measurements using continuous BP monitors, the significance of this value needs to be evaluated." }, { "id": "article-26353_7", "title": "Orthostatic Syncope -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Blood pressure and heart rate should be measured in supine and standing positions. As described above, orthostatic hypotension diagnosis is when there is a drop of greater than or equal to 20 mmHg or greater or equal to 10 mmHg in systolic and diastolic blood pressures, respectively within 3 minutes of standing. In the case of hypovolemia, there is also a compensatory rise in heart rate of greater than 15 beats/minute." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0725_8408", "title": "Penile angioedema developing after 3 years of ACEI therapy.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor-related angioedema (ACEI-RA) is a well-described condition, yet isolated genital ACEI-RA is a little-known entity. A case of isolated genital angioedema is presented with photographic documentation. Possible complications and therapeutic options are discussed. A 71-year-old man presented with painless, nonpruritic genital swelling of 4 h duration. Medical history included peptic ulcer disease, hypertension, and benign prostatic hypertrophy. His medications included pantoprazole, hydrochlorothiazide, and lisinopril, which he had been taking for 3 years without any recent change in dosing. He was otherwise asymptomatic and previously had been in good health generally. The physical examination was positive only for diffuse, soft, nonpitting edema isolated to the scrotum and uncircumcised penis. The foreskin was only partially retractable. Urinalysis was normal. All symptoms resolved without complications within 48 h of discontinuing lisinopril and had not recurred at follow-up 4 months later. All cases of ACEI-RA isolated to the genitals that have been reported in the literature resolved without complications. ACEI-RA can present as isolated swelling of the genitals and is a potential cause of genital swelling. Patients who have no evidence of airway compromise, paraphimosis, or urinary retention from complications such as phimosis can be safely discharged with instructions to discontinue the offending agent and to return in case of development of the aforementioned conditions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_50256", "title": "Comorbidity", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Patient S., 73 years, called an ambulance because of a sudden pressing pain in the chest. It was known from the case history that the patient suffered from CHD for many years. Such chest pains were experienced by her earlier as well, but they always disappeared after a few minutes of sublingual administration of organic nitrates. This time taking three tablets of nitroglycerine did not kill the pain. It was also known from the case history that the patient had twice suffered during the last ten years from myocardial infarction, as well as from Acute Cerebrovascular Event with sinistral hemiplegia more than 15 years ago. Apart from that the patient suffers from hypertension, type 2 diabetes with diabetic nephropathy, hysteromyoma, cholelithiasis, osteoporosis and varicose pedi-vein disease. It also came to knowledge that the patient regularly takes a number of antihypertensive drugs, urinatives and oral antihyperglycemic remedies, as well as statins, antiplatelet and nootropics. In the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_13843", "title": "Episodes of loss of consciousness in a patient with a background of cerebral venous thrombosis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Episodes of loss of consciousness are common, even in young, healthy people, and can sometimes represent a diagnostic challenge. The main diagnoses to consider are syncope and epileptic seizures, both of which may have similar symptomatology such as dizziness, loss of consciousness, falls, or \"convulsive\" phenomena. We present the case of a young male patient with a background of two venous thrombosis episodes (superior vena cava thrombosis and cerebral venous thrombosis), attributed to protein C and S deficiency and complicated by high intracranial pressure. A lumboperitoneal shunt was performed and anticoagulant therapy was initiated. He did not experience any medical problems until several years later, when he suddenly began to develop frequent, repetitive, transient episodes of dizziness, followed by loss of consciousness. Simultaneous video-EEG and ECG performed during these events showed a typical pattern normally observed during syncope. Due to the absence of changes in heart rate or blood pressure, and taking into account his medical history, intracranial hypertension was considered as a possible cause of cerebral hypoperfusion. Cerebral arteriography demonstrated chronic thrombosis of all the cerebral sinuses, and the lumbar puncture an intracranial pressure of 47 mm Hg. The lumboperitoneal shunt was replaced and the patient has since not presented with any episodes. The use of simultaneous video-EEG and ECG is a reliable and efficient approach to differentiate between syncope and seizure and in this case, was the key to finding the cause of these episodes. [Published with video sequences]. " }, { "id": "article-143691_11", "title": "Evaluation of the Dizzy and Unbalanced Patient -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Vital signs Frank hypotension Orthostatic hypotension (defined as blood pressure drop from sitting to standing:  systolic blood pressure decrease of 20 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg) Delayed orthostatic hypotension (usually detected on tilt-table testing)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_17716", "title": "Warfarin and royal jelly interaction.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "An 87-year-old African-American man came to the internal medicine clinic for a routine anticoagulation management visit. He had no complaints. His medical history was significant for stage IV-A follicular non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, atrial fibrillation, and hypertension. His long-term drug therapy consisted of warfarin, felodopine, lisinopril-hydrochlorothiazide, controlled-release diltiazem, potassium chloride, and oxycodone. He reported adherence with his prescribed drugs and denied taking any over-the-counter or herbal products. Overall, the patient's drug therapy had been consistent during the preceding 3 months, no significant changes had occurred in his clinical status, and no significant changes had been noted in his diet; his international normalized ratio (INR) had ranged from 1.9-2.4 (therapeutic range 2-3). He denied tobacco use, alcohol consumption, and recent travel. Four weeks later, the patient came to the emergency department with hematuria. He denied dysuria, taking more than the prescribed amount of warfarin, any changes in his diet, taking any over-the-counter or herbal products, and any other bleeding. On admission to the hospital, his INR was 6.88, which increased to 7.29 during his hospital stay. On further investigation, the patient admitted that he had started taking an herbal supplement, royal jelly, 1 week earlier. When asked specifically about the ingredients in the supplement, he stated that royal jelly was the only component. Relative to the patient's denial of any other changes in his condition or drug regimen, the most probable explanation for his elevated INR and subsequent bleeding is a possible interaction between royal jelly and warfarin. To our knowledge, no case reports concerning royal jelly and warfarin taken concomitantly have been reported. Clinicians should be proactive and repeatedly provide education regarding the potential dangers of dietary supplements taken with conventional drugs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_16262", "title": "Evaluation of syncope.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Syncopal episodes are relatively common. A variety of etiologies can underlie syncope, and the cause is often multifactorial. A thorough history and a complete physical examination are essential initial components in the evaluation of a patient with syncope. Prodromal symptoms often accompany fainting of vasovagal origin, while the occurrence of syncope without warning in a patient with cardiac problems suggests arrhythmia. Many medications, including antihypertensives, antidepressants and digitalis, may be responsible for episodes of fainting. The physical examination of a patient with a history of syncope includes measurement of orthostatic blood pressure, as well as careful cardiovascular and neurologic evaluations. The decision to use ancillary laboratory and electrocardiographic testing is guided by the patient's history and the findings on physical examination. Although new technologies, such as loop electrocardiography and tilt table tests, can aid in the diagnosis of syncope, they should not be used routinely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0256_2889", "title": "Adaptive rate pacing controlled by right ventricular preejection interval for severe refractory orthostatic hypotension.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A 72-year-old African-American man with frequent recurrent syncope was found to have severe refractory orthostatic hypotension with concomitant supine hypertension. Pharmacotherapy was successful in controlling his supine hypertension but was unable to resolve his severe orthostatic hypotension. Temporary fixed rate tachypacing was only minimally effective in preventing syncope during upright tilt, while variable rate pacing based on degree of blood pressure fall was far superior. Following these observations, an adaptive rate pacing system controlled by right ventricular preejection interval was implanted (Precept DR Model 1200). The system adequately sensed the patient's fall in blood pressure when sitting or standing and augmented its rate accordingly, thus preventing syncope. While supine, the pacing rate fell to 60 ppm, thereby, avoiding an exacerbation of his concomitant supine hypertension. Over a 3-month follow-up period, he has had no further orthostatic or syncopal episodes. We conclude that adaptive rate pacing using right ventricular preejection interval may be an effective treatment for severe refractory orthostatic hypotension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_1169", "title": "Dizziness and falling in elderly psychiatric outpatients.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The authors examined 100 psychiatric patients who were 60 years old and older for orthostatic hypotension and symptoms of dizziness and falling. Almost 40% of the patients complained of dizziness and falling, although only 27% had systolic orthostatic hypotension. Drug treatment, particularly the combination of tricyclics with other orthostatic hypotension-inducing drugs, was the most important factor accounting for the dizziness and falling. Underlying medical illness, particularly heart disease, also correlated significantly with the patients' symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_4804", "title": "Autism Spectrum Disorder and Mental Health Comorbidity Leading to Prolonged Inpatient Admission.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Sam is a 6-year-old boy with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) who recently relocated and has an appointment with you, his new pediatric clinician, to establish care. He was previously followed by a psychiatrist for 2 years for additional diagnoses of insomnia, bipolar disorder, anxiety, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and intellectual disability. He has tried and (apparently) failed multiple psychotropic trials including stimulants, nonstimulants, mood stabilizers, atypical antipsychotics, and nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics. He has a delayed sleep onset and frequent night awakenings each night for the past 3 months, during which he \"screams, cries, and thrashes and can stay up for over an hour.\" His behaviors are described as irritable, self-injurious, and aggressive with no clear pattern of triggers according to his mother. He is nonverbal and communicates by leading and rarely pointing. The patient's current medication regimen includes clonidine 0.2 mg at night, lorazepam 1.5 mg as needed at night, olanzapine 5 mg twice daily, and diphenhydramine as needed for sleep/agitation. His mother is concerned that he is developing \"tolerance\" to the regimen and wants to wean him off some of the medications. His mother is struggling to take care of the patient given his worsening behavior and body habitus (body mass index &gt;99%; z = 3.41).There is a family history of depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, and autism. He has a 3-year-old sister, who is also diagnosed with ASD, though she is not as severely impacted. His mother's partner recently moved in along with 2 children of his own, aged 3 and 4 years. Sam attends a specialized school, where he receives behavior therapy and occupational therapy. He has undergone inpatient pediatric hospitalization twice, 1 time for 3 weeks and the other for 6 days, for aggressive behavior, and in both instances, he was discharged before inpatient psychiatric placement because of a lack of available beds.After urgent consultation with your local developmental and behavioral pediatrician, a slight reduction was made in the lorazepam because of concerns about tolerance and side effects. However, within a week of this, he was brought to the emergency department for continued self-injurious behavior and increased trouble with sleeping. His mother voiced concerns about his safety in the home, which were particularly related to aggression toward his younger sister. He was admitted to the pediatric inpatient floor for observation, and medication adjustment (increasing olanzapine), which was initially helpful in improving behavior, but mostly behavioral/environmental strategies were used to soothe him, including frequent wagon rides through the hospital corridors.Despite the patient being stable from the medical standpoint, Sam's mother did not feel comfortable taking him home. Social work contacted local community mental health services to pursue outpatient resources and respite care options and sought inpatient pediatric psychiatry. After several failed attempts to find placement, he remained in pediatric inpatient care for 1 and a half months with no acute medical interventions other than his oral medications.He was finally accepted to the in-state pediatric psychiatric facility when a bed was available. During his week-long stay, he had further medication adjustments with a decrease in olanzapine and optimization of his clonidine dose. During his psychiatric hospital stay, care coordination succeeded in arranging center-based applied behavior analysis interventions and respite care and parent training for his family. Sam began to show improvement in his overall agitation and aggression, requiring less clonazepam, and his mother then maintained outpatient follow-up.The day before discharge, you visit him in the hospital, and a medical student asks you why he was in the hospital for so long. How would you answer the question?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_10304", "title": "Methodical history taking may help in timely diagnosis of spontaneous intracranial hypotension.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Orthostatic headache (OH) is a key symptom of spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH). However, there is no optimal history taking for OH. A 35-year-old man complained of headache that prevented him from performing routine physical activities, which was relieved on lying down. We initially considered migraine as the most likely diagnosis. However, detailed history taking revealed that his headache worsened on standing, and he was finally diagnosed with SIH. Headache relief on lying down is not a specific indicator of OH associated with SIH. Thus, with regard to headache history taking, we suggest it important to confirm headache aggravation on standing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1067_8055", "title": "Unexpected shock in a fallen older adult: a case report.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Falls are common in older adults and frequently require ambulance service assistance. They are the most frequent cause of injury and associated morbidity and mortality in older adults. In recent years, the typical major trauma patient has changed from being young and male to being older in age, with falls of &lt; 2 metres being the most common mechanism of injury. We present a case of an 84-year-old male who had fallen in his home. This case highlights the complex nature of a relatively common incident. The patient was laid on the floor in the prone position unable to move for 12 hours. He did not complain of any pain in his neck, back, hips or legs, and wished to be lifted off the floor promptly. On examination, he had bruising to his chest and abdomen and had suffered a suspected cervical spine injury due to a step-like protrusion around C5-C6. Distal sensory and motor function was intact. While in the ambulance his blood pressure dropped from 154/119 mmHg to 49/28 mmHg unexpectedly. We successfully reversed the shock using the modified Trendelenburg position and intravenous fluids. On follow-up he was diagnosed with dislocated C3, C6 and C7 vertebrae. The unexpected episode of shock witnessed in this patient may have been caused by a number of phenomena, including but not limited to crush syndrome, spinal cord concussion and orthostatic hypotension. We recommend that clinicians anticipate sudden shock in older adult patients who have fallen and a) have remained static on the floor for an extended period of time or b) are suspected of a spinal injury. We recommend assertive management of these patients to mitigate the impact of shock through postural positioning and consideration of early cannulation." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 233, 291 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 51 ] ], "text": "And certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 237, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 57 ] ], "text": "certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs compatible with malaria or typhoid fever." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 237, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 57 ] ], "text": "certainly she does not have symptoms or clinical signs compatible with malaria or typhoid fever." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 53, 159 ], [ 334, 414 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 11, 28 ], [ 57, 70 ] ], "text": "The 1 should not be because although the clinical picture is suggestive, it does not present lymphocytosis. What points to dengue, in addition to the clinical signs, is the plateletopenia." } }

{ "1": "Infectious mononucleosis.", "2": "Allergic exanthema.", "3": "P. falciparum malaria.", "4": "Typhoid fever.", "5": "Dengue fever." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_5664", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.017331932773109245, "content": "Philip J. Rosenthal, MD A 5-year-old American girl presents with a 1-week history of intermittent chills, fever, and sweats. She had returned home 2 weeks earlier after leaving the USA for the first time to spend 3 weeks with her grandparents in Nigeria. She received all standard childhood immunizations, but no additional treat-ment before travel, since her parents have returned to their native Nigeria frequently without medical consequences. Three days ago, the child was seen in an outpatient clinic and diagnosed with a viral syndrome. Examination reveals a lethargic child, with a temperature of 39.8°C (103.6°F) and splenomegaly. She has no skin rash or lymphadenopathy. Ini-tial laboratory studies are remarkable for hematocrit 29.8%, platelets 45,000/mm3, creatinine 2.5 mg/dL (220 μmol/L), and mildly elevated bilirubin and transaminases. A blood smear shows ring forms of Plasmodium falciparum at 1.5% parasit-emia. What treatment should be started?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0904_2108", "title": "First case of imported chikungunya infection in Croatia, 2016.", "score": 0.017095234703326447, "content": "In recent years, several European countries reported cases of imported chikungunya infection. We present the first imported clinically manifested chikungunya fever in Croatia. A 27-year-old woman returned to Croatia on 21 March 2016, after she stayed in Costa Rica for two months where she had noticed a mosquito bite on her left forearm. Five days after the mosquito bite she developed severe arthralgias, fever and erythematous papular rash. In next few days symptoms gradually subsided. After ten days she felt better, but arthralgias re-appeared accompanied with morning stiffness. Two weeks after the onset of the disease she visited the infectious diseases outpatient department. The physical examination revealed rash on the trunk, extremities, palms and soles. Laboratory findings showed slightly elevated liver transaminases. Serological tests performed on day 20 after disease onset showed a high titer of chikungunya virus (CHIKV) IgM and IgG antibodies which indicated CHIKV infection. CHIKV-RNA was not detected. Serology to dengue and Zika virus was negative. The patient was treated with nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs and paracetamol. Her symptoms ameliorated, however, three months later she still complaint of arthralgias. The presented case highlights the need for inclusion of CHIKV in the differential diagnosis of arthralgia in all travelers returning from countries with documented CHIKV transmission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_21223", "title": "Fever in returning travelers: a case-based approach.", "score": 0.016066589237320947, "content": "Overall, 3% to 19% of travelers to the developing world will return to the United States with fever or will develop fever within weeks of their return. When evaluating the returning traveler with fever, it is important to know which pretravel immunizations the patient received; which medications he or she took during travel; the likely pathogen exposures during travel; and the incubation interval between travel and onset of fever. A physical examination that includes a search for focal findings may narrow the list of possible infections. Fever compatible with a common illness that occurs in the United States (e.g., mononucleosis) should always be considered. If the patient has fever without a focus and a tropical infection is suspected, malaria, dengue fever, and typhoid fever are common causes. These infections may appear clinically similar, with symptoms of fever, headache, muscle pain, joint pain, and malaise, and decreased white blood cell and platelet counts. Malaria can usually be diagnosed with a thin blood smear. Dengue fever is a clinical diagnosis. Serologic testing for dengue virus immunoglobulin M and G and virus detection tests can be performed to confirm the diagnosis, but are not immediately available. Typhoid fever can usually be diagnosed with a blood, urine, or stool culture. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1021_13220", "title": "[Meningococcemia: Different Serotypes in the Same Region].", "score": 0.015549662487945998, "content": "Meningococcal infections are important health problems causing high morbidity and mortality. Neisseria meningitidis have 13 serogroups. A, B, C, Y and W135 are the most common causes of invasive disease among those serogroups. The distribution of the serogroups differs according to the geographical regions and the age groups. In this case report, two cases of meningococcemia infected with serogroup C and Y of N.meningitidis rarely seen in our country were presented. First case was a two and a half year-old female patient who has admitted to our pediatric emergency unit with fever and rash spreading from lower extremities to her body. The patient had diffuse purpuric rash with generalized weakness and tendency to sleep at admission. The patient has been suspected as meningococcemia because of the skin rash, tendency to sleep and hypotension. Antibiotics treatment was started immediately and lumber puncture was performed. In blood tests, leukocyte count: 3600/mm3 (61% neutrophils), hemoglobin: 11.1 g/ dl, platelet count: 127.000/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 10 mg/dl, erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 6 mm/ hour, prothrombin time: 28.8 seconds (normal value= 11-16), prothrombin activity: 36%, international normalized ratio (INR): 2.13 (normal value= 1-1.5), activated partial thromboplastin time: 57.7 seconds (normal value= 25-35 sec), fibrinogen: 246 mg/dl (normal value= 200-400 mg/dl) and in cerebrospinal fluid protein: 21 mg/dl and glucose: 62 mg/dl were found. There were eight cells in the microscopic examination. Skin rashes were increased and the patient became hypotensive. No microorganisms were isolated in blood and cerebrospinal cultures. N.meningitidis serogroup C was isolated from the cerebrospinal fluid of the patient using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The patient suffered from immune-mediated arthritis in the sixth day of treatment and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs were given. The patient has recovered with antibiotics, fresh frozen plasma and inotropic treatment. Second case was a 13 year-old male patient who has admitted three days after the first case with a pre-diagnosis of malignancy because of pancytopenia and fever. The patient had generalized weakness and a few petechial purpuric rashes at the facial region at admission. After the admission general status of the patient has worsened rapidly and he has died as a result of cardiovascular arrest. Blood tests in admission showed leukocyte count: 6000/mm3 (79% neutrophils), hemoglobin: 17.3 mg/dl, platelet count: 16.000/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 8.63 mg/dl, prothrombin time: 92.6 seconds, prothrombin activity: 10%, INR: 6.78, activated partial thromboplastin time: 231.5 seconds. Cerebrospinal fluid obtained from postmortem lumbar puncture showed no growth (protein: 95 mg/dl, glucose: 35 mg/dl) and N.meningitidis serogroup Y was detected by PCR. Two meningococcemia cases caused by two different serogroups which are rarely seen in our region in recent years were presented at the same time period in the same hospital. This case report pointed out that surveillance has a great importance in such diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_14104", "title": "The spotted traveller.", "score": 0.014467535050213781, "content": "A 23 year old university student comes to see you with a febrile illness and a rash. She has just returned from a 6 week holiday in South East Asia having visited Thailand, Vietnam, Hong Kong and the Philippines. Prior to going away she went to a travel clinic, was appropriately immunised and given malaria prophylaxis which she has taken assiduously. Her symptoms have been present for about 3 days and consist of severe retro-orbital headache, diffuse myalgias, fevers and chills, and anorexia. The rash appeared the day before on her trunk and is now beginning to involve her arms with a slight papular element. She also has conjunctival haemorrhages and is febrile with a temperature of 38.9 degrees C. A full blood count done urgently does not show any malaria parasites but does reveal a low platelet count of 85,000 x 10(6)/L." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0303_8972", "title": "[Post-infectious systemic vasculitis: recovery without corticotherapy].", "score": 0.013917159763313609, "content": "In the most cases the causes of systemic vasculitis are unknown and treatment is symptomatic (corticosteroids often associated with immunosuppressive agents). We report three cases of systemic vasculitis associated with infections for which dramatic improvement was observed without cortico-therapy (in two patients). CASE REPORT 1: A previously overweight 72-year-old woman was admitted because of a one-year history of fever, fourteen kilogram weight loss, vascular purpura, and polyneuropathy. Abnormal laboratory values included inflammatory syndrome [erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 80mm/first hour, thrombocytosis: 500,000/microliter, hypereosinophilia (1200/microliter) and positive perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA) [anti-myelo-peroxydase antibodies: 30 U (normal &lt; 7)]. Neuromuscular biopsy showed necrotizing vasculitis involving small and medium arteries. Further studies revealed a florid diverticulosis of the colon and no other severe visceral involvement. Treatment was started then with sigmoidectomy. Within six weeks her general condition improved dramatically without corticotherapy: regression of all systemic manifestations, the ESR normalized, and p-ANCA became negative. Ten months later she was still asymptomatic. CASE REPORT 2: An 50-year-old-man developed a progressive fifteen-kilogram weight loss (within 2 months), severe polyneuropathy of all four limbs. His ESR was 120 mm/first hour, and C-reactive protein 200 mg/l. Neuromuscular biopsy showed necrotizing vasculitis affecting small vessels in the nerve and no immune deposits. Stomatologic examination revealed a multiple foci of dental infections. The extraction of all these foci of infections associated with antibiotics improved dramatically all systemic manifestations (within eight weeks), once more without corticotherapy. Eight months later the patient remained asymptomatic. CASE REPORT 3: A 30-year-old-woman was admitted because of five-week history of fever, myalgias, polyarthritis, and cutaneous nodules in her limbs. Abnormal laboratory values included inflammatory syndrome, proteinuria of 0.7 g/day, and a significant rise in Chlamydia trachomatis antibodies titres from 1/64 to 1/256 over a 5 week period. She had a previous history of genital condyloma. The prednisone initialed (0.5 mg/kg/day) twelve days prior to admission was gradually reduced (stopped within 2 months) and treatment with doxycycline (200 mg/day) was initiated. Within six weeks of antibacterial treatment we assisted to a total regression of the initial clinical manifestations and laboratory values became normalized. Ten months later she remained asymptomatic. In systemic vasculitis, investigations in a search of foci of infections are of dual interest: possible etiologic agent like our case reports (strong evidence for an infectious association) and, from a therapeutic perspective, we must identify the microbes behind vasculitis syndromes, since treatment with corticosteroids may have serious consequences if the patient has an active infectious disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_21564", "title": "[Travel Related Fever and Rash: Two Cases of Dengue Fever].", "score": 0.013842322061500142, "content": "The frequency of travel-related infections in the world has increased due to the easily and widespread use of travel facilities in the 21st century. Vector-borne diseases are an important part of infectious diseases. Dengue fever is one of the travel-related infections that has been reported increasingly in recent years through the development of diagnostic methods. The aim of this report was to present two Dengue fever cases originating from travel. There was a story of mosquito bite during a trip to Sri Lanka travel in our first case. The patient was 30 years old and maculopapular rash appeared on the fifth day of contact. Three days after the onset of the rash, she has admitted to our clinic, complaining with fever and chills. Increased leukopenia and muscle enzymes were detected in the laboratory analysis. Real-time reverse transcriptase polimerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) was positive in the serum sample. The patient was followed up with supportive care and discharged by improvement. The second case, a 24-year-old male, had a story of mosquito bite during his trip to Malaysia. After the patient complained of fever, chills, fever, nausea, vomiting and muscle pain, the Dengue virus (DENV) NS1 antigen test performed in this country was found to be positive. In the second case, there was no maculopapular rash and laboratory analysis showed an increase in leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and muscle enzymes. RT-PCR positivity was detected in the serum sample. The patient was followed up with supportive treatment and discharged with cure. DENV infections are caused by DENV which is common in the tropical areas of the world. There are four DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3 and DENV-4 serotypes. DENV infections can present different clinical manifestations such as asymptomatic disease, viral syndrome, Dengue haemorrhagic fever, and Dengue shock syndrome. Dengue fever is often accompanied by arthritis, maculopapular rash and high fever. Our cases were defined as Dengue fever according to this definition. In the diagnosis of the disease, it is necessary first to be suspicious of the disease and the travel history must be questioned. In the definitive diagnosis, virus isolation, antigen, nucleic acid detection and serological tests are used. The virus can be isolated from blood, serum, urine and tissues. In the first five days after beginning of the symptoms associated with DENV infections, serum RT-PCR and Dengue NS1 antigen test may be positive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0714_15482", "title": "[Two travellers suffering from typhus].", "score": 0.012593762337149626, "content": "Endemic typhus, caused by Rickettsia typhi, belongs to the typhus group of the rickettsioses. The disease is prevalent worldwide and is probably an underestimated cause of illness accompanied by fever in travellers, due to its frequently mild presentation and resemblance to diseases like typhoid- or dengue fever. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are not effective in the treatment of endemic typhus, but the disease is responsive to doxycycline. A 57-year-old man and a 36-year-old woman, who had returned from Indonesia and Nepal and Tibet, respectively, both presented with fever, malaise, headache and arthromyalgia, and both developed a skin rash. A diagnosis of typhoid- or dengue-fever was suspected at first. The first patient improved after empirical treatment with doxycycline, the second recovered following treatment with azithromycin. Blood cultures and viral serology remained negative. Additional serology showed evidence of infection with R. typhi. Both patients made a complete recovery. Endemic typhus should be included in the differential diagnosis of illness accompanied by fever in travellers, especially if blood cultures remain negative and no improvement is seen with broad-spectrum antibiotics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0772_16753", "title": "First Iranian imported case of dengue.", "score": 0.011236308699483822, "content": "Dengue fever, a mosquito-borne flavivirus infection, is endemic in Southeast Asia. Currently, incidences have been increasing among adults. There have been no published reports of dengue fever from Iran. Widespread connection between different countries may predispose them for acquisition of infection. The patient was a 58-year-old Iranian woman with acute unexplained high-grade fever for 4 days, associated with skin rash, after returning from Southeast Asia. CBC showed WBC = 1600/mm(3) and platelet count 99,000/mm(3). The patient also had hematuria. ELISA immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies to dengue and serum RT-PCR for dengue virus was positive. The patient managed with conservative treatment and due to good general condition and improvement specific antiviral treatment was not started. She became afebrile at the 3(rd) day of hospitalization and discharged with good general condition on fourth day. She was afebrile after two weeks follow-up. Dengue fever has been increasing among adults. It should be suspected, when a patient presents with acute febrile illness and skin rashes returning from endemic region. Conservative treatment may be conducted in uncomplicated cases. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en283_3986", "title": "The Biggest Loser Asia (season 1)", "score": 0.010977721682467932, "content": "The next day, Damietta was suffering from a high fever. Despite taking medication and getting a dose of antibiotics from the doctor the night before, her condition still does not improve. The doctor becomes concerned that Damietta could be suffering from Dengue fever and decides that it is best to send her to the hospital for a blood test. Both teams experienced a rigorous bootcamp-style training in the mud and rain for their last chance workout. At the weigh-in, since Damietta still has not returned from the hospital, she was automatically excluded from the weigh-in, evening out the numbers between the blues and reds. Once again Tony needed 2 kg. He lost 5 and The Blue Team eventually won 27-23." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_17938", "title": "[Comparison of symptoms and clinical and laboratory findings in the first and last weeks of typhoid fever].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In this study we examined the clinical and laboratory findings of 80 in-patients. There is an important difference between sexes (p greater than 0.05). Comparison of ages showed that 7-30 age is more vulnerable than the older group. We found clinical symptoms of fever, chills, headache, abdominal pain, disturbances in bowel function, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and lassitude in the first two weeks more frequently when compared with the 3rd, 4th, 5th weeks of illness (p less than 0.001). Where physical finding of rose spots, discordant pulse rate are important in the first two weeks (p less than 0.001). Abdominal discomfort is an important symptom both in the first two and in the last three weeks (% 40.3 and % 36 respectively). Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, were found more frequently in the last three weeks. According to laboratory findings of anemia, leukopenia, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive blood and feces cultures there is no important difference between the first two and last three weeks (p greater than 0.05). Increase in polynuclear leucocytes is important for the first two weeks, and increase in lymphocytes is important in the last three weeks (p less than 0.001). Positivity of group agglutination tests is 57%, in the first two weeks and 83% in the last three weeks. This difference is found to be important." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0848_8151", "title": "[A Case of Dengue Fever and Subsequent Long-lasting Depression Accompanied by Alopecia in a Japanese Traveler Returning from Bali, Indonesia].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Recovery from dengue fever is generally rapid and uneventful. However, recuperation is often prolonged and may be accompanied by noticeable depression. We present herein on a traveler to Indonesia who developed long-lasting depression after the classic symptoms of dengue fever such as fever, arthralgia, and macropapular rash had resolved. A previously healthy 42-year old japanese woman presented to the Travel Clinic of Seirei Yokohama Hospital with complaints of 4 days of fever, joint aches, bone pain, and a macropapular rash on her torso. She had returned from Bali 5 days previously. During her 1-week stay, one day was spent in rural, mountainous areas where she was exposed to several mosquito bites. The 1st serum sample collected 4 days after the disease onset gave positive result in the rapid dengue IgM antibody test and the rapid dengue NS1 antigen immunechromatographic test. The DENV-1 genome was detected with RT-PCR. Her 13-year old son, who had accompanied her, was also diagnosed as having dengue fever and he recovered without event. The Above-mentioned symptoms resolved within one week. However, the patient suffered from prolonged depression. She also noticed loss of hair 3 months after the disease onset Administration of a Serotonin-Noradrenalin Reuptake Inhibitor and a minor tranquillizer required to allow her requied to lead a normal life. Although she gradually felt better, it took approximately 2 years until she had recovered completely without taking any antidepressant and minor tranquillizer. It is a well-known fact in endemic countries that dengue fever could have an significant impact on the patients' mental well-being. However, it appears that physicians in non-endemic countries are not fully aware of the prolonged depression, which can occur subsequent to the acute illness. Follow-up consultations of returing travelers who have recoverd from dengu fever should be arranged to monitor their mental and emotional states closely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0999_21252", "title": "Adult-onset Still's Disease as a Differential Diagnosis in Prolonged Fever: Diagnosis and Treatment Experience.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Adult onset Still's disease is a rare systemic disease that may involve many organs and may mimick many disease such as infection, autoimmune disease, and also malignancy. The diagnostic approach and treatment strategies have not been well established due to its rarity; however, there are some diagnostic criteria that may help. We present a case of 36-year old man who experienced high prolonged fever which firstly thought as infection. He also had unilateral wrist and knee joint pain and maculopapular rash. Laboratory examination showed high leukocytes count with elevated polymorphonuclear neutrophil count, high platelet count, high ferritin level, and negative results of many infection markers (typhoid antibody, procalcitonin, malaria test, blood culture, urine culture, IgM pneumonia, ASTO, syphilis test, antiHIV, HBsAg, antiHCV, etc). Chest X-ray, joint X-ray, ultrasonography, and echocardiography showed normal result. The patient was then diagnosed with Adult-onset Still's disease and received intravenous methylprednisolone and the fever was disappeared in 3 days. Six months later the arthralgia appeared again, methotrexate was administered and the pain was then relieved." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0927_22711", "title": "Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease: an unusual presentation of meningitis in a returning traveller.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 19-year-old, previously healthy woman developed a pruritic erythematous maculopapular rash on her bilateral palms and wrists, right-sided tender cervical lymphadenopathy and nightly fevers and headaches 5 days after returning from a 1-month trip to Cambodia. She presented 2 weeks after her trip due to ongoing nightly fevers to a maximum of 38.8°C. She was given empiric doxycycline for possible rickettsial disease, though an extensive infectious workup returned without positive findings. Lumbar puncture was performed on hospital day 4, and spinal fluid analysis was consistent with aseptic meningitis. On hospital day 5, core biopsy and fine-needle aspiration were performed on the largest anterior cervical lymph node. Her fever curve gradually improved, and she was discharged on hospital day 6. Results of the lymph node biopsy were finalized 5 days after discharge and were compatible with Kikuchi's lymphadenitis. Symptoms had completely resolved on follow-up with infectious disease and rheumatology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0873_8740", "title": "[The 451(th) case: intermittent rash, fever and headache].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the Department of Rheumatology, Peking Union Medical College Hospital due to intermittent rashes, fever and headache. Palpable purpura were symmetrically distributed on the extremities and trunk. Other manifestations included headache with nausea and vomiting. Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, platelet (PLT) count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein were the main laboratory findings. Antinuclear antibodies and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies were negative. Examination of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) revealed high intracranial pressure, while routine cytology and biochemical tests of CSF were normal. Head MRI scan and PET-CT did not detect remarkable findings. A diagnosis of systemic vasculitis was confirmed by the biopsy of skin lesion which showed inflammatory infiltration of the muscular vessel wall. Combination therapy of corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide lead to a rapid improvement in clinical symptoms and laboratory parameters. The patient was in stable remission till 6 month follow-up. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1114_16250", "title": "Blackwater Fever in Pregnancy With Severe Falciparum Malaria: A Case of Imported Malaria From Nigeria to the United Kingdom During the COVID-19 Pandemic.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We present the case of imported malaria in pregnancy to the United Kingdom (UK) from Nigeria, where a 28-year-old primigravida presented to our maternity assessment unit (MAU) with complaints of pyrexia, rigors and passing dark coloured urine. She gave a travel history of recent migration from Nigeria 10 days before presenting to our emergency department. She initially became unwell five days after her arrival with general malaise and myalgia. On day six, she developed lower abdominal pain and observed that her urine was dark in colour. This prompted her to contact her general practitioner (GP). Treatment for a urinary tract infection was initiated by the GP after a phone consultation in keeping with COVID-19 contingency guidance, and the patient was prescribed antibiotics for three days. She presented to the emergency department two days after completing the course of antibiotics where she complained of worsening pelvic pain, reduced foetal movements and passing black urine. She was treated as suspected COVID-19 and red flag sepsis. Obstetric review led to investigation and diagnosis of severe malaria in pregnancy, which was accompanied by blackwater fever (BWF). The patient recovered after three doses of artesunate. An ultrasound scan of the foetus revealed a congenital cardiac anomaly, which had not been detected in an earlier scan. There was no evidence of congenital malaria in the neonate after delivery. There are several novel aspects in this case as maternal mortality in severe <iPlasmodium falciparum</i can be significantly high. Those who survive the disease in pregnancy are also known to develop several complications such as intrauterine death and preterm labour. There was also the component of blackwater fever, which is a rare event associated with severe malaria, and it also has a mortality rate. Significant in her medical history was a diagnosis of the sickle cell trait, and we postulate that this feature gave an added protection from the complications of severe malaria in pregnancy as well as blackwater fever." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0498_10724", "title": "Infectious disease capsules: a pox on your house.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 31-year-old, previously healthy white man presented to the emergency department with complaints of malaise, fevers, shortness of breath, a non-productive cough, and a \"rash.\" His physical exam revealed a temperature of 100.2F, a pulse of 129 bpm, respiratory rate of 14 BPM, and blood pressure of 140/74 mm Hg. He was alert, oriented, and in no distress. His oropharynx was dry, his neck was supple, and cervical lymphadenopathy was absent. He had tachycardia, bilateral wheezes, and rhonchi with prolonged expirations. There was a diffuse vesicular eruption enveloping his entire body with involvement sparing his palms and soles (Figures 1 and 2). Laboratory values showed a hemoglobin of 16.0 g/dL and a white blood cell count of 7100 cells/pL, with 39%neutrophils, 23% bands, and 35% lymphocytes. His platelet count was mildly decreased to 86,000 x 103/pL. Chest radiograph revealed bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates. A diagnosis of acute varicella-zoster virus pneumonia (varicella pneumonia) was made, and the patient was started on IV acyclovir (10 mg/kg every 8 hours). Upon further questioning, the patient stated that his daughter had been diagnosed with \"chickenpox\" 7 days ago. The patient had numerous exposures to chickenpox in the past but had never developed clinical expressions of varicella. He was not at risk for HIV infection, not having multiple sexual partners, IV drug abuse, or blood transfusions. During the 1 day of in-hospitalization, his fever abated and the pulmonary signs diminished. Following discharge, IV acyclovir was replaced by valacyclovir to complete a 7-day course of therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0742_14680", "title": "Two contrasting post-zoster dermatomal phenomena.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 29-year-old, normotensive, nondiabetic man presented with a 9-day history of a scaly, pruritic eruption involving the right chest, axilla, and arm. He had a history of herpes zoster involving the same areas about 4 weeks ago. The present eruption started after the herpetic lesions had healed. Examination revealed scaly, erythematous plaques and papules involving the right side of the chest, axilla, and arm in a dermatomal pattern (figure 1). Removal of the scales revealed underlying bleeding points (positive Auspitz sign). The rest of the body, including scalp, palms, soles, and nails, were normal. There was no history suggestive of psoriasis in any family member. Systemic examination and routine investigations were noncontributory. A clinical diagnosis of psoriasis was made and confirmed by histopathologic examination of a skin biopsy sample. The patient was prescribed a topical clobetasol cream and oral levocetirizine. The eruption resolved completely after 3 weeks. A 43-year-old normotensive, nondiabetic woman presented with a 2-day history of fever, arthalgias, and generalized erythematous dermatitis. Five days ago, the patient had a toothache for which she was prescribed injectable ampicillin. After receiving ampicillin for 3 days, she developed fever, myalgias, and arthalgias, which was followed several hours later by an erythematous eruption. The dermatitis started on the trunk and, over a period of several hours, progressed to involve the face and limbs. The eruption was slightly pruritic. History revealed herpes zoster 7 months ago involving left thoracic dermatomes, for which the patient was treated with valacyclovir (1 g thrice a day x 7 days) and analgesics. There was no history of post-zoster neuralgia. On examination, the patient was febrile (oral temperature 102 degrees F), her heart rate was 118 beats per minute, and her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. Cutaneous examination revealed an erythematous, maculopapular dermatitis involving the face and limbs in a bilaterally symmetrical pattern; the palms and soles were also bilaterally involved. The whole of the trunk was involved with erythematous and, in places, violaceous, maculopapular eruption except for a small area on the left side corresponding to T8 and T9 thoracic dermatomes (Figure 2). Complete blood cell counts revealed eosinophilia (9%) and liver function tests, kidney function tests, random blood sugar, routine urine examination, and blood and urine cultures were noncontributory. Histopathologic examination of lesional skin biopsy revealed an intense mononuclear cell infiltration with many eosinophils and an interface dermatitis with hydropic degeneration of basal keratinocytes, while in the spared area, only slight lymphocytic infiltration was present in a perivascular distribution. Based on the history and examination, a diagnosis of ampicillin-induced drug dermatitis was made. The ampicillin was stopped and the patient was put on a short course of oral prednisolone, antipyretics, and topical calamine. The patient was afebrile in 2 days and the eruption resolved completely in 8 days." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0327_7129", "title": "[Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis, a tick-borne disease].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 69-year-old male presented at a first-aid department in Connecticut (USA) with severe headache, fever and myalgia of three days' duration. Just before he became ill, an engorged tick had been noted on his back and removed. Laboratory results included a decreased white cell count and platelet count and elevated transaminases. So-called morulae consisting of microorganisms were detected in a peripheral blood smear of the day of admission. Treatment for human granulocyte ehrlichiosis with doxycycline for two weeks resulted in prompt and full recovery and after four weeks repeat laboratory tests were all within normal limits. Human granulocyte ehrlichiosis should be considered in a patient with a recent tick bite who develops fever, headache and myalgias, in the presence of leukopenia or thrombocytopenia, even in Western Europe." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_22256", "title": "A fever from the tropics.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Shirley is a 42 year old woman who has rung you 5 days after returning from a 3 week resort holiday in Malaysia and Thailand. You saw her before her trip and administered a hepatitis A vaccine and advised her that she did not require anti malarial drugs as she was only going to large cities and beach resorts. She says she has had a high fever, headache and body aches for several days and that she feels exhausted, but is well enough to come to the surgery. When you see her later that morning, she looks fairly well, although she is moving rather gingerly. She says she has been resting, is drinking lots of fluids, has some anorexia, but no other significant symptoms. Examination reveals a temperature of 38 degrees C and she has a fine morbilliform rash on her body, limbs and neck. There are no other abnormal findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0051_14159", "title": "[Fever, headache, diarrhea].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 26-year-old man suddenly developed fever, headache, pain in the lower extremities, diarrhoea, and lymphadenopathy on the way back from Thailand. Subsequently, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, coagulation abnormality and a morbilliform exanthema were noted. With symptomatic treatment the patient could be dismissed in good health after nine days. The diagnosis of Dengue and Campylobacter jejuni/coli infection could be verified serologically by a rising antibody titer and by a positive stool culture respectively." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_4736", "title": "Vertical transmission of dengue: first case report from Bangladesh.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We report a case of vertical transmission of dengue infection in a new born from Bangladesh. The mother was primigravida with an uneventful antenatal period except the fever she developed at 37 weeks of gestation. She underwent cesarean section for decreased fetal movement. The fever lasted for 7 days and was associated with intense bodyache, and a positive tourniquet test. She did not experience any hemorrhages including from the surgical wound. Her platelet count fell at its lowest to 100,000/mm3. She had bilateral mild pleural effusions and positive anti-dengue antibodies (both IgG and IgM). She received symptomatic treatment. The baby was deeply meconium stained and was resuscitated by a pediatrician. His postnatal period went well until day-3 of life when he developed fever and respiratory distress. There were no signs of meconiun aspiration syndrome (MAS) and the septic work up was negative. The platelets count fell to its lowest of 40,000/mm3 on day-3 and day-5 of his illness. Anti-dengue antibodies (both IgG and IgM) were positive with a nearly four-fold rise of IgM antibodies in the convalescent sera. The boy was treated with platelet transfusions and was discharged on day-6 after becoming ill. This report emphasizes that in a dengue epidemic or when dengue is endemic (which Bangladesh has experienced recently), a pregnant woman with fever, myalgia and/or bleeding manifestations should raise a high suspicion that the baby may develop the disease, and both the mother and baby should be closely followed-up. Viral isolation could not be done due to the unavailability of the test." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step1_803", "title": "First_Aid_Step1", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Chest pain with ST depressions on ECG Angina (⊝ troponins) or NSTEMI (⊕ troponins) 307 fever following MI fibrinous pericarditis, 2 weeks to several months after acute episode) Painful, raised red lesions on pads of fingers/toes Osler nodes (infective endocarditis, immune complex Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis, septic emboli/ 311 microabscesses) Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers Roth spots (bacterial endocarditis) Distant heart sounds, distended neck veins, hypotension Beck triad of cardiac tamponade Cervical lymphadenopathy, desquamating rash, coronary Kawasaki disease (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, 314 aneurysms, red conjunctivae and tongue, hand-foot treat with IVIG and aspirin) changes Palpable purpura on buttocks/legs, joint pain, abdominal Immunoglobulin A vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein 315 pain (child), hematuria purpura, affects skin and kidneys)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0800_4179", "title": "[Hemorrhagic dengue and vertical transmission to the newborn: a case report and literature review].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To describe the case of a patient with term pregnancy and infection with hemorrhagic dengue and vertical transmission to the newborn. Thirty-two year old patient with pregnancy at 38 weeks was admitted with fever 2 days earlier (38 degrees C). During her stay she continued with fever of 39 degrees C and platelets of 85,000/mm3. Serology for dengue NS1 antigen was reported positive. Labor was induced getting a new-born, male, 3,220 g, who breathed and cried at birth. During the postpartum period continued with fever, malaise, retro-ocular pain, generalized rash in upper and lower limbs, bleeding gums and petechial on the soft palate and thrombocytopenia of 5,000/mm3, later. At 8 days of stay, platelet concentration increased to 42,000/mm3 without requiring platelet concentrates and she was discharged after ten days in hospital with platelets of 94,000/mm3. The 4th day of extra-uterine live (EUL), neonate shows generalized rash over the trunk; The 5th day starts with 38 degrees C fever and thrombocytopenia (78,000/mm3). Dengue serological tests reported positive for Ag NS1 and negative for Abs IgM and IgG. Neonate was admitted to NICU, he continued with a decrease in platelet of 14,000/mm3- and ecchymotic areas by pressure and veno-punction sites. Four platelet concentrates were transfused. At 10th day of EUL platelet count was reported with 387,000/mm3. In an endemic area, such as Sinaloa state, in a pregnant woman with fever and thrombocytopenia, we should be alert to possibility of a DV infection and its complications. Although rare, such as this case, infection can be transmitted to fetus (vertical transmission) and produce a primary congenital dengue, even in its severe hemorrhagic types." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0886_1375", "title": "What is that rash?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A healthy 15-month-old girl presented to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of fever and rash. The initial blanching rash developed into non-blanching areas with associated leg swelling. She had received no recent medications, had no known drug allergies and no unwell contacts.On examination, she was feverish at 38.6°C, capillary refill time was &lt;2 s with warm peripheries, heart rate 169 bpm and blood pressure 94/59 mm Hg. A palpable purpuric rash was evident on all four limbs and face (figure 1) although the trunk was spared. Her legs were tense and oedematous to the knee.edpract;103/1/25/EDPRACT2016311782F1F1EDPRACT2016311782F1Figure 1Rash at presentation.Initial investigations: Haemoglobin level: 131 g/L, white cell count: 16.6×10<sup9</sup/L, neutrophils: 11.1×10<sup9</sup/L and platelets: 407×10<sup9</sup/LCoagulation screen: normalC reactive protein level: 20 mg/LLactate level: 1.7 mmol/LIntravenous ceftriaxone was commenced following blood culture and meningococcal PCR. The following day, while remaining systemically well, she developed a vesicular rash on her trunk and back (figure 2).edpract;103/1/25/EDPRACT2016311782F2F2EDPRACT2016311782F2Figure 2Vesicular rash. What is the diagnosis? Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)Meningococcal septicaemiaAcute haemorrhagic oedema of infancy (AHOI)Vasculitic urticariaGianotti-Crosti syndromeWhat further investigation is required? Check viral serology including Epstein-Barr virus and hepatitis B virusComplement levels and autoimmune screenSkin biopsyLumbar puncture and audiologyNo further investigationHow should this child be managed? Complete 7 days of ceftriaxone treatmentOral aciclovirOral steroidsRegular follow-up with urinalysis and blood pressure monitoringStop antibiotics if cultures were negative at 48 hours and discharge<iAnswers are on page</i▪▪." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_3313", "title": "Diffuse rash and cough in elderly woman with a UTI.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 66-year-old woman came into the emergency department with a diffuse rash and a cough. She had a rash on the palms of her hands, which had developed the day before, but had improved a bit. She also had a rash on her feet, legs, and lower abdomen, which had developed that morning. She said that over the previous 2 days she had had a fever, dry cough, and some difficulty breathing. Her past medical history was significant for asthma, diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Her medications included atenolol, celecoxib, metformin, pioglitazone, and an albuterol inhaler, as needed. In addition, she was on the ninth day of a 10-day course of nitrofurantoin for acute cystitis. She was allergic to ampicillin and erythromycin. On physical exam, she had a fever of 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit. On lung examination, she had diffuse wheezes and mild bibasilar crackles. Examination of her skin revealed a nonpainful, nonpruritic, erythematous, maculopapular rash located on the palms and legs, as well as on her lower abdomen. Chest radiograph showed mild opacification in the bases of the lungs. What is your diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0993_12941", "title": "[Relapsing fever after travelling in the tropics; a story with a twist].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Relapsing fever is an infectious disease caused by Spirochaetes. The presentation is characterised by recurrent episodes of fever. At the end of her trip through South Africa and Botswana, a 54-year-old woman had symptoms of fever and dry cough. Back in the Netherlands, physical examination at the emergency department did not reveal any abnormalities besides fever. Laboratory investigation found thrombocytopenia and elevated infection markers. Thick blood smear revealed the presence of Spirochaetes. Following a working diagnosis of 'relapsing fever', the patient was treated with doxycycline. There was no Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction. At a follow-up outpatient appointment two weeks later, the patient had fully recovered. Relapsing fever is a rare disease without specific symptoms. The diagnosis is therefore easily overlooked. Untreated, mortality is high. During episodes of fever, the diagnosis can be established with a thick blood smear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0945_18911", "title": "Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever with hepatic impairment and vaginal hemorrhage: a case report.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever is a tick-borne disease described in more than 30 countries in Europe, Asia, and Africa. Albania is located in the southwestern part of the Balkan Peninsula. In 1986, the first case of Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever was registered, and cases of patients with hemorrhagic fever are rising, and most of them present in a serious condition, when the mortality rate is very high. In districts like Mirdite, Lezhe, Gjirokaster, Skrapar, Erseke, and Kukes, there is delineated human-to-human transmission. We report the case of a 32 year-old Albanian woman from a rural area of Albania. She was hospitalized at the Infectious Diseases Service, for a severe influenza-like illness of 4 days duration. Our patient had been bitten by a tick while working in her garden. She presented with nausea, vomiting, headache and muscle pain. A physical examination found a high fever of 40 °C, an enlarged liver, petechia, and vaginal bleeding; flapping tremor and fetor hepaticus were found as a sign for hepatic encephalopathy; and confusion and disorientation were observed in her neurological examination. Her platelet and white blood cell counts were very low, while her aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels were very high. She was transferred to the intensive care unit because of her worsening condition. Serological and C-reactive protein test results for Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever were positive. She was treated with oral ribavirin and discharged with normal parameters. People in high-risk professions in the endemic areas should be informed and trained on the risk of Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever as a matter of urgency. Vaginal bleeding is not always a gynecological problem. In Albania, these places are the mountainous areas, so people who have traveled to these areas and who have symptoms after a tick bite are advised to contact their doctors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_4858", "title": "[Henoch-Schönlein purpura associated with pulmonary tuberculosis].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 34-year-old man was admitted to our hospital because of cough and fever. Chest radiograph showed multiple cavities mainly on the right lung. His sputum was positive for acid-fast bacilli on smear, and he was treated with daily isoniazide, rifampicin and streptomycin. Antituberculous treatment was successfully performed, so acid-fast bacilli of his sputa disappeared on smear and culture. Five months later, he developed a purpuric lesions over both legs accompanied by low grade fever and arthralgia, but proteinuria and abdominal pain could not be observed. Laboratory findings showed a normal platelet count and a normal bleeding time. High levels of serum IgG, IgA, C3 and C4 were evident. ASLO and ASK titer were elevated and they markedly increased within two weeks. A direct invasion of the vessel wall by tubercle bacilli is deniable because antituberculous treatment was successfully continued. Henoch-Schönlein purpura was diagnosed judging from these findings. High levels of ASLO and ASK suggest a preceding streptococcal infection for developing purpura but a possible infectious focus could not be identified. He was treated with 15 mg of prednisolone daily for two weeks and the lesion was subsided. The effect of prednisolone suggests that a subsequent antigen-antibody interaction caused by a streptococcal infection may participate in the formation of the purpura." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0687_25271", "title": "The DRESS syndrome: the great clinical mimicker.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The life-threatening DRESS (drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms) syndrome is characterized by the presence of at least three of the following findings: fever, exanthema, eosinophilia, atypical circulating lymphocytes, lymphadenopathy, and hepatitis. This syndrome is difficult to diagnose, as many of its clinical features mimic those found with other serious systemic disorders. This idiosyncratic reaction occurs most commonly after exposure to drugs such as allopurinol, sulfonamides, and aromatic anticonvulsants such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, and carbamazepine. We describe a 44-year-old woman who was brought to the emergency department with new-onset hemorrhagic stroke. She was admitted to the intensive care unit where she received supportive care that included clonidine and hydralazine for blood pressure control and phenytoin for seizure prophylaxis. On hospital day 21, the patient developed signs and symptoms of severe sepsis. Despite receipt of broad-spectrum antibiotics (vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam) and supportive care, the patient's clinical condition worsened with progressive jaundice, severe oliguria, and labile blood pressures. All cultures revealed no growth, and her chest radiograph remained clear. Several days after the onset of her fever, the patient developed several hematologic abnormalities including thrombocytopenia, with schistocytes present on a peripheral smear. She also had an elevated lactate dehydrogenase level. A provisional diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura was made; however, the patient then developed severe facial edema, nearly global erythroderma, and severe exfoliative dermatitis. A punch biopsy of the skin was compatible with the DRESS syndrome. Phenytoin, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam were discontinued, and the patient was started on systemic corticosteroids, with rapid resolution of her fever and eosinophilia and progressive improvement in her skin rash and multiorgan system dysfunction. Use of the Naranjo adverse drug reaction probability scale indicated a probable relationship (score of 5) between the patient's development of DRESS syndrome and treatment with phenytoin. Clinicians should have a high index of suspicion for the DRESS syndrome in patients being treated with aromatic anticonvulsants who develop a sepsis-like syndrome. Furthermore, considering the potential severe effects associated with phenytoin, the risks and benefits should be carefully evaluated before using this agent for seizure prophylaxis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0994_4132", "title": "[Pyrexia and hemoptysis for eight days in a school-age child].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A girl was diagnosed with intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)-resistant Kawasaki disease (KD) due to pyrexia and hemoptysis for eight days. The girl was a school-age child with major clinical manifestations of pyrexia, skin rash, enlargement of bilateral cervical lymph nodes, conjunctival hyperaemia, red and cracked lips and strawberry-like tongue, followed by swelling of both hands and feet. Laboratory examination showed significant increases in white blood cell count, platelet count, C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate and liver enzymes, a significant reduction in albumin, and the presence of aseptic pyuria. After the first course of IVIG treatment, the girl still had recurrent pyrexia, with hemoptysis on day 2 after admission, and lung CT showed uneven luminance and patchy shadow. The symptoms were quickly alleviated after the second course of IVIG treatment combined with methylprednisolone and aspirin treatment. KD is a febrile disease characterized by multiple systemic vasculitis in childhood and can involve various organ systems such as the heart, lungs, kidneys and the nervous system. Therefore, it is necessary to carefully monitor and recognize the rare symptoms of KD, and early recognition of pulmonary complications of KD can avoid delay in diagnosis, prevent the development of more serious complications, and help with early treatment and disease recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0959_17107", "title": "[Sandfly fever-a \"neglected\" disease].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 45-year-old woman presented at the outpatient department of a center for tropical diseases with fever, diarrhea, headache, myalgia, malaise, and an itchy papular rash. She had been on holiday with her family for 11 days in a mountain village in northern Cyprus. The place was infested with a lot of small, stinging flies or mosquitoes. She and her family became sick after they returned home. The physical examination was normal apart from the rash on the inside of the extremities. Significantly elevated transaminases and a slightly increased C‑reactive protein level were found in the blood examination. Considering the country of travel, the report of the \"stinging flies\" and the clinical presentation, sandfly fever was also taken into account as a differential diagnosis for the hepatitis. Antibodies to the sandfly fever Sicilian virus (SFSV) were detected. They showed the typical dynamics during the course of the illness and thus \"pappataci fever\" was diagnosed. The case report and a short review of up-to-date literature is meant encourage consideration of phlebovirus infection as a possible differential diagnosis in travelers or refugees suffering from severe febrile hepatitis and rash or aseptic viral meningitis after their stay in the Mediterranean area." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 43, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 34 ] ], "text": "As for Scheuermann and scoliosis, we should be given some physical data because the patient presents with a specific examination that would give us the diagnosis." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 43, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 8, 34 ] ], "text": "As for Scheuermann and scoliosis, we should be given some physical data because the patient presents with a specific examination that would give us the diagnosis." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 8 ] ], "text": "A malignant tumor would also hurt at rest." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Scheuermann's disease.", "2": "Thoracic scoliosis.", "3": "Malignant tumor of the vertebral body.", "4": "It is a mechanical overload.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0746_22232", "title": "Back pain during growth.", "score": 0.018187830687830687, "content": "It is wrong to believe that back pain only burdens adults: the yearly incidence during growth ranges from 10-20%, continuously increasing from childhood to adolescence. Rapid growth-related muscular dysbalance and insufficiency, poor physical condition in an increasingly sedentary adolescent community or - vice versa - high level sports activities, account for the most prevalent functional pain syndromes. In contrast to adults the correlation of radiographic findings with pain is high: the younger the patient, the higher the probability to establish a rare morphologic cause such as benign or malignant tumours, congenital malformations and infections. In children younger than 5 years old, the likelihood is more than 50%. The following red flags should lower the threshold for a quick in-depth analysis of the problem: Age of the patient &lt;5 years, acute trauma, functional limitation for daily activities, irradiating pain, loss of weight, duration &gt;4 weeks, history of tumour, exposition to tuberculosis, night pain and fever. High level sport equals a biomechanical field test which reveals the biologic individual response of the growing spine to the sports-related forces. Symptomatic or asymptomatic inhibitory or stimulatory growth disturbances like Scheuermann disease, scoliosis or fatigue fractures represent the most frequent pathomorphologies. They usually occur at the disk-growth plate compound: intraspongious disk herniation, diminuition of anterior growth with vertebral wedging and apophyseal ring fractures often occur when the biomechanical impacts exceed the mechanical resistance of the cartilaginous endplates. Spondylolysis is a benign condition which rarely becomes symptomatic and responds well to conservative measures. Associated slippage of L5 on S1 is frequent but rarely progresses. The pubertal spinal growth spurt is the main risk factor for further slippage, whereas sports activity - even at a high level - is not. Therefore, the athlete should only be precluded from training if pain persists or in case of high grade slips. Perturbance of the sagittal profile with increase of lumbar lordosis, flattening of the thoracic spine and retroflexion of the pelvis with hamstrings contractures are strong signs for a grade IV olisthesis or spondyloptosis with subsequent lumbosacral kyphosis. Idiopathic scoliosis is not related to pain unless it is a marked (thoraco-) lumbar curve or if there is an underlying spinal cord pathology. Chronic back pain is an under recognised entity characterised by its duration (&gt;3 months or recurrence within 3 months) and its social impacts such as isolation and absence from school or work. It represents an independent disease, uncoupled from any initial trigger. Multimodal therapeutic strategies are more successful than isolated, somatising orthopaedic treatment. Primary and secondary preventive active measures for the physically passive adolescents, regular sports medical check-up's for the young high level athletes, the awareness for the rare but potentially disastrous pathologies and the recognition of chronic pain syndromes are the cornerstones for successful treatment of back pain during growth." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0319_15354", "title": "[One hundred years of orthopedics in the Netherlands. IV. Spinal abnormalities].", "score": 0.017927170868347338, "content": "In recent years there has been spectacular progress in the approach to various disorders of the spinal column. Owing to improved methods of osteosynthesis there is no longer so much need for long periods of postoperative bed rest. Of all the scolioses, idiopathic scoliosis is most common. The vast majority of these cases are not clinically significant. What is seen in the remaining cases if left untreated is a progression in the curvature during growth. Progressive idiopathic scoliosis can be effectively treated using conservative methods. Screening at school is an important part of this process. If the curvature proves progressive and skeletal growth is not complete a brace can be prescribed. Use of this strategy and form of treatment can avoid progression of the curvature and development of serious deformities. This conservative therapy has markedly reduced the need for corrective surgery. Scheuermann's disease is characterized by a fixed dorsal thoracic kyphosis. Progressive Scheuermann's kyphosis can be effectively treated using a brace. The majority of fractures of the vertebral bodies can be treated conservatively. However, serious fractures normally require surgical intervention. In the industrialised Western world, low back pain is a major health problem and the foremost cause of disability and unfitness for work. Low back pain caused by degenerative disease of the spinal column should be treated using a multidisciplinary approach. The development of advanced operative techniques and osteosynthesis methods has made it possible to treat metastases of the spine surgically. The effects of this treatment on the quality of life are encouraging." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0504_7739", "title": "Benefits of F.E.D. treatment in Scheuermann's disease.", "score": 0.017105263157894735, "content": "Scheuermann's disease or deforming vertebral osteochondritis affects about 5% of the population. These patients become permanent users of rehabilitation services due to their discomfort. In periods of acute pain patients can only receive palliative and not very effective treatment. In this study 30 patients who fulfil the criteria for diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease were treated with the F.E.D. device. By using this method, a back pressure of up to 100 kg can be applied at the apex of the kyphosis, stretching the anterior common vertebral ligament in an attempt to diminish complaint. There were 14 men and 16 women with ages ranging from 15 to 35 years old. The mean kyphotic angle was 53 degrees (range, 45-65). Patients had an average Risser of 4.75 (range, 3-5). Schöber's test disclosed a range of values from 0 to 2.5 cm (mean, 0.78). The average period of treatment was 4 months (80 sessions of treatment). SUMMARY OF RESULTS AND FINDINGS: All the 30 patients referred disappearance of thoracic back pain after treatment. This pain relief effect was permanent for the time of follow-up. Kyphotic angle decreased from a mean of 30 degrees Cobb to 45 degrees (16% correction). A home physiotherapy program was recommended to all the patients in order to maintain dorsal elasticity as measured by Schöber's test. After treatment, the mean Schöber test value was 2.92. In cases treated during the growing period, where alterations in the spine were minimal or did not show radiographic alterations, progression of the kyphotic deformity was stopped. The F.E.D. device has shown to be a promising method both for the treatment of complaints in stabilised Scheuermann's disease and control of the progression of kyphotic deformity in the growing spine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_16095", "title": "[Adult Scheuermann's disease as cause of mechanic dorsalgia].", "score": 0.01606699751861042, "content": "Scheuermann's disease (SD) or vertebral osteochondrosis is the most frequent cause of non postural kyphosis and one of more frequent cause of adolescent's dorsalgia. The criteria for the diagnosis are: more than 5 degrees of wedging of at least three adjacent vertebrae at the apex of the kyphosis; a toracic kyphosis of more than 45 of Cobb's degree; Schmorl's nodes and endplates irregularities. In addition to classic SD, there are radiological alterations that remain asymptomatic for a long time to reveal in adult age: in that case it speaks of adult Scheuermann's disease (ASD). We considered the diagnosis of patients came from April 2006 to April 2007 on Day Hospital in our Clinic. ASD was diagnosed, besides, in 10 of these patients. 7 patients had previous diagnosis such as: dorsal Spondiloarthrosis (4 subjects); Osteoporosis with vertebral fractures (3 subjects). All these diagnosis was not confirmed by us. In case of chronic dorsalgia of adult, ASD is rarely considered as differential diagnosis. Besides, the vertebral dorsalgia, even in absence of red flags as fever, asthenia,hypersedimetry, functional loss and aching spinal processes to tapping, could hide a serious scene that lead us to be careful in the differential diagnosis, because of similar radiological pictures of the MSA to other pathology as spondylodiscitis, primitive or metastasic spinal tumors, and brittleness vertebral fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0711_1808", "title": "Untreated Scheuermann's disease: a 37-year follow-up study.", "score": 0.015343915343915344, "content": "There are only a few follow-up studies of untreated Scheuermann's disease. The aim of this study was to investigate the relationship between vertebral changes, back pain, and disability in patients with untreated Scheuermann's disease after a 37-year follow-up. Eighty patients responded to a postal questionnaire concerning back pain and disability and 49 of them had classic Scheuermann's disease. Degree of kyphosis, lordosis, scoliosis, the number of affected vertebrae, and mean and maximum wedge angles were measured from radiographs. Back pain and disability scores were compared to a sample of the general Finnish population (n = 3,835). At follow-up, the patients were on average 59 (SD 8) years old (range 44-79 years), and the mean follow-up time was 37 (SD 7) years (26-54 years). The patients comprised more males than females (3.1:1). At follow-up, male patients were on average 3 cm taller than controls (p = 0.007). At age 20, female patients compared to controls were on average 6 kg heavier (p = 0.016) and had higher body mass index (BMI) (mean 23.9 kg/m(2) vs. 20.8 kg/m(2), p = 0.001). Scheuermann's patients had 2.5-fold [odds ratio (OR); 95% confidence interval (CI); 1.4-4.5, p = 0.003] increased risk for constant back pain compared to controls. The risk for disability because of back pain during the past 5 years (OR 2.6; 95% CI 1.4-4.7, p = 0.002), risk for back pain during the past 30 days (OR 3.7; 95% CI 1.9-7.0, p &lt; 0.001) and risk for sciatic pain (OR 2.3; 95% CI 1.3-4.3, p = 0.005) were higher compared to controls. Scheuermann's patients had higher risk for difficulties in mounting stairs (OR 5.4; 95% CI 2.8-10.3, p &lt; 0.001) and in carrying a 5 kg load for at least 100 m (OR 7.2; 95% CI 3.9-13.3, p &lt; 0.001). Scheuermann's patients had a higher risk for back pain and disabilities during activities of daily living than controls. However, the degree of thoracic kyphosis among Scheuermann's patients was not related to back pain, quality of life, or general health." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0518_4218", "title": "[The particularities of the adult Scheuermann's disease: study about 45 patients].", "score": 0.01508295625942685, "content": "Our aim was to find out which factors favor the occurrence of pain in adult patients with Scheuermann's disease--a juvenile manifestation of osteochondrosis of the spine, to study the clinical and radiological signs, the role of rehabilitation and the means to avoid the recurrence of pain. Descriptive and retrospective study about 45 adults treated by rehabilitation. A data sheet listed the patient's occupation, current practice of sport, antecedents (violent sport, traumatism, pain), presence of a family form, motive of consultation, clinical and paraclinical examinations and immediate and long-term results of rehabilitation. Average age 35 years (18 to 65), male predominance (1.8:1), occupational risk factors: 16%; only 24% practiced sports currently. sports 49%, spinal column traumatism 13%, dorsal and lumbar pain during adolescence 16%. Consultation motive: abnormal posture 4% and pain 96%. According to the examination: abnormal spinal column in 80% of cases. According to radiography, our patients were divided into 49% who were carriers of growth vertebral dystrophy and 51% who were carriers of the real Scheuermann's disease. The immediate results of rehabilitation were satisfactory, 75% of the results were very good and good. Between six months and four years, 70% of the results were very satisfactory. Exercises were observed in only 11% of the cases, and stopped after two months on average. Scheuermann's disease in adults is a different entity from that of the teenager for the major manifestation is pain and not aesthetic quality. The patient's occupation is rather sedentary; sport is beneficial. The functional rehabilitation is the basic treatment and recourse to surgery or dorso-lumbar braces is rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0783_2667", "title": "Scheuermann's disease: an update.", "score": 0.015006385696040868, "content": "Scheuermann's disease is a juvenile osteochondrosis of the spine. It is a disease of the growth cartilage endplate, probably due to repetitive strain on the growth cartilage weakened by a genetic background. The radiographic aspects are related to the vertebral endplate lesions and include vertebral wedging, irregularity of the vertebral endplate, and Schmorl's node (intraossous disk herniation). Disc alterations are frequent and may be secondary to dysfunction of the disc-vertebra complex. The definitions of Scheuermann's disease are varied; it can refer to the classical form of juvenile kyphosis, described by Scheuermann as well as asymptomatic radiographic abnormalities. Lumbar involvement is probably as frequent as the thoracic form and might be more painful. The first-line treatment is medical and includes rehabilitation and bracing. The earlier the start of treatment, the better the outcome, which highlights the importance of early diagnosis. Surgery is uncommon and must be limited to severe involvement after failure of conservative treatment. The natural history of Scheuermann's disease is unknown, but it might be associated with increased risk of back pain. The evolution of thoracolumbar and lumbar disease is unknown. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0041_5120", "title": "[The protrusion of thoracic intervertebral disc-thoracic spondylosis (author's transl)].", "score": 0.013347593582887701, "content": "The protrusion of cervical intervertebral discs was divided into three pathological entities by Spurling; soft disc, hard disc and spondylosis. We applied these concept to the dorsal intervertebral disc disease and treated two cases of thoracic spondylosis. Case 1. A 41-year-old male entered the hospital because of the gradual progression of weakness of both legs of two months' duration. Since ten days before admission he had not had an errection and had not been to able to walk and micturate. He also complained of paresthesia radiating down the abdomen into both legs. There were no visceral complaints. Neurological examination revealed severe weakness of both legs with bilateral impairment of deep sensations and hypalgesia up to the level of T6. Reflexes in both legs were hyperactive with sustained clonus. Plantar responses were extensor bilaterally. Though plain X-rays showed no changes, tomography revealed a calcified intervertebral spur formation at the T5-6 interspace. A myelogram showed a complete block of the contrast medium at the level of the upper part of T6. The patient underwent a complete laminectomy from T3 through T6 and extradural anterior decompression with the removal of the calcified disc at the T5-6 interspace using an air drill. Postoperatively, he demonstrated an immediate improvement in sensation and a gradual recovery in motor power. At his follow-up examination 14 months after surgery he could walk without assistance. Case 2. A 47-year-old dwarfish woman (130 cm) with a low back pain and difficulty in walking for a few years duration was admitted. A few months before admission she felt pain at her left lateral abdomen. There was weakness of both legs, greater in the left. Reflexes in her left lower extremity were hyperactive with sustained clonus. Plantar responces were flexor bilaterally. Palin X-rays showed scoliosis of thoracic spine with the top at T7 level and calcified intervertebral masses at T10-11, T11-12 and T12-L1, extending into the canal that were confirmed more clearly by tomography. Myelography by a cisternal puncture disclosed a complete block at the level of T10. The patient underwent total laminectomy of T9 through L2 and extradural anterior decompression with the removal of calcified discs. At her follow-up examination 12 months after surgery she could walk for herself with some residual neurological signs, minimal weakness in the right leg and hypesthesia up to the level of T12 in the left. We have discussed the incidental, related diagnostic and operative problems of this disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en007_12939", "title": "Scoliosis", "score": 0.013241844227759722, "content": "See also Back brace Kyphosis Lordosis Neuromechanics of idiopathic scoliosis Pott disease Scheuermann's disease Schooliosis Scoliosis Research Society References External links Early Onset Scoliosis is the abnormal, side-to-side curve of the spine in children under five years old, often including children with congenital scoliosis (present at birth, with spine abnormalities) and infantile scoliosis (birth to three years). Questions and Answers about Scoliosis in Children and Adolescents – US National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases Bones of the vertebral column Congenital disorders of musculoskeletal system Deforming dorsopathies Wikipedia medicine articles ready to translate" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en018_57191", "title": "Australopithecus afarensis", "score": 0.012574525745257453, "content": "Australopithecines, in general, seem to have had a high incidence rate of vertebral pathologies, possibly because their vertebrae were better adapted to withstand suspension loads in climbing than compressive loads while walking upright. Lucy presents marked thoracic kyphosis (hunchback) and was diagnosed with Scheuermann's disease, probably caused by overstraining her back, which can lead to a hunched posture in modern humans due to irregular curving of the spine. Because her condition presented quite similarly to that seen in modern human patients, this would indicate a basically human range of locomotor function in walking for A. afarensis. The original straining may have occurred while climbing or swinging in the trees, though, even if correct, this does not indicate that her species was maladapted for arboreal behaviour, much like how humans are not maladapted for bipedal posture despite developing arthritis. KSD-VP-1/1 seemingly exhibits compensatory action by the neck and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en112_25549", "title": "Scheuermann's disease", "score": 0.010598015320334261, "content": "While there is no explanation for what causes Scheuermann's Disease, there are ways to treat it. For less extreme cases, manual medicine, physical therapy and/or back braces can help reverse or stop the kyphosis before it does become severe. Because the disease is often benign, and because back surgery includes many risks, surgery is usually considered a last resort for patients. In severe or extreme cases, patients may be treated through an extensive surgical procedure in an effort to prevent the disease from worsening or harming the body. In Germany, a standard treatment for both Scheuermann's disease and lumbar kyphosis is the Schroth method, a system of specialized physical therapy for scoliosis and related spinal deformities. The method has been shown to reduce pain and decrease kyphotic angle significantly during an inpatient treatment program." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en094_36561", "title": "Copenhagen disease", "score": 0.010352880124545927, "content": "Signs and Symptoms Clinical Studies and Case Reports 15‐Year‐Old Male A 15-year-old male presented with major thoracolumbar kyphosis with spinal stiffness. However, there was no presentation of pain, scoliosis, neurologic symptoms, or trouble with ambulating. Through a combination of MRI of the spine, radiography findings, and absence of sacroiliac joint movement, Copenhagen disease was diagnosed. In this individual, exam findings showed anterior vertebral body fusion, as well as multilevel lumbar anterior disc space obliteration and erosion. The narrowing and erosion of end plates can occur in early childhood and progress during adolescence as well. The narrowing can extend posteriorly, leading to complete vertebral fusion. In this 15-year-old male, trans-pedicle osteotomy of T12-L1 was performed in order to treat the individual. 12‐Year‐Old Female" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en007_12938", "title": "Scoliosis", "score": 0.010122482032594391, "content": "Society and culture The cost of scoliosis involves both monetary losses and lifestyle limitations that increase with severity. Respiratory deficiencies may also arise from thoracic deformities and cause abnormal breathing. This directly affects exercise and work capacity, decreasing the overall quality of life. In the health care system of the United States, the average hospital cost for cases involving surgical procedures was $30,000 to $60,000 per person in 2010. As of 2006, the cost of bracing has been published as up to $5,000 during rapid growth periods, when braces must be consistently replaced across multiple follow-ups. Research Genetic testing for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, which became available in 2009 and is still under investigation, attempts to gauge the likelihood of curve progression. See also Back brace Kyphosis Lordosis Neuromechanics of idiopathic scoliosis Pott disease Scheuermann's disease Schooliosis Scoliosis Research Society References" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_57148", "title": "Spinal fusion", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Lumbar and cervical spinal fusions are more commonly performed than thoracic fusions. Degeneration happens more frequently at these levels due to increased motion and stress. The thoracic spine is more immobile, so most fusions are performed due to trauma or deformities like scoliosis, kyphosis, and lordosis. Conditions where spinal fusion may be considered include the following: Degenerative disc disease Spinal disc herniation Discogenic pain Spinal tumor Vertebral fracture Scoliosis Kyphosis (e. g., Scheuermann's disease) Lordosis Spondylolisthesis Spondylosis Posterior rami syndrome Other degenerative spinal conditions Any condition that causes instability of the spine" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_24267", "title": "Kümmell' s disease: A rare spine entity in a young adult.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Over 100 years ago, Dr Hermann Kümmell described a rare clinical entity in which patients, after a trivial trauma and an asymptomatic period, developed a progressive vertebral body collapse and a painful kyphosis. We present the case of a 31years old heavy labourer, fitting Kümmell's criteria. The patient referred to us in an incapacitated state, due to persistent back pain. Radiographic examination revealed a body collapse of L1 vertebra. The patient had no previous medical record, other than a prolonged history of transient back pain episodes, related to heavy-weight lifting. Last attack was 1 year before presentation. Through course of time, he had undergone several clinical and radiological evaluations, by different orthopaedists, on different occasions, including the last episode, with no major findings. After an extensive workup, a percutaneous kyphoplasty of the affected vertebra was performed and a biopsy was obtained. The histologic examination of the specimen revealed vertebral osteonecrosis. A triggering pattern of repetitive spinal loading in hyperflexion is, for the first time, being recognized. We conclude that Kümmell's disease, although a rare condition, should be considered in any patient with refractory back pain symptoms. In such patients, vigorous follow-up turns to be of the essence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1111_12534", "title": "Pediatric cervical kyphosis in the MRI era (1984-2008) with long-term follow up: literature review.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Cervical kyphosis is rare in the pediatric population. It may be syndromic or acquired secondary to laminectomy, neoplasia, or trauma. Regardless, this should be avoided to prevent progressive spinal deformity and neurological deficit. Long-term follow-up is needed to evaluate fusion status, spine growth, potential instability, and neurological function. A retrospective review of 27 children (6 months to 16 years) with cervical kyphotic deformity was performed and limited to the MRI era until 2008, to provide a long-term follow-up after which complex instrumentation was available. There were 27 patients, 19 syndromic (average age 5.36 years), and 8 non-syndromic (average age 14 years). Syndromes encountered were spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED) 4, spondylometaphyseal dysplasia 1, unnamed collagen abnormality syndrome 1, osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) 2, Aarskog syndrome 1, Weaver syndrome 1, Larsen syndrome 1, multiple cervical level disconnection syndrome 1, Klippel-Feil 3, congenital absence of C2 pars 4. Non-syndromic cases; 2 with neurofibromatosis (NF1) and prevertebral tumors, fibromatosis 1, spontaneous kyphosis 1, and postlaminectomy 4. Factors considered were age, pathology, flexibility on cervical spine dynamic films, reduction with traction and spinal cord compression. Patients with flexible kyphosis underwent dorsal fixation. Children with non-flexible ventral compression/kyphosis had crown halo traction. Irreducible kyphosis had ventral decompression and fusion as well as dorsal fusion. Eleven of 19 syndromic children with flexible and reducible kyphosis underwent dorsal fixation alone. Four of 8 non-syndromic (2 NF1) needed ventral and dorsal approaches. The preoperative deformity (global and local Cobb angles) as well as neurological status improved. Growth during follow-up was not impaired, and we did not encounter instability or junctional kyphosis. The only complications were seen in syndromic patients. One patient with SED showed delayed cantilever bending of the ventral fusion mass requiring reoperation, and 1 other OI child had left C5 and C6 nerve root weakness after anterior C4 and C5 decompression which resolved over 1 year. One child with SED developed cervicothoracic junction scoliosis 18 years later after thoracic scoliosis surgery. Syndromic pathology presented early with neurological dysfunction and 24% had rigid kyphosis. An attempt at traction/reduction was successful as in Tables 1 and 2. The majority exhibited long-term improvement in kyphosis and function. A treatment algorithm and literature review is presented. Table 1 Motor function of the modified Japanese Orthopedic Association (JOA) score in children [24, 37] Score Upper extremity •Unable to move hands or feed oneself 0 •Can move hands; unable to eat with spoon 1 •Able to eat with spoon with difficulty 2 •Able to use spoon; clumsy with buttoning 3 •Healthy; no dysfunction 4 Lower extremity •Unable to sit or stand 0 •Unable to walk without cane or walker 1 •Walks independently on level floor but needs support on stairs 2 •Capable to walking, clumsy 3 •No dysfunction 4 Table 2 Pediatric cervical kyphosis-preoperative evaluations Case ID, year presented Age Sex Diagnosis Presentation Imaging Apex Cobb angle degree Reducibility Preop traction Syndromic #1 2003 4 years M SED Progressive quadriparesis Bladder incontinence Severe C2-4 kyphosis with cord compression C3-4 85° No No #2 2001 3 years M SED Progressive quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis. No dorsal C2. Buckled cord C2-3 25° No No Recurrent weakness after recovery 2 years later Kyphosis at fusion site C2-3 33° No No #3 1997 13 years M SED Neck pain. Hand weakness. Thoracic scoliosis C1-3 kyphosis Os odontoideum C2-3 30° Yes No #4 2006 6 years F SED Tingling in hands Bladder incontinence Deformed C2 body and odontoid C1-2 instability C2-3 27° Yes No #5 1997 4 years M SMD Quadriparesis. Previous C2-3 kyphosis with O-C3 dorsal fusion elsewhere Fixed C1-2 dislocation. C2-3 kyphosis. O-C4 fusion C2 35° Partial Yes 4 days #6 2007 13 years F Syndromic collagen abnormality Neck pain. Leg length discrepancies. T-L scoliosis. Quadriparesis Bilateral C2 and partial C3 spondylolysis C-T levoscoliosis C2-3 35° Partial Yes 4 days #7 2003 14 years F Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) Only able to use right upper extremity C3-5 kyphosis. Canal diameter 4 mm at C4 C4 25° No No #8 1989 3 years F OI - Bruck's syndrome Quadriparesis age 9 months. Had C1-C3 posterior decompression and fusion elsewhere Progressive kyphosis Worse weakness Bend in fusion C1-2 40° No No #9 1996 11 years M Aarskog syndrome Neck pain with limited neck motion Cervical myelopathy Psychomotor delay C4-5 spondylolysis C5-6 kyphosis C5 30° No Yes 3 days #10 1989 3½ years F Weaver syndrome Quadriparesis age 2 years. Elsewhere C1-C3 dorsal rib fusion and wires Fusion failure C2-3 subluxation Cord compression C2-3 3° Yes Yes 1 day #11 1986 11 years F Larsen syndrome Neck pain in extension Quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis. Deformed bodies C2-5 Os odontoideum C1-2 instability C2-3 28° Yes Yes 1 day #12 1996 5 years M Multilevel cervical disconnect syndrome Horner pupil on right Small right arm Quadriparesis C4, C5 vertebral bodies behind C5 C5 body in canal Left vertebral artery in C5 body C4-5 35° No No #13 1985 3 years F Klippel-Feil Neck pain. Weak hands Atlas assimilation C3-4 kyphosis No posterior bony arches C3, C4 C3-4 40° Yes No #14 1994 3 years F Klippel-Feil Unable to sit. Floppy. Quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis No posterior arches C2-3 and L4 C2-3 45° Yes No #15 1993 11 months F Tuberous sclerosis Spondylolysis C2 Salam seizures Quadriparesis No pars C2 C2-3 kyphosis C2-3 30° Yes No #16 1998 2 years M C2 spondylolysis Quadriparesis, arms worse than legs C2 spondylolysis C2-3 kyphosis C2-3 35° Yes No #17 1998 6 months M C2 spondylolysis Failure to thrive Apneic spells Weak in arms after endoscopy C2-3 kyphosis No C2 lamina Cord compression C3-4 on MRI C2-3 45° Yes No #18 1990 4 years F C2 spondylolysis Developmental delay Quadriparesis C2 spondylolysis C2-3 kyphosis C3 45° Yes No #19 1994 4 years F Klippel-Feil No posterior C2 Torticollis age 6 mo Quadriparesis C2-3 kyphosis No posterior arch C2 Fused C3-4 bodies C2-3 45° Yes No Non-syndromic #20 1996 15 years M NF1. Ventral prevertebral plexiform neurofibroma Neck pain Weak arms Cervical myelopathy C4-5 kyphosis Cord draped over C4-5 Enhanced prevertebral tumor C4-5 60° Partial Yes 4 days #21 1996 6 years M NF1 Age 6 mo had C1-3 laminectomies elsewhere Progressive kyphosis Quadriparesis C3-5 plexiform neurofibromas C2-4 kyphosis C3-4 45° No No #22 1993 11 years M \"Fibromatosis\" Neck pain Gag ↓ Right hemiparesis C2 body and odontoid curved dorsally C2-3 kyphosis C2 40° No Yes 3 days #23 2007 13 F Mid-cervical kyphosis Neck pain Unable to move neck C3-4 kyphosis C3-4 45° Yes Halo vest elsewhere 6 weeks Repeat traction on referral #24 1998 12 years M Chiari I Syringohydromyelia Difficulty swallowing Quadriparesis Previous posterior fossa and C1-3 decompression Basilar invagination C3-4 kyphosis C3-4 50° Yes Halo traction 3 days #25 1994 16 years M Chiari I. SHM Difficult speech Quadriparesis Previous posterior fossa and C1-4 laminectomies C3-4 kyphosis Basilar invagination C3-4 55° Yes Halo traction 3 days #26 2002 11 years M Chordoma C3-5 Initial quadriparesis improved after posterior decompression then worse Dorsal and lateral tumor C3-4 C3-4 20° Yes Traction 3 days #27 2006 13 years M C4 lamina Aneurysmal bone cyst Neck and shoulder pain C4 laminectomy for tumor resection Worse 4 months later C4-5 kyphosis C3-4 40° Yes No Table 3 Pediatric cervical kyphosis-postoperative evaluations Case ID Diagnosis Treatment-operation Complication PO orthosis F/U time Fusion status Preop Cobb Postop Cobb Preop JOA Postop JOA Comments Syndromic #1 SED Crown halo traction 1. Median mandibular glossotomy. Resection C2-3 bodies with rib graft fusion 2. Dorsal O-C3 rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months Soft collar 3 months 8 years Complete anterior and posterior fusion 85° 10° 2 8 Complete neurological recovery #2 SED Crown halo traction 1. Median mandibular glossotomy. C2-4 corpectomies. C2-5 anterior rib graft fusion Recurrent weakness 2 years s later Halo vest 3 months 2 years Fused 25° 20° 4 5 T. scoliosis. Cardiac abnormalities. Walking then quadriparesis Redo ventral resection and C1-4 iliac bone graft Worsening quadriparesis Minerva brace 1 year 18 years Fused 33° 15° 3 5 Much improved in 6 months #3 SED Crown halo traction Dorsal O-C4 fusion with loop and rib graft None Miami J collar 3 months 10 years Fused 30° 13° 4 7 Works in bookstore #4 SED Crown halo traction Dorsal O-C3 fusion with loop and rib graft 4 years later developed C-T scoliosis after T. scoliosis surgery Miami J collar 3 months 14 years Fused 27° 5° 5 7 C-T scoliosis developed after thoracic scoliosis correction #5 SMD Crown halo traction Transoral C2 odontoid resection None Minerva brace 6 months 20 years No from preop status 35° 10° 1 4 In wheelchair. Works as programmer #6 Collagen abnormality Crown halo traction C2-5 ACDF C2-5 plate with C3-4 lag screws Junctional kyphosis 7 years later after scoliosis correction Miami J collar 6 weeks 12 years Fused 36° 5° 4 7 Abnormal vertebral arteries. Thoracic outlet syndrome May-Thurner syndrome #7 OI Crown halo traction C3-5 corpectomies C2-6 Orion plate with iliac crest graft None Soft collar 4 years Fused 25° 30° 1 5 Restrictive lung disease. Multiple fractures Expired #8 OI - Bruck syndrome 1. Redo C1-2 dorsal rib graft fusion No change Molded Minerva brace 4 years Fused 40° 35° 3 4 Increased weakness age 7 2. 11 years age anterior C3-7 decompression and plate C3-7 Worsening left deltoid and biceps function Molded Minerva brace 30 years Fused 52° 34° 3 5 Lives alone. Wheelchair. Computer technologist Uses hands well #9 Aarskog syndrome Crown halo traction C2-6 anterior cervical fusion with iliac crest graft None Molded Minerva brace 20 years Fused 30° 14° 4 7 Works on a farm. No myelopathy. Syndrome in family #10 Weaver syndrome Crown halo traction Redo C1-4 dorsal rib graft fusion None Miami J collar 2 years Fused 3° 10° 2 5 Neuroblastoma age 3 months. Chemotherapy Stable #11 Larsen syndrome Crown halo traction O-C5 dorsal fusion None Halo vest 6 weeks Miami J 3 months 6 years Fused 28° 10° 3 7 Doing well #12 Multilevel cervical disconnect syndrome Crown halo traction C5 corpectomy C4-6 iliac bone fusion anteriorly Dorsal C4-6 fusion None Halo vest 3 months 5 years Fused 35° 5° 3 7 Persistent Horner pupil #13 Klippel-Feil Crown halo traction C2-6 posterior rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months 19 years Fused 40° 12° 3 7 Hearing loss Genitourinary abnormalities Sprengel's deformity #14 Klippel-Feil Crown halo C2-5 dorsal rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months 35 years Fused 45° 10° 1 6 Hearing loss Genitourinary abnormalities #15 Tuberous sclerosis Spondylolysis C2 C1-4 dorsal interlaminar rib fusion None Halo vest 3 months 6 years Fused 30° 5° 1 6 Psychomotor delay #16 C2 spondylolysis C1-4 dorsal interlaminar fusion None Halo vest 3 months 4 years Fused 35° 10° 2 6 Recovered full function in one year #17 C2 spondylolysis Tracheostomy Molded cervicothoracic brace None Mold brace 4 years 6 years Formed C2 posterior arches 45° 20° 1 3 Reformed C2 at 4 years on CT Parents did not wish surgery #18 C2 spondylolysis Intraoperative traction C1-3 dorsal rib graft fusion None Neck brace 4 months 8 years Fused 45° 12° 2 5 Developed C2 posterior elements #19 Klippel-Feil Intraoperative traction O-C4 fusion with rib graft None Molded brace 6 months 1 years Fused O-C2 dorsally 45° 16° 1 4 Able to sit and use hands Non-syndromic #20 NF1 Resection of ventral tumor C3-6 C4-5 corpectomies; C4-5 iliac graft; C3-7 Orion plate None Halo vest 6 weeks 14 years Fused 60° 15° 3 7 Recovered in 6 weeks. Works on a farm #21 NF1 Intraoperative traction Resect prevertebral tumor C2-5 kyphectomies; C2-6 anterior fusion iliac crest None Halo vest 3 months 2 years Fused 45° 20° 3 5 Initial C1-3 decompression done elsewhere #22 Fibromatosis 1. Transoral C2 decompression 2. Dorsal O-C3 fusion with loop None Brace 3 months 12 years Fused 40° 12° 4 6 Age 2 years had neck mass resected. Diagnosis \"fibromatosis\" #23 Mid-cervical kyphosis Traction C2-5 lateral mass fusion with screws, rods and rib grafts Worse after removal of initial traction Brace 3 months 8 years Fused 45° 15° 7 8 Doing well #24 Chiari I SHM Intraoperative traction O-C5 rib graft fusion None Halo vest 3 months 21 years Fused 50° 7° 2 6 Facets atrophied C2, C3 at surgery #25 Chiari I SHM Intraoperative traction O-C5 dorsal fusion with loop and rib None Miami J brace 4 months 22 years Fused 55° 10° 3 6 Facets atrophied C2-4 at surgery #26 Chordoma C3-4 1. Dorsal lateral C3-6 fusion 2. C2-5 anterior fusion with iliac bone None Miami J brace 6 months 18 years Fused 20° 12° 5 8 Weak in hands after initial surgery elsewhere #27 ABC tumor C4 Anterior C3-5 fusion with plate and bone None Miami J brace 4 weeks 12 years Fused 40° 15° 5 8 No recurrence SED spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, SMD spondylometaphyseal dysplasia, JOA Japanese Orthopedic Association, MRI magnetic resonance imaging, SHM syringohydromyelia, NF1 neurofibromatosis type 1, f/u follow up, OI osteogenesis imperfecta, CT computed tomography, JK junctional kyphosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0931_18320", "title": "The True Ponte Osteotomy: By the One Who Developed It.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Technique and applications. To define the anatomy, biomechanics, indications, and surgical technique of the true Ponte osteotomy. The Ponte osteotomy, originally developed for thoracic kyphosis, was the first one to obtain posterior shortening of the thoracic spine, maintaining the anterior column load-sharing capacity. It has become a widely applied technique in various types of spine deformities and a frequent topic of presentations at meetings and in scientific articles. Several of them offer unquestionable evidence of an incorrect execution, with consequently distorted outcomes and erroneous conclusions. A clearing up became essential. Our original experience is based on a series of 240 patients with thoracic hyperkyphosis operated in the years 1969-2015, at first with a standard posterior Harrington technique and then by using the Ponte osteotomy with different instrumentations. A series of 78 of them, operated in the years 1987-1997, who had Ponte osteotomies at every level, is presented. The average preoperative kyphosis has been corrected from 80° (range 61°-102°) to 31° (range 15°-50°) by a substantial posterior shortening. A number of publications use the term Ponte osteotomy loosely for by far incomplete resections and mixing it up with Smith-Petersen's osteotomy. The true Ponte osteotomy is capable of producing marked flexibility in extension, flexion and rotation, justifying its wide use in thoracic deformities, mainly in scoliosis. An exact performance of the osteotomy with adequate bony resections, including the laminae, is an absolute condition to take full advantage of its properties. Level IV, therapeutic study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_18090", "title": "Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Two cases are discussed to illustrate two different presentations, progressions and treatments of Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis. In one case, a 13-yr-old boy suffered from a 2-yr history of lower back pain. Radiographs demonstrated irregularity of the upper lumbar vertebral endplates, associated with Schmorl's nodes. The second case is one of a 14-yr-old boy who was seen in an orthopedic outpatient clinic. Radiographs revealed wedging of the anterior border of T6, T7, and T8 vertebrae with a thoracic spine kyphotic deformity measuring 72 degrees. The first case was treated conservatively. The patient maintained his improvement at 6 month follow-up. The second case was initially treated with a brace that the patient did not wear regularly as directed. The kyphotic deformity progressed from 72 degrees to 92 degrees. An operation was performed to reduce the kyphotic curve and prevent further progression. On review 6 yr later, the patient was well without back pain or other complications. The kyphotic curve measured 65 degrees. Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis is a common spinal deformity in the adolescent. A radiographic appearance of wedging of the anterior portion of the vertebral bodies with marked kyphotic deformity suggests the diagnosis of classical Scheuermann's disease. However, the lumbar type of Scheuermann's disease should be considered in young patient with radiographic evidence of irregular vertebral endplates, Schmorl's nodes and a decreased disc space without wedging. Nevertheless, significant progression of the curve in both the typical and atypical types of Scheuermann's disease is rare, but can occur. An algorithm is presented to facilitate decision making in the management of Scheuermann's juvenile kyphosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0774_13684", "title": "[Lumbar and lumbo-sacral fusion using Twinflex devices in 114 cases with minimal follow-up of 1 year].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The author presents a series of 114 cases of lumbo-sacral fusion with a minimum follow-up of 1 year and a mean of 21.7 months.Since the use of the first transpedicular screws (1963 R. Roy-Camille) spinal instrumentation has considerably eased post-operative care in lumbo-sacral fusion as well as fusion rate. Recently, instrumentation has became more and more rigid. But rigidity has it's limits. Pain as well as poor bone grafting frequently occurs eventhough surgery was performed correctly. This is why the author has developed a concept of flexible transpedicular instrumentation. The aims are: - To avoid stress-shielding of the graftsimplify implantation during surgery - Avoid excessive stress on the bone and adjacent disc - Improved short and long term acceptance of instrumentation - Avoid removal of implants. Some elements guided instrumentation design. Low profile - Ease of removal - restricted number of implants and instruments. The system developed is based on transpedicular screws with 2.5 mm rods. Stainless steel was prefered to Titanium because of it's flexibility. The mechanical results of the first prospective series of 114 cases are studied. Follow up ranges from 12 to 39 months maximum with an average of 21.7 months. 65% of the patients are female. Age ranges from 14 to 89 years old with an average of 50 years.•Pathologies are : 74 cases of discopathy with or without associated disc, 8 cases of degenerative lumbar scoliosis and 32 cases of spondylolisthesis with 13 cases of isthmus lysis and 19 cases of degenerative spondylolisthesis.During the post operative period patients stand between 24 and 48 hours. Walking is allowed with twill corset during the day for the first 3 months.•Length of fixation: In 32 cases it is a floating arthrodesis (L4-5 18 cases, others 14 cases). In 82 cases sacrum is included in the fusion (L3-S1.15 cases, L4-S1.35 cases, L5-S1 20 cases, others 12 cases).• No infections were seen. No phlebitis or pulmonary embolism.•Mechanical complications: They are analysed with an average follow up of 21.7 months and a minimum of 12 months. Screw fractures: Only one case occured at 4 months post op in a L4-5 isthmic spondylolisthesis. Fusion was still obtained within the usual 6 months. Patient went back to work on the 8 th post op month without further complication 14th month post operative. Rod fractures: Fracture of the rod is the demonstration of a pseudarthrosis when occuring between 8 to 12 months post-op. The average pseudarthrosis rate is 3.5% (4 cases). In this series we used two different size of rods. The first group consists of 65 cases with 2 mm diameter rods. The second group consists of 49 cases with 2.5 mm rods. All the pseudarthroses occured in the first group (4 cases). In the second group with an average follow up of 17.2 month no pseudarthroses occured.In 4 cases (3.5%) revision surgery was necessary. Two cases were related to pseudarthrosis and 2 cases to remove instrumentation.Fusion rate in this first prospective series is 96.5%. Rod failure in the first post operative year is the demonstration of pseudarthrosis. On the reverse non failure is a way of assessing fusion without doubt.This homogeneous series demontrates the ability of flexible fixation to obtain a high rate of fusion and a good medium term acceptibility for the patient. Instrumentation was removed only in two cases at patient request." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0910_16273", "title": "Familial lumbar Scheuermann disease with idiopathic scoliosis in China: First case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Given that Scheuermann disease rarely occurs in the lumbar region and that the co-occurrence of Scheuermann disease and idiopathic scoliosis (IS) has not been reported-the etiology of Scheuermann disease and IS is not clear. In this case report, we present familaiar lumbar Scheuermann disease with IS, in a Chinese proband, who was successfully treated with surgery. A 16-year-old boy presented at the Second XiangYa Hospital of Central South University with a chief complaint of kyphotic deformity in the lower back for 4 years and obvious lower back pain. In addition, he complained of limited lumbar activity. And The proband's family history was obtained by routine inquiring. In this Chinese family with 17 members over 3 generations. The 3 patients (proband, proband's sister and father) shared the characteristics of vertebral wedging from L1 to L3 and a kyphosis Cobb angle of 37°, 70°, or 73°, respectively. The main deformity of the proband's mother was at T7-L1 with a Cobb angle of 102° in the coronal plane at T7-L1, thoracic kyphosis of 73°, and lumbar lordosis of 62°. Scheuermann's disease. Clinical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and radiographs of those in the pedigree were recorded, and the related literature was reviewed. The proband accepted osteotomy and orthopedic surgery for treatment. After 3 months of treatment, postoperative lateral radiographs showed a significantly improved sagittal vertical axis (SVA). The other patients were continued to be seen in follow-up visits. This series of lumbar Scheuermann patients with IS in a pedigree support the genetic contribution to Scheuermann disease. Therefore, this study provides some insight into the genetic etiology of Scheuermann disease with IS." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_51794", "title": "Kyphosis", "score": 0.009552017771195853, "content": "Scheuermann's kyphosis (M42.0) is significantly worse cosmetically and can cause varying degrees of pain, and can also affect different areas of the spine (the most common being the midthoracic area). Scheuermann's kyphosis is considered a form of juvenile osteochondrosis of the spine and is more commonly called Scheuermann's disease. It is found mostly in teenagers and presents a significantly worse deformity than postural kyphosis. A patient suffering from Scheuermann's kyphosis cannot consciously correct posture. The apex of the curve, located in the thoracic vertebrae, is quite rigid. The patient may feel pain at this apex, which can be aggravated by physical activity and by long periods of standing or sitting. This can have a significantly detrimental effect on their lives, as their level of activity is curbed by their condition; they may feel isolated or uneasy amongst peers if they are children, depending on the level of deformity. Whereas in postural kyphosis, the vertebrae" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0776_15857", "title": "Spinal intramedullary arachnoid cyst: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Intramedullary arachnoid cysts are extremely rare; only 14 cases have been reported in the literature so far. We report on the case of a 31-year-old woman who presented with back pain and progressive paraparesis secondary to a dorsal intramedullary arachnoid cyst detected on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): the surgical planning and clinico-radiological outcome are discussed along with a review of the relevant literature. Case report and literature review. One patient affected by intramedullary arachnoid cyst. Magnetic resonance imaging and pathological findings from operative specimens were used to confirm the diagnosis. A 31-year-old woman presented with a 7-year history of back pain that had worsened 3 months before admission to our department; for this reason, the patient had undergone a spinal MRI revealing the presence of a 1-cm cystic intramedullary lesion at the level T11-T12, with no contrast enhancement. After 2 months, the patient presented with a worsening of clinical symptoms complaining of severe back pain radiating to the lower extremities associated with a progressive paraparesis, urinary incontinence, and abdominal pain. Referred to our department, at the time of admission the patient was bedridden because of the impossibility of maintaining a standing position. The patient underwent a T11-T12 laminectomy with fenestration of the cyst. She experienced an immediate relief of pain symptoms, and by the seventh postoperative day she was able to stand without help and walk a few meters with assistance. By the sixth postoperative month, the patient had significantly improved, having gained the ability to walk alone without assistance with complete resolution of the bladder dysfunctions, with no cyst recurrence after approximately 2 years of follow-up. Intramedullary arachnoid cysts should be considered in the differential diagnosis for intramedullary cystic lesions. A particular consideration deserves their occurrence in asymptomatic patients, who should be adequately informed on the possible natural evolution: when symptomatic, surgical therapy should be promptly offered, considering that a postoperative complete recovery is usually observed, regardless of the surgical technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0522_15212", "title": "Evaluation of spinal fusion using autologous anterior strut grafts and posterior instrumentation for thoracic/thoracolumbar kyphosis.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A retrospective cohort study. To evaluate anterior strut grafts in spinal fusion for thoracic/thoracolumbar kyphosis. Autologous strut grafts harvested from the fibula, iliac crest, and rib are frequently used for treating severe kyphosis and kyphoscoliosis. However, a majority of the studies have presented mixed patient populations kyphosis and/or scoliosis, treated either with anterior or anteroposterior fusion. Very few reports have presented an evaluation of autologous strut grafts for anterior fusion with posterior instrumentation for the treatment of kyphotic deformities. A total of 23 patients comprised the study. Diagnosis was granulomatous infection (9 patients), congenital (6), posttraumatic (4), neurofibromatosis (1), ankylosing spondylitis (1), Scheuermann disease (1), and plasmacytoma of the vertebral body with pathologic fracture (1). Average age at surgery was 41 years (range 6-77). Indication for surgery was pain with or without progression in 15 patients and additional progressive neurologic deficit in the other 8. Anterior strut grafts consisted of the autologous fibula (9 patients), iliac (10), fibula and ribs (2), fibula and iliac (1), and fibula, iliac, and ribs (1). The fusion areas were thoracic (11 patients), thoracolumbar (11), and cervicothoracic (1). Anterior decompression was performed in 8 patients because of the presence of neurologic symptoms caused by cord compression. Dorsal fusion was performed in all patients with third-generation systems. Average 4.2 vertebrae were fused anteriorly. Mean follow-up bracing time was 9.7 months. Average kyphosis measured 50.9 degrees before surgery and 32.5 at a mean follow-up of 4.5 years (P &lt; 0.0001). No graft breakages were noted at final follow-up. Solid fusion was achieved in all patients. No donor site complications were observed. Of the 8 patients presenting with neurologic deficits, 4 had full recovery, 3 had partial recoveries, and 1 had no improvement. Loss of postoperative correction &gt; 5 degrees was observed in 3 patients. At final follow-up, 3 patients complained of occasional pain, and 1 complained of pain when lying on the back, particularly on hard surfaces. Adequate correction was maintained throughout an average follow-up of 4.5 years, and solid fusion was obtained in all patients. Anterior strut grafts, supplemented with posterior fusion with instrumentation provide a good treatment alternative for the treatment of kyphosis deformity of the spine as a result of various etiologies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0220_14250", "title": "[Evolution-linked, stress-related damage to the spine].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "During physiological growth of the juvenile vertebral column, various stages of stability occur which are characterized by the condition of the marginal rim of the vertebral bodies. If the vertebral juvenile column is overstrained, these variations in stability result in a variety of damage to the vertebral bodies and vertebral disks. One of these lesions corresponds to Scheuermann's disease (osteochondrosis of vertebral epiphyses in juveniles). Damage of the vertebral column due to overstrain can occur only if the overstrain is applied in upright position. Since Man alone can damage his vertebral column in upright position (as a result of his evolutionary development), Scheuermann's thesis is confirmed that Scheuermann's disease is confined to Man. Spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis is also a damage caused by overstrain. Here, too, the damage can occur only if the load is exercised in upright position, with the exception of a slanted positioning of the intervertebral components." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1012_21844", "title": "Severe Thoracic and Spinal Bone Abnormalities in neurofibromatosis type 1.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is an autosomal dominant, multi-system, neurocutaneous disorder that predisposes to the development of benign and malignant tumors. Classical skeletal abnormalities encompass sphenoid wing dysplasia, congenital bowing of the long bones and vertebral osteopathy associated with non-dystrophic or dystrophic scoliosis found in about 10% of NF1 patients. We report a 17-year-old boy affected by NF1 with extreme severe spinal and thoracic malformations affecting bone and lung tissues, including hypoplasia of the right lung, unilateral costal agenesis and severe dystrophic scoliosis characterized by association of hemivertebra, fusion of adjacent vertebral bodies and defective pedicles. At birth, he presented an acute respiratory distress requiring invasive ventilator support. The diagnosis of NF1 was confirmed at age 5 by the identification of a de novo heterozygous mutation c.4537C &gt; T, p.Arg1513* in NF1. Trio-based Whole Exome Sequencing (WES) was performed to exclude coexistence of a second hit but no clearly other pathogenic variant has been identified. Until now, only one similar NF1 patient suffering from the same association of severe scoliosis and chest deformity leading to respiratory insufficiency was described. The severe prenatal NF1-related scoliosis could explain the lung abnormal development by absence of mechanical constraints. Severe Thoracic and Spinal Bone Abnormalities may be part of the NF1 bone phenotype and should be taken into account to allow adequate genetic counseling." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0421_2128", "title": "[Spinal deformations as a cause for the clinical signs of spinal cord neoplasm].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "An attempt was made to explain the unusual clinical manifestations at the example of an observation of a spinal-marrow tumor, which had the neurological lesion symptoms only below the upper-thoracic level. Scoliosis with a minor spinal deformation at the level of the fourth thoracic vertebra was a tumor symptom. It is suggested that the spinal scoliosis, having a mechanical impact on the spinal marrow and on its provision with blood in the minor-deformation location, was the reason of impaired sensitivity and movements, which is indicative of the spinal-marrow lesion not only in the mentioned locations but also in the total length of tumor localization. Since scoliosis can be, for some time, a single sign of the spinal-marrow lesion, the authors believe it advisable to make the magnetic-resonance therapy (MRT) in all patients with persistent scoliosis for the purpose of an early detection of a spinal-marrow neoplasm, thus, ensuring better treatment results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_1015", "title": "Tumoral calcinosis presenting as a deformity of the thoracic spine.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The authors describe a rare case of tumoral calcinosis (TC) of the thoracic spine in a 13-year-old boy with thoracic scoliosis. The patient presented with a 2-year history of back pain. He had no personal or family history of bone disease, deformity, or malignancy. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed a heterogeneously enhancing mass involving the T-7 vertebral body and the left pedicle. Computed tomography findings suggested that the mass was calcified and that this had resulted in scalloping of the vertebral body. The lesion was resected completely by using a left T-7 costotransversectomy and corpectomy. The deformity was corrected with placement of a vertebral body cage and pedicle screw fixation from T-5 to T-9. Pathological analysis of the mass demonstrated dystrophic calcification with marked hypercellularity and immunostaining consistent with TC. This represents the third reported case of vertebral TC in the pediatric population. Pediatric neurosurgeons should be familiar with lesions such as TC, which may be encountered in the elderly and in hemodialysis-dependent populations, and may not always require aggressive resection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_7834", "title": "[Significance of isthmic spondylolisthesis in expert assessment of occupational disease of the lumbar spine].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In Germany, disc-related disease of the lumbar spine is eligible for workmen's compensation if caused by long-standing work requiring heavy lifting or carrying or extreme trunk-bending (BK 2108). The appraisal of causality is particularly difficult if conditions like isthmic spondylolisthesis preexist. 250 consecutive appraisals in nurses concerning the BK 2108 were analysed, 12 applicants (4.8%) had isthmic spondylolisthesis (4.6% of females and 5.9% of males). The literature about the natural history of isthmic spondylolisthesis is reviewed. A person who has isthmic spondylolisthesis is up to 25% more likely to have significant back trouble during his life than one who does not. Back pain in adults associated with spondylolisthesis is usually heralded by back pain in the late teens or early twenties. Progression of the slip is rarely seen after maturity. Due to the loss of protection by the posterior elements the disc is prone to premature degeneration which, however, does not become clinically apparent in most cases. Longstanding vocational heavy lifting or excessive stooping can negatively influence the natural history of isthmic spondylolisthesis. It can produce symptomatic disease in a person who would otherwise have remained asymptomatic, or it can cause a deterioration in those with preexisting symptoms. Criteria for the appraisal of causality are proposed. It is stressed that the course of the disease in relation to age and vocational strains has to be analysed in each individual case." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en343_33528", "title": "Neuromechanics of idiopathic scoliosis", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Physiology Cobb angle is a common measure to classify scoliosis. The greater the angle, the more serious is the disease but the smaller is the number of patients. One to three out of every hundred people have idiopathic scoliosis curves greater than 10° with an equal proportion of boys and girls. One to three out of every thousand people have idiopathic scoliosis curves greater than 30° with a ratio of eight girls for every one boy. Scoliosis is also classified according to the region(s) they affect. The vertebral column can be deformed at the thoracic level, at the lumbar level or at both. In the lumbar region, scoliosis induces perturbations to standing balance. The thoracic region is the location that most impacts movement strategies. Scoliosis impedes on the movement of the ribs, places the respiratory muscles at a mechanical disadvantage and displaces the various organs of the thoracic cavity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0090_12416", "title": "[Long-term results of the Harrington operation. Apropos of a series of 200 cases (1964-1986)].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The authors present a series of 200 patients who underwent vertebral arthrodesis with Harrington's distraction rods for idiopathic scoliosis reviewed after a mean follow-up of 7.5 years (maximum: 24 years). The surgical procedure consisted of either simple distraction or distraction associated with convex compression or a transverse traction device or insertion of double rods according to Armstrong's technique. The operative gain was 44%, the angular loss was 12% and the definitive gain was 32%. The results were better in girls and in juvenile scoliosis type III and adolescent scoliosis. The best long-term correction was obtained in cases of lumbar scoliosis. The best operative reduction was obtained in thoracic and thoracolumbar scoliosis and the greatest angular loss was observed with major double scolioses. The most favourable results were obtained in cases of scoliosis were severe angulation. The best system was Armstrong's followed by Dollar's and the least effective was simple distraction. Heavy pre- and intra-operative vertebral traction improved the angular score. Rupture of the rod, when it occurred late, was not equivalent to pseudarthrosis. Angular deterioration over time was essentially observed over the first 10 years but led to disappointing results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0976_14768", "title": "The Effect of Schroth Therapy on Thoracic Kyphotic Curve and Quality of Life in Scheuermann's Patients: A Randomized Controlled Trial.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Randomized controlled single-blinded clinical trial. To evaluate the efficacy of Schroth therapy on thoracic curve angle, pain, and self-perceived body image (SPBI) of the back in Scheuermann's patients in comparison with the efficacy of classic anti-gravitation exercises. Scheuermann disease is the most common cause of hyperkyphosis of the thoracic and thoracolumbar spine during adolescence. However, very few studies evaluated the effect of exercises on the progression of kyphosis in Scheuermann patients. Schroth three-dimensional exercise therapy was found in several studies to be effective in the treatment of adolescent scoliosis, however, we found no randomized controlled trials that evaluated the efficacy of this method in Scheuermann patients. A total of 50 young adults (males and females) with Scheuermann's disease were randomly divided into either the experimental group (Schroth therapy treatment, n=25) or the control group (classic anti-gravitation exercises, n=25). Participants in both the groups were provided a course of individual treatment sessions during few weeks, with one appointment per week. They were required to perform the exercises daily throughout the study period (12 months) and fill their performance in a research log. We evaluated the thoracic Cobb angle (main outcome measure), pain, SPBI, flexion of the shoulder (supine), flexion of the shoulder (standing), kyphotic deformity measured using inclinometer, and L5 kyphosis apex line (L5-KAL) as well as administered the Scoliosis Research Society-22 Questionnaire for the participants before the treatment, after 6 months, and 1 year postoperatively. These results were then compared. In the mixed analysis of variance, the main effect of time was significant in the thoracic kyphosis (F [1]=5.72, p=0.02), and in the L5-KAL (F [1]=5.76, p=0.02). The main effect of time on the kyphotic deformity, measured using an inclinometer, did not reach the significance level; however, it showed the tendency (F [1]=2.80, p=0.07). In the group-by-time interaction, a significant difference was found in the thoracic kyphosis (F [1]=4.91, p=0.03) and in the kyphotic deformity, measured using an inclinometer (F [1]=4.05, p=0.02). Thus, the Schroth therapy group showed significantly greater improvement than the classic anti-gravitation exercises group. The present findings indicate that back exercises in general, and Schroth therapy in particular, is an effective treatment for preventing and significantly improving the thoracic Cobb angle and symptomatic representation in Scheuermann's patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0208_10395", "title": "[Spine deformities induced by irradiation of Wilm's tumors (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A follow-up study on spine deformities of 59 consecutive Wilm's tumors treated between 1950 and 1963 was conducted. The selected cases had no metastasis at any time and had reached end of growth (16 years old of bone age). Treatment was surgery, chemotherapy and radiationtherapy mostly was 200 KV and partially with CO 60. This study showed 65p. 100 kyphosis greater than 10 degree between T9 and L3 (normal less than 5 degree) and 40p. 100 scoliosis both induced by alteration of vertebral growth and by sclerosis of soft tissues. -- Kyphosis even slight seemed to induce more pain in adult age than scoliosis. -- This work demonstrates also that growth spurt produces increased deformities. Therefore it is necessary to wait the end of growth before the evaluation of the results. Finally the most important for prevention is to irradiate as symmetrically as possible in the 3 planes of the body. The results of surgical treatment are reported and principles of early bracing for prevention are mentioned." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 158 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 21 ] ], "text": "Clinical suspicion of chronic compartment syndrome (CCS). The diagnosis is made by obtaining compartment pressures at rest, during exercise and post-exercise." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Positron emission tomography with 18 FDG.", "2": "Determination of posterior compartment pressure immediately after activity.", "3": "Doppler ultrasound to rule out a circulatory disorder of the lower extremity.", "4": "Magnetic resonance spectroscopy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0489_6509", "title": "[MR-Imaging of lower leg muscle perfusion].", "score": 0.01809771141048531, "content": "This article describes the potential of dynamic contrast- enhanced magnetic resonance tomography (DCE-MRT) for the visualization and quantification of blood flow of lower leg muscles at rest and after individually adjusted muscular exercise. Five cases were chosen to exemplify the qualitative and semi-quantitative blood flow evaluation in the lower leg muscles. The crural muscle state was determined with an isometric maximal strength measurement from a female patient with peripheral arterial occlusive disease (pAVK), a male patient with coronary heart disease (KHK) without clinical signs of a pAVK, a volunteer with sufficient physical activity in accordance with the Freiburg Questionnaire of Physical Activity and two professional athletes. After calibration of the plantarflexion ergometer MR-PEDALO (Figures 2a and 2b) for the execution of auxotonic muscle work a 1- minute alternating foot extension and flexion exercise on MRPEDALO was performed in the MR machine. Instead of the lower leg splint shown in Figures 2a and 2b the MR coil fits exactly in MR-PEDALO used for DCE-MRT. Mechanical work performed during the 1-minute exercise ranged from 52 watt seconds (Ws) to 244 Ws (0.65 W to 4.07 W), indicating similar interindividual work loads in relation to the individual maximum isometric strength. DCE-MRT was performed at rest and immediately after auxotonic exercise test (T1w 2DFLASH- GE sequence with TR/TE/alpha: 100 ms/6 ms/70 degrees; field of view: 400; matrix: 81 x 256; slice thickness: 10 mm; acquisitions: 73 at 8.3 s each; total examination time: 9.24 min; bolus application of Magnevist, Schering, 0.02 ml/kg kg, 20 ml bolus NaCl, flow 2 ml/s, 22G cannula in a cubital vein). Signal intensity (SI) curves were analyzed with DynaVision (MeVis gGmbH, Bremen, Germany). Measuring peripheral blood flow needs appropriate muscular stress tests. The SI-curves of the region of interest (ROI) representing the peroneus, tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius muscle run almost parallel at rest. Workloads between 52 Ws and 244 Ws (0.65 W and 4.07 W), similar in relation to the individual maximum isometric strength, induce distinctive changes of the upslope, wash-in, peak and washout of SI-curves preferably for the peroneus muscle and less predominant also for the tibialis anterior muscle and gastrocnemius muscle respectively. The first case, a 55-year-old female patient with peripheral arterial occlusive disease (pAVK) stage Fontaine IIb before (Figure 3a) and after (Figure 3b) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) of a right femoral artery stenosis shows after interventional treatment a rapid post-exercise SI-increase in the peroneus muscle. The steeper SI-curve indicates a better contrast medium inflow due to an improved perfusion. The second case, a 65-year-old man suffering from coronary heart disease without clinical signs of pAVK (Figure 4) exercised with a workload of 92 Ws. After stress test the ROI for the peroneus muscle shows a clear intensity increase. After exercise the SI-curve for the tibialis anterior muscle shows a similar, but less predominant change while the shape of the SI-curve of the gastrocnemius muscle remains mainly identical. A 23-year-old male person with average physical activity (Figure 5) performed DCE-MRT of the left lower leg after stress test with 172 Ws demonstrating a rapid signal increase in the peroneus muscle while the synergistic tibialis anterior muscle and antagonistic gastrocnemius muscle show a comparatively slow contrast-medium wash-in. A 26-year-old male athlete (Figure 6) exercised with 196 Ws showing a rapid contrast medium inflow in the peroneus muscle and initially also in the synergistic tibialis anterior muscle. A contrast-medium wash-out appears in both muscles, while the shape of the gastrocnemius muscle SI-curve remains substantially unchanged. A 26-year-old female athlete (Figure 7) exercised with 244 Ws. Post exercise SI-curves show a distinctive and rapid increase of contrast medium wash-in with a sharp peak particularly in the peroneus muscle and similarly in the tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius muscle. After exercise all SI-curves show a wash-out phase. SI-curves show relative increase in correlation with Time-to-Peak (TTP) decrease and Mean-Intensity to Time Ratio (MITR) increase indicating blood flow reserve mobilization after exercise. Individual muscle state seems to be linked to muscle recruitment and muscle coordination reflected by post-exercise SI-curves. The gastrocnemius muscle shows comparatively low SI-curve changes after muscular load test. Further methodological standardization and optimization of the stress test is mandatory to assure intra- and interindividual comparisons. Due to direct visualization and quantitative evaluation of the peripheral microcirculation DCE-MRT has a diagnostic potential for monitoring therapeutic response in peripheral circulation disorders and sports medicine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0608_10255", "title": "[Athletes with exercise-related pain at the medial side of the lower leg].", "score": 0.017980970811159493, "content": "Two patients were diagnosed with exercise-related pain at the medial side of the lower leg. The first patient, an 18-year-old woman who had expanded her athletic activities extensively, had developed pain at the inner side of the distal third portion of the left lower leg. She showed over-pronation of the ankle during running. A 3-phase bone scintigram revealed diffuse uptake of the tracer covering a large portion of the medial tibia margin. Based on this evidence, a diagnosis of periostalgia was made. She recovered after a period of relative calf massages and used insoles. The second patient was a 28-year-old male endurance runner who developed pain at the medial shin after intensifying his training regimen. The periods without pain during running became increasingly shorter, and the medial side of the lower leg became sore and tense. Intracompartmental pressure measurements indicated exercise-related posterior deep compartment syndrome of the calf. The patient recovered after fasciotomy. In athletes, exercise-related symptoms of the medial side of the lower leg can be usually attributed to the tibial periosteum or tendons of the deep calfmusculature, tibial stress reaction or fracture, or a compartment syndrome of the deep calf. Surgery is indicated for chronic compartment syndrome, but conservative therapy provides favourable outcomes in the other types of disorders. The optimal conservative therapeutic approach is unknown, but it is advisable to temporary reduce symptom-provoking athletic activity and modify any risk factors present. Ankle over-pronation during running is considered a very relevant intrinsic risk factor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_11198", "title": "Deep vein thrombosis in a young marathon athlete.", "score": 0.013687969236403589, "content": "Resident's case problem. A 21-year-old athletic male college student presented to a direct-access physical therapy clinic with complaints of left calf pain 4 days in duration. After initial examination, a working diagnosis of calf strain was formulated. Three days following initial examination, the patient reported 80% improvement in symptoms and was performing activities of daily living pain free. Four weeks later, the patient returned with complaints of reoccurring calf pain. The patient's signs, symptoms, and history at subsequent follow-up no longer presented a consistent clinical picture of calf strain; therefore, a D-dimer assay was ordered to rule out a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The D-dimer was elevated so the patient was admitted to the hospital and started on low-molecular-weight heparin. A compression ultrasound revealed an extensive left superficial femoral and popliteal DVT in this otherwise healthy athlete. Lower extremity DVT is a serious and potentially fatal disorder. Physical therapists need to be diagnostically vigilant for vascular pathology in all patients with extremity pain and swelling. Employing the best current evidenced-based screening tools to rule out vascular pathology, such as deep and superficial vein pathology, should be the goal of every clinician. The Wells score is one such screening tool that has proven to be beneficial in this area. This case report presents a dilemma in diagnosis and illustrates the importance of revisiting differential diagnoses with each patient encounter. Clinicians must consider the possibility of a DVT with every patient seen with posterior leg pain. Diagnosis, level 4. doi:10.2519/jospt.2011.3823." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_23782", "title": "Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Caused by Lumbar Herniated Intervertebral Disc Disease.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Most cases of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) occur after some inciting injury. There are a few cases of CRPS after an operation for disc disease. CRPS from a mild herniated intervertebral disc (HIVD) without surgical intervention is even rarer than CRPS after an operation for disc disease.A 22-year-old man was transferred to a pain clinic. He had continuously complained about back and right leg pain. He presented with a skin color change in the right lower leg, intermittent resting tremor, stiffness, and swelling in the right leg. He complained of a pulling sensation and numbness in his right buttock, posterior thigh, lateral calf, and ankle. This symptom was in accordance with L4/5 radiculopathy. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) also showed L4/5 HIVD that was central to the bilateral subarticular protrusion.He was diagnosed as having CRPS, which fits the revised International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) criteria. He fulfilled 4 symptom categories (allodynia, temperature asymmetry and skin color change, sweating changes, decreased range of motion and motor dysfunction) and 3 of 4 sign categories (allodynia, temperature asymmetry and skin color changes, decreased range of motion and motor dysfunction). The bone scan and thermography also revealed CRPS.For the past 2 months, we have performed intensive treatments. But, he never became pain-free and walking for 5 minutes led to persistent leg pain. We decided to perform percutaneous nucleoplasty, which can directly decompress a HIVD. On the next day, he achieved dramatic symptom relief. The visual analog scale (VAS) score improved to 3, compared to the VAS score of 9 at the first visit. The skin color change, allodynia, and tremor in the right leg disappeared, and the temperature asymmetry normalized. Motor weakness of the right leg also recovered.We report an unusual case of CRPS that was caused by L4/5 HIVD without a history of trauma or surgery. It has a clear causal relationship between HIVD and CRPS and definitively fits in the newly revised IASP criteria. In conclusion, mild HIVD can cause CRPS without any trauma. And percutaneous nucleoplasty can be considered as a treatment option." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0962_15295", "title": "Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) with Normal Values of Both Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) and C-Reactive Protein (CRP) Concentration at the Time of Diagnosis in a Centenarian Man: A Case Report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The possibility that polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) can be diagnosed when both ESR and CRP are normal at the time of diagnosis and before therapy with glucocorticoids, has been often discussed in the literature. We present a case report of a 100-year-old Caucasian man referred to our outpatient clinic, complaining of chronic pain in the shoulder and hip girdle associated with normal values of both ESR (21 mm/1st hour) and CRP (4 mg/dL). In the previous four months, several anti-inflammatory drugs and painkillers associated with physiotherapy treatments gave no significant improvement in pain and self-care. After an ultrasound (US) and an 18-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography associated with total body computed tomography (18-FDG PET/CT) examination, PMR was diagnosed and he started therapy with 17.5 mg prednisone, obtaining a fast improvement in pain and self-care. After 10 months of tapering, he stopped prednisone without relapse. During a 3-year follow-up, no alternative diagnosis was done. When a patient complains of chronic bilateral shoulder and hip girdle pain associated with normal inflammatory indices, it is reasonable to think in the first instance that this person is not suffering from PMR. Moreover, the possibility that PMR may onset in a centenarian person, is exceptional. In our patient, when we piece the puzzle together, the diagnosis of PMR was the most possible one." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_12650", "title": "[Value of transcutaneous staged dynamic oximetry of stage II arteritis of the leg].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The clinical and prognostic value of transcutaneous oxygen pressure measurements at rest has been established in Leriche Stage III and IV occlusive peripheral arterial disease but is controversial in Stage II because there is an overlap of transcutaneous pO2 (Tc pO2) values with those of normal subjects. The authors report the results of Tc pO2 measurements during exercise testing in a group of patients with Stage II occlusive arterial disease of the lower limbs. Seventy-eight patients with an average age of 53 years (range 40 to 65 years) whose claudication perimeter and site of pain had been carefully assessed and who had also recently undergone Doppler arterial examination and arteriography and 35 control subjects with an average age of 54 years (range 45 to 70 years) were studied. The Tc pO2 was continuously measured with a multimodular Kontron Supermon at 4 different sites simultaneously: precordium (reference probe), thigh, calf and foot in the dorsal recumbent position after 30 minutes rest, during a standardised exercise stress test at 50 watts and during the recovery phase. The results were expressed as ratio of tissue oxygenation (RTO): thigh, calf or foot Tc pO2/precordial Tc pO2 X 100 in order to take into account the patients cardiorespiratory status and adaptation to exercise. The RTO in normal subjects remained at the upper limits of the resting value throughout exercise and then returned slowly to basal values during the recovery phase.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0964_23889", "title": "A Morel-Lavallée lesion of the proximal calf in a young trauma patient: A case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The Morel-Lavallée lesion (MLL) is a closed degloving injury developing when shear force acts between the muscle fascia and the subcutaneous layer. MLLs develop principally in the trochanteric area or the pelvis; lesions in the proximal calf are rare. Acute lesions can be treated conservatively, but chronic lesions are best treated surgically because of a high rate of recurrence. To the best of our knowledge, this is a rare case of successful treatment of an MLL in the proximal calf associated with tibio-fibular shaft fracture. A 14-year-old male visited our emergency room after having been hit by a car. He exhibited direct trauma to the right lower leg and a distal tibio-fibular shaft fracture without an open wound. He underwent surgery to treat the fracture, which was immobilized with splint for 2 weeks post-operatively. At the 3-month follow-up, he complained of a painless, mobile, soft tissue mass in the posteromedial aspect of the proximal calf. Blood circulation was normal and we found no neurological abnormality in the distal region of the lower leg. A plain radiograph of the right lower leg revealed a proximal, round, radiopaque soft tissue lesion. Ultrasonography revealed a homogeneous, hypoechoic fluid collection. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed fluid of homogeneous signal intensity between the subcutaneous layer and the underlying fascia of the gastrocnemius muscle. Percutaneous drainage and intralesional steroid injection were performed on several occasions, but the lesion recurred every time. After 5 aspirations, we scheduled surgery. We radically excised the mass and sutured the superficial to the deep fascia to prevent shearing at the surgical plane. No complication or recurrence was noted at the 1-year follow-up. An MLL in the proximal calf is an uncommon post-traumatic lesion and care must be taken to avoid misdiagnosis. If an MLL is suspected after imaging studies and physical examination, it is important to determine whether the lesion is acute or chronic and to plan treatment accordingly. Appropriate treatment should be given to patients to improve outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0555_18593", "title": "High-energy phosphate metabolism during calf ergometry in patients with isolated aorto-iliac artery stenoses.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Patients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) and aorto-iliac atherosclerotic lesions suffer from a broad range of complaints, such as pain at the hip, the thigh, and calf claudication. The purpose of this study was to investigate the high-energy metabolism in the calf muscle of patients with PAD with isolated aorto-iliac stenoses during incremental plantar flexion exercise. Using a 1.5 T whole-body magnetic resonance (MR) scanner, 12 patients with PAD with uni- or bilateral aorto-iliac atherosclerotic lesions and 10 healthy male controls underwent serial phosphor-31 MR spectroscopy during incremental exercise at 2, 3, 4, and 5 W. The phosphocreatine (PCr) time constants were calculated for each increment and recovery using a monoexponential model. In the patient group, the run-off resistance was determined on MR angiograms. In both the patients and the controls, the ankle brachial pressure index was measured. The diseased legs exhibited significantly increased PCr time constants during the second and the third workload increment at 3 and 4 W, but not during the first increment at 2 W and recovery compared with normal controls. Only 3 diseased legs succeeded the last increment at 5 W. We detected significant correlations between the ankle brachial pressure index scores and the PCr time constants when including both the diseased and the control legs. The diseased legs showed a significant correlation with the run-off resistance only during the first increment. Our study shows that the impairment of muscle metabolism, expressed by prolonged PCr time constants, occurs with greater work intensities in patients with aorto-iliac disease compared with patients with multisegmental PAD, as recently published, whereas our patients collective exhibited normal PCr recovery time constants. Our findings may help to understand variability of clinical symptoms in aorto-iliac PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0629_2565", "title": "Non-invasive neurosensory testing used to diagnose and confirm successful surgical management of lower extremity deep distal posterior compartment syndrome.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is characterized by elevated pressures within a closed space of an extremity muscular compartment, causing pain and/or disability by impairing the neuromuscular function of the involved compartment. The diagnosis of CECS is primarily made on careful history and physical exam. The gold standard test to confirm the diagnosis of CECS is invasive intra-compartmental pressure measurements. Sensory nerve function is often diminished during symptomatic periods of CECS. Sensory nerve function can be documented with the use of non-painful, non-invasive neurosensory testing. Non-painful neurosensory testing of the myelinated large sensory nerve fibers of the lower extremity were obtained with the Pressure Specified Sensory Device in a 25 year old male with history and invasive compartment pressures consistent with CECS both before and after running on a tread mill. After the patient's first operation to release the deep distal posterior compartment, the patient failed to improve. Repeat sensory testing revealed continued change in his function with exercise. He was returned to the operating room where a repeat procedure revealed that the deep posterior compartment was not completely released due to an unusual anatomic variant, and therefore complete release was accomplished. The patient's symptoms numbness in the plantar foot and pain in the distal calf improved after this procedure and his repeat sensory testing performed before and after running on the treadmill documented this improvement. This case report illustrates the principal that non-invasive neurosensory testing can detect reversible changes in sensory nerve function after a provocative test and may be a helpful non-invasive technique to managing difficult cases of persistent lower extremity symptoms after failed decompressive fasciotomies for CECS. It can easily be performed before and after exercise and be repeated at multiple intervals without patient dissatisfaction. It is especially helpful when other traditional testing has failed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_9231", "title": "Exercise hyperemia for the study of peripheral circulation.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Blood flow in the calf was measured during postexercise hyperemia in normal subjects and in PAD patients by means of a foot ergometer that gives direct reading of the work performed. In normals, first and peak flow increased with the rise of work load up to 100 KGM. The duration of hyperemia increased with a work load of 30 to 200 KGM. In PAD patients, first flow did not coincide with peak flow. Peak flow was lower and delayed, and the duration of hyperemia was more prolonged than in normal subjects. In patients with intermittent claudication, first flow, peak flow, and work load were higher than in patients with rest pain or impending gangrene. Exercise hyperemia appears as a useful test for screening normal limbs from those with arterial obstruction. Since in PAD patients exercise is interrupted when muscular pain appears, it is evident that the earlier the arrest of work and the appearance of pain, the greater is the involvement in the arterial tree of the leg. Therefore the exercise hyperemia test can be used also as a means of evaluating the different stages of PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_12156", "title": "Compartment syndrome of bilateral lower extremities following laparoscopic surgery of rectal cancer in lithotomy position: report of a case.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 67-year-old man underwent laparoscopic surgery for rectal cancer in the lithotomy position. After surgery he complained of bilateral lower limb pain, swollen legs, and sensory disturbance. The serum creatine kinase value was 46 662 U/l. Venography demonstrated compression from outside without any obstruction. The T2 image of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed a massive swollen muscle and a partial high-intensity area in the bilateral lower limbs. The posterior compartment pressures of lower legs were high (gastrocnemius muscle: 30 mmHg [right] and 44 mmHg [left]). Compartment syndrome (superficial posterior compartment) was thus diagnosed. He underwent a fasciotomy using the single dorsal approach and the administration of a large amount of fluid. He recovered well without any motor or sensory deficits. Compartment syndrome is rare, occurring only once in every 3500 cases, but it is a severe complication of surgery in the lithotomy position. Several risk factors have been pointed out: including prolonged operation, hardness of the operating table, obesity, dehydration, and hypothermia. To prevent compartment syndrome, appropriate positioning during surgery is therefore essential. To make a timely diagnosis and identify the precise location of muscle edema, the T2 image of MRI is useful." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0108_12287", "title": "[Regional blood flow and oxygen consumption in the leg muscles of normal subjects and in those with arterial insufficiency. Study of the distribution of C15O2 and of 15O2 using positron emission tomography].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We first studied the distribution of radioactivity during continuous inhalation of C15O2 and 15O2 in traverse tomograms of the greatest diameter of legs, at rest and immediately after exercise (ankle flexions). C15O2 and 15O2 were distributed homogeneously and symmetrically in both legs of normal subjects at rest. The activity accumulated in the anterolateral region after exercise. In patients, this pattern of distribution was similar but asymmetrical, depending on the arterial pathology. No systematic distribution of either C15O2 or 15O2 was observed. In a second step, we studied quantitatively blood flow (F), oxygen uptake (R) and oxygen extraction (E) in 11 subjects: 5 normals (23 +/- 1 years) and 6 patients (60 +/- 11 years) suffering from unilateral intermittent claudication. We used the bolus inhalation technique of C15O2 and 15O2. In the normal leg at rest, ranges were 2.5 to 8.0 ml/min.hg for F, 0.9 to 21.3 mumol/min.hg for R and 3.6 to 33.4% for E. In the pathological leg at rest, ranges were 3.7 to 11.3 ml/min.hg for F, 3.8 to 10.6 mumol/min.hg for R and 7.1 to 24.5% for E. After exercise, ranges were 6.4 to 62.8 ml/min.hg for F, 66.0 to 386.3 mumol/min.hg for R and 29.2 to 89.5% for E in both legs. There was no straight difference between normal and pathological legs soon after exercise. This study allows us to expect that the demonstration of such a difference implies a longer delay of data acquisition following the slow post-ischemia recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_17919", "title": "High-energy phosphate metabolism during incremental calf exercise in patients with unilaterally symptomatic peripheral arterial disease measured by phosphor 31 magnetic resonance spectroscopy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The treadmill exercise test is the most important examination of the functional ability of patients with intermittent claudication or leg pain during exercise, but it does not provide any metabolic information in the calf muscle. The purpose of this study was to investigate the high-energy metabolism in the calf muscle during incremental progressive plantar flexion exercise of a selected peripheral arterial disease (PAD) patient group. Using a 1.5-T whole-body magnetic resonance scanner, 17 male patients with PAD who had 1 symptomatic and 1 asymptomatic leg and 9 healthy male controls underwent serial phosphor 31 (31P) magnetic resonance spectroscopy during incremental exercise at 2, 3, 4, and 5 W. Furthermore, magnetic resonance angiography was performed, and the ankle-brachial pressure index was determined in the patient group. The runoff resistance (ROR) was separately assessed in each patient's leg. The symptomatic legs exhibited significantly increased phosphocreatine (PCr) time constants during the first three workload increments (2-4 W) and the recovery phase compared with the asymptomatic legs and the normal controls. Only two symptomatic legs reached the last increment at 5 W. Compared with the normal controls, the asymptomatic legs showed significantly increased PCr time constants only at 5 W. In the patient group, we detected significant correlations between the PCr time constants and the ROR, as well as the ankle-brachial pressure index. Moreover, the symptomatic legs presented significantly lower PCr levels and pH values at the end of exercise compared with the asymptomatic and control legs. Our study shows that muscle function in PAD patients can be objectively quantified with the help of 31P magnetic resonance spectroscopy and correlates significantly with hemodynamic parameters such as ROR and ankle-brachial pressure index. Consequently, 31P magnetic resonance spectroscopy seems to be a useful method to monitor the muscle function of PAD patients for evaluation of established therapies or new therapeutic strategies during research trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0710_15889", "title": "Can pain influence the severity of findings of an (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan in loosening hip arthroplasty?", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Pain is a common symptom after loosening and/or after infection of arthroplasty. The aim of the present case report is to indicate that fluorine-18-fluorodeoxy-glucose positron emission tomography/computerized tomography((18)F-FDG PET/CT) scan can be used for the evaluation of pain at the site of arthroplasty with a semi quantitative measurement. An 84 years old male patient, with a history of papillary thyroid cancer was referred to our Nuclear Medicine Department for an (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan for evaluation of his metastatic disease. He reported right hip prosthesis thirty years ago and now suffered from significant pain in the right hip joint which on a scale from 1 to 10 could be rated as grade 8. White blood cell count, sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein were within normal limits. Four years ago he also had severe pain on the right leg that could be rated as grade 8, and underwent an (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan that showed a maximum standardized uptake value (SUV(max)) of 9.8. A year later, at a follow up (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan and under a similar severe pain, SUV(max) was 10. The patient had a hip prosthesis in the left leg 3 years ago, for which he reported pain that could be rated as grade 3 and the SUV(max) was then 3.7. The degree of (18)F-FDG uptake is related to cellular metabolic rate and to the number of glucose transporters. In inflammation, the activated inflammatory cells demonstrate increased expression of glucose transporters and the affinity of glucose transporters for deoxyglucose is increased by various cytokines and growth factors. Furthermore, when the mononuclear cells and the granulocytes are activated by certain infectious humoral stimuli, they use large amounts of glucose by the hexose monophosphate shunt and the rate of oxygen uptake is intensely increased, during the so called \"respiratory burst\". In the present case, it was interesting to note that the degree of (18)F-FDG uptake at the sites of loosening hip arthroplasty was related to the severity of pain. Signs of infection or inflammation although not obvious in our case, could not be excluded because sensitivity, specificity and accuracy of PET for detecting infection associated with hip prostheses has been reported to be, 90%, 89.3% and 89.5%, respectively and sensitivity and specificity for detecting periprosthetic inflammation 100% and 45.5%,respectively. In another study using as a criterion for periprosthetic infection the increased (18)F-FDG activity at the bone-prosthesis interface of the femoral component, sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values for the (18)F-FDG PET study where 85%, 93%, 80% and 95%, respectively. Inflammation, often intense, may be present in aseptic loosening and characterized by increased periprosthetic (18)F-FDG uptake. In conclusion, in our case the degree of (18)F-FDG uptake in a loosening hip arthroplasty was related to the severity of pain although inflammation or infection could also play some role. Further studies are required to prove this suggestion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0295_13206", "title": "The quantitation of blood flow/metabolism coupling at rest and after exercise in peripheral arterial insufficiency, using PET and 15-0 labeled tracers.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Regional blood flow and oxygen uptake of the lower limbs were studied in 11 patients with arterial insufficiency (10 with severe unilateral, 1 with bilateral intermittent claudication). Regional muscle blood flow (F), oxygen consumption rate (R), and oxygen extraction fraction (E) were evaluated by positron emission tomography (PET) and bolus inhalation of C15O2 and 15O2 by the patient. Tomograms were recorded at the greatest diameter of legs, at rest and ten minutes after a treadmill walk test leading to the development of ischemic pain in the affected leg. In 5 patients, F and E were correlated with the results of occlusive venous strain gauge plethysmography and with the measurements of blood gases in one brachial artery and in the femoral vein of the affected limb. Blood flow values measured at rest and after exercise by PET were poorly correlated with the plethysmographic findings. This may be because PET does not interfere with flow as venous occlusion plethysmography does in low peripheral pressure conditions. The results show that F, R, and E were not significantly different in normal and pathologic legs at rest. The values of F and R were significantly higher in pathologic than in normal lower limbs, ten minutes after exercise, whereas E was not significantly altered by exercise at any side. This suggests that, during the recovery from a walk test, the delayed increase in oxygen uptake is proportional to the delayed hyperemia in the ischemic muscles (\"oxygen debt\") and probably not linked to a luxury perfusion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0511_11216", "title": "Effect of dry needling of gluteal muscles on straight leg raise: a randomised, placebo controlled, double blind trial.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To use a randomised, double blind, placebo controlled trial to establish the effect on straight leg raise, hip internal rotation, and muscle pain of dry needling treatment to the gluteal muscles in athletes with posterior thigh pain referred from gluteal trigger points. A randomised, double blind, placebo controlled trial of 59 male runners was performed during the 2002 Australian Rules football season. Subjects were thoroughly screened and had magnetic resonance imaging of their hamstring muscles to exclude local pathology. The inclusion criterion was reproduction of recognisable posterior thigh pain with the application of digital pressure to the gluteal trigger points. Subjects randomly received either therapeutic or placebo needle treatment on one occasion at their gluteal trigger points. Range of motion and visual analogue scale data were collected immediately before, immediately after, 24 hours after, and 72 hours after the intervention. Range of motion was measured with passive straight leg raise and hip internal rotation. Visual analogue scales were completed for hamstring and gluteal pain and tightness at rest and during a running task. Magnetic resonance imaging scans revealed normal hamstring musculature in most subjects. Straight leg raise and hip internal rotation remained unchanged in both groups at all times. Visual analogue scale assessment of hamstring pain and tightness and gluteal tightness after running showed improvements immediately after the intervention in both groups (p = 0.001), which were maintained at 24 and 72 hours. The magnitude of this improvement was the same for therapeutic and placebo interventions. Resting muscle pain and tightness were unaffected. Neither dry needling nor placebo needling of the gluteal muscles resulted in any change in straight leg raise or hip internal rotation. Both interventions resulted in subjective improvement in activity related muscle pain and tightness. Despite being commonly used clinical tests in this situation, straight leg raise and hip internal rotation are not likely to help the therapist assess response to treatment. Patient reports of response to such treatment are better indicators of its success. The mechanisms by which these responses occur and the reasons for the success of the placebo needling treatment are areas for further investigation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0276_3583", "title": "99Tcm-sestamibi uptake in the leg muscles and in the myocardium in patients with intermittent claudication.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "99Tcm-Sestamibi has now replaced 201Tl as a cardiac imaging agent. In addition to the myocardial uptake there is also a considerable uptake in the striated muscle, which may be used for analyzing the muscular perfusion. Sixteen patients with intermittent claudication were investigated with 99Tcm-Sestamibi-SPECT (single photon emission computerized tomography) in order to visualize coronary ischemic disease. After the registration of the myocardial perfusion they were also studied regarding their leg muscle perfusion. This was done at rest and during standardized stress test using a bicycle ergometer. In 10 of the patients there was an increase in the isotope uptake in the myocardium from work to rest &gt; 10% reflecting pronounced myocardial ischemia, which, however, was symptomatic in only 4 of the patients. The muscular uptake in the myocardium of 99Tcm-Sestamibi in the thigh increased significantly from rest to exercise (P &lt; 0.01), while it remained unchanged in the calf muscle. There were no significant correlations at rest between the ratio of the right and left systolic blood pressure in the ankles and the ratio between the right and left isotope uptake in the calves, but the increase in the isotope uptake from rest to work correlated with the blood pressure ratio at r = 0.79, P &lt; 0.01 (anterior projection) and r = 0.71, P &lt; 0.01 (posterior projection)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0689_12441", "title": "[Compartment syndrome in bilateral lower legs after total cystectomy: a case report].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We report a case of compartment syndrome in bilateral lower legs after total cystectomy with urethrectomy and ileal conduit diversion. A 64-year-old man who had diabetes mellitus for 20 years underwent an operation for invasive bladder cancer. He was placed in the lithotomy position and both lower legs were protected with an elastic stocking and intermittent pneumatic compression for prevention of deep vein thrombosis during the operation. Seven hours postoperatively, he complained of bilateral calf pain. Eleven hours postoperatively, skin redness, swelling, movement and sensory disorder of bilateral lower legs were found. Contrasting computed tomography (CT) of lower legs showed the swelling of bilateral soleus muscles and gastrocnemius muscles without any contrasting effect. Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) increased to 46, 740 IU/l and the intramuscular pressure was 50 mmHg. He was diagnosed with compartment syndrome, in bilateral lower legs and emergent fasciotomy was performed. Bilateral calf pain was improved immediately after fasciotomy and could walk on his own after rehabilitation. Lower leg compartment syndrome is an uncommon disease but may require lower leg amputation or result in death if the treatment is delayed. Urologists should recognize this disease as a complication after prolonged operation in the lithotomy position." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0922_1296", "title": "Normal Values of Tissue-Muscle Perfusion Indexes of Lower Limbs Obtained with a Scintigraphic Method.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Introduction Muscle perfusion is a physiologic process that can undergo quantitative assessment and thus define the range of normal values of perfusion indexes and perfusion reserve. The investigation of the microcirculation has a crucial role in determining the muscle perfusion. Materials and method The study included 30 examinees, 24-74 years of age, without a history of confirmed peripheral artery disease and all had normal findings on Doppler ultrasonography and pedo-brachial index of lower extremity (PBI). 99mTc-MIBI tissue muscle perfusion scintigraphy of lower limbs evaluates tissue perfusion in resting condition \"rest study\" and after workload \"stress study\", through quantitative parameters: Inter-extremity index (for both studies), left thigh/right thigh (LT/RT) left calf/right calf (LC/RC) and perfusion reserve (PR) for both thighs and calves. Results In our investigated group we assessed the normal values of quantitative parameters of perfusion indexes. Indexes ranged for LT/RT in rest study 0.91-1.05, in stress study 0.92-1.04. LC/RC in rest 0.93-1.07 and in stress study 0.93-1.09. The examinees older than 50 years had insignificantly lower perfusion reserve of these parameters compared with those younger than 50, LC (p=0.98), and RC (p=0.6). Conclusion This non-invasive scintigraphic method allows in individuals without peripheral artery disease to determine the range of normal values of muscle perfusion at rest and stress condition and to clinically implement them in evaluation of patients with peripheral artery disease for differentiating patients with normal from those with impaired lower limbs circulation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_23174", "title": "Selective Fasciotomy for Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome Detected With Exercise Magnetic Resonance Imaging.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Chronic exertional compartment syndrome that is refractory to conservative management should be treated with surgical fasciotomy. However, owing to the limitations of intracompartmental needle manometry in reaching a definite diagnosis, the appropriate timing for fasciotomy and on which compartment remain unclear. The authors report the case of a 22-year-old male military cadet who reported pain in his left calf when running or walking for long distances. The pain was located at the lateral aspect of the calf, from the mid-calf level to the ankle. At another hospital, nonenhanced magnetic resonance imaging had been performed, which showed no considerable abnormality. The authors used exercise magnetic resonance imaging to diagnose chronic exertional compartment syndrome. They performed selective fasciotomy on the compartment that showed a high signal intensity. As a military cadet, the patient was required to jog for more than an hour per day and perform strenuous muscle exercises. He reported that he did not have calf pain or discomfort during such activities 13 months postoperatively. The authors obtained a follow-up exercise magnetic resonance image. Compared with the preoperative magnetic resonance image, the follow-up exercise magnetic resonance image did not show high signal intensity at the lateral compartment. Exercise magnetic resonance imaging is useful in confirming the diagnosis of chronic exertional compartment syndrome and enables the performance of selective fasciotomy on the affected compartment. [Orthopedics. 2017; 40(6):e1099-e1102.]." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0747_5132", "title": "Calf muscle stimulation with the Veinoplus device results in a significant increase in lower limb inflow without generating limb ischemia or pain in patients with peripheral artery disease.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Increase in arterial inflow to the lower limbs is important to obtain functional improvement in peripheral artery disease (PAD) patients with claudication. The aim of this study was to assess the effect of electrical stimulation of calf muscles on arterial inflow and tissue oxygen content in PAD in the area of stimulation. Fifteen adult patients [mean (standard deviation) age, 62 (12 ) years; height, 165 (8)cm; weight, 76 (13) kg; lowest ankle-brachial index 0.66 (0.19)] with stable arterial claudication were recruited. All patients performed a treadmill test (3.2 km/h, 10% slope) associated with a transcutaneous oximetry test expressed as decrease from rest of oxygen pressure (DROP) index values (calf changes minus chest changes from rest) with a maximum walking distance (median [25th/75th percentiles]) of 295 [133-881] m. The DROP index on the symptomatic side was -25 [-18/-34] mm Hg. On another day the patients underwent electrical stimulation in the seated position on the leg that was the most symptomatic on the treadmill. After resting values were recorded, the gastrocnemius was stimulated for 20minutes at increasing contraction rates at 5-minute steps of 60, 75, 86, and 100bpm on the most symptomatic side. Arterial blood inflow with duplex Doppler ultrasound scanning of the femoral artery, DROP transcutaneous oxygen pressure value, and oxygen concentration (O2Hb) from the near-infrared spectroscopic signal of the calf were recorded on both sides. Patients were instructed to report eventual contraction-induced pain in the stimulated calf. Results are given as mean (standard deviation) or median [25th/75th percentiles] according to distribution, and the level of statistical significance was set at P &lt; .05 on two-tailed tests. Lower limb inflow (mL/min) was 64 [48/86] vs 63 [57/81] (P&gt; .05) before stimulation, 123 [75/156] vs 57 [44/92] (P &lt; .01) at 60bpm, 127 [91/207] vs 49 [43/68] (P &lt; .01) at 75bpm, 140 [84/200] vs 57 [45/71] (P &lt; .01) at 86bpm, and 154 [86/185] vs 55 [46/94] (P &lt; .01) at 100bpm on the stimulated vs nonstimulated limb, respectively. No apparent decrease or significant leg difference was observed in DROP index or O2Hb values. None of the patients reported contraction-induced pain in the leg. Electrical stimulation of calf muscle with the Veinoplus device results in a significant increase of arterial inflow without measurable muscle ischemia or pain. Potential use of this device as an adjuvant treatment to improve walking capacity in PAD patients remains to be evaluated." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_137359", "title": "Compartment syndrome", "score": 0.00900974025974026, "content": "Chronic exertional compartment syndrome is usually a diagnosis of exclusion, with the hallmark finding being absence of symptoms at rest. Measurement of intracompartmental pressures during symptom reproduction (usually immediately following running) is the most useful test. Imaging studies (X-ray, CT, MRI) can be useful in ruling out the more common diagnoses. Additionally, MRI has been shown to be effective in diagnosing chronic exertional compartment syndrome. The average duration of symptoms prior to diagnosis is 28 months. Treatment Acute" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0874_12450", "title": "Accuracy of Palpation-Guided Catheter Placement for Muscle Pressure Measurements in Suspected Deep Posterior Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome of the Lower Leg: A Magnetic Resonance Imaging Study.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A diagnosis of lower leg deep posterior chronic exertional compartment syndrome (dp-CECS) is made by a dynamic pressure measurement. The insertion of a pressure catheter is guided by anatomic landmarks (freehand) or by ultrasound. The catheter tip is ideally positioned in the tibialis posterior muscle (TP). The accuracy of in vivo catheter placement using lower leg magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in healthy patients suspected of having dp-CECS has never been studied. To analyze whether a freehand catheter insertion results in accurate positioning in the TP as confirmed by MRI in patients with suspected dp-CECS. Case series; Level of evidence, 4. Catheters were inserted into central portions of the TP using a standard puncturing technique guided by lower leg anatomic landmarks. After timed muscle pressure measurements during a standard provocative treadmill running test, lower leg MRI scans were obtained and evaluated by 2 skilled radiologists. Catheter tip placement was termed accurate (in the TP), suboptimal (in the deep posterior compartment but outside the TP), or inaccurate (outside the deep posterior compartment). Between March 2013 and September 2014, a total of 24 patients (8 male, 16 female; mean age, 30 years [range, 18-54 years]) underwent an intracompartmental pressure (ICP) measurement, followed by MRI. Cardinal symptoms were pain during exertion (20% very severe, 53% severe, and 20% moderate) and tightness (29% very severe, 43% severe). Symptoms were bilateral in 74% of patients. Nine of the 24 patients were diagnosed with dp-CECS based on elevated ICPs. Of the 24 patients, catheter tip placement was accurate in 10 (42%), whereas suboptimal placement was achieved in 9 (38%). Five procedures were inaccurate (transition zone between the deep and superficial compartments, n = 3; in the superficial lower leg compartment, n = 2). Signs of a hematoma were found in 38% of the patients, although there were no associated clinical symptoms. Palpation-guided placement of catheters for TP pressure measurements is suboptimal in more than half of the patients with suspected lower leg dp-CECS. Optimizing the pressure catheter tip positioning technique may improve diagnostic accuracy in dp-CECS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0407_8725", "title": "Effects of supine intermittent compression on arterial inflow to the lower limb.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Intermittent pneumatic compression will affect the arterial blood flow in the lower limb at moderate pressure, without requiring dependency. Before-after trial. Vascular ultrasound unit of a university hospital. A volunteer sample of 19 healthy subjects without symptoms or history of vascular disease and 17 patients with peripheral arterial disease were studied. Six patients and 1 healthy volunteer were not included in the study group because of measurement difficulties or refusal when approached. Common femoral artery blood flow velocities were measured with Doppler ultrasound during 10 minutes of intermittent compression of the calf and thigh at 60 mm Hg, while the subject was supine. The data were collected every 5 seconds from 4 minutes before to 4 minutes after the therapy period, and toe temperatures were also measured with an infrared radiometer. Resting to postcompression percentage increases in flow velocity were measured, along with more representative measures of the total flow change during the intermittent compression period. On compression, the blood flow velocity decreased slightly (15% in healthy subjects and 6% in patients) and increased on release (21% and 29%, respectively). Overall, blood flow did not decrease during therapy as expected (increases of 1% and 2%, respectively), and the toes of the patients warmed (by 2.2 degrees C). This work confirms the initial hypothesis in both subject groups. There appears to be physiological justification for investigating intermittent compression as a therapy for patients with intermittent claudication and rest pain in the supine position as well as seated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0976_10583", "title": "Superficial peroneal nerve schwannoma presenting as lumbar radicular syndrome in a non-competitive runner.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Running is one of the most common sports practices in the world due to the beneficial impact on the health, despite the relatively high risk of getting injuries. In fact, running is one of the most common sports capable to induce overuse injuries of the lower back and leg. In previous studies, the symptoms in the lower limb have been attributed to lumbosacral degenerative pathology. When the symptoms are unclear, they must be studied with great attention by carrying out an accurate process of screening and differential diagnosis. A 42-year-old non-competitive male runner who complained of left leg pain was referred to a physiotherapist. He reported a continuous, deep, sharp, shooting pain of the left leg. The symptoms began one year earlier. Symptoms worsened during prolonged driving and long distance running. The patient had been previously diagnosed with lumbar radicular irradiation in the leg by a general practitioner. Initial management, in another physical therapy outpatient setting, was without any improvement. After surgical excision, symptoms gradually regressed shortly and the patient was referred to a physiotherapist in order to fully recover and restore work and running activities. This case report describes the history, assessment and treatment of a runner with a rare cause of leg pain. After surgery excision, treatment focused on education and loading the tissues over many weeks through a graded program of loaded exercises and running retraining." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0218_3603", "title": "Leg arteritis exploration by quantitative muscle scintigraphy with 201Tl.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Detection and localization of peripheral arterial disease was evaluated by an intravenous injection of 201Tl at peak exercise in 18 subjects and at rest in 6 patients. Images of the skull (S), thighs (T), knees (K), calves (C) and feet (F) were obtained at rest or after exercise and stored in a computer. Intraleg (T/K, T/C, T/F), and left to right interleg (TL/TR,...) count ratios were calculated. In addition, all patients were submitted to routine functional tests (walk perimeter, serial local arterial blood pressure measurement, Strandness test, venous occlusion plethysmography). Correlations between functional tests and the intra and interleg ratios were calculated. After exercise, there is a medium correlation between the tissular blood flow under hyperemia at the calf level and the T/C and C/K ratios. At the calf level a good correlation is obtained for CL/CR and the flux under hyperemia (r = 0.81, P 0.001). A ratio between the counting rates of limb segments after exercise and those of skull was established. The ratios T/S and C/S compared with the systolic pressure index of the most affected limb after a Strandness test give a correlation of 0.72 (P 0.02) for the thigh and of 0.86 (P 0.001) for the calf. For hyperemic flux, the correlation are 0.58 (P 0.005) with T/S and 0.75 (P 0.001) with C/S. In order to find the best quantitative scintigraphic index of the arterial illness, we compared the different ratio values with the distance walked. For T/S we found a relationship very close to a linear one and for C/S a less significant exponential one. Thus, quantitative scintigraphy using 201Tl appears as an accurate method to measure local muscular perfusion deficit in the cases of lower limb arterial disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0505_20608", "title": "Traumatic deep vein thrombosis in a soccer player: A case study.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A 42 year-old male former semi-professional soccer player sustained a right lower extremity popliteal contusion during a soccer game. He was clinically diagnosed with a possible traumatic deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and sent for confirmatory tests. A duplex doppler ultrasound was positive for DVT, and the patient was admitted to hospital for anticoagulation (unfractionated heparin, warfarin). Upon discharge from hospital the patient continued oral warfarin anticoagulation (six months), and the use of compression stockings (nine months). He followed up with his family doctor at regular intervals for serial coagulation measurements, and ultrasound examinations. The patient's only identified major thrombotic risk factor was the traumatic injury. One year after the initial deep vein thrombosis (DVT) the patient returned to contact sport, however he continued to have intermittent symptoms of right lower leg pain and right knee effusion.Athletes can develop vascular injuries in a variety of contact and non-contact sports. Trauma is one of the most common causes of lower extremity deep vein thrombosis (DVT), however athletic injuries involving lower extremity traumatic DVT are seldom reported. This diagnosis and the associated risk factors must be considered during the initial physical examination. The primary method of radiological diagnosis of lower extremity DVT is a complete bilateral duplex sonography, which can be augmented by other methods such as evidence-based risk factor analysis. Antithrombotic medication is the current standard of treatment for DVT. Acute thrombolytic treatment has demonstrated an improved therapeutic efficacy, and a decrease in post-DVT symptoms.There is a lack of scientific literature concerning the return to sport protocol following a DVT event. Athletic individuals who desire to return to sport after a DVT need to be fully informed about their treatment and risk of reoccurrence, so that appropriate decisions can be made." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_6591", "title": "Simultaneous isotope clearance from the muscles of the calf and thigh.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "There has been no end to the attempts made to determine the site and severity of arterial lesions in claudicants by the use of non-invasive methods but, so far, their diagnostic value has been limited. A method whose diagnostic accuracy in determining the site and functional severity of the lesions approaches that of arteriography is discussed. The hyperaemic index, which is the ratio of the total excess of blood supply during post-exercise hyperaemia over the maximum hyperaemic flow, has been determined in the thigh and calf simultaneously, by measuring the 99Tcm muscle clearance in 30 limbs of 20 healthy volunteers and 139 limbs of 145 patients with claudication. Lumbar arteriography classified the lesions in all patients as 0-10 per cent, 10-40 per cent, 40-70 per cent and more than 70 per cent stenosis. A bivariate analysis of the hyperamic indices of the thigh and calf determined the site and whether single lesions consisted of a stenosis greater or less than 70 per cent. In limbs with combined aorto-iliac and superficial femoral lesions the values of the hyperaemic indices could determine which of the two lesions was the more severe in addition to whether lesions consisted of a stenosis greater or less than 70 per cent. These findings have been confirmed in a further blind prospective study of 47 limbs in which determination of the site and severity of lesions preceded aortography." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_13149", "title": "Bilateral Exertional Compartment Syndrome With Endoscopic Fasciotomy Surgical Intervention in a High School Athlete.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 17-year-old female presented to the physical therapy clinic with bilateral lower leg pain that worsened with activity. The patient experienced numbness, tingling, and cramping along the lateral and posterior portions of her legs during basketball practice, and her symptoms had gradually worsened over the past eight months. She obtained minimal relief with conservative treatments such as stretching and rest. X-rays and MRI of the lower limbs were obtained six months after symptoms began and were unremarkable. Further evaluation included compartment pressure testing taken before and after exercise. The patient demonstrated diagnostic pressures indicative of compartment syndrome in two compartments bilaterally. The patient was subsequently diagnosed with exertional compartment syndrome. Exertional compartment syndrome is a cause of muscle pain that occurs due to increased tissue pressure within the confinement of the closed fascial space during exercise. Patients are often misdiagnosed or there is a significant delay in the correct diagnosis. The gold standard for diagnosis is measurement of intracompartmental pressures with the Stryker catheter. Clinicians should consider exertional compartment syndrome in active patients who present with generalized muscle pain or sensation deficits that worsen with activity and are relieved with rest. Surgical intervention is a reasonable intervention and the only definitive option for an athlete with chronic exertional compartment syndrome who wants to continue high-level competition. Endoscopic fasciotomies are the new preferred techniques compared to more invasive open surgeries, which require a full incision. Endoscopic fasciotomy has a quicker healing time and has been shown to be as effective at relieving compartment syndrome symptoms as invasive open techniques. After surgical intervention, the patient reported a 90% reduction in symptoms and had returned to full sport participation within two months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_71", "title": "[Chronic anterior tibial syndrome].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "In two young athletic men we made the diagnosis of chronic tibialis anterior syndrome. Pain during strenuous exercise was localized in the anterolateral aspect of both calves. After stopping exercise the complaints disappeared within 15-20 minutes and not in 2-3 minutes as it would be typical for patients with atherosclerotic peripheral arterial occlusive disease. Diagnosis is based on patient history, normal clinical examination (systolic ankle pressure determined by Doppler-Sonography, electronic segmental oscillography) and increased intramuscular pressure at rest (&gt; 10 mmHg) and after exercise (42 and 35 mmHg). Bilateral fasciotomy was performed in both patients. They are free of pain after 3 respectively 6 months postoperatively." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0846_5624", "title": "Painless squeaking following cervical disc replacement: A case report.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "We present a case of painless squeaking following cervical disc replacement which to our knowledge has not previously been reported in the literature. A 45 year old gentleman presented with severe right sided C6 radiculopathy. He complained of more than 6 weeks of severe dysaesthesia in the right arm with pain radiating into the hand, thumb, index, middle and ring fingers. MRI confirmed severe impingement of C6 and C7 nerve roots. After trying a period of conservative treatment he underwent anterior cervical decompression with total cervical disc replacement of C5-6 and C6-7. Being a keen athlete he started running at 6 months post operatively. At his 12 month outpatient he presented us with an audio file containing squeaking from his neck. This was recorded immediately following a 9.5 mile hard surface run. The squeak got progressively less in intensity over 12 hours and disappeared after 24 hours. All instances of squeaking occurred after exercise where impact (running) or vibration (cycling) took place. This was first noticed 6 months post operatively when he restarted exercising. All episodes were completely painless. At his 18 month outpatient review the squeaking had reduced in frequency and intensity. At his 24 month review it had abated completely. The aetiology of this painless squeaking has been elusive and is likely to be multifactorial. However we hypothesise that the audible squeak associated with the prestige LP disc maybe related to specific design characteristics and needs further evaluation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0264_14046", "title": "[Follow-up study, using dynamic transcutaneous oximetry in 17 patients with stage II Leriche and Fontaine occlusive arterial disease of the lower limbs].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "We evaluated the value of dynamic transcutaneous oxygen pressure measurement (TcPO2) in 17 patients with stage II occlusive arterial disease of the lower limbs treated with exercise only. We studied 17 patients (15 men, two women) with an average age of 63 years (range 39-80 years). Claudication perimeter and dynamic TcPO2 were evaluated before and after 6 month walking exercise and tabac stopping. Four different sites of TcPO2 were studied: precordium (reference probe), thigh, calf and foot in the dorsal recumbent position after 30 minutes rest, during a standardised exercise stress test at 50 watts and during the recovery phase. The results were expressed as ratio of tissue oxygenation (RTO): thigh, calf or foot TcPO2/precordial TcPO2 x 100 in order to take into account the patients cardiorespiratory status and adaptation to exercise. Claudication perimeter was 255 m +/- 221 before 6 months exercise and 835 m +/- 539 after (P &lt; 0.01). The duration of significative ischemia was significantly reduced after 6 months exercise (P = 0.02 calf, P &lt; 0.01 foot). Dynamic transcutaneous oxymetry would therefore seem to be a useful method of assessing stage II occlusive peripheral arterial disease and the topography of tissue hypoxia. It could be valuable in orientating treatment and the first method to provide and objective evaluation of the efficacy of medical or surgical treatment." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 62 ] ], "text": "If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 62 ] ], "text": "If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 332 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 62 ] ], "text": "If they are talking about a young man 20-30 years old, with tremor and dystonia, whether or not he has a family history, and especially if one of the options tells me about copper in urine, they are telling me to think of Wilson's disease. I do not think of juvenile Parkinson's, nor an epileptic clinic. So the correct answer is 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "DATS CAN.", "2": "Nerve conduction study.", "3": "Electroencephalogram.", "4": "Copper in urine of 24.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1040_16743", "title": "[A case suspected of dystonia with marked cerebellar atrophy with torsion dystonia of the neck and cerebellar ataxia that developed during pharmacologic schizophrenia treatment].", "score": 0.01743396226415094, "content": "A 46 year-old man with schizophrenia had taken several anti-psychotic drugs since 25 years of age. From ~35 years of age, he noticed occasional neck torsion to the left, and later an ataxic gait; both symptoms gradually worsened. On admission, the patient was taking olanzapine (5 mg/day) and biperiden hydrochloride (1 mg/day) because his schizophrenia was well controlled. His parents were not consanguineous, and there was no family history of neuropsychiatric diseases. On neurological examination, he showed mild cognitive impairment, saccadic eye pursuit with horizontal gaze nystagmus, mild dysarthria, dystonic posture and movement of the neck, incoordination of both hands, and an ataxic gait. Deep tendon reflexes were normal except for the patellar tendon reflex, which was exaggerated bilaterally. Pathological reflexes were negative and there was no sign of rigidity, sensory disturbance or autonomic dysfunction. Ophthalmological examinations detected thinning of the outer macula lutea in both eyes, indicative of macular dystrophy. After admission, all anti-psychotic drugs were ceased, but his dystonia was unchanged. Levodopa and trihexyphenidyl hydrochloride were not effective. General blood, urine and cerebrospinal fluid examinations showed no abnormalities. Brain MRI showed cerebellar atrophy and bilateral symmetrical thalamic lesions without brainstem atrophy or abnormal signals in the basal ganglia. I<sup123</sup-IMP SPECT also revealed a decreased blood flow in the cerebellum. Genetic screening, including whole exome sequencing conducted by the Initiative on Rare and Undiagnosed Disease identified no possible disease-causing variants. The patient's dystonia worsened and choreic movements manifested on his right hand and foot. We suspected dystonia with marked cerebellar atrophy (DYTCA), but could not exclude drug-induced dystonia. Macular dystrophy and bilateral thalamic lesions on brain MRI have not been previously described in DYTCA. Whether these features might be primarily associated with dystonia or cerebellar ataxia now remains to be determined." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_3946", "title": "[Juvenile-onset dystonia with bilateral atrophy of the basal ganglia on MRI].", "score": 0.01688515246508977, "content": "A 40-year-old man was hospitalized for tremor of the right upper limb, gait disturbance and dysarthria. His course of development had been normal until the age of 14, when difficulties in speaking and walking, and tremor of the upper limb became evident following an episode of fever. His symptoms have been gradually worsening for the past 25 years. His elder sister showed similar clinical symptoms and progressive course of illness. The patient showed no indication of mental retardation. Neurological examination showed dysarthria, slow dyskinetic movement of the tongue, dystonic posture of the left hand, tremor of irregular frequency of the right upper limb, diminished tendon reflex, positive Romberg's sign, diminished vibratory and position sense in the lower limbs and pyramidal signs. Cystometry indicated defective voiding of the bladder. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain showed bilateral atrophy of the putamina, globus pallidus, caudate nuclei and substantia nigra. MRI showed similar findings in her sister. By electrophysiological and pathological examination, disorders of other systems were evident, such as upper motor neurons, and sensory tract. GM1 and GM2 gangliosidosis appeared the most likely diagnosis, but were ruled out on the basis of the result of lysozomal enzyme assay and rectal biopsy. The present patient's condition may possibly be the result of an unknown metabolic disorder, or a new disease entity affecting various components of the nervous system." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0312_6768", "title": "Agreement among movement disorder specialists on the clinical diagnosis of essential tremor.", "score": 0.01558837318330989, "content": "Even though essential tremor (ET) is the most prevalent movement disorder, there has been little agreement in the neurologic literature regarding diagnostic criteria for ET. The authors attempted to determine the extent and source of agreement and disagreement among neurologists regarding diagnostic criteria for clinically definite ET. The authors designed and mailed a semistructured questionnaire to 160 neurologists who specialize in movement disorders in 24 countries. The questionnaire included three sections: a list of inclusion criteria, a list of exclusion criteria, and a list of potential clinical scenarios (for example, isolated site-specific tremor and primary orthostatic tremor). The questionnaire was completed by 98 (61%) of 160 targeted neurologists. There was greater consensus regarding features considered unnecessary inclusion criteria for clinically definite ET (extent of disability, disease duration, and positive family history) than for those considered necessary inclusion criteria (postural versus action tremor). With regard to exclusion criteria, there was some consensus in terms of the presence of Parkinson's disease, dystonia, history of hyperthyroidism or concurrent use of tremor-inducing medications, and cerebellar signs. The majority of neurologists would diagnose ET in the setting of isolated head or voice tremor. There are areas of both consensus and divergence among neurologists with regard to diagnostic criteria for ET. The choice of diagnostic criteria may vary depending on the intended use of the criteria (that is, clinical versus genetic studies). Hopefully, this study will foster further discussion to achieve a more general consensus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0718_24099", "title": "Neurological Wilson disease in children: a three years experience from Multan.", "score": 0.015336702315195676, "content": "To describe the neurological manifestations, results of investigations and response to treatment in Wilson disease in children from Multan. This cross sectional study was conducted at Neurology Department of Children Hospital and Institute of Child Health Multan from June 2005 to May 2008. Fifty children were included in this study. Age at onset of symptoms, sex, duration of symptoms, presenting complaints, consanguinity among parents, family history and response to treatment was noted. Chi square test was used to measure relationship between variables and response to treatment. P value of less than 0.05 was taken as significant. Of the 50 cases studied, 48 were index cases and two were diagnosed on screening. Male female ratio was 2.1:1. Mean age at onset of symptoms was 9.06 +/- 2.65 years. Dystonia, dysarthria and cognitive decline was seen in 92%, drooling in 68%, tremors in 52%, chorea in 24% and seizures in 12% of children. Kayser Fleischer rings and elevated 24 hours urinary copper after penicillamine challenge, 1567 +/- 167.35 microg/day was present in all 50 children. Twenty two (44%) children showed early response, 24 (48%) late response and 4 (8%) children showed no response after one year of treatment. Late, greater than 10 years of age at onset of symptoms, less than 6 months duration of symptoms and urinary copper excretion of less than 1000 microg/day were found statistically significant factors for early response to treatment. In the study population, dystonia, dysarthria and cognitive decline were the commonest presentations. Twenty four hour urinary copper was found helpful for diagnosis. Penicillamine was found to be an effective drug for treatment as overall response was noted in 92% of children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0398_15683", "title": "[Wilson's disease. Clinical presentation, treatment and evolution in 21 cases].", "score": 0.013247282608695652, "content": "Wilson's disease is characterized by neuropsychiatric symptoms with frequent extrapyramidal and intellectual presentations. They have an insidious evolution that leads to a late diagnosis and less therapeutic effectiveness in the advanced forms. We report 21 cases of Wilson's disease with neurological complications, emphasizing clinical semiology, diagnostic means and problems of the therapeutics in our country. The average age at the beginning of the disease was 17.6 years, with a female prevalence (8/13). The signs at first were mostly all neurological (71.4%), then psychiatric (19%) or hepatic (19%). The most common neurological signs were dystonia of members (81%), dysarthria (76%), tremors (76%) or disorders of motoricity (71.4%). Sometimes there were sialorrhea or disorders of the handwriting. The Kayser-Fleischer ring was present in 19 patients. Eighteen patients had clinical and/or biological hepatic involvement. The diagnosis was confirmed by biochemical examinations, which found a low rate of copper in blood, a sinking rate of ceruloplasmin and a very high rate of urinary copper. The cerebral computer tomography shows a cortical and/or subcortical atrophy (37%), and/or a low density of the central grey cores (35%). The treatment was based on D-penicillamine and/or zinc sulfate, according to the availability of the drugs. The evolution was favourable among 18 patients (85%) and not good in 42.8% of the cases. Six of the first patients had poor evolution after many years of follow-up. Finally, only 12 patients (57%) had a very good outcome. The family investigation made among 17 patients revealed 13 family cases. The only predictive factor of a poor evolution was the therapeutic noncompliance (P = 0.006). The neurological presentations are traditional during the Wilson's disease, but are often ignored. We must suspect the disease in children when faced with disorders of handwriting or school failures and in the adult, when faced with neurological symptoms in a patient having a hepatic disease. We must not hesitate to consider it even given purely psychiatric signs, and we had better know to seek the neurological ones." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_1486", "title": "[A 75-year-old man with parkinsonism and delirium].", "score": 0.01276083467094703, "content": "We report a 75-year-old man with a ten-year history of parkinsonism, who developed acute delirium. He was well until 65 years of age, when there was an onset of tremor in his left hand. He had been treated with levodopa and trihexyphenidyl with marked improvement. He was doing well until July of 1991 at his age of 75-year-old, when he noted backache; he was found to have a compression fracture of the third lumbar spine. He had to use a wheel-chair most of the time since then. In December 1991, he started to have visual hallucinations and difficulty in swallowing. On December 25 of that year, he developed fever and delirium, and was admitted to our hospital on December 30. On admission, general physical examination was unremarkable except for low grade fever (37.3 degrees C). Neurologic examination revealed an alert but chronically ill patient. Apparently he had visual hallucinations. He was disoriented to all spheres; he could respond only to simple questions. Apparently he was demented. Cranial nerves were intact except for mumbling speech disturbance and masked face. He was unable to stand or walk. He had flexion contracture in his both knee joints. He had paratonic rigidity in all his limbs and marked bradykinesia. Once in a while, myoclonic jerks were seen in both upper and lower extremities. Deep reflexes were diminished bilaterally, and the plantar reflex was not elicited on either side. On laboratory examination, BUN was increased to 72 mg/dl, creatinine to 3.0 mg/dl, and WBC 16,000/microliter. Cranial CT scans were unremarkable.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "article-23585_9", "title": "Intention Tremor -- History and Physical -- Physical Exam", "score": 0.012452010507173166, "content": "Finger-to-nose and heel-to-shin tests can be useful to evaluate for end-point intention tremors, especially when the patient is asked to do the maneuver quickly. Fine finger movements can be used as well to assess coordination and speed in tasks such as finger or foot tapping, buttoning/unbuttoning shirt, grabbing an object such as a cup or pencil.  The tremor will increase when the extremity is approaching the target. Another characteristic of intention tremors is that the oscillating amplitude can be decreased when the eyes are closed. Rapid alternating movement maneuvers can be used to identify dysdiadochokinesia. Proprioception of the great toes can be impaired as well. Gait testing may reveal wide-based ataxia, with difficulties with tandem gait and a positive Romberg. The patient may have slow saccadic movements and nystagmus. Depending on the etiology, patients may have increased reflexes and extensor Babinski reflexes. [3]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_264929", "title": "Tremor", "score": 0.012295081967213115, "content": "Diagnosis During a physical exam, a doctor can determine whether the tremor occurs primarily during action or at rest. The doctor will also check for tremor symmetry, any sensory loss, weakness or muscle atrophy, or decreased reflexes. A detailed family history may indicate if the tremor is inherited. Blood or urine tests can detect thyroid malfunction, other metabolic causes, and abnormal levels of certain chemicals that can cause tremor. These tests may also help to identify contributing causes, such as drug interaction, chronic alcoholism, or another condition or disease. Diagnostic imaging using CT or MRI imaging may help determine if the tremor is the result of a structural defect or degeneration of the brain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0068_7130", "title": "[Two cases of familial idiopathic basal ganglia calcifications (BCG) with non-symptomatic family members].", "score": 0.011425974616158664, "content": "We reported two families each propositus of which exhibited extrapyramidal signs and dementia with bilateral basal ganglia calcifications (BGC), while some of the other non-symptomatic family members showed BCG on brain CT by further examinations. Family 1) A 49-year-old woman was normal until her mid 40s when her memory began to fail. At age 40, dementia, finger-tremor and rigidity were observed and with brain CT and Magnetic Resonance Imaging, BCG and dentate calcifications were found. Her two daughters (20 years old and 26 years old) were free of any neuropsychiatric symptoms, but with CT examinations disclosed BCG. Family 2) A 40-year-old man. His symptoms started at 33 years old. He noticed gradually increasing finger-tremor, rigidity and dysarthria. At 40 years he showed mild dementia and BCG on Brain CT. His mother (64 years old) was non-symptomatic but CT showed that she had BCG. In the two families the calcium, phosphorous and parathyroid hormone levels, and Ellsworth-Howard test were normal. Other specific etiology including infections and somatic abnormalities was not discovered. Familial idiopathic basal ganglia calcification was considered to be rare. But the main purpose of this report is to point out that we must pay attention to the possibility of BCG of non-symptomatic family members if one showed dementia and extrapyramidal signs, and BCG on Brain CT in middle age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0353_5005", "title": "Childhood head tremor.", "score": 0.011097000483792937, "content": "We report here four children (three girls, one boy) with head tremor followed longitudinally, ages 15 months to 11 years, with follow-up over 1 to 8 years. Each demonstrated onset of head tremor between the ages of 5 and 10 months. In each case head tremor was characterized by a predominant \"yes-yes\" or \"no-no\" movement of the head. In two of the children the movement was slightly skewed with chin movement toward the shoulder. Oscillations were at a frequency of about 1 to 2 Hz. They were accentuated when sitting upright without head support, increased at times of movement, and dissipated while lying flat or sleeping. The children were unable to voluntarily suppress the action and did not experience any sensation of movement. Three of the children had shuddering spells prior to onset of head tremor. Two children have developed mild dystonic posturing of the legs when intently concentrating. Their general and neurologic examinations were normal. Normal investigations included brain magnetic resonance imaging and computed tomography, urine amino acids and organic acids screening, serum lactate, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, antinuclear antibodies, and ceruloplasmin and copper levels. A family history of tremor was present in two children, maternal epilepsy in one child, and infantile shuddering occurred in the father of one child. Therapy included trials of selective and nonselective beta-adrenergic blockers, alpha-adrenergic agonists, anticholinergics, anticonvulsants, and amantadine. One child responded well to both timolol and trihexyphenidyl. A second child responded moderately to primidone. Two have not been treated. Two have had head tremor spontaneously remit. We conclude from this small series of children with head tremor that it can evolve from a prior history of shuddering spells, occurs in the context of a positive family history of tremor, and can be accompanied by the development of a mild dystonia. Therapeutic response is variable to multiple agents. Spontaneous remission occurs, suggesting a benign course." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0388_1051", "title": "[Parkinsonism probably induced by manganese].", "score": 0.011065549056262437, "content": "In all cases of young persons with clinical Parkinson s disease it should be suspected that it is secondary to some primary disorder. Therefore a battery of diagnostic tests should be done before classification as idiopathic Parkinson s disease. A 31 year old woman whose only previous illness had been Graves disease. She complained of difficulty with movements of her right arm and leg for some months (she had problems with walking and with rapid, repeated movements of her right hand). She also complained of tremor of her right limbs at rest. She denied taking drugs, having dysphagia, dysarthria, visual changes or sphincter disorders. Neurological examination showed her to have monotonous speech, slight facial hypomimia, slight reduction in spontaneous blinking, walking with less swing of her right arm; postural tremor of both arms, worse on the right; bradykinesia (2/4) of both right limbs and rigidity (1/4), axial and of the right limbs. The results of all the investigations done to rule out secondary Parkinsonism were normal, except for the plasma manganese level which was raised, although it returned to normal when the probable source of exposure to this metal was removed. However, the alterations of movement only disappeared after treatment with levodopa was started. In cases of Parkinsonism in young adults secondary causes should always be rules out, such as exposure to certain metals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0373_493", "title": "Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome in two siblings diagnosed by clinical features and magnetic resonance imaging.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome (HSS) is a rare condition characterized by extrapyramidal and pyramidal signs, dystonia, dysarthria, retinal degeneration, dementia and a progressive course. The development of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) has increased the number of clinical and pathological reports of HSS. MRI pallidal abnormalities are called \"eye of the tiger\" signs. The combination of clinical features and MRI findings can be considered as highly suggestive of a diagnosis of HSS. Patient 1 was a 28 year old man who had been well until the age of 25 years. He developed dysarthria, difficulty with his gait and dystonia in his arms at the age of 28 years. Patient 2 was a 33 year old man who was the older brother of the first patient. He developed gait difficulty, tongue dystonia and dystonia of both arms at the age of 25 years. Each patient had spastic gait, dysarthria, dystonic posturing of both arms and generalized hyperreflexia, but no Kayser-Fleischer rings or retinitis pigmentosa. Blood chemistry, urine copper, serum copper and serum ceruloplasmin were all normal. MRI of the brain showed the \"eye of the tiger\" sign in the globus pallidus on T2 weighted images. These siblings had clinical features and MRI findings consistent with HSS. They are the first to be reported in Thailand." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_30466", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009825421396628828, "content": "Neurologic onset usually manifests in the second decade with tremor and rigidity. The tremor is usually in the upper limbs, bilateral, and asymmetric. Tremor can be on intention or occasionally resting and, in advanced disease, can take on a wing-beating characteristic. Other features include parkinsonism with bradykinesia, dystonia (particularly facial grimacing), dysarthria, and dysphagia. More than half of those with neurologic features have a history of psychiatric disturbances, including depression, mood swings, and overt psychosis. Kayser-Fleischer (KF) rings are seen in 80% of those with hepatic presentations and virtually all with neurologic features. KF rings represent the deposition of copper in Descemet’s membrane around the cornea. They consist of a characteristic grayish rim or circle at the limbus of the cornea and are best detected by slit-lamp examination. Neuropathologic examination is characterized by neurodegeneration and astrogliosis in the basal ganglia," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0974_9146", "title": "Diagnostic Uncertainty in a Complex Young Man: Autism Versus Psychosis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "James is a 7½-year-old boy born in Vietnam to a mother with mental illness. Little is known about his early history; he spent the first 6 months of his life in an orphanage, followed by foster care and a disrupted adoption. He moved to the U.S. at age 1½ and joined his current adoptive family at age 4 years. Shortly thereafter, James' psychiatric nurse practitioner diagnosed him with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Pragmatic language and syntax deficits were also noted from an early age.James is now exhibiting anxiety, perseverative beliefs, and regression in his toileting. He began \"talking to himself in his room\" and using neologisms. A school-based evaluation resulted in educational diagnoses of ADHD and ASD based on social disconnectedness and invading others' personal space. James' parents felt \"something else was going on\" and sought a second opinion with a multidisciplinary team (consisting of a pediatric psychologist and a developmental pediatrician). Considering James' history, previous assessments, and their assessment battery (Behavior Assessment System for Children, Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function, and Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule, and Rorschach Inkblot Test), the team characterized his current symptoms as an emerging psychotic disorder.Several consultations occurred over the next 9 months of the school term. First, clinicians in the psychiatry department confirmed symptoms of functional decline, cognitive disorganization, and hallucinations, which were attributed to post-traumatic stress rather than a psychotic disorder. Second, adding to the diagnostic uncertainty, when James started an atypical antipsychotic medication and was under good symptom control, the school team believed that ADHD-not psychosis-best accounted for his presentation. There was significant contention between the medical team and consulting school psychologist regarding the extent to which data from the parental history and Rorschach should be considered in formulating the patient's diagnosis.Two-and-a-half years later, James was weaned off risperidone to manage a new side effect of tics. He subsequently manifested significant paranoia with reactive aggression toward peers for imagined slights and insults that he could \"swear he heard.\" A different school-contracted psychologist's re-evaluation corroborated the diagnosis of schizophrenia based on the several years of unfolding clinical observations. Acting from the supposition that early-onset psychosis was too rare and too stigmatizing a condition to apply to a \"kid who's just having trouble paying attention,\" the first school psychologist remained adamant that ADHD and ASD were the most appropriate diagnoses, and James would be ill-served \"pumped full of neuroleptics.\"He returns now to the original Developmental Behavioral Pediatric consulting team. What would you do to try to bridge this impasse?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0419_12346", "title": "Case study of a young man with tremor.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To provide the clinician with an opportunity to review the most common causes of tremor in young adults. Extensive review of international scientific literature on tremors and other movement disorders, supplemented by a recent case study. Essential tremor (ET) is the most common tremor disorder in the world. In contrast to common expectations, the 2nd decade of life represents a period of peak incidence. The early presentation may be so mild that the tremor goes unnoticed by patients and clinicians for many years. The most important movement disorder to rule out in the workup of patients with tremors is Parkinson's disease. The diagnosis of ET is generally made on clinical grounds. A comprehensive history and careful physical examination that rules out cerebellar or extrapyramidal disease is required. The clinician must distinguish between resting tremors and action tremors. If the appropriate diagnosis is unclear, a tremor recording (electromyogram) may assist in this distinction. Referral to a neurologist may be warranted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_6796", "title": "[Acute intermittent familial ataxia: report of a new family].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "INTRODUCTION. Acute intermittent familial ataxia is a rare disorder with autosomal dominant inheritance and unknown etiology which usually in childhood or adolescence. CASE 1. A 33-years-old woman who suffered from giddiness, gait ataxia, dysarthria and somnolence episodes. These episodes lasted between 4 and 72 hours. They generally occurred within a framework of emotional or physical stress. The following tests were performed: hemogram and biochemistry, blood and urine toxicology, immunological tests, cerebrospinal-fluid study, electrocardiogram, electroencephalogram, trunk and visual evocated potentials, cerebral computed tomography and cerebral magnetic resonance imaging. None of them gave significative results. CASE 2. A 12-years-old boy, son of the previous woman, who suffered from somnolence, gait ataxia and dysarthria with acute beginning. The same tests than in the above case were performed together with metabolic studies. There were no pathological findings in this case, either. The symptoms disappeared gradually in 6 days. His familial history led to a diagnosis of acute intermittent familial ataxia. A year later he suffered from a similar disorder and he was immediately treated with acetazolamide. The symptoms disappeared in 2 hours. CONCLUSIONS. Acute intermittent familial ataxia is a disorder of difficult identification. It can be easily confused with other periodical ones, because its diagnosis has to be based on the clinical findings and on the familial history. For this purpose, a therapeutic test with acetazolamide can be useful, since in most cases a spectacular clinical improvement has been observed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0505_15050", "title": "Validity of family history data on primary adult-onset dystonia.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To our knowledge, no study has assessed the validity of family history data provided by probands with adult-onset dystonia. To measure the sensitivity and specificity of interviewing patients with primary adult-onset dystonia as a method for obtaining information on dystonia in first-degree relatives. Seventy probands with primary adult-onset dystonia were asked to identify first-degree relatives who had dystonia. Available relatives were then directly examined by a trained neurologist. The validity of the probands' reports was tested against the neurologists' diagnoses. Among 300 first-degree relatives who were examined, 26 received a diagnosis of dystonia. Only 7 of the 26 were identified by the probands' reports. Among the 274 relatives free of dystonia, the probands reported 5 as having dystonia. The probands' reports therefore yielded a sensitivity of 27.0% and a specificity of 98.2%. Because the family history method yields low sensitivity and incurs a risk of misclassification, it is of limited use in family studies of adult-onset dystonia. The only valid means of ascertaining dystonia among relatives remains neurological examination of at-risk subjects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1165_10374", "title": "Myoclonus status revealing COVID 19 infection.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "At the beginning of the coronavirus virus (COVID-19) pandemic, the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV2) was thought to cause mainly respiratory symptoms, largely sparing the brain and the rest of the nervous system. However, as the knowledge about COVID-19 infection progresses and the number of COVID19-related neurological manifestations reports increases, neurotropism and neuroinvasion were finally recognized as major features of the SARS-CoV-2. Neurological manifestations involving the central nervous system are sparse, ranging from headaches, drowsiness, and neurovascular attacks to seizures and encephalitis [1]. Thus far, several cases of non-epileptic myoclonus were reported in critical patients [2,3]. Here, we report the first case of myoclonus status as the inaugural and sole symptom of COVID-19 in a conscious patient. A 60-year-old man with unknown family history and no medical issues other than smoking one cigarette packet a day over the span of 25 years. The patient presented with 5 days of abnormal movements in bilateral arms following the COVID vaccination. They were described as brief, involuntary jerking, like in sleep starts, in the proximal part of their upper members, and his face with a regular tremor in his arms exacerbated by movements and emotion. His movement disorder worsened the second day, and he developed an abnormal gait with slurred speech, concomitantly with diarrhea. Seven days following the symptoms onset, the patient was alert. His neurological exam revealed multifocal myoclonic jerks affecting four limbs predominantly proximal, the face, and the trunk (video 1). The myoclonic jerks were sensitive to tactile and auditory stimuli, without enhanced startle response or hyperekplexia. His gait was unsteady due to severe myoclonus, without cerebellar ataxia (video 2) and he had mild dysarthria. No dysmetria at the finger-to-nose and heel-to-shin tests were found. Examination of eye movements revealed paralysis of Down-Gaze and no opsoclonus was detected. Physical exam was unremarkable, including lack of fever and meningitis signs. The electroencephalogram (EEG) did not show any abnormalities concomitant with myoclonic jerks (Fig.1). The cerebral Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) was normal (Fig. 2). An extensive biological work-up including a complete blood count, a comprehensive metabolic panel, an arterial blood gas analysis, a urine drug screen, a thyroid function test, a vitamin B12, folate, and ammonia level, and HIV and syphilis serologies were inconclusive. Testing for autoimmune and paraneoplastic antineuronal antibodies including anti-NMDA-R was negative. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) study was unremarkable (0.3 g/l of proteinorachia, 1 white blood cell). Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, and SARS-CoV-2 in CSF was negative. However, the patient tested positive for COVID-19 through PCR for viral RNA from the nasopharyngeal swab. After the administration of 12mg/day of Dexamethasone for 3 days, along with clonazepam and levetiracetam, the patient's symptoms started improving on day 3 and he displayed a very slow but progressive recovery. Our patient presented with acute isolated multifocal myoclonus status without cognitive impairment. These movements were prominent, spontaneous, worsened by action, and sensitive to touch and sound. The anatomical source of this myoclonus could be cortical or subcortical despite the absence of evident EEG discharges. Several diseases can cause acute myoclonus such as severe hypoxia, metabolic disturbances, and paraneoplastic syndromes. these diagnoses were ruled out in our patient. Post-vaccinal origin was also suggested, but its accountability was not proven. Thus, the two hypothetic etiologies raised were either para-infectious or infectious mechanisms in relation to SARS-Cov 2 infection. HIV, VZV, HSV, and syphilis infections were eliminated and the patient tested positive for SARS-Cov2 infection. In the literature, COVID-19-related myoclonus was reported as a complication of an already-known SARS-CoV-2 infection in about 50 patients so far. It generally occurs between 6 days and 26 days following the SARS-CoV-2 infection [2-5], and affects critical illness patients with cognitive decline, mainly from the intensive care unit [3,4]. Yet, our patient did not display any symptoms of COVID-19 infection before the occurrence of these abnormal movements. Furthermore, he had a relatively good general condition and no cognitive impairment. Several pathophysiological mechanisms were suggested regarding the COVID-19-related myoclonus. Either central nervous invasion by SARS-Cov 2 after transneuronal spread and/or auto-immune cross-reactivity reaction, are likely incriminated in the pathophysiology of most of the cases [6]. We believe that there is an inflammatory process involved with increased levels of proinflammatory cytokines and systemic inflammation, including cytokine storm or cytokine release syndrome targeting the brain and more specifically the cortex and basal ganglia [6]. Data collection in clinical registries is needed to increase our knowledge of the prevalence of neurological symptoms in patients with COVID-19 and will hopefully clarify the causal relationship between SARS-CoV-2 infection and post-COVID-19 myoclonic syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0337_750", "title": "Diagnosing idiopathic dystonia: must it take so long?", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Idiopathic dystonia is a chronic, disabling movement disorder. This study attempted to verify anecdotal evidence that sufferers experience delay in achieving a correct diagnosis. A survey of 133 patients revealed that diagnosis after first seeking help required a mean of 3.8 years. Diagnostic latency varied considerably, with 22 per cent of respondents reporting a diagnostic latency of more than five years, while a further 22 per cent reported a latency of one month or less, with a sample median of 1.5 years. Respondents consulted a mean of 8.3 practitioners, including a mean of 2.1 general practitioners and 1.6 neurologists. Results were consistent with reports of lengthy diagnostic delays and inappropriate referrals. Greater awareness of dystonia and referral of suspected cases to a neurologist interested in movement disorders are recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en530_32049", "title": "Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Clinical No formal diagnostic criteria exist for most SCAs, and genetic testing is the only certain diagnostic method, but clinical examination of signs and symptoms may be vital to distinguishing SCAs from non-genetic ataxias, and from other types of genetic ataxias. Clinical examination can also help distinguish between SCA types to some extent, so genetic tests for certain types can be prioritized over others. Diagnosis of SCAs often begins with the detection of symptoms that suggest a cerebellar disorder, like progressive ataxia or dysarthria, or with recognition of similar symptoms to a case identified in the individuals family history, especially in first or second degree relatives. Many laboratory studies can be used to further narrow the potential cause of ataxia; imaging of brain and spinal cord and various electrophysiology exams may be useful for identifying disease phenotypes and blood and urine studies may rule out acquired causes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_17918", "title": "[A form of dopa-responsive dystonia of late onset with diurnal fluctuations].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We report a case of a 67-year-old woman who had dopa-responsive dystonia of late onset with diurnal fluctuations. She was well until the age of 65 years, when she noted the insidious onset of involuntary movements mainly involving the neck and trunk. She had no family history of movement disorders and had never received neuroleptics. Two years after her symptoms began, she visited our clinic. Neurological examination revealed slow repetitive extension and flexion movements of the neck and trunk, and irregular slow movements involving the mouth, tongue and limbs. The cranial nerves, cerebellar function, muscle strength, deep reflexes and sensory function were intact. Clinically and electromyographically, dystonia was characteristic of her involuntary movements. No parkinsonian features were present. The involuntary movements showed diurnal fluctuations that improved after sleep and the administration of L-DOPA and trihexyphenidyl. Dopamine receptor blocking agents aggravated her condition. Routine blood chemistry including copper metabolism, cerebrospinal fluid findings, and brain CT scan were all normal. Dopa-responsive dystonia is characterized by onset in childhood or adolescence and is frequently associated with parkinsonian features. Our patient had non-hereditary neck and trunk dystonia of late onset that responded to L-DOPA. Her disorder may constitute a specific form of dopa-responsive dystonia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_11744", "title": "Validity of family history data on essential tremor.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In family studies of essential tremor (ET), valid data on the presence of ET in relatives of probands with ET is important. The family history method uses information obtained by interviewing probands with ET to identify ET in their relatives. The validation of this method by direct examination of the relatives has not been performed. To determine the validity of family history data on ET in families in which the proband has ET. ET cases (probands) and their respective relatives were enrolled in a genetic study of ET in Washington Heights-Inwood, New York. Each underwent a tremor interview and videotaped examination. Two neurologists rated the severity of tremor and assigned diagnoses (ET versus normal). Probands were asked to identify their relatives who had ET. The validity of the probands' responses was tested against the neurologists' diagnoses. There were 206 subjects: 46 ET cases and 160 relatives. Twelve (7.5%) of 160 relatives were diagnosed with ET (four definite ET and eight probable ET). Probands with ET reported that two of these 12 had tremor (sensitivity of probands' report = 16.7%). Six of the 12 affected relatives (50.0%) reported their own tremor. The probands reported that one of 136 of their unaffected relatives had tremor (specificity of probands' report = 99.3%). For family studies of ET, information on reportedly unaffected relatives is of limited use given the low sensitivity of family history data. The neurologic examination remains the only valid means of ascertaining cases of ET among relatives." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0921_20165", "title": "Speech-Language Pathology Evaluation and Management of Hyperkinetic Disorders Affecting Speech and Swallowing Function.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterized by abnormal involuntary movements affecting respiratory, phonatory, and articulatory structures impacting speech and deglutition. Speech-language pathologists (SLPs) play an important role in the evaluation and management of dysarthria and dysphagia. This review describes the standard clinical evaluation and treatment approaches by SLPs for addressing impaired speech and deglutition in specific hyperkinetic dysarthria populations. A literature review was conducted using the data sources of PubMed, Cochrane Library, and Google Scholar. Search terms included 1) hyperkinetic dysarthria, essential voice tremor, voice tremor, vocal tremor, spasmodic dysphonia, spastic dysphonia, oromandibular dystonia, Meige syndrome, orofacial, cervical dystonia, dystonia, dyskinesia, chorea, Huntington's Disease, myoclonus; and evaluation/treatment terms: 2) Speech-Language Pathology, Speech Pathology, Evaluation, Assessment, Dysphagia, Swallowing, Treatment, Management, and diagnosis. The standard SLP clinical speech and swallowing evaluation of chorea/Huntington's disease, myoclonus, focal and segmental dystonia, and essential vocal tremor typically includes 1) case history; 2) examination of the tone, symmetry, and sensorimotor function of the speech structures during non-speech, speech and swallowing relevant activities (i.e., cranial nerve assessment); 3) evaluation of speech characteristics; and 4) patient self-report of the impact of their disorder on activities of daily living. SLP management of individuals with hyperkinetic dysarthria includes behavioral and compensatory strategies for addressing compromised speech and intelligibility. Swallowing disorders are managed based on individual symptoms and the underlying pathophysiology determined during evaluation. SLPs play an important role in contributing to the differential diagnosis and management of impaired speech and deglutition associated with hyperkinetic disorders." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_17897", "title": "[Familial juvenile parkinsonism with dementia and autonomic failure--a case report].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A case of familial juvenile parkinsonism with dementia, orthostatic hypotension, neurogenic bladder and constipation was reported. He had been in a good health until the age of 28 when a finger tremor occurred on effort to hold hands in a definite position, and disturbances in gait and speech were noted. These symptoms were relieved by levodopa treatment followed by dyskinesia and motor fluctuations. Three years later, he complained of faintness, constipation and urinary frequency. The neurological examination revealed mentally sound male with masked face, tremor and rigidity in his extremities, and short step gait with lateropulsion. Urodynamic study showed uninhibited bladder. In the following years, orthostatic hypotension, dysuria and urinary retention developed gradually. He became mentally loose and was unable to take medicines appropriately. When in the Nishiojiya Byoin National Sanatorium, he tried to snake out the hospital many times. His parents and a brother suffered from Parkinson's disease and juvenile parkinsonism, respectively, suggesting an autosomal dominant inheritance. On admission to our hospital, he was apathetic. He had masked face, bilateral postural tremor, frozen gait and dyskinesia in the right lower extremity. Little bradykinesia or rigidity was noted. His muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes were decreased but neither muscular wasting, weakness, ataxia nor sensory disturbance was observed. Laboratory data including ceruloplasmin, copper, dopamine-beta-hydroxylase and lysosomal enzyme activities were normal except for mild anemia. A cranial CT scan revealed mild cortical atrophy in the frontal and temporal lobes, but nerve conduction study and cortical evoked potentials showed no abnormality. While in the hospital, his mental functions deteriorated to the state of dementia and orthostatic hypotension became apparent.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_21684", "title": "[Three siblings with type 3 GM1-gangliosidosis--pathophysiology of dystonia and MRI findings].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "GM1-gangliosidosis is a rare neurovisceral storage disease caused by an inherited deficiency of acid beta-galactosidase. The characteristic neurological feature of type 3 (adult or chronic) GM1-gangliosidosis is usually a slowly progressive dystonia with dysarthria due to predominant involvement of basal ganglia. About 20 adult patients with this disorder have been reported in the literature. However, there are no reports of 3 brothers with type 3 GM1-gangliosidosis, and MRI findings. Case 1 (proband): A 28-year-old man was hospitalized because of facial grimace, dysarthria, and generalized dystonia. He was born after normal pregnancy and delivery. His development was normal until 3 years of age when the difficulties of speaking and walking were noticed by his parents. These neurological abnormalities progressed slowly and facial grimace and dystonic movements occurred 7 years later. He could not walk at 22 years of age. On admission, he was bedridden with marked scoliosis and subluxation of the mandibule. The communication was possible only by pointing the words written on the board. Case 2: A 33-year-old man, elder brother of case 1, showed the similar neurological features and clinical course. Slit-lamp examination revealed corneal opacities which were located in the deep stroma. Case 3: A 33-year-old man, elder brother of case 1 or case 2. At age 10-11, he noted similar symptoms as case 1 or case 2. The severity of dystonia was milder than his brothers. A diagnosis of GM1-gangliosidosis in three patients was made on the basis of the following data.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0327_12489", "title": "[Treatment of chronic Wilson's disease in 2 patients using plasmapheresis--clinico-biochemical observations].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The introduction of penicillamine in the treatment of Wilson's disease (hepatolenticular degeneration) was a historical event [1]. D-pericillamine (d-PAM) showed some potential side effects such as myasthenia, kidney toxicity, etc. In previous decade the treatment of Wilson's disease (WD) with zinc sulphate started successfully [4]. Danks [7] described the use of exchanged transfusions, peritoneal dialysis and plasmapheresis in the treatment of young patients with WD in acute liver failure. These patients had acute copper poisoning. The results of this study were beneficial. Therapeutic plasmapheresis (PF) has been used in many diseases in which immunological mechanisms are proved [8, 9]. We started with using PF in the treatment of two young chronic patients with Wilson's disease. The clinical picture of patients became worse, probably due to the decrease in cupriuretic effect of d-PAM. One patient (1) did not take d-PAM regularly. In this study PF was performed with the use of haemonetics V-50 and filter 704. During the treatment with PF, 2000 ml of plasma was always exchanged, i.e. removed. During the treatment with PF the patients were hospitalized at the Department of Neurology and Psychiatry of Children and Young People. Patient No. 1. A 24-year-old man, born in 1965, came with a coarse tremor. He has been diagnosed as WD at the age of 18. Kayser-Fleischer rings were found in the cornea by slit-lamp examination. The disease began when he was 15 years old with polymorphous difficulties. In time tremor became more severe. It was apparent when the patient made any movement. The first treatment with PF (1) lasted from February 13 to March 16, 1989. The patient had 10 PF without any side effect. During the treatment with PF the patient felt better. After PF-tremor was reduced significantly, and subjective and objective condition ameliorated. The patient (1) was readmitted to the hospital on June 24, 1991 for continuation of the treatment with PF. Anamnestic data and neurological examination revealed progression of the disease. His condition became worse, especially tremor. He could not write a single letter (Figures 1-5) and walk without help of the others. His tremor became the severest when he made any kind of voluntary movement. The second treatment with PF started on June 25, 1991 and finished on July 16, 1991. He received 9 PF in this series. The treatment was without side effects. Tremor was reduced approximately by 15%. Plasma copper examined before and after 9 PF showed different values (Table 2). This difference (2.79 mumol/l; 23.70%) in plasma copper level was removed from circulation. Patient No. 2. A 23-year-old man, born in 1966, came to the hospital with acute exacerbation of WD. At the age of 16 latent psychosis was diagnosed. One year later diagnosis of WD was established in the hospital when he was 17 years old. Kayser-Fleischer rings were found in the cornea by slit-lamp examination. The treatment with d-PAM and other drugs (BAL, symptomatic therapies, sedatives, antidepressants, etc.) has been accompanied with good and long-term remissions and short exacerbation. A few years later exacerbation became longer and longer and worse and worse. He was admitted to the hospital on November 28, 1989 with acute relapse of WD. His condition was very difficult, completely bedridden. The treatment with PF started on December 26, 1989 and lasted to January 25, 1990. The treatment with PF was without d-PAM. He was only given symptomatic therapies. After a few PF he demonstrated side effects with nausea, sometimes vomiting, face sweating, pulse rate of about 120/min while blood pressure was normal. Therefore he was given human albumin in the next day, and no side effects were observed. The removal of little plasma copper from blood circulation correlated well with a small improvement in clinical symtpomatology. The rigidity was reduced and voluntary movements bec" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0368_5059", "title": "[Rubral tremor of Holmes, rare case of pathological tremor: case report].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The authors present a very rare case of Holmes tremor (previously known as rubral or midbrain tremor). In all described till now cases the tremor was due to a known and revealed in laboratory or neuroimaging cause. We present an unusual case of a 42-year old woman with unilateral tremor of right extremities (mostly proximal part of upper extremity) which started abruptly 3 years ago. She had no suffer any serious disease before the onset of symptoms and her family history was also negative. The tremor was present at rest but accelerated during specific postures and active movements. The laboratory tests including: copper and ceruloplasmin concentrations, blood analysis for acanthocytes, evoked potentials, EEG, CT, MRI, MRA and SPECT did not reveal any significant changes. Treatment attempts with neuroleptics, clonazepam, L-dopa, valproic acid, biperiden were almost completely ineffective except local injections of botulinum toxin (Botox, Allergan, 150 U) into the muscles of right arm girdle which moderately alleviated tremor. We did not find any underlying pathology as a cause of tremor, clinically the same as symptomatic cases described in literature. We suggest the possibility of idiopathic origin of tremor in our case, although a very small size of lesion (f.i. ischaemic) could be undetectable in the described tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0065_19349", "title": "Neurologic approach to drug-induced movement disorders: a study of 125 patients.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Of 125 patients with neuroleptic (dopamine blocking) drug-induced movement disorders who had been referred to a specialized clinic to differentiate the predominant movement disorder, 63% had tardive dyskinesia, 30% had parkinsonism, 24% had dystonia, 7% had akathisia, and 2% had isolated tremor. Two or more movement disorders coexisted in 31 patients (25%). Functional disability was more severe in patients with akathisia than in other patients. Women outnumbered men at a ratio of 4:1, except for tardive dystonia which affected both sexes equally. The average at onset was 56 years (range, 13 to 87); 69 patients (55%) had onset of movement disorder in the sixth decade. While tardive dystonia was distributed relatively evenly in all age groups, almost a third of patients with parkinsonism had it in the eighth decade. Haloperidol was implicated in 47 patients (37%), followed by amitriptyline/perphenazine in 30%, thioridazine in 27%, and chlorpromazine in 20%. Metoclopramide-induced movement disorders were found in 10 (8%). Most patients (101 or 81%) had history of psychiatric illnesses, but of these only 44 had psychosis. Neuroleptic drugs had been prescribed for 33 patients (26%) who had gastrointestinal problems. It is important to recognize and differentiate various drug-induced movement disorders because such differentiation has pathophysiologic and therapeutic implications. Many patients could have been treated with less potent drugs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_5266", "title": "Accuracy of reported family histories of essential tremor.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We studied the accuracy of reported family histories of essential tremor (ET) by questioning the patients in our clinic and subsequently by mail and phone. For individuals who continued to report a negative family history, we mailed a screening questionnaire to their first-degree relatives to further ascertain the presence of ET. On initial assessment, 67.7% of patients reported a positive family history of ET, but following all assessments, 96.0% of patients had a positive family history. We conclude that a negative family history of ET is often inaccurate, and that ET is primarily a hereditary disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_8871", "title": "[A family of hereditary spastic paraplegia with dementia, ataxia, and dystonia].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We reported three siblings with complicated hereditary spastic paraplegia. The striking features in these patients were characterized by early onset of gait disturbance, mental deficiency, and dystonia. The most likely diagnosis was Mast syndrome. Patient 1: A 44 years-old woman. She first developed gait disturbances at age of 8. She was admitted in our hospital because of progressive spastic paraplegia. Neurological examination revealed mental deficiency, saccadic pursuit eye movement, speech disturbance of cerebellar type, ataxia, and spastic paraplegia. She showed also dystonia in the face, tongue, and trunk. MRI showed cerebellar atrophy. Patient 2: A 51 years-old brother of the patient 1. He had mentally retarded. Late teens he developed gait disturbance. Gradually he manifested spastic paraplegia, dysarthria, dysphasia, mental deficiency, and ataxia. He also showed incontinence of urine and feces. Then he became bedridden, apathetic, and showed forced crying. MRI showed diffuse brain atrophy. Patient 3: A 48 year-old woman. This woman, a sister of the patient 1, showed progressive gait disturbance and dysarthria. She also developed incontinence, apathy, and dystonia. She became bedridden, responding to simple questions with only occasional single-word answers. Her speech was slurred, and spastic paraplegia was noted. MRI showed diffuse brain atrophy including marked atrophy of the cerebellum." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0523_20518", "title": "John Adams' essential tremor.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "John Adams (1735-1826), one of the signers of the Declaration of Independence, was the second President of the United States. Adams had tremor for many years, about which little has been written. We examined John Adams' penmanship over a 62-year period and studied his correspondence and diaries. It is not clear when Adams' tremor began, although in a diary entry dated 6 December 1760, when Adams was 25 years old, there is evidence of low-amplitude kinetic tremor. The tremor continued in his written correspondence, becoming more persistent over time. Later in life, the clarity of his written correspondence diminished, with greater decomposition of characters and a reduction in the size of individual characters. This finding raises some speculation as to whether Adams could have been developing some parkinsonism, although the evidence in favor of this is not compelling. The most likely diagnosis was essential tremor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_20546", "title": "Case Report: Deep Cerebellar Stimulation for Tremor and Dystonia.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "<bBackground:</b The cerebellum plays an important role in the pathogenesis and pathophysiology of movement disorders, including tremor and dystonia. To date, there have been few reports on deep cerebellar stimulation. <bCase Report:</b The patient was a 35-year-old previously healthy man with no history of movement disorders. He developed a tremor and stiffness in his left hand at the age of 27 years, which was diagnosed as a dystonic tremor. We performed right thalamotomy, which resulted in a complete resolution of the tremor; however, the dystonia persisted. Subsequently, the patient developed left foot dystonia with inversion and a newly developed tremor in the right hand and foot. The patient underwent left ventralis intermedius (VIM) deep brain stimulation (VIM-DBS) and left pallidothalamic tract DBS (PTT-DBS). Left VIM-DBS completely resolved the right hand and foot tremor, and PTT-DBS significantly improved the left hand and foot dystonia. Three months postoperatively, the patient developed an infection and wound disruption at the surgical site. We performed palliative surgery for deep cerebellar stimulation via the posterior cranial region, which was not infected. The surgery was performed under general anesthesia with the patient lying in the prone position. Eight contact DBS electrodes were used. The placement of electrodes extended from the superior cerebellar peduncle to the dentate nucleus. Both the right hand and foot tremor improved with right cerebellar stimulation. Further, both the left hand and foot dystonia improved with left cerebellar stimulation. Right and left cerebellar stimulation led to no improvement in the left hand and foot dystonia and right hand and foot tremor, respectively. Stimulation-induced complications observed in the patient included dizziness, dysphagia, and dysarthria. After the surgery, the patient developed hypersalivation and hyperhidrosis in the left side of the body, both of which did not improve with adjustments of stimulation parameters. At the 6-month follow-up, the tremor and dystonia had almost completely resolved. <bConclusion:</b Deep cerebellar stimulation deserves consideration as a potential treatment for tremor and dystonia." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 311 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "We describe a young patient with criteria of nephrotic syndrome with excellent response to corticosteroids. Without biopsy, the clinical presentation and evolution suggest a nephropathy with minimal changes, which usually presents with normal or slightly altered renal function together with nephrotic syndrome," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Amyloidosis.", "2": "IgA nephropathy or Berger's disease.", "3": "Alport syndrome.", "4": "Nephropathy with minimal changes.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25249", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.01951637471439452, "content": "A subset of IgA nephropathy patients, who have minimal change disease on light microscopy and clinically have nephrotic syndrome, show an exquisite response to steroids, behaving more or less like minimal change disease. In other patients, the evidence for steroids is not compelling. Short courses of high dose steroids have been proven to lack benefit. However, in patients with aggressive Berger's disease 6 months regimen of steroids in addition to other medications may lessen proteinuria and preserve renal function. The study had 10 years of patient follow-up data, and did show a benefit for steroid therapy; there was a lower chance of reaching end-stage renal disease (renal function so poor that dialysis was required) in the steroid group. Importantly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors were used in both groups equally." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0497_11156", "title": "[Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome in IgA nephropathy].", "score": 0.01871774687308668, "content": "A 46-year-old male, smoker of half a packet a day and an alcohol intake of 80 grams a day, with an unremarkable medical history, was referred to our service in the year 1988 for a study of nephrotic syndrome. He presented normal renal function, without either microhematuria nor hypertension. In blood analysis an albuminemia of 10 g/l and proteinuria of 22 g/d was observed. A first renal biopsy was carried out which indicated minimal change disease. Steroid treatment was started, as a result the nephrotic syndrome disappeared and the blood analysis normalized. Later he had 4 new outbreaks, all of them steroid-responsive. In 1992 a second renal biopsy was performed after the fourth outbreak and the presence of mild renal failure, that this time indicated a IgA nephropathy. Steroid treatment was tried again, and this time cyclophosphamide was added to try to reduce steroid doses. This result in normalization of renal function and decrease of proteinuria to 2 g/d. The patient remained stable until 1996 when the fifth outbreak occurred, again with mild renal failure and proteinuria in nephrotic range. Therefore a third renal biopsy was performed, that confirmed the presence of IgA nephropathy, but now with signs of histological progression of the disease. Following this, he presented five outbreaks in 3 years, all of them steroid-responsive, with decrease of proteinuria although without renal function normalization. In the year 2000, at his tenth outbreak of nephrotic syndrome it was decided to add cyclosporine to the steroid treatment, achieving the stability of the patient, without further outbreaks until now, with proteinuria of 1.6 g/d and C. creat. 59 ml/min." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_21950", "title": "[IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease). Our experience in 78 cases].", "score": 0.016285153695225638, "content": "We studied 78 patients with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. Renal biopsy was indicated in 69 patients by the presence of macroscopic hematuria (52%), microhematuria or proteinuria (22%), nephrotic syndrome (10%), severe hypertension with microhematuria or renal failure (14%) or nephritic syndrome (1%). Nine were healthy subjects being studied as live kidney donors. An association with IgG and/or IgM was present in 92% of patients. Serum IgA was elevated in 36% of patients. Hypertension was present in 30% and decreased renal function in 29%. Patients with serum creatinine above 1.5 mg/dl tended to be older (33.8 vs 28.7 years) and to have hypertension (52% vs 19%). Among 25 patients followed for more than 12 months renal function remained stable in 44%, deteriorated in 20% and 36% developed renal failure. The latter was associated to older age, hypertension, absence of macroscopic hematuria and nephrotic syndrome. The 9 live donors had no clinical manifestations of renal disease. Thus, IgA nephropathy is a highly variable clinical entity, both in its manifestations and its prognosis. An asymptomatic course is demonstrated in some subjects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_12792", "title": "Berger's disease in children. Natural history and outcome.", "score": 0.015998551074619657, "content": "The clinical course and outcome of 91 children less than 15 years of age at onset and followed for at least 1 year have been retrospectively analyzed. The course has been characterized by recurrent macroscopic hematuria in 74 patients, by proteinuria-microscopic hematuria and a single episode of macroscopic hematuria occurring either at onset or a few months later in 8, by proteinuria-microscopic hematuria in 7, and by proteinuria only in 1. Lastly, one patient showed rapidly progressive renal failure. Four groups were identified by light microscopy: minimal glomerular changes (26), focal and segmental glomerulonephritis (41), pure mesangial proliferation (3) and proliferative glomerulonephritis with crescents (21). A good correlation was found between the glomerular lesions observed by light microscopy and the outcome. In this series we have not observed a dramatic clinical deterioration suggesting a transformation from one histologic type to another, as reported by others. None of the 70 patients belonging to the first three groups has impaired renal function but two with focal and segmental glomerulonephritis have developed hypertension. Although the clinical course is benign, many patients have, at the last observation, an abnormal urinalysis characterized by microscopic hematuria and/or mild proteinuria; the proteinuria is over 1 g/24 h in six patients with focal and segmental glomerulonephritis. Ten patients remained in clinical remission for several years, but mesangial IgA deposits were still present in the only patient who had a repeat biopsy while in remission. In contrast, none of the patients with proliferative glomerulonephritis with crescents has had a prolonged remission. Six patients developed terminal renal failure 0.7, 0.11, 2, 4, 8 and 10 years after onset. Two additional patients are in moderate chronic renal failure with hypertension 10 and 12 years after onset. Most children show a persistent nephropathy, (in five proteinuria is over 1 g/24 h), and two of them have developed hypertension. Therapeutic trials using drugs with side-effects should, therefore, be used only in this group of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0053_20800", "title": "[Effects of steroid therapy in IgA nephropathy].", "score": 0.015830309097734953, "content": "In order to estimate the effects of corticosteroid therapy in IgA nephropathy cases with daily urinary protein excretion of 1.0 g/day or more. 26 patients (8 men and 18 women, aged 32.6 +/- 14.0 years old) were subjected to this study. The results obtained were as follows: Urinary protein excretion after 1 year from the beginning of steroid therapy (1.56 +/- 1.14 g/day) was significantly (p less than 0.05) lower than that at the beginning of the therapy (4.61 +/- 6.01 g/day). In serum creatinine levels, there was no statistically significant difference with them between at the beginning (1.15 +/- 0.48 mg/dl) of steroid therapy and at the time of 1 year after (1.05 +/- 0.34 mg/dl) the therapy. As for the outcome at the end of this study setting (mean follow-up duration: 3.7 +/- 2.6 years), complete remission was attained in 7 cases, improvement in 5 cases, unchanged condition in 11 cases, increased urinary protein excretion in 2 cases and aggravated renal function in 1 case. In clinical findings at the renal biopsy, duration of the disease (3.4 +/- 1.6 months) in complete remission cases before biopsy was significantly (p less than 0.01) shorter than that in unchanged cases (65.0 +/- 40.0 months). In histological findings, rate of global sclerosing glomeruli (2.6 +/- 4.6%) in complete remission cases was significantly (p less than 0.05) lower than that (24.6 +/- 23.1%) in unchanged cases. These results suggest that steroid therapy in IgA nephropathy with persistent proteinuria of 1.0 g/day or more is beneficial, especially in cases that are in early stage of the disease with lower rate of global sclerosing glomeruli." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0043_4274", "title": "[MCNS, which secondary developed into incidental IgA nephropathy--a case report].", "score": 0.015386343216531895, "content": "There have been a number of case reports on nephrotic syndrome with histological findings of minimal change on light microscopy and mesangial IgA deposition on fluorescent microscopy. The pathogenesis of these cases is, however, yet to be clarified. Here, we report a case of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) associated with IgA nephropathy, which developed later in the course of MCNS. The patient was 18 years old male with steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome. First episode of proteinuria occurred when he was 4 years old. On the fourth episode of proteinuria, renal biopsy revealed minimal change on light microscopy and no evidence of deposition of immunoglobulins or complements on immunofluorescent and electron microscopy. On the fifth relapse of MCNS, microhematuria developed concomitantly with massive proteinuria. Renal biopsy, then, showed light microscopic findings of mild focal segmental glomurulonephritis. Significant mesangial IgA deposition was observed on immunofluorescence study. Electron microscopy revealed electron dense deposit in the mesangial and paramesangial area. The patient was well-responsive to steroid although microhematuria persisted after disappearance of proteinuria. We concluded that IgA nephropathy may have developed subsequently in the course of MCNS in our case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0111_1101", "title": "Long-standing spontaneous clinical remission and glomerular improvement in primary IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease).", "score": 0.015228147333699834, "content": "Of the 244 cases of IgA nephropathy diagnosed at Necker Hospital before 1981, 9 patients (3.7%) developed spontaneous clinical remission of long duration. Three of these 9 patients presented with gross hematuria, while in the others the disease was discovered by the finding of proteinuria at routine urinalysis. During the disease course 5 patients had recurrent episodes of gross hematuria, lasting several years in 4. At the time of the first biopsy all patients had hematuria and permanent proteinuria. In 1 patient, renal biopsy showed only an increase in mesangial matrix while in the others segmentary lesions were observed, affecting less than 30% of the glomeruli in 6. Diffuse mesangial deposits of IgA were present in all. During the follow-up, proteinuria and microscopic hematuria gradually decreased and completely disappeared within 4-14 years after the onset of the disease. A repeat biopsy performed during remission in 4 patients showed, in 3, an improvement of glomerular lesions and a significant decrease in IgA mesangial deposits in parallel with clinical recovery. As in other types of 'primary' glomerulonephritis, these data indicate that the initial disorder in IgA nephropathy may be spontaneously reversible even after a long course of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0212_17134", "title": "Crescentic IgA nephropathy.", "score": 0.014819237867766802, "content": "We report five cases of crescentic IgA nephropathy. All are males, 16-60 years of age. One case each came to medical attention with uremia, nephrotic syndrome, and gross hematuria; two cases presented with microhematuria and proteinuria on routine urinalysis. All had hypertension, azotemia (serum creatinine 1.6-9.4 mg/dl), proteinuria (greater than 6 g/24 hr in four cases), hypoalbuminemia (less than 3 g/dl), and hematuria (gross in two cases). All progressed to end-stage renal failure renal failure ending in dialysis (three cases) or death from unrelated causes (two cases). Prednisone, 60 mg/day for 1 month in two patients (with two 1-g doses of iv methylprednisolone in 1 case) did not improve the serum creatinine level, but one patient subsequently experienced a less rapid fall in renal function. A crescentic glomerulonephritis was present in all biopsies (crescents in 31-80% of glomeruli; mean, 50%). The size and stage of the crescents were variable. Numerous glomeruli had focal or diffuse sclerosis. In all cases, there was a 3 or 4+ deposition of IgA. Low-intensity staining for IgG and IgM was noted in four and three patients, respectively. On electron microscopy, dense granular mesangial deposits were noted in all cases and in four patients capillary subepithelial deposits were also observed. This form of IgA nephropathy is not common, but some studies indicate that it may occur in about 5% of patients with IgA nephropathy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_22877", "title": "Corticosteroid therapy in IgA nephropathy with minimal change-like lesions: a single-centre cohort study.", "score": 0.014731910463300364, "content": "There is a lack of high-quality evidence that advocates the use of corticosteroids for IgA nephropathy (IgAN) with minimal change-like lesions (also called IgAN with minimal change disease, MCD-IgAN). Twenty-seven biopsy-proven adult MCD-IgAN patients were enrolled. Daily single dose of 1 mg/kg (maximum 60 mg/day) prednisone was given until complete remission (CR), followed by gradually decreasing dosage. The clinical data were collected from baseline up to 12 weeks of treatment (Certification No. 2011NLY-006, Clinical trials gov ID. NCT01451710). The patient cohort consisted of 15 males and 12 females. The mean age of the patients was 29.2 ± 10.8 years (range 18-60 years) at the time when they were subject to renal biopsy. All patients had hypoalbuminaemia (23.7 ± 4.13 g/L) and heavy proteinuria (&gt;3.5 g/24 h). Cumulative CR (proteinuria &lt; 0.4 g/24 h) rates were 3.70, 48.1, 92.6 and 100% after 1, 2, 4 and 8 weeks of treatment, respectively. Two cases relapsed after CR, one at 6 weeks of treatment, likely due to failure to follow the corticosteroid withdrawal schedule, and the other one at 8 weeks of treatment accompanied with an upper respiratory infection. Infection, alanine aminotransferase elevation (&gt;2-folds), fasting blood glucose (FBG) elevation (&gt;6.2 mmol/L) and hypopotassaemia (&lt;3.5 mmol/L) occurred in 2, 5, 2 and 5 cases, respectively, but were eliminated after treatment. Corticosteroid therapy is likely effective and safe for MCD-IgAN patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0402_12177", "title": "[Borderline indications for renal biopsy].", "score": 0.014442778610694653, "content": "The Authors report 3 cases with clinical renal manifestations where the indication to perform a renal biopsy was defined as borderline. The uncertain indication was related to the clinical presentation, with a pattern of urinary abnormalities, such as isolated microscopic hematuria, microscopic hematuria associated with mild proteinuria, and isolated proteinuria. In addition, similar questions on biopsy are raised for chronic renal failure and elderly patients. In the literature, microscopic hematuria without significant proteinuria shows that 25% of adult patients have no histological abnormalities. A higher percentage is found among children. The other cases exhibit a pattern of IgA nephropathy, Alport's syndrome, thin BM nephropathy and arteriolar C3 deposition. The percentage of an abnormal histological picture increases if the patients have a family history of hematuria, and if there are concomitant episodes of macroscopic hematuria, because of an increase in IgA nephropathy and Alport's syndrome, respectively. In the last cases, therefore the indication to perform a renal biopsy increases. For those patients without these characteristics, a renal biopsy can be delayed whereas in cases of microscopic hematuria with proteinuria or isolated proteinuria the indication for a renal biopsy is stronger, because the spectrum of glomerulopathies is wider, and the possible evolution to renal failure after 10 years is higher (10-14% of cases). In patients with chronic renal failure the biopsy is contraindicated for cases where the thickness of the cortical section of the kidney is lower than 8-10 mm, because of possible technical difficulties, lower diagnostic information due to sclerosis and higher risk of complications. The prolonged bleeding time and the consequent risk of bleeding can be avoided by i.v. infusion of vasopressin 2 hours prior to biopsy. The higher indications are for those patients who may be susceptible to a medical treatment, capable to slowing down the progression of nephropathy. Finally, in elderly patients the biopsy is indicated in almost all cases because of the recently confirmed high incidence of glomerulopathies. In the aged there is a higher frequency of membranous GN, crescentic-ANCA associated GN, amyloidosis and, according to some Authors, post-infectious GN. In all cases a precise histological diagnosis can correct an erroneous diagnosis made according to clinical data alone. In the elderly the indication for biopsy aims at making an exact diagnosis of nephropathy, especially for acute renal failure: for this purpose age itself should not become an obstacle." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_21235", "title": "Meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials in patients with primary IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease).", "score": 0.01397907647907648, "content": "An overview of the papers published in the last 10 years was performed to evaluate whether treatment with currently available drugs was beneficial in patients with primary IgA nephropathy (IgAN). Eight selected papers involving 196 IgAN patients with moderate or heavy proteinuria, associated in some cases with the nephrotic syndrome, were analysed. The criteria for inclusion were strict, because meta-analysis requires randomised controlled trials with full descriptions. Furthermore, papers were selected in which treatment was performed on IgAN patients with proteinuria, since prognosis is poor in the presence of this sign. The results of statistical analysis show that IgAN patients with heavy proteinuria, whether or not associated with the nephrotic syndrome, benefit from the administration of corticosteroids and/or cytotoxic drugs, as 66.7% of patients had complete or partial remission both in controlled trials and in retrospective studies; renal function also improved in treated patients. In contrast, no beneficial effect was observed in IgAN patients with moderate proteinuria. These results suggest that it is advisable to administer corticosteroids and/or cytotoxic drugs to IgAN patients with heavy proteinuria, irrespective of the association of this condition with the nephrotic syndrome in individual patients." }, { "id": "article-23357_35", "title": "IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) -- Treatment / Management -- Corticosteroids", "score": 0.013418026009170863, "content": "There are many studies supporting that corticosteroids reduce proteinuria in IgA nephropathy. In an old study, patients received corticosteroid therapy or supportive therapy alone. The use of RAS blockade was random, and the run-in period of optimizing conservative treatment was not carried out. In this trial, 5-year renal survival was greater in the corticosteroid group. [47] This finding suggested that corticosteroids for a period of 6 months have a “legacy effect” with a sustained risk reduction in progressive renal dysfunction. In another similar study of patients with biopsy-proven IgA nephropathy, corticosteroids were reported to have reduced proteinuria. [48]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_21924", "title": "[Primary nephropathy due to mesangial deposits of IgA (Berger's disease)].", "score": 0.013306982872200264, "content": "We describe findings in 188 patients with Berger's disease, the most frequent primary glomerulopathy in our renal biopsy material (25%). Diagnosis was made by finding IgA and dense mesangial deposits with immunofluorescence and electronmicroscopy, respectively. Patient's age ranged from 3 to 64 years (mean 27), 72 were females. Five degrees of the disease were recognized: I, minimal changes, 29 patients (15%); II, minor lesions, 37 (20%); III, focal and segmental lesions, 92 (49%); IV, diffuse proliferation of mesangial cells and/or glomerulo-capsular adhesions, 22 (12%), and V, diffuse sclerosing glomerulonephritis, 8 (4%). Clinical findings at the time of renal biopsy included isolated hematuria in 61%, nephrotic syndrome or proteinuria 11%, hypertension 16%, chronic renal failure 7%, acute renal failure or nephritic syndrome 3% and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis 2%. Berger's disease was found in 10 clinically healthy donors (13% of living-related donors). Progression of lesions was shown by serial biopsy in 12 patients. Progressive Berger's disease was demonstrated in 5 transplanted patients, requiring dialysis in one. Thus, Berger's disease leads to varying degrees of renal damage, severe extramembranous nephropathy and crescentic glomerulopathy being less frequent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0621_7645", "title": "Clinicopathologic characteristics of IgA nephropathy with steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome.", "score": 0.012900641025641025, "content": "Nephrotic syndrome is an unusual manifestation of IgA Nephropathy (IgAN). Some cases respond to steroid treatment. Here we describe a case-series of IgAN patients with steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome. Twelve patients with IgAN with steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome were evaluated and followed up. All patients presented with generalized edema. Renal insufficiency was found in two patients. The renal biopsy of eight patients revealed wide foot process effacement in addition to the typical features of IgAN. They showed complete remission after steroid therapy. Seven relapses were reported in five patients; six of the relapsed cases responded to steroid therapy. Compared with steroid-non-responsive patients, the patients with steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome had shorter symptom duration, more weight gain, more proteinuria, and lower histologic grade than did those that had steroid-non-responsive nephrotic syndrome at presentation. None of the responders progressed to end stage renal disease, whereas five (38%) non-responders required dialysis or renal transplantation. Patients with IgAN who have steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome likely have both minimal change disease and IgAN. The clinical features of sudden onset of generalized edema, initial heavy proteinuria and initial severe hypoalbuminemia might help identify the subset of patients, especially in low grade IgAN." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en037_3240", "title": "Glomerulonephritis", "score": 0.01282580290213878, "content": "Proliferative Proliferative glomerulonephritis is characterised by an increased number of cells in the glomerulus. These forms usually present with a triad of blood in the urine, decreased urine production, and hypertension, the nephritic syndrome. These forms usually progress to end-stage kidney failure (ESKF) over weeks to years (depending on type). IgA nephropathy IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger's disease, is the most common type of glomerulonephritis, and generally presents with isolated visible or occult hematuria, occasionally combined with low grade proteinuria, and rarely causes a nephritic syndrome characterised by protein in the urine, and visible blood in the urine. IgA nephropathy is classically described as a self-resolving form in young adults several days after a respiratory infection. It is characterised by deposits of IgA in the space between glomerular capillaries." }, { "id": "article-23357_33", "title": "IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) -- Treatment / Management -- Conservative Therapy", "score": 0.01261808367071525, "content": "The role of conservative therapy in reducing proteinuria and slowing the rate of renal function decline in IgA nephropathy cannot be overemphasized. In the Supportive Versus Immunosuppressive Therapy of Progressive IgA Nephropathy (STOP-IgAN) study, around one-third of patients did not need immunosuppressive therapy after completing a 6-month run-in trial of optimization of conservative therapy. [45]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25243", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.012491168574254629, "content": "will show red blood cells, usually as red cell urinary casts. Proteinuria, usually less than 2 grams per day, also may be present. Other renal causes of isolated hematuria include thin basement membrane disease and Alport syndrome, the latter being a hereditary disease associated with hearing impairment and eye problems." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25242", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.012296349762837699, "content": "For an adult patient with isolated hematuria, tests such as ultrasound of the kidney and cystoscopy are usually done first to pinpoint the source of the bleeding. These tests would rule out kidney stones and bladder cancer, two other common urological causes of hematuria. In children and younger adults, the history and association with respiratory infection can raise the suspicion of IgA nephropathy. A kidney biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. The biopsy specimen shows proliferation of the mesangium, with IgA deposits on immunofluorescence and electron microscopy. However, patients with isolated microscopic hematuria (i.e. without associated proteinuria and with normal kidney function) are not usually biopsied since this is associated with an excellent prognosis. A urinalysis will show red blood cells, usually as red cell urinary casts. Proteinuria, usually less than 2 grams per day, also may be present. Other renal causes of isolated hematuria include thin basement" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0877_18929", "title": "[Clinical and pathological analysis of IgA nephropathy with acute kidney injury].", "score": 0.012052129088466984, "content": "To investigate the incidence, etiology, clinico- pathological characteristics and prognosis in primary IgA nephropathy (IgAN) children with acute kidney injury (AKI). Retrospective analysis of the clinical and pathological manifestations and follow-up results of 19 Chlidren, who were associated with AKI in 196 cases of children with IgA nephropathy treated in our department from January, 1996 to Jun, 2012 was performed. (1) The 19 cases associated with AKI accounted for 9.7% of all 196 Chlidren with IgAN. Within the 19 cases, there were gross hematuria in 17 cases, massive proteinuria in 16 cases, hypoalbuminemia in 10 cases, edema in 10 cases and hypertension in one case. The peak serum creatinine was from 94.5 μmol/ L to 282 μmol/L. (2) Histological changes: with the formation of crescent in 10 cases, diffuse endocapillary proliferation in 5 cases, 15 cases had renal tubular injury, 10 cases had red blood cell and protein cast, 1 case with acute interstitial nephritis. (3) The cause of IgA nephropathy with AKI: 13 patients had severe glomerular damage, including crescentic glomerulonephritis and diffuse endocapillary proliferation; 1 case was complicated with acute interstitial nephritis after being treated with antibiotics, 2 patients had decreased glomerular filtration rate because of taking benazepril or oral indomethacin, 1 case with renal tubular injury induced by gross hematuria, and the other two cases the reason was not clear. (4) Multivariate Logistic regression analysis showed that massive proteinuria was independent risk factor of IgAN in children with AKI (OR=27.370, 95% confidence interval was 3.151-237.740, P&lt;0.01). (5) None of the patients were on dialysis, steroid therapy was used in 13 cases (including 7 cases of methylprednisolone pulse therapy), 6 cases were treated with combined cyclophosphamide treatment. Except 1 cases no significant improvement, the renal functiones of all patients recovered or improved within 1-2 months after treatment. Follow-up period was from 1 month to 7 years, 3 cases had renal function improved, but 2 cases were lost to follow-up for 3 years and then entered the chronic renal failure, 1 case had renal function loss after 32 months and repeated renal biopsy showed glomerular sclerosis of 32% during the follow-up period. In children with IgAN, AKI accounted for about 10%, except glomerular severe lesion, the onset of AKI is also relevant to clinical medication and repeated gross hematuria, and the heavy proteinuria is an independent risk factor. Based on clinical observation, the short-term prognosis of IgAN children with AKI is optimistic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25240", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.011861082995951417, "content": "Complete remission of aggressive Berger's disease, occurs rarely in adults. In about 5% of cases, however, there is a higher chance of remission with non-aggressive Berger's disease (this is estimated to be around 7.4% of cases). There is a high chance of relapse, particularly with aggressive Berger's disease. However, given the evolution of this disease, the longer term (10–20 years) outcome of such patients is not yet established. Overall, the current 10-year survival rate for aggressive Berger's disease is 25% and 73% for non-aggressive Berger's disease." }, { "id": "article-23357_25", "title": "IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011755485893416927, "content": "Asymptomatic hematuria with mild proteinuria, such as 0.5 g/day, may be picked up on screening programs. A proportion of patients with isolated microscopic hematuria and mild proteinuria will ultimately develop significant proteinuria and hypertension, suggesting that long-term follow-up should be instituted. [34] Progressive chronic kidney disease is a common manifestation observed in many cohorts. Renal survival varies greatly according to biopsy timing and the introduction of lead-time bias. The actual renal 10-year survival is observed to be 57% to 91%. [35]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_9146", "title": "Steroid therapy during the early stage of progressive IgA nephropathy. A 10-year follow-up study.", "score": 0.011295535125976593, "content": "This study was undertaken to clarify the effect of corticosteroids on the long-term clinical course of the early stage of progressive IgA nephropathy. The early stage of progressive IgA nephropathy was defined as having moderate proteinuria between 1 and 2 g/day, creatinine clearance values of 70 ml/min or more, and a histological severity score of 7 or more. The number of patients who fulfilled these three conditions during 12 years from 1972 and then were continuously followed up for 10 years or more in our renal unit was 46. Twenty of them received steroid treatment for an average period of 18 months, and the remaining 26 patients had no steroid treatment. The initial data of proteinuria, creatinine clearance values, frequency of hypertensive cases, and histological scores of 7 or more were not different between the two groups: 1.4 +/- 0.4 vs. 1.3 +/- 0.3 g/day, 85 +/- 14 vs. 88 +/- 13 ml/min, 25 vs. 38%, and 10.7 +/- 2.5 vs. 11.0 +/- 3.0, respectively. During the follow-up period of 10 years, the renal survival rate was significantly different between the two groups (100 vs. 84% 5 years after starting therapy and 80 vs. 34% 10 years later; p &lt; 0.001). The final creatinine clearance values were significantly different between the two groups (54 +/- 35 vs. 20 +/- 29 ml/min; p &lt; 0.005). On the other hand, the patient groups with mild histological changes or decreased renal function due to moderate proteinuria showed no significant differences in the final outcome. These results indicate that corticosteroids are beneficial in stabilizing the renal function for a long time during the early stage of progressive IgA nephropathy, although this study was not a randomized one." }, { "id": "article-23357_22", "title": "IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01093051991255584, "content": "In most patients with IgA nephropathy, history and examination would be unremarkable. The most common complaint is gross hematuria. Acute renal failure may cause ankle edema, facial puffiness, and hypertension. Frothy urine may be present. A history of upper respiratory tract infections, such as pharyngitis, may be present just before hematuria. [33] The history of previous episodes of hematuria and proteinuria should be verified." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en068_32091", "title": "Thin basement membrane disease", "score": 0.010927102238354507, "content": "A kidney biopsy is the only way to diagnose thin basement membrane disease. It reveals thinning of the glomerular basement membrane from the normal 300 to 400 nanometers (nm) to 150 to 250 nm. However, a biopsy is rarely done in cases where the patient has isolated microscopic hematuria, normal kidney function, and no proteinuria. The prognosis is excellent in this setting unless the clinical manifestations progress, as occurs in most males and some females with Alport syndrome and many patients with IgA nephropathy. Treatment Most patients with thin basement membrane disease need only reassurance. Indeed, this disease was previously referred to as \"benign familial hematuria\" because of its usually benign course. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have been suggested to reduce the episodes of hematuria, though controlled studies are lacking. Treating co-existing hypercalciuria and hyperuricosuria will also be helpful in reducing hematuria." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25239", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.010663771021271857, "content": "Nevertheless, IgA nephropathy, which was initially thought to be a benign disease, has been shown to not be a benign disease, particularly if the patient presents with an aggressive form. Though most reports describe Berger's disease as having an indolent evolution towards either healing or renal damage, a more aggressive course is occasionally seen associated with extensive crescents, and presenting as acute kidney failure. In general, the entry into chronic kidney failure is slow as compared to most other glomerulonephritides – occurring over a time scale of 30 years or more (in contrast to the 5 to 15 years in other glomerulonephritides), however, in aggressive Berger's disease the time scale is within 5–10 years and often sooner. This may reflect the earlier diagnosis made due to frank hematuria." }, { "id": "article-23357_29", "title": "IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.010357374048527868, "content": "The management of IgA nephropathy involves first confirming the diagnosis, followed by a renal biopsy. Secondary causes of IgA nephropathy should be ruled out. The amount of proteinuria, eGFR, blood pressure, and histological appearance is important in formulating the management plan. Treatment aims to induce remission and prevent the development of complications. [39]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25229", "title": "IgA nephropathy", "score": 0.009804850322091701, "content": "Signs and symptoms The classic presentation for the non-aggressive form (in 40–50% of the cases) is episodic hematuria, which usually starts within a day or two of a non-specific upper respiratory tract infection (hence synpharyngitic), as opposed to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which occurs some time (weeks) after initial infection. With both aggressive and non-aggressive Berger's disease loin pain can also occur. The gross hematuria may resolve after a few days, though microscopic hematuria will persist, it is however more common with aggressive Berger's disease for gross hematuria to persist rather than microscopic hematuria. Renal function usually remains normal with non-aggressive Berger's disease, though rarely acute kidney failure may occur (see below). This presentation is more common in younger adults." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_72953", "title": "Proteinuria", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Proteinuria may be a feature of the following conditions: Nephrotic syndromes (i.e. intrinsic kidney failure) Pre-eclampsia Eclampsia Toxic lesions of kidneys Amyloidosis Collagen vascular diseases (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus) Dehydration Glomerular diseases, such as membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis) Strenuous exercise Stress Benign orthostatic (postural) proteinuria Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) IgA nephropathy (i.e. Berger's disease) IgM nephropathy Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Membranous nephropathy Minimal change disease Sarcoidosis Alport syndrome Diabetes mellitus (diabetic nephropathy) Drugs (e.g. NSAIDs, nicotine, penicillamine, lithium carbonate, gold and other heavy metals, ACE inhibitors, antibiotics, or opiates (especially heroin) Fabry disease Infections (e.g. HIV, syphilis, hepatitis, poststreptococcal infection, urinary schistosomiasis)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0274_22487", "title": "[Berger's disease in children: its form of presentation, pathological anatomy and evolution in 22 cases].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We have reviewed 22 cases of Berger's disease in children (glomerular nephritis with mesangial IgA deposits), all of which were diagnosed by renal biopsy between 1976 and the present time. We describe the clinical and pathological findings in these patients. In addition, we put special emphasis on the evolution of the disease in relationship to some of the parameters that have been reported in the literature as being related to a bad prognosis of glomerular function such as, massive proteinuria at the onset of the disease, histological classification, presence of deposits of IgM or fibrinogen derivatives and glomerular sclerosis. All of the patients started with hematuria, 21 of which had gross hematuria (95%). Fourteen patients (63%) showed proteinuria (2 of which also had a temporary nephrotic syndrome). Five children showed some transient decrease in glomerular filtration rate and another patient rapidly developed renal failure and then end stage renal disease. We were able to follow 15 children for 3 years: 8 (53%) still showed outbreaks of gross hematuria, 5 (33%) only had microhematuria and 2 (14%) showed no signs of hematuria. Four children (27%) still had proteinuria. The glomerular filtration rate was still normal in all but two children (one with rapid evolution to end stage renal disease and another with a glomerular filtration decrease of 20%). Ten children were followed for 6 to 13 years. After 6 years, 2 (20%) still showed outbreaks of gross hematuria, 1 (10%) still had proteinuria.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_5606", "title": "[A case of childhood IgA nephropathy who developed rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis in one-year clinical course].", "score": 0.009768503113561821, "content": "A 10-year-old girl who presented with microscopic hematuria, proteinuria and normal renal function has been followed up for the past two years. At the first examination, renal biopsy revealed focal/segmental lesions accompanying by occaisional necrosis and small crescents. Diagnosis of IgA nephropathy was given by light, electron and immunofluorescent microscopic findings. She started on the treatment with dipyridamol and was followed up for one year without any serious complications. Thereafter, she suddenly developed severe deterioration of renal function (serum creatinine 2.7 mg/dl) with nephrotic syndrome and hypertension. The second renal biopsy done at this time indicated the presence of typical crescentic glomerulonephritis with mesangial proliferation. No vasculitis was noted. She was intensively treated with steroids, anticoagulants and other medication and responded fairly well clinically. The third renal biopsy performed 5 months afterwards demonstrated marked histological improvement, but there was still present mesangial proliferation and varied degrees of sclerotic changes with fibrocellular crescents. Focal interstitial fibrosis and collapsed tubules were also seen. At present, 5 months after the last renal biopsy, she has improved much better and her serum creatinine decreased to 1.9 mg/dl, although proteinuria of 3 g/day still persists. It is suggested that only a small segmental necrosis with crescent formation in IgA nephropathy should be considered as an important indicator of disease activity in the evaluation of prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0308_3685", "title": "[The usefulness of plasmapheresis in a case of nephrotic syndrome in Berger's disease].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Berger's disease, or IgA mesangial nephropathy, is a frequent form of focal and/or segmental proliferative glomerulonephritis that occasionally may present as nephrotic syndrome. The authors reports a clinical case of a young woman come to their observation with a severe clinical picture characterized by asthenia, anasarca, serious no selective proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, blood hypotension from mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis IgA. Because of the null response to traditional therapy the patient was submitted to plasmapheresis \"cascade model\", or double filtration, a certainly experimental treatment for this disease, and a remission of the nephrotic syndrome was obtained as confirmed by follow-up at three, six months and one year. Since at present times the therapy is supportive only and no therapeutic maneuvers have been found to be consistently effective in the Berger's disease, plasma exchange plus immunodepressive therapy seems to be useful particularly in the rare patients with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Further and more extensive studies and a fair follow-up are necessary to prove our results." }, { "id": "article-23357_26", "title": "IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009687599872163631, "content": "Less frequent manifestations include synpharyngitic macroscopic hematuria, which is a classic clinical syndrome seen as the first presentation of IgA nephropathy. Gross hematuria, in combination with pharyngitis or other infection, prompts patients to seek immediate medical attention. Recurrent macroscopic hematuria is also seen. Although nephrotic-range proteinuria is not uncommon in IgA nephropathy, they rarely coexist. [36] [37]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 127, 324 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 49 ] ], "text": "Patient poorly controlled with metformin and sitagliptin with discrete cardinal symptoms (weight loss, asthenia). The best option is insulin to control cardinal symptoms and decrease HbA1c to < 7%." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Increase dietary protein and long-chain carbohydrate intake to improve asthenia and weight loss.", "2": "To associate a basal insulin dose to the treatment.", "3": "Associate with ascarbose treatment.", "4": "Substitute sitagliptin for pioglitazone.", "5": "Substitute metformin for glimepiride." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0650_13044", "title": "[Therapeutic behavior to follow in the following clinical case: treatment of type 2 diabetes].", "score": 0.01672449687716863, "content": "A 62-year old woman with obesity, high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM2) was referred to a Vascular Risk Unit of the Internal Medicine Department due to elevated HbA1C (8.1%) in spite of having taken metformin (850 mg/12h) and glipizide (10 mg/12 h) regularly. She tries to exercise daily (walking 30 min) and has lost weight (from 5 to 12 kg) several times, but always regains what she has lost. Furthermore, she monitors her glucose levels in fasting every two weeks and generally has between 120 and 160 mg/dL. Her high blood pressure is being treated with enalapril/HCTZ and she also takes aspirin 100mg/day and simvastatin 20 mg/day. It is seen in her family background that one brother died suddenly at 50 years of age. Her physical examination shows a BMI of 32.4 Kg/m(2), and she has no edemas in the lower limbs. Her BP is 154/82 mmHg and creatinine 0.9 mg/dL. She has no microalbuminuria and her liver function is normal. What treatment do you think would be the more appropriate? 1 - Add glitazones. 2 - Add incretin mimetics (GLP 1/ DPP-4). 3 - Slow acting insulin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_10790", "title": "[Sequential treatment with insulin glargine and metformin, and exenatide in a patient with newly diagnosed type-2 diabetes].", "score": 0.016009221311475412, "content": "HISTORY AND ADMISSIONS FINDINGS: A 54-year-old man was admitted to hospital for treatment of a newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He had polydipsia and polyuria and had lost 11 kg in weight over four weeks. Further diagnoses were visceral obesity and arterial hypertension. Laboratory tests revealed highly elevated blood glucose parameters (HbA1c 14,9 %, fasting glucose 280 mg/dl, maximal postprandial glucose 430 mg/dl and 320 mg/dl before the meal) and triglyceride (2219 mg/dl). The patient was initially treated with a combination of insulin glargine and metformin. After a few days exenatide was added, as the patient wanted to be able to go without insulin. He was given a structured diabetes education and motivated to have five to six hours' of physical activity and a low glycemic diet. After a few days normal glucose levels had been achieved. After one month the insulin treatment was discontinued. The continuing treatment with metformin, 1000 mg twice daily, and exenatide, 5 mg twice daily, prolonged remission of beta-cell dysfunction and maintained normal blood glucose levels for seven months. After reduction of the metformin dosage (500 mg twice daily) and discontinuance of exenatide as well as a reduction of his physical activity (because of joint pain) for six months, the glucose control worsened. When exenatide was administered again, good control of postprandial blood glucose, but not of fasting glucose was achieved. Initial combination treatment with insulin glargine, metformin and exenatide may be beneficial in a subgroup of patients with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes, markedly elevated blood glucose and free fatty acid levels (glucolipotoxicity). This should be further investigated in randomized controlled trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0571_137", "title": "Efficacy and safety of the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor, sitagliptin, in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus inadequately controlled on glimepiride alone or on glimepiride and metformin.", "score": 0.01566111881645862, "content": "To assess the efficacy and safety of a 24-week treatment with sitagliptin, a highly selective once-daily oral dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor, in patients with type 2 diabetes who had inadequate glycaemic control [glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA(1c)) &gt;or=7.5% and &lt;or=10.5%] while on glimepiride alone or in combination with metformin. After a screening, diet/exercise run-in and drug wash-off period, a glimepiride +/- metformin dose titration/stabilization period and a 2-week, single-blind placebo run-in, 441 patients (of ages 18-75 years) were randomized to receive the addition of sitagliptin 100 mg once daily or placebo in a 1 : 1 ratio for 24 weeks. Of these patients, 212 were on glimepiride (&gt;or=4 mg/day) monotherapy and 229 were on glimepiride (&gt;or=4 mg/day) plus metformin (&gt;or=1,500 mg/day) combination therapy. Patients exceeding pre-specified glycaemic thresholds during the double-blind treatment period were provided open-label rescue therapy (pioglitazone) until study end. The primary efficacy analysis evaluated the change in HbA(1c) from baseline to Week 24. Secondary efficacy endpoints included fasting plasma glucose (FPG), 2-h post-meal glucose and lipid measurements. Mean baseline HbA(1c) was 8.34% in the sitagliptin and placebo groups. After 24 weeks, sitagliptin reduced HbA(1c) by 0.74% (p &lt; 0.001) relative to placebo. In the subset of patients on glimepiride plus metformin, sitagliptin reduced HbA(1c) by 0.89% relative to placebo, compared with a reduction of 0.57% in the subset of patients on glimepiride alone. The addition of sitagliptin reduced FPG by 20.1 mg/dl (p &lt; 0.001) and increased homeostasis model assessment-beta, a marker of beta-cell function, by 12% (p &lt; 0.05) relative to placebo. In patients who underwent a meal tolerance test (n = 134), sitagliptin decreased 2-h post-prandial glucose (PPG) by 36.1 mg/dl (p &lt; 0.001) relative to placebo. The addition of sitagliptin was generally well tolerated, although there was a higher incidence of overall (60 vs. 47%) and drug-related adverse experiences (AEs) (15 vs. 7%) in the sitagliptin group than in the placebo group. This was largely because of a higher incidence of hypoglycaemia AEs (12 vs. 2%, respectively) in the sitagliptin group compared with the placebo group. Body weight modestly increased with sitagliptin relative to placebo (+0.8 vs. -0.4 kg; p &lt; 0.001). Sitagliptin 100 mg once daily significantly improved glycaemic control and beta-cell function in patients with type 2 diabetes who had inadequate glycaemic control with glimepiride or glimepiride plus metformin therapy. The addition of sitagliptin was generally well tolerated, with a modest increase in hypoglycaemia and body weight, consistent with glimepiride therapy and the observed degree of glycaemic improvement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0803_19538", "title": "Glycemic control: a combination of lifestyle management and the use of drugs.", "score": 0.014691526747364311, "content": "Some 30% of contemporary cardiology patients have coexisting known diabetes, and another 40% have either undiagnosed diabetes or prediabetes. There is still no final conclusive evidence of cardiovascular benefit by good glycemic control in type 2 diabetes, although studies like the United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) and the Prospective Pioglitazone Clinical Trial in Macrovascular Events, and meta-analyses based on these and other randomized controlled trials of blood glucose-lowering therapies have been encouraging. On the other hand, microvascular disease is clearly reduced by good glycemic control. Structured education has remained a mandatory prerequisite of any successful treatment. Not only is appropriate weight management by diet and exercise able to revert new onset diabetes to normal, but it is also the foundation of any successful pharmacotherapy of diabetes. Aiming at normal fasting plasma glucose concentrations of 5.3 mmol/L or 95 mg/dL appears to be safe since publication of the long-term outcome results of the Outcome Reduction with an Initial Glargine INtervention trial. Individualized target glycosylated hemoglobin levels as near to normal as safely possible (i.e., &lt;7% and avoiding hypoglycaemia) are the goal for glycemic control. Hypoglycemia seems to emerge as a real concern in cardiology patients. Based on the findings of UKPDS, including the \"legacy\" study, metformin is the most widely recommended first-line drug therapy in type 2 diabetes, also in terms of preventing cardiovascular complications. An alternate first-line option in some parts of the world, especially Asian countries, is the class of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. In most patients, combination therapies with two or three classes of drugs are warranted. Early combination are the golden strategy as type 2 diabetes is a multi-causal disease; the various classes of drugs have distinct and synergistic modes of action, and the blood glucose-lowering efficacy of these drugs is more or less fully maintained in combination. The recent joint American Diabetes Association/European Association for the Study of Diabetes position statement mentions five options as step two of the treatment algorithm for combination with metformin: sulfonylureas, pioglitazone, dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors, glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists, and basal insulin. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_295", "title": "Induction of long-term glycemic control in type 2 diabetic patients using pioglitazone and metformin combination.", "score": 0.014127094279766036, "content": "To study the effects of pioglitazone and metformin combination in type 2 diabetics in achieving long-term optimal glycemic control. Patients whose duration of type 2 diabetes was less than 24 months were selected for the study. 373 such patients meeting the selection criteria were included in the study and were started on triple drug combination therapy. Three hundred seventy three (183 females and 190 males) patients were initiated on a triple drug combination of gliclazide 80 mg, tid, metformin 500 mg tid and pioglitazone 30 mg od. Once controlled, the doses of gliclazide were reduced if the blood glucose levels decreased. Those patients whose plasma glucose remained in the normal range for more than 6 months without the use of a sulphonylurea were considered to be in pharmacological remission. 48 patients were lost to follow up. At the beginning of the study the pre treatment biochemical parameters in these 325 diabetic patients at the time of enrolment were: average FBG of 209.44+/-73.82 mg/dl, PLBG 294.96+/-107.58 mg/dl, and HbA(1c) 11.21+/-3.85. The post treatment glycemic parameters were: FBG was 124.38+/-40.48 mg/dl (p &lt; 0.0001), and PLBG 162.32+/-54.33 mg/dl (p &lt; 0.001), average glycosylated hemoglobin was 6.45+/-2.17 (p &lt; 0.001). After using the triple drug combination pharmacological remission was achieved in 36.3 percent i.e. 118 (60 males and 58 females) patients. The average time required for achieving remission was 4 (+/-3.3) months in males and 5 (+/-4.02) months in females. 118 patients were maintained remission after 2 years of follow up. The average duration of remission is 27 (+/-2.66) months. There was an average weight gain of 2.56 +/- 1.32 kg in both the groups of patients in remission and those who could not achieve remission. In this study we have found that we could achieve long term glycemic control 'pharmacological remission' in 118 of the 325 patients i.e.36% of type 2 diabetic patients. Insulin sensitizers like pioglitazone along with metformin may induce long-term glycemic control in type 2 diabetic patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0602_16643", "title": "Managing type 2 diabetes: going beyond glycemic control.", "score": 0.013586592178770951, "content": "Aggressive management of type 2 diabetes is necessary to achieve glycemic and nonglycemic treatment goals. Attainment of treatment goals is associated with a decreased risk of diabetes-related complications, costs, and health care utilization. To review the advantages and disadvantages of different glucose-lowering agents, with an emphasis on the role of thiazolidinediones (TZDs). Diabetes has become increasingly prevalent, particularly among younger age groups in the United States, accounting for approximately 15% of health care expenditures by managed care organizations. Reducing a patient's glycated hemoglobin (A1C) has been shown to decrease the risk of diabetes-related complications, as well as reduce medical costs and health care utilization. Despite this knowledge, achievement of the American Diabetes Association (ADA) goal A1C of &lt; 7% is suboptimal, and &lt; 1 in 10 patients also reach the ADA targets for cholesterol (low-density lipoprotein &lt; 100 mg per dL) and blood pressure (&lt; 130/80 mm Hg). To ensure that all ADA treatment goals are met, clinicians need to closely monitor patients and adjust therapy as needed, taking into consideration both a drug's glycemic and nonglycemic effects when selecting medication therapy. Four basic defects contribute to type 2 diabetes: insulin resistance, decreased insulin secretion, increased hepatic glucose production, and reduced glucagon-like peptide-1 levels. Unlike metformin, sulfonylureas, and insulin that address only 1 or 2 physiologic defects, TZDs uniquely address 3 of these defects at the adipocyte. Metformin is recommended for initial drug therapy; TZDs, sulfonylureas, and insulin are useful options as add-on therapy for patients whose A1C levels remain &gt;or= 7% despite treatment with metformin and lifestyle interventions. It has been suggested that TZDs, when used either as add-on therapy or when appropriate as monotherapy, may conserve pancreatic beta-cell function over an observed 3- to 5-year period of time and sustain a decrease in A1C ranging from 0.5%-1.5%. Although rarely associated with hypoglycemia, TZDs may cause total body weight gain that is most commonly caused by volume expansion, which may manifest as new or worsened heart failure in susceptible individuals. Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, the 2 TZDs available in the United States, contain black box label warnings about their potential to cause or exacerbate congestive heart failure; additional data have suggested a link to ischemic cardiac events. Recent data also suggest that TZDs may reduce bone density. Conversely, pioglitazone may have some vasculoprotective effect related to elevation of high-density lipoprotein and lessened progression of carotid intima-media thickness; however, any effect on macrovascular clinical outcomes is unknown. Other drug options are available for the treatment of type 2 diabetes, such as incretin-based therapies. Yet despite their favorable effects on glycemia, they have not been included to date in the ADA treatment algorithm. Proper glycemic control and attainment of other nonglycemic management targets (e.g., blood pressure, lipids, body weight) are essential to the prevention of long-term complications of diabetes and to reduction of overall disease management costs. Therefore, patients with diabetes should be followed closely to ensure that they achieve and maintain both glycemic and nonglycemic treatment goals. Most patients will not sustain an adequate level of control using nondrug or single-drug therapeutic approaches. When choosing among treatment options, consideration should be given to the nonglycemic as well as glycemic effects of various glucose-lowering agents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_2074", "title": "Effects of replacing metformin with pioglitazone on glycemic control in japanese patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus: A 12-week, open-label, prospective study.", "score": 0.013453866395042865, "content": "Insulin resistance is a critical aspect of the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is also associated with other risk factors for cardiovascular disease (eg, dyslipidemia and hypertension). Accordingly, insulin resistance is a possible target for lowering plasma glucose concentration and preventing diabetic macroangiopathy. Biguanides, such as metformin, and thiazolidinediones (TZDs), such as pioglitazone, improve insulin resistance. The aims of this study were to assess the effects of replacing a biguanide with a TZD on glycemic control in patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and also to identify the factors affecting interpatient variation in the effects of treatment change. This was a 12-week, open-label, prospective study in which previously prescribed metformin (500 or 750 mg/d) was replaced with pioglitazone (15 or 30 mg/d) in patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) concentration &gt;7% despite treatment with diet, exercise, and hypoglycemic agents other than TZDs were eligible for the study. Patients who never received TZDs were also eligible for inclusion. Vital signs, metabolic parameters, and arterial stiffness were assessed at baseline and after 12 weeks of treatment with pioglitazone. The primary end point was change in HbA1c concentration after replacing metformin with pioglitazone. Tolerability was assessed by medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests (aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase). Twenty-one Japanese patients (15 women, 6 men; mean [SD] age, 61.8 [8.4] years; body mass index, 25.5 [3.0] kg/m(2)) were included in the study. HbA1c concentration was not significantly changed from baseline after 12 weeks of pioglitazone treatment (8.0% [0.7%] vs 8.2% [0.7%]). Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) concentration also was not significantly changed after the replacement of treatment (156 [27] vs 144 [30] mg/dL). In addition, the resistin concentration did not change significantly from baseline after 12 weeks of pioglitazone treatment (6.6 [3.8] vs 6.4 [3.6] ng/mL). In contrast, significant improvement from baseline was observed in triglyceride (TG) concentrations (157 [109] vs 117 [68] mg/dL; P = 0.003), high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) (55 [12] vs 61 [16] mg/dL; P = 0.016), remnant-like particle cholesterol (6.6 [6.0] vs 5.3 [3.5] mg/dL; P = 0.048), and serum adiponectin (8.8 [4.3] vs 23.3 [11.7] μg/mL; P &lt; 0.001). Pulse wave velocity was also significantly improved (1730 [361] vs 1622 [339] m/sec; P = 0.009). Changes in HbA1c were significantly correlated with serum fasting insulin concentration at baseline in the patients not receiving insulin preparations (r = -0.635, P = 0.013). The percentage change in serum adiponectin concentration was correlated with the percentage changes in HbA1c and FPG concentrations (HbA1c, r = -0.518, P = 0.019; FPG, r = -0.594, P = 0.006). Body weight was significantly increased after treatment (62.6 [11.9] vs 65.5 [12.2] kg; P &lt; 0.001). Mild edema was reported in 5 patients. One patient discontinued treatment due to an increase in serum creatine kinase activity to ~6.6 times the upper limit of normal. Replacement of metformin with pioglitazone did not produce significant differences in HbA1c and FPG concentrations from baseline after 12 weeks of treatment in these patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, the replacement was effective in a subset of patients whose serum insulin concentrations were high or whose serum adiponectin concentrations were sensitive to TZDs. In addition, the replacement was associated with significant improvements in TG, HDL-C, serum adiponectin concentration, pulse wave velocity, and body weight increase from baseline." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en343_31357", "title": "Sitagliptin/metformin", "score": 0.012694286188395376, "content": "Medical uses In the United States, sitagliptin/metformin is indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes. In the European Union, sitagliptin/metformin is indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in people with type 2 diabetes; in combination with a sulfonylurea as an adjunct to diet and exercise \"in people inadequately controlled on their maximal tolerated dose of metformin and a sulfonylurea; as triple combination therapy with a peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) agonist (i.e., a thiazolidinedione) as an adjunct to diet and exercise in people inadequately controlled on their maximal tolerated dose of metformin and a PPAR agonist; and as add on to insulin as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in people when stable dosage of insulin and metformin alone do not provide adequate glycemic control.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_334", "title": "Is insulin the preferred treatment for HbA1c &gt;9%?", "score": 0.012670917037571675, "content": "The algorithms and guidelines of the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists and the American Diabetes Association recommend that insulin administration be strongly considered for people with type 2 diabetes (T2D) with HbA1c levels exceeding 9.0% and 10%, respectively. Although the caveat is given in both sets of recommendations that this is particularly appropriate when patients are \"symptomatic,\" referring to urinary frequency with increased thirst and appetite, weight loss, and ketosis, the clinical definition of such presentations may be ill-defined, and it is noteworthy that both documents consider insulin to offer particular benefit under such circumstances. However, with multiple options for glycemic treatment, it is of interest to reconsider this argument for insulin use. It should be recalled that in the UK Prospective Diabetes Study, diet alone was associated with a reduction in HbA1c from 9% to 7%. Drug-naïve people with T2D do often show surprisingly strong reductions in HbA1c with metformin-based dual-agent oral treatment approaches; a recent report showed that even with baseline HbA1c &gt;11%, the combination of metformin with a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone, or sitagliptin was associated with reduction in HbA1c from 11.6% to 6.0%. A 32-week study of the combination of rosiglitazone with metformin in patients with mean baseline HbA1c 8.9% showed a mean HbA1c reduction of 2.3%, and an open-label cohort with baseline HbA1c 11.8% had a reduction in HbA1c to 7.8%. With metformin plus sitagliptin, a mean placebo-adjusted HbA1c reduction of 2.1% from a baseline of 8.8% was reported, with those patients with baseline HbA1c &gt;9% having a 2.6% reduction in HbA1c, and an open-label cohort with baseline HbA1c 11.2% having a 2.9% reduction in HbA1c. Similar 2% HbA1c reductions from baseline levels of 9.1% were seen with metformin in initial combination with the sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor dapagliflozin. Although such dual oral agent approaches are more effective than monotherapy, with a combination regimen the HbA1c reduction will not be directly additive, because the expected reduction decreases at lower baseline HbA1c levels. As an example of this, administration of canagliflozin 300 mg daily to patients with baseline HbA1c &gt;9% reduced levels from 9.6% by 1.8%, whereas at a baseline HbA1c of 10% either canagliflozin 300 mg or metformin 2 g/day reduced HbA1c by 2%; the addition of both agents led to an HbA1c reduction by somewhat less than 3%, which appears concordant with a reduction by the second agent from approximately 8% (10% to 2%). Similar less-than-additive effects of the addition of exenatide QW to dapagliflozin have been reported, with HbA1c reduction from a baseline of 10.0%-10.1% of 1.9% and 1.6% with the individual agents, respectively, and a reduction of 2.2% with their combination. However, one may consider these approaches inferior to the expected HbA1c reduction with insulin, suggesting that insulin should, indeed, be the preferred treatment for people with T2D and HbA1c &gt;9%. Rather, studies comparing basal insulin directly with glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonists (RA) suggest that the latter agents may offer superior benefit. The Diabetes Therapy Utilization: Researching Changes in HBA1C, Weight, and Other Factors Through Intervention with Exenatide Once Weekly (DURATION)-3 and Liraglutide Effect and Action in Diabetes (LEAD)-5 studies compared exenatide QW and liraglutide, respectively, with insulin glargine. Those study participants in the highest quartile of baseline HbA1c had levels ≥9.0% and ≥8.9%, with the GLP-1RA leading to 0.3% and 0.2% greater reductions in HbA1c, respectively, than insulin glargine. Another study comparing T2D patients receiving oral agents given liraglutide with those given insulin glargine showed that those in the highest baseline HbA1c quartile (mean 10.6%) had an HbA1c reduction of 3.1% with either agent. In the exenatide QW study, the reduction in HbA1c with this agent exceeded that with insulin glargine for those groups of study participants with HbA1c 9.0%-9.4%, 9.5%-9.9%, 10.0%-10.4%, 10.5%-10.9%, and even ≥11.0%. Similar superiority of the HbA1c-lowering effect of exenatide QW compared with that of insulin glargine was reported in a study with baseline HbA1c 8.5%. An individual-patient meta-analysis of six studies of another weekly GLP-1RA, namely dulaglutide, showed that at a baseline HbA1c of 10% the expected HbA1c reduction would be nearly 2.5%, and a study directly comparing dulaglutide with insulin glargine also showed a superior HbA1c-lowering effect of the former. Another advantage of the GLP-1RAs is their association with weight loss, rather than the weight gain associated with insulin treatment. An interesting potential combination is that of a GLP-1RA with a thiazolidinedione. In a study comparing the addition of exenatide QW and pioglitazone with the addition of basal-bolus insulin in 101 people receiving sulfonylureas and metformin with baseline HbA1c &gt;10%, HbA1c fell from &gt;11% by &gt;4% compared with &lt;4%, respectively, and the GLP-1RA plus thiazolidinedione treatment was associated with less weight gain and hypoglycemia. What can we conclude? Should HbA1c 11% be the new \"use insulin\" point? Insulin is an important part of our armamentarium for T2D, and is certainly needed for many patients, but with current therapeutic approaches including metformin, incretin-based treatments, SGLT2 inhibitors, and, possibly, thiazolidinediones, we can reconsider its use in many instances. Although there is no doubt that insulin is necessary for truly uncontrolled diabetes, we may wish to better define its correct indications." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_899", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011294765840220386, "content": "follow-up by the health care provider, possibly in the presence of a caregiver. Chlorpropamide has a prolonged half-life, particularly in older adults, and should be avoided because it is associated with a high risk of hypoglycemia. Metformin should be used with caution and only in patients free of severe renal insufficiency. Renal insufficiency should be assessed by a calculated glomerular filtration rate or, in very old patients who have reduced muscle mass, by a direct measure of creatinine clearance from a 24-h urine collection. Lifestyle changes in diet and exercise and a little weight loss can prevent or delay diabetes in high-risk individuals and are substantially more effective than metformin treatment. The risk of type 2 diabetes decreased by 58% in a study of diet and exercise, and this effect was similar at all ages and in all ethnic groups. The risk reduction with standard care plus metformin was 31%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_162161", "title": "Hyperglycemia", "score": 0.011127237542331882, "content": "In diabetes mellitus (by far the most common cause of chronic hyperglycemia), treatment aims at maintaining blood glucose at a level as close to normal as possible, in order to avoid serious long-term complications. This is done by a combination of proper diet, regular exercise, and insulin or other medication such as metformin, etc. Those with hyperglycaemia can be treated using sulphonylureas or metformin or both. These drugs help by improving glycaemic control. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor alone or in combination with basal insulin can be used as a treatment for hyperglycemia with patients still in hospital. Increasing aerobic exercise to at least 30 minutes will make better use of glucose accumulated in the body since glucose is being used for energy by the muscle. Calorie restriction would be one of the main lifestyle changes because it reduces over eating which contributes to hyperglycemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0819_24079", "title": "A comparison of glycaemic effects of sitagliptin and sulfonylureas in elderly patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.", "score": 0.0110562865497076, "content": "In the USA, 45% of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) are elderly (≥ 65 years old). In general, use of sulfonylurea increases with patient age as does the associated risk for hypoglycaemia, and the consequences of hypoglycaemia can be more pronounced in elderly patients. Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, improves glycaemic control in adult patients of all ages with T2DM, with a low risk of hypoglycaemia when used alone or in combination with other antidiabetic agents that are not generally associated with hypoglycaemia when used independently. In a post hoc analysis, pooled data from elderly patients who participated in one of three double-blind studies comparing the effects of therapy with sitagliptin (100 mg/day) vs. sulfonylurea (in titrated doses) were analysed for changes from baseline in HbA1c, fasting plasma glucose (FPG), and body weight and for the incidence of reported symptomatic hypoglycaemia. In these studies, patients on diet alone or metformin were randomised to sitagliptin or glipizide for 104 weeks (studies 1 and 2) or glimepiride for 30 weeks (study 3). The analysis included 372 elderly patients who completed a trial through 25 or 30 weeks. Both HbA1c and FPG decreased from baseline with each treatment, with no statistically significant differences between treatments. A significantly lower incidence of reported hypoglycaemia was observed with sitagliptin compared with sulfonylurea (6.2% vs. 27.8%; p &lt; 0.001). Body weight decreased significantly with sitagliptin but not with sulfonylurea. Significantly more patients on sitagliptin than on sulfonylureas achieved a composite end-point of &gt;0.5% HbA1c reduction with no reported hypoglycaemia or increase in body weight (44.1% vs. 16.0%; p &lt; 0.001). In this analysis of elderly patients with T2DM, compared with sulfonylurea, sitagliptin provided similar glycaemic efficacy with less hypoglycaemia and with body weight loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0720_25386", "title": "Randomized placebo-controlled clinical trial of lorcaserin for weight loss in type 2 diabetes mellitus: the BLOOM-DM study.", "score": 0.01074006186275633, "content": "The BLOOM-DM (Behavioral Modification and Lorcaserin for Obesity and Overweight Management in Diabetes Mellitus) study evaluated efficacy and safety of lorcaserin for weight loss in patients with type 2 diabetes. Secondary objectives included evaluations of glycemic control, lipids, blood pressure, and quality of life. This 1-year, randomized, placebo-controlled trial enrolled 604 patients 1:1:1 to placebo, lorcaserin 10 mg once daily (QD) or lorcaserin 10 mg twice daily (BID). Patients were treated with metformin, a sulfonylurea (SFU) or both; had glycated hemoglobin (HbA(1c)) 7-10%; were 18-65 years old; and had BMI 27-45 kg/m(2). Patients received diet and exercise counseling. Safety monitoring included serial echocardiograms. Mean (± SD) age was 52.7 ± 8.7; 54.2% were women; 60.5% were white, 20.9% were African American, and 13.8% were Hispanic. Mean (± SD) weight was 103.6 ± 17.8 kg; BMI was 36.0 ± 4.5 kg/m(2). Most patients (91.7%) took metformin; 50.2% took a SFU. More patients lost ≥5% body weight with lorcaserin BID (37.5%; P &lt; 0.001) or lorcaserin QD (44.7%; P &lt; 0.001) vs. placebo (16.1%; modified intent to treat (MITT)/last observation carried forward (LOCF)). Least square mean (± SEM) weight change was -4.5 ± 0.35% with lorcaserin BID and -5.0 ± 0.5% with lorcaserin QD vs. -1.5 ± 0.36% with placebo (P &lt; 0.001 for each). HbA(1c) decreased 0.9 ± 0.06 with lorcaserin BID, 1.0 ± 0.09 with lorcaserin QD, and 0.4 ± 0.06 with placebo (P &lt; 0.001 for each); fasting glucose decreased 27.4 ± 2.5 mg/dl, -28.4 ± 3.8 mg/dl, and 11.9 ± 2.5 mg/dl, respectively (P &lt; 0.001 for each). Symptomatic hypoglycemia occurred in 7.4% of patients on lorcaserin BID, 10.5% on lorcaserin QD, and 6.3% on placebo. Common adverse events were headache, back pain, nasopharyngitis, and nausea. Lorcaserin was associated with significant weight loss and improvement in glycemic control in patients with type 2 diabetes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en559_1655", "title": "Vildagliptin/metformin", "score": 0.010262928700892121, "content": "The most common side effects include nausea (feeling sick), vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal (tummy) pain and loss of appetite. Medical uses Vildagliptin/metformin is indicated in the treatment of type-2 diabetes mellitus: it is indicated in the treatment of adults who are unable to achieve sufficient glycaemic control at their maximally tolerated dose of oral metformin alone or who are already treated with the combination of vildagliptin and metformin as separate tablets. it is indicated in combination with a sulphonylurea (i.e. triple combination therapy) as an adjunct to diet and exercise in patients inadequately controlled with metformin and a sulphonylurea. it is indicated in triple combination therapy with insulin as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycaemic control in patients when insulin at a stable dose and metformin alone do not provide adequate glycaemic control. References External links" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0550_4155", "title": "Glycaemic control without weight gain in insulin requiring type 2 diabetes: 1-year results of the GAME regimen.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Weight gain appears to be unavoidable in patients with type 2 diabetes who are switched from oral agents to insulin therapy. Peripheral hyperinsulinism induced by the use of long-acting insulin may be the key to explain this adverse effect. The aim of this study was to investigate whether a regimen free of long-acting insulin can provide long-term glycaemic control without causing weight gain. This is an uncontrolled, 1-year study comprising 58 patients with type 2 diabetes and secondary failure, age 30-75 years, BMI 25-35 kg/m(2), HbA1c &gt; 7.5% and fasting C-peptide level &gt; 0.3 mmol/l. All patients were treated with the GAME regimen, a combination of glimepiride administered at 20:00 hours for nocturnal glycaemic control, insulin aspart three times daily for meal-related glucose control and metformin. Seventy-one per cent of the patients were considered evaluable. HbA1c decreased from 10.0 +/- 0.3 to 7.4 +/- 0.1% (p &lt; 0.001). Fifty-nine per cent reached HbA1c levels &lt;or= 7.5%. Symptomatic nocturnal hypoglycaemia was not reported. Body weight tended to decrease during the first 3 months (-1.0 +/- 0.5 kg, p = 0.06), but then gradually rose to a value 0.8 +/- 0.5 kg higher than at baseline (p = 0.12). This is 4.4 +/- 0.6 kg less than predicted for conventional regimens employing long-acting insulin (p &lt; 0.001). The GAME regimen provides long-term glycaemic control as well as stabilization of body weight in about 60% of type 2 patients presenting with secondary failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_10000", "title": "Sitagliptin: a novel drug for the treatment of type 2 diabetes.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a common chronic disease that causes significant morbidity and mortality worldwide. The primary goal of treatment is to target glycemic control by maintaining the glycosylated hemoglobin level near 6-7% without predisposing patients to hypoglycemia. Diabetes results from a combination of increased hepatic glucose production, decreased insulin secretion from beta cells, and insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues. Currently available antidiabetic agents work by different mechanisms to lower blood glucose levels. Unfortunately, each of them has its tolerability and safety concerns that limit its use and dose titration. Sitagliptin is the first antidiabetic agent from the class of dipeptidyl peptidase-4 enzyme inhibitors. It increases the amount of circulating incretins, which stimulate insulin secretion and inhibit glucose production. Sitagliptin was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use with diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adult patients with type 2 diabetes. It can be used alone or in combination with metformin or a thiazolidinedione (pioglitazone or rosiglitazone) when treatment with either drug alone provides inadequate glucose control. The usual adult dose is 100 mg once daily. A dose of 25-50 mg once daily is recommended for patients with moderate-to-severe renal impairment. In randomized, placebo-controlled trials that lasted for up to 6 months, sitagliptin lowered glycosylated hemoglobin levels by 0.5-0.8%. In a 52-week clinical trial, sitagliptin was shown to be noninferior to glipizide as an add-on agent in patients inadequately controlled on metformin alone. Sitagliptin was well tolerated with the most common side effects being gastrointestinal complaints (up to 16%), including abdominal pain, nausea and diarrhea; hypoglycemia and body weight gain occurred at similar rates compared with placebo. Overall, sitagliptin provides a treatment option for patients with type 2 diabetes as a monotherapy, or as an adjunct to metformin or a thiazolidinedione when patients achieve inadequate glycemic control while on either of the agents. It is also an alternative therapy for those patients who have contraindications or intolerability to other antidiabetic agents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1015_2842", "title": "[Short-term intensive combined therapy with metformin, sagliptin and dapagliflozin for newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes: efficacy, weight control and safety].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To assess the efficacy and safety of short- term intensive hypoglycemic therapy with a triple regimen consisting of metformin, sagliptin and dapagliflozin in patients with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus with hemoglobin Alc (HbA1c) of 9%-12%. We prospectively enrolled 58 patients with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes, who were treated with metformin combined with sagliptin and dapagliflozin for 12 weeks on the basis of diabetic diet and regular exercise. Blood glucose was monitored during the treatment and the changes in HbA1c, fasting blood glucose (FBG), 2-hour postprandial blood glucose (2 hPBG), fasting insulin (FINS), 2-hour postprandial insulin (2 hPINS), fasting C-peptide (F-CP), 2-hour postprandial C-peptide (2 hP-CP), and body weight after treatment as well as the incidence of hypoglycemia and adverse events associated with the treatment were recorded. Two patients withdrew from the study for intolerance of gastrointestinal reactions, and another 2 withdrew for inconvenience of access to the medicines. Fifty-four of the patients finally completed the study, including 34 male and 20 female patients. After 12 weeks of therapy, all the patients showed significant improvements in FBG, 2 hPBG, HbA1c, HOMA-beta and HOMA-IR (<iP</i &lt; 0.001) with a mean reduction of HbA1c level by (4.19 ± 1.07)%, and the goal of HbA1c control to below 7.0% was achieved in 83.33% of the patients. The reduction of HbA1c was correlated with FBG (<ir</i=0.487, <iP</i=0.000), 2 hPBG (<ir</i=0.310, <iP</i=0.023), and HOMA-β (<ir</i=-0.398, <iP</i=0.003). The patients had a mean body weight loss by 2.47±3.38 kg (<iP</i &lt; 0.001) and a mean decrease of body mass index (BMI) by 0.90± 1.18 kg/m2 (<iP</i &lt; 0.001) after the therapy. The body weight-reducing effect was associated with the patients' baseline body weight (<ir</i=0.678, <iP</i=0.000), BMI (<ir</i=0.818, <iP</i=0.000), F-CP (<ir</i=0.282, <iP</i=0.039) and HOMA-IR (<ir</i=0.297, <iP</i=0.029). During the therapy 8 patients experienced hypoglycemic symptoms (10 times, 14.81%); 3 patients were diagnosed with hypoglycemia (blood glucose ≤3.9 mmol/L, 3 times), and the overall incidence of hypoglycemia was 5.56%. No serious hypoglycemia or infections of the urinary and reproductive systems occurred in these patients. Short-term intensive oral hypoglycemic therapy with metformin combined with sagliptin and dapagliflozin is effective for treatment of patients with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes with HbA1c of 9%-12% and shows a good weight-reducing effect with a low risk of hypoglycemia. The combined therapy can effectively improve β-cell insulin secretion function, and is suitable for treatment of newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic patients with high blood glucose." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27815", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009714938819416432, "content": "lost 5–7% of their body weight during the 3 years of the study. Studies in Finnish and Chinese populations noted similar efficacy of diet and exercise in preventing or delaying type 2 DM. A number of agents, including α-glucosidase inhibitors, metformin, thiazolidinediones, GLP-1 receptor pathway modifiers, and orlistat, prevent or delay type 2 DM but are not approved for this purpose. Individuals with a strong family history of type 2 DM and individuals with IFG or IGT should be strongly encouraged to maintain a normal BMI and engage in regular physical activity. Pharmacologic therapy for individuals with prediabetes is currently controversial because its cost-effectiveness and safety profile are not known. The ADA has suggested that metformin be considered in individuals with both IFG and IGT who are at very high risk for progression to diabetes (age <60 years, BMI ≥35 kg/m2, family history of diabetes in first-degree relative, and women with a history of GDM). Individuals with IFG," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_22821", "title": "Long-term glycaemic efficacy and weight changes associated with thiazolidinediones when added at an advanced stage of type 2 diabetes.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To describe the outcome of 35 patients with type 2 diabetes prospectively followed for 6 years after the addition of a thiazolidinedione (TZD) to a failing regimen of a sulphonylurea and metformin -- triple oral therapy. Study patients were assessed for the need for the addition of insulin to their regimen, and follow-up clinical and laboratory findings were analysed. At a mean follow-up of 72 +/- 1.5 months (range 53-80), 18 (51%) of patients remained well controlled on triple oral therapy with a mean glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) value of 6.9 +/- 0.2% (upper limit of normal 6.2%). In 17 other patients, triple oral therapy failed and the use of insulin was necessary after a mean duration of 38 (range 18-68) months. The mean HbA1c in these patients was 8.0 +/- 0.3%. The group that was maintained on triple oral therapy gained 15.2 +/- 1.9 lbs over the 6-year study which was significantly higher than the baseline weight. Alternatively, the group that failed and had insulin added to their therapy gained 20.2 +/- 4.5 lbs over the same period which was also significantly different from baseline but not from the triple oral therapy group. Although after 3 years a trend towards weight loss occurred in the triple oral therapy group, the insulin-added group continued to gain weight. Stimulated C-peptide levels increased significantly in the triple therapy group from 3.6 +/- 0.9 to 4.3 +/- 1.2 ng/ml and had not increased or decreased non-significantly from 3.7 +/- 0.8 to 3.2 +/- 0.6 ng/ml at the time of insulin initiation in the insulin-requiring group. When used late in the course of type 2 diabetes, TZDs result in improved and prolonged glycaemic control which persisted for a median time of 6 years. Weight gain with TZDs peaks and then plateaus (and even trends downwards) at 3 years, although the addition of insulin to a failing oral therapy regimen results in a further and continuing weight gain in spite of inferior glycaemic control. Continuing glycaemic control with triple oral therapy is dependent on preservation or augmentation of endogenous insulin production." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en373_11843", "title": "Gemigliptin", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Glycemic variability and chronic sustained hyperglycemia are the main components of dysglycemia in diabetes. The previous studies suggested that different pharmacodynamic profiles between DPP-4 inhibitors have been associated with the different effects on glycemic variability. In this study, a multicenter, randomized, active-controlled, parallel group, open-label, exploratory study was designed to evaluate the efficacy on glycemic variability and safety of initial combination therapy of gemigliptin 50 mg qd versus sitagliptin 100 mg qd, or glimepiride 2 mg qd with metformin in patients with T2DM (study identifier: LG-DPCL012, STABLE study; ClinicalTrials.gov registration number: NCT01890629). The mean amplitude of glycemic excursions (MAGE) and SD of glucose were used for assessing glucose fluctuations from the baseline after 12 weeks of treatment. At 12 weeks, MAGE was significantly lower in the DPP-4 inhibitor groups (gemigliptin and sitagliptin) than in the glimepiride group" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_34864", "title": "Diabetes management", "score": 0.00961174600771967, "content": "\"Perfect glycemic control\" would mean that glucose levels were always normal (70–130 mg/dl, or 3.9–7.2 mmol/L) and indistinguishable from a person without diabetes. In reality, because of the imperfections of treatment measures, even \"good glycemic control\" describes blood glucose levels that average somewhat higher than normal much of the time. In addition, one survey of type 2 diabetics found that they rated the harm to their quality of life from intensive interventions to control their blood sugar to be just as severe as the harm resulting from intermediate levels of diabetic complications. In the 1990s the American Diabetes Association conducted a publicity campaign to persuade patients and physicians to strive for average glucose and hemoglobin A1c values below 200 mg/dl (11 mmol/l) and 8%. Currently, many patients and physicians attempt to do better than that." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en607_26383", "title": "Pioglitazone/glimepiride", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Medical uses In the United States pioglitazone/glimepiride is indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus who are already treated with a thiazolidinedione and sulfonylurea or who have inadequate glycemic control on a thiazolidinedione alone or a sulfonylurea alone. In the European Union pioglitazone/glimepiride is indicated for the treatment of people with type 2 diabetes mellitus who show intolerance to metformin or for whom metformin is contraindicated and who are already treated with a combination of pioglitazone and glimepiride. References External links Anti-diabetic drugs" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1058_25724", "title": "[Starting insulin or not? And if so, which basal insulin?]", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 55-year-old patient with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 is referred for uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus. His HbA1c-concentration is 71 mmol/mol, despite an initial 8% weight loss and treatment with metformin and glimepiride. The general practitioner proposes to start with insulin, but the patient refuses. We discuss whether there is a good alternative for insulin such as more weight loss and the addition of more drugs. Our patient then changes his mind and agrees to start insulin treatment. Basal insulin is usually recommended in cases like this.Since there are no significant differences between different types of available basal insulin, it seems reasonable to take price into account. Our patient achieved reasonable glucose control without weight gain using a combination of basal insulin and a GLP-1 receptor agonist." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_177", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009468509114451615, "content": "The goal of treatment is tight glucose control—i.e., blood glucose levels ranging from 80 to 120 mg/dL and HbA1c levels < 7. Treatment measures include the following: Diet, weight loss, and exercise. Oral agents (monotherapy or combination if uncontrolled): Sulfonylureas (glipizide, glyburide, and glimepiride): Insulin secretagogues. Hypoglycemia and weight gain are side effects. Meglitinides (repaglinide and nateglinide): Short-acting agents whose mechanism of action is similar to that of sulfonylureas. Metformin: Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis; ↑ peripheral sensitivity to insulin. Side effects include weight loss, GI upset, and, rarely, lactic acidosis. Contraindicated in the elderly (those > 80 years of age) and in patients with renal disease. Thiazolidinediones (the “glitazones”): ↑ insulin sensitivity. Side effects include weight gain, edema, and potential hepatotoxicity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_11381", "title": "Combination exenatide-sitagliptin therapy used with glipizide in a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The case of a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who received combination exenatide-sitagliptin with glipizide is reported. A 55-year-old, 204-lb Caucasian woman arrived at a clinic with polydipsia. Her blood glucose concentration was 450 mg/dL and her glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA(1c)) value was 13.4%. She was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and started on metformin hydrochloride 500 mg orally twice daily. Metformin was later discontinued due to elevated liver function test values. Sitagliptin 100 mg daily was substituted, and glipizide was later added and its dosage adjusted over the next several months. After six months, her HbA(1c) value had decreased to 9.3% and she had gained 14 lb. Exenatide was then added to her regimen, and the dosage was adjusted to 10 μg subcutaneously twice daily. Two months after the initiation of sitagliptin, glipizide, and exenatide, the patient had lost 10 lb, reported significant improvements in self-monitored blood glucose readings, and required a reduction in glipizide dosage despite no reported therapeutic lifestyle changes. Seven months after the initiation of exenatide, sitagliptin, and glipizide, her HbA(1c) value was 7.4%. Triple therapy resulted in a total HbA(1c) value reduction of 1.9%, a weight loss of 11 lb, and normalized liver function test values. The patient's high blood pressure was treated with losartan and remained at goal throughout the duration of this report. In a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the addition of the incretin mimetic exenatide and the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor sitagliptin to glipizide therapy appeared effective and safe." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_6681", "title": "Effect of noninsulin antidiabetic drugs added to metformin therapy on glycemic control, weight gain, and hypoglycemia in type 2 diabetes.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Metformin is the recommended initial drug therapy for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). However, the optimal second-line drug when metformin monotherapy fails is unclear. To determine the comparative efficacy, risk of weight gain, and hypoglycemia associated with noninsulin antidiabetic drugs in patients with type 2 DM not controlled by metformin alone. A literature search via MEDLINE (beginning in January 1950) and Cochrane CENTRAL through January 2010 and a manual search of references for additional relevant studies. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) with at least 3 months' duration, evaluating noninsulin antidiabetic drugs added to metformin in patients experiencing an inadequate response to maximized and stable (&gt; or = 4 weeks at &gt; or = 1500 mg or maximally tolerated dose) metformin therapy. Inclusion/exclusion criteria; duration of patient follow-up; drug, dose, and schedule used; use of concurrent lifestyle modification; and baseline characteristics (age, sex, anthropometrics, glycated hemoglobin A(1c) [HbA(1c)], duration of DM, and metformin dose). End points collected included mean change in HbA(1c), proportion of patients achieving HbA(1c) goal of less than 7%, change in weight, and incidence of hypoglycemia. Mixed-treatment comparison meta-analysis was used to calculate the weighted mean difference for changes from baseline in HbA(1c) and body weight and relative risk (RR) of HbA(1c) goal attainment and hypoglycemia, with associated 95% credible intervals. Overall, 27 RCTs (n = 11 198) were included. Mean (range) trial duration was 32 (12-52) weeks. The different classes of drugs were associated with similar HbA(1c) reductions (range, 0.64%-0.97%) compared with placebo. Although use of thiazolidinediones, sulfonylureas, and glinides were associated with weight gain (range, 1.77-2.08 kg), glucagon-like peptide-1 analogs, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors were associated with weight loss or no weight change. Sulfonylureas and glinides were associated with higher rates of hypoglycemia than with placebo (RR range, 4.57-7.50). When added to maximal metformin therapy, all noninsulin antidiabetic drugs were associated with similar HbA(1c) reductions but differed in their associations with weight gain and risk of hypoglycemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1010_14676", "title": "Real-World Clinical Effectiveness and Tolerability of Hydroxychloroquine 400 Mg in Uncontrolled Type 2 Diabetes Subjects who are not Willing to Initiate Insulin Therapy (HYQ-Real-World Study).", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The epidemic of T2DM is rising across the globe. Systemic inflammation plays a pivotal role in the pathogenesis and complications of T2DM. Combination of two or more oral hypoglycemic agents (OHA) is widely prescribed in patients with T2DM, however many patients have poor glycemic control despite receiving combination therapy. The new antidiabetic drugs are relatively costly or many patients have anxiety over the use of injectable insulin. The objective of this observational study was to investigate the effectiveness and tolerability of hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) in T2DM patients uncontrolled on multiple OHA and despite high sugar level not willing to initiate insulin therapy in a real-world clinical setting. A prospective, investigator-initiated, observational, single-centred study was conducted where 250 patients (18-65 years) with T2DM for more than 5 years, with uncontrolled glycemia despite on a combination of multiple OHA, HbA1c between ≥7% and &lt;10.5%, FPG &gt;130 mg/dL or PPG &gt;180 mg/dL and BMI between &gt;25 and &lt;39 kg/m2, were prescribed hydroxychloroquine sulphate 400 mg once daily for 48 weeks. Percentage of drugs used at the baseline were as follows: metformin 2000 mg (100%), glimepiride 4 mg (100%), pioglitazone 30 mg (100%), sitagliptin 100 mg (100%), canagliflozin 300 mg (52.4%), empagliflozin 25 mg (22.8%), dapagliflozin 10 mg (17.6%) and voglibose 0.3 mg (62%). Mean change in HbA1c, blood glucose and hs-CRP at baseline, week 12, 24 and 48 were assessed using the paired t-test. After 48 weeks of add-on treatment with HCQ, almost all SGLT-2 inhibitors were withdrawn; metformin dose was reduced to 1000 mg, glimepiride reduced to 1 mg and sitagliptin reduced to 50 mg OD. Patients continued to have good glycemic control. HbA1c was reduced from 8.83% to 6.44%. Reduction in FPG was 40.78% (baseline 177.30 mg/dL) and PPG was reduced by 58.95% (baseline 329.86 mg/dL). Change in mean body weight was -4.66 Kg. The reduction in glycemic parameters and mean body weight was significant (p &lt; 0.0001). Hs-CRP was significantly reduced from 2.70±1.98 mg/L to 0.71±0.30 mg/L 9 (p &lt; 0.0001). More reduction in glycemic parameters and body weight was observed among the patients with higher hs-CRP (&gt; 3 mg/L) as compared to patients with baseline hs- CRP ≤ 3 mg/L. Most common adverse events reported with the drug therapy were GI irritation (3.6%) and hypoglycemia (2%). None of the patients required medical assistance for hypoglycemia. Add-on treatment of HCQ effectively improved glycemic control in T2DM patients uncontrolled on multiple antidiabetic drugs. By virtue of its antidiabetic and anti-inflammatory properties, it may emerge as a valuable therapeutic intervention for the patients with T2DM." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27934", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "As with any therapy, the benefits of efforts directed toward glycemic control must be balanced against the risks of treatment (Table 418-5). Side effects of intensive treatment include an increased frequency of serious hypoglycemia, weight gain, increased economic costs, and greater demands on the patient. In the DCCT, quality of life was very similar in 2417 the intensive and standard therapy groups. The most serious complication of therapy for DM is hypoglycemia, and its treatment with oral glucose or glucagon injection is discussed in Chap. 420. Severe, recurrent hypoglycemia warrants examination of treatment regimen and glycemic goal for the individual patient. Weight gain occurs with most (insulin, insulin secretagogues, thiazolidinediones) but not all (metformin, α-glucosidase inhibitors, GLP-1 receptor agonists, DPP-IV inhibitors) therapies. The weight gain is partially due to the anabolic effects of insulin and the reduction in glucosuria. As a result of recent controversies" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_2291", "title": "Diabetes mellitus in the young: Gliptins or sulfonylurea after metformin?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Diagnosis and initial management of diabetes mellitus (DM) in the young are clinical dilemma. Gliptins may be a safer and more effective option than sulfonylureas. Few Indian studies have addressed this issue of clinical relevance. To compare the use of sitagliptin and glimepiride as early add-on drugs along with metformin in young patients with DM to achieve optimum glycemic targets. This was a prospective, open-label, cohort study set in a tertiary care hospital in North India. Newly diagnosed patients of DM ≤35 year of age were initially treated to pre-defined glycemic goals (Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) 70-130, post prandial glucose (PPG) &lt; 180 mg/dl) with insulin and metformin 1 g for 8 weeks. Insulin was discontinued and metformin increased to 2 g daily for next 4 weeks. Thereafter, glimepiride 1 mg or sitagliptin 100 mg was randomly added to those who were not maintaining the set glucose targets. Dose of glimepiride was uptitrated every 4 weeks upto a maximum of 4 mg. Three groups (Gp A: Metfromin 2 g/d, Gp B: Metformin 2 g + Glimepiride 1-4 mg/d, and Gp C: Metformin 2 g + sitagliptin 100 mg/d) were followed up over next 24 weeks. They were compared for glycemic control and weight change. Those failing therapy on these drugs (FPG &gt; 180, PPG &gt; 250 mg/dl with/without catabolic symptoms/ketosis) were withdrawn. Sitagliptin with metfromin and metfromin alone group fared better than the glimepiride group for glycemic control, lesser treatment failures, and less weight gain. In this limited study, we found that sitagliptin is a safer and more effective option in young, newly diagnosed patients with DM. Findings of this study are relevant for clinical practice in Indian setting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0617_24384", "title": "Insulin glargine provides greater improvements in glycaemic control vs. intensifying lifestyle management for people with type 2 diabetes treated with OADs and 7-8% A1c levels. The TULIP study.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To determine whether earlier administration of insulin glargine (glargine) vs. the intensification of lifestyle management (LM) improves glycaemic control in type 2 diabetes patients with A1c 7-8% treated with oral therapy. TULIP [Testing the Usefulness of gLargine when Initiated Promptly in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)] was a 9-month, 12-visit, open-label, multinational, multicentre, randomized study to evaluate starting glargine or intensifying LM in T2DM patients aged 40-75 years, body mass index (BMI) 24-35 kg/m2 and A1c 7-8%, treated with maximum doses of metformin and sulphonylurea for &gt; or = 2 years. Glargine was injected once daily (evening) and titrated to fasting blood glucose 0.7-1.0 g/l. In the LM arm, dietary and physical activity counselling recommended stable weight for people with BMI &lt; 27 kg/m2 or weight loss of 3 kg for patients with BMI &gt; or = 27 kg/m2. A total of 215 patients were randomized to glargine (n = 106) or LM (n = 109). The primary objective was patients achieving A1c &lt; 7% at endpoint. Secondary endpoints included changes in A1c, in fasting plasma glucose (FPG), body weight and hypoglycaemia incidence. Two hundred and eleven (52.6% male) patients were randomized and treated; mean (+/- s.d.) age 60.7 +/- 7.9 years, weight 84.5 +/- 13.1 kg, BMI 29.9 +/- 3.5 kg/m2 and A1c 7.6 +/- 0.4%. More patients reached A1c &lt; 7% (66 vs. 38%; p &lt; 0.0001) or &lt; 6.5% (34 vs. 11%; p = 0.0001) with glargine vs. LM. The change in FPG from baseline to study endpoint was significantly greater in the glargine vs. the LM arm (-0.50 +/- 0.47 vs. -0.05 +/- 0.39 g/l respectively; p &lt; 0.0001). Compared with the glargine group, the LM group showed a decrease in weight (+0.9 +/- 2.9 vs. -2.5 +/- 3.2 kg; p &lt; 0.0001), as well as the expected lower symptomatic hypoglycaemia (55.3 vs. 25.0%; p &lt; 0.0001) and nocturnal hypoglycaemia (20.4 vs. 5.6%; p = 0.0016). No significant changes were observed from baseline to study endpoint in any of the lipid parameters tested. In patients with T2DM with A1c 7-8%, who were previously treated by conventional LM and OAD therapy, adding glargine resulted in greater improvements in glycaemic control vs. intensifying LM." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_19470", "title": "Glycemic control with diet, sulfonylurea, metformin, or insulin in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus: progressive requirement for multiple therapies (UKPDS 49). UK Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) Group.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Treatment with diet alone, insulin, sulfonylurea, or metformin is known to improve glycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, but which treatment most frequently attains target fasting plasma glucose (FPG) concentration of less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) or glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) below 7% is unknown. To assess how often each therapy can achieve the glycemic control target levels set by the American Diabetes Association. Randomized controlled trial conducted between 1977 and 1997. Patients were recruited between 1977 and 1991 and were followed up every 3 months for 3, 6, and 9 years after enrollment. Outpatient diabetes clinics in 15 UK hospitals. A total of 4075 patients newly diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes ranged in age between 25 and 65 years and had a median (interquartile range) FPG concentration of 11.5 (9.0-14.4) mmol/L [207 (162-259) mg/dL], HbA1c levels of 9.1% (7.5%-10.7%), and a mean (SD) body mass index of 29 (6) kg/m2. After 3 months on a low-fat, high-carbohydrate, high-fiber diet, patients were randomized to therapy with diet alone, insulin, sulfonylurea, or metformin. Fasting plasma glucose and HbA1c levels, and the proportion of patients who achieved target levels below 7% HbA1c or less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) FPG at 3, 6, or 9 years following diagnosis. The proportion of patients who maintained target glycemic levels declined markedly over 9 years of follow-up. After 9 years of monotherapy with diet, insulin, or sulfonylurea, 8%, 42%, and 24%, respectively, achieved FPG levels of less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) and 9%, 28%, and 24% achieved HbA1c levels below 7%. In obese patients randomized to metformin, 18% attained FPG levels of less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) and 13% attained HbA1c levels below 7%. Patients less likely to achieve target levels were younger, more obese, or more hyperglycemic than other patients. Each therapeutic agent, as monotherapy, increased 2- to 3-fold the proportion of patients who attained HbA1c below 7% compared with diet alone. However, the progressive deterioration of diabetes control was such that after 3 years approximately 50% of patients could attain this goal with monotherapy, and by 9 years this declined to approximately 25%. The majority of patients need multiple therapies to attain these glycemic target levels in the longer term." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_8758", "title": "Effects on Diabetes Medications, Weight and Glycated Hemoglobin Among Adult Patients With Obesity and Type 2 Diabetes: 6-Month Observations From a Full Meal Replacement, Low-Calorie Diet Weight Management Program.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 6-month weight-management program with full meal replacement, low-calorie diet (full MR-LCD) (900 kcal/day for 6 to 12 weeks) follows a protocol for patients with diabetes for decreasing or discontinuing weight-gaining diabetes medications first (Group WG) and then titrating weight-neutral medications (Group WN). This is a retrospective cohort study (1992 to 2009) of weight, glycemic control and diabetes medications changes in 317 patients with obesity and type 2 diabetes who were taking medications. Group WG and Group WN were similar at baseline, except that glycated hemoglobin (A1C) levels were significantly lower in Group WN (7.5% vs. 6.6%; p&lt;0.001). At 6 months, both groups had lost 16% of their weight, and the decreases or discontinuations of medications were 92.1% sulfonureas, 86.5% insulins, 78.8% thiazolidinediones, 77.8% alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, 50% meglitinides, 33.3% dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors and 32.8% metformin. At 6 months, compared with baseline, A1C levels improved in Group WG and Group WN (6-month A1C levels 6.7% and 5.8%, respectively; p&lt;0.0001), and Group WN had significantly better A1C levels than Group WG. At 6 months, 30% of patients were no longer taking diabetes medications and had significantly better percentages of weight loss compared with those taking medications (18.6% vs. 16%; p=0.002); both groups had improved glycemic control at 6 months (A1C 6.0% vs. A1C 6.6%; NS). In patients with obesity and type 2 diabetes taking medications, a full MR-LCD program appears to be safe and includes improvement in A1C levels. At 6 months, the percentage of weight loss can be significantly better in patients who no longer require diabetes medications, and A1C levels are best controlled in patients who are on WN medications." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 275, 360 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 62 ] ], "text": "the first cannot be because we have not been told what the initial headache was like;" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 96 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "The picture they describe of intense headache with orthostatism that disappears when lying down," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 361, 567 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 62, 101 ] ], "text": "the third, although it could be due to the time of onset (as I said a little earlier than expected), the reality is that the headache with orthostasis is so typical that it would be the most probable cause;" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 568, 669 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 101, 119 ] ], "text": "the last one could not be either because SAH does not follow this pattern in relation to orthostasis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Meningitis remains the fundamental cause of her headache, as it is the same type of headache as at the onset of symptoms.", "2": "It is a post lumbar puncture headache.", "3": "It is necessary to look for a different cause to this headache, because it is not typical of post-lumbar puncture syndrome or meningitis.", "4": "Most likely it was not a viral meningitis, but a subarachnoid hemorrhage. For this reason, the initial headache disappears almost completely when lying down.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0304_5255", "title": "[Spontaneous intracranial hypotension with severe headache and typical neuroradiological findings: report of two cases].", "score": 0.018207282913165264, "content": "Intracranial hypotension causes the postural headache that sometimes follows lumbar puncture. When postural headache and associated symptoms occur after lumbar puncture, the diagnosis is usually obvious. However, similar symptoms may occur after minor trauma or without an obvious precipitating cause (spontaneous intracranial hypotension: SIH). SIH is rare, but is now increasingly recognized as a cause of postural headache. We encountered two cases of SIH showing typical neuroradiological findings. Case 1 is a 47-year-old man who was admitted with severe frontalgia. CT scan revealed vague visualization of bilateral Sylvian fissures and slit ventricles. Spinal fluid pressure was 6cm H2O in the lateral recumbent position. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) showed slight lymphocytic pleocytosis. We treated him as having viral meningitis. His headache improved gradually and he was discharged 2 weeks later with slight occipitalgia. One week after discharge, he complained of severe headache again and plain CT showed bilateral subdural hematoma. The subdural hematoma in both sides was evacuated and his headache improved after the operation. Follow-up CT scans two months later showed normalization of ventricle size and cisterns. Case 2 is a 52-year-old woman who was admitted with severe occipitalgia. CT scan on admission showed slit ventricles and the disappearance of the suprasellar cistern and the Sylvian fissure. Spinal fluid pressure was 3cm H2O. Gd-enhanced MRI showed remarkable meningeal enhancement and effacement of the optic chiasm suggesting brain sagging. Her headache improved 2 weeks later after strict bed rest and oral pain relief drugs. The follow-up MRI showed disappearance of abnormal meningeal enhancement and normalization of optic chiasma effacement. SIH is one of the important differential diagnoses of patients complaining of postural headache. Meningeal enhancement of gadolinium-enhanced MRI is an important finding to diagnose SIH. We have to consider SIH when diagnosing postural headache." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_97415", "title": "Headache", "score": 0.017593297791317596, "content": "One recommended diagnostic approach is as follows. If any urgent red flags are present such as visual loss, new seizures, new weakness, new confusion, further workup with imaging and possibly a lumbar puncture should be done (see red flags section for more details). If the headache is sudden onset (thunderclap headache), a computed tomography test to look for a brain bleed (subarachnoid hemorrhage) should be done. If the CT scan does not show a bleed, a lumbar puncture should be done to look for blood in the CSF, as the CT scan can be falsely negative and subarachnoid hemorrhages can be fatal. If there are signs of infection such as fever, rash, or stiff neck, a lumbar puncture to look for meningitis should be considered. If there is jaw claudication and scalp tenderness in an older person, a temporal artery biopsy to look for temporal arteritis should be performed and immediate treatment should be started. Neuroimaging" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en198_9373", "title": "Post-dural-puncture headache", "score": 0.01619644723092999, "content": "Using a pencil point rather than a cutting spinal needle decreases the risk. The size of the pencil point needle does not appear to make a difference. PDPH is estimated to occur in between 0.1% and 36% people following dural puncture. Signs and symptoms PDPH typically occurs hours to days after puncture and presents with symptoms such as headache (which is mostly bi-frontal or occipital) and nausea that typically worsen when the patient assumes an upright posture. The headache usually occurs 24–48 hours after puncture but may occur as many as 12 days after. It usually resolves within a few days but has been rarely documented to take much longer. Pathophysiology PDPH is thought to result from a loss of cerebrospinal fluid into the epidural space. A decreased hydrostatic pressure in the subarachnoid space then leads to traction to the meninges with associated symptoms. Diagnosis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0370_20193", "title": "[Acute headache--diagnostic considerations].", "score": 0.01505633144696537, "content": "Acute headache may be the presenting symptom of several conditions. Sometimes, a headache with an abrupt onset and unusual severity may occur, experienced by the patient as the worst headache ever. The diagnostic evaluation primarily aims at ruling out subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), as well as other serious causes of acute headache, such as meningitis or stroke. The clinical examination should immediately be followed by cerebral computed tomography (CT). A CT scan will reveal 95% of SAHs, provided that it is performed within the first 24 hours after headache onset. If the CT scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should follow, preferably 12 hours after the onset of headache, unless infectious meningitis is suspected. If infectious meningitis is strongly suspected, lumbar puncture should be performed without delay. The spinal fluid should be investigated by spectrophotometry, in order to obtain optimal diagnostic accuracy for SAH. This article briefly reviews the various conditions that may present with an acute headache." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1070_7052", "title": "Delayed diagnosis of bilateral subdural effusions complicating intracranial hypotension in a patient presenting with post lumbar puncture headache.", "score": 0.01444906444906445, "content": "A 34-year-old woman presented with an unrelenting headache which had been ongoing since discharge from hospital 4 days before. She initially presented 2 weeks earlier with a 7 days history of severe headache, for which she had a CT scan, lumbar puncture and treatment for possible viral meningitis. The headache got worse 4 days after the lumbar puncture. Despite analgesics and bed rest, the headache persisted. A subsequent magnetic imaging scan demonstrated bilateral subdural effusions. She was given supportive treatment, which included advice concerning strict bed rest and analgesia. The headache took several months to abate. A third of patients suffer from post lumbar puncture headaches and this should be explained during informed consenting and post procedure. Not all post lumbar puncture headaches are simple headaches. A post lumbar puncture headache continuing for more than 7-14 days after the procedure requires further investigation to exclude life-threatening intracranial complications." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en198_9372", "title": "Post-dural-puncture headache", "score": 0.013834793898085038, "content": "Post-dural-puncture headache (PDPH) is a complication of puncture of the dura mater (one of the membranes around the brain and spinal cord). The headache is severe and described as \"searing and spreading like hot metal\", involving the back and front of the head and spreading to the neck and shoulders, sometimes involving neck stiffness. It is exacerbated by movement and sitting or standing and is relieved to some degree by lying down. Nausea, vomiting, pain in arms and legs, hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, dizziness and paraesthesia of the scalp are also common. PDPH is a common side effect of lumbar puncture and spinal anesthesia. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid causes reduced fluid levels in the brain and spinal cord. Onset occurs within two days in 66% of cases and three days in 90%. It occurs so rarely immediately after puncture that other possible causes should be investigated when it does." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0936_7738", "title": "[Chronic post-dural headache secondary to meningitis].", "score": 0.013791175511345104, "content": "In this case report a young man was admitted with fever and headache, and a lumbar puncture revealed viral meningitis. After discharge, the patient experienced persistent headache, which worsened, when he was in upright position. The condition was considered secondary to the meningitis. After 14 months, the patient was diagnosed with post-dural puncture headache and treated with an epidural blood patch (EBP). The patient experienced no headache for three months, whereafter it returned. Subsequent EBP's were unsuccessful. This case emphasizes the importance of paying attention to orthostatic components in headaches." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0966_891", "title": "Headache: Headache Emergencies.", "score": 0.013657684171801712, "content": "Among patients in the emergency department (ED), most severe, sudden-onset headaches are primary, such as migraine or tension-type headache. Only 10% to 15% of patients have serious underlying pathology. However, guidelines for evaluation of patients with severe headache emphasize detection of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and other cerebrovascular conditions. Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS) often is unrecognized and may be as common as SAH in patients with severe, sudden-onset headache in the ED. Evaluation of patients with severe headache focuses on obtaining a description of the episode and investigating any risk factors, clinical features, and red flag signs and symptoms that could indicate the presence of a serious condition. Any abnormal finding on neurologic examination has an approximately 39% positive predictive value for intracranial pathology. Computed tomography (CT)scan without contrast within 6 hours of symptom onset is highly sensitive for SAH. Lumbar puncture is recommended for patients with late presentation of SAH and select patients with initially negative CT scan results. CT or magnetic resonance angiography of the brain that shows multiple focal areas of vasoconstriction is diagnostic of RCVS. Lumbar puncture is indicated for patients with suspected meningitis. The management, follow-up, and prognosis of patients with severe headache depend on the etiology." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_9479", "title": "Migraine", "score": 0.013358412345015547, "content": "Differential diagnosis Other conditions that can cause similar symptoms to a migraine headache include temporal arteritis, cluster headaches, acute glaucoma, meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Temporal arteritis typically occurs in people over 50 years old and presents with tenderness over the temple, cluster headache presents with one-sided nose stuffiness, tears and severe pain around the orbits, acute glaucoma is associated with vision problems, meningitis with fevers, and subarachnoid hemorrhage with a very fast onset. Tension headaches typically occur on both sides, are not pounding, and are less disabling. Those with stable headaches that meet criteria for migraines should not receive neuroimaging to look for other intracranial disease. This requires that other concerning findings such as papilledema (swelling of the optic disc) are not present. People with migraines are not at an increased risk of having another cause for severe headaches. Prevention" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0872_9656", "title": "Rapid diagnosis vital in thunderclap headache.", "score": 0.01334060494189705, "content": "Thunderclap headache is a severe and acute headache that reaches maximum intensity in under one minute and lasts for more than five minutes. Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) accounts for 10-25% of all thunderclap headaches and, despite advances in medical technology, has a 90-day mortality of 30%. Up to a quarter of cases of SAH are misdiagnosed, often through failure to follow guidance. Thunderclap headaches may be associated with symptoms such as photophobia, nausea, vomiting, neck pain, focal neurological symptoms or loss of consciousness. SAH is more likely if there are neurological abnormalities or reduced consciousness. Loss of consciousness at onset is a poor prognostic indicator with a 2.8-fold increase in risk of death. All patients with suspected SAH should undergo a non-contrast CT brain scan as soon as possible after the onset of pain as the sensitivity of CT drops with time. A negative CT is not sensitive enough to exclude SAH and must be followed with lumbar puncture at least 12 hours after onset of the headache. If SAH is excluded then further investigations, in particular MRI brain and vascular imaging with MRI or CT angiography, should be considered to exclude other aetiologies. Headaches, caused by cervical artery dissection are most commonly of gradual onset but up to 20% of patients complain of thunderclap headache." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1468", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012608565438754119, "content": "Because the pain of thunderclap headache may be indistinguishable from that caused by subarachnoid hemorrhage, even to the extent of being accompanied by vomiting and acute hypertension, the diagnosis is clarified after lumbar puncture and cerebral imaging, and the pain resolves in hours or less. Most cases turn out to be idiopathic. Wijdicks and colleagues confirmed that thunderclap headache is usually a benign condition; among 71 patients followed for more than 3 years they found no serious cerebrovascular lesions. For this reason, these idiopathic thunderclap headaches have been presumed by some workers to be a form of migraine (“crash migraine”). This opinion is based in part on a history of preceding or of subsequent headaches and migrainous episodes in affected individuals; however, in our experience not all of such patients have had migraine in the past. There is a notable tendency for thunderclap headaches to recur as mentioned above." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en042_3693", "title": "Thunderclap headache", "score": 0.012434933487565067, "content": "The most important of the secondary causes are subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, and dissection of an artery in the neck. In subarachnoid hemorrhage, there may be syncope (transient loss of consciousness), seizures, meningism (neck pain and stiffness), visual symptoms, and vomiting. 50–70% of people with subarachnoid hemorrhage have an isolated headache without decreased level of consciousness. The headache typically persists for several days. Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, thrombosis of the veins of the brain, usually causes a headache that reflects raised intracranial pressure and is therefore made worse by anything that makes the pressure rise further, such as coughing. In 2–10% of cases, the headache is of thunderclap character. In most cases there are other neurological abnormalities, such as seizures and weakness of part of the body, but in 15–30% the headache is the only abnormality." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_4947", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012358882947118241, "content": "After lumbar puncture, this syndrome is usually attributable to a lowering of ICP by leakage of CSF through the needle track into the paravertebral muscles. The headache may last for days or, rarely, weeks. Most characteristic is the relation of the cranial pain to upright posture, and its relief within moments after assuming the recumbent position. Actually, the syndrome includes more than headache. There may be pain at the base of the skull posteriorly and in the back of the neck and upper thoracic spine, mild stiffness of the neck and shoulders, and nausea and vomiting. At times, the signs of meningeal irritation are so prominent as to raise the question of postlumbar puncture meningitis, although lack of fever usually excludes this possibility. In addition to a low or unmeasurable CSF pressure if another spinal tap is performed (the CSF pressure is found to be in the range of 0 to 60 mm H2O), there are occasionally a few to a dozen white cells in the CSF, which may further raise" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0312_6633", "title": "Post-lumbar puncture headache: clinical features and suggestions for diagnostic criteria.", "score": 0.011854103343465046, "content": "The aim of the present prospective study was to describe clinical features of post-lumbar puncture headache (PPH), and to test the validity of the diagnostic criteria of the International Headache Society (IHS). Eighty-eight of the 239 included patients (36.8%) experienced PPH. Females were affected more frequently than males (45.2% vs 21.4%; p &lt; 0.001). First onset of PPH occurred within the first day in 40 patients (53%), within 2 days in 89%, and never after the fourth day. When PPH occurred for the first time on the day the lumbar puncture was performed, it was usually experienced much later in the day (median 14.00 h) than it first occurred on the second day (median 09.30 h) or later. The median duration of PPH was 6 days (range 1-29 days). Patients with headache performed a \"Rising Manoeuvre\" twice daily as long as the headache period lasted, and recorded pain and time variables. The severity of PPH was negatively correlated to the time till the headache started or worsened upon rising (T1) and the time from the headache started to increase till it reached its maximum (T2), but was not significantly correlated to the time to restitution upon lying down (T3). The results are in good accordance with the leakage theory. T1 varied from immediate onset to 265 min (median 20 sec). T2 (median 30 sec, range 0-60 min) and T3 (median 20 sec, range 0-15 min) varied considerably as well. During the course of PPH, 45% of the patients occasionally reported non-postural headache or no headache when the Rising Manoeuvre was performed. It is suggested that PPH should be diagnosed in any patient who experiences postural headache at least once within 4 days of lumbar puncture." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_97409", "title": "Headache", "score": 0.011731948441997247, "content": "Tension headaches are thought to be caused by activation of peripheral nerves in the head and neck muscles. Cluster headaches involve overactivation of the trigeminal nerve and hypothalamus in the brain, but the exact cause is unknown. Diagnosis Most headaches can be diagnosed by the clinical history alone. If the symptoms described by the person sound dangerous, further testing with neuroimaging or lumbar puncture may be necessary. Electroencephalography (EEG) is not useful for headache diagnosis. The first step to diagnosing a headache is to determine if the headache is old or new. A \"new headache\" can be a headache that has started recently, or a chronic headache that has changed character. For example, if a person has chronic weekly headaches with pressure on both sides of his head, and then develops a sudden severe throbbing headache on one side of his head, they have a new headache." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0725_24022", "title": "[Meningitis can resemble subarachnoid haemorrhage].", "score": 0.011620119215055923, "content": "A 70 year-old man was admitted under the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage and presented with a history of ear pain, followed by acute onset of severe headache, nausea, vomiting, impaired consciousness, and fever. However, a computed tomography (CT) showed an acute mastoiditis and pneumocephalus, and a lumbar puncture confirmed the diagnosis meningitis. The increased middle ear pressure relative to the intracranial pressure had caused air and bacteria to penetrate intracerebrally. This case illustrates the importance of a rapid diagnostic workup in acute onset headache including a careful anamnesis, CT and lumbar puncture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0634_17212", "title": "[Sensitivity and specificity of clinical signs in adults].", "score": 0.011471366162441677, "content": "Clinical diagnosis of acute bacterial meningitis may be delayed, either because off lack of sensitivity of clinical signs, or because of a poor vital prognosis; but over diagnosing is also frequent, leading to useless, expensive, and potentially dangerous hospitalizations. We conducted a comprehensive review of English and French literature from 1997 to 2007 by searching MEDLINE to review the accuracy of clinical examination for the diagnosis of meningitis. Additional references were identified by reviewing reference lists of articles back to 1993. We used the keywords \"meningitis\", \"meningitis and clinical features\", \"cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pleocytosis\", \"headache and fever\", \"Kernig sign\", \"Brudzinski sign\", and \"neck stiffness\". We excluded nosocomial meningitis. Sensitivity for clinical signs such as headache, vomiting, or fever was low, generally less than 30%, neck stiffness could reach 45%, but the absence of two signs among fever, headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status eliminated meningitis with a negative predictive value of 95%. Given the seriousness of bacterial meningitis, clinicians perform lumbar puncture (or brain imaging) too often, especially in high-risk patients. Further prospective clinical research is needed to improve the accuracy of bacterial meningitis clinical diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_12832", "title": "Warning symptoms of sinister headache.", "score": 0.01141025641025641, "content": "Headache is a common complaint. In most patients, it is usually a problem of migrainous or tension-type headache. It is crucial that a physician is able to differentiate sinister causes of headache from the more benign ones. Six cases are presented to illustrate the fact that there are clues in the history to suggest a sinister cause of headache even though there are minimal or no neurological deficits on physical examination. At some point of time, these cases were examined by a senior physician but they were diagnosed as migrainous or tension-type headaches. The first case is a 41-year-old labourer with cryptococcal meningitis. He presented with severe headaches at a relatively late age. A 20-year-old female complained of the worst headache she ever had and this was due to a subarachnoid haemorrhage. The third case was a young woman with a large parietal meningioma. Her headaches had recently assumed a different character. The fourth case involved an investment manager who developed headaches with transient diplopia and projectile vomiting and investigations revealed an ependymoma. A shipyard worker complained of a constant headache which disturbed his sleep. Two weeks after medical consultation, the character of his headache changed and he developed diplopia in all directions of gaze. He succumbed to pituitary apoplexy. The final case is a 28-year-old woman who had a complicated migraine. CT scan of the brain showed a large arterio-venous malformation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_4441", "title": "[Spontaneous intracranial hypotension: a rare cause of chronic headache].", "score": 0.011331535695942476, "content": "Spontaneous intracranial hypotension is a rare cause of chronic postural headache. We report the case of a 58-year-old woman with a 1.5 year history of chronic headache in upright position, nausea and vomiting. Neurological examination was normal. The Gd-enhanced MRI of the brain showed an abnormal meningeal enhancement over the cerebral convexity. The CSF was normal. Opening pressure during lumbar puncture was 6 cm H2O in the lateral recumbent position. No evidence of underlying systemic, infectious or neoplastic diseases could be detected. The headache was alleviated under theophylline therapy. Spontaneous intracranial hypotension should be considered in the differential diagnosis of chronic postural headache. MRI revealing meningeal enhancement and low opening pressure in lumbar puncture are important findings for the diagnosis of spontaneous intracranial hypotension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0353_15906", "title": "[A case of pituitary apoplexy approving as severe headache and nausea].", "score": 0.011150971599402093, "content": "The causes of pituitary apoplexy are unclear. We report a case of pituitary apoplexy presenting with headache and nausea. On June 17th, 1997 a 74-year-old woman had complained of retro-orbital headache, fever and vomiting. A cold was diagnosed for which she recurred medication. In addition to the previous symptoms she was getting to lose appetite. She was admitted to our hospital for further examination and treatment on June 21. On admission neurological examination showed left pupil mydriasis, the left eye had no light reflex and the right eye had only a slight response to the light. She could hardly move both eyeballs up. Laboratory data showed a normal white blood cell count and the CRP was 16.2 mg/dl. Lumbar puncture showed 97 mg/dl total protein and 82 cells per microliter, most of which were lymphocytes. We diagnosed viral infection based on the evidence of clinical symptoms and lumbar puncture data. The patient was treated with gamma-globulin and improved. From the 16th day of sickness we recognized symptoms of oculomotor paralysis and the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. On the 23rd day of sickness we strongly suspected pituitary apoplexy based on transaxial MR images. After absorption of intra-tumor hemorrhage, the oculomotor symptoms recurred. We finally reached a diagnosis of pituitary apoplexy based on pathological material, MR images, symptoms and laboratory data. We must think of pituitary apoplexy when we see an aged out-patient with severe headache, nausea, vomiting and oculomotor paralysis. It was difficult to diagnose this disease in the early time course of the disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_97437", "title": "Headache", "score": 0.011016742191951808, "content": "Just as in adults, most headaches are benign, but when head pain is accompanied with other symptoms such as speech problems, muscle weakness, and loss of vision, a more serious underlying cause may exist: hydrocephalus, meningitis, encephalitis, abscess, hemorrhage, tumor, blood clots, or head trauma. In these cases, the headache evaluation may include CT scan or MRI in order to look for possible structural disorders of the central nervous system. If a child with a recurrent headache has a normal physical exam, neuroimaging is not recommended. Guidelines state children with abnormal neurologic exams, confusion, seizures and recent onset of worst headache of life, change in headache type or anything suggesting neurologic problems should receive neuroimaging." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1459", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.011014298480786416, "content": "A special variant of exertional headache is “weight-lifter’s headache.” It occurs either as a single event or repeatedly over a period of several months, but each episode of headache may last many hours or days, again raising the suspicion of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The pain begins immediately or within minutes of heavy lifting. If the pain resolves in an hour or less and there is no meningismus or sign of bleeding on the CT, we have foregone lumbar puncture and angiography but have suggested that weight lifting not be resumed for several weeks. Athletes and runners in general seem to suffer exertional headaches quite often in our experience, and the episodes usually have migrainous features." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_4624", "title": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "score": 0.010961592374544436, "content": "As only 10 percent of people admitted to the emergency department with a thunderclap headache are having an SAH, other possible causes are usually considered simultaneously, such as meningitis, migraine, and cerebral venous sinus thrombosis. Intracerebral hemorrhage, in which bleeding occurs within the brain itself, is twice as common as SAH and is often misdiagnosed as the latter. It is not unusual for SAH to be initially misdiagnosed as a migraine or tension headache, which can lead to a delay in obtaining a CT scan. In a 2004 study, this occurred in 12 percent of all cases and was more likely in people who had smaller hemorrhages and no impairment in their mental status. The delay in diagnosis led to a worse outcome. In some people, the headache resolves by itself, and no other symptoms are present. This type of headache is referred to as \"sentinel headache\", because it is presumed to result from a small leak (a \"warning leak\") from an aneurysm. A sentinel headache still warrants" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en253_22347", "title": "NIH classification of headaches", "score": 0.010439024390243903, "content": "Traction/inflammatory Traction and inflammatory headaches are symptoms of other disorders, ranging from stroke to sinus infection. Specific types of headaches include: Tension headache Migraine Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (headache with visual symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure) Ictal headache Cluster headache \"Brain freeze\" (also known as: ice cream headache) Thunderclap headache Vascular headache Toxic headache Coital cephalalgia (also known as: sex headache) Hemicrania continua Rebound headache (also called medication overuse headache, abbreviated MOH) Red wine headache \"Spinal headache\" (or: post-dural puncture headaches) after lumbar puncture or related procedure that will lower the intracranial pressure Withdrawal (caused by medication or other dependency creating substance removal/cessation) Hangover (caused by heavy alcohol consumption) New daily persistent headache A headache may also be a symptom of sinusitis." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_96", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009991859991859992, "content": "LP has few serious complications. The most common is headache, estimated to occur in one-third of patients, but in severe form in far fewer. A history of migraine headaches may increase the incidence of prolonged or severe post-LP headache. The headache becomes apparent when the patient assumes the upright posture and is presumably the result of a reduction of CSF pressure from leakage of fluid at the puncture site and tugging on cerebral and dural vessels. Prolonged recumbency immediately after the procedure has not been shown to prevent headache, but is often implemented nonetheless. Strupp and colleagues have found that the use of an atraumatic needle almost halved the incidence of headache. Curiously, headaches are twice as frequent after diagnostic LP as they are after spinal anesthesia. Severe headache can be associated with vomiting and mild neck stiffness. Unilateral or bilateral sixth nerve palsy occur rarely after LP, even at times without headache, and rare cases of hearing" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en101_44151", "title": "Xanthochromia", "score": 0.009917159763313609, "content": "The most frequently employed initial test for subarachnoid hemorrhage is a computed tomography scan of the head, but it detects only 98% of cases in the first 12 hours after the onset of symptoms, and becomes less useful afterwards. Therefore, a lumbar puncture (\"spinal tap\") is recommended to obtain cerebrospinal fluid if someone has symptoms of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (e.g., a thunderclap headache, vomiting, dizziness, new-onset seizures, confusion, a decreased level of consciousness or coma, neck stiffness or other signs of meningismus, and signs of sudden elevated intracranial pressure), but no blood is visible on the CT scan. According to one article, a spinal tap is not necessary if no blood is seen on a CT scan done using a third generation scanner within six hours of the onset of the symptoms. However, this is not standard of care." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_3820", "title": "Chronic daily headache: when to suspect meningitis.", "score": 0.009904873982543885, "content": "Millions of patients see physicians each year for headache, most of which are primary headaches. However, serious secondary headaches, such as meningitis, represent about 5% of children and 1% to 2% of adults seen in the emergency department for headache. A primary care or emergency department physician may initially miss individuals with bacterial meningitis. Considering meningitis as a headache cause is important because delay in the diagnosis may have adverse consequences. A careful history and physical examination are central in identifying individuals at high risk for meningitis. This article lists information that can be obtained from the patient that may be indicative of meningitis. Performing a lumbar puncture with appropriate examination of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is the key to establishing the diagnosis of meningitis. This article also includes the types of meningitis that should be considered when the CSF demonstrates a pleocytosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_6201", "title": "[Recent-onset headache is a risk factor of intracranial lesion. A prospective study of 299 patients].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "There is some controversy in the medical literature concerning the need to perform neuroimaging studies in neurologically normal patients complaining of headaches. The objective of the study is to determine the detection rate of intracranial abnormalities by computed tomography in patients with different headache durations. Consecutive patients with the chief complaint of headache referred for neurological evaluation from January 1996 to April 1997 were studied both clinically and by computed tomography scanning. Brain magnetic resonance imaging was performed in 15 patients. Cerebrospinal fluid and/or blood analyses were performed when clinically indicated to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage, meningitis or temporal arteritis. 15 (5%) out of the 299 patients available for study had significant intracranial lesion. 3 (1%) out of the 266 patients with headaches lasting for more than 1 month had computed tomography findings considered clinically significant and neurological examination was normal in 2 (0.7%) patients with abnormal scans. Patients with a headache duration of 1 month or less had the following case-finding rate: an overall significant intracranial abnormality of 36% (12/33) and significant intracranial abnormality in neurologically normal patients of 15% (5/33). Patients with headache of recent onset (duration of 1 month or less), even with normal neurological examination, are at greater risk of significant intracranial abnormality than patients with long-lasting headaches. These patients at risk should be studied by cranial computed tomography and lumbar puncture if the computed tomography scan is normal and the cause of the headaches cannot be clinically determined." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_4615", "title": "Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "score": 0.009848323007904294, "content": "Signs and symptoms The classic symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage is thunderclap headache (a headache described as \"like being kicked in the head\", or the \"worst ever\", developing over seconds to minutes). This headache often pulsates towards the occiput (the back of the head). About one-third of people have no symptoms apart from the characteristic headache, and about one in ten people who seek medical care with this symptom are later diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Vomiting may be present, and 1 in 14 have seizures. Confusion, decreased level of consciousness or coma may be present, as may neck stiffness and other signs of meningism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_8663", "title": "[Spontaneous intracranial hypotension. Radiological findings].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is an uncommon condition. The main symptom is headache which appears on standing and is relieved by lying down. Diagnosis is confirmed if a CSF pressure of less than 6 cm of water is found in the absence of other causes of intracranial hypotension. To describe the cranial MR and CT findings of 7 cases with SIH. We studied 7 patients in whom the diagnosis had been confirmed by lumbar puncture. The findings of 5 cranial CT studies (not using contrast), 5 MR without gadolinium and 4 MR with gadolinium were studied. The CT were carried out during the first week after clinical signs appeared, and the MR at between 1 week and 4 months after onset. We reviewed previous findings in the literature. 1. Cranial CT: in one case there was an enlarged subarachnoid space; 2. MR without gadolinium: there was descent of the cerebellar tonsils in 4 patients, meningeal thickening in 5 cases and subdural collections in two patients. In no case was descent of the iter seen; 3. MR with gadolinium: aural contrast was taken up in all cases. The CT without contrast done at the onset of the condition did not usually give data which was useful for diagnosis. The principal MR findings in our series (meningeal thickening, descent of the cerebellar tonsils, subdural collections and gadolinium uptake) in an appropriate clinical context may be sufficient for diagnosis of this condition before lumbar puncture." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_35378", "title": "Lumbar puncture", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The chief diagnostic indications of lumbar puncture are for collection of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Analysis of CSF may exclude infectious, inflammatory, and neoplastic diseases affecting the central nervous system. The most common purpose is in suspected meningitis, since there is no other reliable tool with which meningitis, a life-threatening but highly treatable condition, can be excluded. A lumbar puncture can also be used to detect whether someone has 'Stage 1' or 'Stage 2' Trypanosoma brucei. Young infants commonly require lumbar puncture as a part of the routine workup for fever without a source. This is due to higher rates of meningitis than in older persons. Infants also do not reliably show classic symptoms of meningeal irritation (meningismus) like neck stiffness and headache the way adults do. In any age group, subarachnoid hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, benign intracranial hypertension, and many other diagnoses may be supported or excluded with this test. It may also be" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_7769", "title": "[Fever and headache].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 30-year-old male patient was admitted to our outpatient clinic because of fever, headache and cerebellar symptoms. Clinically he presented with a slight meningism. After exclusion of a focal intracerebral process by head scanning, a first diagnosis of an aseptic meningitis was made by the analysis of the cerebrospinal fluid. With the hint of repeated tick bites, the diagnosis of an early-summer meningoencephalitis was confirmed. The patient recovered without neurological residua within two months. The clinical course, dates of new epidemiologic studies and problems of vaccination are discussed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 248 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 43 ] ], "text": "We are facing a suspicion of endometriosis, due to the symptoms and signs given in the statement. We are asked for a diagnosis of certainty, and the Gold Standard for the diagnosis of this disease is diagnostic laparoscopy." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Transvaginal ultrasound.", "2": "Diagnostic laparoscopy.", "3": "Magnetic resonance imaging.", "4": "Colonoscopy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1003_10794", "title": "Sonographic Evaluation for Endometriosis in Routine Pelvic Ultrasound.", "score": 0.011924083336093537, "content": "To show how the evaluation for endometriosis can be included in the routine pelvic ultrasound examination. Stepwise narrated video demonstration of the sonographic evaluation for endometriosis in routine pelvic ultrasound following the recommended sonographic approach published in the 2016 consensus paper by the International Deep Endometriosis Analysis (IDEA) group [1]. Endometriosis is a common and often debilitating gynecological disorder that affects 5-10% of women [2]. The prevalence is even higher among women with symptoms of endometriosis [2], which include chronic pelvic pain, acquired dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, menorrhagia, abnormal bleeding, and infertility. Approximately 80% of women who have endometriosis have superficial lesions, whereas 20% have deep infiltrating endometriosis (DIE; [3]). Laparoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis, because it allows the diagnosis of all forms of endometriosis and often immediate removal of superficial endometriosis. The removal of DIE is considerably more complicated and usually cannot be completed unless it was diagnosed preoperatively. The technique to diagnose DIE with transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) was first described in detail in 2009 [4]. Since then, the accuracy of TVUS for the prediction of DIE has been well established in the literature [5-7]. TVUS is widely used as a first-line investigation for women with gynecological symptoms. The inclusion of an assessment for endometriosis in the routine pelvic ultrasound allows earlier diagnosis and better surgical outcomes for all women with DIE. The evaluation for endometriosis in routine pelvic ultrasound based on the IDEA consensus promotes a 4-step dynamic ultrasound approach [1]: (1) routine evaluation of uterus and adnexa with particular attention for sonographic signs of adenomyosis and the presence or absence of endometriomas; (2) evaluation of transvaginal sonographic 'soft markers' such as site-specific tenderness and ovarian mobility; (3) assessment of status of pouch of Douglas using the real-time ultrasound-based \"sliding sign;\" and (4) assessment of DIE nodules in the anterior and posterior compartments, which involves assessment of the bladder, vaginal vault, uterosacral ligaments, and bowel, including rectum, rectosigmoid junction, and sigmoid colon. Because 5-10% of women with DIE also have ureteric endometriosis, it is useful to assess the kidneys. Silent hydronephrosis is easily identified in 50-60% of patients with ureteric involvement. Although it is possible to identify DIE involving the ureters more directly, this requires more advanced skills, and further studies are still needed to better define the accuracy of ureteric DIE detection by TVUS [8-10]. Traditionally, only pathologies of the uterus and ovaries are assessed during a routine pelvic ultrasound. Here we demonstrate that the routine ultrasound examination can easily be extended beyond the uterus and ovaries into the posterior and anterior pelvic compartments to evaluate structural mobility and to look for deep infiltrating endometriotic nodules, wherewith women suffering from DIE can benefit from a preoperative diagnosis and subsequently, a single, well-planned procedure in the hands of a well-prepared team." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_91", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010056868058471051, "content": "Adolescent Patients A pelvic examination may be less revealing in an adolescent than in an older woman, particularly if it is the patient’s first examination or if it takes place on an emergency basis. An adolescent who presents with excessive bleeding should have a pelvic examination if she had intercourse, if the results of a pregnancy test are positive, if she has abdominal pain, if she is markedly anemic, or if she is bleeding heavily enough to compromise hemodynamic stability. The pelvic examination occasionally may be deferred in young teenagers who have a classic history of irregular cycles soon after menarche, who have normal hematocrit levels, who deny sexual activity, and who will reliably return for follow-up. A pelvic examination may be deferred in adolescents who present to the office requesting oral contraceptives before the initiation of intercourse or at the patient’s request, even if she has had intercourse. Newer testing methods using DNA amplification techniques" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_23833", "title": "Surgical treatment of deep endometriosis with adenomyosis externa: a challenging case in an infertile woman.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "To describe the management and the fertility-enhancing potential of surgery in an infertile patient with deep-infiltrating endometriosis and adenomyosis externa. Video case report. Minimally invasive and robotic gynecologic surgery unit of a university hospital. A 31-year-old nulliparous patient with dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyspareunia, and primary infertility. Bimanual examination, transvaginal ultrasound, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) were performed as a comprehensive preoperative workup. The findings were consistent with bladder endometriosis and a 4-cm right pararectal cystic mass suggestive of adenomyosis externa. Laparoscopic excision of all visible endometriosis was performed. A pararectal lesion was found, completely developing in the retroperitoneal spaces, from the right medial pararectal space to the rectovaginal space, reaching the pelvic floor fascia without infiltration of the levator ani muscle. According to Koninckx classification, this kind of lesion corresponds to type III endometriosis or adenomyosis externa. Nerve-sparing eradication of the nodule was performed. The decision to use these techniques was taken with the intention to treat the patient, and not with the aim of testing the procedures performed. Therefore, as a common clinical practice in our institution and for the above reasons, there was no need for consultation of the institutional review board for approval. Improvement of symptoms and spontaneous conception after surgical removal of all endometriotic implants. There were no intraoperative or postoperative complications, and the patient was discharged after 3 days. She discontinued postoperative hormone therapy with gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogue after 3 months because she desired fertility. She conceived spontaneously after 2 months of attempting. She delivered vaginally and had no complications during pregnancy and labor. Neither recurrence of pain symptoms nor voiding or rectal dysfunctions were reported by the patient. In the management of a case of deep endometriosis, the preoperative assessment should be carefully carried out to give the surgeon the most accurate information about the extent of the disease and the patient's main objectives. Imaging techniques such as ultrasound and MRI play a fundamental role along with the clinical evaluation in also detecting lesions that are not visible at first laparoscopic inspection. In this case of a young woman without any detectable fertility issues except for endometriosis, the laparoscopic excision of endometriosis was feasible, safe, and effective in improving the patient's fertility and pain symptoms. The fertility-enhancing potential of complete eradication of pelvic endometriosis, including removal of deep posterior localizations such those presented in this case, has been hypothesized by various investigators. It has been suggested that skilled surgical management for symptomatic deep endometriosis may be followed by a high pregnancy rate, with most pregnancies resulting from postoperative natural conception even in patients with primary infertility." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2406", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The uterus is typically diffusely enlarged, although usually less than 14 cm in size, and is often soft and tender, particularly at the time of menses. Mobility of the uterus is not restricted, and there is no associated adnexal pathology (48). Adenomyosis is a clinical diagnosis. Imaging studies including pelvic ultrasound or MRI, although helpful, are not definitive. Because of the cost of MRI and negligible improvement in diagnostic accuracy, this study is not recommended routinely. In women with diffuse uterine enlargement and negative pregnancy test results, secondary dysmenorrhea may be attributed to adenomyosis; however, the pathologic confirmation of suspected adenomyosis can be made only at the time of hysterectomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_9621", "title": "Rectovaginal Splenosis: An Unexpected Cause of Dyspareunia Approached by Laparoscopy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To demonstrate the technique of laparoscopic approach in a rare case of rectovaginal splenosis with severe dyspareunia and dyschesia. A step-by-step explanation of the patient's condition, diagnosis, surgical technique, and postoperative results (Canadian Task Force classification II-3). Splenosis consists of ectopic functioning splenic tissue that can be located anywhere within the abdomen or pelvis. Fragments are often multiple and range in diameter from a few millimeters to a few centimeters. They are reddish-blue and are sessile or pedunculated. Their appearance can mimic that of neoplasms or endometriosis, which are the main differential diagnoses. Trauma and subsequent splenectomy is the cause in most cases. Splenosis is a benign condition usually found incidentally and is usually asymptomatic. The need for therapy is controversial, and treatment is suggested only in symptomatic cases, primarily those related to pelvic or abdominal lesions, as in our patient. The diagnosis of splenosis in a woman complaining of pelvic pain may present diagnostic difficulties. The splenic tissue has the macroscopic appearance of endometriosis, and its position in the pelvis also may suggest this diagnosis. Where excision of splenosis is considered necessary, the approach should be laparoscopic, unless this is considered too risky owing to the proximity of vital structures. A 40-year-old woman was referred to our department for severe dyspareunia and dyschezia. The gynecologic examination revealed a painfull nodularity on the posterior vaginal cul de sac. Further evaluation with 2- and 3-dimensional ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging revealed several soft tissue nodules in the pouch of Douglas (POD), which were enhanced on contrast administration. She had undergone a splenectomy 15 years earlier after a car accident. A laparoscopic approach to a rectovaginal nodularity was performed. Under general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the dorsal decubitus position with her arms alongside her body and her legs in abduction. Pneumoperitoneum was achieved using a Veres needle placed at the umbilicus. Four trocars were placed: a 10-mm trocar at the umbilicus for the 0-degree laparoscope; a 5-mm trocar at the right anterosuperior iliac spine; a 5-mm trocar in the midline between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis, approximately 8 to 10 cm inferior to the umbilical trocar; and a 5-mm trocar at the left anterosuperior iliac spine. The entire pelvis was inspected for endometriotic lesions. In the pelvis, hypervascular and bluish nodules were visible with extension from the POD into the deep rectovaginal space. The macroscopic appearance was atypical for endometriotic implants. The nodularities were carefully dissected and excised, and histological assessment revealed splenic tissue. At the time of this report, the patient had been asymptomatic for 6 months after surgery. Rectovaginal splenosis may mimic endometriosis. The laparoscopic approach to rectovaginal splenosis avoids an abdominal incision, with its associated pain and possible adhesion formation. It also provides a better view for dissection. In this patient, the splenosis was removed by laparoscopy, with no postoperative dyspareunia or dyschesia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_1593", "title": "Endometriosis is not only a gynecologic disease.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The efficacy of medical and surgical treatment of endometriosis and pelvic pain is a source of questions and controversies. Complete resolution of endometriosis is not yet possible but therapy has essentially three main objectives: 1) to reduce pain; 2) to increase the possibility of pregnancy; 3) to delay recurrence for as long as possible. In case of moderate and severe endometriosis, operative laparoscopy must be considered as first line treatment. The mean pregnancy rate of 50% reported in the literature following surgery provides scientific proof that operative treatment should first be undertaken to give our patients the best chance of conceiving naturally. In case of rectovaginal adenomyotic nodules, surgery must also be considered as first line therapy, medical therapy being relatively inefficacious. Careful preoperative examination is mandatory (transrectal sonography, magnetic resonance imaging, bowel barium enema or intravenous pyelography) to evaluate potentially severe complications of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_18087", "title": "[Endometriosis with massive hemorrhagic ascites: a case report and review of the literature].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Endometriosis is defined as the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity. It generally involves the peritoneum, ovaries and rectovaginal septum. Its characteristic symptoms include dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia and infertility. It may also involve the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract or extra abdominal sites, giving rise to a wide variety of clinical symptoms such as bloody stools, renal haemorrhage, hemoptysis and pleural effusion during menstruation. Recurrent hemorrhagic ascites secondary to endometriosis is an unusual occurrence, 41 cases have been reported since 1954. Here we report an additional case, in order to draw attention to this condition. A 28 years-old black nulligravida woman was seen for the first time in april 2000 with a chief complaint of infertility. Her past medical history was unremarkable. She had regular menses but associated with severe dysmenorrhea. She also recalled abdominal and pelvic pain for several years. She underwent an ovulation induction with gonadotrophin, which resulted in a progressive increase of pelvic pain. A first laparoscopy was performed, revealing voluminous ascites (10 I). Two years later the ascites recurred spontaneously. Ultrasound examination revealed suspect \"para uterine masses\". A second exploratory laparoscopy showed a voluminous bloody ascites (71), and extensive adhesions. On histologic examination all specimens (peritoneal biopsies) were compatible with endometriosis and ruled out malignancy. Treatment with Gn RH analog was performed and full remission was obtained after 6 months. One year later the ascites recurred again spontaneously, leading to a third laparoscopy in an other medical institution. Histologic examination showed endometrial stromal tissue and fibrous proliferation. Later she became pregnant after in vitro fertilization. In the first trimester of pregnancy, the pelvic ultrasound showed only a small effusion in the pouch of Douglas. Still, the ascites did not progress during pregnancy. The patient was hospitalized from 27 to 33 weeks of gestational age for threatened labor, but she finally had a normal vaginal delivery at 36 weeks of gestational age. Four months later, she had no complaint, but the pelvic ultrasound showed the recurrence of the ascites. She will have a drainage. The future treatement will consists of GnRH analog for about six months, which will be relayed by a long term progestative therapy. A diagnosis of endometriosis should always be considered in middle-age women who presents with bloody ascites. Long follow-up is advisable for patients who undergo conservative treatment because of thehigh risk of recurrence." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_4858", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "2. Loose stools are rarely present without the use of laxatives, and there are insufficient criteria for IBS. 3. a Criteria fulfilled for the last 3 months with symptom onset at least 6 months prior to diagnosis. From Drossman DA, Corazziari E, Talley NJ, et al., eds. Rome III: the functional gastrointestinal disorders. 3nd ed. McLean, VA: Degnon Associates, 2006:885–897, Appendix A, with permission. Table 28.6 Functional Defecation Disorders 1. The patient must satisfy diagnostic criteria for functional constipation (Table 28.5) 2. During repeated attempts to defecate must have at least two of the following: a. Evidence of impaired evacuation, based on balloon expulsion test or imaging b. Inappropriate contraction of the pelvic floor muscles (i.e., anal sphincter or puborectalis) or less than 20% relaxation of basal resting sphincter pressure by manometry, imaging, or EMG c." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0923_8210", "title": "Multidisciplinary Resection of Deeply Infiltrative Endometriosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To describe a multidisciplinary approach for the resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis using the robotic platform. A technical video showing a step-by-step approach for the resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis (Canadian Task Force classification level III). Institutional review board approval was not required for this study. There is considerable involvement of the bowel and bladder with deeply infiltrative endometriosis [1-3]. The need for operative procedures involving multiple organs while performing a complete resection is common. The benefits of minimally invasive surgery for a gynecologic pathology have been documented in numerous studies. Patients had fewer medical and surgical complications postoperatively, better cosmesis, and better quality of life [4-6]. We believe that deeply infiltrative endometriosis does not preclude patients from having a minimally invasive resection procedure. In this video, we describe how the robotic platform was used for a seamless transition between surgical specialties including gynecology, colorectal, and urology to ensure complete resection of endometriosis lesions involving multiple organs. A 47-year-old woman with a 4-year history of severe pelvic pain, dysuria, dyspareunia, dyschezia, and dysmenorrhea failing multiple medical therapies presented to our clinic to discuss surgical options. After thorough counseling, the decision was made to proceed with definitive surgical management. Postoperatively, the patient was admitted for 2 days of postoperative inpatient care. After meeting all immediate postoperative milestones, she was discharged with an indwelling Foley catheter and instructed to follow up in the clinic with all 3 surgical specialties. At the 1-week interval, she was seen by the urology team; her indwelling catheter was removed after a cystoscopy was performed documenting adequate healing. Two weeks postoperatively, the patient was seen by the gynecology and colorectal teams and was noted to be healing adequately from the procedure. Her six-week visit was also unremarkable. She continued to follow up with the gynecology team for her yearly well-woman examinations and has been symptom free for 2 years after the surgery. She takes norethindrone daily to minimize recurrence. Preoperative pelvic magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed bladder endometriosis and extensive rectovaginal endometriosis. We describe the multidisciplinary approach used for surgery and the procedures performed by each specialty. The urology team performed a cystoscopy preoperatively to assess for full-thickness erosions and the location of those lesions in that event. The urology team also reviewed the magnetic resonance images with the radiology team, and the endometriosis lesions were suspected to be close to the bladder trigone, keeping in mind that this finding could be overestimated given that the bladder was deflated at the time the imaging was obtained. Accordingly, at the time of surgery, the decision was made to proceed with cystoscopy and the placement of ureteral stents as a prophylactic measure. An intentional cystotomy and resection of the bladder section involved with endometriosis were performed followed by watertight closure. The trigone area of the bladder was not involved, and ureteral reimplantation was not needed in this case. The gynecology team operated second and performed an extensive dissection of the retroperitoneal space with the development of the pararectal and paravesical spaces. They also ligated the uterine artery at its origin followed by dissection of the uterovesical space, effectively reflecting the bladder off of the lower uterine segment. At this point, they proceeded with a total hysterectomy, and the specimen was removed from the pelvis through the vaginal cuff. Preoperatively, the colorectal surgeon ordered a colonoscopy to determine if full-thickness erosions were present and reviewed the magnetic resonance images with the radiology team. Based on the MRI and colonoscopy, all patients are counseled and consented for the possibility of a low anterior resection and loop ileostomy to protect the anastomosis. Based on the understanding that colorectal and gynecologic surgeries have a different approach when dissecting the pararectal space at our institution, a discussion between the 2 teams is initiated at the multidisciplinary session for surgery planning. In the case we present, the colorectal surgeon opted for the removal of the uterus before his dissection was initiated given that he dissects this space presacrally and not retroperitoneally like the gynecology counterpart. He would also benefit from the extra space for dissection with the uterus out of the pelvis. The colorectal part of the case was initiated by mobilization of the rectum and dissecting the obliterated rectovaginal space. The presacral space was then opened followed by mobilization of the rectosigmoid from its attachment. The case was concluded with full transection and reanastomosis of the rectum section involved with endometriosis. The specimen was also removed from the pelvis through the vaginal cuff. Complete resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis spanning beyond the scope of 1 surgical specialty. No immediate intraoperative, perioperative, or long-term complications from surgery. Complete resolution of endometriosis symptoms. We encourage collaborative care for planning and performing comprehensive and safe resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0553_4116", "title": "Surgery for gastrointestinal endometriosis: indications and results.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Although gastrointestinal endometriosis is an uncommon and often unexpected finding, the best treatment requires removal of all endometriotic lesions. The purpose of our study was to report our experience with the diagnosis and treatment of bowel endometriosis. From January 1997 to January 2004, 13 patients (mean 35.7y ; range 21-55y) were operated for bowel endometriosis. We noted: age, history of endometriosis, previous pregnancies, preoperative investigations and symptoms, operative procedure and intraoperative findings. Follow-up varied between one month postoperative examination and seven years. Presenting symptoms of the cases were: acute appendicitis (3), dysmenorrhoea (7), constipation (6), pelvic pain (2), rectal bleeding (3) and dyspareunia (2). Operative management was performed in accordance with the anatomical distribution. Seven patients had a history of previous operations and multifocal involvement was present in 61.5% of cases. At a median follow-up of 12.2 months, 83.3% had complete relief of their initial complaints, with only one reoperation needed. The pregnancy rate after surgery was 66.6%. Preoperative tests were: ultrasound for ovarian endometriomas, coloscopy, barium enema, vaginal palpation for detecting rectovaginal involvement, MRI and CT scan. These tests predicted the extension of endometriotic process correctly in 50% of the cases. Endometriosis of the sigmoid and rectum is rare but can give rise to severe gastrointestinal and pelvic symptoms. Preoperative investigations are not infallible in predicting the extent of the disease, sometimes placing the surgeon before a dilemma, because it involves mostly young women in the reproductive phase of life. The colorectal surgeon, therefore, should seek the advice of an experienced gynaecologist and vice versa. Removal of all endometriotic lesions is mandatory for obtaining an optimal relief of symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0636_18547", "title": "Patient with pelvic pains: retroperitoneal fibrosis or pelvic endometriosis? A case report and review of literature.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To describe how a hydronephrosis can lead to a difficult differential diagnosis between endometriosis and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Case report. Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Sacro Cuore Don Calabria General Hospital, Negrar, Verona, Italy. The history of a 34-year-old woman revealed the appearance of hydroureteronephrosis on the right side at the 35th week of pregnancy. She had an magnetic resonance imaging scan and was diagnosed with a spread retroperitoneal fibrosis. After 2 months, the patient reported the occurrence of pelvic pain, dyspareunia and dysmenorrhea. She was treated with corticosteroids and tamoxifen with no results. Laparoscopic surgery. A complete retroperitoneal extirpation was done of an endometriotic nodule of the right broad ligament, near the right ureter (without stenosis). Reduction of pelvic pain. She noticed an important decrease of pain. The cause of hydronephrosis could be a physiologic hydroureteronephrosis, which is the most common cause of dilatation of the urinary tract in pregnancy. The pain symptoms of the patients seemed to be linked to endometriosis and not to retroperitoneal fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging sometimes does not enable a correct diagnosis between these two pathologies. Fertile women with suspected fibrosis should undergo a diagnostic laparoscopy by an expert surgeon in retroperitoneal surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_8369", "title": "[Results of diagnostic hysteroscopy in a 7-year period in the gynecological clinic of \"UMBAL-Pleven\"].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The aim of the authors is to show the data for the reception diagnosis, age, histological results and the conduct after the performed diagnostic hysteroscopies in Gynecological clinic of UMBAL-Pleven. For the fulfillment of this aim was made a prospective study for 7 years' period: from 01/01/1997 to 31/01/2003. The objects of observation were 74 women of age from 16 to 65 years, with performed hysteroscopies for gynecologic complaints. There were performed 74 diagnostic hysteroscopies for the studied period. The hysteroscopic findings were 20 cases with endometrial polyposis, 14--submucosal myoamatic nodes, deforming the uterine cavity, 4--cervical polyp, 19--increased endometrium, 9--Asherman syndrome, 1--bicomous uterus, 1--a suspected section for endometrial carcinoma and 6 cases without pathologic findings. There were performed 59 trial abrasions and the removed materials were sent for histological examination The performed comparative analysis between the hysteroscopic presentation and histological findings showed a coincidence of the diagnosis. It was made the conclusion, that the hysteroscopy is an easy, accessible and inexpensive diagnostic method, which must take its place as one of the basic contemporary diagnostic methods in gynecology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1027_22858", "title": "Questioning a Previous Autism Spectrum Disorder Diagnosis: Can You \"Lose\" the Diagnosis?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Heidi is an almost 6-year-old girl presenting to your primary care office to establish care because of a change in insurance status. You review her previous medical records before seeing her.She was diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) when she was 25 months old. Her parents were initially concerned about language delay. Through a comprehensive evaluation by a developmental-behavioral pediatrician and a child psychologist, including administration of the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development and the Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule, she was diagnosed with ASD. Her cognitive skills were reported to be within the average range. Soon after the diagnosis, she began receiving 20 hours of applied behavioral analysis (ABA) per week, as well as music therapy, occupational therapy, and a toddler playgroup through early intervention. Four months after the initial diagnosis, her parents reported that she had started making small improvements in her behavior, used more eye contact, and seemed more socially engaged. Approximately 1 year after the diagnosis, she was receiving 6 hours of ABA per week in addition to starting preschool with an Individualized Education Program. She reportedly continued to show progress with social communication and pretend play skills.At the age of 3 years, 8 months, neuropsychological testing was completed at her parent's request, and her cognitive skills and adaptive skills were reported to be within the average range. She continued to meet the diagnostic criteria for ASD, given her challenges with social awareness, communication, delayed play skills, decreased flexibility, and tendency toward subtle self-direction. She continued to receive speech/language therapy and attended an integrated preschool program within the school district because of her social and communication challenges. She also received ABA 4 hours weekly at home.During your first visit with Heidi, her parents report that she has continued to make progress in all areas, including social skills. She can engage in imaginary play with her friends, ask strangers questions, and comprehend the perspective of others, and she is no longer \"rigid.\" She is not receiving services outside of school and is only receiving once weekly speech/language therapy in school. Her parents no longer believe that she meets the criteria for ASD, and they are interested in further evaluation. Her parents ask if it is possible to \"lose\" the diagnosis of ASD. They also want to know if there are other things to be concerned about for her future. How do you respond?" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2446", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Pelvic congestion affects women of reproductive age. Typical symptoms include bilateral lower abdominal and back pain that is increased with standing for long periods, secondary dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, abnormal uterine bleeding, chronic fatigue, and irritable bowel symptoms (97). Pain usually begins with ovulation and lasts until the end of menses. The uterus is often bulky, and the ovaries are enlarged with multiple functional cysts. The uterus, parametria, and uterosacral ligaments are tender. Transuterine venography is the primary method for diagnosis, although other modalities, such as pelvic ultrasound, magnetic resonance imaging, and laparoscopy, may disclose varicosities (93). Because of the cost and possible side effects of treatment, further management should be based on related symptoms and not simply on the presence of varicosities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0828_23796", "title": "Laparoscopic Double Discoid Resection With a Circular Stapler for Bowel Endometriosis.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To demonstrate the technique of laparoscopic double discoid resection with a circular stapler for bowel endometriosis. Case report (Canadian Task Force classification III). Private hospital in Curitiba, Paraná, Brazil. A 33-year-old woman was referred to our service complaining about cyclic dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, chronic pelvic pain, and cyclic dyschezia. Transvaginal ultrasound with bowel preparation showed a 6-cm endometriotic nodule at the retrocervical area, uterosacral ligaments, posterior vaginal fornix, and anterior rectal wall, infiltrating up to the submucosa, 5 cm far from the anal verge. Under general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the dorsal decubitus position with her arms alongside her body and her lower limbs in abduction. Pneumoperitoneum was achieved using a Veres needle placed at the umbilicus. Four trocars were placed: a 10-mm trocar at the umbilicus for the zero-degree laparoscope; a 5-mm trocar at the right anterosuperior iliac spine; a 5-mm trocar in the midline between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis, approximately 8 to 10 cm inferior to the umbilical trocar; and a 5-mm trocar at the left anterosuperior iliac spine. The entire pelvis was inspected for endometriotic lesions, and all implants in the anterior compartment of the pelvis were resected. The lesions located at the ovarian fossae were completely removed. The ureters were identified bilaterally, and both para-rectal fossae were dissected. The right hypogastric nerve was released from the disease laterally. The lesion was separated from the retrocervical area, and the posterior vaginal fornix was resected (reverse technique), leaving the disease attached to the anterior surface of the rectum. The lesion was shaved off the anterior rectal wall using a harmonic scalpel. A x-shaped stitch was placed at the anterior rectal wall using 2-0 mononylon suture. A 33-mm circular stapler was placed transanally under laparoscopic control, and once it reached the area to be resected, it was opened. A gap was created between the envil and the stapler. The anterior rectal wall was placed inside this gap with the aid of the stitch at the anterior rectal wall. The stapler was fired, and a piece of the anterior rectal wall was resected. The same procedure was performed using a 29-mm circular stapler, which allowed for the complete removal of the lesion. We usually perform the second discoid resection using a 29-mm circular stapler to allow an easy progression of the stapler through the rectum beyond the first stapler line, so not to put too much pressure on it. In our experience, the first discoid resection removes most of the disease, and the second discoid resection is only needed to remove a small amount of residual disease, along with the first staple line. The procedure took 177 min, and the estimated blood loss was 100 mL. The patient started clear liquids 6 hours after the procedure, and was discharged 19 hours after that [1]. Pathological examination of the 2 strips of the anterior rectal wall revealed infiltration of the bowel wall by endometriotic tissue. She had an uneventful postoperative course, and was able to re-start sexual intercourse 50 days after surgery. Between January 2010 and January 2015, 315 women underwent laparoscopic surgery for the treatment of bowel endometriosis in our service. Among them, 16 (5.1%) were operated on by using the double discoid resection technique. Median age of the patients was 34 years, and median body mass index was 25.9 kg/m(2). Median preoperative cancer antigen-125 level was 26.5 U/mL (normal value is &lt;35 U/mL). Median size of the rectosigmoid nodule was 35 mm (range: 30-60), and median distance from the anal verge was 10.5 cm (range: 5-15 cm). Median surgical time was 160 min (range: 54-210 min). Concomitant procedures included hysterectyomy (n = 5), partial cystectomy (n = 3), resection of the posterior vaginal fornix (n = 4), and appendectomy (n = 1). Median estimated intraoperative bleeding was 32.5 mL (range: 30-100), and median time of hospitalization was 19 hours (range: 10-41). Median American Fertility Society score was 46 (10-102). Two minor complications (12.5%) occurred in this initial series: 1 patient required bladder catheterization for urinary retention; and 1 patient developed a urinary tract infection that required oral antibiotic treatment. One major complication (6.2%) was observed; the patient developed fever and abdominal pain on the fourth postoperative day. She was re-operated, and the intraoperative diagnosis was pelviperitonitis. The abdominal cavity was inspected for any dehiscence of the bowel and then washed. She was discharged on the second day after re-operation with oral antibiotic therapy. In our daily practice, we are used to discharging our patients soon in the postoperative setting (19 hours for rectal shaving or discoid resection and 28 hours for segmental bowel resection) [1] because the rate of postoperative fistula seems to be low [2]. Because we still have not seen any fistulas after conservative surgery (rectal shaving, discoid resection, and double discoid resection), we usually prefer to perform this type of surgery compared with segmental bowel resection, when possible. Laparoscopic double discoid resection with circular stapler may be an alternative to segmental bowel resection in selected patients with bowel endometriosis." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_4503", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Imaging Tests The role of imaging techniques in studying female urinary incontinence is not yet established. Researchers are evaluating the potential roles of ultrasonography, fluoroscopy, functional neuroimaging, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). These tests should not be done routinely but are useful in certain conditions. If the patient’s symptoms (easily remembered by the three Ds: dysuria, dribbling, and dyspareunia) or examination suggests a urethral diverticulum, MRI is the test of choice (44)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_53103", "title": "Dysmenorrhea", "score": 0.009321450099026952, "content": "Further work-up includes a specific medical history of symptoms and menstrual cycles and a pelvic examination. Based on results from these, additional exams and tests may be motivated, such as: Gynecologic ultrasonography Laparoscopy Management Treatments that target the mechanism of pain include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and hormonal contraceptives. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production. With long-term treatment, hormonal birth control reduces the amount of uterine fluid/tissue expelled from the uterus. Thus resulting in shorter, less painful menstruation. These drugs are typically more effective than treatments that do not target the source of the pain (e.g. acetaminophen). Regular physical activity may limit the severity of uterine cramps." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_14102", "title": "Endometriosis.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "27 year old Melinda presents to you with increasingly severe dysmenorrhoea. She has been using condoms for contraception and is no longer able to control the pain with the anti inflammatory tablets you suggested at the last consultation 6 months ago. She also complains of the recent development of deep dyspareunia. She has been in her current relationship for the last 5 years. Examination illicits similar pain and tenderness to that which she feels during intercourse. A Pap smear and STD screen are normal. You refer her to a gynaecologist who undertakes a laparoscopy on Melinda. What is seen? Ovarian adhesions secondary to endometriosis (Figure 1). Classic endometriosis (Figure 2)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0047_19990", "title": "[Role of vaginal echography in the investigation of menorrhagia and metrorrhagia in the reproductive years].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Eighty non-menopausal patients who had troubles of menorrhagia or metrorrhagia who were neither pregnant nor had cervical pathology, were investigated first by vaginal ultrasound and then by hysteroscopy. In 43 of the cases a hysterosalpingogram had been carried out before hand. All patients had histological examination of tissues. The main pathological ultrasound features were clearly made out. Vaginal ultrasound, and the conditions under which the study was undertaken, gives much more information than hysterosalpingography and will be able in future to a greater extent, to replace conventional radiography. Vaginal ultrasound manages to achieve information about the endometrium and the uterine cavity almost equal to that obtained by hysteroscopy and furthermore it gives more precise information about the state of the myometrium. Vaginal ultrasound therefore seems to be an excellent first stage examination to investigate menstrual disturbances in reproductive life, and so long as it is carried out under good conditions will limit the indications for hysteroscopy and will be able to indicate when it is necessary to carry out simple exploratory hysteroscopy or operative hysteroscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0557_533", "title": "Delayed diagnosis of partially obstructed longitudinal vaginal septa.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To report delayed diagnosis in two cases because of subtle manifestations of partially obstructive müllerian anomalies. Case report. Academic medical center. The first case is a 30-year-old woman who was seen initially with irregular vaginal bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On physical examination she was noted to have an anterior vaginal mass with a fistulous tract adjacent to the cervix. Blood and mucus issued from the fistulous tract when the anterior blade of the speculum compressed the vaginal mass. In case 2 a 40-year-old nulligravida was seen with infertility and mild dysmenorrhea. Her history was significant for a Strassman's metroplasty. On examination she was noted to have a bulging at the apex of the vagina adjacent to the cervix. Transvaginal ultrasound, fistulogram, hysterosalpingogram, resection of the longitudinal vaginal septa, and cycle day 3 FSH. Symptoms. In case 1 the subject had resolution of irregular vaginal bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. In case 2 the patient declined to pursue further therapy. Common gynecologic symptoms resulted from partially obstructed vaginal septa. These cases demonstrate the importance of a high index of suspicion in subjects who do not respond to standard therapies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0741_21893", "title": "[Diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. Which clinical and paraclinical criteria? Role of imaging and laparoscopy?].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease is difficult. We focus on a systematic literature review to study diagnostic values of history-taking, clinical examination, laboratory tests and imagery. After this literature review, we build a diagnostic model for pelvic inflammatory disease. This diagnostic model is built on two major criteria: presence of adnexal tenderness or cervical motion tenderness. Additional minor criteria, increasing the likelihood of the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease were added based on their specificity and their positive likelihood ratio. These minor criteria are supported by history-taking, clinical examination, laboratory tests and also on relevant ultrasonographic criteria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1109_8001", "title": "Disorders, Disabilities, and Differences: Reconciling the Medical Model with a Neurodiversity Perspective.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Zoe is a 25-month-old girl who presented to developmental-behavioral pediatrics with her parents for follow-up after receiving a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder with global developmental delay and language impairment 3 months ago. Zoe was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy, labor, and delivery. She had a routine newborn course and was discharged home with her parents 2 days after her birth.At 7 months, Zoe was not able to sit independently, had poor weight gain, and had hypertonia on physical examination. Her parents described her to tense her arms and have hand tremors when she held her bottle during feedings and reported that she had resisted their attempts to introduce pureed or other age-appropriate table foods into her diet. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development Screening Test was administered and found a cognitive composite score of 70, language composite score of 65, and motor composite score of 67. Chromosomal microarray analysis, testing for fragile X syndrome, laboratory studies for metabolic disorders, magnetic resonance imaging of the brain, and an audiologic examination were normal. Zoe was referred to and received early intervention services including physical therapy, feeding therapy, and infant stimulation services. By 16 months, Zoe was walking independently and was gaining weight well but continued to have sensory aversions to some foods.At 22 months, Zoe was evaluated by a multidisciplinary team because of ongoing developmental concerns and concerning results on standardized screening for autism spectrum disorder completed at her 18-month preventive care visit. Her parents also reported concern about the possibility of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) because they both were diagnosed with ASD as young children. Both parents completed college and were employed full-time. Zoe's mother seemed to be somewhat anxious during the visit and provided fleeting eye contact throughout the evaluation. Zoe's father was assertive, but polite, and was the primary historian regarding parental concerns during the evaluation.Zoe was noted to have occasional hand flapping and squealing vocalizations while she roamed the examination area grabbing various objects and casting them to the floor while watching the trajectory of their movements. She did not use a single-finger point to indicate her wants or needs and did not initiate or follow joint attention. She met criteria for ASD. In discussing the diagnosis with Zoe's parents, they shared that they were not surprised by the diagnosis. They expressed feeling that Zoe was social and playful, although delayed in her language. Hence, they were more concerned about her disinterest in eating. They were not keen on behavioral intervention because they did not want Zoe to be \"trained to be neurotypical.\" Although the mother did not receive applied behavior analysis (ABA), the father had received ABA for 3 years beginning at age 5 years. He believed that ABA negatively changed his personality, and he did not want the same for Zoe.How would you assist Zoe's parents in identification of priorities for her developmental care while ensuring respect for their perspective of neurodiversity?" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_61", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Finally, before dismissing the symptom under study, inquire about other symptoms that might reasonably be expected under the clinical circumstances of the case. Symptoms specifically sought but denied are known as negative symptoms. These negative symptoms may confirm or rule out diagnostic possibilities suggested by the positive symptoms. 3. The data secured by the techniques described in the first two phases of the interview should now suggest several diagnostic possibilities. Test these possibilities further by inquiring about other symptoms or events that may form part of the natural history of the suspected disease or group of diseases. 4." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_74", "title": "Ultrasound-Guided Transvaginal Aspiration and Sclerotherapy for Uterine Cystic Adenomyosis: Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Uterine cystic adenomyosis is a very rare type of adenomyosis which can be easily misdiagnosed in clinical practice. In the past, cases have been mostly treated with surgical resection of the uterine lesion. We report the case of a 25-year-old woman who presented with severe dysmenorrhea for more than 1 year. Physical examination showed that the uterus was enlarged. The transvaginal ultrasound showed a cystic mass of about 5.0 × 3.6 × 3.6 cm in the posterior myometrium, with dense echo spots and no blood flow signal in the cystic part. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) indicated hemorrhages within the cystic mass, suggesting the possibility of uterine cystic adenomyosis. The lower abdominal pain and severe dysmenorrhea were not alleviated after a 6-month trial of oral contraceptives. Subsequently, she underwent ultrasound-guided transvaginal aspiration and sclerotherapy for uterine cystic adenomyosis. Approximately 90 mL of chocolate-colored fluid was aspirated from the mass and 20 mL of lauromacrogol was injected in the cyst. The reduction rates of the mass 3 and 12 months after the procedure were 92.01 and 99.10%, respectively. Her dysmenorrhea completely resolved. One and half year after the operation, she had a successful pregnancy and gave birth to a healthy baby through vagina. The rare entity of uterine cystic adenomyosis can be treated safely and effectively by ultrasound-guided transvaginal aspiration and sclerotherapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1081_12192", "title": "Critical Role of 3D ultrasound in the diagnosis and management of Robert's uterus: a single-centre case series and a review.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A septate uterus with a non-communicating hemicavity was first described by Robert in 1969/70 as a specific malformation of the uterus. The condition is commonly associated with a blind uterine hemicavity, unilateral haematometra, a contralateral unicornuate uterine cavity and a normal external uterine fundus. The main symptoms are repetitive attacks of pain at four-weekly intervals around menarche, repeated dysmenorrhea, recurrent pregnancy loss and infertility. In this report, we review the disease, its diagnosis and treatment, and describe five cases of Robert's uterus. Three dimensional (3D) ultrasound (US) imaging was performed by the transvaginal route in four cases. In the fifth case of a 13-year-old girl, we avoided the vaginal route and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and 3D transrectal US yielded the correct diagnosis. The following treatment procedures were undertaken: laparoscopic endometrectomy, hysteroscopic septum resection, laparoscopic uterine hemicavity resection and total laparoscopic hysterectomy (TLH). The diagnosis and optimum treatment of Robert's uterus remains difficult for clinicians because of its rarity. A detailed and careful assessment by 3D US should be performed, followed by hysteroscopy in combination with laparoscopy, to confirm the diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_896", "title": "Transvaginal-laparoscopic anterior rectum resection in a hysterectomized woman with deep-infiltrating endometriosis: Description of a gynecologic natural orifice transendoluminal surgery approach.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Deep-infiltrating endometriosis may affect the vagina, the rectum, and the cervicoisthmic part of the uterus, resulting in severe pain, particularly dyschezia, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and diminished quality of life. Advanced surgical techniques, such as laparoscopic-assisted anterior rectum resection, are recognized as safe and effective therapeutic approaches. In some cases, a laparotomy or minilaparotomy has to be performed for technical reasons. This can be avoided in some cases by transvaginal-laparoscopic low anterior rectum resection. The technique is a 4-step procedure, which can be described as follows: step 1 (vaginal) - rectovaginal examination, preparation of the rectovaginal septum, opening of the pouch of Douglas, mobilization of the endometriotic nodule and the rectum, temporary vaginal closure; step 2 (laparoscopic) - removal of additional endometriotic lesions, adhesiolysis, final mobilization of the rectum, mobilization of the rectosigmoid, endoscopic resection using an endoscopic stapler step 3 (vaginal) - transvaginal resection of the lesion, preparation of the oral anvil, closure of the vagina; and step 4 (laparoscopic) - endoscopic transanal stapler anastomosis and underwater rectoscopy, prophylaxis of adhesions, drainage. We used this procedure to treat a 46-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 2) who was admitted to our hospital for severe lower abdominal pain, constipation, dyspareunia, dyschezia, and cyclic rectal bleedings. The symptoms were caused by an endometriotic nodule accompanied by a palpable rectum stenosis. In addition, she reported a past abdominal hysterectomy with complications caused by symptomatic myomatous uterus. As a gynecologic natural orifice surgery approach, the transvaginal-laparoscopic anterior rectum resection may be an additional useful surgical technique that could be offered by surgical gynecologists to some women with deep-infiltrating endometriosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0344_10189", "title": "[The diagnosis and surgical treatment in rectal endometriosis].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "From Jun 1975 to Mar 1995, 26 cases of endometriosis in the rectum (RE) were admitted. Local resection was performed in 16 and Dixon's operation in 10. The result showed 21 cases were symptomatically cured and 5 with remission. 2 cases were reoperated because of recurrence in 5 years after the first operation and cured. RE is difficult in distiguishing from rectal cancer. It is characterized by tenesmus, bursting pain, hematochezia in young and middle aged women during periods. The diagnosis can be made by tipycal history and vaginal examination, rectal examination, barium enema, proctoscopy and so on. The indications of operation include severe clinic symptoms and failed conservative therapy. Wedge resection was suitable in cases with small lession in rectum, while large, deep seated lessions in lower rectum were treated with Dixon's operation in order to prevent recurrence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1035_3786", "title": "Peritoneal Retraction Pocket Defects and Their Important Relationship with Pelvic Pain and Endometriosis.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The objective of this video is to demonstrate different clinical presentations of peritoneal defects (peritoneal retraction pockets) and their anatomic relationships with the pelvic innervation, justifying the occurrence of some neurologic symptoms in association with these diseases. Surgical demonstration of complete excision of different types of peritoneal retraction pockets and a comparison with a laparoscopic retroperitoneal cadaveric dissection of the pelvic innervation. Private hospital in Curitiba, Paraná, Brazil. A pelvic peritoneal pocket is a retraction defect in the surface of the peritoneum of variable size and shapes [1]. The origin of defects in the pelvic peritoneum is still unknown [2]. It has been postulated that it is the result of peritoneal irritation or invasion by endometriosis, with resultant scarring and retraction of the peritoneum [3,4]. It has also been suggested that a retraction pocket may be a cause of endometriosis, where the disease presumably settles in a previously altered peritoneal surface [5]. These defects are shown in many studies to be associated with pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and secondary dysmenorrhea [1-4]. Some studies have shown that the excision of these peritoneal defect improves pain symptoms and quality of life [5]. It is important to recognize peritoneal pockets as a potential manifestation of endometriosis because in some cases, the only evidence of endometriosis may be the presence of these peritoneal defects [6]. In this video, we demonstrate different types of peritoneal pockets and their close relationship with pelvic anatomic structures. Case 1 is a 29-year-old woman, gravida 0, with severe dysmenorrhea and catamenial bowel symptoms (bowel distension and diarrhea/constipation) that were unresponsive to medical treatment. Imaging studies were reported as normal, and a laparoscopy showed a posterior cul-de-sac peritoneal pocket infiltrating the pararectal fossa, with extension to the lateral border of the rectum. Case 2 is a cadaveric dissection of a posterior cul-de-sac peritoneal pocket infiltrating the pararectal fossa, with extension to the pelvic sidewall. After dissection of the obturator fossa, we can observe that the pocket is close to the sacrospinous ligament, pudendal nerve, and some sacral roots. Case 3 is a 31-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, with severe dysmenorrhea that was unresponsive to medical treatment and catamenial bowel symptoms (catamenial bowel distention and diarrhea). Imaging studies were reported as normal and a laparoscopy showed left uterosacral peritoneal pocket infiltrating the pararectal fossa in close proximity to the rectal wall. Case 4 is a cadaveric dissection of the ovarian fossa and the obturator fossa showing the proximity between these structures. Case 5 is a 35-year-old woman, gravida 0, with severe dysmenorrhea that was unresponsive to medical treatment, referring difficulty, and pain when walking only during menstruation. A neurologic physical examination revealed weakness in thigh adduction, and the magnetic resonance imaging showed no signs of endometriosis. During laparoscopy, we found a peritoneal pocket infiltrating the ovarian fossa, with involvement in the area between the umbilical ligament and the uterine artery. This type of pocket can easily reach the obturator nerve. Because the obturator nerve and its branches supply the muscle and skin of the medial thigh [7,8], patients may present with thigh adduction weakness or difficulty ambulating [9,10]. Case 6 is a cadaveric dissection of the sacrospinous ligament and the pudendal nerve from a medial approach, between the umbilical artery and the iliac vessels. Case 7 is a 34-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, with severe dysmenorrhea and catamenial bowel symptoms as well as deep dyspareunia. The transvaginal ultrasound showed focal adenomyosis and a 2-cm nodule, 9-cm apart from the anal verge, affecting 30% of the bowel circumference. In the laparoscopy, we found a posterior cul-de-sac retraction pocket associated with a large deep endometriosis nodule affecting the vagina and the rectum. In all cases, endometriosis was confirmed by histopathology, and in a 6-month follow-up, all patients showed improvement of bowel, pain, and neurologic symptoms. Peritoneal pockets can have different clinical presentations. Depending on the topography and deepness of infiltration, they can be the cause of some neurologic symptoms associated with endometriosis pain. With this video, we try to encourage surgeons to totally excise these lesions and raise awareness about the adjacent key anatomic structures that can be affected." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_57", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Table 1.5 Technique of Taking the History of the Present Illness 1. The technique used in taking the history of the present illness varies with the patient, the patient’s problem, and the physician. Allow the patient to talk about her chief symptom. Although this symptom may or may not represent the real problem (depending on subsequent evaluation), it is usually uppermost in the patient’s mind and most often constitutes the basis for the visit to the physician. During the phase of the interview, establish the temporal relation of the chief symptom to the total duration of the illness. Questions such as, “Then up to the time of this symptom, you felt perfectly well?” may elicit other symptoms that may antedate the chief one by days, months, or years. In this manner, the patient may recall the date of the first appearance of illness. Encourage the patient to talk freely and spontaneously about her illness from the established date of onset. Do not interrupt the patient’s account," }, { "id": "pubmed23n1009_364", "title": "Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome presenting with dysmenorrhea: a case report.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome is a rare congenital anomaly characterized by uterus didelphys, obstructed hemivagina, and ipsilateral renal agenesis. The most common presentation is abdominal pain, dysmenorrhea, and abdominal mass secondary to hematocolpos. We present the first case report on Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome from Bangladesh. A 15-year-old Asian girl presented with lower abdominal pain of 3 months' duration. She had had menarche 3 months earlier and had a regular menstrual cycle with cyclical abdominal pain. Abdominal examination found a tender mass on the right iliac fossa. Further evaluation with ultrasound revealed distended endometrial cavity filled with complex fluid and nonvisualization of the right kidney. Pelvic magnetic resonance imaging showed absent right kidney and two separate endometrial stripes surrounded by endometrium and a muscular layer. The right endometrial cavity and cervix were distended with blood. This magnetic resonance imaging finding is consistent with Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome with uterine didelphyis, right-sided hematometra resulting from obstructed hemivagina, and ipsilateral agenesis of the right kidney. The vaginal septum was resected for vaginoplasty. She was discharged 5 days after surgery and came for follow-up after 7 days. Vaginal examination revealed a healthy wound with no adhesion of the vaginal wall. She also informed us that she had started regular menstruation without any pain 30 days after the operation. An unusual presentation of regular menstruation and nonspecific abdominal pain delays the diagnosis, which can lead to complications such as endometriosis and infertility. Awareness is required; otherwise, misdiagnosis clearly can occur." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_23599", "title": "Diagnosis of acute pelvic pain.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The diagnosis of acute pelvic pain in the woman of reproductive age represents a major clinical challenge. In approaching such a patient, the clinician must differentiate between pregnancy-related causes, gynecologic disorders, and nonreproductive tract causes. A careful history and physical examination, along with selective and knowledgeable use of diagnostic tests and procedures, are essential to the diagnostic process. Diagnostic laparoscopy represents the reference standard for diagnosis of many of its possible causes and can obviate the need for exploratory laparotomy. Once competing diagnoses have been adequately excluded, an empiric trial of antibiotic therapy for acute pelvic inflammatory disease, coupled with close clinical follow-up, should be considered in patients with acute pelvic pain found to have cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness on examination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_247", "title": "Pseudomembranous enterocolitis after gynecologic endoscopy.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "A 21-year-old nulligravida underwent diagnostic hysteroscopy and laparoscopic potassium-titanyl-phosphate laser ablation of pelvic peritoneal endometriosis (revised American Fertility score of 10) for dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and dyschezia. Preoperatively the patient had an electrolyte bowel preparation but no antibiotic prophylaxis. Six days postoperatively she developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which were not affected by diet and over-the-counter bowel medications. Examination of stool samples for culture, ova, parasites, and Clostridium difficile toxin led to the diagnosis of C. difficile pseudomembranous enterocolitis. The patient was referred to a gastroenterologist. She required 4 months of metronidazole therapy, including two hospitalizations, before her symptoms resolved. The stool assay became negative for C. difficile toxin 6 months after surgery. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis may occur rarely in patients without the usual risk factors of antibiotic therapy. The role of electrolyte bowel preparation is uncertain, but it may have permitted overgrowth of C. difficile." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 308, 564 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 44, 84 ] ], "text": "The current classification is the 2017 ILAE classification that would describe this seizure as focal seizure with altered level of consciousness, but in the MIR they still use the old terminology (complex is what altered level of consciousness was called)." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Complex focal temporal lobe seizures.", "2": "Transient ischemic attacks in right carotid territory.", "3": "Simple focal motor seizures.", "4": "Episodes of transient global amnesia.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0956_24813", "title": "[A case of painful seizure accompanying ictal paresis and homonymous hemianopia due to post-stroke epilepsy].", "score": 0.015686515748031496, "content": "A 69-year-old female with an old infarct of the left parietotemporal lobe was admitted for the evaluation of suspected painful seizures accompanying ictal paresis. The painful seizure and ictal paresis involved her right extremities without convulsions, although intermittent tremulous movements were noted on the right upper extremity. She also showed right hemianopia during the seizure. Ictal scalp EEG demonstrated lateralized rhythmic sharply contoured delta activity intermingled with a large amount of spikes, sharp waves, and fast activity mainly on the posterior half of the left hemisphere. Ictal MRI showed restricted diffusion in the postcentral gyrus and dilatation of distal branches of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). <sup99m</supTc-ECD SPECT revealed hyperperfusion on the left parietal cortex. Treatment with antiepileptic drugs successfully prevented seizure recurrence, then she was discharged home. On the follow-up SPECT after 1 month, the abnormal hyperperfusion disappeared. MRI demonstrated resolution of the restricted diffusion and the MCA dilatation. Taken together with the EEG abnormality and the transient abnormalities in SPECT and MRI, we concluded that her seizures were epileptic and that her painful seizures likely arise from the left primary somatosensory cortex. The mechanism of ictal paresis would be attributed to some disturbed functional architecture in the left primary motor cortex leading to loss of normal motor function through epileptic interference by ictal discharges. The same mechanism in the visual cortex could be assumed for her ictal hemianopia. Painful seizure and ictal paresis each is rarely encountered, even more so the combination thereof. These ictal manifestations might be difficult to differentiate from transient ischemic attack or postictal paresis, and thus EEG is essential to diagnose this treatable condition." }, { "id": "article-19792_29", "title": "Focal Impaired Awareness Seizure -- History and Physical", "score": 0.014228700329689398, "content": "As with other types of seizures, diagnosis of focal impaired awareness seizure is based on clinical history. Epilepsy is a clinical diagnosis. As with any other seizure, it is most important to make sure that the episode is truly a seizure. Obtaining a detailed history from the patient and family members is important. A detailed description of the spell, for example, the sequence of events, nature of onset, loss of consciousness, any motor or convulsive activity, bilateral involvement, tongue bite, incontinence, stare, automatisms, eye movements, postictal confusion, recovery, and duration of events are very important to elicit. It is important to elicit a detailed medical history to identify possible risk factors. The clinical semiology depends on the location of the seizure focus. A detailed neurological examination is important. Even subtle findings on the neurological exam can support the diagnosis of seizures. Also, certain lateralizing abnormalities on the neurological exam can help predict the epileptic focus. Some specific features associated with focal seizures can help in lateralizing the seizure origin to one hemisphere. These features provide a good clue for lateralization but can be falsely lateralizing. Dystonic limb posturing: Unilateral dystonic posturing is the most reliable lateralizing sign in temporal lobe automotor seizures. Unilateral hand/arm dystonic posturing in conjunction with automatisms of the opposite limb and head-turning is highly suggestive of temporal lobe onset contralateral to the dystonic upper extremity. Head version: The classical head version (defined as a tonic, unnatural, forced lateral gyratory head movement) is highly suggestive of seizure onset to the contralateral side. It can occur in both temporal and extratemporal seizures. Seizures spread to the premotor areas may be the cause. Automatisms: Oroalimentary automatisms like lip-smacking, chewing, or swallowing may occur without loss of consciousness at seizure onset in temporal lobe seizures with seizures confined to the amygdala and anterior hippocampus. Most automatisms are usually accompanied by impaired consciousness and have no lateralizing value, but preserved responsiveness during automatisms lateralize to the non-dominant hemisphere. Eye blinking or fluttering at seizure onset may indicate occipital lobe onset. Aversion of the eyes to the opposite side suggests seizures arising from the occipital region. Focal seizures with impaired consciousness arising from mesial frontal and orbitofrontal regions can cause bicycling or pedaling movements of the leg. Mimetic automatisms and crying have been reported in focal seizures with impaired consciousness arising from the non-dominant temporal lobe. Vomiting during seizure lateralizes to the non-dominant hemisphere. Sexual or genital automatisms (like pelvic thrusting and masturbation) can occur in focal seizures with impaired consciousness of frontal and temporal lobe origin. Postictal nose-wiping: Postictal nose-wiping that occurs within 60 seconds of the seizure occurs in about 50% to 85% of temporal lobe epilepsy patients and is performed with the ipsilateral hand in a majority of the cases. [1] [6]" }, { "id": "article-25023_12", "title": "Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy -- History and Physical -- Seizure Semiology", "score": 0.01280600200498011, "content": "When there is preserved awareness, the patient can describe the occurrence of unusual sensations known as auras. Auras could be visceral, autonomic, gustatory, or affective symptoms. Patients commonly experience a rising epigastric sensation, nausea, and olfactory and/or gustatory hallucination. Psychic sensations can occur, such as depersonalization (out-of-body feeling), déjà vu (a feeling of familiarity), jamais vu (feeling of unfamiliarity), déjà entendu (hearing familiar sounds), or panoramic visions (a rapid recollection of episodes from the past). Dysphoric or euphoric feelings, fear, terror, anger, and other sensations can also occur. Often, the patients find the aura hard to describe. Autonomic features include piloerection, pallor/flushing, tachycardia, or pupillary dilatation. [24] With the loss of awareness, patients have a behavioral arrest and portray a blank staring facial appearance, which is followed by the development of oro/facial/alimentary automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing, sucking, or swallowing, which is usually accompanied by ipsilateral gestural automatisms such as repetitive hand movements, picking and/or fidgeting behavior, disrobing and contralateral dystonic posturing of limbs. The presence of speech suggests non-dominant hemispheric seizure onset, but its absence is not a reliable lateralizing finding. Patients commonly have a period of postictal confusion following the episode. Less commonly, episodes may progress to generalized tonic-clonic seizures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_28355", "title": "Temporal lobe epilepsy", "score": 0.012499192558620243, "content": "These seizures tend to have a warning or aura before they occur, and when they occur they generally tend to last only 1–2 minutes. It is not uncommon for an individual to be tired or confused for up to 15 minutes after a seizure has occurred, although postictal confusion can last for hours or even days. Though they may not seem harmful, due to the fact that the individual does not normally seize, they can be extremely harmful if the individual is left alone around dangerous objects. For example, if a person with complex partial seizures is driving alone, this can cause them to run into the ditch, or worse, cause an accident involving multiple people. With this type, some people do not even realize they are having a seizure and most of the time their memory from right before or after the seizure is wiped. First-aid is only required if there has been an injury or if this is the first time a person has had a seizure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_11181", "title": "Complex partial seizures.", "score": 0.01236736943640623, "content": "A 24 year old woman with a past history of febrile convulsions presents with a history of several episodes of 'funny turns' over a period of six months. She states she 'feels weird' before each episode. Her partner describes that she becomes verbally unresponsive, licks her lips, and makes other strange movements with her mouth. They usually last several minutes, after which she appears quite drowsy for half an hour. She recalls nothing of the event itself. Examination findings are normal. You take blood tests and arrange for an electroencephalogram." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_29736", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012262312705771687, "content": "Focal Seizures with Dyscognitive Features Focal seizures may also be accompanied by a transient impairment of the patient’s ability to maintain normal contact with the environment. The patient is unable to respond appropriately to visual or verbal commands during the seizure and has impaired recollection or awareness of the ictal phase. The seizures frequently begin with an aura (i.e., a focal seizure without cognitive disturbance) that is stereotypic for the patient. The start of the ictal phase is often a sudden behavioral arrest or motionless stare, which marks the onset of the period of impaired awareness. The behavioral arrest is usually accompanied by automatisms, which are involuntary, automatic behaviors that have a wide range of manifestations. Automatisms may consist of very basic behaviors such as chewing, lip smacking, swallowing, or “picking” movements of the hands, or more elaborate behaviors such as a display of emotion or running. The patient is typically confused" }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_2569", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012060372390445741, "content": "In the category of genuine seizures, the diagnosis of temporal lobe epilepsy may be difficult to distinguish from imitators of epilepsy. These attacks are so variable and so often induce disturbances of behavior and psychic function—rather than overt interruptions or loss of consciousness—that they may be mistaken for temper tantrums in children, drug ingestion, hysteria, panic attacks, or acute psychosis. These seizures may include verbalizations that cannot be remembered, walking aimlessly, repetitive olfactory and gustatory hallucinations, stereotyped hand movements or automatism such as lip smacking. The nature of the patient’s report of a psychic experience is often helpful in distinguishing seizures from psychogenic events. In the former, patients attempt to focus with great effort on the description of the experience, although the term “indescribable” is often included in the report, whereas vague and imprecise descriptions of “something being wrong” or resorting to a friend or" }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_2482", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.01204518646220851, "content": "The motor components of a focal temporal lobe or limbic seizure, if they occur, arise during the later phase of the seizure and take the form of automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing or swallowing movements, salivation, fumbling of the hands, or shuffling of the feet. Patients may walk around in a daze or act inappropriately. Complex acts that were initiated before the loss of consciousness—such as walking, chewing food, turning the pages of a book, or even driving—may continue. However, when asked a specific question or given a command, the patients are obviously out of contact with their surroundings. There may be no response at all, or the patient may look toward the examiner in a perplexed way or utter a few stereotyped phrases. The patient may walk repetitively in small circles (volvular epilepsy), run (epilepsia procursiva), or simply wander aimlessly, either as an ictal or postictal phenomenon (poriomania). These forms of seizure, according to some epileptologists, are" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_23759", "title": "Focal seizure", "score": 0.012031909282700422, "content": "Complex partial seizures A complex partial seizure is a seizure that is associated with unilateral cerebral hemisphere involvement and causes impairment of awareness or responsiveness, i.e. alteration of consciousness. Presentation Complex partial seizures are often preceded by an aura. The seizure aura is a focal aware seizure. The aura may manifest itself as a feeling of déjà vu, jamais vu, fear, euphoria or depersonalization. The aura might also occur as a visual disturbance, such as tunnel vision or a change in the perceived size of objects. Once consciousness is impaired, the person may display automatisms, such as lip smacking, chewing or swallowing. There may also be loss of memory (amnesia) surrounding the seizural event. The person may still be able to perform routine tasks such as walking, although such movements are not purposeful or planned. Witnesses may not recognize that anything is wrong. The person may or may not even realize that they experienced a seizure." }, { "id": "article-19792_10", "title": "Focal Impaired Awareness Seizure -- Introduction -- Seizures of Parietal Lobe Region", "score": 0.010777777777777778, "content": "Seizures from the parietal lobe may be difficult to diagnose because of their subjective nature. Positive and /or negative sensory features are common. Sensorimotor phenomenon and vestibular hallucinations suggest onset in the parietal lobe. Paresthesias, visual hallucinations, visual illusions, somatic illusions, and vertiginous features can occur. Seizures arising from the dominant hemisphere can cause receptive language impairment. Parietal lobe Focal impaired awareness seizures can have auras like epigastric sensations, visual hallucinations, panic attacks, and behavioral arrest. Often, there is an involvement of other lobes as the seizure spreads. When focal seizures from the parietal lobe spread and involve the temporal lobe, loss of consciousness and automatisms may occur." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en229_2550", "title": "Transient epileptic amnesia", "score": 0.010730794629099715, "content": "Symptoms A person experiencing a TEA episode has very little short-term memory, so that there is profound difficulty remembering events in the past few minutes (anterograde amnesia), or of events in the hours before the onset of the attack, and even memories of important events in recent years may not be accessible during the amnestic event (retrograde amnesia). Some people report short-lived retrograde amnesia so deep that they do not recognize their home or family members, though personal identity is preserved. The amnestic attack has a sudden onset. Three-fourths of cases are reported upon awakening. In attacks that begin when an individual is fully alert, olfactory hallucinations or a \"strange taste\" or nausea have been reported. Somewhat less than half the cases include olfactory or gustatory hallucinations, and slightly more than a third involve motor automatisms. A quarter of attacks involve a brief period of unresponsiveness. Frequently, however, there is no warning." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_2439", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.010660697687652938, "content": "Roger J. Porter, MD, & Michael A. Rogawski, MD, PhD was unchanged, and levetiracetam was gradually increased to 1000 mg bid. The patient had no significant adverse effects from this dosage. At age 21, she had a second tonic-clonic seizure while in college; further discussion with her room-mate at that time revealed a history of two recent episodes of 1–2 minutes of altered consciousness with lip smacking (focal impaired awareness seizure, formerly complex partial seizure). A repeat EEG showed occasional right temporal spikes. What is one possible strategy for controlling her present symptoms? A 23-year-old woman presents to the office for consultation regarding her antiseizure medications. Seven years ago, this otherwise healthy young woman had a tonic-clonic seizure at home. She was rushed to the emergency department, at which time she was alert but complained of headache. A consulting neurologist placed her on levetiracetam, 500 mg bid. Four days later, electroencephalography (EEG)" }, { "id": "article-29033_6", "title": "Focal Onset Seizure -- Introduction -- Focal Motor Seizures (Formerly Simple Partial Seizures, Complex Partial Seizures)", "score": 0.010582010582010581, "content": "Focal motor seizures occur due to an epileptogenic lesion on the contralateral frontal lobe. They usually originate from the supplementary motor area. The excitatory focus is generally around the rolandic (motor) cortex. Temporal lobe seizures can also have motor symptoms. These symptoms include turning the head and neck to the opposite side and sometimes tonic contractions of the limbs and trunk. The motor manifestations of focal motor onset seizures can be characterized by tonic, clonic, atonic, myoclonic, hyperkinetic, epileptic spasms, and automatisms. [5] Motor manifestations of focal motor onset seizures include the following: Abnormal sustained contractions and posturing of the limbs characterize tonic movements. Clonic movements are characterized by repeated, short contractions of various muscle groups characterized by twitching movements or rhythmic jerking. Atonic movements are characterized by loss of tone in a limb." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_2570", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.010571300044984256, "content": "the description of the experience, although the term “indescribable” is often included in the report, whereas vague and imprecise descriptions of “something being wrong” or resorting to a friend or family member to describe the event usually implicates a psychogenic seizure. We place emphasis on amnesia for the events of at least part of the seizure as an important criterion for the diagnosis of temporal lobe epilepsy. Hysterical fugues can cause substantial difficulty in diagnosis. They may be recognized by the loss of personal identity and by episodes that are longer than typical of seizures, sometimes up to a few days." }, { "id": "article-19792_4", "title": "Focal Impaired Awareness Seizure -- Introduction -- Seizures of Temporal Lobe Origin", "score": 0.010498917299153525, "content": "These are the most common type of focal impaired awareness seizures. Stereotyped automatisms occur in about 40% to 80% of patients with temporal lobe epilepsies. Seizures with predominantly oral and manual automatism and some other motor manifestations are highly suggestive of temporal lobe origin. About 60% of temporal lobe seizures have a secondary generalization. Gradual recovery after several minutes of confusion occurs postictally in most patients; however, in some patients, automatic behavior like running or walking about, the non-directed violent behavior may occur. Temporal lobe focal impaired seizures can have features similar to frontal seizures, but temporal lobe focal impaired seizures typically have slower onset and progression and more pronounced confusion. Certain features can help in localizing the seizure onset to one hemisphere. Ictal vomiting, ictal speech, urinary urge, and automatisms with intact consciousness suggest seizure onset in the non-dominant hemisphere, and speech disturbance postictally is suggestive of seizure onset in the dominant hemisphere. Upper limb dystonia lateralizes seizure to the opposite hemisphere." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_23750", "title": "Focal seizure", "score": 0.01007117976677268, "content": "A focal impaired awareness seizure affects a larger part of the hemisphere and the person may lose consciousness. If a focal seizure spreads from one hemisphere to the other side of the brain, this will give rise to a focal to bilateral seizure. The person will become unconscious and may experience a tonic clonic seizure. When people have multiple focal seizures they generally have a condition known as temporal lobe epilepsy. (A generalized seizure is one that involves both sides of the brain from the onset.) Simple partial seizures Simple partial seizures are seizures which affect only a small region of the brain, often the temporal lobes or structures found there, such as the hippocampi. People who have focal aware seizures remain conscious. Focal aware seizures often precede larger focal impaired awareness seizures, where the abnormal electrical activity spreads to a larger area of the brain. This can result in a tonic-clonic seizure. Presentation" }, { "id": "article-20913_39", "title": "EEG Localization Related Epilepsies -- Clinical Significance -- Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (TLE)", "score": 0.010009297173263702, "content": "Seizure semiology: Auras: Visceral sensations and fear are associated with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy, while auditory and vertiginous auras have been associated with the neocortical temporal lobe epilepsy. Neocortical temporal lobe epilepsy: At seizure onset, patients with neocortical TLE are more likely to describe any type of hallucination or illusion. Automatisms and dystonic posturing are not found in neocortical TLE. [32] [35] Mesial temporal epilepsy: Patients present with a behavioral arrest that is observed as a blank facial expression along with loss of awareness. This change is followed by oral, facial, or alimentary automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing, sucking, or swallowing or is accompanied by ipsilateral automatisms such as repetitive hand movements, picking, or fidgeting behavior, and contralateral abnormal posturing of limbs. Patients commonly have a period of postictal confusion. Rarely, this progresses to secondary generalization. [36]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_16097", "title": "[Amnesic presentations of the compulsive obsessional confusions (about 3 patients appearing in a consultation of memory)].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Disorders or complaints of memory are a frequent cause of consultation in depression, major anxiety and psychiatry disease with personality disorders. We report 3 patients with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), without diagnosis and treatment, examined in a specialized memory consultation. They always had OCD with cognitive checking. Diagnosis of transient global amnesia and temporal complex seizure were discussed in 2 cases. Psychometric impairment only was observed in first free recall of a verbal memory task and was no specific. Behavioural during testing seemed to be very important to analyse. First, a 49-year-old man consulted because he had stereotyped transient amnesia lasted one minute, 2 or 3 times a week, since 6 months. He was a teacher. Transient amnesia always occurred during lessons. Suddenly he didn't know where he was or what he was speaking about. Episodes lasted one minute. After them, he had no confusion and no difficulty in concentration but intense anxiety. In an another hand, when he was in his car, after lessons, he could forget where he was during some minutes. CT scan and EEG were normal. Neuropsychological tests only objectived impairment in first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. Patient explained that he could not prevent to check responses. He told us checking obsessive compulsive disorder during since long time ago. We discussed clear differences which existed between seizure and ruminations or preoccupations. Secondly, a 55-year-old woman was afraid of her memory performances. She was medical secretary and had no problem in her work but she would like a memory consultation to reassure herself. She was neither depressed nor anxious. She presented curious production in fluency task. She had to produce as many animals's names as possible: she could say 35 names which was an excellent performance but only in alphabetic order! Neuropsychological tests objectived impairment in her first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. She tried in her first free recall to remember words in alphabetic order. She explained how she was bound to range everything in alphabetic order! She had a lot of rituals. She thought that she had an obsessive compulsive disorder but never consulted about this. The observation illustrated suspiscions about memory operations which could be observed in patients group with obsessive compulsive disorders. Finally, a 62-year-old man told us that he had presented a transient global amnesia during 4 hours. He had an important appointment and was upset about that. He didn't go to it and wandered in his flat. He always asked the same questions and forgot everything. He had no neurological deficit. He was anxious, sad and cried several times. He perfectly remembered the episod and thought that he had a panic attack! Verbal memory tests only objectived difficulties in his first free recall of Grober and Buschke words as the two others patients. He had a story of obsessive compulsive disorder with checking and rituals. In this observation, we discussed clear differences which existed between panic attacks and global transient amnesia. We analyzed patterns of neuropsychological performances which illustrated clinical features of obsessive compulsive disorder. These three patients impaired in their first free recall of verbal memory task. It is not a specific result. We observed during psychometric evaluation, strategic processing which impaired episodic memory: patients tried to check their performances. Memory complaints only were observed in checking obsessive compulsive disorder. It is a difficulty or a doubt about memory capacities. Difficulties could be due to particular cognitive processes who pertubate normal memory capacities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0124_3903", "title": "Clinical and EEG features of complex partial seizures of extratemporal origin.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Complex partial seizures (CPSs) of extratemporal origin are frequently misdiagnosed. Common reasons for diagnostic errors are failure to recognize the epileptic cause of the attacks or to appreciate localizing clinical seizure characteristics and nonspecific or misleading scalp EEG findings. This report describes clinical characteristics of two types of extratemporal CPSs, frontal and occipital. Frontal lobe CPSs are brief, frequent attacks that begin and end suddenly. They are dominated by complex, semi-purposeful motor automatisms, and vocalization and sexual automatisms are common. Their often bizarre appearance frequently leads to a misdiagnosis of hysteria. Occipital lobe CPSs are characterized primarily by their spread pattern, which can follow various paths. They may mimic temporal lobe CPSs, sensorimotor partial seizures, or supplementary motor partial seizures. Scalp EEGs are frequently misleading. The initial clinical symptoms are the most important clue to correct diagnosis and include elemental visual symptoms, visual loss, eye pulling or movement sensations in the absence of detectable movement, rapid forced blinking or eye flutter, and contralateral eye deviation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_21794", "title": "Rare Phenomenon of Limb-shaking TIA, Resolved With Intracranial Wingspan Stenting.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Illustrates the importance of differentiating limb-shaking transient ischemic attack (LS-TIA) from focal seizures and carefully selecting patients for intracranial stenting. LS-TIA is associated with severe carotid stenosis or occlusion, often precipitated by cerebral hypoperfusion. A case study of 313 patients with symptomatic intracranial artery stenosis/occlusion reported 11% with LS-TIA. In our literature search, we did not find any other cases of successful treatment of LS-TIA with an intracranial Wingspan stent. A 66-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation on anticoagulation, hypertension, hyperlipidemia and left middle cerebral artery (MCA) stroke followed by a left internal carotid artery (ICA) endarterectomy presented with transient repetitive involuntary movements (TRIMs) over her right upper and lower limbs. She described episodes of numbness followed by TRIMs over the right side of her body lasting for 1 to 2 minutes. TRIMs occurred only while standing and usually resolved on sitting or lying down. Conventional angiogram showed severe stenosis of left supraclinoid ICA and proximal MCA. Brain single photon emission computed tomography scan showed impaired vascular reserve in the left MCA territory. An ambulatory electroencephalogram captured TRIMs without epileptiform discharges. She continued to have symptoms with no improvement over a period of 3 months on maximal medical management. She underwent successful endovascular treatment with the Wingspan stent system in the left M1 segment and terminal ICA. Following the revascularization procedure, her symptoms resolved. It is vitally important to differentiate LS-TIA from focal seizures. This is the first documented case report of complete resolution of LS-TIA symptoms following an intracranial Wingspan stenting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0820_11449", "title": "Recurrent diarrhea as a manifestation of temporal lobe epilepsy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A woman with temporal lobe epilepsy manifesting with repeated episodes of sudden diarrhea and loss of consciousness is reported. A 63-year-old, right-handed female presented with chief complaints of sudden diarrhea and loss of consciousness for almost three decades. The first attack occurred in her 30s, and similar attacks repeated several times in a year. Her attacks comprised abrupt abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, sudden emergence of old memories relating to when she had played with her brother in her childhood, and loss of consciousness during defecation. She had no convulsion or automatism and fully recovered in a few minutes. Every time she was transferred to emergency hospital by ambulance, she had examinations such as blood test, head computed tomography, electrocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and electroencephalography (EEG), but no specific diagnosis was made. On admission to our hospital, vital signs, neurological examination, and blood tests did not show abnormal findings. During long-term video-EEG monitoring for 40 h, she had no habitual event. Interictal EEG showed intermittent irregular delta waves and sharp regional transients in the left anterio-midtemporal area. Sharp transients were not as outstanding from background activities as to be defined as epileptiform discharges, but they were reproducible in morphology and distribution and appeared not only in sleep but also in wakefulness. Brain magnetic resonance imaging was unremarkable. Single-photon emission computed tomography showed a decrease of blood flow in the left frontal and temporal lobes. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-III showed a decline of verbal comprehension. We concluded that the patient was suffering from partial epilepsy originating from the left temporal lobe. Carbamazepine markedly improved her seizures. Temporal lobe epilepsy can manifest with diverse autonomic symptoms and signs. Abdominal sensations often herald the onset of epileptic seizures. Among them is an uncommon syndrome called abdominal epilepsy in which gastrointestinal complaints are the primary or the sole manifestation of epileptic seizures. In patients who present with diarrhea and other autonomic symptoms otherwise unexplained, a possible diagnosis of epilepsy should be considered. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en229_2554", "title": "Transient epileptic amnesia", "score": 0.009687858857918364, "content": "TEA is a form of focal seizure, which is \"the most common variety of adult-onset epilepsy\" as opposed to the stereotypical tonic-clonic or grand mal seizure in which affected persons suffer a loss of consciousness and convulse. Diagnostic criteria for the disorder were adopted in the 2007 study of 50 case emphasized clinical features that distinguish TEA from transient global amnesia (TGA), with which TEA is often compared: A history of recurrent witnessed episodes of transient amnesia. In some people, they are very infrequent (less than one per year) whereas others experience them as often as once a week. The episodes are usually very similar to each other. Cognitive functions other than memory are judged to be intact during typical episodes by a reliable witness. In addition to the complex learned behaviors cited above by the TIME organization, reports include people with TEA sight-reading music and playing piano, translating languages, driving or sailing a yacht in the open sea." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_39130", "title": "Seizure types", "score": 0.009663298095282448, "content": "Focal seizures (Older term: partial seizures) Simple partial seizures – consciousness is not impaired With motor signs With sensory symptoms With autonomic symptoms or signs With psychic symptoms Complex partial seizures – consciousness is impaired (*Note: impaired does not necessarily mean [fully] lost) (Older terms: temporal lobe or psychomotor seizures) Simple partial onset, followed by impairment of consciousness With impairment of consciousness at onset Partial seizures evolving to secondarily generalized seizures Simple partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures Complex partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures Simple partial seizures evolving to complex partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures Generalized seizures Absence seizures (Older term: petit mal, meaning 'small, or smaller, bad') Myoclonic seizures Clonic seizures Generalized tonic–clonic seizures (Older term: grand mal, meaning 'great, or greater, bad') Atonic seizures" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0810_25685", "title": "Pharmacoresistant partial-onset epilepsy misdiagnosed as panic disorder: a case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The clinical differentiation between simple partial epileptic seizures of temporal lobe origin and panic attacks is often difficult on clinical grounds alone, because both conditions are characterized by common symptomatology which includes the feeling of fear, autonomic system dysfunction, disorientation and alternation of the level of consciousness when these conditions evolve clinically. The symptoms stem from common pathophysiologic and anatomic substrates of these two conditions, localized in the limbic system, especially the amygdala. We present the case of a young woman who had a febrile seizure in childhood and subsequent episodes of fear accompanied by tremor and possible alteration of consciousness followed by headache. These spells were diagnosed as panic attacks during her teenage years and she was given Clobazam in order to suppress them. The patient responded well for several years without attacks but her symptoms reappeared following discontinuation of her medication in order to conceive. At that time a detailed history was taken from her spouse and further clinical evaluation raised the suspicion of seizures especially due to the fact that her spells were characterized by alteration of consciousness; she was therefore referred for additional investigations which included admission to a monitoring unit for epilepsy. Long-term video-EEG recording revealed the presence of simple partial seizures with secondary generalization confirming the clinical impression. She was subsequently treated with antiepileptic medications; however the patient's condition worsened to the point where she became pharmacoresistant having failed several antiepileptic drug trials in monotherapy or combination. An MRI scan of the brain revealed the presence of right-sided mesial temporal sclerosis, a known consequence of febrile seizures. Her seizures were nocturnal tonic-clonic and gradually worsened to the point of occurring during most nights. She was therefore referred for a presurgical evaluation which confirmed that the epileptic focus was associated with the area of mesial temporal sclerosis. The epileptic focus was successfully removed from the right anterior temporal lobe and since then she remained free of seizures whereas, in addition, the presumed symptoms of panic attacks also resolved. This case indicates the occasional difficulty in diagnosing simple partial seizures and how it may be confused with psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the treating physician, especially the psychiatrist, should remain vigilant when treating cases of panic attacks, especially when they present with either atypical symptomatology, such as the case described, or when they do not respond to appropriately chosen treatment; such cases may warrant referral for further investigation. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0826_21035", "title": "A patient with atonic seizures mimicking transient ischemic attacks.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A focal atonic seizure is a partial seizure in which the ictal manifestation consists of paresis of the extremities or muscles on one side of the body, and this phenomenon can easily be misdiagnosed as a transient ischemic attack. An 86-year-old woman visited our hospital complaining of transient right upper extremity weakness lasting for 10 min following an unusual sensation in her chest accompanied by palpitations. On the third hospital day, she again complained of right arm weakness, which progressed to jerky movements of her right extremity accompanied by facial twitching and then generalized into a tonic-clonic seizure. The EEG displayed several interictal spikes in the contralateral temporal area, and the ictal SPECT, analyzed using the SISCOM system, showed an increased signal in both the contralateral superior parietal area and the mesial frontal area. In this case, the patient was diagnosed with focal atonic seizures as the cause of the monolimb weakness, which had been initially misdiagnosed aas transient ischemic attacks. In cases in which a patient presents with monolimb paresis, physicians should consider the possibility of an atonic seizure as the cause. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0334_12575", "title": "[Ictal semiology of temporal partial complex seizures: usefulness for localizing and lateralizing the origin of the attacks].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To review signs and symptoms associated with temporal complex partial seizures (CPS) and their utility in the localization and lateralization of seizure onset. CPS are particularly resistant to the standard antiepileptic drugs. Since surgical treatment is a therapeutical alternative in patients with intractable seizures, localization and lateralization of seizure origin are the principal aims in the preoperative assessment. Video-EEG monitorization has made possible characterization of ictal behaviour and correlation with cerebral regions generating the epileptic discharge. Therefore, ictal semiology has increased its importance in the localization and lateralization of seizures. The utility of auras, automatisms, motor manifestations, speech disturbances and autonomic features have been reviewed in relation to this approach. Viscerosensorial and experiential auras have been associated with temporal lobe epilepsy. The automatisms are not exclusive of temporal seizures and may be observed in frontal epilepsy and parietal and occipital seizures with spreading to temporal structures. There is not agreement in relation to head turning and version, therefore, this clinical sign should be used in correlation to other clinical manifestations. Distonic posturing, comprehensible ictal speech and postictal dysphasia appear to be the most reliable clinical signs in the lateralisation of temporal lobe seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1074_17521", "title": "Comorbid seizure reduction after pallidothalamic tractotomy for movement disorders: Revival of Jinnai's Forel-H-tomy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Forel-H-tomy for intractable epilepsy was introduced by Dennosuke Jinnai in the 1960s. Recently, Forel-H-tomy was renamed to \"pallidothalamic tractotomy\" and revived for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and dystonia. Two of our patients with movement disorders and comorbid epilepsy experienced significant seizure reduction after pallidothalamic tractotomy, demonstrating the efficacy of this method. The first was a 29-year-old woman who had temporal lobe epilepsy with focal impaired awareness seizure once every three months and an aura 10-20 times daily, even with four antiseizure medicines. For the treatment of hand dyskinesia, she underwent left pallidothalamic tractotomy and her right-hand dyskinesia significantly improved. Fourteen months later, she had experienced no focal impaired awareness seizure and the aura decreased to one to three times per month. The second case was that of a 15-year-old boy diagnosed with progressive myoclonic epilepsy, who developed generalized tonic-clonic seizure, which manifested once every month, despite treatment with five antiseizure medicines. After surgery, myoclonic movements in his right hand slightly improved. A one-year follow-up revealed that he had not experienced a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The lesion locations in the two cases were close to the vicinity of Jinnai's Forel-H-tomy. Forel's field H deserves reconsideration as a treatment target for intractable epilepsy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0237_8420", "title": "A particular evolution of two cases of somatosensory spike epilepsy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "\"Somatosensory spike epilepsy\" is still little known, except in highly specialized places, because of two factors: 1) it is rare (the incidence in our experience is one case in 1,000 new EEGs); 2) the evoked spikes, that constitute the first sign for the evolution of the syndrome, are not systematically sought, and many months can pass before finding one \"positive\" cases. The evolution of a \"positive\" case towards epilepsy is represented by a 15% possibility. In this report we present two unique cases of this syndrome; they are of interest because they constitute the first such cases in the literature and also because of the neurophysiological problems that they reveal. The cases are represented by an eight year old girl and by an eleven year old boy, who suffered from the typical form of \"sensitive spike epilepsy\" characterized by its classical evolution in four stages, with a clinical phase of about one year. Two years after the cessation of previous seizures, they presented a new \"bouffee\" of partial motor seizures. The EEG abnormalities were in the parietal parasagittal region the first time, while they were situated in the temporoparietal region in the second time. The somatosensory spikes were evoked from the foot the first time and from the fingers the second time. In the second case the trigger zones were only on the left side of the body." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_29739", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009410554345194867, "content": "Focal seizures can spread to involve both cerebral hemispheres and produce a generalized seizure, usually of the tonic-clonic variety (discussed below). This evolution is observed frequently following focal seizures arising from a focus in the frontal lobe, but may also be associated with focal seizures occurring elsewhere in the brain. A focal seizure that evolves into a generalized seizure is often difficult to distinguish from a primary generalized-onset tonic-clonic seizure, because bystanders tend to emphasize the more dramatic, generalized convulsive phase of the seizure and overlook the more subtle, focal symptoms present at onset. In some cases, the focal onset of the seizure becomes apparent only when a careful history identifies a preceding aura. Often, however, the focal onset is not clinically evident and may be established only through careful EEG analysis. Nonetheless, distinguishing between these two entities is extremely important, because there may be substantial" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_1462", "title": "[A case of left dorsomedial thalamic infarction with unilateral schizophrenia-like auditory hallucinations].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We report a case of a right-handed, 73-year-old woman with auditory hallucinations lateralized to the right ear. A brain MRI revealed a small infarction in the left dorsomedial nucleus (DM) of the thalamus. The patient did not have either psychiatric or neurological prior history, and had otherwise been treated for ischemic heart disease, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia for 10 years. Two months prior to admission, she had become forgetful, and had lost her wallet several times. She concurrently began to experience auditory hallucinations in which she heard the voices of her acquaintances, or \"the gods\". She frequently monologized and wandered about outside following the contents of the hallucinations. Therefore, she was admitted to our institution. On admission, no apparent abnormalities were revealed by physical examinations or blood analyses. She was alert and had no aphasic symptoms. Except for memory disturbances, no neurological symptoms, including no hearing loss, were found. A brain MRI showed a small localized infarction in the left DM, but EEG findings were normal. The patient had prominent anterograde memory deficits: she hardly remembered what she had done the very same day, or the names of the doctor and hospital. She also demonstrated a retrograde amnesia of the past decade or two: she showed difficulty recalling either personal history or social events that occurred during this era. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R) revealed a total IQ of 75 (verbal IQ 77; performance IQ 77). The verbal hallucinations continued with frequent occurrence even after admission. They included voices telling her about misfortunes, such as death or sickness, of her relatives. These turned into threats and commands, such as \"I'm gonna kill ya. I attack you from behind. You, do not eat!\" In addition, she occasionally experienced \"third person auditory hallucination\", in which several men were discussing the plan to kill her. As is characteristic of this type of case, the hallucinations always appeared in only her right ear. They did not occur in the other modalities (e.g. as a visual one). She was convinced that the hallucinations were real and looked frightened while they were happening. Whereas the anterograde amnesia continued for 6 months after admission, the retrograde amnesia gradually improved within 2 or 3 months after admission, although a partial amnesia on the past decade eventually turned out to persistent. On the other hand, the hallucinations did not ameliorate satisfactorily with risperidone (3-6 mg/day), but on augmentation with olanzapine (5-20 mg/day), they lessened gradually and almost disappeared within 6 months. She also slowly developed symptoms similar to those of frontal lobe syndrome, i.e., aspontaneity and apathy. In conclusion, our case indicates the importance of DM on memory function. It is noteworthy that schizophrenia-like hallucinations developed in the case. Localized neuronal deficits evoked by infarction in the left DM probably caused the schizophrenia-like hallucinations; the lateralization phenomenon further indicates the involvement of specific neuronal mechanisms in the mediation of the hallucinations. According to the knowledge of the functional anatomy of the DM and the lateralization phenomenon of auditory hallucinations, it is possible that the neuronal loop, comprised of the prefrontal cortex and thalamus, designated as \"basal ganglia-thalamocortical circuits\", in addition to the left temporal cortex, plays an important role in the development of the hallucinations in this case. This possibility might also shed light on the neurological basis of schizophrenia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0043_9122", "title": "[A case of frontal lobe epilepsy presenting with recurrent speech arrest].", "score": 0.009317935462353039, "content": "We report a 55-year-old right-handed man with frontal lobe epilepsy manifesting recurrent speech arrest. He was known to have hypertension, hypertriglyceridemia, and gout. In the three days prior to admission, he had episodes of sudden inability to talk. These episodes lasted 10 to 30 seconds and recurred ten to twenty times a day. On admission, speech comprehension and other mental functions were normal, as were findings on neurologic examination. During the period of speech arrest, he understood spoken commands, and there was no abnormal motor activity or paresis. The episodes of speech arrest were thought to be short aphasic periods due to transient ischemic attacks in the left carotid territory. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a small calcified lesion in the upper medial portion of the left frontal lobe. Left internal carotid angiography demonstrated no abnormal findings. After neuroradiological examination finished, he suddenly raised his right hand and followed it with his gaze and a right head turn. The EEG seizure pattern in which 20-25 Hz activity began in the left fronto-central region and spread rapidly to the right fronto-central region, which after about 8 seconds was replaced by 12-14 Hz flattening rhythmic polyspikes was detected 9 times within 60 minutes. It is most unusual for supplementary motor area seizure to present pure paroxysmal speech arrest without accompanying paroxysmal motor activity. As in our case, epileptic arrest of speech may be confused with a transient ischemic attack of the dominant hemisphere." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1145_22180", "title": "Successful multiple burr hole openings for limb-shaking transient ischemic attack due to moyamoya disease: illustrative case.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Limb-shaking transient ischemic attacks (LS-TIAs) are a rare form of TIAs that present as involuntary movements of the limbs and indicate severe cerebral hypoperfusion. LS-TIAs are often reported in patients with carotid artery stenosis but can also affect patients with intracranial artery stenosis and moyamoya disease (MMD). A 72-year-old woman presented with repeated episodes of involuntary shaking movements of the right upper limb. Cerebral angiography revealed complete occlusion of the M1 segment of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA), and the left hemisphere was supplied by moyamoya vessels. She was treated with left direct revascularization without complications, and her involuntary movements subsided. However, she demonstrated involuntary shaking movements of the right lower limb 2 months postoperatively. Cerebral angiography revealed complete occlusion of the A1 segment of the left anterior cerebral artery (ACA). The multiple burr hole opening (MBHO) procedure was performed to improve perfusion in the left ACA territory and after 3 months, the patient's symptoms resolved. This case demonstrated that LS-TIAs can also develop as ischemic symptoms due to MMD. Moreover, instances of LS-TIA of the upper and lower limbs developed separately in the same patient. The patient's symptoms improved with direct revascularization and MBHO." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 98, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 32 ] ], "text": "At no time are atypical cellular features mentioned, so we can safely rule out tumor lesions," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 246, 335 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 56 ] ], "text": "we would have to opt for IMMATURE TERATOMA, mentioning the presence of embryonic remains." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 246, 335 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 56 ] ], "text": "we would have to opt for IMMATURE TERATOMA, mentioning the presence of embryonic remains." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 98, 191 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 32 ] ], "text": "At no time are atypical cellular features mentioned, so we can safely rule out tumor lesions," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Teratocarcinoma.", "2": "Immature teratoma.", "3": "Mature cystic teratoma.", "4": "Dysgerminoma.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0721_21912", "title": "Malignant transformation of ovarian mature cystic teratoma with a predominant pulmonary type small cell carcinoma component.", "score": 0.016359508547008548, "content": "A 68-year-old woman was diagnosed with mature cystic teratoma of the left ovary when she was 44 years old. The tumor recently enlarged rapidly, and abdominal magnetic resonance imaging revealed an intrapelvic cystic lesion, which measured 123 × 120 × 107 mm and contained a mural nodule. Under a clinical diagnosis of malignant transformation of mature cystic teratoma, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with total hysterectomy and omentectomy were performed. The resected specimen showed a unilocular cystic lesion containing a well-demarcated mural nodule measuring 35 × 30 × 25 mm in the left ovary. A microscopic examination revealed various types of carcinoma in the mural nodule: pulmonary type small cell carcinoma (65%), adenocarcinoma (25%), squamous cell carcinoma (5%), and transitional cell carcinoma (5%). Small cell carcinoma was positive for CD56, synaptophysin, and chromogranin A. The adenocarcinoma component showed intestinal phenotypes; i.e. cytokeratin (CK) 7(-), CK20(+), CDX2(+), estrogen receptor(-), and progesterone receptor (-). Interestingly, CDX2 positivity was retained in all of the carcinomas. It was assumed that the adenocarcinoma had arisen from an intestinal epithelium in the mature cystic teratoma and then differentiated into the diverse histological types mentioned above." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0622_6174", "title": "Adenocarcinoma arising from the respiratory ciliated epithelium in a benign cystic teratoma of the ovary.", "score": 0.015458707414233903, "content": "Benign cystic teratoma of the ovary (BCTO) is the most common benign ovarian tumor, accounting for 15-20% of all ovarian tumors. It is usually diagnosed in the third and fourth decades of life. Malignant transformation is rare, occurring in approximately 1-2% of reported cases, with squamous cell carcinoma being the most common form. Adenocarcinoma arising from mature cystic teratoma is extremely rare. We present the patient with a BCTO, where a malignant transformation of respiratory ciliated epithelium resulted in well differentiated adenocarcinoma. Although respiratory epithelium is often found in BCTOs, adenocarcinoma arising from this cell type is uncommon. To our knowledge, this is the fourth reported case of adenocarcinoma arising from the respiratory epithelium of a BCTO." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0902_19530", "title": "Ovarian Teratoma in Routine Biopsy Material During a Five-Year Period.", "score": 0.015164147993746744, "content": "Teratomas are tumors derived from germ cells, most frequently arising in the gonads. The aim of this study was to determine the number of ovarian teratomas diagnosed in the routine biopsy material at Ljudevit Jurak Clinical Department of Pathology, Sestre milosrdnice University Hospital Center during a 5-year period, as well as their clinical, gross and microscopic characteristics. Teratomas accounted for 48.6% (n=166) of primary ovarian tumors. The patient mean age was 34.74±12.37 years. Difference in the incidence of teratoma between the left and right ovary was not significant; bilateral teratoma was found in 13 patients. Teratomas were detected by ultrasonography in 115 (69.27%) cases and the rest were found during surgery performed for other indications. Most teratomas (n=161; 96.9%) were mature and cystic (dermoid cysts). Mature and solid teratomas were diagnosed in 5 (3.01%), ovarian struma in 2 (1.8%) cases and strumal carcinoid in 1 (1.2%) case. Mature cystic teratomas contained sebaceous material in 123 (76.8%) cases, and a total of 16 teeth were found; 157 (94.5%) teratomas measured &lt;10 cm in largest diameter. Microscopically, mature cystic teratomas most frequently contained ectodermal (skin with appendages, mature glia and nerve ganglia) and mesodermal (fi brous, fat tissue, cartilage and bone) tissues. Frequently found tissues of endodermal origin were respiratory and intestinal epithelia. Small foci of thyroid tissue were found in 20 (12%) teratomas. Chronic granulomatous foreign body reaction in the wall of mature cystic teratomas was found in 11 (6.8%) tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0352_14243", "title": "[Malignant transformation of thyroid tissue in an ovarian dermoid cyst: case report].", "score": 0.015038444142921756, "content": "Mature cystic teratoma is the most common type of ovarian teratomas and also the most frequent tumor originating from germ cells. Usually unilateral, it is, by definition, composed of well-differentiated derivates which originate from all three layers. It is most frequently diagnosed in the female reproductive period; in its pure form, it is generally benign, but occasionally it may undergo malignant transformation in one of its elements. The authors report a case of a 43-year-old woman who underwent a thyroid regulation substitutive therapy 12 years after thyroidectomy which had been performed because of Basedow's disease. On the occasion of her fourth delivery by cesarean section, bilateral cystical formations in both ovaries were found. Upon ending the delivery, the right ovary with the cyst was surgically removed, as well as part of the cystically changed left ovary. The pathohistological analysis of the samples taken from the left ovary cyst pointed to the following diagnosis: dermoid cyst of the ovary a mature cystic teratoma, whereas the samples from the cystic tumor of the right ovary were diagnosed as: ovarian teratoma malignant a papillary carcinoma of the thyroid tissue and cystadenoma papillare serosum ovarii. The histological type of the malignant thyroid tissue neoplasm in the teratoma was a papillary carcinoma consisting of papillary proliferations lined by cuboidal, cylindrical and pseudostratified epithelium with charasteristic \"ground glass\" nuclei, but without invasion into the blood vessels. Malignant transformation of the ectopic thyroid tissue, which is one of the elements of the ovarian cystic teratoma, is extremely rare: it is diagnosed on basis of the histological picture and criteria which are the same as for the tumor of the thyroid gland. One should not exclude a pssibility that the identical or different pathological alterations characteristic of the thyroid gland may also be detected in the ectopic thyroid tissue of a dermoid cyst. The reported case was chosen due to its complex and rich clinical and pathohistological picture characterized by the occurrence of a bilateral dermoid cyst with the malignant transformation of the thyroid tissue. The malignant neoplasm in the mature ovarian cystic teratoma was papillary carcinoma of the thyroid tissue with all histological properties typical for the thyroid gland carcinoma. The possibility of the malignant transformation of the endodermal thyroid tissue in the mature ovarian cystic teratoma and changes in the thyroid gland of the Basedow's disease type diagnosed before are without clear causation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1138_23523", "title": "Well-differentiated cerebellum in an ovarian mature cystic teratoma: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.014998314796090328, "content": "Mature teratoma is the most common germ cell tumor as it represents 95% of germ cell tumors. Although common in children and young adults, ovarian teratoma can occur at any age. Mature teratomas are composed of mature tissues representing elements derived from more than one embryonic germ layer (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm), with ectodermal derivatives being the usual predominant component; however, the finding of a well-differentiated cerebellum is extremely rare. A 20-year-old Saudi female presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain of 1-day duration. Pelvic ultrasound showed a large ovoid- to bilobed-shaped cystic pelvic structure extending to the lower abdomen. The patient underwent left ovarian cystectomy. Microscopic examination showed a cyst wall with skin tissue, including adnexal structures (sebaceous glands), a well-differentiated cerebellum, and mature glial tissue. After extensive sampling, no immature component was identified. Thus, the final diagnosis of a mature cystic teratoma with well-differentiated cerebellum was established. The patient was well postoperatively and was discharged in a stable condition. We report this case of well-differentiated cerebellum within ovarian teratoma to expand the pool of cases reported in literature of this extremely rare entity, as only 22 cases with such findings have been reported in literature to the best of our knowledge. This finding poses a diagnostic challenge to the pathologist due to its rarity and its similarity to immature teratoma. We thus emphasize that thorough sampling of ovarian teratoma is of paramount importance and to keep the aforementioned diagnosis in mind and not confuse it with immature elements, especially in intraoperative consultation and frozen sections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0572_20287", "title": "A case of concomitant occurrence of struma ovarii and malignant transformation of cystic teratoma.", "score": 0.014550656012627011, "content": "A 77-year-old woman received a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy because of a tumor in the left ovary. The surgical specimen measured 8.5x4.5x4.0 cm, and the solid lesion measured 4.0x3.5x3.5 cm. The solid lesion was diagnosed as struma ovarii. The cyst wall partially comprised squamous epithelium-like and ciliated columnar epithelium-like cells. The tumorous lesion of the cyst wall revealed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemically, the tumor cells were positive for cytokeratin7, and were negative for cytokeratin20 and thyroid transcription factor-1. The authors diagnosed that struma ovarii and other parats coexisted as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma that had arisen from a mature ovarian cystic teratoma. As for the identification of the origin of adenocarcinomas arising from mature ovarian cystic teratomas, more cases need to be identified and investigated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0820_11369", "title": "Mature cystic teratoma of the fallopian tube in a postmenopausal woman: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.01432252948756071, "content": "Background. Mature cystic teratomas of the fallopian tube are extremely rare and only 54 cases have been reported in the literature. In this paper, we report a mature cystic teratoma of the fallopian tube in a postmenopausal woman and we report the review of literature of tubal cystic teratomas. Case. A 62-year-old, gravida 4 postmenopausal woman presented with pain in the right lower abdominal region for a long time. An 88 × 72 × 95 mm heterogeneous mass which contained calcifications and lipoid components was detected in the right adnexal region by transvaginal ultrasonogram (TV-USG). Serum tumour markers, namely, CA125, CA15-3, and CA19-9, were within normal range. A laparotomy revealed a 9 × 10 cm cystic mass within the fimbrial region in the right fallopian tube, and right salpingoopherectomy was performed consequently. Microscopic examination revealed squamous epithelium with sebaceous glands and hair follicles, and pseudostratified ciliated respiratory epithelium with cartilage and mucous glands. Because the frozen section resulted in a benign dermoid cyst, no further operative procedure was performed. The postoperative follow-up was uneventful and the patient was discharged on the second postoperative day. Conclusion. In cases of undetermined pelvic or abdominal masses, a teratoma of the fallopian tube should be considered. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0555_19922", "title": "A case of ovarian mature cystic teratoma presenting as a pedunculated ileal tumor.", "score": 0.01427616501145913, "content": "We report on a 34-year-old Japanese woman who presented with a pedunculated ileal tumor and who was finally diagnosed as having a right ovarian mature cystic teratoma penetrating and protruding into the ileum. She had undergone laparoscopic left ovarian cystectomy, whose specimen was diagnosed as dermoid cyst when she was 27 years old. The colon fiberscope revealed an ileal polyp, diagnosed as mature teratoma. Because of adhesion to the necrotic nodule between the tumor and the right ovary, ileocecal resection and right ovarian cystectomy were performed. The ileal tumor contained tissues of skin, neuroglia, ganglion, choroid, retina, smooth muscle, as well as fibrous and adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, mucous epithelium, and bronchial structures with bronchial glands. The necrotic nodule showed abscess, granulation tissue, foreign body reaction, hairs, normal ileal epithelium, and the ovary with ovums." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_56033", "title": "Teratoma", "score": 0.014066951566951567, "content": "Malignant transformation A \"benign\" grade 0 (mature) teratoma nonetheless has a risk of malignancy. Recurrence with malignant endodermal sinus tumor has been reported in cases of formerly benign mature teratoma, even in fetiform teratoma and fetus in fetu. Squamous cell carcinoma has been found in a mature cystic teratoma at the time of initial surgery. A grade 1 immature teratoma that appears to be benign (e.g., because AFP is not elevated) has a much higher risk of malignancy, and requires adequate follow-up. This grade of teratoma also may be difficult to diagnose correctly. It can be confused with other small round cell neoplasms such as neuroblastoma, small cell carcinoma of hypercalcemic type, primitive neuroectodermal tumor, Wilm's tumor, desmoplastic small round cell tumor, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0602_9674", "title": "Adenocarcinoma arising from respiratory ciliated epithelium in benign cystic teratoma of the ovary: a case report with analyzes of the CT, MRI, and pathological findings.", "score": 0.01368047539652003, "content": "The malignant transformation of mature cystic teratoma is rare, thus occurring in only 1-2% of all cases. The most common malignancy arising in mature cystic teratoma is squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma occurs with less frequency. We herein present a patient with an ovarian mature cystic teratoma who demonstrated a malignant transformation to well-differentiated adenocarcinoma. Malignant transformation was diagnosed preoperatively by contrast enhanced computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Microscopically and immunohistochemically, the adenocarcinoma was considered to have arisen from the ciliated respiratory epithelium. After a 28-month of follow-up period, she remains free of the disease. This is the third reported case of adenocarcinoma arising in the respiratory epithelium of an ovarian mature cystic teratoma. Contrast enhanced CT and MRI are useful for making a preoperative diagnosis and an immunohistochemical study is helpful for defining its origin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0787_21579", "title": "[Pelvic retroperitoneal teratoma. A case report].", "score": 0.013036093418259023, "content": "Teratomas are congenital tumors comprising of tissues arising from pluripotent embryonic cells. Their common sites of occurrences are ovary, testis, mediastinum and retroperitoneum. Retroperitoneal teratomas are extremely rare in adults but occur in 3% of children. The presence of a cystic or complex adnexal mass during pregnancy is common with mature teratoma reported in approximately 30-50% of pregnancies. The ultrasound is the number one method of detection. The use of tumor markers is limited because it alters its value during pregnancy. We report a case of a 18 year old female patient who came to the General Hospital Dr. Miguel Silva in Morelia, Michoacán with a gestation age of 10.2 weeks and a recent diagnosis of an asymptomatic adnexal mass. Using the transvaginal approach, the ultrasound reported an irregular gestational sac with the absence of cardiac activity in the embryo. A diffusely echogenic adnexal mass with oval appearance, wall regularity and homogeneous internal echos of 12.96 x 8.99 cm. Exploratory laparotomy was performed finding normal uterus and ovaries, with the posterior retroperitoneal resection of the 15 cm multi-lobed tumor. The surgical specimen measured 13 x 12 x 8 cm, had a brownish color, wall irregularity, soft consistency, multi-lobed, and a yellowish interior greasy material. Microscopically the tumor is delimited with a firm capsule composed of a hyaline-fibrous tissue, lined by squamous keratinized epithelium, with multiple layers of keratin. This anato-pathologic finding is diagnostic of retroperitoneum mature teratoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_65513", "title": "Ovarian cancer", "score": 0.012598519226176259, "content": "Immature, or solid, teratomas are the most common type of ovarian germ cell tumor, making up 40–50% of cases. Teratomas are characterized by the presence of disorganized tissues arising from all three embryonic germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm; immature teratomas also have undifferentiated stem cells that make them more malignant than mature teratomas (dermoid cysts). The different tissues are visible on gross pathology and often include bone, cartilage, hair, mucus, or sebum, but these tissues are not visible from the outside, which appears to be a solid mass with lobes and cysts. Histologically, they have large amounts of neuroectoderm organized into sheets and tubules along with glia; the amount of neural tissue determines the histologic grade. Immature teratomas usually only affect one ovary (10% co-occur with dermoid cysts) and usually metastasize throughout the peritoneum. They can also cause mature teratoma implants to grow throughout the abdomen in a disease" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_23573", "title": "Immature teratoma", "score": 0.012400990099009902, "content": "An immature teratoma is a teratoma that contains anaplastic immature elements, and is often synonymous with malignant teratoma. A teratoma is a tumor of germ cell origin, containing tissues from more than one germ cell line, It can be ovarian or testicular in its origin. and are almost always benign. An immature teratoma is thus a very rare tumor, representing 1% of all teratomas, 1% of all ovarian cancers, and 35.6% of malignant ovarian germ cell tumors. It displays a specific age of incidence, occurring most frequently in the first two decades of life and almost never after menopause. Unlike a mature cystic teratoma, an immature teratoma contains immature or embryonic structures. It can coexist with mature cystic teratomas and can constitute of a combination of both adult and embryonic tissue. The most common symptoms noted are abdominal distension and masses. Prognosis and treatment options vary and largely depend on grade, stage and karyotype of the tumor itself." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en574_16633", "title": "Ovarian germ cell tumors", "score": 0.012036064425770307, "content": "Teratomas Teratoma are most common germ cell tumor of ovary. Teratomas can be divided into two types: mature teratoma (benign) and immature teratoma (malignant). Immature teratomas contain immature or embryonic tissue which significantly differentiates them from mature teratomas as they carry dermoid cysts. It is commonly observed in 15 to 19-year-old women and rarely in women after menopause. Immature teratomas are characterized with a diameter of 14–25 cm, encapsulated mass, cystic areas, and occasional appearance of hemorrhagic areas. The stage of immature teratomas is determined depending on the amount of immature neuroepithelium tissue detected. Yolk sac tumor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0600_18102", "title": "[Benign mature teratomas of the mediastinum].", "score": 0.011798512508451656, "content": "Mature teratomas of the mediastinum are rare. However, they represent the most common mediastinal germ cell tumours. The aim of this study is to describe their clinical and pathological characteristics. Fourteen cases of mediastinal mature teratoma, diagnosed between January 1992 and December 2006, were reviewed retrospectively, noting the clinical, radiological, surgical, and pathological findings. The patient population consisted of 10 females and 4 males with mean age of 29 years (5-56 years). Chest pain was the main symptom. Imaging features comprised a heterogeneous anterior mediastinal mass containing soft-tissue, fluid, fat, or calcium attenuation, or any combination of the four. Macroscopically all the tumours were cystic, or predominantly cystic, containing mostly grumous material. The mean size was 9 cm (5-12 cm). Histological examination constantly revealed skin with or without appendages. Other components identified were bronchial mucosa (12 cases), fat (12 cases), muscle (10 cases), cartilage (8 cases), bone (7 cases), gastrointestinal mucosa (7 cases), pancreas (5 cases), urothelial epithelium (3 cases), nervous and prostatic tissues (one case each). All the teratomas were mature, and 7 of them were intrathymic. Every form of teratoma occurs in the mediastinum (mature, immature and with malignant transformation) but, in our study, they were exclusively mature. The histology is essentially similar to that of teratomas of gonads. However, pancreatic tissue occurs frequently in mediastinum (54% in literature, 25% in our study) but not in the gonads. On the other hand, thyroid follicles have not yet been seen in mediastinal teratomas." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_99046", "title": "Dermoid cyst", "score": 0.011349802408555428, "content": "A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature, solid tissues. It frequently consists of skin, hair follicles, and sweat glands, while other commonly found components include clumps of long hair, pockets of sebum, blood, fat, bone, nail, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue. As dermoid cysts grow slowly and contain mature tissue, this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign. In those rare cases wherein the dermoid cyst is malignant, a squamous cell carcinoma usually develops in adults, while infants and children usually present with an endodermal sinus tumor. Location Due to its classification, a dermoid cyst can occur wherever a teratoma can occur. Vaginal and ovarian dermoid cysts" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_23575", "title": "Immature teratoma", "score": 0.01059572006940428, "content": "Ovarian cancer is staged using the FIGO staging system and uses information obtained after surgery, which can include a total abdominal hysterectomy via midline laparotomy, unilateral (or bilateral) salpingo-oophorectomy, pelvic (peritoneal) washings, assessment of retroperitoneal lymph nodes and/or appendectomy. The AJCC staging system, identical to the FIGO staging system, describes the extent of tumor (T), the presence of absences of metastases to lymph nodes (N), the presence or absence of distant metastases (M). Pathology An immature teratoma contains varying compositions of adult and embryonic tissue. The most common embryonic component identified in immature teratomas is the neuroectoderm. Occasionally, tumors may present neuroepithelium that resemble neuroblasts. Tumors may also present embryonic components such as immature cartilage and skeletal muscle of mesodermal origin. Immature teratomas composed of embryonic endodermal derivatives are rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0541_8717", "title": "[Laparoscopic extirpation of retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst is an extremely rare anomaly. During the examination of an 18-year-old female patient due to her extreme thinness, the abdominal ultrasound and later the CT indicated as an accidental finding--a left side adrenal/suprarenal adenoma, which turned out to be hormonally inactive. But while we were doing a laparoscopic surgical intervention we found a 6-8-cm cyst in the retroperitoneum, between the greater curvature and the spleen. It contained light grey, mucinous liquid. The left suprarenal gland had normal size and appearance. During the microscopic examination the removed terime showed cystic structures, which were covered inside with multilayer ciliated columnar epithelium, mucous excretory glands, a whole layer of connective/interstitial and smooth muscle tissue. Neither cartilage, nor gastrointestinal epithelium was found. Only a few publications have reported about retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst so far. These lesions occur very rarely at the greater curvature. Although this alteration is really unusual, bronchogenic cysts have to be expected in the differential diagnostics of the retroperitoneal tumors." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_56020", "title": "Teratoma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Types Mature teratoma A mature teratoma is a grade 0 teratoma. They are highly variable in form and histology, and may be solid, cystic, or a combination of the two. A mature teratoma often contains several different types of tissue such as skin, muscle, and bone. Skin may surround a cyst and grow abundant hair (see dermoid cyst). Mature teratomas generally are benign, with 0.17-2% of mature cystic teratomas becoming malignant. Immature teratoma Immature teratoma is the malignant counterpart of the mature teratoma and contains immature tissues which typically show primitive or embryonal neuroectodermal histopathology. Immature teratoma has one of the lowest rates of somatic mutation of any tumor type and results from one of five mechanisms of meiotic failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0043_4765", "title": "Pulmonary blastoma. Comparison between its epithelial components and fetal bronchial epithelium.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Three cases of pulmonary blastoma exhibiting biphasic epithelial and stromal patterns, and a case of fetal lung-type adenocarcinoma, were examined by immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy (EM) and compared with fetal bronchial epithelium in order to explore the multidirectional differentiation of their epithelial components. The glandular cells of all four tumors resembled fetal bronchial epithelial cells in the pseudoglandular stage. Neuroendocrine (NE) cells were also present; they were argyrophilic and expressed pan-NE markers, neurosecretory granules and peptide hormones. The neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM) was strongly expressed on the cell membranes of glandular cells, as in the case of proximal bronchial epithelial cells at the pseudoglandular stage in fetal lung. Sialosylated Lewis X was also expressed, indicating that the epithelial cells were possibly of endodermal origin. Two of the four cases showed considerable immunoreactivity for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). The epithelial cells of pulmonary blastomas may occasionally de-differentiate into cells functionally resembling fetal hepatic, foregut and yolk sac cells expressing AFP. Tumor examination by immunohistochemistry and EM suggested that the glandular cells of the tumors may differentiate to some extent like those of fetal large bronchi at the pseudoglandular stage, but there was concordance and discordance in the expression of neuroendocrine and oncofetal markers between blastomatous tumors and fetal bronchial epithelium." }, { "id": "Pathology_Robbins_4347", "title": "Pathology_Robbins", "score": 0.009681818181818182, "content": "Benign (mature) cystic teratomas are marked by the presence of mature tissues derived from all three germ cell layers: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. Usually these tumors contain cysts lined by epidermis replete with adnexal appendages—hence the common designation dermoid cysts. Most are discovered in young women as ovarian masses or are found incidentally on abdominal radiographs or scans because they contain foci of calcification produced by toothlike structures contained within the tumor. About 90% are unilateral, with the right side more commonly affected. Rarely do these cystic masses exceed 10 cm in diameter. On cut section, they often are filled with sebaceous secretion and matted hair that, when removed, reveal a hair-bearing epidermal lining ( Fig. 19.18 ). Sometimes there is a nodular projection from which teeth protrude. Occasionally, foci of bone and cartilage, nests of bronchial or gastrointestinal epithelium, or other tissues are present." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_44842", "title": "International Classification of Diseases for Oncology", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "M9064/3 Germinoma Germ cell tumor, NOS M9065/3 Germ cell tumor, nonseminomatous M9070/3 Embryonal carcinoma, NOS Embryonal adenocarcinoma M9071/3 Yolk sac tumor Endodermal sinus tumor Polyvesicular vitelline tumor Orchioblastoma Embryonal carcinoma, infantile Hepatoid yolk sac tumor M9072/3 Polyembryoma Embryonal carcinoma, polyembryonal type M9073/1 Gonadoblastoma Gonocytoma M9080/0 Teratoma, benign Adult cystic teratoma Adult/cystic teratoma, NOS Teratoma, differentiated Mature teratoma M9080/1 Teratoma, NOS Solid teratoma M9080/3 Teratoma, malignant, NOS Embryonal teratoma Teratoblastoma, malignant Immature teratoma, malignant or NOS M9081/3 Teratocarcinoma Mixed embryonal carcinoma and teratoma M9082/3 malignant teratoma, undifferentiated Malignant teratoma, anaplastic M9083/3 Malignant teratoma, intermediate M9084/0 Dermoid cyst, NOS Dermoid, NOS" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0547_18353", "title": "[Bronchogenic cyst of the tongue].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Bronchogemc cyst is a rare aberration secondary to abnormal detachment of accessory lung buds from the primitive foregut. Through one case of bronchogenic cyst of the tongue, the authors made a review of this exceptional localisation. We report one case of bronchogenic cyst of the tongue treated in the Ibn Sina Hospital. Our patient was a new born admitted in our formation for a voluminous cystic mass ot the tongue, responsible of difficulty for mouth occlusion and feeding The radiology I confirms the liquid nature of this mass. The treatment was surgical, and the diagnosis of bronchogenic cyst was histological. Bronchogenic cysts are generally intrathoracic. The localization in the cervico-facial area is rare, and only 4 cases of bronchogenic cyst of the tongue were described in the literature. The clinical presentation is non specific, depending on the volume of the cyst. Radiology permits to confirm the nature of the mass. The certitude diagnosis is histological: bronchogenic cysts are lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with accessory tissues in the cyst wall, smooth muscle, seromucinous glands and cartilage, simulating a bronchus. Complete surgical excision is the base of the treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1069_8899", "title": "Primary Mature Teratoma of the Rectum: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "BACKGROUND Teratomas are embryonal neoplasms that contain tissues derived from 1 or more of the 3 germ layers. They commonly are found in the sacrococcygeal-gonadal location, sometimes in midline locations such as the mediastinum, retroperitoneum, and head and neck region. Primary rectal teratomas are extremely rare. Extragonadal teratomas can originate from pluripotent germ cells present in abnormal embryonic rests. CASE REPORT Here, we report a rare case of a primary mature, solid teratoma of the rectum. A 68-year-old woman presented with hematochezia and denied any history of abdominal pain or a change in bowel habits. Colonoscopy revealed a 4-cm pedunculated polyp in the rectum. No hair was present on its surface. The polyp was completely removed by polypectomy. Histologically, the tumor consisted of mature components from all 3 germ layers. Its surface was covered by squamous epithelium with hair follicles and sweat glands. Adipose tissue, blood vessels, bone, and glandular epithelium were present inside the mass. No evidence was found of immature elements or malignant features. CONCLUSIONS When polypoid lesions are found in the rectum, teratoma should be considered in the differential diagnosis. Histopathological confirmation is necessary to diagnose teratoma. Primary rectal teratomas should be distinguished from other neoplastic polyps as well as from local spread of teratomas arising in adjacent organs. These neoplasms are usually mature (benign) but may undergo malignant transformation. Therefore, complete resection is recommended to alleviate symptoms and avoid the risk of malignancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_2919", "title": "[Mature cystic teratoma of the ovary with a small ganglioneuroma].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A case of ganglioneuroma arising within a cystic mature teratoma of the ovary in a 34-year-old woman is reported. Patient underwent right adnexectomy. The ovary was completely replaced by a bilocular cystic lesion, measuring 8 cm in diameter and filled with adipose tissue and pilosebaceous material. Microscopically the cyst was composed by a mature cystic teratoma containing skin with dermal appendages, fatty tissue and bronchial epithelium. Furthermore a nodule (0.5 cm in size) composed of mature ganglion cells, axons and Schwann cells, was identified. Ganglion cells were positive for NSE and synaptophysin, while Schwann cells stained positively with S100 protein and GFAP. To the best of our knowledgment this is the first reported cases of ganglioneuroma arisen within a cystic mature teratoma of the ovary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1132_5448", "title": "Clinicopathological observation of mature teratoma with malignant transformation, a single center retrospective study.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To investigate the clinicopathological features of mature teratoma with malignant transformation. Retrospectively analysis of 1179 cases mature teratoma was done from August 1999 to December 2019 in Institution. 14 cases of mature teratoma with malignant transformation were discussed mainly for the pathological characteristics and clinical manifestations. 4 of them were less than 40 years old. All but one occurred in the ovaries, and the one was in the left anterior mediastinum which was the only male. The clinical manifestations of the patients were atypical. Imaging showed cystic solid mass. Surgery was performed. Polypoid mass, solid nodule and thickened area of cyst wall can be seen on the section of tumor. Pathological results show that there were 5 cases of squamous cell carcinoma, 3 cases of carcinoid, 2 cases of serous carcinoma and 2 cases of thyroid papillary carcinoma, 1 case of carcinosarcoma and 1 case of strumal carcinoid. Two cases of squamous cell carcinoma had pelvic and abdominal metastasis. Immunohistochemistry of case 14 showed that AE1/AE3, CD56, SYN, NSE, PSAP, CDX2 were positive in carcinoid. EMA and CK20 were positive in mucinous glands around carcinoid. Calretinin and inhibin were positive in the mesenchyme adjacent to intestinal mucinous gland. Teratoma with malignant transformation is a rare malignancy, although teratoma is a common germ cell tumor. And it's more common in patients over 40 years, especially those patients who were in menopause. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type and prone to metastasis. Strumal carcinoid was well-defined, but as an endocrine tumor, it may cause a series of digestive, respiratory or hormonal disorders. Therefore, the mature teratomas should be removed in time after detection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0016_922", "title": "[Mature benign teratomas with malignant tumors and malignant monodermal ovarian teratomas. Anatomo-clinical presentation of 10 cases].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The clinicopathologic features are presented of 8 malignant neoplasms occurring in adult teratomas, and of 2 malignant monodermal teratomas found in a continuous series of 1029 cases of ovarian adult teratomas. The age of the patients was 44--76 years. The first 8 observations included 6 epidermoid carcinomas, 1 undifferentiated carcinoma and 1 strumal carcinoid. In the epidermoid carcinomas malignancy was recognized peroperatively only in three instances. One tumor had infiltrated the broad ligament on one side and another the urinary bladder. The neoplasm appeared as a mass which thickened the wall of a typical dermoid cyst. Four patients died of the tumor from 3 months to 1 year after operation; one is alive more than 19 years later and one is lost to follow-up. The crucial factor in prognosis is the integrity of the ovarian capsule. The undifferentiated carcinoma, which had infiltrated the pelvic walls, could only be incompletely resected and caused death within 3 1/2 months. The strumal carcinoid was discovered by chance during laparotomy for a far-advanced adenocarcinoma of the pancreas which led to death within 2 months. The two cases of malignant monodermal teratoma comprised 1 thyroid papillary carcinoma and 1 carcinoid. Both patients are alive more than 8 and 5 years after operation. The carcinoid manifested itself by persistant diarrhea which ceased soon after operation and did not recur subsequently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0724_11860", "title": "A bronchogenic cyst, presenting as a retroperitoneal cystic mass.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Bronchogenic cysts are mostly benign, congenital abnormalities originating from the remnants of the primitive foregut. A retroperitoneal location is rare. Due to the mostly asymptomatic behavior and the historical confusion regarding histology, an exact prevalence is not known. We present here a case report of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst. A literature review was performed for cases of retroperitoneal bronchogenic cysts written in English. Anatomopathological criteria for inclusion were pseudo stratified, ciliated, columnar epithelium together with the presence of at least one of the following: cartilage, smooth muscle or seromucous glands. In addition, the embryology, pathogenesis, radiological, clinical and suggested treatment modalities are reviewed. We report the surgical excision of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst that presented as a non-functioning left adrenal mass. Our review of literature revealed only 62 potential cases of retroperitoneal bronchogenic cysts. After applying the strict anatomopathological criteria, only 30 cases of true retroperitoneal bronchogenic cysts could be identified. Retroperitoneal location of a bronchogenic cyst is rare. Despite the rarity of this pathologic entity, bronchogenic cysts should be considered in the differential diagnosis of retroperitoneal cystic lesions. Only histology can confirm definitive diagnosis. Surgery remains the recommended treatment of choice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_4036", "title": "Retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst: a case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Bronchogenic cysts are among developmental disorders of the primitive foregut which are typically found above the diaphragm. Bronchial cysts discovered in the abdominal cavity or retroperitoneum are extremely rare. We present a rare case of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst which was incidentally detected after a wrestling injury in a 23-year-old man who had a negative medical history. Although initial imaging studies suggested an adrenal tumor, histopathological analysis provided a definite diagnosis of bronchogenic cyst. Though rare, bronchogenic cysts must be considered in the differential diagnosis of retroperitoneal cystic lesions. This is the first case of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst reported in Iran. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_56024", "title": "Teratoma", "score": 0.009137182910547395, "content": "Regardless of whether fetus in fetu and fetiform teratoma are one entity or two, they are distinct from and not to be confused with ectopic pregnancy. Struma ovarii A struma ovarii (also known as goitre of the ovary or ovarian goiter) is a rare form of mature teratoma that contains mostly thyroid tissue. Epignathus Epignathus is a rare teratoma originating in oropharyngeal area that occurs in utero. It presents with a mass protruding from the mouth at birth. Untreated, breathing is impossible. An EXIT procedure is the recommended initial treatment. Signs and symptoms Teratomas may be found in babies, children, and adults. Teratomas of embryonal origin are most often found in babies at birth, in young children, and, since the advent of ultrasound imaging, in fetuses." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_65518", "title": "Ovarian cancer", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Histologically, embryonal carcinoma appears similar to the embryonic disc, made up of epithelial, anaplastic cells in disorganized sheets, with gland-like spaces and papillary structures. Polyembryoma Polyembryomas, the most immature form of teratoma and very rare ovarian tumors, are histologically characterized by having several embryo-like bodies with structures resembling a germ disk, yolk sac, and amniotic sac. Syncytiotrophoblast giant cells also occur in polyembryomas. Squamous cell carcinoma Primary ovarian squamous cell carcinomas are rare and have a poor prognosis when advanced. More typically, ovarian squamous cell carcinomas are cervical metastases, areas of differentiation in an endometrioid tumor, or derived from a mature teratoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_11241", "title": "[Bronchogenic cyst: a rare cause of a retroperitoneal mass].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Bronchogenic cysts are developmental abnormalities of the primitive foregut which typically occur in the lung. Subdiaphragmatic and, especially, retroperitoneal locations are rare. The histopathological definition consists of the presence of ciliated epithelium together with cartilage or bronchial mucous glands. We report on a 49-year-old patient with the incidental finding of a large cystic mass between the diaphragm and the stomach. Imaging studies suggested an adrenal tumour. Surgical resection and postoperative follow-up were uneventful. Histological examination revealed the surprising diagnosis of a bronchogenic cyst. Bronchogenic cysts must be considered in the differential diagnosis of retroperitoneal cystic lesions. Regardless of being asymptomatic most of the time, surgical resection is recommended to obtain definitive histological diagnosis and avoid future complications." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 448, 496 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 88 ] ], "text": "Option 1 is ruled out: it is not a complete AVB." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 497, 596 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 88, 105 ] ], "text": "Option 2 cannot be answered either: to exclude, what is said to exclude... It is like never/always." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 597, 812 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 105, 141 ] ], "text": "Option 3 does not make much sense: we could suspend those that impair conduction (beta-blockers, calcium antagonists), but drugs that facilitate, as long as we do not give him a perfusion of atropine to take home..." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 813, 1044 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 141, 182 ] ], "text": "In option 4, stating that he has sinoatrial block is a bit of a rap: without an electrophysiological study it cannot be said, he does not necessarily have SA block, and this alone would not indicate the implantation of a pacemaker." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "The patient has a third-degree AVB and requires pacemaker implantation.", "2": "The absence of periods of asystole >3 seconds excludes a cardiac cause of dizziness.", "3": "Drug treatment to increase conduction in the AV node would be indicated.", "4": "The patient presents sinus dysfunction with sinoatrial block and requires pacemaker implantation due to symptoms.", "5": "The alterations detected in the ambulatory electrocardiogram are typical of patients of this age and there is no indication for therapeutic intervention." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0131_3652", "title": "[Clinical and electrophysiological aspects of median intra-His bundle block with normal electrocardiogram at rest].", "score": 0.016057203788496517, "content": "The clinical and electrophysiological features and the natural history of median intra-His block with a normal resting electrocardiogram were studied: 11 patients had a fixed split H1-H2 potential with a spontaneous or induced block between H1 and H2. The patients (5 men and 6 women) were aged 17 to 70 years (average 53 years). Associated pathology included 2 cases of aortic stenosis (1 severe), 1 case of ischaemic heart disease (effort angina), 1 case of mitral valve prolapse and 2 cases of hypertension. The presenting symptoms were syncope (4 cases), dizziness (2 cases), effort angina (1 case) and tiredness (3 cases); 1 patient was asymptomatic. Holter monitoring (24 hours) was performed in 8 patients and s-owed paroxysmal conduction defects in 6 cases; 4 Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block, 1 3rd degree AV block with narrow QRS complexes and 1 case of blocked atrial extrasystoles at coupling intervals longer than 480 ms and sinus cycle lengths of over 800 ms. Exercise testing by bicycle ergometry (4 patients) was normal in 1 case and revealed Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block in 3 cases. Baseline electrophysiological studies showed an A-H1 interval ranging from 60 to 100 ms (average 78 ms), a H1-H2 interval of 20 to 40 ms (average 31 ms) and a H2-V interval of 30 to 50 ms (average 32 ms). Block between H1 and H2 was observed: \"spontaneously\" during electrophysiological investigation in 6 cases, after IV atropine in 1 case, during overdrive atrial pacing at rates slower than 150/min in 7 cases, after atrial extrastimulus with a functional intra-His refractory period of over 420 ms in 7 cases, after ajmaline in 3 of the 4 cases in which this test was performed. A cardiac pacemaker was implanted in 10 patients in whom the initial symptoms have all regressed; the remaining patient considered to be \"epileptic\" had another syncopal attack under therapy and was finally paced. This series demonstrates that the diagnosis of median intra-His block depends on precise electrophysiological criteria and should be looked for even when the presenting symptoms are atypical; some of our patients complained only of tiredness. The value of Holter monitoring and careful endocavitary investigation is emphasised. Median intra-His block should be distinguished from longitudinal and functional His bundle dissociation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0205_7906", "title": "Usefulness of 24-hour recordings of electrocardiogram for the diagnosis and treatment of arrhythmias with special reference to the determination of indication of artificial cardiac pacing.", "score": 0.01568133691981915, "content": "Twenty-four-hour recordings of electrocardiogram (ECG) were obtained from 1528 subjects. Sick sinus syndrome (SSS) was observed in 34 and advanced or complete AV block (CAVB) in 13 subjects. During the period studied 21 patients had died, who showed complicated ventricular premature contractions in 9 (multiform 6, short run 2, repetitive 2). Seventy-three patients with artificial cardiac pacing who were admitted at three different institutions were analyzed. The discrepancy of degree of block was observed between His bundle electrocardiographic findings and 24-hour ECG recordings. In 15 patients there was no correlation between sinus node recovery time following overdrive suppression and pauses following the termination of tachycardia (r = 0.0896, N. S.). In 49 normal subjects 24-hour heart rate ranged from a high of 170 to a low of 36 beats/min. Longest R-R interval ranged from 2.08 to 0.86 sec (mean 1.25 +/- 0.22 sec). The critical level of longest R-R interval to differentiate between normal group and groups with SSS or CAVB was about 1.6 sec. Above results suggest that Holter monitoring permits a precise diagnosis of arrhythmias and that both HBE and Holter monitoring should be used for the determination of pacemaker implantation especially in those with syncope or dizziness but without evidence of marked bradycardia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_15472", "title": "Third-degree atrioventricular block", "score": 0.013917054356038013, "content": "Third-degree atrioventricular block (AV block) is a medical condition in which the nerve impulse generated in the sinoatrial node (SA node) in the atrium of the heart can not propagate to the ventricles. Because the impulse is blocked, an accessory pacemaker in the lower chambers will typically activate the ventricles. This is known as an escape rhythm. Since this accessory pacemaker also activates independently of the impulse generated at the SA node, two independent rhythms can be noted on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The P waves with a regular P-to-P interval (in other words, a sinus rhythm) represent the first rhythm. The QRS complexes with a regular R-to-R interval represent the second rhythm. The PR interval will be variable, as the hallmark of complete heart block is the lack of any apparent relationship between P waves and QRS complexes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_84777", "title": "Bradycardia", "score": 0.013817065287653522, "content": "The third, sick sinus syndrome, covers conditions that include severe sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, sinus arrest, and bradycardia-tachycardia syndrome (atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia). Atrioventricular junction An AV-junctional rhythm, or atrioventricular nodal bradycardia, is usually caused by the absence of the electrical impulse from the sinus node. This usually appears on an electrocardiogram (ECG) with a normal QRS complex accompanied with an inverted P wave either before, during, or after the QRS complex." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0131_7960", "title": "[Syncopes and brief spells of feeling faint: value of Holter monitoring?].", "score": 0.013401149933657673, "content": "A retrospective study of Holter monitoring of 250 patients referred for syncope and short spells of dizziness suspected of being cardiac in origin was undertaken to assess the diagnostic value of the investigation. The arrhythmias observed were classified in 3 groups, significant, suspect and physiological with respect to their true or potential severity and to previously reported results of Holter monitoring in healthy subjects. The following arrhythmias were classified as significant: supraventricular tachycardia with a ventricular rate greater than or equal to 200 bpm; sustained ventricular tachycardia (greater than 30 s and greater than or equal to 150 bpm), bradycardia (less than bpm), sinus arrest (waking greater than 2 s sleeping greater than or equal to 6 s), complete AV block with wide QRS complexes and pacemaker dysfunction. The following arrhythmias were classified as suspect: paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia with a ventricular rate less than 200 bpm, salvos of ventricular tachycardia (120 greater than 150 bpm); R/T phenomenon and doublets (greater than or equal to 50/24 hours), sinus arrest of 2 to 6 seconds during sleep, complete AV block with narrow QRS complexes or second degree Mobitz II block. This classification led to a diagnosis of certitude in 20 patients (5.7%) with significant arrhythmias concomitant with syncope or a minor form in only 5 cases, supraventricular tachycardia (4 cases), ventricular tachycardia (4 cases), AV block (5 cases), sinus arrest (3 cases), pacemaker dysfunction (4 cases); a diagnosis of presumption in 74 patients (21.1%) with suspect arrhythmias in the absence of syncope or minor equivalent.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_51965", "title": "Atrioventricular block", "score": 0.013180827886710239, "content": "Diagnosis An electrocardiogram, or ECG, is used to differentiate between the different types of AV block. In AV block, there is a disruption between the signal traveling from the atria to the ventricles. This results in abnormalities in the PR interval, as well as the relationship between P waves and QRS complexes on the ECG tracing. If the patient is symptomatic from their suspected AV block, it is important that an ECG is also obtained while having symptoms. Physicians may also order a continuous ECG (i.e. Holter monitor or implanted cardiac monitor) to monitor the patient for symptoms and conduction abnormalities over a longer period of time, as AV blocks can be intermittent. Because some types of AV block can be associated with underlying structural heart disease, patients may also undergo echocardiogram to look at the heart and assess the function." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_84779", "title": "Bradycardia", "score": 0.012381567614125753, "content": "Ventricular Idioventricular rhythm, also known as atrioventricular bradycardia or ventricular escape rhythm, is a heart rate of less than 50 BPM. This is a safety mechanism when a lack of electrical impulse or stimuli from the atrium occurs. Impulses originating within or below the bundle of His in the AV node will produce a wide QRS complex with heart rates between 20 and 40 BPM. Those above the bundle of His, also known as junctional, will typically range between 40 and 60 BPM with a narrow QRS complex. In a third-degree heart block, about 61% take place at the bundle branch-Purkinje system, 21% at the AV node, and 15% at the bundle of His. AV block may be ruled out with an ECG indicating \"a 1:1 relationship between P waves and QRS complexes.\" Ventricular bradycardias occurs with sinus bradycardia, sinus arrest, and AV block. Treatment often consists of the administration of atropine and cardiac pacing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en143_33001", "title": "Sinoatrial arrest", "score": 0.012356159215242406, "content": "Sinoatrial arrest is a medical condition wherein the sinoatrial node of the heart transiently ceases to generate the electrical impulses that normally stimulate the myocardial tissues to contract and thus the heart to beat. It is defined as lasting from 2.0 seconds to several minutes. Since the heart contains multiple pacemakers, this interruption of the cardiac cycle generally lasts only a few seconds before another part of the heart, such as the atrio-ventricular junction or the ventricles, begins pacing and restores the heart action. This condition can be detected on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a brief period of irregular length with no electrical activity before either the sinoatrial node resumes normal pacing, or another pacemaker begins pacing. If a pacemaker other than the sinoatrial node is pacing the heart, this condition is known as an escape rhythm. If no other pacemaker begins pacing during an episode of sinus arrest it becomes a cardiac arrest. This condition is" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_65056", "title": "Sinus node dysfunction", "score": 0.01219649915302089, "content": "Diagnosis Electrocardiogram The primary 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) finding in sinus node dysfunction is inappropriate sinus bradycardia. Sinus node dysfunction can also present with sudden sinus arrest with or without junctional escape, sinoatrial block, prolonged asystolic period followed by tachycardias, or tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome presenting as various atrial arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation, flutter, tachycardia, or paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_5496", "title": "Second-degree atrioventricular block", "score": 0.012157522247915352, "content": "Type 2 (Mobitz II/Hay) Type 2 Second-degree AV block, also known as Mobitz II, is almost always a disease of the distal conduction system (His-Purkinje System). Mobitz II heart block is characterized on a surface ECG by intermittently non conducted P waves not preceded by PR prolongation and not followed by PR shortening. There is usually a fixed number of non-conducted P waves for every successfully conducted QRS complex, and this ratio is often specified in describing Mobitz II blocks. For example, Mobitz II block in which there are two P waves for every one QRS complex may be referred to as 2:1 Mobitz II block.:181 The medical significance of this type of AV block is that it may progress rapidly to complete heart block, in which no escape rhythm may emerge. In this case, the person may experience a Stokes-Adams attack, cardiac arrest, or sudden cardiac death. The definitive treatment for this form of AV Block is an implanted pacemaker." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en170_785", "title": "Concealed conduction", "score": 0.01209828853479264, "content": "Concealed conduction is tissue stimulation without direct effect, but leading to a change in conduction characteristics. A common example would be an interpolated PVC (a type of premature ventricular contraction) during normal sinus rhythm; the PVC does not cause an atrial contraction, because the retrograde impulse from the PVC does not completely penetrate the AV node. However, this AV node stimulation can cause a delay in subsequent AV conduction by modifying the AV node's subsequent conduction characteristics. Hence, the P-R interval after the PVC is longer than the baseline P-R interval. Another variation on this concept is seen in atrial flutter. As a result of the rapid atrial rate, some of the atrial activity fails to get through the AV node in an antegrade direction but can alter the rate at which a subsequent atrial impulse is conducted. In this circumstance, an alteration in the F-wave to QRS relationship is seen. See also Atrioventricular node Electrocardiogram" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_15481", "title": "Third-degree atrioventricular block", "score": 0.01205080545229244, "content": "Complete atrioventricular block in acute myocardial infarction should be treated with temporary pacing and revascularization. Complete atrioventricular block caused by hyperkalemia should be treated to lower serum potassium levels and patients with hypothyroidism should also receive thyroid hormone. If there is no reversible cause, the clear treatment of complete atrioventricular block is mostly permanent pacemaker placement. Prognosis The prognosis of patients with complete heart block is generally poor without therapy. Patients with 1st and 2nd-degree heart block are usually asymptomatic. See also Cardiac pacemaker Electrical conduction system of the heart Electrocardiogram (ECG) Atrioventricular block First-degree AV block Second-degree AV block References External links Cardiac arrhythmia Medical emergencies" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_15480", "title": "Third-degree atrioventricular block", "score": 0.011886758211844414, "content": "Treatment Early treatment of atrioventricular blockade is based on the presence and severity of symptoms and signs associated with ventricular escape rhythm. Hemodynamically unstable patients require immediate medication and in most cases temporary pacing to increase heart rate and cardiac output. Once the patient is hemodynamically stable, a potentially reversible cause should be evaluated and treated. If no reversible cause is identified, a permanent pacemaker is inserted. Most stable patients have persistent bradycardia-related symptoms and require identification and treatment of any reversible cause or permanent implantable pacemaker. Reversible causes of complete AV block should be ruled out before the insertion of a permanent pacemaker, such as drugs that slow heart rate and which induce hyperkalemia. Complete atrioventricular block in acute myocardial infarction should be treated with temporary pacing and revascularization." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0041_7310", "title": "Value of Holter monitoring in assessing cardiac arrhythmias in symptomatic patients.", "score": 0.010908551949014376, "content": "Holter electrocardiographic monitoring in 55 symptomatic patients with syncope, palpitations or dizziness uncovered significant arrhythmias in 30 patients (55 percent). By providing an observation period of at least 24 hours including a period of sleep, the procedure aided detection and diagnosis in both symptomatic and asymptomatic patients of transient arrhythmias or conduction abnormalities not documented by routine electrocardiograms. Bradyarrhythmias accounted for the majority of arrhythmias recorded in 21 or 30 symptomatic patients (70 percent); 15 had sinus bradycardia (35 to 55 beats/min) alone and 6 also had long episodes of sinus arrest of up to 5 seconds. Two had sinus bradycardia with periods of atrioventricular block with Wenckebach phenomenon. Five patients had a tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome; three had other episodic arrhythmias and one had pacemaker failure. In 15 (60 percent) of the 25 patients without arrhythmias, monitoring did not document the cause of symptoms. Holter monitoring is of considerable value in assessing the efficacy and adequacy of drug treatment, especially in patients with known heart disease, and in detecting pacemaker malfunction. However, very long periods of monitoring may be needed to make a diagnosis in those with only sporadic symptoms." }, { "id": "article-17827_22", "title": "Arrhythmias -- Clinical Significance -- Tachyarrhythmia", "score": 0.009862682828644272, "content": "b) Second Degree AV Block: Further classified into Mobitz I block, where there is a progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a skipped beat, and Mobitz II block, where there is a randomly dropped QRS complex on an EKG. Sign & Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, dizziness, palpitations, weakness, syncope. EKG Findings: Mobitz type I shows progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex or dropped beat. Mobitz type II has randomly dropped QRS complexes. Management: Pacemaker is indicated in symptomatic Mobitz I and all of Mobitz II heart block. c) Third Degree or complete AV Block Mechanism: Lack of conduction of atrial impulse to ventricle leading to independent contractions. Sign & Symptoms: Profound bradycardia, hypotension, and can lead to asystole and cardiac arrest. EKG Findings: Bradycardia, P waves occur independently of QRS and Wide QRS for ventricular rhythm. Management: Pacemaker placement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en068_44933", "title": "Premature atrial contraction", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Diagnosis Premature atrial contractions are typically diagnosed with an electrocardiogram, Holter monitor, or cardiac event monitor. Electrocardiogram On an electrocardiogram (ECG), PACs are characterized by an abnormally shaped P wave. Since the premature beat initiates outside the sinoatrial node, the associated P wave appears different from those seen in normal sinus rhythm. Typically, the atrial impulse propagates normally through the atrioventricular node and into the cardiac ventricles, resulting in a normal, narrow QRS complex. However, if the atrial beat is premature enough, it may reach the atrioventricular node during its refractory period, in which case it will not be conducted to the ventricle and there will be no QRS complex following the P wave." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_3238", "title": "[Values of the effective anterograde refractory period of the bundle of His].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The effective refractory period of the His bundle (ERP.H), the longest H1, H2 interval not followed by a V2 ventricular complex, was measured in 45 cases during the electrophysiological investigation of 500 Patients by premature atrial stimulation techniques. The patients were divided into two groups according to the result: Group I: 22 patients with syncope, a spontaneous HV interval greater than 60 ms, greater than 100 ms after Ajmaline or infrahisian block with atrial pacing at less than 150 bpm. Group II: 23 patients without these abnormalities. The ERP.H was significantly different (p less than 0,001) in the two groups with valves greater than 400 ms in Group I and less than 400 ms in Group II. It is suggested that in the absence of other electrophysiological abnormalities an ERP.H of 400 ms or over may be an indication for permanent pacing in patients with Stokes-Adams attacks. The finding of an ERP.H of over 400 ms is associated with severe infrahisian block. However, the ERP.H depends on the ERP of the AV node which must be shorter to calculate the refractory periods of the His bundle, and, above all, on the basal sinus cycle. The ERP.H decreases with shorter sinus cycles and cannot be calculated when the sinus cycle is less than 600 ms. Conversely, the critical value of 400 ms is not valid for cycles longer than 1000 ms as cycles of that length are associated with lengthening of the ERP.H. The regression of infrahisian block during programmed atrial pacing after Atropine does not seem to be a reliable method of distinguishing between physiological and pathological atrioventricular block." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0687_22370", "title": "Permanent atrial standstill with irregular junctional ectopic rhythm mimicking atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We present an interesting case of 'pseudo' atrial fibrillation which was further diagnosed as atrial standstill with irregular junctional ectopic rhythm during electrophysiologic study. A 56-year-old woman presented to a health facility with symptoms of palpitation, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Upon detection of irregular rhythm with narrow QRS complexes and no visible P waves on the electrocardiogram, newly developed atrial fibrillation was considered and a direct current cardioversion was performed, during which cardiac asystole developed necessitating cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The patient was then transferred to our institution. Echocardiographic examination showed biatrial dilatation, normal left ventricular systolic function, marked left ventricular hypertrophy, severe aortic stenosis, moderate mitral regurgitation, and severe tricuspid regurgitation. The electrocardiogram showed an irregular rhythm with narrow QRS complexes without any fibrillatory f waves and 24-hour Holter monitoring revealed three episodes of ventricular asystole lasting for more than 3.5 seconds. During the electrophysiologic study, no electrical activity was observed at the high and low levels of the right atrial lateral free wall and septal wall. The final diagnosis was established as atrial standstill and irregular junctional ectopic rhythm. The patient refused aortic valve replacement and died due to progression of the underlying disease one year following permanent pacemaker implantation.." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0215_13695", "title": "Electrophysiologic testing in bundle branch block and unexplained syncope.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Thirty-two patients with bundle branch block and unexplained syncope underwent electrophysiologic testing, including programmed ventricular stimulation with up to triple extrastimuli. The infranodal conduction time (HV) was 70 ms or greater in 12 patients. Pathologic infranodal block during atrial pacing occurred in 2 patients. Unimorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) was induced in 9 patients (28%) and polymorphic VT in 5 (16%). A permanent pacemaker was implanted in patients with infranodal block during atrial pacing and, generally, in patients with an HV of 70 ms or more. Patients with inducible unimorphic or sustained polymorphic VT were treated with an antiarrhythmic drug. The mean follow-up period was 19 +/- 14 months (+/- standard deviation). Three patients died suddenly: a noncompliant patient with inducible sustained VT; a patient with a normal electrophysiologic study treated empirically with quinidine for premature ventricular complexes; and a patient with an HV of 70 ms and no inducible VT treated with a permanent pacemaker. The actuarial incidence of sudden death was 10% at 45 months of follow-up. Only 2 patients had recurrent syncope; both had a normal electrophysiologic study. Approximately 50% of patients with bundle branch block and unexplained syncope who undergo electrophysiologic testing are found to have a clinically significant abnormality (HV of 70 ms or more, infranodal block during atrial pacing and inducible unimorphic VT), and some patients have more than 1 abnormality. Long-term management guided by the results of electrophysiologic testing generally is successful in preventing recurrent syncope.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0125_8527", "title": "Prevalence and prognostic significance of cardiac arrhythmias detected by ambulatory electrocardiography in subjects 85 years of age.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "24 hour ambulatory electrocardiography was performed in a representative group of people born in 1897. Out of 73 people included in the study, 22 were without known heart disease, 15 had definite ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and 36 symptoms of possible cardiac origin. An R-R interval in excess of 2000 ms was seen in only 3 subjects and Wenckebach A-V block in only one. One subject without a history of syncope had a nocturnal episode of complete A-V block with an escape interval of 8000 ms. The most striking difference between healthy subjects and patients with IHD was the higher number of patients with more than 1000 ventricular premature beats (VPBs) per 24 hour and ventricular couplets compared with the number of healthy subjects with such findings. At follow-up two years later 11% had died, with the highest mortality in patients with IHD (33%), and out of 8 patients with IHD who had more than 1000 VPBs per 24 hour, 4 (50%) had died compared with only one (14%) of those with less than 1000 VPBs. Our results seem to indicate that more than 1000 VPBs per 24 hour is a very unusual finding in healthy 85 year old individuals. When it occurs in very old people, it is usually in connection with IHD, and in this setting it signifies a poor prognosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_51958", "title": "Atrioventricular block", "score": 0.009588744588744588, "content": "Classification There are three types, or degrees, of AV block: (1) first-degree, (2) second-degree, and (3) third-degree, with third-degree being the most severe. An ECG is used to differentiate between the different types of AV blocks. However, one important consideration when diagnosing AV blocks from ECGs is the possibility of pseudo- AV blocks which are due to concealed junctional extrasystoles. It is important to diagnose AV-blocks precisely because unnecessary pacemaker placement in patients with pseudo-AV blocks can worsen symptoms and create complications. First-degree atrioventricular block First-degree AV block occurs when there is a delay, but not disruption, as the electrical signal moves between the atrium and the ventricles through the AV node. On ECG, this is defined by a PR interval greater than 200 msec. Additionally, there are no dropped, or skipped, beats. Second-degree atrioventricular block" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0881_12554", "title": "Mechanism of syncope without prodromes with normal heart and normal electrocardiogram.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "\"Unexplained syncope, no prodromes, and normal heart\" has been described as a distinct clinical and biological entity. The purpose of this study was to assess the mechanism of syncope. In this prospective multicenter study, 58 patients presenting with unexplained syncope, no prodromes, and a normal heart received an implantable loop recorder (ILR) and were followed up until a diagnosis was established. Their outcomes were compared with those of 389 patients affected by reflex syncope with prodromes who received an ILR. During a mean observation period of 16 ± 13 months, a diagnostic event was documented by the ILR in 29 patients (50%); an asystolic pause of 11 ± 5 seconds (range 3.5-22 seconds) was present at the time of the diagnostic event in 19 patients (66%). Compared with patients affected by reflex syncope with prodromes, patients with unexplained syncope, no prodromes, and a normal heart more frequently had an asystolic syncope (66% vs 47%; P = .001), and this was more frequently due to idiopathic paroxysmal atrioventricular block (47% vs 21%; P = .04). Ten patients with asystolic pauses underwent cardiac pacing, and 8 patients underwent oral theophylline treatment. During the subsequent 17 ± 12 months of follow-up, syncope recurred in 1 patient on theophylline and presyncope occurred in 1 patient with pacemaker. A long asystolic pause, frequently due to idiopathic paroxysmal atrioventricular block, played a role in the mechanism of syncope in two-thirds of patients who had electrocardiographic documentation of a diagnostic event. When a specific therapy was administered in patients with asystolic syncope, the short outcome was favorable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_14996", "title": "[Syncope in bradycardic cardiac arrhythmias].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Bradyarrhythmias, depending on the patient population, are the cause of syncope in 3 to 10%. Marked bradycardia or asystole can be due to impaired function of the sinus node (sinus node syndrome) or high-grade AV-conduction block as well as carotid sinus syndrome and pathologic vasodepressor reactions. In particular, in the presence of high-grade AV-block, the diagnosis of bradyarrhythmia-induced syncope can frequently be established on the basis of a standard ECG. One of the most common causes of syncope is functional impairment of the sinus node, in particular, an inadequate permanent sinus bradycardia, sinus node arrest or SA-block and paroxysmal atrial tachycardia alternating with atrial bradycardia. The method of choice for detecting suspected paroxysmal arrthythmias is ambulatory ECG monitoring but interpretation may be encumbered by the absence of concomitant symptoms during the registration. Frequently, the use of non-invasive methods alone, such as detailed history, ambulatory ECG and ECG exercise testing, will not render confirmatory findings to document the cause of syncope, that is, &gt; 3 s pause in sinus rhythm or high-grade AV-block. In this situation, the question arises which patients should undergo electrophysiologic examination. Several studies have shown that in patients with a pathologic resting ECG (first degree AV-block, bundle branch block, inadequate sinus bradycardia) and cardiac disease, electrophysiologic studies will document a cause of syncope in more than 30%.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en077_27762", "title": "Ventricular escape beat", "score": 0.009493006993006993, "content": "Diagnosis An electrocardiogram can be used to identify a ventricular escape beat. The QRS portion of the electrocardiogram represents the ventricular depolarisation; in normal circumstances the QRS complex forms a sharp sudden peak. For a patient with a ventricular escape beat, the shape of the QRS complex is broader as the impulse can not travel quickly via the normal electrical conduction system. Ventricular escape beats differ from ventricular extrasystoles (or premature ventricular contractions), which are spontaneous electrical discharges of the ventricles. These are not preceded by a pause; on the contrary they are often followed by a compensatory pause. Management Cilostazol Third degree AV block can be treated with Cilostazol which acts to increase Ventricular escape rate Ouabain Ouabain infusion decreases ventricular escape time and increases ventricular escape rhythm. However, a high dose of ouabain can lead to ventricular tachycardia. References Cardiac arrhythmia" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0539_8623", "title": "Cardiac arrhythmias: diagnosis and management. The bradycardias.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To review the diagnosis and management of cardiac arrhythmias in a two-part presentation. Articles and published peer-review abstracts on tachycardias and bradycardias. Bradycardias are caused by a failure of the sinus node to generate normal impulses or due to a defect in cardiac conduction that in turn causes a delay or failure of impulse propagation. During sleep, the heart rate may decrease to 30 beats per minute (bpm) with episodes of sinoatrial block, junctional rhythms and first and second degree atrioventricular block that occur often enough (particularly in trained athletes) to be considered normal variants. However, treatment is required if symptoms of dizziness, confusion, fatigue Stokes-Adams attacks or heart failure occur. Sinus node dysfunction or 'sick sinus syndrome' is usually caused by intrinsic nodal disease and may present with episodes of tachycardia and bradycardia (tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome). Treatment usually requires a permanent pacemaker. Atrioventricular (AV) conduction disturbances are characterised by a delay or failure of the atrial impulse to be conducted through the AV conducting system. If the escape rhythm is unstable the patient also requires a pacemaker. In the critically ill patient tachycardias are more often encountered than bradycardias. However, the intensivist should be familiar and skilled in the management of complete heart block and asystole, correcting the underlying defect (drug toxicity, hyperkalaemia, etc), while using catecholamines, atropine aminophylline and a temporary pacemaker for initial resuscitation. Bradycardias are uncommon in the critically ill patient and often are caused by an underlying disorder (e.g. hyperkalaemia, calcium channel blocker toxicity, beta adrenergic receptor blocker toxicity, etc). However, post cardiac bypass and acute myocardial infarction may cause cardiac conduction defects that may require urgent resuscitation with a temporary pacemaker." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0319_7392", "title": "[Dynamic electrophysiological examination of heart in patients with sick sinus syndrome in continuous pacing].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Dynamic electrophysiological examination of the heart with allowances for ECG variants of this syndrome and stimulation regimen was performed to predict the results of continuous pacing in patients operated for sick sinus syndrome (SSS). 32 patients had the diagnosis of bradycardia SSS (group 1), 15 patients--bradytachycardia (group 2). 30 patients were on ventricular VVI stimulation, 17 patients--on atrial AAI stimulation. Electrophysiological examination of the heart was performed by means of transesophageal left atrial pacing under programmed, frequent and ultrafrequent stimulation 1, 2, 3 and 4 years after the start of continuous cardiac pacing. In group 2 depression of the sinus function (corrected time of the sinus function recovery, frequency of spontaneous pacemaker, duration of poststimulation pause) under pacing was more distinct than in group 1. Deterioration of atrioventricular conduction was greater in group 1. Three and four years after pacing the Wenckebach point in group 1 lay significantly lower than in group 2. Within the follow-up period 6 (12.8%) patients developed AB-block of the second degree. 4 patients of them were from group 1. Arrhythmogenic atrial readiness depended on the kind of cardiac affection more than on stimulation regimen. Dynamic electrophysiological cardiac examination in the presence of pacing allows following up of natural course of sick sinus syndrome and early correction of the stimulation regimen." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_15165", "title": "A proposal of clinical ECG index \"vagal score\" for determining the mechanism of paroxysmal atrioventricular block.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Paroxysmal atrioventricular block (P-AVB) is a well-known cause of syncope; however, its underlying mechanism is difficult to determine. This study aimed to evaluate a new ECG index, the \"vagal score (VS),\" to determine the mechanism of P-AVB. We evaluated the VS in 20 patients with P-AVB (13 men, 7 women; aged 25-78 years [mean, 59.3 years]). The VS was developed by assigning 1 point each for the following: (1) no AVB or intraventricular conduction disturbance on the baseline ECG, (2) PR prolongation immediately before P-AVB, (3) sinus slowing immediately before P-AVB, (4) initiation of P-AVB by PP prolongation, (5) sinus slowing during ventricular asystole, and (6) resumption of AV conduction with PP shortening, and by assigning -1 point each for (7) the initiation of P-AVB by a premature beat, and (8) resumption of AV conduction by an escape beat. Based on the clinical situations and electrophysiologic findings, we considered the mechanism of P-AVB as vagally mediated or intrinsic conduction disease (ICD). The VS ranged from 5 to -2 points for each patient. Five patients with a definite vagally mediated P-AVB had high VSs (3-5 points). We observed characteristic ECG findings of ICD consisting of changes in AV conduction by an extrasystole and/or escape beat in only 5 of the 6 patients (83%) with a low VS (1 to -2). The VS is simple and potentially useful for determining the mechanism of P-AVB. P-AVB with a VS ≥3 strongly suggested a vagally mediated mechanism." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_95045", "title": "First-degree atrioventricular block", "score": 0.009262435677530018, "content": "Causes The most common causes of first-degree heart block are AV nodal disease, enhanced vagal tone (for example in athletes), myocarditis, acute myocardial infarction (especially acute inferior MI), electrolyte disturbances and medication. The medications that most commonly cause first-degree heart block are those that increase the refractory time of the AV node, thereby slowing AV conduction. These include calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers, cardiac glycosides, and anything that increases cholinergic activity such as cholinesterase inhibitors. Diagnosis In normal individuals, the AV node slows the conduction of electrical impulses through the heart. This is manifest on a surface electrocardiogram (ECG) as the PR interval. The normal PR interval is from 120 ms to 200 ms in length. This is measured from the initial deflection of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0063_3233", "title": "[Evaluation of the PR intervals in normal and prolonged maximum limit with short QRS].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Evaluation of the A-V node function by determining the Wenckebach period (WP) and atropine response in cases of normal PR interval, PR interval at maximum normal range and prolonged PR interval, all with short QRS. 129 patients, 79 male and 50 female, aged 17 to 84 years (mean 59), asymptomatic or with complaints of palpitations, dizziness, presyncope or syncope has been studied. ECG showed supra-ventricular tachycardia, first degree A-V block or intermittent Mobitz I type A-V block and sick sinus syndrome. Preexcitation (WPW) syndrome and longitudinal A-V dissociation were excluded. Electrical transoesophageal atrial stimulation was performed in all patients for evaluating the PR interval and WP. Atropine test was performed in a group of 16 patients. Based on the values of the WP, patients were divided into three groups: group I, WP greater than or equal to 125 ppm (N = 88); group II, WP ranging 125-110 ppm (N = 16) and group III, WP less than or equal to 110 ppm (N = 25). There was a good decreasing lineal correlation between the PR interval and the WP only in the group III (r = 0.76, p less than 0.01). PR interval greater than 240 ms had greatest and significant incidence in the group III in relation to the other groups in which the number of WP post-atropine normalization was observed. There is a strong linear decreasing correlation between the PR interval of the ECG and the WP in individuals with WP less than or equal to 110 ppm. PR interval greatest than 0.24 ms corresponds better to WP below 110 ppm (mean 90 ppm) and the majority of these patients do not normalize the WP with the atropine. We suggest the term \"first degree A-V block\" for those cases with PR interval greater than 240 ms and \"A-V depression\" for the cases with PR interval shorter than 240 ms when recorded on the surface electrocardiogram and have been normalized with atropine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_381", "title": "Significance of ventricular pauses of three seconds or more detected on twenty-four-hour Holter recordings.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The natural history of patients with asymptomatic prolonged ventricular pauses and the indications for permanent pacing are controversial. To examine this problem, 6,470 consecutive 24-hour Holter recordings were reviewed between 1979 and 1983 for the presence of ventricular pauses of at least 3 seconds. Fifty-two patients (0.8% of total), 22 men and 30 women, were identified with an average longest pause duration of 4.1 seconds. Holter recordings were requested to evaluate syncope in 14 patients (27%), dizziness in 9 (17%) and other reasons in 29 (56%). Causes of the pauses were sinus arrest in 22 patients, atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response in 18 patients and atrioventricular block in 12. Holter recordings were also evaluated for the presence of tachyarrhythmias. Six patients had nonsustained ventricular tachycardia and 7 had supraventricular tachycardia. Five of the 52 patients (10%) had dizziness or syncope during pauses. Twenty-six patients (50%) received permanent pacemakers. The paced (26 patients) and unpaced (26 patients) groups were similar in the length and etiology of pause, associated tachyarrhythmias, presence of bradycardia-related symptoms, prevalence of organic heart disease, medications and length of follow-up. Four patients in the paced group and 2 in the unpaced group died, yielding 3-year actuarial survival probabilities of 78% and 85%, respectively. It is concluded that ventricular pauses of 3 seconds or longer are uncommon, these pauses usually do not cause symptoms, and the presence of these pauses does not necessarily portend a poor prognosis or the need for pacing in asymptomatic patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_5499", "title": "Second-degree atrioventricular block", "score": 0.009128694581280787, "content": "2:1 AV block In the case of 2:1 block (2 P waves for every QRS complex) it is impossible to differentiate type I from type II Mobitz block-based solely on the P:QRS ratio or on a pattern of lengthening PR intervals.:182 In this case, a lengthened PR interval with a normal QRS width is most likely indicative of a type I-like pathology, and a normal PR interval with a widened QRS is most likely indicative of a type II-like pathology.:182 See also Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) SA node AV node Atrioventricular block First-degree AV block Third-degree AV block References External links Cardiac arrhythmia" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0013_8525", "title": "Diagnostic and prognostic value of intracardiac electrophysiological studies. Ten years of experience.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Ten years ago a clinical method of recording the electrical activity of the His bundle in man with transvenously inserted electrodes was described. His bundle recording has permitted the breakdown of the P-R interval into three conduction intervals, i.e., intraatrial (P-A), A-V nodal (A-H), and His-Purkinje system (H-V). His bundle studies have demonstrated our inability to accurately predict from the surface electrocardiogram the exact location of most A-V blocks. First- and second-degree A-V block can occur in the atrium, A-V node or His-Purkinje system, and third-degree A-V block in the A-V node or His-Purkinje system. However, Mobitz type II block almost always occurs below the A-V node. Intraventricular conduction defects, especially of the so-called bifascicular block, have a high incidence of H-V time prolongation, indicating additional disease of the third fascicle or the main His bundle. The prognostic value of a prolonged H-V time in patients with and without chronic conduction defects remains controversial, with some agreement that patients with unexplained syncope or dizziness, normal sinus rhythm and 1:1 conduction, who show prolonged H-V times, should probably be paced permanently. No long-term studies exist regarding the value of the H-V time in predicting death or A-V block in patients with conduction defects secondary to acute myocardial infarction, congenital heart disease or after cardiac surgery. Electrophysiological studies have been extremely useful in the diagnosis and management of patients with accessory pathways and in the evaluation of ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias. The most valuable test in diagnosing sinus node dysfunction is the sinus node recovery time. A clearly abnormal test in a patient with unexplained syncope or dizziness predicts an almost one hundred per cent relief of symptoms with permanent pacing." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 123 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 20 ] ], "text": "In a digital hypokratitis of recent onset in a smoking patient, the first option to rule out is bronchopulmonary carcinoma." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 124, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 29 ] ], "text": "Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 124, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 29 ] ], "text": "Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 124, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 20, 29 ] ], "text": "Other pathologies can also occur but not so suddenly." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Pulmonary carcinoma.", "2": "Bronchiectasis.", "3": "Pulmonary fibrosis.", "4": "Cyanotic heart disease.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1002_20528", "title": "Generalized emphysema and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in a farmer, non-smoker - the more we seek, the more we find.", "score": 0.013846438825599704, "content": "Although alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency represents one of the most common genetically conditioned diseases in the population of Caucasian adult individuals, it is rarely diagnosed. Alpha-1 antitrypsin is an important component of the anti-proteolytic protection in the lungs. Individuals affected by the protein deficiency are exposed to a higher risk of developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), emphysema or liver diseases. A 52-year-old farmer, non-smoker, spraying orchards since the age of 15 years, was admitted to the Department with dyspnea at rest and productive cough. He had a medical history of COPD, congestive heart failure, generalized emphysema of ten years' duration On admission the patient's general condition was satisfactory (fair). Physical examination showed symmetric expiratory wheezing over the upper and lower fields of the lungs with loss of vesicular murmur in the lower fields. Spirometry revealed a severe chronic bronchial obstruction, and an arterial blood gas test showed hypoxemia. Laboratory tests demonstrated an increased concentration of inflammatory markers. High resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the chest showed evidence of generalized emphysema, bronchiectasis and exacerbation of peribronchial inflammatory changes. Intensive anti-inflammatory, bronchodilator treatment and antibiotic therapy were implemented, which resulted in an optimal improvement of the patient's condition. Based on the whole clinical picture A1AT deficiency was suspected. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency, MZ phenotype, with 65 mg/dl concentration was diagnosed. Diagnostic tests for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency should always be considered in patients with emphysema or symptomatic COPD identified at an early age. In the described case the period between occurrence of clinical signs and establishing the diagnosis was ten years, which proves that there is a strong need to spread knowledge on A1AT among medical professionals. Otherwise, most of the patients will lose their chance of modifying their lifestyle or receiving proper treatment that could prevent the progression of changes in the lungs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en332_33600", "title": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease", "score": 0.013475058587211248, "content": "A CT scan is not routinely used except for the exclusion of bronchiectasis. An analysis of arterial blood is used to determine the need for oxygen supplementation, and assess for high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood; this is recommended in those with an FEV1 less than 35% predicted, those with a peripheral oxygen saturation less than 92%, and those with symptoms of congestive heart failure. WHO recommends that all those diagnosed with COPD be screened for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Differential diagnosis COPD may need to be differentiated from other conditions such as congestive heart failure, asthma, bronchiectasis, tuberculosis, obliterative bronchiolitis, and diffuse panbronchiolitis. The distinction between asthma and COPD is made on the basis of the symptoms, smoking history, and whether airflow limitation is reversible with bronchodilators at spirometry. Chronic bronchitis with normal airflow is not classified as COPD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0641_14356", "title": "[Prevalence and difficulties in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease diagnosis in patients suffering from severe peripheral arterial disease].", "score": 0.01302031302031302, "content": "Cigarette smoking is the most prominent risk factor for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Prevalence of COPD among cigarette smokers is about 23% in Poland. Effort dyspnea which develops in advanced stage of COPD is the leading cause of seeking medical advice. Physical activity among patients with PAD is reduced due to intermittent claudication. It may cause delayed COPD diagnosis in this group of patients. To estimate the prevalence of COPD among patients suffering from severe PAD who were hospitalized in surgery department due to critical limb ischemia and to evaluate difficulties during COPD diagnosis in this group of patients. We examined 64 patients suffering from severe PAD (at least IIb stage according to Fontaine's scale). Patients were asked about the typical symptoms of COPD: chronic cough, regular sputum production and dyspnea. To evaluate the intensity of dyspnea we used British Medical Research Council scale. Spirometry was performed to every patient. Patients with airways obstruction underwent spirometry after the administration of inhaled bronchodilator. Every patient who had the post-bronchodilator value of FEV,/FVC ratio below the lower limit of normal values was diagnosed with COPD. It was not possible to evaluate the dyspnea intensity using MRC scale in 44% of 34 patients who reported dyspnea. During the study we diagnosed 16 patients with COPD (9 pts had 1st stage of COPD according to GOLD classification, 7 pts--2nd). 9 patients had been formerly diagnosed with COPD (2 pts--1st stage, 5 pts--2nd, and 2 pts--3rd). Spirometry-defined COPD was present in 39% of study group. The analysis of data from patients with PAD coexistent COPD revealed that 60% of them were current cigarette smokers and 28% of them declared passive smoking exposure. The other known negative prognostic factors in patients with COPD such as BMI lower than 21 kg/mr2, FEV1% of predicted value below 65% and X-rays photograph visible emphysema were observed in 40%, 32% and 12% of patients with PAD and coexistent COPD respectively. Hypertension was present in 52% of patients with PAD and coexistent COPD, cardiac arterial disease in 52% and chronic heart failure due to cardiac arterial disease in 36%. Further analysis of laboratory tests revealed dyslipidemia and chronic kidney disease in 52% and 60% of these patients respectively. COPD diagnosis among patients suffering from severe PAD involves several difficulties such as uselessness of MRC dyspnea scale and frequent heart diseases which delay the COPD diagnosis being considered as primary dyspnea reason. Many factors which have been proven to be responsible for worse prognosis due to COPD were observed in patients with PAD and coexistent COPD. High prevalence of COPD among patients suffering from PAD suggests the spirometry as a COPD screening would be justified in that group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_11716", "title": "[A study of comorbidity in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease].", "score": 0.01194093339815265, "content": "The impact of the chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) severity on the number of exacerbations, and the interdependence of COPD and some concomitant diseases were studied in chronic pulmonary patients. In order to determine the actual influence of some risk factors and comorbidity on the course of COPD, we conducted a study in two family medicine consulting offices, one in the city of Split and the other on the island of Brac. This retrospective study included a sample of 64 subjects, mean age 64.43 years, divided into two groups of 32 subjects each (group 1 and group 2). After taking history data and clinical examination, spirometry was performed. The severity of COPD was determined on the basis of lung function tests. There were 15 (46.9%) smokers in group 1, seven of them former smokers, and 20 (65.6%) smokers in group 2, eight of them former smokers. The groups differed significantly according to the mean number of annual exacerbations (1.3 in group 1 and 2.4 in group 2; p &lt; 0.001). The frequency of exacerbations was higher in smokers and depended on the stage of COPD. If COPD was more severe, the exacerbations were more frequent and influenced the progression of irreversible functional changes on the lungs. Productive cough was more frequent in smokers. The correlation of concomitant diseases and degree of COPD was found in group 2 (hypertension, r = 0.305; p = 0.014). In group 1, there was correlation between patient age and concomitant disease (cardiac arrhythmias, r = 0.307; p = 0.013), whereas in group 2 it was significant in case of hypertension (r = 0.474; p &lt; 0.001) and cardiomyopathy (r = 0.301; p = 0.016). Cigarette smoke causes chronic inflammatory changes in the lungs. In our study, the number of patients suffering from persistent cough accompanied by sputum was higher in group 2, which also comprised of more smokers, but differences between smokers and non-smokers according to this characteristic were not statistically significant. Study groups differed significantly according to the number of COPD exacerbations per year (with more exacerbations in the group with more smokers). In group 2, there was a correlation between COPD severity and hypertension. Comorbidity of COPD and cardiovascular diseases was confirmed, along with correlation between age and cardiovascular complications in patients with COPD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en332_33599", "title": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease", "score": 0.011681804785253061, "content": "Use of COPD Diagnostic Questionnaire alone or in combination with hand-held flow meters is appropriate for screening of COPD in primary care. Other tests A chest X-ray is not useful to establish a diagnosis of COPD but it is of use in either excluding other conditions or including comorbidities such as pulmonary fibrosis, and bronchiectasis. Characteristic signs of COPD on X-ray include hyperinflation (shown by a flattened diaphragm and an increased retrosternal air space) and lung hyperlucency. A saber-sheath trachea may also be shown that is indicative of COPD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en047_80130", "title": "Pulmonary fibrosis", "score": 0.010337752525252526, "content": "Based on these rates, pulmonary fibrosis prevalence in the United States could range from more than 29,000 to almost 132,000, based on the population in 2000 that was 18 years or older. The actual numbers may be significantly higher due to misdiagnosis. Typically, patients are in their forties and fifties when diagnosed while the incidence of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis increases dramatically after the age of fifty. However, loss of pulmonary function is commonly ascribed to old age, heart disease or to more common lung diseases. References External links Lung disorders Wikipedia medicine articles ready to translate" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_8658", "title": "Lung transplantation", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Qualifying conditions Lung transplantation is the therapeutic measure of last resort for patients with end-stage lung disease who have exhausted all other available treatments without improvement. A variety of conditions may make such surgery necessary. As of 2005, the most common reasons for lung transplantation in the United States were: 27% chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), including emphysema; 16% idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis; 14% cystic fibrosis; 12% idiopathic (formerly known as \"primary\") pulmonary hypertension; 5% alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency; 2% replacing previously transplanted lungs that have since failed; 24% other causes, including bronchiectasis and sarcoidosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0281_4", "title": "Can moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease be diagnosed by historical and physical findings alone?", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The value of the history and physical examination in diagnosing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is uncertain. This study was undertaken to determine the best clinical predictors of COPD and to define the incremental changes in the ability to diagnose COPD that occur when the physical examination findings and then the peak flowmeter results are added to the pulmonary history. Ninety-two outpatients with a self-reported history of cigarette smoking or COPD completed a pulmonary history questionnaire and received peak flow and spirometric testing. The subjects were independently examined for 12 physical signs by 4 internists blinded to all other results. Multivariate analyses identified independent predictors of clinically significant, moderate COPD, defined as a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) less than 60% of the predicted value or a FEV1/FVC (forced vital capacity) less than 60%. Fifteen subjects (16%) had moderate COPD. Two historical variables from the questionnaire--previous diagnosis of COPD and smoking (70 or more pack-years)--significantly entered a logistic regression model that diagnosed COPD with a sensitivity of 40% and a specificity of 100%. Only the physical sign of diminished breath sounds significantly added to the historical model to yield a mean sensitivity of 67% and a mean specificity of 98%. The peak flow result (best cutoff value was less than 200 L/min) significantly added to the models of only one of the four physicians for a mean final sensitivity of 77% and a specificity of 95%. Subjects with none of the three historical and physical variables had a 3% prevalence of COPD; this prevalence was unchanged by adding the peak flow results. Diminished breath sounds were the best predictor of moderate COPD. A sequential increase in sensitivity and a minimal decrease in specificity occurred when the quality of breath sounds was added first to the medical history, followed by the peak flow result. The chance of COPD was very unlikely with a normal history and physical examination." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_3707", "title": "Northern Westchester Hospital", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Cardio-Pulmonary Rehabilitation: Structured rehabilitation designed to manage a wide range of existing conditions for smokers and ex-smokers and those who have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), emphysema, asthma, pulmonary fibrosis, interstitial lung disease, bronchiectasis, and cystic fibrosis. Wound Care & Hyperbaric Medicine: Providing wound care for chronic non-healing wounds related to various conditions such as diabetes and obesity, post-surgical non-healing wounds and traumatic wounds. Therapies available to patients include hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT), provided in a multi-seat hyperbaric chamber. HBOT is not only prescribed for patients with wounds, such as diabetic foot ulcers or venous ulcers, but is also an effective treatment for such conditions as delayed radiation injury, compromised grafts and flaps, necrotizing soft tissue infections, intracranial abscess and severe anemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_1389", "title": "[Retrospective studies on 713 cases chronic obstructive pulmonary disease].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To study the diagnostic criteria of severity of chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD), early intervention, and the effect of health education on the relationship between smoking and health. Data from 713 remissive COPD patients who had results of pulmonary function test in the past 10 years were reviewed. All patients were classified by correlative diagnostic criteria, and the results were compared with the diagnostic criteria of WHO Global Initiative for chronic obstructive lung disease (GOLD). Other indexes such as history of smoking, quantity of smoking and the rate of giving up smoking were also analyzed. According to the diagnostic criteria set by the Chinese Respiratory College in 1997 and traditional pulmonary function criteria, 339 patients were identified as having severe COPD, taking up 56.0% of all COPD patients; 200 patients were moderate (28.0%); 114 patients were mild (16.0%). FEV(1)/FVC in mild COPD patients was 70.5% +/- 1.1%, higher than the criteria of 70% in GOLD. Three hundred and thirty-five patients were smokers, taking up 46.9% of total patients. In these patients, 312 patients were men (93%) and 23 patients were women (7%). The average smoking history was 32.9 years, and the average quantity of daily smoking was 22. Two hundred sixteen patients had given up smoking which took up 64.5% of all the smokers. It was debatable that FEV(1)/FVC was decisive criteria for COPD diagnoses by GOLD and the revised diagnostic criteria of Chinese Respiratory College in 2002. It might miss diagnosing a number of COPD patients who having combined ventilatory disturbance or were in earlier stages. Only 15.9% of mild COPD patients had seen a doctor, that indicated a very low rate of early intervention which was disadvantageous for the prevention and cure of COPD. In contrast to the rate of 28.0% when giving up smoking in ordinary people who had received general intervention, the rate of giving up smoking in COPD patients remained 64.5% much higher and was dissatisfactory. Health education should be improved to include measures to give up smoking." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_42897", "title": "Acute severe asthma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Differential diagnoses Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Aspiration Syndromes Bronchiectasis Bronchiolitis Bronchiolitis obliterans Chronic bronchitis Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg–Strauss Syndrome) Croup Cystic Fibrosis Emphysema Foreign Bodies of the Airway Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease Heart Failure Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension Inhalation injury Pulmonary Artery Sling Vocal Cord Dysfunction" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0021_891", "title": "[The differential diagnosis of chronic bronchitis and emphysema from mutually supplemental functional and radiographic criteria].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In a retrospective study in 91 patients an attempt was made to differentiate the primary and/or predominating disorder \"emphysema\" or/and \"chronic bronchitis\" by independent evaluation of a number of X-ray signs and lung function criteria in routine diagnosis. Good congruency of the diagnosis from these two different aspects, could be established. Patients with 3 or more X-ray signs of emphysema were found to have larger lung volume and smaller diffusing capacities than those without. Vice versa, patients with functional diagnosis of predominant emphysema more often showed the full X-ray pattern of emphysema, than those with predominant \"chronic bronchitis\". In either method of diagnostic procedure, the occurence of the \"small heart of emphysema\" was obviously much more frequent in patients believed to have predominant or primary emphysema. Assessment of X-ray signs of changes of the lesser circulation can be obtained in a stage of the disease, when structural changes have become irreversible. Considering the different pathophysiologic pattern of predominant panacinar emphysema, the destruction of alveolar walls and, consequently of the capillary bed, is more likely to reduce DCO as well as cardiac output before pulmonary hypertension can develop. The X-ray signs resulting from this effect on the lesser circulation, exist in widened right hilar branch and abrupt narrowing of peripheral vessels, with a small heart and lack of prominence of the pulmonary trunk. In chronic bronchitis, however, signs of pulmonary hypertension are expected to occur early in the disease. The relevance of the X-ray changes of the heart size and the pulmonary circulation in both types of lung disease, could be confirmed by lung function data." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en187_4315", "title": "Obstructive lung disease", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Obstructive lung disease is a category of respiratory disease characterized by airway obstruction. Many obstructive diseases of the lung result from narrowing (obstruction) of the smaller bronchi and larger bronchioles, often because of excessive contraction of the smooth muscle itself. It is generally characterized by inflamed and easily collapsible airways, obstruction to airflow, problems exhaling, and frequent medical clinic visits and hospitalizations. Types of obstructive lung disease include; asthma, bronchiectasis, bronchitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Although COPD shares similar characteristics with all other obstructive lung diseases, such as the signs of coughing and wheezing, they are distinct conditions in terms of disease onset, frequency of symptoms, and reversibility of airway obstruction. Cystic fibrosis is also sometimes included in obstructive pulmonary disease. Types Asthma" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0524_688", "title": "Prevalence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in Japanese people on medical check-up.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In Japan, spirometry has not been included as an item in medical check-ups for all persons. The purpose of this study was to show evidence to recommend spirometry routinely on medical check-up for the early detection of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). There were 12,760 enrolled persons who underwent medical check-up. COPD was defined as a ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second to slow vital capacity of 70% or less. We investigated the prevalence and its characteristics of COPD in people on medical check-up. The prevalence of COPD was 3.6% in all subjects, 4.5% in males, and 1.8% in females. In the comparison between males and females, the prevalence of COPD in males of most age groups was higher than that of females, and this difference was greater with aging. Males in their 50s and over 60 years old and females over 60 years old showed remarkably high prevalences. Occupations associated with a high smoking rate such as transportation-related occupations showed a higher prevalence of COPD. These results suggest that spirometry for all persons in medical check-ups can identify many COPD patients not aware of this disease. Spirometry should be carried out routinely on medical check-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en249_31446", "title": "Pulmonary rehabilitation", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Background Pulmonary rehabilitation is generally specific to the individual patient, with the objective of meeting the needs of the patient. It is a broad program and may benefit patients with lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), sarcoidosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) and cystic fibrosis, among others. Although the process is focused primarily on the rehabilitation of the patient, the family is also involved. The process typically does not begin until a medical examination of the patient has been performed by a licensed physician. The setting of pulmonary rehabilitation varies by patient; settings may include inpatient care, outpatient care, the office of a physician, or the patient's home. Although there are no universally accepted procedure codes for pulmonary rehabilitation, providers usually use codes for general therapeutic processes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en072_1039", "title": "Respiratory disease", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Obstructive lung disease Asthma, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are all obstructive lung diseases characterised by airway obstruction. This limits the amount of air that is able to enter alveoli because of constriction of the bronchial tree, due to inflammation. Obstructive lung diseases are often identified because of symptoms and diagnosed with pulmonary function tests such as spirometry. Many obstructive lung diseases are managed by avoiding triggers (such as dust mites or smoking), with symptom control such as bronchodilators, and with suppression of inflammation (such as through corticosteroids) in severe cases. One common cause of COPD including emphysema, and chronic bronchitis, is tobacco smoking, and common causes of bronchiectasis include severe infections and cystic fibrosis. The definitive cause of asthma is not yet known. Restrictive lung diseases" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_21242", "title": "Early detection of COPD: a case finding study in general practice.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To estimate the prevalence of undiagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a population of general practice patients at risk for developing COPD. A further aim was to evaluate the presence of respiratory symptoms as a predictor for the diagnosis of COPD. This study was conducted by eight general practitioners (GP) in six semi-rural general practices. During two consecutive months all patients attending their GP were included if they met the following criteria: current smokers between 40 and 70 yr of age, and a smoking history of at least 15 pack-years. A questionnaire regarding smoking history, respiratory symptoms, exposure to dust or chemical fumes, and history of respiratory diseases was completed for all patients. Subjects without known COPD were invited for spirometric testing. Off the 146 general practice patients included, 17.1% already had an established COPD diagnosis. Screening by spirometry revealed a 46.6% prevalence of COPD. Underdiagnosis of COPD was more frequent in the younger age categories (40-49 Yr; 50-59 Yr). Objective wheezing was the only sign that was significantly more frequent in COPD patients than in non-COPD patients (P&lt;0.001). Patients with previously known COPD were significantly older, and complained more of chronic cough and fatigue than newly detected patients. Almost half of a general practice population of current smokers between 40 and 70 years of age, with a smoking history of at least 15 pack-years, was diagnosed with COPD, and roughly two thirds of these were newly detected as a result of the case finding programme." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_56274", "title": "Nontuberculous mycobacteria", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Rapidly growing NTMs are implicated in catheter infections, post-LASIK, skin and soft tissue (especially post-cosmetic surgery) and pulmonary infections. Pathogenesis The most common clinical manifestation of NTM disease is lung disease, but lymphatic, skin/soft tissue, and disseminated diseases are also important. Pulmonary disease caused by NTM is most often seen in postmenopausal women and patients with underlying lung disease such as cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, and prior tuberculosis. It is not uncommon for alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, Marfan syndrome, and primary ciliary dyskinesia patients to have pulmonary NTM colonization and/or infection. Pulmonary NTM can also be found in individuals with AIDS and malignant disease. It can be caused by many NTM species, which depends on region, but most frequently MAC and M. kansasii." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0614_13445", "title": "Poor sensitivity of symptoms in early detection of COPD.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The prevalence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has been increasing. However, COPD is often underdiagnosed. The objective of this study was to determine how many outpatients had persistent airflow limitation and could be diagnosed as COPD by post-bronchodilator spirometry. We also evaluated whether the newly diagnosed patients had any symptoms. All outpatients with liver or general diseases over 40 years old who regularly visited to our hospital were tested for pulmonary function by spirometry. Patients with airflow limitation by the first screening spirometry had further examinations including post-bronchodilator spirometry and chest radiograph by pulmonary specialists. A total of 288 patients accepted a first spirometry. The most common chronic diseases of these patients were chronic hepatitis (33.7%), fatty liver (26.4%), liver cirrhosis (8.3%), diabetes (3.5%) and hypertension (3.1%). Approximately half of the patients had a smoking history. 44 of 288 patients (15.3%) showed airflow limitation by pre-bronchodilator spirometry. Of these, 8 patients did not show airflow limitation by a repeat pre-bronchodilator spirometry nor did 5 patients by post-bronchodilator spirometry. The rest were diagnosed as COPD (80.6%), asthma (16.1%) and bronchiectasis (3.2%). The prevalence of COPD was 8.7%. Approximately half of the patients (13/25, 52.0%) diagnosed as COPD had never complained of any respiratory symptoms. Because symptoms such as dyspnea on exertion, cough and sputum are less sensitive for the diagnosis of COPD, the propagation of spirometry in a general practice/setting should be recommended for establishing the diagnosis rate of COPD rather than relying on the presence of respiratory symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en249_31443", "title": "Pulmonary rehabilitation", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Medical uses The NICE clinical guideline on chronic obstructive pulmonary disease states that “pulmonary rehabilitation should be offered to all patients who consider themselves functionally disabled by COPD (usually MRC [Medical Research Council] grade 3 and above)”. It is indicated not only in patients with COPD, but also in: Cystic fibrosis Bronchitis Sarcoidosis Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis Before and after lung surgery It appears not to be harmful and may be helpful for interstitial lung disease. Aim To reduce symptoms To improve knowledge of lung condition and promote self-management To increase muscle strength and endurance (peripheral and respiratory) To increase the exercise tolerance To reduce length of hospital stay To help to function better in day-to-day life To help in managing anxiety and depression" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0015_3194", "title": "Course of pulmonary hemodynamics in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Eighty-five patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, mainly chronic bronchitis (71 patients), who had arterial hypoxemia and moderate to severe obstruction of the airways underwent at least two right cardiac catheterizations in a clinical steady state, with a delay of three years or more between the first and the last catheterization. The average delay was 60 +/- 19 months (range, 36 to 119 months). Patients were regularly examined (quarterly clinical and functional checkups). The changes in pulmonary hemodynamic data were small. In the group of 53 patients with an initial mean pulmonary arterial pressure of 20 mm Hg or less, this pressure varied from 15.4 +/- 3.1 to 18.3 +/- 6.6 mm Hg (P less than 0.001); in the group of 32 patients with an initial mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 20 mm Hg, this pressure varied from 27.7 +/- 6.0 to 31.0 +/- 9.3 mm Hg (P less than 0.05). The mean pulmonary arterial pressure increased by 5 mm Hg or more in only 28 patients. In these patients with hemodynamic \"worsening,\" the final arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) was lower and the final arterial carbon dioxide tension was higher than in the remaining patients. A significant negative correlation (r = -0.39; P less than 0.001) was observed between changes in PaO2 and mean pulmonary arterial pressure. There was a generally good agreement between the course of pulmonary hemodynamics (mean pulmonary arterial pressure), on the one hand, and the clinical, radiologic (transverse diameter of the heart), and electrocardiographic evolution, on the other hand. In the 33 patients who died, a relatively long survival was observed after the first episode of right-sided heart failure or after ascertaining pulmonary hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en130_49243", "title": "Royal Papworth Hospital", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "the Respiratory Support and Sleep Centre, providing services for patients with sleep disorders (including common disorders such as obstructive sleep apnea and less common ones such as narcolepsy) and those with ventilatory failure (from conditions such as COPD or neuromuscular disorders including motor neuron disease and poliomyelitis). The service provides non-invasive ventilation and also accepts referrals from other intensive care units to wean patients from invasive ventilation; the pulmonary hypertension (PH) service (Papworth is one of the four UK Pulmonary Hypertension centres and the only one providing pulmonary thromboendarterectomy); the adult cystic fibrosis service; the Lung Defense service, for patients with recurrent lung infection, including those with bronchiectasis and immunodeficiency; the thoracic oncology (lung cancer) service; the ataxia telangiectasia service;" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0255_6429", "title": "[Clinical aspects and outcome of COPD].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a frequent disease which is too often diagnosed when already severe. Major known risk factors are tobacco smoking, occupational exposure, and severe respiratory infections during childhood. Diagnostic should be evoked on functional non specific symptoms: chronic cough and sputum, progressive dyspnea. Some physical signs, correlated with the degree of airway obstruction, may be more specific but their diagnostic value remains to be assessed. These signs reflect distension of the chest as well as airway obstruction: pursed lips breathing, increased expiration duration, Hoover and Campbell signs, inspiratory contraction of scalen muscles. COPD results over years in chronic respiratory insufficiency and evolution is associated with episodes of bronchial and parenchymal infections as well as pulmonary emboli which are particularly frequent in these patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_144467", "title": "Pneumonia", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Differential diagnosis Several diseases can present with similar signs and symptoms to pneumonia, such as: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, pulmonary edema, bronchiectasis, lung cancer, and pulmonary emboli. Unlike pneumonia, asthma and COPD typically present with wheezing, pulmonary edema presents with an abnormal electrocardiogram, cancer and bronchiectasis present with a cough of longer duration, and pulmonary emboli present with acute onset sharp chest pain and shortness of breath. Mild pneumonia should be differentiated from upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). Severe pneumonia should be differentiated from acute heart failure. Pulmonary infiltrates that resolved after giving mechanical ventilation should point to heart failure and atelectasis rather than pneumonia. For recurrent pneumonia, underlying lung cancer, metastasis, tuberculosis, a foreign bodies, immunosuppression, and hypersensitivity should be suspected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0033_10190", "title": "[Clinical, functional and hemodynamic course in patients with chronic bronchitis at the stage of chronic cor pulmonale].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Twenty seven patients, almost all chronic bronchitic, and with a \"chronic cor pulmonale\" according to the E. C. G., were followed clinically, radiologically and for E. C. G. and pulmonary functions, and also for the hemodynamics, during a minimum of 3 years, the average length of observation period being about 5 years. Twelve patients died during this observation time. Periods of right heart failure (R. H. F.) were frequent : 3.6 +/- 3.0 in average, slightly more frequent in the deceased patients than in the others. The average delay between the onset R. H. F. and death was of 49.3 +/- 30.8 months ; the survivors on average lived another 54.6 +/- 30.8 months after their first R. H. F. The mean pulmonary arterial pressure (PAP) was quite stable, going from 27.5 +/- 7.0 to 31.2 +/- 9.6 torr (an unsignificicant difference); in only 9 cases did the PAP increase of more than 5 torr during the observation period (acute attacks excepted). The PAP evolution was not significantly different in the deceased and the survivors. PAP worsening by steps after a fit of R. H. F. was observed in only 4 cases. Chronological variations of PAP were well correlated with those of Pao2 during the same period : r = -- 0.68, P less than 0.001. The hemodynamic evolution (PAP), that of the E. C. G. and the volume of the heart were reasonably parallel to the overall clinical evolution ; the E. C. G. evolution had the closest match with the overall clinical evolution (78% of cases). The E. C. G. enables only a late diagnosis of CCP but its evolution is very valuable for prognosis. Hemodynamic tests have a double value initially for diagnosis and later for the evolution." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_253091", "title": "Lung", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Obstructive lung diseases Asthma, bronchiectasis, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) that includes chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, are all obstructive lung diseases characterised by airway obstruction. This limits the amount of air that is able to enter alveoli because of constriction of the bronchial tree, due to inflammation. Obstructive lung diseases are often identified because of symptoms and diagnosed with pulmonary function tests such as spirometry. Many obstructive lung diseases are managed by avoiding triggers (such as dust mites or smoking), with symptom control such as bronchodilators, and with suppression of inflammation (such as through corticosteroids) in severe cases. A common cause of chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, is smoking; and common causes of bronchiectasis include severe infections and cystic fibrosis. The definitive cause of asthma is not yet known." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0678_14154", "title": "[Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease as frequent secondary diagnosis at medical department].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) often suffer from comorbidities. This study evaluates the need for hospitalization due to comorbidity in COPD patients and the diagnoses these patients have, and it investigates whether COPD comorbidity prolongs the hospital stay. A cross-sectional study performed at a department of internal medicine. A total of 66 of the 101 possible participants were included. They performed a spirometry and filled-in a questionnaire. Furthermore, patients' case records were studied for evaluation of final diagnoses and length of stay. 39% (26/66) suffered from COPD. 54% (14/26) were diagnosed at our examination. 35% had moderate COPD, 26% severe COPD and 19% very severe COPD. 43% (6/14) of the patients with no former knowledge of their COPD had severe or very severe COPD. The COPD patients had accumulated significantly more pack years (p &lt; 0.005) and there were significantly more smokers (p = 0.05) among them compared with patients with no COPD. 38% (10/26) had several concurrent chronic diseases. The admission period was not significantly longer for patients with COPD than for those with no COPD (p = 0.07). The need for hospitalization due to comorbidity in COPD patients significantly exceeded the 20% expected to suffer from COPD in comparative age-groups of the general Danish population (p &lt; 0.05)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en332_33576", "title": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease", "score": 0.008997584541062802, "content": "Subtypes The two classic emphysematous and chronic bronchitic phenotypes are fundamentally different conditions with unique underlying mechanisms. It has since been recognized that COPD is more complex, with a diverse group of disorders of differing risk factors and clinical courses that has resulted in a number of other subtypes or phenotypes of COPD being accepted, and proposed. Spirometry measures are inadequate for defining phenotypes, and chest X-ray, CT and MRI scans have been mostly employed. Most cases of COPD are diagnosed at a late stage and the use of imaging methods would allow earlier detection and treatment. The identification and recognition of different phenotypes can guide appropriate treatment approaches. For example the PDE4 inhibitor roflumilast is targeted at the chronic-bronchitic phenotype." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en139_20473", "title": "Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Differential diagnosis Recognizing IPF in clinical practice can be challenging as symptoms often appear similar to those of more common diseases, such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and congestive heart failure (www.diagnoseipf.com). The key issue facing clinicians is whether the presenting history, symptoms (or signs), radiology, and pulmonary function testing are collectively in keeping with the diagnosis of IPF or whether the findings are due to another process. It has long been recognized that patients with ILD related to asbestos exposure, drugs (such as chemotherapeutic agents or nitrofurantoin), rheumatoid arthritis and scleroderma/systemic sclerosis may be difficult to distinguish from IPF. Other differential diagnostic considerations include interstitial lung disease related to mixed connective tissue disease, advanced sarcoidosis, chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis, pulmonary Langerhan's cell histiocytosis and radiation-induced lung injury." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0920_12343", "title": "Early Detection of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease in Primary Care.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Objective To evaluate the effectiveness of an early detection program for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a primary care setting in Japan. Methods Participants of ≥40 years of age who regularly visited a general practitioner's clinic due to chronic disease were asked to complete a COPD screening questionnaire (COPD Population Screener; COPD-PS) and undergo simplified spirometry using a handheld spirometric device. Patients who showed possible COPD were referred to a respiratory specialist and underwent a detailed examination that included spirometry and chest radiography. Results A total of 111 patients with possible COPD were referred for close examination. Among these patients, 27 patients were newly diagnosed with COPD. The patients with COPD were older, had lower BMI values, and had a longer smoking history in comparison to non-COPD patients. COPD patients also had more comorbid conditions. A diagnosis of COPD was significantly associated with a high COPD-PS score (p&lt;0.001) and the detection of possible airflow limitation evaluated by the handheld spirometric device (p&lt;0.01). An ROC curve analysis demonstrated that 5 points was the best COPD-PS cut-off value for the diagnosis of COPD. The combination of both tools showed 40.7% of sensitivity and 96.4% of specificity. Conclusion The use of the COPD-PS plus a handheld spirometric device could facilitate the early detection of undiagnosed COPD in primary care." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0736_20450", "title": "Comparison of frequency of undiagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in current or former tobacco smokers having ischaemic heart disease.", "score": 0.008856543252661777, "content": "This study compares the frequency of undiagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in tobacco smokers suffering from ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and analyses the association of COPD severity with status, type and duration of smoking. An analytical cross-sectional study conducted in current and former cigarette, hookah and combined cigarette and hookah smokers with IHD to detect previously undiagnosed COPD through spirometry. Among 124 males with IHD, majority [74 (59.7%)] were former smokers and were in the age ranged between 42 to 78 years. All had dyspnoea up to grade 4 and 64 (51.6%) also reported chronic cough and sputum production. According to type of smoking, 64 (51.6%) smoked cigarettes, 30 (24.2%) smoked hookah and 30 (24.2%) smoked both hookah and cigarettes. Forty-seven (37.9%) were found to have COPD, 24 (37.5%) among cigarette smokers, 12 (40%) among hookah smokers, while 11 (36.7%) were from cigarette and hookah smokers. Duration of smoking, its type and magnitude had no association with severity of COPD. The frequency of undiagnosed COPD is high in smokers with IHD. Hookah and combined hookah and cigarette smokers are almost as susceptible to develop COPD as are cigarette smokers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_107274", "title": "Nail clubbing", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Causes Clubbing is associated with Lung disease: Lung cancer, mainly non-small-cell (54% of all cases), not seen frequently in small-cell lung cancer (< 5% of cases) Interstitial lung disease most commonly idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis Complicated tuberculosis Suppurative lung disease: lung abscess, empyema, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis Mesothelioma of the pleura Arteriovenous fistula or malformation Sarcoidosis Heart disease: Any disease featuring chronic hypoxia Congenital cyanotic heart disease (most common cardiac cause) Subacute bacterial endocarditis Atrial myxoma (benign tumor) Tetralogy of Fallot Gastrointestinal and hepatobiliary: Malabsorption Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis Cirrhosis, especially in primary biliary cholangitis Hepatopulmonary syndrome, a complication of cirrhosis Others: Graves' disease (autoimmune hyperthyroidism) – in this case it is known as thyroid acropachy" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 253 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "Urinary hydroxyproline: Urinary hydroxyproline excretion reflects the degradation of bone collagen, but is also influenced by the metabolism of other tissues (cartilage, skin) and by the absorption of products rich in collagen, such as meat or gelatins." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Determine serum PTH levels.", "2": "Determine serum vitamin D levels.", "3": "Determination of hydroxyprolinuria.", "4": "Plain chest X-ray.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "article-23158_12", "title": "Hypercalcemia -- Evaluation", "score": 0.012718697702723263, "content": "Most cases of hypercalcemia are detected on routine testing. Work up for etiology includes obtaining serum PTH, calcitonin, Vitamin D, ionized calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, alkaline phosphatase levels, renal functions, and urinary calcium-creatinine ratio. Sensitive and specific immunochemiluminometric assays should be used to measure parathyroid hormone (PTH) (i-PTH). Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by high calcium, high i-PTH levels with low phosphorous levels. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia has inappropriately normal PTH levels with high magnesium and low calcium creatinine clearance. Other causes of hypercalcemia typically have low PTH levels. Patients with hypercalcemia and hypervitaminosis D have high serum concentrations of calcidiol, whereas, patients with a granulomatous disease have high levels of calcitriol. In patients with hypercalcemia associated with malignancy, the PTH-related peptide levels are elevated. Imaging is indicated to identify nephrolithiasis and nephrocalcinosis. Neonates and infants who are found to be hypercalcemic in the presence of dysmorphic features should prompt evaluation for Williams or Murk Jansen syndrome. [1] [7]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en107_21171", "title": "Milk-alkali syndrome", "score": 0.012702110547189173, "content": "Serum calcium levels: high serum calcium levels. PTH: low serum PTH levels are indicative of MAS. Low serum PTH levels also exclude primary hyperthyroidism. Phosphorus: low serum phosphorus levels due to low PTH. Creatinine and BUN: high levels can indicate severity of renal damage. Magnesium: serum magnesium levels are low as hypercalcemia inhibits mg^2+ reabsorption in the renal tubules. Vitamin D levels: low vitamin D levels are found. Normal vitamin D levels eliminate primary hypercalcemia. Electrocardiograms (ECG): An ECG can also be used to diagnose MAS. The following findings related to hypercalcemia could appear on an ECG: Short QT interval: most commonly seen as short OoT or OaT changes. Prolongation of PR and QRS intervals. Increased Amplitude of QRS complex. Osborn wave Short ST segment. Radiology: Chest x-rays can help exclude any malignancy or sarcoidosis when evaluating for hypercalcemia." }, { "id": "article-23258_41", "title": "Hypocalcemia -- Evaluation", "score": 0.012523225566703829, "content": "Confirmation of hypocalcemia: The first part of the evaluation should focus on confirming the hypocalcemia by checking a serum albumin level to correct the total calcium or directly measuring the ionized calcium level. For each 1 g/dL decrease in albumin below 4 g/dl, 0.8 mg/dL should be added to the total serum calcium level. Checking cardiac stability: An ECG should be obtained to look for QTc prolongation, which, if present, is a risk factor for torsades de pointes. This is often treated with IV magnesium. [31] Determining the etiology of hypocalcemia: Once hypocalcemia is confirmed, further testing should be done to determine the etiology. This entails checking other electrolytes, such as serum magnesium and phosphorus levels, intact PTH, and vitamin D levels. Some causes are apparent, as in patients post-thyroidectomy or parathyroidectomy. Other biomarkers may be obtained as indicated by history and physical exam (eg, serum lipase in suspected pancreatitis.)" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3713", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011974340698503207, "content": "In addition to measuring serum calcium, it is useful to determine albumin, phosphorus, and magnesium levels. As for the evaluation of hypercalcemia, determining the PTH level is central to the evaluation of hypocalcemia. A suppressed (or “inappropriately low”) PTH level in the setting of hypocalcemia establishes absent or reduced PTH secretion (hypoparathyroidism) as the cause of the hypocalcemia. Further history will often elicit the underlying cause (i.e., parathyroid agenesis vs. destruction). By contrast, an elevated PTH level (secondary hyperparathyroidism) should direct attention to the vitamin D axis as the cause of the hypocalcemia. Nutritional vitamin D deficiency is best assessed by obtaining serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels, which reflect vitamin D stores. In the setting of renal insufficiency or suspected vitamin D resistance, serum 1,25(OH)2D levels are informative." }, { "id": "article-18779_12", "title": "Physiology, Calcium -- Clinical Significance -- Diagnosis", "score": 0.011861146730170361, "content": "The diagnosis of hypocalcemia is first achieved by measuring serum albumin, which distinguishes true hypocalcemia from factitious hypocalcemia due to hypoalbuminemia. If albumin is normal, PTH levels should be checked to determine if the hypocalcemia is due to a disorder of PTH such as hypoparathyroidism leading to rapid hypocalcemia known as a hungry bone syndrome. If PTH levels are normal, then magnesium, vitamin D, and phosphate levels can be checked to determine if calcium levels are being affected by other electrolyte abnormalities. It is always a good idea to check kidney and liver function to determine an end-organ cause of hypocalcemia. Equally, an electrocardiogram should be ordered to assess for the effect of hypocalcemia on the heart. Radiography is often indicated to determine the etiology of chronic hypocalcemia due to disorders such as rickets or osteomalacia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3703", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01134694193149308, "content": "Once true hypercalcemia is established, the second most important laboratory test in the diagnostic evaluation is a PTH level using a two-site assay for the intact hormone. Increases in PTH are often accompanied by hypophosphatemia. In addition, serum creatinine should be measured to assess renal function; hypercalcemia may impair renal function, and renal clearance of PTH may be altered depending on the fragments detected by the assay. If the PTH level is increased (or “inappropriately normal”) in the setting of elevated calcium and low phosphorus, the diagnosis is almost always primary hyperparathyroidism. Because individuals with FHH may also present with mildly elevated PTH levels and hypercalcemia, this diagnosis should be considered and excluded because parathyroid surgery is ineffective in this condition. A calcium/creatinine clearance ratio (calculated as urine calcium/ serum calcium divided by urine creatinine/serum creatinine) of <0.01 is suggestive of FHH, particularly when" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0862_1260", "title": "Prevalence of hypercalcemia related to hypervitaminosis D in clinical practice.", "score": 0.01093418576165865, "content": "Recent interest in vitamin D has led to a substantial increase in the use of vitamin D supplements. Vitamin D intoxication may be a concern as hypervitaminosis D can result in irreversible calcification of soft tissues so that it is important to detect early markers of vitamin D intoxication. Our aim was to assess the simultaneous presence of biochemical markers of vitamin D toxicity (i.e. hypervitaminosis D, hypercalcemia) and determine the concentrations of 25-OH-vitamin D at which the risk of hypercalcemia, and thus toxicity, might begin. We evaluated retrospectively a 6-year period during which 25.567 samples were assessed for 25-OH-vitamin D status by UHPLC. Hypervitaminosis D was defined at serum 25-OH-vitamin D &gt;160 nmol/L. Serum and urine calcium, phosphorus and iPTH were also recorded, if available. Medical history revision was performed in subjects displaying simultaneously hypervitaminosis D and hypercalcemia. Overall, hypervitaminosis D was found in 475 samples (1.86%) of which 51 displayed hypercalcemia (11.1%). A total of 382 samples were identified as the first record of hypervitaminosis D and 39 presented hypercalcemia (10.2%), most of them at 25-OH-vitamin D levels between 161 and 375 nmol/L. Only in 15 subjects, hypercalcemia could be directly attributed to vitamin D and serum 25-OH-vitamin D ranged between 164 and 1139 nmol/l. In no case, serum calcium achieved concentrations considered as critical values (&gt;13 mg/dl). Hypercalcemia due to vitamin D represented &lt;4% of the total hypervitaminosis D detected and &lt;0.1% of the tests performed. However, a highly variable response was observed and most subjects presented hypercalcemia at serum concentrations of 25-OH-vitamin D &lt; 375 nmol/L." }, { "id": "article-23275_21", "title": "Hypoparathyroidism -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010895163784285272, "content": "Evaluation should include the following tests: Total calcium Albumin Calculation of the “corrected” serum calcium. Approximately 50% of total serum calcium is protein-bound, principally to albumin, and only the free or ionized fraction is biologically active. Corrected calcium = Measured calcium + 0.8 x (4.0 - albumin) (calcium measured in mg/dL; albumin measured in g/L) Ionized calcium in selected cases when there are questions about the accuracy of the corrected calcium Parathyroid hormone level Phosphorus Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine Alkaline phosphatase 25-hydroxyvitamin D Urine calcium and creatinine Electrocardiogram [2] [3]" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28432", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010661505981703026, "content": "Diagnosis of Vitamin D Deficiency, Rickets, and Osteomalacia The most specific screening test for vitamin D deficiency in otherwise healthy individuals is a serum 25(OH)D level. Although the normal ranges vary, levels of 25(OH)D <37 nmol/L (<15 ng/mL) are associated with increasing PTH levels and lower bone density. The Institute of Medicine has defined vitamin D sufficiency as a vitamin D level >50 nmol/L (>20 ng/mL), although higher levels may be required to 2466 optimize intestinal calcium absorption in the elderly and those with underlying disease states. Vitamin D deficiency leads to impaired intestinal absorption of calcium, resulting in decreased serum total and ionized calcium values. This hypocalcemia results in secondary hyperparathyroidism, a homeostatic response that initially maintains serum calcium levels at the expense of the skeleton. Due to the PTH-induced increase in bone turnover, alkaline phosphatase levels are often increased. In addition to increasing bone" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22176", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010464295007620535, "content": "Laboratory Evaluation If not recently measured, the following serum levels should be determined: electrolytes (to uncover hypokalemia or renal tubular acidosis), creatinine, calcium, and uric acid. The PTH level should be measured if indicated by high-normal or elevated serum and urine calcium concentrations. Often, 25-hydroxy vitamin D is measured in concert with PTH to investigate the possible role of secondarily elevated PTH levels in the setting of vitamin D insufficiency. The urinalysis, including examination of the sediment, can provide useful information. In individuals with asymptomatic residual renal stones, red and white blood cells are frequently present in urine. If there is concern about the possibility of an infection, a urine culture should be performed. The sediment may also reveal crystals (Fig. 342-1), which may help identify the stone type and also provide prognostic information, as crystalluria is a strong risk factor for new stone formation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en116_31394", "title": "X-linked hypophosphatemia", "score": 0.010344827586206896, "content": "Diagnosis Begin clinical laboratory evaluation of rickets with assessment of serum calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase levels. In hypophosphatemic rickets, calcium levels may be within or slightly below the reference range; alkaline phosphatase levels will be significantly above the reference range. Carefully evaluate serum phosphate levels in the first year of life, because the concentration reference range for infants (5.0-7.5 mg/dL) is high compared with that for adults (2.7-4.5 mg/dL). Serum parathyroid hormone levels are within the reference range or slightly elevated, while calcitriol levels are low or within the lower reference range. Most importantly, urinary loss of phosphate is above the reference range. The renal tubular reabsorption of phosphate (TRP) in X-linked hypophosphatemia is 60%; normal TRP exceeds 90% at the same reduced plasma phosphate concentration. The TRP is calculated with the following formula:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_2352", "title": "Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia", "score": 0.010296658986175114, "content": "Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH) is an inherited condition that can cause hypercalcemia, a serum calcium level typically above 10.2 mg/dL. It is also known as familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FBHH) where there is usually a family history of hypercalcemia which is mild, a urine calcium to creatinine ratio <0.01, and urine calcium <200 mg/day. Signs and symptoms Most cases of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia are asymptomatic. Laboratory signs of FHH include: High blood levels of calcium (hypercalcemia) A low amount of calcium excreted in the urine ( Ca excretion rate < 0.02 mmol/L) High blood levels of magnesium (hypermagnesemia) High normal to mildly elevated parathyroid hormone Causes Types include:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0878_4141", "title": "Persistent Primary Hyperparathyroidism, Severe Vitamin D Deficiency, and Multiple Pathological Fractures.", "score": 0.010212537779077702, "content": "Persistent primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) refers to the sustained hypercalcemia state detected within the first six months following parathyroidectomy. When it coexists with severe vitamin D deficiency, the effects on bone can be devastating. We report the case of a 56-year-old woman who was sent to this center because of persistent hyperparathyroidism. Her disease had over 3 years of evolution with nephrolithiasis and hip fracture. Parathyroidectomy was performed in her local unit; however, she continued with hypercalcemia, bone pain, and pathological fractures. On admission, the patient was bedridden with multiple deformations by fractures in thoracic and pelvic members. Blood pressure was 100/80, heart rate was 86 per minute, and body mass index was 19 kg/m(2). Calcium was 14 mg/dL, parathormone 1648 pg/mL, phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, creatinine 2.4 mg/dL, urea 59 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 1580 U/L, and vitamin D 4 ng/mL. She received parenteral treatment of hypercalcemia and replenishment of vitamin D. The second surgical exploration was radioguided by gamma probe. A retroesophageal adenoma of 4 cm was resected. Conclusion. Persistent hyperparathyroidism with severe vitamin D deficiency can cause catastrophic skeletal bone softening and fractures. " }, { "id": "article-23201_40", "title": "Primary Hyperparathyroidism -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009917985885943162, "content": "Patients on known hypercalcemic drugs, such as lithium and thiazide, should have these medications stopped for 3 to 6 months, if possible, and their serum calcium & parathyroid hormone levels retested. Patients with low vitamin D levels should receive supplements to maintain at least 30 mg/mL. If parathyroid hormone levels are still elevated, this suggests hyperparathyroidism. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia can be excluded by a 24-hour urine calcium determination (<100 mg calcium/24  hours) or by a low calcium/creatinine excretion ratio [(urinary calcium x serum creatinine) / (serum calcium x urinary creatinine)] typically <0.02. [88] It may present as early as age 30 and virtually never after age 50. [88] [89]" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28588", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "patients have suppressed 1,25(OH)2D. Measurement of 1,25(OH)2D is, however, critically valuable in establishing the cause of hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis and certain lymphomas. A useful general approach is outlined in Fig. 424-6. If the patient is asymptomatic and there is evidence of chronicity to the hypercalcemia, hyperparathyroidism is almost certainly the cause. If PTH levels (usually measured at least twice) are elevated, the clinical impression is confirmed and little additional evaluation is necessary. If there is only a short history or no data as to the duration of the hypercalcemia, occult malignancy must be considered; if the PTH levels are not elevated, then a thorough workup must be undertaken for malignancy, including chest x-ray, CT of chest and abdomen, and bone scan. Immunoassays for PTHrP may be especially useful in such situations. Attention should also be paid to clues for underlying hematologic disorders such as anemia, increased plasma globulin, and abnormal" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en248_8158", "title": "Vitamin D deficiency", "score": 0.009837885853875194, "content": "Diagnosis The serum concentration of calcifediol, also called 25-hydroxyvitamin D (abbreviated 25(OH)D), is typically used to determine vitamin D status. Most vitamin D is converted to 25(OH)D in the serum, giving an accurate picture of vitamin D status. The level of serum 1,25(OH)D is not usually used to determine vitamin D status because it often is regulated by other hormones in the body such as parathyroid hormone. The levels of 1,25(OH)D can remain normal even when a person may be vitamin D deficient. Serum level of 25(OH)D is the laboratory test ordered to indicate whether or not a person has vitamin D deficiency or insufficiency. It is also considered reasonable to treat at-risk persons with vitamin D supplementation without checking the level of 25(OH)D in the serum, as vitamin D toxicity has only been rarely reported to occur." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0831_3763", "title": "[Cervical macroadenoma causing hyperparathyroidism: Report of one case].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report a 59-year-old man with a history of hypertension, recurrent renal stones and a severe hypercalcemia of 14.9 mg/dl with a serum phosphorus of 2.4 mg/dl and a serum albumin of 3.6 g/dl. Physical examination showed a 4 cm left cervical nodule, consistent with the diagnosis of thyroid nodule. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels were 844 pg/mL (normal 15-65 pg/ml) and a cervical ultrasound examination disclosed a solid nodule in the lower left lobe of 40 x 30 x 25 mm, adjacent to the thyroid parenchyma. Abdominal ultrasound revealed bilateral renal stones. Parathyroid scintigraphy showed a high uptake of the left lower parathyroid mass and a bone densitometry showed bone density t scores of -1.2 in the spine, -2.0 in the right femoral neck and -3.5 in the distal radius. A review of his medical record revealed the presence of hypercalcemia for at least 4 years. He was admitted for hydration and administration of 4 mg zoledronic acid iv. At 24 hours, serum calcium dropped to 11.0 mg/dl, and a left thyroid lobectomy was performed including the lower left parathyroid gland. The pathology report showed a 22.6 g parathyroid adenoma. Intraoperatory PTH descended &gt; 50%, consistent with successful parathyroidectomy. At 7 days after surgery serum calcium was 8.8 mg/dl, phosphorus 2.1 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 166 U/L, albumin 3.9 g/dL, PTH 230 pg/ml and 25-OH vitamin D 12.4 ng/ml. This finding was interpreted as secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vitamin D deficiency and \"hungry bone\", being less likely the presence of residual or metastatic parathyroid tissue. A cholecalciferol load was administered, with significant descent of PTH. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0634_13780", "title": "[Diagnostic evaluation and differential diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is characterized by the autonomous production of parathyroid hormone (PTH), in which there is hypercalcemia or normal-high serum calcium levels, in the presence of elevated or inappropriately normal serum PTH concentrations. Exceptionally, in symptomatic patients, a diagnosis can be established on the basis of clinical data. PHPT must always be evaluated in patients with clinical histories of nephrolithiasis, nephrocalcinosis, osseous pain, subperiosteal resorption, and pathologic fractures, as well as in those with osteoporosis-osteopenia on dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA), a personal history of neck irradiation, or a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome (types 1 or 2). Diagnosis of PHPT is biochemical. Asymptomatic hypercalcemia (total serum calcium corrected by albumin), without guiding signs or symptoms, is the most frequent manifestation of the disease. For the differential diagnosis, PTH(1-84) must be measured, as well as phosphate, chloride, 25-hydroxyvitamin D, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D and calcium-to-creatinine clearance. Suppressed or inappropriately low PTH1-84 guides the diagnose toward tumoral hypercalcemia and less frequently to granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, etc.), inadequate intake of 1alpha-hydroxyvitamin D or calcitriol, vitamin D or A intoxication, lithium intake, endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism, Addison's disease, etc.) or treatment with thiazides, among other possibilities. Diagnosis of PHPT is confirmed by demonstrating persistent hypercalcemia (or normal-high serum calcium levels) in the presence of inappropriately normal or elevated serum PTH(1-84) concentrations, unless the urinary calcium-to-creatinine clearance ratio is lower than 0.01. In these cases, in the absence of thiazide intake or severe vitamin D deficiency, diagnosis should focus on benign familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria. Parathyroid gland imaging is useful for localization of PHPT, but not for diagnosis of this entity." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28731", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009760658189977562, "content": "There is no established algorithm for the evaluation of women who present with osteoporosis. A general evaluation that includes complete blood count, serum and 24-h urine calcium, renal and hepatic function tests, and a 25(OH)D level is useful for identifying selected secondary causes of low bone mass, particularly for women with fractures or very low Z-scores. An elevated serum calcium level suggests hyperparathyroidism or malignancy, whereas a reduced serum calcium level may reflect malnutrition and osteomalacia. In the presence of hypercalcemia, a serum PTH level differentiates between hyperparathyroidism (PTH↑) and malignancy (PTH↓), and a high PTHrP level can help document the presence of humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (Chap. 424). A low urine calcium (<50 mg/24 h) suggests osteomalacia, malnutrition, or malabsorption; a high urine calcium (>300 mg/24 h) is indicative of hypercalciuria and must be investigated further. Hypercalciuria occurs primarily in three situations: (1)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0615_21445", "title": "[Changes in mineral metabolism in stage 3, 4, and 5 chronic kidney disease (not on dialysis)].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "With progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), disorders of mineral metabolism appear. The classic sequence of events begins with a deficit of calcitriol synthesis and retention of phosphorus. As a result of this, serum calcium decreases and parathyroid hormone (PTH) is stimulated, producing in the bone the high turnover (HT) bone disease known as osteitis fibrosa while on the other extreme we find the forms of low turnover (LT) bone disease. Described later and initially associated with aluminum intoxication, these diseases are now seen primarily in older and/or diabetic patients, who in a uremic setting have relatively low levels of PTH to maintain normal bone turnover. Osteomalacia is also included in this group, which after the disappearance of aluminum intoxication is rarely observed. LT forms of hyperparathyroidism facilitate the exit of calcium (Ca) and phosphorus (P) from bone, whereas the adynamic bone limits the incorporation of Ca and P into bone tissue. Therefore, both forms facilitate the availability of Ca and P, which ends up being deposited in soft tissues such as arteries. The link between bone disease and vascular calcifications in CKD is now a well-established phenomenon. 2. Diagnostic strategies Calcium, Phosphorus They have little capacity to predict underlying bone disease, but their regular measurement is decisive for therapeutic management of the patient, especially in the dose titration stages of intestinal phosphorus binders, vitamin D analogs or calcimimetics. Ideally, Ca++ should be used, but total Ca is routinely used. It is recommended to adjust albumin levels in the event of hypoalbuminemia (for each g/dL of decrease in albumin, total serum Ca decreases 0.9 mg/dL). The following formula facilitates rapid calculation of corrected total calcium: Corrected total Ca (mg/dL) = total Ca (mg/dL) + 0.8 [4-albumina (g/dL)]. Parathyroid hormone \"Intact\" PTH is the biochemical parameter that best correlates with bone histology (levels measured with the Allegro assay from Nichols Institute Diagnostics, no longer available). Various assays are currently available that use antibodies against different fragments of the molecule, but they have significant intermethod variability and have not been validated. A whole PT assay (1-84) is currently unavailable. A consensus to establish uniform criteria for PTH measurement remains to be established. During the dose titration stages of intestinal phosphorus binders, vitamin D analogs or calcimimetics, more frequent measurement may be required based on clinical judgment. Calcifediol (25(OH)D3) It is important to maintain adequate levels of 25(OH)D3 (&gt; 30 ng/mL), since they will be the substrate for production of 1- 25(OH)2 D3, and their deficiency aggravates hyperthyroidism. Determining 25(OH)D3 levels every 6-12 months is a recommended guideline. Other markers of bone turnover (osteocalcin, total and bone alkaline phosphate, free pyridolines in serum, and C-terminal telopeptide of collagen) do not improve the predictive power of PTH and therefore their systematic use is not justified. Radiologic studies Radiologic studies are of little diagnostic utility, because biochemical changes precede radiologic changes. Systematic radiologic evaluation of the skeleton in asymptomatic patients is not justified at present. They are useful as the first step in the study to detect vascular calcifications and amyloidosis due to b2-microglobulin and in symptomatic and at risk patients to detect vertebral fractures. Bone densitometry: Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) is the standard method to determine bone mineral density (usually in the femoral neck and vertebrae). It provides information on changes in bone mineral content, but not on the type of underlying bone disease. It is useful for follow-up of bone mass or for the study of bone mass changes in the same patient. Its value as a predictor of the risk of fracture has not been demonstrated in patients on kidney replacement therapy or with advanced chronic kidney disease. It is indicated in patients with fractures or risk factors for osteoporosis. Bone biopsy: The \"gold standard\" for diagnosis of bone disease. With improved knowledge of the value of noninvasive parameters, its use is infrequent. Pathological fractures in the presence or absence of minor trauma. Symptomatic patients in the presence of incongruent clinical parameters. A typical case is the presence of unexplained hypercalcemia from systemic disease, with inconclusive serum PTH values (between 120-450 pg/mL as an estimated range). Evaluation and follow-up of cardiovascular calcifications There are no consensuated clinical practice guidelines for the evaluation and follow-up of extraosseal calcifications in CKD. The clinical tools for evaluation and follow-up of cardiovascular disease are used based on clinical judgment. The periodicity of follow-up has not been established . 3. Recommended biochemical values The biochemical values recommended in clinical practice guidelines for the evaluation of bone mineral metabolism are summarized in Figure 3. The recommended PTH values do not fully coincide with the K/DOQI guidelines. The wide variability in PTH values depending on the assays used has led us to expand the recommended PTH range in stage 3 and 4 CKD. 4. Treatment 4.1. Diet. The recommended diet for the patient with CKD is traditionally based on protein restriction and phosphorus restriction for control of mineral metabolism. A favorable circumstance is that there is a close relationship between protein and phosphorus intake. In CKD stages 3, 4 and 5, it is recommended to restrict phosphorus intake to between 0.8-1 g/day when serum levels of phosphorus and PTH are above the recommended range. This is approximately equivalent to a diet of 50-60 g of protein. This reasonable antiproteinuric strategy that also restricts phosphorus intake is nutritionally safe. What should we tell them to eat? In a practical and oversimplified way, we recommend the following daily intake: Animal proteins: 1 serving (100-120 g), dairy products: 1 serving (equivalent to 200-240 mL of milk or 2 yoghourts), bread, cereals, pastas (1 cup of pasta, rice or legumes + some bread or cookies), vegetables and fruits relatively freely, but with moderation. 4.2. Medication Vitamin D supplements should be provided if serum levels are less than 30 ng/mL. In Spain, vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) is marketed as Vitamin D3 Berenguer 2,000 IU/mL of solution. Combinations of calcium with cholecalciferol are also available. Most of the dosage forms contain approximately 500 mg of Ca+ and 400 IU of cholecalciferol. Alternatively, calcifediol (25(OH)D3), as Hidroferol 100 mcg/mL, has been used, although the dose range is very variable and has not been established. 4.3. Phosphorus binders. Use if hyperphosphatemia occurs. Start with calcium-containing phosphorus binders (calcium carbonate or calcium acetate), which also provide calcium if dietary intake is inadequate. Do not exceed 1.5 g of Ca++ per day. The most used are calcium carbonate and calcium acetate. Calcium acetate shows a similar binding potency to calcium carbonate but with a lesser calcium overload, and thus would have certain advantages as well as its greater effect at different pH ranges. However, gastric intolerance is more frequent with this dosage form. Aluminum hydroxide may sometimes be required to control phosphoremia or the occurrence of hypercalcemia. Serum aluminum values should be maintained below 30 mcg/L. Avoid use for longer than 6 months and daily doses greater than 1.5 g. Sevelamer is associated with an increased risk of acidosis and has not been approved for use in predialysis stages. Lanthanum carbonate has been recently marketed in Spain, although its indication for use in the predialysis stage of CKD is still not approved. 4.4. Vitamin D derivatives. Indicated when PTH levels are elevated. A prerequisite for their use is that Ca and P serum levels are adequately controlled. Vitamin D derivates available in Spain are 1,25(OH)2D3 (Calcitriol)and 1a(OH)D3 (a-Calcidiol). Doses should be titrated until PTH levels are normalized. Phosphate binder doses often need to be increased because these vitamin D derivatives increase intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus. Low doses do not cause hypercalcemia or hyperphosphatemia and do not worsen the course of renal function. Recommended doses: Calcitriol 0.25 mcg every 48 hours and alpha-Calcidiol 0.50 mcg every 48 hours. Soon to be available on the Spanish market is the oral dosage form of paricalcitol (recommended initial dose of 1 mcg/24 h), with a lesser hypercalcemic and hyperphosphoremic effect. Clinical use of calcimimetics in the predialysis state is not yet recommended and is currently under investigation." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28586", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "based on the double-antibody method for PTH exhibit very high sensitivity (especially if serum calcium is simultaneously evaluated) and specificity for the diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism (Fig. 424-4). In summary, PTH values are elevated in >90% of parathyroid-related causes of hypercalcemia, undetectable or low in malignancy-related hypercalcemia, and undetectable or normal in vitamin D– related and high-bone-turnover causes of hypercalcemia. In view of the specificity of the PTH immunoassay and the high frequency of hyperparathyroidism in hypercalcemic patients, it is cost-effective to measure the PTH level in all hypercalcemic patients unless malignancy or a specific nonparathyroid disease is obvious. False-positive PTH assay results are rare. Immunoassays for PTHrP are helpful in diagnosing certain types of malignancy-associated hypercalcemia. Although FHH is parathyroid-related, the disease should be managed distinctively from hyperparathyroidism. Clinical features and" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28438", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009664719739262318, "content": "include 1.5–2 g/d of elemental calcium. Normocalcemia is usually observed within 1 week of the institution of therapy, although increases in PTH and alkaline phosphatase levels may persist for 3–6 months. The most efficacious methods to monitor treatment and resolution of vitamin D deficiency are serum and urinary calcium measurements. In patients who are vitamin D replete and are taking adequate calcium supplementation, the 24-h urinary calcium excretion should be in the range of 100–250 mg/24 h. Lower levels suggest problems with adherence to the treatment regimen or with absorption of calcium or vitamin D supplements. Levels >250 mg/24 h predispose to nephrolithiasis and should lead to a reduction in vitamin D dosage and/or calcium supplementation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1088_3938", "title": "Renal Papillary Necrosis Associated With Normocalcemic Primary Hyperparathyroidism.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Renal papillary necrosis (RPN) occurring in primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) has not been reported. We present a 50-year-old woman who manifested RPN associated with hypercalciuria and normocalcemic PHPT. The diagnosis of RPN was based on imaging studies (ultrasound and computed tomography [CT] scan). PHPT was diagnosed with high parathyroid hormone (PTH) and high/normal serum calcium. A 38-year-old woman was evaluated for hypercalcemia (serum calcium, 11.8 mg/dL; ionized calcium, 6.3 mg/dL; phosphorus, 1.8 mg/dL; intact PTH, 98 pg/mL; and 24-hour urine calcium, 543 mg). Renal ultrasound showed no nephrocalcinosis or nephrolithiasis. A parathyroid scan revealed a left parathyroid adenoma. The patient underwent parathyroidectomy, and she became normocalcemic with normal serum PTH levels postoperatively. One year later, she was diagnosed with a left-sided bronchial carcinoid tumor. Following surgery, a surveillance gallium<sup68</sup positron emission tomography/CT scan performed 2 years later was negative for metastases. Twelve years later (aged 50 years), she presented for follow-up and reported no symptoms of hypercalcemia, fractures, nephrolithiasis, history of pyelonephritis, diabetes mellitus, analgesic drug use, or hypertension. Her serum calcium level was 9.1 mg/dL, PTH level was 82 pg/mL, 25-OH vitamin D level was 34 ng/mL, and 24-hour urine calcium level was 410 mg. However, renal ultrasound showed bilateral RPN that was confirmed by a CT scan. RPN may be associated with hypercalciuria and normocalcemic PHPT. Additional studies with a large number of patients are needed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0125_13816", "title": "[Clinical value of assays of parathyroid hormone and 25-hydroxyvitamin D in internal medicine].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Over a 3 years period, PTH, 25 OHD, calcium and phosphate levels were measured in all patients admitted to a department of Internal Medicine with abnormal phospho-calcic metabolism or bone disease. The diagnostic value of iPTH was analysed, especially in cases of hyper- and hypocalcaemia. In hypercalcaemia, the iPTH did not differentiate between the two main differential diagnoses: hyperparathyroidism and cancer. In patients with a negative calcium balance, the iPTH level is often raised and many help towards diagnosis. However, it should first of all orientate the clinician towards the detection of renal failure which is a common cause of this condition." }, { "id": "article-23200_24", "title": "Normocalcemic Hyperparathyroidism -- Evaluation -- Biochemistry", "score": 0.009536019107161673, "content": "A diagnosis of nPHPT in most cases is made when patients presenting with osteoporosis or renal stones are investigated proactively. In such presentations, reasonable initial investigations would include serum ionized calcium (if available otherwise, total corrected calcium), P, PTH, eGFR, 25 OH vitamin D, and urinary calcium excretion. The results from these and a thorough review of the patient's medications would suffice to exclude nSHPT and diagnose nPHPT. The clinical situation dictates other investigations like liver function tests and serum Mg. Some have proposed that an increased serum calcium/phosphate ratio might help identify independent parathyroid activity, but this has yet to be validated by prospective studies. [19] Two studies looking at this found very high negative predictive values for the albumin-adjusted calcium/phosphorus ratio of 88% and 95% suggesting that this calculation may be of more use to exclude nPHPT than to diagnose it. [19] [20]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en438_11410", "title": "Suboptimal health", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Another criterion for diagnosis of subhealth was defined as the presence of ≥ 1 of the following abnormalities: body mass index ≥ 25 kg/m2 or waist circumference ≥ 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women; systolic pressure 120-139 mmHg and/or diastolic pressure 80-89 mmHg; serum triglyceride level ≥ 150 mg/dL and/or total cholesterol level ≥ 200 mg/dL and/or high-density lipoprotein cholesterol level < 40 mg/dL in men and 50 mg/dL in women; serum glucose level 110–125 mg/dL; estimated glomerular filtration rate 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2; levels of liver enzymes in liver function tests between 41-59 U/L, or with fatty liver disease but < 33% of affected hepatocytes; levels of oxidative stress biomarkers beyond the reference range of 95%; or problems with both sleep quality and psychological state. Population Health Status" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_62174", "title": "Jaundice", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Risk factors Risk factors associated with high serum bilirubin levels include male gender, white ethnicities, and active smoking. Mean serum total bilirubin levels in adults were found to be higher in men (0.72 ± 0.004 mg/dl) than women (0.52 ± 0.003 mg/dl). Higher bilirubin levels in adults are found also in non-Hispanic white population (0.63 ± 0.004 mg/dl) and Mexican American population (0.61 ± 0.005 mg/dl) while lower in non-Hispanic black population (0.55 ± 0.005 mg/dl). Bilirubin levels are higher in active smokers. Special populations Neonatal jaundice" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_19686", "title": "Humoral hypercalcemia of pregnancy treated with bisphosphonates.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Hypercalcemia can be hazardous during pregnancy, most cases being due to primary hyperparathyroidism. We report a case of hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH levels necessitating treatment with bisphosphonates during pregnancy. A 38-year-old woman at the 26th week gestation was admitted because of symptomatic hypercalcemia. She did not take any medication that could influence her calcium levels. Physical examination was unremarkable. Laboratory tests on admission were: calcium 12.7 mg/dL (8.5-10.5 mg/dL), phosphorus 1.8 mg/dL (2.5-4.5 mg/dL) and PTH on 3 consecutive tests 1.2, 1.3 and 1.2 pg/mL (15-65 pg/mL). Her 24h urine calcium was 900 mg, 25-OH-D 40 ng/mL (30-58 ng/mL) and 1,25-OH-D 99 pg/mL (80-146 for women in the third trimester). Abdominal ultrasound revealed multiple hypervascular liver lesions consistent with hemangiomas by MRI. Breast and neck ultrasound were normal, and chest CT revealed few non-significant 0.3-0.7 cm pulmonary nodules with no change after an interval of 3 months. She was treated with isotonic saline, loop diuretics and calcitonin. Despite this treatment, calcium levels remained high (14.1 mg/dL), and pamidronate was initiated. On 35th week gestation, she underwent a cesarean section complicated by hypocalcemia of the newborn. Eight weeks after delivery, her calcium levels are 9.4 mg/dL and PTH 18 mg/dL. According to the extensive workup and the post-partum normalization of PTH and calcium levels, we conclude that excessive secretion of placental PTHrP was the cause of hypercalcemia in this patient. No significant adverse effect of bisphosphonate on the mother or baby were seen at the short term follow up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_14978", "title": "[Stages of the etiological diagnosis of hypercalcemia].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "After confirming hypercalcemia by 3 successive measurements of the total plasma calcium corrected for a plasma protein concentration of 72 g/l, which excludes spurious hypercalcemia due to dehydration, the physician orientates the aetiological diagnosis bearing in mind that primary hyperparathyroidism PHPT is the cause of 85 p. 100 of all asymptomatic forms of hypercalcaemia whilst overt or occult malignancy is the main cause (60 p. 100) of symptomatic forms of hypercalcaemia with PHPT responsible for 20 p. 100 of cases. Other causes, including drug toxicity with Vit D, calcium, Vit A, lithium, thiazide and aluminium hydroxide, sarcoidosis, hyperthyroidism, Addison's disease, pheochromocytoma and familial endocrine disorders are much rarer. Nevertheless, these rarer causes must be excluded on the clinical history and examination followed by radiological (chest X ray, plain abdomen X ray, bone X rays) and simple biological tests. The latter and/or scans tests should also help in a rapid diagnosis of metastatic carcinoma and multiple myeloma, so that the major diagnostic problem is to distinguish primary HPT from occult malignancy. This problem is greatly facilitated by reliable assays of C terminal or medium PTH rather than renal CAMP which is increased in 80 p. 100 of occult malignancies. When PTH assays is unavailable or unreliable Dent's hydrocortisone suppression test may be useful as a fall in'serum calcium is associated with occult malignancy in 70 p. 100 of cases and non-suppression is associated with PHPT in 91 p. 100 of cases. Discriminant analysis of the usual biochemical parameters may be helpful in this differential diagnosis and is accurate in about 90 p. 100 of cases. However, the association of PHPT and malignancy is also possible and not fortuitous." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_23762", "title": "The role of rapid PACU parathyroid hormone in reducing post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Post-thyroidectomy parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels have been used to predict hypocalcemia. The goal of this study was to determine whether selective supplementation for post anesthesia care unit (PACU) PTH &lt; 15 mg/dL reduced hypocalcemia compared to observation or routine supplementation. Controlled cohort study of thyroidectomy patients, with chart review. Chart review of total or completion thyroidectomy patients in an academic setting. The control group consisted of 124 subjects. The selective supplementation group consisted of 169 subjects with routine PACU PTH testing. The routine supplementation group consisted of 155 subjects with immediate postoperative calcium and vitamin D supplementation. The control group received supplementation for hypocalcemia (calcium &lt; 8.0 mg/dL). The selective PTH group received calcium and vitamin D supplementation for PACU PTH &lt; 15 mg/dL or hypocalcemia. The routine supplementation group received oral calcium and calcitriol supplementation immediately after surgery. Four separate postoperative day 1 (POD1) outcome measures were evaluated: 1) mean serum calcium; 2) rate of hypocalcemia &lt; 8 mg/dL; 3) rate of significant hypocalcemia &lt; 7.5 mg/dL; and 4) rate of hypercalcemia &gt; 10 mg/dL. Mean serum calcium was lower and the rate of hypocalcemia was higher in the control group than the selective PACU PTH group on POD1 (8.2 vs 8.6 mg/dL, P &lt; 0.0001, and 35% vs 14%, P &lt; 0.0001, respectively). Mean serum calcium was higher (8.9 vs 8.6 mg/dL, P &lt; 0.0001) and the rate of hypocalcemia lower in the routine supplementation group than in the selective group. However, the rate of hypercalcemia was higher in the routine supplementation group than in the selective group (4.5% vs 0%, P = 0.006). Routine PTH testing and supplementation for patients with hypoparathyroidism reduced the proportion of patients experiencing hypocalcemia. However, supplementation for intraoperative PTH &lt; 15 mg/dL had a higher rate of hypocalcemia than routine supplementation, but with a lower rate of hypercalcemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0493_8276", "title": "Treatment of hyperphosphatemia in hemodialysis patients: The Calcium Acetate Renagel Evaluation (CARE Study).", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Hyperphosphatemia underlies development of hyperparathyroidism, osteodystrophy, extraosseous calcification, and is associated with increased mortality in hemodialysis patients. To determine whether calcium acetate or sevelamer hydrochloride best achieves recently recommended treatment goals of phosphorus &lt;/=5.5 mg/dL and Ca x P product &lt;/=55 mg(2)/dL(2), we conducted an 8-week randomized, double-blind study in 100 hemodialysis patients. Comparisons of time-averaged concentrations (weeks 1 to 8) demonstrated that calcium acetate recipients had lower serum phosphorus (1.08 mg/dL difference, P= 0.0006), higher serum calcium (0.63 mg/dL difference, P &lt; 0.0001), and lower Ca x P (6.1 mg(2)/dL(2) difference, P= 0.022) than sevelamer recipients. At each week, calcium acetate recipients were 20% to 24% more likely to attain goal phosphorus [odds ratio (OR) 2.37, 95% CI 1.28-4.37, P= 0.0058], and 15% to 20% more likely to attain goal Ca x P (OR 2.16, 95% CI 1.20-3.86, P= 0.0097). Transient hypercalcemia occurred in 8 of 48 (16.7%) calcium acetate recipients, all of whom received concomitant intravenous vitamin D. By regression analysis hypercalcemia was more likely with calcium acetate (OR 6.1, 95% CI 2.8-13.3, P &lt; 0.0001). Week 8 intact PTH levels were not significantly different. Serum bicarbonate levels were significantly lower with sevelamer hydrochloride treatment (P &lt; 0.0001). Calcium acetate controls serum phosphorus and calcium-phosphate product more effectively than sevelamer hydrochloride. Cost-benefit analysis indicates that in the absence of hypercalcemia, calcium acetate should remain the treatment of choice for hyperphosphatemia in hemodialysis patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1075_7068", "title": "[Asymptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism : Operation or observation?]", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In many cases primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) remains asymptomatic for years and is only detected by abnormalities in routine diagnostics. While symptomatic disease almost always requires surgical treatment, in symptom-free patients the question of whether and in what form treatment should be carried out is particularly important. The aim of this review is to summarize the current recommendations regarding the diagnostics and treatment of asymptomatic PHPT, taking the existing evidence into account. The diagnostics of asymptomatic PHPT is the same as for symptomatic disease. The diagnosis is made in the presence of elevated parathyroid hormone and balanced vitamin D levels when a combination of hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia and hypercalciuria is present. Borderline laboratory findings occur especially in asymptomatic PHPT and the differential diagnosis of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia must be considered. Once the diagnosis is made sonography, radiography or computed tomography (CT) is used to search for nephrolithiasis or nephrocalcinosis. Regarding bone mineral density (BMD) measurements, in addition to routine measurements at the lumbar spine and femur, measurement at the distal radius is important as it is the most sensitive site for detecting osteoporosis in PHPT. An indication for parathyroidectomy is confirmed in the case of hypercalcemia &gt; 1.0 mg/dl (&gt;0.25 mmol/l) above the upper limit of normal, hypercalciuria &gt; 400 mg/day (&gt;10 mmol/day), renal insufficiency, proven osteoporosis or age &lt; 50 years. If none of these criteria are fulfilled and surgery is not desired by the patient, annual laboratory check-ups and assessment of BMD every 1-2 years are recommended." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 158, 418 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 69 ] ], "text": "The existence of clinical symptoms suggestive of pathology of the upper digestive tract has led us to begin the study with upper endoscopy, but there is no pathology to justify the anemia, so further investigation is necessary, which rules out answers 1 and 2." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 158, 418 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 69 ] ], "text": "The existence of clinical symptoms suggestive of pathology of the upper digestive tract has led us to begin the study with upper endoscopy, but there is no pathology to justify the anemia, so further investigation is necessary, which rules out answers 1 and 2." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 419, 528 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 89 ] ], "text": "Between 3 and 4, large bowel lesions are much more common and should be ruled out before small bowel lesions." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 419, 528 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 89 ] ], "text": "Between 3 and 4, large bowel lesions are much more common and should be ruled out before small bowel lesions." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Administer oral iron and monitor the evolution of anemia.", "2": "Treat with proton pump inhibitors and evaluate at three months.", "3": "Recommend a complete colonoscopy.", "4": "Perform an endoscopic capsule study.", "5": "Request a gynecological evaluation." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0608_23519", "title": "[A 68-year-old woman with iron deficiency anemia].", "score": 0.019419306184012067, "content": "A 68-year-old woman with iron deficiency anemia (due to gastrointestinal bleeding) was evaluated. Over a period of two years she received iron supplementation perorally and intravenously, as well as multiple blood transfusions, but the hemoglobin level did not exceed 10 g/dL. The investigations included upper endoscopy, duodenoscopy with side optical view, ileocolonoscopy, capsule endoscopy, antegrad single-balloon enteroscopy and conventional angiography of the abdominal vessels. Upper and lower endoscopies were performed repeatedly. The only consistent finding was linear erosions of the gastric mucosa in a large hiatal hernia at the level of the diaphragm. The association between large hiatal hernias and iron deficiency anemia was first described in the 1930s. The bleeding source is thought to be erosions or ulcerations in the hiatal hernia, as described by Cameron &amp; Higgins in 1986. These lesions are analogous to the finding in our patient. The recognized treatment options are iron supplementation, proton pump inhibition and fundoplication. In our case we decided to start treatment with pantoprazole. Her hemoglobin level had normalized within an observational period of three months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0329_15362", "title": "A prospective, multidisciplinary evaluation of premenopausal women with iron-deficiency anemia.", "score": 0.019334952363160844, "content": "The cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA) in premenopausal women is often presumed to be menstrual blood loss. The purpose of this study was to determine the diagnostic value of a comprehensive gynecological and gastrointestinal evaluation in premenopausal women with IDA. Nineteen premenopausal, nonpregnant women older than 18 yr of age with IDA defined by a hemoglobin &lt; 12 gm/dl with serum ferritin &lt; 10 ng/ml participated in the study. Evaluations included directed history and physical examination by a specialist in gynecology and a subspecialist in gastroenterology, esophagogastroduodenoscopy, colonoscopy, upper gastrointestinal radiography with small bowel follow-through, antiendomysial antibody, and fecal occult blood tests. Seven of 19 (37%) premenopausal women with IDA were diagnosed to have a gynecological cause of anemia by a specialist in that field. Although only four of these seven patients had digestive complaints, all but one (86%) were discovered to have gastrointestinal disease by upper endoscopy; findings were duodenal ulcer and Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) gastritis (one), esophagitis and H. pylori gastritis (one), erosive esophagitis (one), gastric arteriovenous malformations (one), and nodular/erosive H. pylori gastritis (two). Fecal occult blood testing was positive in only two (29%) subjects; upper endoscopy revealed erosive esophagitis and gastric arteriovenous malformations. Twelve of the 19 (63%) premenopausal women with IDA were not diagnosed to have a gynecological source of anemia by a specialist in that field. Fecal occult blood testing was negative among all women tested and the only digestive complaint was heartburn (pyrosis) in seven. Each was identified to have esophagitis, duodenal ulcer, or gastritis by upper endoscopy. Colonoscopic examination of the 12 subjects without gynecologic etiology for IDA revealed pan colitis (one), diverticulosis (one), diverticulosis and melanosis coli (one), hyperplastic polyps (one), and nodular lymphoid aggregates (one). Significant upper gastrointestinal disease is identifiable among most premenopausal women with IDA (18 of 19 or 95%), even when careful evaluation by a specialist in gynecology suggests a gynecological source. Upper endoscopy should be considered in the evaluation of all premenopausal women with IDA expressing digestive complaints or in those with IDA refractory to iron supplementation. Lower endoscopic examination may be reserved for those women with symptoms or signs suggestive of colorectal disorders." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1090_14752", "title": "Benefit of Capsule Endoscopy in the Setting of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Patients Above Age 65.", "score": 0.018829561527581327, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is a common indication for a capsule endoscopy (CE), which is often offered after a negative bidirectional endoscopy. Since malignancy is a concern in the older population with IDA, upper and lower endoscopic exams are typically performed. If these tests are negative, CE may be offered to evaluate the small intestine. However, choosing the ideal candidates who are most likely to benefit from a CE study is challenging. The goal of this study was to assess the outcomes for CE in patients with IDA over age 65 and assess which factors are more likely to contribute to a positive CE yield. A retrospective review of all CE studies at St. Paul's Hospital from January 2010 to June 2016 was conducted after ethics approval. Inclusion criteria included the following: age &gt;65, hemoglobin &lt;120 g/L, serum ferritin &lt;70 μg/L, and at least one high-quality complete EGD/colonoscopy performed before CE. Variables to assess factors that are more likely to contribute to a positive capsule yield included use of anticoagulation medications, NSAIDs, PPIs, transfusion burden and cardiac disease. A Chi-Square test was then used to determine clinical predictive factors of a positive and negative study. There were 1149 CE studies that were reviewed, of which 130 CE studies met inclusion criteria. Fifty-one studies (40.6%) had positive findings, and from this group, 30 (58.8%) recommended active intervention (i.e., EGD, n = 8; colonoscopy, n = 12; push enteroscopy, n = 3; double-balloon [DB] enteroscopy, n = 2; small bowel resection, n = 3; escalation of Crohn's therapy, n = 2), while 21 (41.2%) were managed supportively, typically with iron supplementation. Most negative studies (73 of 79) recommended supportive therapy (other recommendations included hematological workup, n = 3; hiatal hernia repair, n = 1; proton-pump inhibitors [PPI] initiation, n = 1; stop donating blood, n = 1).A history of cardiac disease had a significant association with positive findings (0.54 versus 0.33, <iP</i = 0.001). Conversely, a known history of low ferritin levels (0.84 versus 0.68, <iP</i = 0.046) and a known history of hiatal hernia (0.25 versus 0.08, <iP</i = 0.012) were associated with a negative study. These findings suggest that the clinical yield of CE in IDA in patients above age 65 is relatively low. The majority of all CE studies recommended supportive therapy or repeat endoscopic exams (EGD/colonoscopy) of areas previously assessed and lesions missed. Provided that initial endoscopic exams were thorough and Crohn's disease management was optimized, the overall rate of changing management significantly was low at five of 130 studies (two DB enteroscopies and three resections) or 3.8%. Clinical factors focusing on cardiac history, ferritin levels and the presence of a hiatal hernia may be of utility to predict benefit of CE. Emphasis on these data may help select more appropriate patients for capsule endoscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_10811", "title": "The role of endoscopy in the evaluation of iron deficiency anemia in premenopausal women.", "score": 0.018108816781383152, "content": "Men and postmenopausal women with iron deficiency anemia are routinely evaluated to exclude a gastrointestinal source of suspected internal bleeding. Iron deficiency anemia in premenopausal women is often treated with simple iron replacement under the assumption that the condition is due to excessive menstrual blood loss. To determine the yield of endoscopy evaluations in premenopausal women with iron deficiency anemia. Upper and lower gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations were conducted in 45 premenopausal women with iron deficiency anemia not related to gynecologic or nutritional causes. Forty-three of the 45 women fulfilled the entry criteria and were enrolled. Their mean age was 35 +/- 15 years and their mean hemoglobin level 9.3 +/- 2.3 g/dl. Twenty-eight upper gastrointestinal lesions were demonstrated in 24 of the 43 patients (55.8%): erosive gastritis in 12 (27.9%), erosive duodenitis in 4 (9.3%), erosive esophagitis in 3 (7.0%), hiatus hernia (with Cameron lesions) in 3 (7.0%), active duodenal ulcer in 1 (2.3%) and hyperplastic polyp (10 mm) in 1 (2.3%). Five lower gastrointestinal lesions were detected in 5 patients (16.3%): 2 (4.6%) had adenocarcinoma of the right colon, 2 (4.6%) had pedunculate adenomatous polyp &gt; 10 mm, and 1 (2.3%) had segmental colitis (Crohn's disease). One patient (2.3%) had pathologic findings in both the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts. Our findings of a gastrointestinal source of chronic blood loss in 28 of 43 premenopausal women with iron deficiency anemia (65.1%) suggest that this population will benefit from bi-directional endoscopic evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0683_7170", "title": "Identification of clinical and simple laboratory variables predicting responsible gastrointestinal lesions in patients with iron deficiency anemia.", "score": 0.017011197243755383, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is a frequent disorder. Also, it may be a sign of underlying serious diseases. Iron deficiency points to an occult or frank bleeding lesion when occurred in men or postmenopausal women. In this study, we aimed to evaluate the diagnostic yield of endoscopy in patients with IDA and to define predictive factors of gastrointestinal (GI) lesions causing IDA. Ninety-one patients (77 women, 14 men; mean age: 43 years) who were decided to have esophago-duodenoscopy and/or colonoscopy for iron deficiency anemia were interviewed and responded to a questionnaire that included clinical and biochemical variables. The endoscopic findings were recorded as GI lesions causing IDA or not causing IDA. Endoscopy revealed a source of IDA in 18.6 % of cases. The risk factors for finding GI lesions causing IDA were as follows: male gender (p= 0.004), advanced age (&gt; 50 years) (p= 0.010), weight loss (over 20% of total body weight lost in last 6 month) (p= 0.020), chronic diarrhea (p= 0.006), change of bowel habits (p= 0.043), epigastric tenderness (p= 0.037), raised carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level (normal range: 0-7 ng/mL) (p= 0.039), &lt; 10 gr/dl hemoglobin (Hb) level (p=0.054). None of these risk factors had been present in 21 (23%) women younger than 51 years. In this group, no patient had any GI lesion likely to cause IDA (negative predictive value= 100%). In multivariate analysis, advanced age (p=0.017), male gender (p&lt; 0.01) and weight lost (p=0.012) found that associated with GI lesions in all patients. It may be an appropriate clinical approach to consider these risk factors when deciding for gastrointestinal endoscopic evaluation in iron deficiency anemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_3415", "title": "Large hiatal hernia and iron deficiency anaemia: clinico-endoscopical findings.", "score": 0.01546268656716418, "content": "Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) in men and postmenopausal women is mostly due to chronic gastrointestinal blood loss. One of the most common missed lesions while performing upper endoscopy in the work-up of IDA, are Cameron lesions, located at the neck of a large hiatal hernia. Description of the bio-clinical and endoscopic findings of a large hiatal hernia, diagnosed in patients presenting with iron deficiency anaemia. Furthermore, a review of the literature concerning the diagnostic and therapeutic management of these patients will be outlined. We retrospectively evaluated 36 patients, presenting with IDA (hemoglobin &lt; 10 g/dl) associated with a large hiatal hernia. Cardiopulmonary complications of anaemia were the presenting symptoms, rather than gastrointestinal related complaints or bleeding. Cameron lesions were visualized only in 18 (50%) of our patients at their first presentation. There was no obvious correlation between the presence of Cameron lesions and visible gastrointestinal blood loss. Initially, almost all of our patients were treated medically. Seven underwent surgical repair of the hiatal hernia and all remained asymptomatic afterwards. We conclude that a hiatal hernia, with or without visible Cameron lesions, is a real and maybe underestimated cause of IDA. Finding a large hiatal hernia on upper endoscopy, together with a negative colonoscopy, completes the diagnostic work-up of IDA in most of these elderly patients. Currently, no guidelines concerning the optimal therapeutic management of this problem are available. Therapy may depend upon the need of transfusion, the efficiency of medical treatment, the risks of surgery and the preference and general condition of the patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0386_18507", "title": "Gastrointestinal causes of refractory iron deficiency anemia in patients without gastrointestinal symptoms.", "score": 0.015438596491228071, "content": "The standard evaluation of a patient with iron deficiency anemia includes a complete evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract to identify a source of bleeding. However, even after a careful examination, many patients remain without a diagnosis. Because iron deficiency anemia results from iron loss or defective absorption, we sought to determine the prevalence of potential gastrointestinal sources for iron deficiency anemia in patients without gastrointestinal symptoms. Over a 10-month period, 668 outpatients were referred to the University Hematology Department with iron deficiency anemia, defined by a hemoglobin concentration less than 14 g/dL (less than 12 g/dL in women), mean corpuscular volume less than 80 fL, and ferritin level less than 30 microg/L. After excluding patients with obvious causes of blood loss, inadequate diet, chronic diseases, or malignancies, there were 81 eligible patients, 10 of whom refused investigation. The remaining 71 patients (51 women, median age 59 years) underwent colonoscopy, as well as gastroscopy with gastric (antrum and body) and duodenal biopsies. A likely cause of iron deficiency anemia was detected in 60 patients (85%). Diseases associated with bleeding were found in 26 patients (37%), including colon cancer (10 patients), gastric cancer (2), peptic ulcer (7), hiatal hernia with linear erosions (5), colonic vascular ectasia (3), colonic polyps (2), and Crohn's disease (1). Causes not associated with bleeding were found in 36 patients (51%), including 19 with atrophic gastritis, 4 with celiac disease, and 13 with Helicobacter pylori gastritis. Six (8%) patients had coincident gastrointestinal findings, and 11 (15%) had no cause identified. Patients with an identified nonbleeding-associated cause were younger than those with a bleeding-associated cause (median, 56 vs 70 years; P = 0.001) and included 59% of women (n = 30) versus 30% of men (n = 6) (P = 0.04). Hemoglobin level was not related to the site and severity of disease. Gastrointestinal diseases that do not usually cause bleeding are frequently associated with iron deficiency anemia in patients without gastrointestinal symptom or other potential causes of gastrointestinal bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0596_19767", "title": "[Effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on iron deficiency anemia of unknown origin].", "score": 0.014625850340136054, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia of unknown origin is a frequent cause of anemia in which etiological diagnosis is often not achieved, despite currently available diagnostic techniques. Recent studies suggest that, in the absence of digestive tract lesions, Helicobacter pylori infection could be the cause of iron deficiency anemia, due to the alterations produced in gastric iron absorption. To evaluate whether H. pylori eradication resolves iron deficiency anemia and removes the need for oral iron administration. We performed an observational descriptive study in patients with iron deficiency anemia refractory to treatment with oral iron administration and with out causes that could explain their anemia. Gastroscopy, ileocolonoscopy, intestinal transit study and/or endoscopic capsule were performed. Female patients also underwent gynecological study. All patients were H. pylori-positive and standard eradication therapy was administered until elimination was achieved. The patients were followed-up for a minimum of 3 months after H. pylori eradication and the need for oral iron intake after eradication was evaluated. Ten patients, aged 53+/-8.2 years, were included. Hemoglobin (Hbg) before treatment was 10.06+/-0.53 mg/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) was 75.43+/-6.02 fl and ferritin was 6.1+/-3.28 ng/ml. Eradication therapy was administered until elimination of H. pylori. The mean time before disappearance of anemia was 4.5 months. Laboratory parameters after treatment were as follows: Hgb 12.86+/-0.75 mg/dl, MCV 85.02+/-4.8 fl and ferritin 28+/-22.19 ng/dl. In the absence of lesions that could explain iron deficiency anemia, this disease can be related to H. pylori infection. Eradication of this infection is closely followed by disappearance of anemia and ferropenia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_17067", "title": "Prevalence and predictive signs for gastrointestinal lesions in premenopausal women with iron deficiency anemia.", "score": 0.014116034719049795, "content": "The reported rates of gastrointestinal (GI) lesions among pre-menopausal women with iron deficiency anemia (IDA) vary considerably. To assess the prevalence of significant gastrointestinal lesions among symptomatic and asymptomatic pre-menopausal women with IDA, and to shed light on potential predictors of their presence. Clinical, endoscopic, and histological data was collected from 116 pre-menopausal women with IDA. All women underwent upper and lower gastrointestinal tract endoscopies, duodenal biopsies, and small bowel evaluation with small bowel series or computed tomography. The mean age was 33 years (range: 18-45). Clinically, significant lesions were demonstrated in 30%, the majority in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Helicobacter pylori gastritis was the most common finding (16%). Celiac disease was detected in 6%. No malignant lesions were detected. The prevalence of lesions was highest among women with symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation. The presence of upper gastrointestinal symptoms (OR: 3.67, 95%CI: 2.14-5.03; P = 0.002), MCV lower than 70 pg (OR: 1.88, 95%CI: 1.27-3.91; P = 0.04), and hemoglobin levels less than 10 g/dl (OR: 1.71, 95%CI: 1.19-4.07; P = 0.05) were associated with an increased likelihood of significant gastrointestinal lesions; history of heavy menstrual blood loss was associated with negative findings (OR: 0.46, 95%CI: 0.27-0.69; P = 0.002). Upper GI findings, mainly HP gastritis and celiac disease, were the most common pathologic findings. Initial evaluation of IDA in premenopausal women may include urea breath test and celiac serology. Further endoscopic evaluation can be reserved for those women who are found to be negative in the initial evaluation, as well as in cases of failure of IDA remission after successful HP eradication." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0699_9855", "title": "Screening for gastrointestinal malignancy in patients with iron deficiency anemia by general practitioners: an observational study.", "score": 0.013687751097823041, "content": "The prevalence of iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is 2-5% in men and postmenopausal women in the developed world. IDA is commonly caused by chronic gastrointestinal blood loss, and a thorough examination of the gastrointestinal tract must be standard practice. To retrospectively study endoscopic evaluations of patients from general practitioners diagnosed with IDA in a peripheral hospital laboratory in order to determine the cause of IDA and the number of gastrointestinal malignancies. We retrospectively evaluated all patients with IDA diagnosed in a peripheral hospital laboratory by the general practitioner in the region of our hospital from 1 January 2004 until 31 December 2005. We included women older than 50 and men 18 years and older without a history of IDA in the previous 2 years. In 2 years, 287 patients were newly diagnosed with IDA in our hospital laboratory. Only 90 (31%) patients were endoscopically evaluated within 4 months. Gastrointestinal endoscopy revealed at least one lesion potentially responsible for blood loss in 41 of 90 (46%) patients. The most common lesions identified by gastroduodenal endoscopy were erosive esophagitis, gastritis and duodenitis (14%). Cancer was the most commonly detected lesion in the colon, accounting for 17 of 21 colonic lesions explaining IDA. In total, gastrointestinal malignancy was diagnosed in 2% of screened patients. Factors determining the decision for endoscopic screening were lower hemoglobin level, lower ferritin level and male gender. In our retrospective study of patients with IDA, only 31% received any form of endoscopic evaluation. In general practice, IDA is investigated suboptimally, and interventions other than the issuing of guidelines are needed to change practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0743_24531", "title": "Upper endoscopy for gastroesophageal reflux disease: best practice advice from the clinical guidelines committee of the American College of Physicians.", "score": 0.013493866424352567, "content": "Upper endoscopy is commonly used in the diagnosis and management of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Evidence demonstrates that it is indicated only in certain situations, and inappropriate use generates unnecessary costs and exposes patients to harms without improving outcomes. The Clinical Guidelines Committee of the American College of Physicians reviewed evidence regarding the indications for, and yield of, upper endoscopy in the setting of GERD, and to highlight how clinicians can increase the delivery of high-value health care. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 1: Upper endoscopy is indicated in men and women with heartburn and alarm symptoms (dysphagia, bleeding, anemia, weight loss, and recurrent vomiting). BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 2: Upper endoscopy is indicated in men and women with: Typical GERD symptoms that persist despite a therapeutic trial of 4 to 8 weeks of twice-daily proton-pump inhibitor therapy. Severe erosive esophagitis after a 2-month course of proton-pump inhibitor therapy to assess healing and rule out Barrett esophagus. Recurrent endoscopy after this follow-up examination is not indicated in the absence of Barrett esophagus. History of esophageal stricture who have recurrent symptoms of dysphagia. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 3: Upper endoscopy may be indicated: In men older than 50 years with chronic GERD symptoms (symptoms for more than 5 years) and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated body mass index, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and Barrett esophagus. For surveillance evaluation in men and women with a history of Barrett esophagus. In men and women with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance examinations should occur at intervals no more frequently than 3 to 5 years. More frequent intervals are indicated in patients with Barrett esophagus and dysplasia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_8933", "title": "Prevalence of occult celiac disease in patients with iron-deficiency anemia: a prospective study.", "score": 0.012709729918239238, "content": "Occult celiac disease has been reported in 0 to 6% of adults presenting with iron-deficiency anemia. Most prior studies have been retrospective or screened only a selected population of patients with small bowel biopsies. To more accurately define the true prevalence of this disorder in patients presenting with iron-deficiency anemia (with or without stool hemoccult positivity), we initiated this prospective study. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with small bowel biopsies and colonoscopy were performed in all iron-deficiency anemia patients (including those with hemoccult-positive stools) referred to the gastroenterology service during a 2-year period (1998-2000). Inclusion criteria included iron-deficiency anemia as defined by a serum ferritin &lt; 25 ng/ml and anemia with hemoglobin &lt; 12 g/dl. Patients were excluded for documented prior erosive, ulcerative, or malignant disease of the gastrointestinal tract, previous gastrointestinal surgery, overt gastrointestinal bleeding within the past 3 months, or inability to access the duodenum for biopsy. All patients underwent upper endoscopy with more than two biopsies of the distal duodenum and colonoscopy. A serum immunoglobulin A antiendomysial antibody test was to be performed in those patients with a positive small bowel biopsy to confirm the diagnosis of celiac disease. One hundred five of 139 consecutive patients with iron-deficiency anemia met the inclusion criteria and were enrolled in the study. Fifty-seven men (mean age, 51.6 yr) and 48 women (mean age, 54.1 yr) constituted the study population. The demographics of this study population included 36 blacks, 38 Hispanics, and 22 whites. Nine patients were of mixed or unknown ethnic background. Forty-three and eight-tenths percent of the men and 37.5% of women had hemoccult-positive stools, accounting for a total of 40.9% of the study patients. Upper endoscopic findings included gastritis in 22.8%, gastric ulcers in 9.5%, duodenitis in 8.5%, esophagitis in 7.6%, Barrett's ulcer in 2.8%, duodenal ulcer in 2.8%, gastric polyp in 2.8%, and celiac disease in 2.8%. Colonoscopic findings included colon polyps in 21.9%, diverticula in 10.4%, and hemorrhoids in 16.1%. Multiple findings were found in 32.3% of patients, and there were no findings in 28.5% of patients. The prevalence of occult celiac disease in this prospective study of patients presenting with iron-deficiency anemia was 2.8%. A significant number of other gastrointestinal lesions amenable to therapy were also found on upper and lower endoscopy in these patients. Given the treatable nature of celiac disease, it should be screened for in patients with unexplained iron-deficiency anemia with or without hemoccult-positive stools." }, { "id": "article-21342_1", "title": "Esophageal pH Monitoring -- Introduction", "score": 0.012403361344537815, "content": "Typically, GERD is diagnosed clinically and treated with a trial of proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Relief of heartburn and regurgitation after a 6 to 8 week trial of PPI therapy is a reliable indicator of GERD. This approach has a sensitivity of 78% and a specificity of 54%; hence a negative trial does not rule-out GERD. [4] However, this is a cost-effective approach to diagnosing GERD rather than proceeding directly to endoscopic or alternative diagnostic testing. [5] If patients present with alarm features (i.e., new-onset dyspepsia at age greater than 60, GI bleeding, dysphagia, odynophagia, weight loss, anemia, persistent vomiting), a trial of PPI therapy is not necessary, and the work-up should directly proceed to early endoscopy. [3]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0813_9341", "title": "[Approach to the diagnosis and treatment of chronic anemia secondary to gastrointestinal diseases].", "score": 0.012307459981878587, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia is the most common type of anemia and can cause asthenia, cognitive and functional impairment, and decompensation of underlying diseases. Iron deficiency anemia is not a disease but is the result of a potentially serious medical problem. Consequently, patients should always undergo investigation of the underlying cause. In men and postmenopausal women, the condition is caused by gastrointestinal loss and malabsorption of iron. In this group, recommended procedures are gastroscopy, colonoscopy and serological testing for celiac disease. If the results of these tests are negative, repeat examinations and iron therapy should be considered. In treatment-refractory or recurrent anemia, the small intestine should be investigated. In this case, the procedure of choice is capsule endoscopy. Iron deficiency anemia should always be treated until iron deposits have returned to normal levels. A wide variety of preparations are available, in both oral and parental formulations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0526_16437", "title": "[Diagnostic utility and clinical impact of capsule endoscopy in obscure gastrointestinal bleeding. Preliminary results].", "score": 0.012043399638336347, "content": "Obscure gastrointestinal bleeding (OGIB) represents from 5 to 10% of all episodes of gastrointestinal bleeding. The diagnosis is difficult to make because in most cases it originates in the small bowel. Radiological methods have low sensitivity and push enteroscopy does not allow for examination of the whole length of the small bowel. Capsule endoscopy is a recently introduced method which allows for the complete examination of the small bowel. Only a few studies have assessed its clinical impact. To evaluate the diagnostic yield and the clinical impact of capsule endoscopy in patients with OGIB. 28 patients were studied: 9 with iron deficiency anemia (32%), 14 with melena (50%) and 5 with melena and hematochezia (32%). They were 16 men and 12 women. Median values were: age 53 years (range 18-87), hemoglobin 7 g/dL (4-11), endoscopic and radiologic studies 4 (2-8), hospital admissions 3 (1-5) and transfused blood units 5 (0-52). Capsule endoscopy detected bleeding and nonbleeding lesions in 23 patients (82%). The diagnoses were: angiodysplasia in 10 patients (36%); ulcers in 7 (25%) and neoplasm in 6 (21%). In 12 patients (43%) findings motivated the performance of other diagnostic or therapeutic procedures: 8 patients were operated on (6 with neoplasm and 2 with stenotic ulcers); 3 received endoscopic treatment for angiodysplasia and ulcers; and one patient was submitted to ileoscopy with biopsy for Crohn's disease. There were no complications and good tolerance was observed. Capsule endoscopy had a diagnostic yield of 82% and a clinical impact of 43% in this highly selected group of patients with OGIB in whom no other endoscopic or radiologic procedures could lead to the diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0394_5492", "title": "Predictive factors of GI lesions in 241 women with iron deficiency anemia.", "score": 0.011947011490213991, "content": "GI blood loss is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA) in postmenopausal women and menstrual blood loss in premenopausal women. We aimed to evaluate the diagnostic yield of endoscopy in women with IDA and to define predictive factors of a GI lesion. Clinical, biological, endoscopic, and histological data from patients with IDA were systematically collected on a computer. Multivariate analysis (logistic regression) was performed to determine whether these data were associated with a GI lesion. Between January, 1989 and June, 1999, 241 consecutive women had endoscopies for IDA (mean age = 52.3 +/- 21.8 yr). A substantial GI lesion was detected in 119 patients (49.4%). Ten patients (4%) had both upper and lower GI lesions. A source of IDA was revealed by upper endoscopy in 86 cases (35.6%) and by colonoscopy in 33 (13.7%). The most common upper lesions were peptic ulceration (42/241 [17.4%]), esophagitis (15/241 [6.2%]), and cancer (9/241 [3.7%]). Colonic cancer (15/241 [6.2%]) and polyps (10/241 [4.1%]) were the most frequent lesions detected by colonoscopy. Predictive factors (odds ratio, 95% CI) of GI lesions diagnosed by endoscopy were abdominal symptoms (8.3, 3.9-17.2), age &gt; 50 yr (4.4, 2.1-9.2), and Hb &lt; 9 g/dl (3, 1.5-6.1). Thirty-one women (13%) had none of these predictive factors; in this group only two lesions were identified (one esophagitis and one duodenal ulcer). The positive predictive value of these three independent predictors was 87%, and the negative predictive value was 93.5%. Endoscopy revealed a source of IDA in 49.4% of cases. Three predictive factors of GI lesion were identified. Endoscopic investigation should be avoided in women without these three predictive factors. Conversely, these factors are strongly associated with a GI lesion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0888_19020", "title": "Outcome of endoscopy-negative iron deficiency anemia in patients above 65: A longitudinal multicenter cohort.", "score": 0.011225124378109453, "content": "After the age of 65 years, iron deficiency anemia (IDA) requires the elimination of digestive neoplasia and is explored with upper and lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy. However, such explorations are negative in 14% to 37% of patients. To further evaluate this issue, we evaluated the outcomes of patients aged over 65 years with endoscopy-negative IDA.We retrospectively analyzed the outcomes of in-patients over the age of 65 years with IDA (hemoglobin &lt;12 g/dL and ferritin &lt;70 μg/L) who had negative complete upper and lower GI endoscopies in 7 tertiary medical hospitals. Death, the persistence of anemia, further investigations, and the final diagnosis for IDA were analyzed after at least 12 months by calling the patients' general practitioners and using hospital records.Between 2004 and 2011, 69 patients (74% women) with a median age of 78 (interquartile range (IQR) 75-82) years and hemoglobin and ferritin levels of 8.4 (IQR 6.8-9.9) g/dL and 14 (IQR 8-27) μg/L, respectively, had endoscopy-negative IDA, and 73% of these patients received daily antithrombotics. After a follow-up of 41 ± 22 months, 23 (33%) of the patients were dead; 5 deaths were linked with the IDA, and 45 (65%) patients had persistent anemia, which was significantly associated with death (P = 0.007). Further investigations were performed in 45 patients; 64% of the second-look GI endoscopies led to significant changes in treatment compared with 25% for the capsule endoscopies. Conventional diagnoses of IDA were ultimately established for 19 (27%) patients and included 3 cancer patients. Among the 50 other patients, 40 (58%) had antithrombotics.In endoscopy-negative IDA over the age of 65 years, further investigations should be reserved for patients with persistent anemia, and second-look GI endoscopy should be favored. If the results of these investigations are negative, the role of antithrombotics should be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en267_2292", "title": "Cameron lesions", "score": 0.010358291226458429, "content": "Diagnosis Cameron lesions are usually found in older adults with anemia symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and appearing pale. Blood tests in iron deficiency show low hemoglobin, microcytic hypochromic red cells, and low iron-binding saturation and ferritin levels. The lesions are visualized by esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Sometimes the lesions are found when endoscopy is done for other hernia symptoms than anemia such as heartburn, regurgitation, swallowing difficulty, pain or distention. When a person with iron deficiency anemia is found to have a large hernia and Cameron lesions on endoscopy, this usually explains the blood loss. A lower gastrointestinal bleeding site such as colon cancer may be excluded by colonscopy. and other tests as clinically indicated. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0738_7504", "title": "[Plummer-Vinson syndrome: report of a case and review of literature].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 39-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital with an eight-month history of dyspnea on exertion, weakness and increasing fatigue. She reported repeated episodes of menometrorrhagia and underwent a myomectomy. She is not a vegetarian. Her menstrual bleeding: 3-5 days per month. Two months ago, she complained of burning sensation of the tongue upon swallowing food and noted brittle nails. She tolerated soft foods. On physical examination, she was pale; her nails were very thin, fragile and somewhat concave. Her oral examination showed angular stomatitis, depapillated tongue and glossitis. The clinical diagnosis was anemia and dysphagia. Laboratory tests were: Hb: 7.0g/dL, MCV: 57.42fL, MCH: 15.82 pg; leukocytes: 4,980; reticulocytes: 2.18%, reticulocyte index: 0.1%, serum iron: 21ug/dl, total iron binding capacity (TIBC): 286, transferrin saturation: 7% and serum ferritin: 27ng/ml. The peripheral blood smear showed anisocytosis and hypochromic microcytic cells. Thevenon test was negative. Abdominal ultrasound: uterine myoma. A barium swallow X-ray showed a 2-mm linear filling defect between the 4th and 5th cervical vertebrae in the anteroposterior and lateral view; it protruded from the anterior wall and reduced esophageal lumen by 60%. In the endoscopy, we found a fibrous web in the cricopharyngeal area. Serial dilatations were performed over a guidewire using Savary-Gilliard dilators with diameter up to 14 mm, improving dysphagia. She was treated with transfusional therapy and parenteral iron. She was discharged with ferrous sulfate and folic acid. The Plummer-Vinson syndrome, Paterson-Brown-Kelly or sideropenic dysphagia is characterized by dysphagia, irondeficiency anemia and upper esophageal web. The syndrome is described as very rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0767_24216", "title": "[An elderly woman with macrocytic anemia and acute high-output heart failure following acute bleeding due to a gastric ulcer].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Although macrocytic anemia can develop in patients with acute blood loss, such anemia in very old patients is uncommon. In this report, we describe the course of an 89-year-old woman who had a rapid recovery from macrocytic anemia by medication only after acute blood loss due to a gastric ulcer. She had been treated with antihypertensive drugs for the previous 28 years at our outpatient clinic, and was admitted because of acute anemia 6 days after she had experienced tarry stool. Her hemoglobin (Hb) count and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) were 8.4 g/dl, and 103 fl, respectively. A gastroscopic examination indicated that the tarry stool originated from a fresh gastric ulcer. She was treated with an iron preparation, a diuretic and a proton pump inhibitor. The anemia was rapidly improved to Hb 10.5 g/dl and MCV 106 fl in one week, and to Hb 14.5 g/dl and MCV 99 fl in 4 weeks. At admission, she had slight pleural effusion and slight edema associated with an increase in her plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level (323 pg/ml), and her left ventricular ejection fraction was 76% based on the echocardiography findings, which are signs of the high-output heart failure without remarkable left ventricular diastolic dysfunction (E/e': 11.2). However, these signs improved rapidly, and her BNP level thereafter decreased to 114 pg/ml within four weeks. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0374_10392", "title": "The outcome of esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) in asymptomatic outpatients with iron deficiency anemia after a negative colonoscopy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Background: Both iron deficiency and iron deficiency anemia require extensive investigation because of their possible association with gastrointestinal malignancy. If no other sources of blood loss are apparent, the gastrointestinal tract is examined to detect sources of occult blood loss. In the absence of gastrointestinal symptoms, the colon is first examined, especially in the elderly. The aim of this study was to determine the outcome of esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) after a prior negative colonoscopy in outpatients without gastrointestinal complaints, referred due to iron deficiency anemia. Methods: Thirty-five patients (22 female and 13 male) with a median age of 71 years were studied over a 2-year period. Anemia was defined as a hemoglobin (Hb) level below 7.4 mmol/l in women or below 8.0 mmol/l in men and iron deficiency if one of the following was present: ferritin level equal to or below 20 µg/l for men and equal to or below 10 µg/l for women, a serum iron concentration equal to or below 45 µg/dl (8.1 µmol/l) with a transferrin saturation of 10% or less, or the absence of iron stores in bone marrow biopsy specimens. Patients with prior gastrointestinal disease or surgery, gastrointestinal symptoms, or other obvious causes of blood loss were excluded. Lesions that were considered to be potential sources of blood loss were clearly defined. Results: The mean Hb level of the 35 patients studied was 5.5 mmol/l (range 1.8-7.8 mmol/l). Abnormalities were found in 10 patients (28.6%), all of which were benign. Erosive and ulcerative lesions in the stomach, in a hiatal hernia, or in the esophagus were diagnosed in eight patients, benign villous adenoma was seen in one patient, and celiac disease in another, although duodenal biopsies were taken in only 15 patients. Erosions and/or ulcerations were found in four of 11 patients (36%) using NSAIDs and/or salicylates (ASA). Seventy percent of the lesions were found in elderly patients (&gt;65 years), 56% of whom were using NSAIDs and/or ASA. Conclusions: EGD should always be performed in patients with iron deficiency anemia after a negative colonoscopy, although upper gastrointestinal malignancy will probably be an infrequent finding. The presence of a significant, treatable lesion is most likely in the elderly and in those with a history of NSAID or ASA use. Routine duodenal biopsies should be performed to further increase the outcome of EGD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_9792", "title": "Single session panendoscopy. Indications and expectations for yield.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To assess the indications and yield of single session panendoscopy (SSPE), patients who underwent colonoscopy and esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) at the same time were retrospectively reviewed. Endoscopy records and patient charts of 101 patients who underwent SSPE during a 45-month period were analyzed for demography, indication, and results. Average age was 72.9 years. Common indications were positive occult blood tests (74%), anemia (28%), altered bowel habits (15%), and iron deficiency (13%). Most frequent findings at colonoscopy included diverticulosis (47%), polyps (37%), hemorrhoids (28%), and arteriovenous (AV) malformations (13%). Nine cases of cancer were found, seven of which were right-sided. Colonoscopy was normal in 12 per cent. EGD findings include esophagitis (55%), hiatal hernia (47%), and gastritis (33%). Eleven per cent were normal. Occult blood loss is not predictive of either a positive or negative study. SSPE is a safe and specific approach; however, based on this study, colonoscopy is recommended as the initial study for occult blood loss with plans to proceed to EGD when the lower endoscopy is normal. Even when the colonoscopy suggests the etiology for occult blood loss, EGD will yield a significant number of treatable and unsuspected lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0821_12058", "title": "[Diagnostic yield of video capsule endoscopy in premenopausal women with iron-deficiency anemia].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Clinical practice guidelines recommend video capsule endoscopy (VCE) studies in patients with iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) after conventional upper and lower endoscopies but there is a need for studies demonstrating the diagnostic yield, clinical impact, and cost in some patient subgroups. 1.To determine the diagnostic yield of VCE in premenopausal women with IDA compared with that in men and postmenopausal women. 2. To identify the presence of VCE predictors in premenopausal women. 3. To estimate the cost-clinical impact relationship associated with VCE in this indication. We retrospectively analyzed 408 patients who underwent VCE. Patients with IDA were enrolled (premenopausal, postmenopausal women, and men), with previous normal work-up by conventional endoscopies. A total of 249 patients were enrolled: 131 women (52.6%), of which 51 were premenopausal and 80 were post-menopausal, and 118 men. The mean age was 60.7±16 years. The diagnostic yield of VCE for the diagnosis of IDA was 44.6% (95% CI 39.9 - 50.8). Diagnostic yield was 50.8% vs 38.9% in men vs women (p=0.05) and was 55% vs 13.7% in postmenopausal vs premenopausal women (p&lt;0.001). No predictors of small bowel lesions were found in premenopausal women. The most common findings in the postmenopausal group were angioectasias (70.5%) and erosions (57.1%) in the premenopausal group. The cost in premenopausal women was 44.727€ and 86.3% of the procedures had no clinical impact. The diagnostic yield of VCE is low in the etiological study of IDA in premenopausal women and there is no cost-effectiveness in relation to clinical impact. No predictors of small bowel lesions were found in this group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_6708", "title": "Guidelines for the management of iron deficiency anaemia.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) occurs in 2-5% of adult men and postmenopausal women in the developed world and is a common cause of referral to gastroenterologists. Gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss from colonic cancer or gastric cancer, and malabsorption in coeliac disease are the most important causes that need to be sought. DEFINING IRON DEFICIENCY ANAEMIA: The lower limit of the normal range for the laboratory performing the test should be used to define anaemia (B). Any level of anaemia should be investigated in the presence of iron deficiency (B). The lower the haemoglobin the more likely there is to be serious underlying pathology and the more urgent is the need for investigation (B). Red cell indices provide a sensitive indication of iron deficiency in the absence of chronic disease or haemoglobinopathy (A). Haemoglobin electrophoresis is recommended when microcytosis and hypochromia are present in patients of appropriate ethnic background to prevent unnecessary GI investigation (C). Serum ferritin is the most powerful test for iron deficiency (A). Upper and lower GI investigations should be considered in all postmenopausal female and all male patients where IDA has been confirmed unless there is a history of significant overt non-GI blood loss (A). All patients should be screened for coeliac disease (B). If oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) is performed as the initial GI investigation, only the presence of advanced gastric cancer or coeliac disease should deter lower GI investigation (B). In patients aged &gt;50 or with marked anaemia or a significant family history of colorectal carcinoma, lower GI investigation should still be considered even if coeliac disease is found (B). Colonoscopy has advantages over CT colography for investigation of the lower GI tract in IDA, but either is acceptable (B). Either is preferable to barium enema, which is useful if they are not available. Further direct visualisation of the small bowel is not necessary unless there are symptoms suggestive of small bowel disease, or if the haemoglobin cannot be restored or maintained with iron therapy (B). In patients with recurrent IDA and normal OGD and colonoscopy results, Helicobacter pylori should be eradicated if present. (C). Faecal occult blood testing is of no benefit in the investigation of IDA (B). All premenopausal women with IDA should be screened for coeliac disease, but other upper and lower GI investigation should be reserved for those aged 50 years or older, those with symptoms suggesting gastrointestinal disease, and those with a strong family history of colorectal cancer (B). Upper and lower GI investigation of IDA in post-gastrectomy patients is recommended in those over 50 years of age (B). In patients with iron deficiency without anaemia, endoscopic investigation rarely detects malignancy. Such investigation should be considered in patients aged &gt;50 after discussing the risk and potential benefit with them (C). Only postmenopausal women and men aged &gt;50 years should have GI investigation of iron deficiency without anaemia (C). Rectal examination is seldom contributory, and, in the absence of symptoms such as rectal bleeding and tenesmus, may be postponed until colonoscopy. Urine testing for blood is important in the examination of patients with IDA (B). All patients should have iron supplementation both to correct anaemia and replenish body stores (B). Parenteral iron can be used when oral preparations are not tolerated (C). Blood transfusions should be reserved for patients with or at risk of cardiovascular instability due to the degree of their anaemia (C)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_16376", "title": "[Iron deficiency anemia is not always simple].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Malabsorption of oraliron is rare, and more frequently suspected than proved. It could be due to prolonged iron deficiency. Case no. 1: A boy was admitted at the age of 5 months for recurrent bronchitis. His hemoglobin was 8.2 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 micron3, mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 15 ng and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) 25 gHb/dl. The serum iron was 1 microgram/dl, iron binding capacity (IBC) was 284 micrograms/dl and ferritin was 14.9 ng/ml. Dietary iron was inadequate. The patient was given ferrous sulfate but iron deficiency persisted at the ages of 11 months and 3 years, probably due to poor compliance. Similar hematologic data (Hb: 6.4 g/dl, MCV 55 micrograms/m3, MCH 13.9 ng, MCHC 24 gHb/dl) were found at the age of 9 years. The patient was then given ferrous sulfate orally as test but the serum iron levels were unchanged during the 4 hours following ingestion. A parenteral iron preparation (iron-dextran, 500 mg) improved the hematologic data. 6 months later, a new oral test with ferrous sulfate improved the serum iron level. Case no. 2: A boy with complex congenital cardiopathy was operated on in the neonatal period and given oral iron at the age of 9 months because of anemia with microcytosis and hypochromia. This anemia was still present at 17 months and was associated with normal or high serum ferritin. Electrophoresis of hemoglobin was normal. At the age of 4 yr 5 mo, Hb was 9.7 g/dl, MCV 62.8 micrograms/m3, MCH 18.4 ng, iron 16 micrograms/dl and ferritin 94.1 ng/ml. An oral test with ferrous sulfate failed to increase the serum iron. The patient was then given parenteral iron-dextran without benefit, and a second oral test remained ineffective. After a second course of parenteral iron-dextran, Hb was 11.5 g/dl, MCV 74.1 micrograms/m3, MCH 23.7 ng while the serum iron remained low (23 micrograms/dl) and ferritin increased to 587 ng/ml. A third oral test with ferrous sulfate was still ineffective, as was a test using 4 mg/kg iron. The first patient suffered from iron malabsorption, presumably due to iron deficiency. The second patient could have abnormal metabolism and/or abnormal ferritin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0970_20807", "title": "Five common errors to avoid in clinical practice: the Italian Association of Hospital Gastroenterologists and Endoscopists (AIGO) Choosing Wisely Campaign.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Modern medicine provides almost infinite diagnostic and therapeutic possibilities if compared to the past. As a result, patients undergo a multiplication of tests and therapies, which in turn may trigger further tests, often based on physicians' attitudes or beliefs, which are not always evidence-based. The Italian Association of Hospital Gastroenterologists and Endoscopists (AIGO) adhered to the Choosing Wisely Campaign to promote an informed, evidence-based approach to gastroenterological problems. The aim of this article is to report the five recommendations of the AIGO Choosing Wisely Campaign, and the process used to develop them. The AIGO members' suggestions regarding inappropriate practices/interventions were collected. One hundred and twenty-one items were identified. Among these, five items were selected and five recommendations were developed. The five recommendations developed were: (1) Do not request a fecal occult blood test outside the colorectal cancer screening programme; (2) Do not repeat surveillance colonoscopy for polyps, after a quality colonoscopy, before the interval suggested by the gastroenterologist on the colonoscopy report, or based on the polyp histology report; (3) Do not repeat esophagogastroduodenoscopy in patients with reflux symptoms, with or without hiatal hernia, in the absence of different symptoms or alarm symptoms; (4) Do not repeat abdominal ultrasound in asymptomatic patients with small hepatic haemangiomas (diameter &lt; 3 cm) once the diagnosis has been established conclusively; (5) Do not routinely prescribe proton pump inhibitors within the context of steroid use or long-term in patients with functional dyspepsia. AIGO adhered to the Choosing Wisely Campaign and developed five recommendations. Further studies are needed to assess the impact of these recommendations in clinical practice with regards to clinical outcome and cost-effectiveness." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_15281", "title": "Prevalence of hematinics deficiency amongst female students and its correction.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Nutritional anemia (NA) is common in India. While iron deficiency (ID) is a well recognized cause of NA, prevalence of deficiencies of other hematinics is not systematically investigated. Seventy students of a junior class of a polytechnic and 202 inmates of girl students home were taken up for study. Students were given a questionnaire to elicit anemia related symptoms. Blood was collected for complete blood count (CBC), serum ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12. Students of polytechnic received hematinic at bed time during their menstrual periods whereas inmates of students home received hematinic at bed time, 3 days in a week. After 6 months blood tests were repeated in those who completed the treatment. CBC was done on Coulter counter and ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12 were assayed by chemiluminescence. Students were divided into three groups-(1) Control group with Hb 12.0 g/dl or more and ferritin 15.0 ng/ml or more; (2) ID Group with Hb 12.0 g/dl or more and ferritin less than 15.0 ng/ml; and (3) Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) group with Hb less tha 12.0 g/dl and ferritin less than 15.0 ng/ml. Basal parameters of three groups were compared using students t test. Change in parameters with treatment was compared using paired students t test. Median age-16 years (range 10-25). Anemia ( Hb &lt; 12.0 g/dl)-94 (34.6%); MCV &lt; 80 fl-153 (56.3%); MCH &lt; 27 pg-167 (61.4%); Ferritin &lt; 15.0 ng/ml-161 (59.2%); Folic acid &lt; 3.5 ng/ml-34 (12.5%); Vitamin B12 &lt; 258 pg/ml-133 (48.9%) Pre-therapy: (1) Hb, MCV, MCH and ferritin significantly lower in ID and IDA Groups compared to control group. (2) Hb, MCV, MCH and Ferritin significantly lower in IDA Group as compared to ID Group. POST-THERAPY: (1) IDA group showed significant increase in Hb, MCV, MCH, ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12. (2) final Hb (11.26+1.07) and ferritin (7.46+4.81) in IDA Group were subnormal. (3) MCV, MCH, ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12 increased significantly in ID Group and control group. (1) Nutritional anemia is common amongst asymptomatic young female students. (2) Deficiencies of iron, folic acid and vitamin B12 are common and coexist. (3) 105 mg elemental iron for 3 days in a week for 6 months is not adequate to correct IDA. (4) 105 mg iron for 3 days in a week is enough to correct ID. (5) Non-anemic individuals with ID have iron deficient erythropoiesis. (6) Non-anemic individuals without ID, in this cohort, also had iron deficient eryhtropoiesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_19805", "title": "[Guideline \"Dyspepsia\"].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "For the management of patients with dyspepsia a multidisciplinary working party has made recommendations, i.e. about indications for prompt endoscopy, the management of dyspeptic complaints of recent onset, the application of diagnostic tests and treatment of recurrent dyspepsia and the indications for long term use of acid suppressants. Endoscopy is indicated in every patient with alarm symptoms, i.e. blood loss, dysphagia, weight loss or anemia in combination with dyspepsia. Age alone is not a decisive factor in this. Given the good prognosis of recent onset dyspepsia, the application of diagnostic tests is generally not required. Treatment should be restricted to antacids or H2 receptor antagonists. Only in case of persistent or recurring complaints, diagnostic tests or another treatment (Helitobacter pylori diagnostic tests, empirical treatment or endoscopy) should be considered. Testing for H. pylori is especially effective in patients at risk for peptic ulcer disease: those with recurrent complaints, and those with a history of peptic ulcer, without typical reflux symptoms or those with a history ofpeptic ulcer. Short term empirical treatment with a proton pump inhibitor is especially effective in patients with typical reflux symptoms. Endoscopy is the only way to rule out malignancy, and should be used to solve serious diagnostic uncertainty in patient or physician. The only indication for continuous proton pump inhibitor treatment is severe oesophagitis. All other patients with less severe reflux disease should preferably be treated on either on demand or intermittent basis. Long term proton pump inhibitor treatment is not indicated for patients with peptic ulcer disease or functional dyspepsia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0491_9604", "title": "Large hiatal hernia in patients with iron deficiency anaemia: a prospective study on prevalence and treatment.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Although large hiatal hernia may cause bleeding from Cameron erosions, its role in iron deficiency anaemia has been debated, and no data are available on the treatment of these patients with proton pump inhibitors. Aims : To determine the prevalence of large hiatal hernia in out-patients with iron deficiency anaemia and the role of proton pump inhibitors in the prevention of recurrence of anaemia. Two hundred and twenty-eight out-patients underwent upper/lower endoscopy. Those with large hiatal hernia were given an oesophagogram, discontinued iron supplementation and received proton pump inhibitor treatment with (group 1) or without (group 2) surgery. Anaemia was re-assessed during 1 year of follow-up. Large hiatal hernia was the likely cause of anaemia in 21 patients (9.2%). The median haemoglobin and ferritin values at the diagnosis of anaemia were 7.9 g/dL and 6 micro g/L, respectively. Cameron erosions were found in 33% of patients. Ten and eleven patients were included in groups 1 and 2, respectively. Haemoglobin values were 13.8 g/dL and 13.4 g/dL at 3 months of follow-up, and 13.4 g/dL and 13.8 g/dL at 1 year of follow-up, in groups 1 and 2, respectively. Large hiatal hernia may cause iron deficiency anaemia, even without Cameron erosions. Surgery in combination with proton pump inhibitor therapy is no better than proton pump inhibitor therapy alone in preventing the recurrence of anaemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0584_15144", "title": "Plummer-Vinson syndrome successfully treated by endoscopic dilatation.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Plummer-Vinson (Paterson-Brown-Kelly) syndrome is uncommon nowadays. Although iron repletion improves its symptoms, endoscopic dilatation of associated esophageal webs is sometimes required. The case is described of a 69-year-old woman with Plummer-Vinson syndrome who was successfully treated by endoscopic bougienage. The patient had a longstanding history of anemia and slowly progressive dysphagia of solid food. Laboratory data on admission showed iron deficiency anemia (red blood cell count 402 x 10(4)/microL, hemoglobin 6.8 g/dL, serum iron 8 microg/dL, and serum ferritin 2.4 ng/mL). Radiographic esophagography revealed two circumferential webs at the level of the cervical esophagus. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy showed a severe upper esophageal stricture caused by a smooth mucosal diaphragm. The patient was prescribed 40 mg of intravenous iron supplements daily for 30 days; her anemia improved but the dysphagia did not. Endoscopic bougienage was performed with the use of Celestin dilators of serially increasing diameters. The webs were easily disrupted without complications. The patient's dysphagia resolved shortly after the treatment and did not recur. This experience indicates that endoscopic bougienage is safe, effective, and relatively easy to perform in patients with severe esophageal stenosis." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22375", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Common indications for open-access EGD include dyspepsia resistant to a trial of appropriate therapy; dysphagia; gastrointestinal bleeding; and persistent anorexia or early satiety. Open-access colonoscopy is often requested in men or postmenopausal women with iron-deficiency anemia, in patients over age 50 with occult blood in the stool, in patients with a previous history of colorectal adenomatous polyps or cancer, and for colorectal cancer screening. Flexible sigmoidoscopy is commonly performed as an open-access procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0424_18021", "title": "Iron deficiency anemia in the elderly: prevalence and endoscopic evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract in outpatients.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia (IDA), mostly due to chronic occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract, is a common problem in the elderly. This study aimed to determine the prevalence of IDA in the elderly and to investigate the gastrointestinal tract in elderly patients with IDA. 1,388 patients over 65 years were prospectively evaluated for IDA in our outpatient clinic. IDA was defined if decreased hemoglobin concentrations (&lt;13 g/dl for men and &lt;12 g/dl for women) were associated with low serum ferritin levels (&lt;15 ng/ml in men and &lt;9 ng/ml in women). We evaluated the gastrointestinal system of all patients with IDA by upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and colonoscopy regardless of fecal occult blood loss. The prevalence of anemia was found to be 25% (n = 347) in our study population, and 30.5% (n = 106) of these patients with anemia had iron deficiency. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and colonoscopy were performed in 96 patients with IDA. Fifty-eight upper gastrointestinal system lesions (55 patients, 57.3%) and 27 colonic lesions (26 patients, 27.1%) were detected. We diagnosed gastrointestinal malignancy in 15 (15.6%) elderly patients with IDA (8 colon, 1 esophageal and 6 gastric cancers). IDA is a common problem in elderly patients; consequently, before iron replacement therapy, patients should be thoroughly investigated regarding a possible association with gastrointestinal malignancy." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 199 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 29 ] ], "text": "You present with coxarthrosis (no further imaging tests are needed), and conservative options are exhausted before opting for surgical treatment. Weak opioids are not the initial treatment of choice." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 199 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 29 ] ], "text": "You present with coxarthrosis (no further imaging tests are needed), and conservative options are exhausted before opting for surgical treatment. Weak opioids are not the initial treatment of choice." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "I make the diagnosis of coxarthrosis and send to the traumatologist to place a hip prosthesis.", "2": "Start treatment with weak opioids that have shown evidence of halting disease progression.", "3": "I instigate treatment with paracetamol, explain that the evolution is very variable and the surgical indication depends on functionality and pain control.", "4": "Because of the radiological features described, I need a hip MRI before making a therapeutic decision.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1162_86", "title": "Editorial Commentary: Routine Preoperative Magnetic Resonance Imaging for Hip Arthroscopy Is Wasting Health Care Dollars and Delaying Surgical Intervention: Decision Making Should Be at the Discretion of the Health Care Provider Not Mandated by Health Care Insurers.", "score": 0.01960972796308757, "content": "Making an accurate preoperative diagnosis is critical to optimizing outcomes after hip arthroscopy. A detailed history, thorough physical examination, imaging studies, and diagnostic injections must all be considered in the decision-making process. In today's health care climate, it is imperative to obtain essential and indicated preoperative information while being mindful of health care dollars. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the hip has been shown to be a highly sensitive modality for hip and pelvis disorders. However, it is critical to recognize that acetabular labral tears and other hip pathology are highly prevalent in an asymptomatic young adult population. There are certainly situations when an MRI should be obtained (suspected arthritic symptoms, avascular necrosis, synovial disorders, uncommon osseous tumors); however, these patients generally present with atypical symptoms. In addition, obtaining an MRI can delay surgical intervention, which has been shown to lead to inferior outcomes in prior studies. MRI is not imperative when patients present with typical intermittent, deep anterior, lateral, groin pain with prolonged sitting, twisting and pivoting, and transitioning from sitting to standing. The typical physical examination includes positive hip impingement testing (FADIR / anterior impingement test) that recreates the patients presenting complaints. Appropriate imaging includes plain radiographs revealing adequate acetabular coverage (not significantly dysplastic) or acetabular overcoverage (pincer-type femoracetabular impingement), cam-type femoracetabular impingement, and well-maintained joint space on all views, including a false profile radiograph to further evaluate the anterior joint space. Finally, a diagnostic injection can be invaluable to further confirm the hip joint proper as the source of pain. If all of the above criteria are met, I strongly believe an MRI is unlikely to alter the surgical decision-making process. In the end, the treating clinician should determine when an MRI is necessary based on the presenting symptoms and examination, rather than insurers applying a blanket requirement for preauthorization. This physician autonomy would ultimately lead to more efficient and cost-effective patient care. Medicine is an art, and unjustified handcuffing of the artist without evidence could result in inferior results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_22238", "title": "[Coxarthroses].", "score": 0.019327731092436976, "content": "Osteoarthritis of the hip is a frequent disease affecting 2 to 4% adults. The main symptoms are inguinal pain, hip movement limitation and thigh muscular atrophy. The diagnosis is usually made of on antero-posterior radiograph of the pelvis and Lequesne's lateral view that show joint space narrowing and osteophytosis. There is no correlation between radiographic lesions and clinical symptoms. The mean rate of joint space narrowing progression was shown to be of about 0.30 mm/year but inter-patients variations are very large. The evolution is more sever in older patients and when there is no osteophyte. New imaging techniques are necessary only if diagnosis is impossible on standard radiographs but not for the surgical decision. The treatment of hip osteoarthritis requires analgesic, NSAIDs and symptomatic slow actin drugs for osteoarthritis. Total hip arthroplasty is necessary when medical treatment is non effective on pain and disability." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_20122", "title": "Magnetic resonance imaging of the hip: poor cost utility for treatment of adult patients with hip pain.", "score": 0.015822388993120703, "content": "Although MRI is frequently used to diagnose conditions affecting the hip, its cost-effectiveness has not been defined. We performed this retrospective study to determine for patients 40 to 80 years old: (1) the differences in hip MRI indications between orthopaedic and nonorthopaedic practitioners; (2) the clinical indications that most commonly influence treatment decisions; (3) the likelihood that hip MRI influences treatment decisions separate from plain radiographs; and (4) the cost of obtaining hip MRI studies that influence treatment decisions (impact studies). We retrospectively assessed 218 consecutive hip MRI studies (213 patients) at one institution over a 5-year interval. Medical records, plain radiographs, and MRI studies were reviewed to determine how frequently individual MRI findings determined treatment recommendations (impact study). The cost estimate of an impact study was calculated from the product of institutional MRI unit cost (USD 436) and the proportion of impact studies relative to all studies obtained either for a specific indication or by an orthopaedic/nonorthopaedic clinician. Nonorthopaedic clinicians more frequently ordered hip MRI without a clinical diagnosis (72% versus 30%, p &lt; 0.01), before plain radiographs (29% versus 3%, p &lt; 0.001), and with less frequent impact on treatment (6% versus 15%, p &lt; 0.05). Hip MRI most frequently influenced treatment when assessing for a tumor (58%, p &lt; 0.001) or infection (40%, p &lt; 0.001) and least frequently when assessing for pain (1%, p &lt; 0.002). Hip MRI impacted a treatment decision independent of plain radiographic findings in only 7% of studies (3% surgical, 4% nonsurgical). Hip MRI cost was least when assessing for a neoplasm (USD 750) and greatest when assessing undefined hip pain (USD 59,000). The cost of obtaining an impact study was also less when the ordering clinician was an orthopaedic clinician (USD 2800) than a nonorthopaedic clinician (USD 7800). Although MRI can be valuable for diagnosing or staging specific conditions, it is not cost-effective as a screening tool for hip pain that is not supported by history, clinical examination, and plain radiographic findings in patients between 40 and 80 years of age. Level IV, economic and decision analysis study. See Instructions for Authors for a complete description of levels of evidence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0698_17703", "title": "[Hip degeneration].", "score": 0.012049842530466932, "content": "Hip degeneration is typically easily diagnosed, based on the combination of clinical findings and plain films showing the four classifical findings: joint space narrowing, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis and subchondral cysts. Some degenerated hips may have misleading features such as when joint space narrowing is mainly posterior or the main finding is a large subchondral cyst. Rapidly destructive coxopathy results in joint space narrowing and joint destruction over a few months. MRI is helpful in early cases with normal radiographs or in patients with known hip degeneration presenting with acute worsening of symptoms. Follow-up is achieved by measuring the joint space on consecutive radiographs obtained using a standard technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0569_20554", "title": "Hip osteoarthritis: what the radiologist wants to know.", "score": 0.011400440471563675, "content": "Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common disease of the hip joint seen in adults. The diagnosis of OA is based on a combination of radiographic findings of joint degeneration and characteristic subjective symptoms. The lack of a radiographic consensus definition has resulted in a variation of the published incidences and prevalence of OA. The chronological sequence of degeneration includes the following plain radiographic findings: joint space narrowing, development of osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and cyst formation. There are cases though, that plain radiographs show minor changes and the clinical suspicion of early disease can be confirmed with more sophisticated imaging methods, such as multi-detector computed tomography and MR imaging. The present article will review all the clinical information on the hip OA together with an updated radiological approach, with emphasis on the early depiction and the differential diagnosis of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_4494", "title": "Fate of very small asymptomatic stage-I osteonecrotic lesions of the hip.", "score": 0.01129979570990807, "content": "The prognosis for a patient with osteonecrosis of the hip is generally considered to be worse if a large volume of the femoral head is involved, the patient is symptomatic, and the stage of the lesion is advanced. In 1990, we began a prospective study to detect collapse in asymptomatic hips with a very small stage-I osteonecrotic lesion in the femoral head. We hypothesized that such patients would have a favorable prognosis. These hips were followed for a minimum of ten years after the diagnosis. A small asymptomatic stage-I osteonecrotic lesion (not seen on plain radiographs) was diagnosed with magnetic resonance imaging in forty patients (forty hips) contralateral to a hip with symptomatic osteonecrosis. The criterion for inclusion in the study was a lesion with a volume of &lt;5 cm(3) involving &lt;10% of the volume of the femoral head. Plain radiographs were made annually in six different projections for all patients. At the most recent follow-up evaluation (average, eleven years), patients with a symptomatic hip but without evidence of collapse on plain radiographs underwent a computerized tomography scan. Thirty-five (88%) of the forty hips became symptomatic, and twenty-nine (73%) demonstrated collapse. The mean interval between the diagnosis and the first symptoms was eighty months. Symptoms always preceded collapse by at least six months. The mean interval between the diagnosis and the collapse was ninety-two months (range, seventy-two to 140 months). The diagnosis of collapse could be made on only one or two of the six radiographic views obtained for each patient at each evaluation. The diagnosis of collapse for two patients was made only on a computerized tomography scan at the most recent follow-up evaluation. At the time of final follow-up, the twenty-nine hips with collapse had symptoms of intractable pain and required surgery. This study confirms that the diagnosis of collapse is difficult in hips with a very small stage-I osteonecrotic lesion. Multiple radiographic views and computerized tomography scans may be required to demonstrate small areas of collapse. Clinical and radiographic signs of progression of the disease in asymptomatic hips with a very small asymptomatic lesion progress more slowly than do those signs in hips with a large symptomatic stage-II lesion. Because hips with a small area of osteonecrosis do collapse in a large percentage of patients, such patients should be followed carefully over a long period of time. Prognostic study, Level I-1 (prospective study). See Instructions to Authors for a complete description of levels of evidence." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en491_27466", "title": "Hip pain", "score": 0.010321995921552831, "content": "Recent studies have been focused on the role of diffusion weighted MRI because it does not need contrast medium administration. ADC ratio of the femoral metaphysis was positively correlated with the Herring classification. ADC ratio superior to 1.63 indicates bad prognosis with 89% sensitivity and 58% specificity. In adults, MRI is currently playing a definite role in the assessment of osteoarthritis. Although traditionally belonging to the arena of radiographs, the role of MRI has been stressed after the term femoral acetabular impingement was coined in 2003. Growing interest has been focused in accurate diagnosis of the acetabular and femoral morphological abnormalities that may lead to early osteoarthritis. MR imaging is considered paramount to these objectives, mainly when surgery is considered, due to the ability of MRI to portray the whole section of the femoral neck surface, as well as to image the labrum and articular cartilage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_16112", "title": "[The natural course of osteoarthritis of the hip. Indication of conservative treatment in relation to osteophyte formation at the acetabular rim].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "One hundred and eighty-five hips from 152 patients with primary or secondary osteoarthritis were studied in an attempt to assess the degrees of hip pain in contrast to radiological and other clinical findings. In 30.8% and 26.4% of the primary and secondary osteoarthritic hips respectively, hip pain showed some gradual decrease as time elapsed. Pain relief probably in association with osteophyte formation at the craniolateral acetabular rim occurred in 62.5% and 33.3% of the primary and secondary osteoarthritic hips respectively. Significant parameters observed in the primary osteoarthritic cases of the decreasing pain group were as follows: A lesser extent of cranial displacement of the femoral head, poor capital drop development, well developed floor osteophyte. On the other hand significant parameters in the decreasing pain group of secondary osteoarthritis were as follows: Well developed floor osteophyte, a small size of cyst in both the femoral head and the acetabulum, few \"b\" or \"d\" type of bony sclerosis in the acetabulum. Careful observation of radiographic changes (cyst and sourcil) would be most important, especially in secondary osteoarthritis, to decide the indication of surgery. On the basis of histological studies of osteophyte at the craniolateral acetabular rim obtained at the operation, it was assumed that the osteophyte formation had initiated from metaplasia of the labrum or synovial membrane and progressed by a form of chondral ossification after the process of fibrous tissue formation. A well developed trabecular density in the osteophyte at the craniolateral acetabular rim was determined by the use of Muto digigrammer system, Model G-002." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0401_5530", "title": "[Coxarthrosis].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Osteoarthritis of the hip joint is a very common disease. There is a minor prevalence of males. By etiology one can distinguish primary (idiopathic) from secondary osteoarthritis. Secondary are due to well-known etiologies as overweight, repetitive traumata, malposture, muscle- and tendon-imbalance etc. Osteoarthritis includes not only cartilage abnormalities, but also such of the subchondral-region, synovialis, synovial fluid and periarticular muscles. The cartilage shows in osteoarthritis typically edema and swelling, defects with tears, fibrillation, and \"baldness\" and (or) cartilagenous repair-islands and joint space narrowing as well, while subchondrally micro-edema, necrosis, ev. microfractures, \"cysts\", demineralisation followed by sclerosis, osteophyte-formation and deformity is seen. With conventional radiographs and CT joint space narrowing, subchondral cysts, sclerosis and osteophytes and deformities are well delineated, MRI however allows visualization of subtle bone marrow and cartilage abnormalities. Clinically, the diagnosis of pre-osteoarthritis becomes more and more important. This includes e.g. deformities and malpostures, labrum-pathologies and structural imbalances. There are three prognostic different types of hip-osteoarthritis depending on the migration of the head of the hip joint: the most common are the latero-cranial and the medio-caudal ones, while the central one is found very rarely. Basic imaging method are conventional radiographs, and CT, followed by MRI. The diagnosis of an \"activated osteoarthritis\" is made by bone-scintigraphy or MRI with i.v. application of contrast-media. The labrum- and cartilage diagnosis should be done with MRI or MR-arthrography. Functional computer-animated analysis will be of great diagnostic value in the near future. MRI indications are differences between clinical results and imaging, missing clinical improvement of an \"activated\" osteoarthritis under standard therapy, unclear joint-pain and before any arthroscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1040_16106", "title": "Osteoarthritis of the hip: are degenerative tears of the acetabular labrum predictable from features on hip radiographs?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A common feature of hip arthritis is the presence of labra tears. Recent literature suggests against the use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in patients aged &gt;45 years for the assessment of hip pain related to arthritis. To determine if radiographic features of osteoarthritis detectable on routine hip radiographs are accurate and reliable surrogate markers of degenerative acetabular labral tears identified on MR arthrography (MRA) and corroborated during arthroscopy. A retrospective study involving 86 symptomatic patients (hip pain) with radiologic work-up included MRA and pelvic or hip radiographs that underwent hip arthroscopy within three months. Imaging characteristics assessed on hip radiographs include measurements of superior acetabular, femoral head osteophyte, cortical thickness of the femoral shaft, and minimum joint space as well as presence of subchondral sclerosis of the femoral head and acetabulum, femoral shaft buttressing, and grade of arthritis. Presence of a labral tear was determined by consensus between three readers as well as by surgical correlation. The Pearson's chi-squared and Fisher's exact tests were used to compare presence of labral tears with each radiographic feature. Seventy-one patients (82.6%) had labral tears: 49 (69%) women and 22 (31%) men. Receiver operating characteristic analysis showed statistical significance (<iP</i&lt;0.05) between presence of a labral tear and acetabular and femoral head osteophyte sizes but failed to demonstrate any significance regarding acetabular subchondral sclerosis, cortical thickness, buttressing, or minimum joint space. Radiographic markers such as the acetabular and femoral head osteophyte sizes demonstrated statistical significance with the presence of labral tears." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0870_18284", "title": "Hips With Protrusio Acetabuli Are at Increased Risk for Failure After Femoroacetabular Impingement Surgery: A 10-year Followup.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Protrusio acetabuli is a rare anatomic pattern of the hip in which the femoral head protrudes into the true pelvis. The increased depth of the hip and the excessive size of the lunate surface typically lead to severe pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI); however, to our knowledge, there are no published mid- or long-term studies on results of circumferential acetabular rim trimming through a surgical hip dislocation for patients with this condition. (1) What is the 10-year survivorship of the hips treated with circumferential rim trimming through a surgical hip dislocation compared with a control group of hips that underwent surgery for pincer FAI but that did not have protrusio acetabuli? (2) What are the factors that were associated with a decreased likelihood of survivorship in those hips with the following endpoints: total hip arthroplasty, Merle d'Aubigné score of less than 15, and/or radiographic progression of osteoarthritis (OA)? (3) Does the radiographic pattern of degeneration differ between the two groups? We performed a case-control study comparing two groups: a protrusio group (32 patients [39 hips]) and a control group (66 patients [86 hips]). The control group consisted of hips treated with a surgical hip dislocation for pincer FAI and did not include hips with a positive protrusio sign or a lateral center-edge angle &gt; 39°. The study group did not differ from the control group regarding the preoperative Tönnis OA score, age, and body mass index. However, the study group had more women, decreased mean height and weight, and lower preoperative Merle d'Aubigné-Postel scores, which were inherent differences at the time of first presentation. During the period in question, the indication for performing these procedures was a painfully restricted range of motion in flexion and internal rotation (positive impingement sign). The mean followup of the protrusio group (9 ± 5 years [range, 2-18 years]) did not differ from the control group (11 ± 1 years [range, 10-13 years], p = 0.109). At the respective minimum followup intervals in the underlying database from which cases and control subjects were drawn, followup was 100% for patients with protrusion who underwent FAI surgery and 97% for patients with FAI who underwent surgery for other anatomic patterns (three of 86 hips). We assessed the Merle d'Aubigné-Postel score, Harris hip score, WOMAC, and UCLA activity score at latest followup. A Kaplan-Meier survivorship analysis of the hip was calculated if any of the following endpoints for both groups occurred: conversion to total hip arthroplasty, a Merle d'Aubigné-Postel score &lt; 15, and/or radiographic progression of OA. Differences in survivorship were analyzed using the log-rank test. At 10-year followup, we found a decreased survivorship of the hip for the protrusio group (51% [95% confidence interval {CI}, 34%-67%]) compared with the control group (83% [95% CI, 75%-91%], p &lt; 0.001) with one or more of the endpoints stated. We found four multivariate factors associated with a decreased likelihood of survival of the native hip according to the mentioned endpoints: body mass index &gt; 25 kg/m(2) (adjusted hazard ratio, 6.4; 95% CI, 5.2-8.1; p = 0.009), a preoperative Tönnis OA score ≥ 1 (13.3; 95% CI, 11.8-14.9; p = 0.001), a postoperative lateral center-edge angle &gt; 40° (4.2; 95% CI, 2.8-5.6; p = 0.042), and a postoperative posterior coverage &gt; 56% (6.0; 95% CI, 4.3-7.6; p = 0.037). Preoperatively, joint space narrowing and osteophytes were more frequent posteroinferior (joint space narrowing 18% versus 2%, p = 0.008; osteophytes 21% versus 4%, p = 0.007), medial (joint space narrowing 33% versus 5%, p &lt; 0.001) and  anterior (osteophytes 15% versus 1%, p = 0.004) in the protrusio compared with the control group. After correction in hips with protrusio, progression of joint space narrowing (from 6% to 45%, p = 0.001) and osteophyte formation (from 15% to 52%, p = 0.002) was most pronounced laterally. At 10 years, in 51% of all hips undergoing open acetabular rim trimming for protrusio acetabuli, the hip can be preserved without further radiographic degeneration and a Merle d'Aubigné score &gt; 15. Even with the lack of a control group with nonoperative treatment, isolated rim trimming may not entirely resolve the pathomorphology in protrusio hips given the clearly inferior results compared with surgical hip dislocation for FAI without severe overcoverage. Level III, therapeutic study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_20128", "title": "[Late results of conservative treatment of perthes disease.].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The objective of the submitted work was to assess the long-term prognosis of Perthes disease. From the originally invited 142 patients 72 attended the check-up examination, complete X-ray documentation was assembled only in 32 patients with 38 affected hip joints. The time interval which had elapsed since the onset of the disease was on average 17 years. The authors evaluated the clinical and X-ray picture of the hip joints and assessed retrospectively the affection of the head according to Catterall's method, incl. signs of a head associated with risk. Treatment provided during the sixties and beginning of the seventies did not meet the principles of modern \"containment\" therapy. It comprised bed rest, application of a plaster spike and aftertreatment with a Thomas splint. During late check-up examinations Wiberg's angle, the epiphyseal index, the index of overlapping of the head, the distance of the head from the floor of the acetabulum and the height of the peak of the greater trochanter above the centre of the head of the femur were assessed. In addition to assessment of these partial X-ray parameters the authors evaluated the spherical properties of the head by Mose's method and subjectively the X-ray picture, using a three grade scale (satisfactory, feasible, poor). In the majority of assessed parameters the authors found a statistically significant correlation with the retrospective classification of the original X-ray pictures classified according to Catterall. The clinical picture was satisfactory in the majority, the authors did not find painful restriction of movement, while almost half the patients reported occasional subjective complaints as regards the hip joint. On the X-ray changes in the overgrowth of the greater trochanter were more marked than changes of the spherical character of the head and the extent of decentering. The follow-up of the group will continue to obtain a longer time interval from the onset of the disease. Key words: Perthes disease, late results, Catterall's classification." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0067_12318", "title": "[Imaging of the hip].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Imaging is fundamental to the diagnosis and therapeutic follow-up of all hip diseases. Despite the advent of extremely sophisticated exploratory methods, the oldest imaging method, straightforward radiography, makes it possible to recognize, locate ans treat the lesion in most cases. Good interpretation of simple antero-posterior and lateral x-ray films therefore is very important. Among the new imaging methods, computerized tomography has brought the third dimension, while ultrasonography and nuclear magnetic resonance have enabled us to visualize cartilages and soft tissues. The contribution to diagnosis and follow-up of these modern methods is considerable, but since we are too near their beginning and since the number of examinations is still too small in many fields, the information they provide must be used with caution. A good knowledge of their principle, advantages and drawbacks should help us to utilize them at best by prescribing only those which are necessary and sufficient for diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_8910", "title": "Idiopathic chondrolysis of hip in children: New proposal and implication for radiological staging.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Our objective was to evaluate the radiological appearances in different stages of idiopathic chondrolysis of hip (ICH) which will be helpful in the early diagnosis and guiding appropriate treatment for this condition to prevent progression of disease. We evaluated 14 patients of ICH in varying stages: Stage 1 (<in</i = 9), Stage 2 (<in</i = 3), Stage 3 (<in</i = 2). Average age at presentation was 10-11 years. Plain radiograph and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was done in all these patients. In the current study, we have attempted to stage ICH based on the radiological progression of the disease, where MRI was used as the primary tool. Stage 1 showed a wedge-shaped hyperintensity in T2 weighted (T2W) and hypointensity in T1 weighted (T1W) images involving the middle one-third of the femoral head and it is the earliest and characteristic finding in MRI. Associated findings like joint space narrowing, synovial hypertrophy with joint effusion may also be observed. Stage 2 showed acetabular edema in the affected hip in addition to the above-mentioned findings. Stage 3 showed more extensive involvement of femoral head and acetabulum, with collapse of the femoral head, degenerative changes in hip, early osteoporotic changes, and ultimately loss of joint space. Imaging-based staging system proves very useful in the early diagnosis, staging, and assessing the prognosis of ICH." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_22539", "title": "[Outcome of hip shelf arthroplasty in adults after a minimum of 15 years of follow-up. Long term results and analysis of failures of 56 dysplastic hips].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The goal of this study was to evaluate late results of hip shelf arthroplasty in adults after a minimum of 15 years follow-up. 65 hip shelf arthroplasty performed for painful hip dysplasia between 1964 and 1977 were studied retrospectively in 1992. These 65 procedures were performed in 57 patients mean aged 32 +/- 14 years [17-56]. Nine patients (9 hips) were excluded (2 deceaded, 5 lost for follow-up, and two reoperated because of severe infection). Consequently, the functional results were evaluated for 56 hips (48 patients). Before surgery, according to Merle d'Aubigné's hip rating system, all the hips were painfull (mean pain score was 2.6 +/- 1.7 [0-5]). On radiography, all the hips had a dysplastic acetabulum and arthritic changes. Arthritic changes were severe in 32 hips (57.1 per cent). The hip shelf arthroplasty was carried out according to Roy-Camille. 10 hips had additional varus femoral osteotomy. The 48 patients (56 hips) included were evaluated by means of Merle d'Aubigné's hip rating system and AP and false lateral weight-bearing Xrays. In 1992, 24 procedures were changed for total hip replacement (THR) (17 before 15 years (early failure) and 7 after 15 years of follow-up (late failure)). These 24 hips were included with their last hip rating observed just before THR. Survival analysis was performed according to Kaplan-Meier using date of revision for THR as end-point. After 16.1 +/- 5.6 years of follow-up the functional score for 56 hips was: excellent in 4 hips, very good in 7 hips, good in 10, satisfactory in 14, poor in 17, and bad in 4. The survival rate established for 65 hips was 60 per cent at 15 years and 40 per cent at 21 years. Only 39 hips shelf arthroplasties were still functional after 15 years (mean follow-up 19.1 +/- 3 years [16-28], but 18 hips (46.1 per cent) were painfree or slightly painful (pain score to 5 or 6). Among these 39 hips, the results were excellent in 4 hips, very good in 7 hips, good in 10, satisfactory in 10, poor in 6, and bad in 2. Arthritic change was the main reason for failures: the Kaplan-Meier survival rate at 21 years was 87 per cent when arthrosis was slight and only 15 per cent and 42 per cent when arthrosis was moderate to severe (p = 0.0001). The adverse effect of arthrosis was promoted by lack of congruency for early failures, and by severity of dysplasia and hip subluxation for late failures. The additional femoral varus osteotomies had no influence on functional or radiographic outcome. Our study indicated that hip shelf arthroplasty performed for painful acetabular dysplasia in adult has a 40 per cent probability survival rate at 21 years. The high rate of revision (42.8 per cent) could be related to the prevalence of severe pre-operative arthrosis. The low rate of lost for follow-up (8.7 per cent) and the long follow-up period (16.1 years) made our conclusion reliable. In spite of a high revision rate we recommend shelf athroplasty to treat acetabular dysplasia in adults. This procedure, very reliable in cases of moderate arthrosis, could be performed in cases of severe arthrosis to delay and make easier THR, but a low survival rate could be expected unless dysplasia, lack of congruency and subluxation were mild." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0826_17816", "title": "BILATERAL RAPIDLY DESTRUCTIVE HIP OSTEOARTHRITIS: A CASE REPORT.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Although hip osteoarthritis usually shows a slow progression, a rapidly destructive osteoarthritis is observed in approximately 10% of patients. We aimed to present a case with rapidly destructive osteoarthritis in bilateral hip joints. A 78-year-old male patient was admitted due to pain in hip joints. In examination, hip movements were minimally painful and limited. The patient was able to walk independently with a cane. When he re-applied six months later, hip movements were severely limited and painful. In plain radiographs, while a slight narrowing in hip joint space, sclerosis and minimal osteophyte had been observed at the first administration, extreme narrowing, subluxation, flattening of femoral head, increased sclerosis, resorption in femoral head and acetabulum were detected six months later. We consider that hip osteoarthritis in elderly people should be monitored at frequent intervals in terms of clinic and radiological progression. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0585_12593", "title": "Prognosis of hip pain in general practice: a prospective followup study.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Hip pain in the elderly is the main feature of osteoarthritis of the hip. In this prospective followup study, we wanted to determine which patients with hip pain show disease progression, and what the incidence of total hip replacement (THR) is in this group of patients after 3 and 6 years of followup. Within general practices in the area of Rotterdam (The Netherlands), persons age &gt; or = 50 years with incident hip pain were included. After 3 and 6 years, progression of hip pain was assessed. A total of 224 patients were included. After 3 years disease progressed in 29 (15%) patients and 23 (12%) received a THR. After 6 years disease progressed in 45 (28%) patients and 36 (22%) received a THR. The prognostic variables for a THR after 3 and 6 years related to history taking were age &gt; or = 60 years, morning stiffness, and pain in the groin/medial thigh; variables related to physical examination were decreased extension/adduction, painful internal rotation, and a body mass index &lt; or = 30 kg/m(2); and the variable related to radiologic findings was a Kellgren/Lawrence grade of 2 or higher. In this study population, approximately 12% of patients presenting with hip pain to their general practitioner will undergo a THR within 3 years, and approximately 22% after 6 years. Using the variables obtained from history taking, physical examination, and radiologic findings enables better identification of persons at high risk for a THR." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_20816", "title": "What MRI Findings Predict Failure 10 Years After Surgery for Femoroacetabular Impingement?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Magnetic resonance arthrogram (MRA) with radial cuts is presently the best available preoperative imaging study to evaluate chondrolabral lesions in the setting of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Existing followup studies for surgical treatment of FAI have evaluated predictors of treatment failure based on preoperative clinical examination, intraoperative findings, and conventional radiography. However, to our knowledge, no study has examined whether any preoperative findings on MRA images might be associated with failure of surgical treatment of FAI in the long term. The purposes of this study were (1) to identify the preoperative MRA findings that are associated with conversion to THA, any progression of osteoarthritis, and/or a Harris hip score of &lt; 80 points after acetabuloplasty and/or osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction through a surgical hip dislocation (SHD) for FAI at a minimum 10-year followup; and (2) identify the age of patients with symptomatic FAI when these secondary degenerative findings were detected on preoperative radial MRAs. We retrospectively studied 121 patients (146 hips) who underwent acetabuloplasty and/or osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction through SHD for symptomatic anterior FAI between July 2001 and March 2003. We excluded 35 patients (37 hips) with secondary FAI after previous surgery and 11 patients (12 hips) with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. All patients underwent preoperative MRA to further specify chondrolabral lesions except in 19 patients (32 hips) including 17 patients (20 hips) who presented with an MRI from an external institution taken with a different protocol, 10 patients with no preoperative MRA because the patients had already been operated on the contralateral side with a similar appearance, and two patients (two hips) refused MRA because of claustrophobia. This resulted in 56 patients (65 hips) with idiopathic FAI and a preoperative MRA. Of those, three patients (three hips) did not have minimal 10-year followup (one patient died; two hips with followup between 5 and 6 years). The remaining patients were evaluated clinically and radiographically at a mean followup of 11 years (range, 10-13 years). Thirteen pathologic radiographic findings on the preoperative MRA were evaluated for an association with the following endpoints using Cox regression analysis: conversion to THA, radiographic evidence of any progression of osteoarthritis, and/or a Harris hip score of &lt; 80. The age of the patient when each degenerative pattern was found on the preoperative MRA was recorded. The following MRI findings were associated with one or more of our predefined failure endpoints: cartilage damage exceeding 60° of the circumference had a hazard ratio (HR) of 4.6 (95% confidence interval [CI], 3.6-5.6; p = 0.003) compared with a damage of less than 60°, presence of an acetabular rim cyst had a HR of 4.1 (95% CI, 3.1-5.2; p = 0.008) compared with hips without these cysts, and presence of a sabertooth osteophyte had a HR of 3.2 (95% CI, 2.3-4.2; p = 0.013) compared with hips without a sabertooth osteophyte. The degenerative pattern associated with the youngest patient age when detected on preoperative MRA was the sabertooth osteophyte (lower quartile 27 years) followed by cartilage damage exceeding 60° of the circumference (28 years) and the presence of an acetabular rim bone cyst (31 years). Preoperative MRAs with radial cuts reveal important findings that may be associated with future failure of surgical treatment for FAI. Most of these factors are not visible on conventional radiographs or standard hip MRIs. Preoperative MRA evaluation is therefore strongly recommended on a routine basis for patients undergoing these procedures. Findings associated with conversion to arthroplasty, radiographic evidence of any progression of osteoarthritis, and/or a Harris hip score of &lt; 80 points should be incorporated into the decision-making process in patients being evaluated for joint-preserving hip surgery. Level III, therapeutic study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_2412", "title": "Predictors of hip joint replacement in new attenders in primary care with hip pain.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Studies investigating the factors associated with need for total hip replacement should ideally be based on prospective investigation of new attenders in primary care. To determine the incidence of listing for total hip replacement, and its predictors, among attenders in primary care with a new episode of hip pain. Prospective multicentre cohort study. One hundred and ninety-five patients (mean age = 63 years, 68% female) with new episode of hip pain, attending primary care between November 1994 and October 1997. At the first visit, patients were evaluated for indices of pain and disability, range of hip movement, and radiographic changes of osteoarthritis. General practitioner participants were recruited from the membership of the Primary Care Rheumatology Society to recruit all consecutive attenders with a new episode of hip pain. Annual follow-up was carried out to determine which patients were being 'put on a waiting list' for total hip replacement. Seven per cent of patients were put on a waiting list for total hip replacement within 12 months and 23% of patients within four years. At presentation, pain duration, pain severity, (including the need to use a stick) and restriction of internal rotation were the major clinical predictors of being put on a waiting list. Radiographic predictors of osteoarthritis performed similarly to the clinical measures. A simple scoring system based on both radiographic severity and two of the clinical measures was derived that identified groups at high likelihood of being put on a waiting list (sensitivity = 76%) with a low false-positive rate (specificity = 95%). New primary care attenders with pain are frequently accepted for total hip replacement soon after their first attendance--a decision that can be predicted by simple clinical measures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_11358", "title": "Does Femoroacetabular Impingement Syndrome Affect Self-Reported Burden in Football Players With Hip and Groin Pain?", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "It is unknown if football players with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) syndrome report worse burden than those with other causes of hip/groin pain, and to what extent this is mediated by cartilage defects and labral tears. Football players with FAI syndrome would report worse burden than other symptomatic players, with the effect partially mediated by cartilage defects and/or labral tears. Cross-sectional study. Level 4. Football (soccer and Australian football) players (n = 165; 35 women) with hip/groin pain (≥6 months and positive flexion-adduction-internal rotation test) were recruited. Participants completed 2 patient-reported outcome measures (PROMs; the International Hip Outcome Tool-33 [iHOT-33] and Copenhagen Hip and Groin Outcome Score [HAGOS]) and underwent hip radiographs and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). FAI syndrome was determined to be present when cam and/or pincer morphology were present. Cartilage defects and labral tears were graded as present or absent using MRI. Linear regression models investigated relationships between FAI syndrome (dichotomous independent variable) and PROM scores (dependent variables). Mediation analyses investigated the effect of cartilage defects and labral tears on these relationships. FAI syndrome was not related to PROM scores (unadjusted <ib</i values ranged from -4.693 (<iP</i = 0.23) to 0.337 (<iP</i = 0.93)) and cartilage defects and/or labral tears did not mediate its effect (<iP</i = 0.22-0.97). Football players with FAI syndrome did not report worse burden than those with other causes of hip/groin pain. Cartilage defects and/or labral tears did not explain the effect of FAI syndrome on reported burden. FAI syndrome, cartilage defects, and labral tears were prevalent but unrelated to reported burden in symptomatic football players." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0004_4366", "title": "[Surgical treatment of osteoarthritis of the hip (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Surgery can improve function for one or more decades for patients with osteoarthritis of the hip, even though the operations may not be very invasive. The indications must be made by surgeons in collaboration with rheumatologists. There is no patent recipe, no 'common' intervention which gives a reliable result in all cases. The patient must be studied in all stages of development of his disease: his joint structure in the radiogram, the morphology of the bones, the functional requirements and his general state of health influence the decision regarding the possibility and modality of a surgical intervention. The patient's return to an active life which would not have been possible for him under medicinal treatment supports the importance of surgical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_17870", "title": "Atypical femoral fracture post total hip replacement in a patient with hip osteoarthritis and an ipsilateral cortical thickening.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Atypical femoral fractures (AFF) can be present in patients with hip osteoarthritis (OA). This case highlights the opportunity to review the management of stress reactions, stress fractures and atypical femoral fractures, which depend on the activity of the fracture. A 66-year-old female with a history of long-term bisphosphonate use underwent a total hip replacement for symptomatic osteoarthritis with a clinical presentation of right groin pain and radiographic signs of joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation. Radiographs before hip arthroplasty showed lateral cortical thickening in the ipsilateral femur in the subtrochanteric region. The patient developed a complete periprosthesic atypical femoral fracture a month after surgery at the level of the previously identified femoral cortical thickening. Given the high amount of elderly, osteoporotic patients presenting with groin/thigh pain undergoing hip replacement, surgeons should question them about the use of bisphosphonates in the past and look for the presence of AFF. These should receive bilateral imaging studies and a metabolic bone workup in order to define the status of the fracture and determine the appropriate management before considering any other surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_8085", "title": "Make the Right Diagnosis: My Pearls for Working Up Hip-related Pain.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The origin of pain around the hip is commonly more elusive than other joints; often obscured by compensatory disorders. Hip problems tend to be multifactorial and require a multidisciplinary approach in the evaluation. The best strategy is to team with a capable physical therapist to unveil the layers of problems. Ultrasonography and imaging/ultrasound-guided injections can be the most valuable adjunct to the history and physical examination. Plain radiographs are an essential element in the workup. Magnetic resonance imaging can underestimate damage in the joint, but positive findings can sometimes be the normal consequence of age and activity. Magnetic resonance imaging is often as important for what it rules out as much as what it rules in. Computed tomography scans with 3-dimensional reconstructions can be especially helpful in surgical planning but are not used in routine screening, being thoughtful of radiation exposure even with low-dose protocols. Arthroscopic access to the hip is more challenging than other joints, and similarly, unlocking its clinical secrets can be more imposing as well." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_7311", "title": "Arthroscopy", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Hip Hip arthroscopy was initially used for the diagnosis of unexplained hip pain, but is now widely used in the treatment of conditions both in and outside the hip joint. The most common indication currently is for the treatment of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and its associated pathologies. Hip conditions that may be treated arthroscopically also includes labral tears, loose / foreign body removal, hip washout (for infection) or biopsy, chondral (cartilage) lesions, osteochondritis dissecans, ligamentum teres injuries (and reconstruction), Iliopsoas tendinopathy (or ‘snapping psoas’), trochanteric pain syndrome, snapping iliotibial band, osteoarthritis (controversial), sciatic nerve compression (piriformis syndrome), ischiofemoral impingement and direct assessment of hip replacement. Hip arthroscopy is a widely adopted treatment for a range of conditions, including labral tears, femoroacetabular impingement, osteochondritis dissecans." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0818_6530", "title": "Strategy and optimization of diagnostic imaging in painful hip in adults.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Diagnostic imaging strategy in painful hip depends on many factors, but in all cases, plain X-ray is the first investigation. It may be sufficient to reach diagnosis and determine treatment options. More effective but more expensive exploration is indicated in two circumstances: when plain X-ray is non-contributive, and when diagnosis has been established but more accurate imaging assessment is needed to guide treatment. Following radiography, the choice of imaging techniques depends not only on the suspected pathology but also on the availability of equipment and its performance. MRI is probably the technique that provides the most comprehensive results; recent improved accessibility has significantly simplified the diagnostic algorithm. CT remains invaluable, and current techniques have reduced patient irradiation to a level similar to that of standard X-ray. Finally, cost is an important consideration in choosing the means of exploration, but the overall financial impact of the various strategies for diagnosis of painful hip is not well established. This article aims to provide a simple and effective diagnostic strategy for the assessment of painful hip, taking account of the clinical situation, and to detail the most typical semiologic patterns of each disease affecting this joint. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0394_13263", "title": "Structural effect of avocado/soybean unsaponifiables on joint space loss in osteoarthritis of the hip.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To evaluate the structural effect of avocado/soybean unsaponifiables (ASU) in the treatment of patients with symptomatic osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip. Patients with regular painful primary OA of the hip (European League Against Rheumatism 1980 criteria) and a joint space still &gt; or = 1 mm (Kellgren grade 1 to 3, assessed by an independent observer prior to inclusion) entered a prospective, multicenter, randomized, parallel group, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of 2 years duration. Patients had at least a 6-month history of regular pain and an algofunctional index (AFI) &gt; or = 4. The primary assessment criterion was a decrease of the joint space width (JSW) on plain anteroposterior radiographs of the pelvis performed in standing position, measured at the narrowest points by 2 independent readers, previously tested and selected and blinded to both the treatment and the time sequence. Secondary criteria were standard clinical outcome measurements (AFI, pain on a visual analog scale, consumption of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and patient's and investigator's global assessments). One hundred sixty-three patients were included: 102 men and 61 women (mean age 63.2 +/- 8.7 years). A total of 108 patients (72 men and 36 women; mean age 64 +/- 7.9 years) were radiologically evaluable at 23.7 +/- 2.6 months (ASU group; n = 55) and 23.7 +/- 3.2 months (placebo group; n = 53). Overall comparison of the evolution of JSW showed no difference between the ASU and placebo groups, from 2.35 +/- 0.93 to 1.87 +/- 1.10 mm and from 2.5 +/- 0.94 to 1.9 +/- 1.33 mm, respectively (intergroup P value at end point = 0.9). When patients were divided into 2 subgroups according to the median value of the baseline JSW (2.45 mm), the joint space loss in the most severely affected subgroup of patients (baseline JSW &lt; or = median) was significantly greater in the placebo group than in the ASU group: from 1.69 +/- 0.58 to 0.84 +/- 0.77 mm (-0.86 +/- 0.62 mm) and from 1.66 +/- 0.42 to 1.22 +/- 0.7 mm (-0.43 +/- 0.51 mm), respectively (P &lt; 0.01). The JSW decrease was identical, with no difference in ASU and placebo groups, in the less severely affected subgroup of patients (baseline JSW &gt; median). Clinical parameters in the 2 groups did not differ significantly throughout the study. This pilot randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial failed to demonstrate a structural effect of ASU in hip OA. However, in a post-hoc analysis, ASU significantly reduced the progression of joint space loss as compared with placebo in the subgroup of patients with advanced joint space narrowing. These results suggest that ASU could have a structural effect but require confirmation in a larger placebo-controlled study in hip OA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0117_7415", "title": "[Study of a painful total hip prosthesis].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The authors propose a simple routine survey to be performed in the case of a painful total hip prosthesis which is generally able to define the diagnosis and the prognosis. X-ray films are more valuable by their repetition than by their simple analysis. Certain minor signs can help predict or detect loosening of the prosthesis or other complications, but in the great majority of cases, radiology alone is not sufficient to make the diagnosis, as the films are only able to show clear spaces around the prosthesis, without being able to definitely confirm the aetiopathogenic significance of this sign. In these cases, when the decision has not been taken to re-operate, more sophisticated investigations are required (scintigraphy, dynamic tests, arthrography), although they must be used with caution as very often the clinical findings will have the last word." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0907_19827", "title": "Reliability of radiographic evaluations of the stage of osteoarthritis of the hip joint and an approach to improve the staging criteria.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A few reports have shown that the reliability of the Japanese Orthopaedic Association stage classification of hip osteoarthritis was not high. The objective of this study was to assess the reliability of the stage classification of coxarthrosis, and to evaluate whether a modification of the classification improves reliability. We retrospectively investigated 200 hips in 100 patients with hip pain. We collected radiographs of their hip joints with the patients in both a supine and a standing position. Four orthopaedic surgeons evaluated the stage of coxarthrosis employing the JOA classification. The percentage of agreement of examiners and the value of the kappa statistic were calculated. Furthermore, to improve the reliability of classification, we modified the classification based on previous reports. Partial narrowing of the joint space and disappearance of the joint space were defined as maintained if it was 2 mm or more, and as the width of the loss of joint space that was 10 mm or more respectively. Using this classification, the same examiners assessed the stage on the same radiographs again three months after the previous evaluation. The percentages of agreement were 28.5% and 27% and the interobserver value of the kappa statistic was 0.45 and 0.44 in supine and standing position respectively. After modification of the classification, the percentages of agreement were 36.5% and 44% and the interobserver value of the kappa statistic was 0.48 and 0.56 in supine and standing positions respectively, and the intraobserver value of the kappa statistic was 0.55. The modification significantly improved the reliability only in the percentage of the agreement for the standing position. This study showed that the reliability of the JOA stage classification of coxarthrosis was not as high as previous reports have showed. Modification of the classification improved interobserver reliability." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0601_9198", "title": "[Confrontation of the radiographic preoperative planning with the postoperative data for uncemented total hip arthroplasty].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "For hip prosthesis surgery, the challenge is to obtain optimal function of the instrumented hip but also to eliminate any limb length discrepancy, correct the femur offset and guarantee the center of rotation of the hip joint. Preoperative planning for total hip arthroplasty (THA) enables determination of the appropriate length for the prosthetic neck and the size and eventually the type of implants to use. From a prospective series of 86 patients who underwent first-intention THA for implantation of a noncemented prosthesis, we studied the precision of the outcome as function of the preoperative planning. We also ascertained whether the preoperative planning was sufficient to provide the measurements necessary for correct implant position. We analyzed a prospective series of patients who underwent first-intention THA from January 2004 through January 2006. To be eligible for inclusion, patients could not have a THA of the contralateral hip. The series was composed of 58 females and 28 males, mean age 70.2 years (range 45-93). The reasons for THA were primary degenerative disease (n=76) and aseptic osteonecrosis (n=10). The contalateral hip was intact and free of osteoarthritis with an anatomic presentation considered to be normal. The standard X-ray protocol included an anteroposterior view of the pelvis in the upright position and 10 degrees internal rotation obtained preoperatively and three months postoperatively. All radiographic measurements were made by the same investigator using a manual nondigitalized technique. We compared planning parameters (pivot size and type, length of the neck, and size of the cup) with the final outcome in order to determine the compliance with the preoperative planning. All operations were performed in the lateral supine position under general anesthesia and by the same surgeon. The posterolateral Moore approach was used. All implants were press fit without cement, both for the cup and for the femoral piece. All planning parameters selected for study (offset, size of the head and the cup, length of the neck) were available for 32 hips, giving an overall conformity of 37%. The length of the neck was as planned in 75% of hips, the size of the cup in 62% and the size of the femoral stem in 64%. The offset defined preoperatively was never changed during the operation. Ideal implantation (+/- 5mm for all criteria selected for study) was obtained in 60% of hips; the height of the center of rotation was reproduced in 81% and the lateralization in 84%. Femur lateralization was reproduced in 75% of the hips and hip offset in 66%. Leg length discrepancy was avoided in 85% of the patients. Preoperative planning reliably predicts the final offset of the implanted femoral stem. It is more difficult to predict the size of a press fit cup but in our experience the difference does not greatly affect restitution of the hip anatomy. We readily changed the length of the neck during the operation if necessary and have found that the leg length has been better with this approach. This leads to the observation that all of the planning parameters are not fully accurate because of the magnification effect, anatomic conditions, or possible defective execution. While the overall rate of conformity was low, looking at the results for each element separately provided a useful element for each phase of the operation. We recommend planning a medium length neck so it can be easily changed during the operation. The availability of offset measurements is particularly important to control hip lateralization and leg length. Current advances in computer-assisted surgery should be helpful in improving the imperfections of preoperative planning." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0362_15261", "title": "[Imaging of chronic hip pain in adults].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Adult hip pathologies are mainly represented by the degenerative disease, so called \"osteoarthrosis, or more precisely coxarthrosis\". The means of imaging are exposed, according to their specific value: X Rays (measurement of the characteristic angles of the adult hip), Arthrography, CT Scanner, Arthro-CT Scanner, MRI, Bone Scintigraphy, Ultrasonography. Clinical findings differentiate a mechanical syndrome and an inflammatory syndrome. The coxarthrosis is the most frequent, under two forms: primary (idiopathic) coxarthrosis and secondary coxarthrosis. Primary (idiopathic) coxarthrosis has a localised narrowing of the joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, cyst formation. The destruction progresses slowly, in 10 to 15 years leading to a complete destruction. Bilaterality is frequent. it is treated with total hip prosthesis. There is a rapid form (1 to 2 years) (Postel's Disease). Secondary coxarthrosis occurs after architectural vice, chondral diseases, lack of balance between the size of the head and the acetabulum as in the case of previous fracture or dislocation, avascular bone necrosis of the head of the femur, Paget's disease. Calcium pyrophosphate Deposition disease (CPPD) involves mostly aged women, and also leads to cox-arthrosis. Avascular bone necrosis of the head of the femur involves young adults. Bilateral involvement are frequent. MRI is the most sensitive and the most specific means of early diagnosis, The area of bone necrosis appears as well defined modifications of the upper head of the femur, precisely surrounded by a low signal intensity line on both Ti and T2 weighted imaging. MRI shows articular effusion, bone marrow edema. Scintigraphy gives early findings which are a characteristic, but non specific, hot spot. CT scanner is used for hip destruction evaluation. o Algodystrophy: transient osteoporosis of the hip has a cyclic course, lasting 3 to 9 months. MRI shows an inflammatory pattern in the area of the process(dark in Ti and white in T2, with positive Gadolinium response). Scintigraphy is positive. Staphylococcus location in the hip can be acute or chronic. MRI shows joint effusion, cystic formation and subchondral non specific modifications. Tuberculosis of the hip joint is relatively rare. Greater trochanteric tuberculous involvement is possible under special contexts. Chronic Inflammatory diseases are represented by Rheumatoid Arthritis, Spondylarthritis and other chronic inflammatory diseases. Synovial tumors such as Pigmented Villo Nodular Synovitis, Primary Osteochondromatosis, synovial sarcoma have special presentations. The subchondral bone can be involved by amorphous depositions such as in tophaceous gout, different varieties of lipidosis, amyloidosis, reticulo histiocytosis. Pen arthropathies are enthesopathies in the anterior rectus tendon, calcifying tendonitis (not to be confused with calcifying soft tissue tumor/chondrosarcoma). The pelvis bone and the femur are involved by primary and secondary tumors or by insufficiency fractures which can mislead to hip pathologies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0114_13440", "title": "[Long-term development of primary osteochondritis of the hip (Legg-Perthes-Calvé). Apropos of 60 hips with a follow-up of more than 30 years].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "This study concerns 60 hips in 57 patients aged between 33 and 56 years with a follow-up of 30 to 44 years since the onset of the disease. The progress of the condition was assessed by objective and subjective clinical criteria and radiographic criteria including roundness of the head, head height, head cover, abnormal head shape and the presence of arthrosis. The main prognostic feature was found to be the eventual shape of the femoral head. Normal heads (7 cases) and round heads with some flattening (20 cases) had few problems at the time of follow-up. Irregular heads (7 cases) and, most of all, very irregular heads (20 cases) progressed badly. Pain was common, often severe and the patients were disabled. Fourteen of them had consulted a doctor and seven had already been treated surgically. Arthrosis as a consequence of osteochondritis seemed to be due to joint incongruence. We consider that the prognosis can be made at the end of the progressive phase of the disease, since remodelling plays no part in the roundness of the head. These findings indicate the need for care in recommending treatment in the residual phase of the disease and suggest that it is difficult to determine what surgical treatment should be considered in adult life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_2964", "title": "Controlled study of the prevalence of radiological osteoarthritis in clinically unrecognised juxta-articular Paget's disease.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Paget's disease of bone is common and often undiagnosed in the population. The association of Paget's disease and osteoarthritis is well described but only in cases ascertained in secondary and tertiary care centres to which they have been referred largely because of pain. This study represents an attempt to confirm the association between Paget's disease and osteoarthritis in a population previously unknown to have Paget's disease. Radiographs of people over 55 years that included the entire pelvis, sacrum, femoral heads and lumbar spine (mostly plain abdominal radiographs) were obtained from hospital records for the period 1993-95. Films were screened by a trained observer and the positive films were reviewed by a consultant radiologist who also examined a 1 in 10 sample of the negative films. A sub-sample of 153 confirmed positive cases were matched for age and sex using cases without Paget's disease and these pairs were assessed by two observers working in tandem. The hip joints were scored 0-5 using a modification of the original descriptive classification of Kellgren and Lawrence and minimum joint space of the hip was also measured. Not all cases were available for assessment. A total of 248 films were included (137 without Paget's, 89 with unilateral and 22 with bilateral disease). The mean age of the cases and controls was 78.4 years and 77.4 years respectively with 66/45 male/female cases and 78/59 male/female controls. One hundred and twenty nine affected hips were available for comparison with 352 unaffected hips. Median joint space narrowing for the affected hip was 3 mm (range, 0-5 mm) and for the unaffected hip 4 mm (range, 0-6 mm, Mann-Whitney U test, p=0.00001). Median Kellgren and Lawrence grade for both groups was 0, with no statistical difference between the groups (Mann-Whitney U test, p=0.74). In terms of severity of osteoarthritis, there were 19 instances of grades 2+ in the unaffected hips, and only five in the affected hips. Pagetic coxopathy is characterised by loss of joint space, which may represent a secondary chondropathy. Although joint failure may result from this secondary chondropathy progression may be dependent on non-Pagetic factors. It is also possible that the usual radiological features of osteoarthritis may be modified or obscured by the Paget's disease." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 373 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 59 ] ], "text": "The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 373 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 59 ] ], "text": "The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 43 ] ], "text": "This is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), defined by the presence of > 250 polymorphonuclears/mL in the ascitic fluid (in this case there are 1,380, which is 60% of 2,300). It is an indication to start 3rd generation cephalosporins (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime) and albumin." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 373 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 43, 59 ] ], "text": "The rest are treatments that can wait for improvement (they do not speak of tension ascites)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Salt and fluid restriction.", "2": "Diuretic treatment with oral spironolactone.", "3": "Treatment with a third generation cephalosporin.", "4": "Evacuative paracentesis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0540_2449", "title": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis: a therapeutic update.", "score": 0.018089960886571055, "content": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is one of the main infectious complications of cirrhosis and occurs in 8-30% of hospitalized patients with ascites. SBP is characterized by infection of the ascitic fluid (AF) in the absence of any primary focus of intra-abdominal infection. The main route by which the AF becomes infected is the hematogenous route. The pathogenic mechanism by which infection develops is bacterial translocation from the intestinal flora to the mesenteric lymph nodes and from there to the bloodstream. Contributing factors are an increased growth of Gram-negative aerobic bacilli in the jejunum, changes in the intestinal barrier and in addition factors which could reduce the local flow of blood. For clinical diagnosis, patients with SBP may present signs of peritoneal irritation and pain, together with changes in gastrointestinal motility, sometimes with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea or ileus. Many patients, however, may not present any symptoms or signs as a result of the presence of SBP. Diagnostic paracentesis of the AF must be performed for every patient with cirrhosis, hospitalized with ascites. Laboratory diagnosis of SBP is carried out by polymorphonuclear count in the AF, together with a positive culture from the AF, which is characteristically monomicrobial. Escherichia coli has been the main bacterium isolated from AF as well as other Gram-negative bacteria from the Enterobacteriaceae family and Streptococcus genus. A more rapid diagnosis of SBP can be obtained via the use of leukocyte esterase, which is present in biological fluids and reacts with a component of the dipstick, changing its color. During the acute phase of SBP, antibiotics should be initiated promptly once the clinical and laboratory diagnosis of SBP has been made, before the result of AF culture. Cefotaxime or other third-generation cephalosporins have been considered the first-choice empirical antibiotics in the treatment of cirrhotic patients with SBP, and is efficacious in approximately 90% of cases. Broad-spectrum quinolones, which are almost completely absorbed after oral administration and diffuse rapidly through the AF, are currently used for oral treatment of uncomplicated SBP. Patients who have already had a previous episode of SBP, with a 69% probability of recurrence within a year, will benefit from prophylactic treatment. Cirrhotic patients with a high risk of SBP and other infections, such as those with gastrointestinal bleeding, also benefit from primary prophylaxis and norfloxacin has been used with success." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_22479", "title": "[Justification of routine puncture of ascites in cirrhotic patients admitted to emergency hospital units].", "score": 0.01441389843451699, "content": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a frequent, serious, recurrent complication, occurring in 10 to 30% of cirrhotic patients hospitalized with ascites. The key to diagnosis of SBP is ascites paracentesis and polymorphonuclear count in ascitic fluid. The purpose of our study was to evaluate sensitivity and specificity of clinical and biological criteria in diagnosis of 5 BP. We prospectively reviewed 30 adult cirrhotic patients admitted in our emergency department with ascites. Ascites paracentesis was performed in each patient, and SBP diagnosis was based on either positive bacteriological culture or polymorphonuclear count above 250/mm3 in ascitic fluid. Classical criteria for SBP were recorded: blood pressure under 90 mm of Hg, abdominal pain, temperature above 38.5 or under 36.5, jaundice, encephalopathy, increased serum bilirubin or creatinine, leukocyte blood count about 12 G/l. We evaluated sensitivity and specificity of those criteria in SBP, and compared their frequency in patients with SBP or sterile ascitic fluid. Thirty patients were included in our series, and in 14 of them a SBP was diagnosed. A significant difference was observed between spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and sterile ascitic fluid for abdominal pain and temperature abnormalities, but specificity and sensitivity of these criteria were very low. Moreover, SBP was asymptomatic in 7%. Due to the high rate of mortality in patients with SBP we recommend diagnostic procedures for this frequent complication as soon as patient is admitted in emergency department. This diagnosis must be based on ascitic fluid paracentesis, which has to be performed, in the emergency department, in every cirrhotic patient admitted with ascites. Indeed, SBP is often asymptomatic, and no clinical or bacteriological criteria can be considered as completely reliable for the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_181471", "title": "Typhoid fever", "score": 0.013207547169811321, "content": "Signs and symptoms Classically, the progression of untreated typhoid fever has three distinct stages, each lasting about a week. Over the course of these stages, the patient becomes exhausted and emaciated. In the first week, the body temperature rises slowly, and fever fluctuations are seen with relative bradycardia (Faget sign), malaise, headache, and cough. A bloody nose (epistaxis) is seen in a quarter of cases, and abdominal pain is also possible. A decrease in the number of circulating white blood cells (leukopenia) occurs with eosinopenia and relative lymphocytosis; blood cultures are positive for S. enterica subsp. enterica serovar Typhi. The Widal test is usually negative." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0564_22216", "title": "An evidence-based manual for abdominal paracentesis.", "score": 0.012142703632065335, "content": "The purpose of this study was to provide evidence-based approaches to detect ascites, perform paracentesis, order tests, and interpret the results. A Medline search was performed to identify relevant articles. Of 731 identified articles, 50 articles were used. The most sensitive findings for ascites detection are ankle edema (93%), increased abdominal girth (87%), flank dullness (84%), and bulging flanks (81%). Paracentesis is safe, with bleeding rates and leakage of &lt;1%. An ascitic fluid polymorphonuclear cell count &gt;or=250 cells/mm(3) is the most sensitive test (86%-100%) to diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. The serum-ascites albumin gradient is the most useful test in identifying portal hypertension-related ascites. Large-volume paracentesis is effective in the treatment of refractory ascites. We conclude that paracentesis is a safe and vital procedure in patients with new-onset ascites. Once detected, an algorithmic approach to ordering tests and their interpretation is useful to determine etiology and direct further management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_2658", "title": "[Efficacy and safety of large volume paracentesis in cirrhotic patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis: a randomized prospective study].", "score": 0.0116325846463292, "content": "Large volume paracentesis (LVP) associated with plasma volume expansion is known to be an effective and safe therapy for tense or refractory ascites in cirrhosis. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is one of the frequent infections in patients with cirrhosis. We conducted a study to assess the efficacy and safety of large volume paracentesis in cirrhotic patients with SBP. We randomly assigned 40 patients with cirrhosis and SBP to either treatment with LVP (21 patients) or general management (19 patients). LVP was defined as drainage of ascitic fluid of more than 4 liters in a single tap or loss of shifting dullness after paracentesis. LVP was performed within 48 hours after the diagnosis of SBP in the LVP group. Cefotaxime was given daily in doses that varied according to the serum creatinine level in both groups. Albumin was given at a dose of 6-8 g per 1 liter of removed ascites in the LVP group. After seven days of treatments, the blood chemistry test, and WBC (PMN) counts and protein concentration in the ascitic fluid were not different between the two groups. Among them, the WBC (PMN) counts were decreased significantly in both groups and protein concentrations tended to increase. Durations of abdominal tenderness and pain were shorter in the LVP group but the differences were statistically not significant. Admission periods, resolution rates of SBP after seven days of treatment, complication rates and in-hospital mortality rates were not different between the two groups. The two treatment methods demonstrated almost the same effectiveness and safety. The symptoms were improved slightly faster in the LVP group. We concluded that large volume paracentesis is not an absolute contraindication and can be a tolerable and safe therapy in some selected cirrhotic patients with tense ascites and SBP." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_346", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.011353989813242784, "content": "F IGU R E 2.6-1 3. Portosystemic anastomoses. 1. Left gastric–azygos → esophageal varices. 2. Superior–middle/inferior rectal → hemorrhoids. 3. Paraumbilical–inferior epigastric → caput medusae (navel). 4. Gastrorenal-splenorenal. 5. Retroperitoneal paravertebral. Aimed at ameliorating the complications of cirrhosis/portal hypertension. Ascites: Sodium restriction and diuretics (furosemide and spironolactone). Noncirrhotic causes of Rule out infectious and neoplastic causes; perform paracentesis to ob- tain SAAG, cell count with differential, and cultures. If possible, treat underlying liver disease. right heart failure, splenic Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis: vein thrombosis, and Presents with fever, abdominal pain, and altered mental status. schistosomiasis. Check peritoneal fluid if there is a possibility of infection. The fl uid is if there are > 250 PMNs/mL or > 500 WBCs." }, { "id": "article-26607_10", "title": "Paracentesis -- Indications", "score": 0.010206745946972394, "content": "Diagnostic paracentesis can be performed in the following situations: Rule out spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in patients with known ascites presenting with concerning symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, gastrointestinal bleeding, worsening encephalopathy, new or worsening renal or liver failure, hypotension, or other signs of infection or sepsis Identify the etiology of new-onset ascites. Fluid evaluation helps determine etiology, distinguish between transudate and exudate, detect cancerous cells, or address other possibilities. Therapeutic paracentesis is helpful when alleviating abdominal discomfort or respiratory distress in hemodynamically stable patients with tense ascites or ascites refractory to diuretics. [8] [2]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1047_24215", "title": "Refractory Chylous Ascites with Chylothorax and an Umbilical Hernia in a Patient Ineligible for a Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "BACKGROUND Chylous ascites is a rare condition, which is defined by accumulation of a milky fluid due to high triglyceride levels. It is most commonly secondary to malignancy, liver cirrhosis, infection, and tuberculosis. CASE REPORT A 21-year-old woman from rural Indonesia, came to the hospital with chronic dyspnea and a history of repeated paracentesis. Six years ago, she was diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B. For the past 2 years, she had complaints of progressive dyspnea and increased abdominal swelling. On examination, there was dullness on chest percussion and decreased breath sounds. Shifting dullness was positive on abdominal examination. Paracentesis and thoracentesis were performed and showed high triglyceride levels. She underwent an abdominal computed tomography scan and was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis, complicated with chylous ascites and chylothorax. Repeated paracentesis was performed as a therapeutic approach; she had strict diet guidelines, and was prescribed octreotide, furosemide, spironolactone, and albumin. Despite this treatment, two years later, she developed an umbilical hernia complicated with ulceration. Hernia repair was not possible due to her comorbidities. She was indicated for a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) for the refractory chylous ascites. However, this could not be performed as the patient could not afford this expensive procedure, which was not covered by insurance. CONCLUSIONS Management of refractory chylous ascites is challenging, especially in underdeveloped countries due to socioeconomic problems and limited health care facilities. Although TIPS is indicated in refractory chylous ascites, repeated paracentesis can be useful as an alternative method." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_17938", "title": "[Comparison of symptoms and clinical and laboratory findings in the first and last weeks of typhoid fever].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In this study we examined the clinical and laboratory findings of 80 in-patients. There is an important difference between sexes (p greater than 0.05). Comparison of ages showed that 7-30 age is more vulnerable than the older group. We found clinical symptoms of fever, chills, headache, abdominal pain, disturbances in bowel function, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and lassitude in the first two weeks more frequently when compared with the 3rd, 4th, 5th weeks of illness (p less than 0.001). Where physical finding of rose spots, discordant pulse rate are important in the first two weeks (p less than 0.001). Abdominal discomfort is an important symptom both in the first two and in the last three weeks (% 40.3 and % 36 respectively). Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, were found more frequently in the last three weeks. According to laboratory findings of anemia, leukopenia, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive blood and feces cultures there is no important difference between the first two and last three weeks (p greater than 0.05). Increase in polynuclear leucocytes is important for the first two weeks, and increase in lymphocytes is important in the last three weeks (p less than 0.001). Positivity of group agglutination tests is 57%, in the first two weeks and 83% in the last three weeks. This difference is found to be important." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1089_22935", "title": "Recurrent Chylous Ascites Leading to Transudative Chylothorax Due to Bi-Ventricular Heart Failure.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Chylothorax is a pleural effusion of &gt;110 mg/dL of triglycerides with a milky appearance with transudative being rare. In this article, we present a case of transudative chylothorax with concurrent chylous ascites that is secondary to congestive heart failure (CHF). A 70-year-old male with CHF with ejection fraction of 10%, coronary artery disease status post coronary artery bypass graft, sleep apnea, chronic kidney disease stage 3, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presented with worsening abdominal distention, shortness of breath, and increased lower extremities edema. He denied any cough or fever but had orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. He requires monthly paracentesis with drainage of 5 to 9 L each time. On physical examination, he had crackles bilaterally with no wheezes or jugular venous distension. His cardiac examination was unremarkable. He did have abdominal distension with dullness to percussion and a positive fluid wave. There was +2 bilateral pitting edema of lower extremities. He had a diagnostic paracentesis where 9.2 L of cloudy milky fluid was drained and therapeutic thoracentesis where 1.1 L of milky fluid was drained. Pleural fluid for triglycerides was 280. His peritoneal fluid had triglycerides of 671 confirming chylous ascites. CHF can lead to chylous ascites due to the increased lymph production in the abdomen, which flows to the thoracic duct. Due to the stiffness at the lymphatic junction, there is high pressure for less flow. The diaphragm plays a role allowing the chylous ascites to be absorb into the thorax." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_18985", "title": "[The significance of body temperature, sedimentation, C-reactive protein, leukocyte count and differential for the diagnosis of infections in an internal medicine emergency department].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The value of body temperature, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein, white blood cell count and differentiation for the diagnosis of infections in patients in the first aid department of internal medicine, was investigated. Forty-six infections were observed in 260 patients (prevalence 18%). Patients with fever had a fourfold increased chance to have an infection. In a patient with fever and an increased ESR the chance to have an infection was 91%, with fever and a normal ESR 33%. In the absence of fever the chance to have an infection was 14% if the ESR was increased and 7% if normal. White blood cell count and differentiation, like C-reactive protein in addition to body temperature were of no use for the diagnosis of infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0680_18593", "title": "Portal vein thrombosis in a patient with HCV cirrhosis and combined hemophilia A and thrombophilia V Leiden.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The relation of hemophilia A with thrombophilia V Leiden is extremely rare in the literature. Furthermore, hemophiliac patients have an increased risk of severe life-threatening hemorrhage, blood transfusions, and therefore hepatitis transmission, mainly hepatitis C (HCV). We present a 54-year-old male with a 5-year history of decompensated liver cirrhosis on the grounds of HCV hepatitis, hemophilia A, and thrombophilia V Leiden. He was admitted to our department because of severe abdominal distension, resembling 'tense ascites' despite the use of diuretics. Clinical examination showed shifting dullness and a protuberant abdomen, while hematological and blood chemistry results revealed thrombopenia (platelets: 77000/mL) and hypoalbuminemia. Repeated abdominal paracentesis (under factor VIII administration) failed to remove ascitic fluid, while abdominal echosonography and computed tomography revealed severe edema of mesenterium and intraabdominal viscus and the absence of free ascitic fluid, atrophic cirrhotic liver, and splenomegaly. Moreover, abdominal doppler echosonography revealed signs of portal hypertension, previous portal vein thrombosis, and revascularization of the portal vein. Gastroscopy showed esophageal varices grade II, without signs of bleeding. A-FP and all other laboratory examinations were normal. Our patient was intravenously treated with albumine and diuretics (furosemide) with mild improvement of his abdominal distension. During his hospitalization he presented an episode of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and hepatic encephalopathy, which were successfully treated with lactulose clysmas and ciprofloxacine. He was discharged in a good general condition. According to our case we consider the false clinical picture of 'tense ascites' of our patient as a rare clinical presentation of decompensated liver cirrhosis, with severe edema of mesenterium and viscus, on the grounds of preexisting portal vein thrombosis, in a patient with combined hemophilia A and thrombophilia V Leiden." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_1188", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Psoas sign: Passive extension of the hip leading to RLQ pain. Obturator sign: Passive internal rotation of the fl exed hip leading to RLQ pain. Rovsing’s sign: Deep palpation of the LLQ leading to RLQ pain. In perforated appendix, partial pain relief is possible, but peritoneal signs (e.g., rebound, guarding, hypotension, ↑ WBC count, fever) will ultimately develop. Children, the elderly, pregnant women, and those with retrocecal appendices may have atypical presentations that may result in misdiagnosis and ↑ mortality. Diagnosed by clinical impression. Look for fever, mild leukocytosis (11,000–15,000 cells/μL) with left shift, and UA with a few RBCs and/or WBCs. If the clinical diagnosis is unequivocal, no imaging studies are necessary. Otherwise, studies include the following: KUB: Fecalith or loss of psoas shadow. Ultrasound: Enlarged, noncompressible appendix. CT scan with contrast (95–98% sensitive): Periappendiceal stranding or fluid; enlarged appendix." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_67753", "title": "Paracentesis", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Paracentesis (from Greek κεντάω, \"to pierce\") is a form of body fluid sampling procedure, generally referring to peritoneocentesis (also called laparocentesis or abdominal paracentesis) in which the peritoneal cavity is punctured by a needle to sample peritoneal fluid. The procedure is used to remove fluid from the peritoneal cavity, particularly if this cannot be achieved with medication. The most common indication is ascites that has developed in people with cirrhosis. Indications It is used for a number of reasons: to relieve abdominal pressure from ascites to diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and other infections (e.g. abdominal TB) to diagnose metastatic cancer to diagnose blood in peritoneal space in trauma For ascites" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en253_16036", "title": "Cirrhosis", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Complications Ascites Salt restriction is often necessary, as cirrhosis leads to accumulation of salt (sodium retention). Diuretics may be necessary to suppress ascites. Diuretic options for inpatient treatment include aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone) and loop diuretics. Aldosterone antagonists are preferred for people who can take oral medications and are not in need of an urgent volume reduction. Loop diuretics can be added as additional therapy. Where salt restriction and the use of diuretics are ineffective then paracentesis may be the preferred option. This procedure requires the insertion of a plastic tube into the peritoneal cavity. Human serum albumin solution is usually given to prevent complications from the rapid volume reduction. In addition to being more rapid than diuretics, 4–5 liters of paracentesis is more successful in comparison to diuretic therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0088_20139", "title": "Ascites.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In summary, the diagnosis of ascites should be considered in all patients presenting with abdominal distention. A careful history and physical examination should be performed to rule out conditions that mimic ascites. Ultrasonography should be performed in questionable cases of ascites since physical examination and radiographic signs of ascites are unreliable. Paracentesis can help determine the etiology. Ascitic fluid should be examined to rule out spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, one of the few curable complications of cirrhosis. An ascitic fluid PMN count of greater than 250 per mm3 proves a sensitive indicator of infection. Medical treatment of cirrhotic ascites includes dietary sodium restriction and diuretics++. Large-volume paracentesis, with or without the use of colloid infusions, may provide useful adjunctive therapy. In rare instances, intractable ascites may be treated with a peritoneovenous shunt, although the complications and mortality rate of this procedure are significant. Peritoneovenous shunting, however, has not been shown to improve survival." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106207", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Causes of low SAAG (\"exudate\") are Cancer (metastasis and primary peritoneal carcinomatosis) – 10% Infection: Tuberculosis – 2% or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis Pancreatitis – 1% Serositis Nephrotic syndrome Hereditary angioedema Other rare causes Meigs syndrome Vasculitis Hypothyroidism Renal dialysis Peritoneum mesothelioma Abdominal tuberculosis Mastocytosis Diagnosis Routine complete blood count (CBC), basic metabolic profile, liver enzymes, and coagulation should be performed. Most experts recommend a diagnostic paracentesis be performed if the ascites is new or if the person with ascites is being admitted to the hospital. The fluid is then reviewed for its gross appearance, protein level, albumin, and cell counts (red and white). Additional tests will be performed if indicated such as microbiological culture, Gram stain and cytopathology." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_10116", "title": "Hepatorenal syndrome", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Certain precipitants of HRS have been identified in vulnerable individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant liver failure. These include bacterial infection, acute alcoholic hepatitis, or bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which is the infection of ascites fluid, is the most common precipitant of HRS in cirrhotic individuals. HRS can sometimes be triggered by treatments for complications of liver disease: iatrogenic precipitants of HRS include the aggressive use of diuretic medications or the removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid by paracentesis from the abdominal cavity without compensating for fluid losses by intravenous replacement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_15065", "title": "[Value of admission for observation in the management of acute abdominal right iliac fossa pain. Prospective study of 205 cases].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Because of the potential severity of acute appendicitis, many authors recommend the broad use of appendectomy. In this case, 15 to 20% of appendectomies are ultimately found to have been unnecessary. Hospital observation with repeated clinical and laboratory exams can be useful for patients with atypical clinical presentation. This paper assesses our approach, in which some patients with pain in the right iliac fossa (RIF) are admitted for observation before a decision about appendectomy. All patients (205 cases) admitted from March 2002 through February 2003 for acute abdominal pain of the RIF were included in this prospective study. The 120 women and 85 men (sex ratio=0.7) had a mean age of 27 years. We classified the patients into 3 groups: those who had an emergency appendectomy, those who had surgery after an observation period, and those discharged without appendectomy after observation. The first group included 110 patients: 63% had a (rectal) temperature greater than 38 degrees C; 44% had guarding of the RIF and 87% elevated white blood cell counts (&gt;10000/mm3). At surgery, appendicitis was diagnosed in 92%. After a mean delay of 36 hours of observation, 50 of the patients in the second group underwent surgery: 44% with (rectal) temperature &gt; 38 degrees C, RIF guarding in 8%, and elevated white blood cell count (&gt;10000/mm3) in 74%. In this group, 94% were diagnosed with appendicitis during surgery. Forty-five patients were discharged without surgery after 36 hours of observation. In this study, pain and RIF guarding, associated with temperature greater than 38 degrees C and elevated white blood cell counts, were predictive of appendicitis in 96% of cases. Admission for observation of patients with atypical presentation avoided 45 unnecessary appendectomies (22%)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106204", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Treatment often involves a low-salt diet, medication such as diuretics, and draining the fluid. A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be placed but is associated with complications. Attempts to treat the underlying cause, such as by a liver transplant may be considered. Of those with cirrhosis, more than half develop ascites in the ten years following diagnosis. Of those in this group who develop ascites, half will die within three years. The term is from the Greek askítes meaning \"baglike\". Signs and symptoms Mild ascites is hard to notice, but severe ascites leads to abdominal distension. People with ascites generally will complain of progressive abdominal heaviness and pressure as well as shortness of breath due to mechanical impingement on the diaphragm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0130_3038", "title": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is an infection of the ascitic fluid of patients who, in general, have severe chronic liver disease. Several variants of this disease exist including bacterascites, culture-negative neutrocytic ascites, and secondary bacterial peritonitis. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is frequently manifested by signs and symptoms of peritonitis although the findings may be subtle; however, occasionally it may be completely without clinical manifestation. The clinician must have a high index of suspicion in order to make this diagnosis at a relatively earlier stage of infection. An abdominal paracentesis is required to make the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. This paracentesis should be performed on all patients who are admitted to the hospital for ascites and should be repeated if there is any manifestation of bacterial infection during the hospitalization. Patients with severe intrahepatic shunting--as manifested by marked redistribution of activity from the liver to the spleen and to the bone marrow on liver-spleen scan as well as patients with an ascitic fluid total protein concentration of less than 1 g/dl--appear to be particularly susceptible to bacterial infection of their ascites. In order to optimize the yield of ascitic fluid culture, it is probably appropriate to inject blood culture bottles with ascites at the bedside immediately after the abdominal paracentesis. The mortality of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis continues to be very high. Perhaps routine admission paracentesis and prompt empiric antibiotic therapy with a third-generation cephalosporin will decrease the mortality of this infection if the Gram stain of the ascitic fluid demonstrates bacteria or the ascitic fluid neutrophil count is greater than 250 cells/cu mm. Repeating the paracentesis after 48 hours of treatment to reculture the fluid and reassess the ascitic fluid neutrophil count appears to be the best way to assess efficacy of treatment. After 48 hours of treatment the ascitic fluid neutrophil count should be less than 50% of the original value if the antimicrobial therapy is appropriate. The optimal duration of antibiotic treatment is unknown; however, until controlled trials provide data regarding duration of treatment it is appropriate to treat with parenteral antibiotics for 10 to 14 days. Research is also needed to determine if there are measures which can be taken to prevent the development of spontaneous peritonitis." }, { "id": "article-24216_20", "title": "Leukocytosis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Significant elevations, such as leukocytosis close to 100 × 10 9 cells/L, should always prompt immediate evaluation for leukemia or myeloproliferative disorders. Myeloproliferative disorders are a group of disease processes characterized by cell dysplasia. There are several categories, some involving leukocytes and some involving other cell lines. Regardless, malignant transformation is possible. A review of symptoms should focus on evaluation for shortness of breath, anemia, pallor, unusual bleeding, petechiae, frequent infections, and fatigue. Physical examination should look for pallor (indicative of possible underlying anemia), petechiae, bruises, tachycardia, palpable lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Frequent follow-ups with CBC collections should be arranged with the assistance of a hematology and oncology consultant to monitor for any malignant transformation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0302_1856", "title": "Diuretic requirements after therapeutic paracentesis in non-azotemic patients with cirrhosis. A randomized double-blind trial of spironolactone versus placebo.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Diuretic requirements after mobilization of ascites by paracentesis have never been assessed in cirrhosis. It is also unknown whether diuretics increase the incidence of postparacentesis circulatory dysfunction. The aim of this study was to investigate these features and to assess whether measurement of plasma renin activity and aldosterone prior to paracentesis predicts diuretic response after this procedure. Thirty-six patients with non-azotemic cirrhosis and ascites treated by total paracentesis plus i.v. albumin were randomly assigned to receive placebo (n=17) or spironolactone 225 mg/day (n=19) immediately after paracentesis and followed-up for 4 weeks. Five patients (three in the placebo and two in the spironolactone group) abandoned the treatment prior to ascites recurrence or the end of the study due to complications or lack of compliance. The analysis was performed in the remaining 31 patients. Ascites recurrence was more common in the placebo group (13 cases, 93%) than in the spironolactone group (3 cases, 18%) (p&lt;0.0001) and occurred within the first 2 weeks of follow-up in more than 50% of patients. Patients developing ascites in the spironolactone group had higher levels of renin (14.1, 20.6, 32.4 ng/ml per h) and aldosterone (120, 149, 288 ng/dl) than those who did not develop ascites (renin: 2.0+/-2.1 ng/ml per h; range 0.1-6.8; aldosterone: 43+/-38 ng/dl; range 4-116). Three patients in the placebo group and two in the spironolactone group developed postparacentesis circulatory dysfunction (defined as an increase in renin at the third day after paracentesis greater than 50% over baseline levels up to a value higher than 4 ng/ml per h). Patients with cirrhosis treated by paracentesis should receive diuretics immediately after this procedure to prevent early recurrence of ascites. The administration of 225 mg/day of spironolactone is a good empiric treatment for non-azotemic patients with cirrhosis, because it is effective in most cases and does not increase the incidence of postparacentesis circulatory dysfunction. The determination of plasma levels of renin or aldosterone prior to paracentesis predicts the efficacy of spironolactone in the prevention of ascites recurrence." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en545_12739", "title": "Intermittent fever", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Intermittent fever is a type or pattern of fever in which there is an interval where temperature is elevated for several hours followed by an interval when temperature drops back to normal. This type of fever usually occurs during the course of an infectious disease. Diagnosis of intermittent fever is frequently based on the clinical history but some biological tests like complete blood count and blood culture are also used. In addition radiological investigations like chest X-ray, abdominal ultrasonography can also be used in establishing diagnosis. Intermittent fever in malaria Malaria is a common cause of intermittent fever and it has following types. Quotidian fever Bouts of fever occurring daily (24-hour periodicity) for a few hours, typical of Plasmodium knowlesi. Tertian fever Fever occurs after an interval of two days (48-hour periodicity), typical of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en492_13982", "title": "Intermittent hydrarthrosis", "score": 0.009028593811202508, "content": "Signs and symptoms Repeated, periodic joint effusions of the knee. Usually one knee is affected but sometimes both knees. Other joints may also be involved along with the knee. Effusions are large, restricting range of motion but significant pain is not a feature. There is usually stiffness. Tenderness of the joint may or may not be present. Aspirated synovial fluid is usually sterile but will sometimes show elevated cell count (>100 cells/mL) with 50% being polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Onset of effusions are sudden with no particular trigger or stimulus. Each episode lasts for a few days to about a week and recurs in cycles of 7 to 11 days with extremes of 3 days to 30 days also reported. Sometimes the joint may begin to swell again as soon as the fluid has subsided. Where both knees are affected concurrently, as one joint ceases to swell the other may become involved." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0894_13692", "title": "Pseudocirrhosis caused by regorafenib in an advanced rectal cancer patient with multiple liver metastases.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 70-year-old man who was diagnosed with unresectable advanced rectal cancer with multiple liver metastases, received oxaliplatin-based treatment with bevacizumab as first-line chemotherapy and irinotecan-based treatment with bevacizumab as second-line chemotherapy for a total of 17 months. The patient was treated with regorafenib (160 mg/day for 3 weeks) as third-line chemotherapy. Following completion of one course of regorafenib treatment, the patient complained of abdominal distension. Computed tomography (CT) examination identified liver atrophy and massive ascites, while no such symptoms were observed prior to the regorafenib treatment. Blood testing revealed increases in the aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels. The patient was admitted to the Aizu Medical Center (Aizuwakamatsu, Japan). Approximately 2,000 ml of ascitic fluid were aspirated daily for 1 week by abdominal puncture. The patient was administered oral diuretics, including 20 mg/day of furosemide and 25 mg/day of spironolactone. Albumin was administered to correct the albumin deficit. The levels of AST, ALT and ALP were decreased from the peak value reported on admission and the patient was discharged from our hospital 16 days following treatment initiation. The CT examination after 1 month revealed that the volume of the liver had been restored and the ascites had disappeared. Furthermore, almost all the liver metastases were reduced in size. The carcinoembryonic antigen level, which was elevated prior to regorafenib treatment, also decreased to normal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0497_16026", "title": "[Diagnosis and therapy of 186 spontaneous bacterial peritonitis patients with end-stage liver disease].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To improve the diagnosis and treatment level of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) in the patients with advanced liver disease, get better curative effect and prognosis. Registered the body temperature, symptoms and signs in the abdomen, and blood routine test, the polymorphonuclear (PMN) cell count, and ascites culture in the patients with cirrhosis and fulminant hepatitis. These patients were given supporting therapies including use plasma and albumin as well as antibiotics treatment according to drug sensitivity or empiric. Changes of the body temperature, symptoms and signs were used to evaluate the effect of therapy. 186 of 275 inward patients with end-stage liver disease during this period were considered as SBP by ascites culture or clinical experience with various degree symptoms and signs such as pain, distention, higher tension and touch pain in the abdomen. Infective rate was 67.6%. Among them 138 patients had abnormal body temperature more than 37.4 degrees C. 106 patients with leukocyte count in the peripheral blood more than 10 x 10(9)/L; 137 patients with PMN more than 80% in differential cell count; 103 patients with PMN more than 250/mm(3) in ascites. Only 29 patients were culture positive. 82 patients were cured, 17 patients with improvement, 18 patients with inefficacy or deterioration. 42 patients died of hepatic-renal failure and 27 patients died because of upper alimentary tract bleeding, respectively. Signs and symptoms of SBP were atypical in the patients with end-stage liver disease. Ascites culture positive rate was not high. Early diagnosis and proper use antibiotics according to culture and empirics were important to increase effect and improve prognosis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1134_17492", "title": "Lactulose-Induced Ischemic Colitis: A Rare Presentation and an Overview of Possible Etiologies of the Disease.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Ischemic colitis is one of the most common ischemic pathologies of the gastrointestinal system and can be divided into non-gangrenous and gangrenous forms. The pathophysiology involves restricted blood supply to the colonic mucosa. Several risk factors have been implicated in the development of ischemic colitis. Lactulose, one of the mainstay therapies for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis, has been rarely reported as a cause of ischemic colitis. To the best of our knowledge, there has been only one case report associating lactulose use with the development of ischemic colitis. The exact pathophysiology is unknown but might be associated with the fermentation of lactulose by intestinal bacteria, causing gaseous distention and increasing the intraluminal pressure. We present the case of a 77-year-old African American male, a known case of non-alcoholic liver cirrhosis with portal hypertension and esophageal varices, brought in by his family to the emergency department for altered mental status, non-bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, and pain for one day. On physical examination, the patient had upper extremity asterixis and was alert but disoriented to place and person. Diagnostic paracentesis was performed, which revealed leukocytosis, predominantly neutrophils. The patient was admitted for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and hepatic encephalopathy with decompensated liver cirrhosis. The patient was started lactulose with a goal of three to four bowel movements per day. Despite adequate treatment, the patient continued to develop worsening mental function and abdominal distension. This was later followed by a bloody bowel movement. Laboratory assessment showed an elevated white blood cell count, worsening kidney function, and high anion gap metabolic acidosis. CT scan revealed dilated loops of bowel with air and fluid along with submucosal wall edema, findings suggestive of ischemic colitis. Given the poor prognosis and the patient's condition, colonoscopy was deferred. Lactulose was discontinued, as it was thought to be a contributing cause of the patient's ischemic colitis. His condition continued to deteriorate, and he passed away on Day 18 of admission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0208_9514", "title": "[Adult Still's disease (author's transl)].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The study of 36 published cases of adult Still's disease shows the following features: the onset takes place usually during the third decade of life, most often as a polyarthralgia characterized by sometimes starting fever, evanescent rash, neutrophil leukocytosis, negativity of the serological tests for rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus; lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly are frequent but not constant; serous cavities, particularly pericardium, are rather frequently involved; evolution is characterized by a succession of relapses and remissions, the far prognosis being rather good (1/3 of cures, 1/3 of mild articular relapses, 1/3 of articular sequelae, involving chiefly neck and hips); corticosteroids and heavy doses of aspirin seem to give the best therapeutic results, the usefulness of a maintenance treatment is debatable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_10992", "title": "Treatment of ascites in cirrhosis. Diuretics, peritoneovenous shunt, and large-volume paracentesis.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The medical treatment of ascites in cirrhosis is based on sodium restriction and the administration of diuretics. Because the natriuretic potency of spironolactone is greater than that of loop diuretics (i.e., furosemide) in patients with marked sodium retention, spironolactone is the basic drug for the treatment of ascites. The simultaneous administration of spironolactone and furosemide increases the natriuretic effect of each drug and diminishes their effects on potassium metabolism. Recent studies indicate that large-volume paracentesis associated with intravenous albumin infusion is more effective than diuretic therapy in eliminating the ascitic fluid; is associated with a lower incidence of complications (hepatic encephalopathy, renal impairment, and hyponatremia); and considerably reduces the duration of hospital stay. Therapeutic paracentesis associated with intravenous albumin infusion is therefore the treatment of choice for cirrhotic patients with tense ascites. The mobilization of the ascitic fluid by paracentesis without plasma volume expansion is constantly associated with a deterioration of effective circulating blood volume and may induce renal impairment and severe hyponatremia. Dextran 70 and polygeline appear as effective as albumin in preventing these abnormalities. Cirrhotic patients treated with paracentesis require the administration of diuretics to avoid reaccumulation of ascites. Peritoneovenous shunt, a prosthesis capable to correct most abnormalities involved in the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, is an effective treatment of ascites in cirrhosis. It is especially indicated in patients who do not respond to diuretics and develop repeated episodes of ascites despite adequate treatment. The use of peritoneovenous shunting is limited by the high incidence of complications induced by the procedure, however. In addition, approximately 40% of patients develop an obstruction of the prosthesis within the first postoperative year." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0413_21249", "title": "[Adult-onset Still-disease: survey of 18 cases].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Adult onset Still's disease (juvenile rheumatoid arthritis with septic appearance) is rare, leading to clinical signs similar to those seen in bacterial sepsis, lymphomas, rheumatological, or systemic autoimmune diseases. The disease can present with a fever of unknown origin, and can cause difficulties in the diagnosis. It is based upon, partly, the exclusion of other diseases and on diagnostic criteria. Its characteristic feature is the rise of acute phase proteins. Exanthemata are temporary. The basis of treatment is immunosuppression, however relapses can occur. The aim of the authors was to evaluate on the most characteristic clinical signs and laboratorical data of their patients, and to examine the revealing parameters of the course of the disease. Retrospective epidemiological survey of the data obtained from 18 patients. The characteristic signs of the disease were, fever, sore throat, arthritis, joint pain, exanthemata, hepato-splenomegaly, lymphadenomegaly, pleurisy. The typical laboratorical data were: elevated CRP, low PCT, negative Waaler-Rose and ANA test, low serum iron level, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, elevated alkalic phosphatase activity, high LDH, positive bone scintigraphy. The fever was steroid dependent. Generally, the illness was recognised after 2-3 months, and relapses were frequent. Still's disease has an important role in the differential diagnosis of fever of unknown origin. The diagnosis is based upon the evaluation of clinical signs and laboratorical data together. Prolonged immunosuppressive therapy is required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0554_15663", "title": "[Refractory ascites and dilutional hyponatremia: current management and new aquaretics].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Ascites is the most common complication of cirrhosis and is associated with 50% mortality at 2 years if patients do not receive orthotopic liver transplantation. Recently the International Ascites Club defined ascites into three groups: In grade I ascites fluid is detected only by ultrasound; in grade II, ascites is moderate with symmetrical distention of the abdomen; and in Grade 3 ascites is large or tense with marked abdominal distention. About 10% of patients with ascites are refractory to treatment with diuretics. In refractory ascites, patients do not respond to highest doses of diuretics (spironolactone 400 mg/day and furosemide 160 mg/ day) or develop side effects (hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hepatic encephalopathy, or renal failure) that prohibit their use. Patients may be treated either by repeated large volume paracentesis plus albumin or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS). Dilutional hyponatremia in cirrhotic patients is defined as serum sodium &lt; or = 130 mEq/L in the presence of an expanded extracellular fluid volume, as indicated by the presence of ascites and/or edema. This complication of cirrhotic patients with ascites has recently gained attention given that several reports indicate that when serum sodium concentration is combined with the Model for End-Stage liver disease (MELD) it improves the prognostic accuracy of MELD score in patients awaiting orthotopic liver transplant (OLT). The first step in the management of dilutional hyponatremia is fluid restriction and discontinuation of diuretics. Water restriction at 1,000 mL/day helps prevent the progressive decrease in serum sodium concentration but usually does not correct hyponatremia in most cases. Actually are developing drugs that are active orally and act by selectively antagonizing the specific receptors (V2 receptor) of arginine vasopressin. These agents act in the distal collecting ducts of the kidneys, by increasing solute free water excretion and, thus, improving serum sodium concentration in hyponatremic patients." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 722, 877 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 117, 144 ] ], "text": "In a high number of cases, after the resolution of the symptoms, the outbreaks are reduced and they can be prevented with diet and hygienic dietary habits." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 303, 426 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 72 ] ], "text": "Discharge colostomy in this case makes no sense whatsoever, since it is not a question of solving an obstructive condition." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 193, 302 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 52 ] ], "text": "it does not meet the criteria to require drainage by guided puncture (the abscess is not larger than 5-6 cm)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 670, 721 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 110, 117 ] ], "text": "Sigmoidectomy and anastomosis is also not required." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Admission to the ward with absolute diet and broad-spectrum antibiotic treatment.", "2": "Discharge colostomy.", "3": "Drainage by laparoscopic surgery.", "4": "Urgent surgery with sigmoidectomy and colorectal anastomosis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0724_25325", "title": "Danish national guidelines for treatment of diverticular disease.", "score": 0.018518518518518517, "content": "In order to elaborate evidence-based, national Danish guidelines for the treatment of diverticular disease the literature was reviewed concerning the epidemiology, staging, diagnosis and treatment of diverticular disease in all its aspects. The presence of colonic diverticula, which is considered to be a mucosal herniation through the intestinal muscle wall, is inversely correlated to the intake of dietary fibre. Other factors in the genesis of diverticular disease may be physical inactivity, obesity, and use of NSAIDs or acetaminophen. Diverticulosis is most common in Western countries with a prevalence of 5% in the population aged 30-39 years and 60% in the part of the population &gt; 80 years. The incidence of hospitalization for acute diverticulitis is 71/100,000 and the incidence of complicated diverticulitis is 3.5-4/100,000. Acute diverticulitis is conveniently divided into uncomplicated and complicated diverticulitis. Complicated diverticulitis is staged by the Hinchey classification 1-4 (1: mesocolic/pericolic abscess, 2: pelvic abscess, 3: purulent peritonitis, 4: faecal peritonitis). Diverticulitis is suspected in case of lower left quadrant abdominal pain and tenderness associated with fever and raised WBC and/or CRP; but the clinical diagnosis is not sufficiently precise. Abdominal CT confirms the diagnosis and enables the classification of the disease according to Hinchey. The distinction between Hinchey 3 and 4 is done by laparoscopy or, when not possible, by laparotomy. Uncomplicated diverticulitis is treated by conservative means. There is no evidence of any beneficial effect of antibiotics in uncomplicated diverticulitis, but antibiotics may be used in selected cases depending on the overall condition of the patients and the severity of the infection. Abscess formation is best treated by US- or CT-guided drainage in combination with antibiotics. When the abscess is &lt; 3 cm in diameter, drainage may be unnecessary, and only antibiotics should be instituted. The surgical treatment of acute perforated diverticulitis has interchanged between resection and non-resection strategies: The three-stage procedure dominating in the beginning of the 20th century was later replaced by the Hartmann procedure or, alternatively, resection of the sigmoid with primary anastomosis. Lately a non-resection strategy consisting of laparoscopy with peritoneal lavage and drainage has been introduced in the treatment of Hinchey stage 3 disease. Evidence so far for the lavage regime is promising, comparing favourably with resection strategies, but lacking in solid proof by randomized, controlled investigations. In recent years, morbidity has declined in complicated diverticulitis due to improved diagnostics and new treatment modalities. Recurrent diverticulitis is relatively rare and furthermore often uncomplicated than previously assumed. Elective surgery in diverticular disease should probably be limited to symptomatic cases not amenable to conservative measures, since prophylactic resection of the sigmoid, evaluated from present evidence, confers unnecessary risks in terms of morbidity and mortality to the individual as well as unnecessary costs to society. Any recommendation for routine resection following multiple cases of diverticulitis should await results of randomized studies. Laparoscopic resection is preferred in case of need for elective surgery. When malignancy is ruled out preoperatively, a sigmoid resection with preservation of the inferior mesenteric artery, oral division of colon in soft compliant tissue and anastomosis to upper rectum is recommended. Fistulae to bladder or vagina, or stenosis of the colon may be dealt with according to symptoms and comorbidity. Resection of the diseased segment of colon is preferred when possible and safe; alternatively, a diverting stoma can be the best solution." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_25410", "title": "Diverticulitis", "score": 0.013792040682667489, "content": "Antibiotics Mild uncomplicated diverticulitis without systemic inflammation should not be treated with antibiotics. For mild, uncomplicated, and non-purulent cases of acute diverticulitis, symptomatic treatment, IV fluids, and bowel rest have no worse outcome than surgical intervention in the short and medium term, and appear to have the same outcomes at 24 months. With abscess confirmed by CT scan, some evidence and clinical guidelines tentatively support the use of oral or IV antibiotics for smaller abscesses (<5 cm) without systemic inflammation, but percutaneous or laparoscopic drainage may be necessary for larger abscesses (>5 cm). Emergency surgery is required for perforated diverticulitis with peritonitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0716_10066", "title": "Challenging a classic myth: pneumoperitoneum associated with acute diverticulitis is not an indication for open or laparoscopic emergency surgery in hemodynamically stable patients. A 10-year experience with a nonoperative treatment.", "score": 0.013188844086021506, "content": "In patients presenting with acute diverticulitis (AD) and signs of acute peritonitis, the presence of extradigestive air (EDA) on a computer tomography (CT) scan is often considered to indicate the need for emergency surgery. Although the traditional management of \"perforated\" AD is open sigmoidectomy, more recently, laparoscopic drainage/lavage (usually followed by delayed elective sigmoidectomy) has been reported. The aim of this retrospective study is to evaluate the results of nonoperative management of emergency patients presenting with AD and EDA. The outcomes of 39 consecutive hemodynamically stable patients (23 men, mean age = 54.7 years) who were admitted with AD and EDA and were managed nonoperatively (antibiotic and supportive treatment) at a tertiary-care university hospital between January 2001 and June 2010 were retrospectively collected and analyzed. These included morbidity (Clavien-Dindo) and treatment failure (need for emergency surgery or death). A univariate analysis of clinical, radiological, and laboratory criteria with respect to treatment failure was performed. Results of delayed elective laparoscopic sigmoidectomy were also analyzed. There was no mortality. Thirty-six of the 39 patients (92.3%) did not need surgery (7 patients required CT-guided abscess drainage). Mean hospital stay was 8.1 days. Duration of symptoms, previous antibiotic administration, severe sepsis, PCR level, WBC concentration, and the presence of abdominal collection were associated with treatment failure, whereas \"distant\" location of EDA and free abdominal fluid were not. Five patients had recurrence of AD and were treated medically. Seventeen patients (47.2%) underwent elective laparoscopic sigmoidectomy for which mean operative time was 246 min (range = 100-450) and the conversion rate was 11.8%. Mortality was nil and the morbidity rate was 41.2%. Mean postoperative stay was 7.1 days (range = 4-23). Nonoperative management is a viable option in most emergency patients presenting with AD and EDA, even in the presence of symptoms of peritonitis or altered laboratory tests. Delayed laparoscopic sigmoidectomy may be useless in certain cases and its results poorer than expected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1108_21536", "title": "Septic Shock Secondary to a Pyogenic Liver Abscess Following Complicated Appendicitis.", "score": 0.011331535695942476, "content": "Pyogenic liver abscesses (PLAs) are a rare condition in North America and Europe and, rarer still, the cause of septic shock. This case report will describe the rare occurrence of a PLA producing septic shock in a 36-year-old male residing in the United Kingdom following a case of complicated appendicitis. The patient presented to the emergency department (ED) with a three-week history of intermittent loose stools, cramping abdominal pain, recurrent fevers, a heart rate of 111 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 94/58 mmHg, and a fever of 40.1 degrees Celsius. Despite prompt broad spectrum antibiotic administration and three liters of fluid resuscitation, the patient remained shocked which led to an ICU admission. A CT scan prior to transfer found a 7 cm x 6 cm x 6 cm lesion representing a liver abscess (LA) as well as gross inflammatory change affecting the distal small bowel. The LA was managed through insertion of a percutaneous drain under ultrasound guidance performed by the interventional radiology team, as well as ongoing IV antibiotics. Following growth of the gut commensal <iStreptococcus constellatus</i from the abscess fluid culture, a colonoscopy was performed which found a severely distorted and inflamed terminal ileum with an impassable stricture, raising not only the suspicion of appendicitis but also Crohn's disease. Following the colonoscopy, after a total of 10 days admission, the patient was allowed to go home with a four-week course of oral co-amoxiclav. After discharge, the patient's case was discussed in the gastroenterology inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) multi-disciplinary team meeting due to concerns raised about possible Crohn's disease from the admission CT and following colonoscopy findings. Given the absence of relevant IBD symptoms, a reassuring outpatient MRI small bowel scan (found considerable resolution of the right iliac fossa inflammatory process) and a fecal calprotectin of 29 four months post discharge (normal=0-51 μg/g), it was concluded the terminal ileum changes were most likely accounted for by a complicated course of appendicitis. When reviewed in a telephone clinic 10 weeks post discharge, he was found to have no persistent gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms and was subsequently discharged. This case highlights the importance of comprehensive imaging and colonoscopy in the work up of those patients with PLAs with no otherwise evident precipitating factor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0116_16190", "title": "[Emergency interventions in complicated colonic diverticulosis].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "An account is given in this paper of 480 patients who had been hospitalised for colonic diverticulosis or diverticulitis in the surgical department of the Municipal Waid Hospital of Zurich, between 1970 and 1986. Laparotomy had to be performed on 219 of them (45.6 per cent), among them 84 emergency interventions. The average age of these patients was 70.7 years. Indications for emergency surgery included diffuse or locally delimited peritonitis with abscess development in 72 patients, ileus in ten cases, and massive colon haemorrhage in two. The latter two cases were handled with good success by subtotal colectomy with ileorectostomy and, one of them with the source of bleeding known, by colotomy and suturing of that source of bleeding. Sigmaincontinence resection according to Hartmann has been considered the optional approach since 1977 to diffuse peritonitis and to many cases of ileus (n = 39). In more recent time, anastomosis has been used as primary approach to some patients who survived fibrinous abdominal peritonitis (n = 4). The mortality rate associated with drainage operations according to expectation, has been clearly higher than that following resection, the comparable figures being 32.3 and 17.2 per cent. That has been attributable to non-removal of the septic focus. After all, nowadays combined antibiotic therapy is commonly used for seven to ten days for simultaneous control of both aerobic and anaerobic pathogens. This has become routine practice and involves aminoglycoside, metronidazole, and ampicillin. Overall mortality associated with emergency interventions is clearly higher than that after planned operations, the figures being 22.6 and 4.4 per cent.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1012_26118", "title": "Chronic abdominal pain after laparoscopic hernia repair due to mesh graft migration to the cecum: a case report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Hernia repair with mesh graft is one of the most common procedures in general surgery. Mesh graft repair is the treatment of choice for umbilical and periumbilical hernias to minimize recurrence. One of the rare but serious complications is mesh graft migration to viscus. These complications can occur months to years after repair and their diagnosis can be challenging as they may present as vague abdominal pain only. A 74-year-old gentleman with multiple medical comorbidities was diagnosed with a para-umbilical hernia after which he underwent a laparoscopic hernia repair at our hospital using a mesh graft with no complications. On postoperative day 10, he presented to the emergency room (ER) complaining of colicky abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa for 1 day associated with diarrhea. A Computed Tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis showed diffuse wall thickening of the cecum and terminal ileum with small free air worrisome for perforation. The decision was made in the ER to discharge him home on antibiotics. The patient then returned back multiple times to the ER for the same complaint along with bleeding per rectum for which he underwent further investigations. Months later, the patient presented again with the same symptoms. A CT scan revealed recurrence of a periumbilical hernia and thickening of the medial wall of the cecum with mesh graft material. The patient was then taken to surgery and intra-operative findings revealed migration of almost 50% of the mesh graft size to the cecum and part of the mesh graft was eroding the distal part of ileum just proximal to the ileocecal junction. Adhesolysis and limited right hemicolectomy with ileocolic anastomosis was done. The patient had an uneventful recovery after revisions surgery without any perioperative complications. He was discharged home on postoperative readmission day 5 and followed up at 2 weeks and 3 months without any delayed complications or subjective complaints. It is important to consider mesh graft migration to viscus as a cause of persistent abdominal pain and bleeding per rectum irrespective of the time of presentation post hernia repair." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0288_2961", "title": "The Hartmann procedure. First choice or last resort in diverticular disease?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To critique changing trends in the surgical management of diverticular disease. Case series. Two hundred twenty-seven consecutive patients required surgery for diverticular disease from 1988 to 1993. Patient records were reviewed retrospectively. Operative procedures included primary resection in all patients with either anastomosis, anastomosis with proximal ileostomy, or the Hartmann procedure. Morbidity, mortality, and length of stay were then compared with each operative procedure and stage of disease. Patients were categorized according to the following pathologic stages: stage 0, no inflammation; stage I, chronic inflammation; stage II, acute inflammation with or without microabscesses; stage III, pericolonic or mesenteric abscess; stage IV, pelvic abscess; and stage V, purulent or feculent peritonitis. A university hospital and private affiliated hospitals in a large metropolitan area. Study outcome parameters included mortality, morbidity, length of hospital stay, and leak rates. These outcomes were then compared with different disease stages and treatments. Mean patient age was 66 years (range, 25-98 years). Male-female ratio was 84:143. Mean follow-up was 23 months (range, 1-132 months). There were 50 fistulas: 24 colovesical, 21 colovaginal, 3 colocolonic, 1 coloenteric, and 1 colouterine. Surgery was categorized as elective for 196 patients (86%), urgent for 12 (5%), and emergent for 19 (8%). Primary resection was performed in all cases. Primary anastomosis was performed in 200 patients (88%), 183 without and 17 with proximal diversion. Twenty-seven patients (12%) underwent a Hartmann procedure with colostomy; 19 patients (70%) have since undergone colostomy closure. Morbidity occurred in 52 patients (23%), including 4 anastomotic leaks (2%). There were 3 perioperative deaths (1%). Mean length of initial hospital stay was 11 days (range, 4-59 days). Length of stay was 5 days (range, 4-7 days) for ileostomy closure (7% morbidity) and 13 days (range, 7-35 days) for the colostomy closure after the Hartmann procedure (33% morbidity). Primary resection is virtually always possible in complicated diverticular disease. Primary anastomosis, with or without proximal diversion, is safe for patients with no abscesses or localized abscesses and should be considered on an individual basis for patients with pelvic abscesses and peritonitis. Colostomy closure after the Hartmann procedure is associated with significant length of hospitalization and morbidity and leaves one third of patients with permanent stomas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1114_16355", "title": "Pyomyoma mimicking tubo-ovarian abscess: Two case reports.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Pyomyoma is an extremely rare complication, defined as an infection of a uterine leiomyoma. We describe two cases of pyomyoma that were initially considered to be tubo-ovarian abscesses but were later diagnosed as pyomyomas and managed with laparoscopic surgery. Case 1 was a 26-year-old nulliparous woman who was previously diagnosed with bilateral endometriomas and presented to the hospital with lower abdominal pain. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed bilateral endometrial cysts and a 4-cm mass consistent with a tubo-ovarian abscess. The patient experienced continuous pain, and the cyst in the left adnexa enlarged; thus, laparoscopic surgery was performed. The cystic tumor in her uterus contained purulent fluid. Therefore, an abscess in the degenerative subserous myoma was diagnosed. Case 2 was a 47-year-old nulliparous woman who had undergone total mastectomy and postoperative radiotherapy for breast cancer. She was undergoing hormone therapy when she presented to the hospital with lower abdominal pain, fever, and increased inflammatory markers. Computed tomography revealed a 7-cm tumor with rim enhancement in her left adnexa; therefore, a tubo-ovarian abscess was suspected. After admission, drainage was performed under transvaginal ultrasound guidance, and antibiotics were administered. However, these treatments did not relieve her abdominal pain. Emergency laparoscopic surgery was performed, and intraoperative findings demonstrated an abscess in the degenerative subserous myoma of the uterus with normal adnexa. Laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingectomy were performed. Laparoscopic surgery was effective for both patients. Delayed diagnosis of pyomyoma can result in serious complications. Timely surgery with concomitant antibiotic treatment may facilitate good outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0339_171", "title": "[Perforated diverticular disease of the left colon. Proposed single-stage left colectomy protected by a three-way lavage and active aspiration tube (di Gullino) positioned inside or below the anastomosis. Experience in 65 cases].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The incidence of perforative diverticulitis of the left colon is steadily increasing. Today the decision is generally taken to perform two-stage surgery: segmentary resection without (Hartmann's operation) or with anastomosis, but protected by a colostomy (\"limited intervention\"). This study aimed to examine standard colectomy performed in a single operation (\"ideal intervention\"). Left colectomy with primary ligature of the lower mesenteric artery and vein at the source and outlet, en bloc removal of the colon-mesocolon and immediate transverse colorectal anastomosis. Anastomosis protected by the omentum which is also used to peritonise the retroperitoneum and to wrap around the anastomosis, and anastomosis also protected by the author's three-way lavage and active aspiration tube in either a trans- or subanastomosis and transanal position. Urgency is essential for this single-stage operation, together with massive dose antibiotic treatment limited to the pre- and postoperative stages, but above all peritoneal cleansing using accurate, methodical, repeated and abundant lavage with 8-10-20 or more litres, but only used 500 ml at a time. Of these 65 cases, 40 (62%) were purulent localised peritonitis and 25 (38%) were generalised (14 purulent, 4 fecaloid and 7 fecal). 8 cases (12.3%) underwent surgery in three stages and 16 (24.6%) underwent sigmoidectomy in one or two stages (\"limited intervention\"), 41 cases (63%) (1985-95, when Gullino's three-way tube became available) underwent standard colectomy in a single stage. Morbidity in 10 cases/65 (15%) and septic mortality in 5 cases/65 (7.7%) (limited to generalised peritonitis alone) only affected patients undergoing \"limited interventions\", but none of the 41 patients undergoing \"ideal intervention\". Mortality was significantly influenced by age: 50% of over 80 year-olds, none below 60. Postoperative hospitalisation was 17.1 days (in the first stage) of \"limited interventions\" and 9.7 days for \"ideal interventions\". The results argue clearly in favour of the \"courageous\" ideal colectomy with peritoneal lavage and protection of the colorectal anastomosis using Gullino's three-way tube." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0873_7891", "title": "Psoas muscle abscess simulating acute appendicits: A case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Psoas abscess is a rare clinical entity with vague symptomatology. We report a psoas abscess that simulated symptoms of acute appendicitis. A twenty-five year old male presented pain irradiating to the right iliac fossa and lumbar region associated with thigh flexion. Laboratorial exams revealed leukocytosis with a neutrophil shift to the left. Abdominal Ultrasound showed significant intestinal distension and a small quantity of free fluid at the right iliac fossa. Laparotomy and an appendectomy were performed. During immediate post-operative, the patient evolved with worsening of the pain and the leukocytosis, therefore, we chose to maintain his antalgic posture. An abdominal Computerized Tomography scan with contrast was solicited, revealing an increase of the iliac and psoas muscles of the right side, and multiple bacterial focuses. A retroperitoneal access was performed and 300ml of purulent secretion was drained. Afterwards, we implanted a Penrose Drain. The patient had a good post-op evolution, being discharged 7days after the drainage. The psoas muscle is a flexor of the thigh. Psoas abscess is an underdiagnosed condition, its main treatment is surgery associated with antibiotic therapy. CT scan seems to be the best choice of diagnostic image exam, although some authors prefer the nuclear magnetic resonance. The psoas muscle abscess is uncommon and poorly characterized in its etiology, clinical associations, and its therapeutic approach. On the other hand, acute appendicitis is the most common abdominal emergency, with a 7% death rate, and surgery is its main treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0630_24252", "title": "[Surgical treatment of acute diverticulitis. Our experience].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The treatment of the acute diverticulitis is still a stimulating and complex problem sustained by several anatomopathological and clinical factors and the possibility of different therapeutic options, being the operative mortality among 5% and 45%. With the modern technologies it is possible to follow the evolution of the illness so to perform more appropriate therapeutic plan. From 1997 to 2007 we have observed 278 patients with acute diverticulitis. In 219 (78,7%) patients the inflammatory and sub-occlusive condition has been faced with medical therapy, with resolution of the disease in 170 (61%) cases. In 49 (17,6%) patients we have gotten the resolution of the inflammatory disease, but not of the sub-occlusion and therefore we liked to submit them to surgical treatment in election. In 1 case we have found a colovesical fistula. A total of 59 (21,2%) patients with signs of acute abdomen have been submitted to surgery in urgency, within the 24 hours from the hospitalization. We have performed a primary resection with anastomosis and without stoma in all the patients, except in 3 cases in which we have done the Hartmann procedure for the cheap general conditions. We have not recorded intra and postoperative mortality and only in 3 cases we have had a leakage, that has not needed a surgical treatment. In 9 cases we observed infection of the wound, treated with antibiotic therapy. In our experience, performing a surgical procedure, without derivative stoma and manual anastomosis, it seems to be the fittest and less expensive procedure, also in situation of emergency-urgency, without increase of mortality and morbidity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0373_8963", "title": "Intraperitoneal abscess after an undetected spilled stone.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Gallbladder perforation with loss of calculi in the abdomen is frequent during laparoscopic cholecystectomy and can cause serious late complications. We report on a 65-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy for gallbladder empyema, during which a stone spilled into the peritoneal cavity. The spilled gallstone was not noticed during the initial operation. Three months later, she reported left upper quadrant pain of recent onset without associated symptoms such as fever, nausea, or weight loss. On examination, a palpable 2-cm tender subcutaneous mass was found. Abdominal ultrasound demonstrated an incarcerated hernia, and computed tomography (CT) scan showed an intraperitoneal abscess located in the back of the anterior abdominal wall in the left upper quadrant, which contained a recalcification figure. The patient was brought to surgery, at which time an incision was made over the mass. A chronic abscess in the back of the abdominal wall, also spreading into the subfascial space, was drained, and purulent material was obtained with a large stone, 2.8 cm in diameter, which had become lodged in the rectus abdominis after an undetected stone spillage during laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The patient continued receiving antibiotic treatment for 7 days, recovered well, and was discharged 7 days after drainage of the abscess." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_13398", "title": "[The value of peroperative colonic lavage in urgent colonic surgery. Apropos of 54 patients].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The effects of on-table colonic irrigation followed by primary large bowel resection and anastomosis for emergency left colonic disease were prospectively studied in 54 patients. Eighteen patients had a diverticular sigmoiditis complicated by localized (8) or generalized (4) peritonitis, 6 presented a complete sigmoid obstruction. Thirty six patients had a left colonic occlusive (33) or perforated (3) cancer. Anterograde colonic irrigation was carried out with a mean volume of 7.7 l. All patients received a double or triple antibiotic combination. The anastomosis was handsewn in 33 cases and stapled (Knight-Griffen) in 21. Seven patients with severe peritonitis had a proximal transitory stoma which was closed within 4 months. Two patients (3.7%) died postoperatively, one for anastomotic dehiscence and the second for evisceration. We observed 7 cases of hypothermia (&lt; 34 degrees C) during the irrigation. Six patients developed a sepsis of the surgical wound, 2 a septicemia and l an abscess in the right iliac fossa which was percutaneously drained. All complications had a favourable outcome. This study confirms that in selected cases a single stage surgery for colonic emergencies preceded by on-table irrigation grants good results and is a safe and effective alternative to Hartmann's procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_9237", "title": "Sister Mary Joseph's nodule as a presenting sign of internal malignancy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "CASE 1: A 64-year-old, otherwise healthy woman was referred to the surgery clinic for a presumed umbilical hernia. On physical examination, a cutaneous nodule was noted on the umbilical region and the patient was referred to the dermatology clinic. The patient was reexamined and an erythematous nodule was observed in the umbilicus measuring 2.5 cm in diameter. The patient denied pain, change in bowel habits, or weight loss. There were no other abdominal masses, no sign of ascites, and no regional lymphadenopathy. A skin biopsy from the nodule showed mucinous adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining was positive for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negative for cytokeratin (CK)7 and CK20. These results were consistent with a Sister Mary Joseph's nodule and led to the diagnosis of an occult colon carcinoma. The patient had no risk factors for colorectal carcinoma. The patient underwent surgery in another hospital, and died 3 months after the initial diagnosis of Sister Mary Joseph's nodule. CASE 2: A 73-year-old woman was referred to the dermatology clinic for evaluation of a painful, ulcerated, 3-cm lesion in the umbilicus (Figure 1). She was otherwise asymptomatic. A skin biopsy showed neoplastic glandular cells infiltrating among collagen bundles (Figure 2). Stainings for mucin and for CK7 were positive, while staining for CK20 was negative. An abdominopelvic CT scan demonstrated a 3.5-cm space-occupying lesion in the liver. Results of gastroscopy, colonoscopy, chest computed tomographic (CT) scan, and mammography were normal. Serum levels of the tumor-associated protein CA125 were elevated to 164 units, while those of CA 19-9 and carcinoembryonic antigen were within normal range. A gynecologic examination and a transvaginal ultrasound were normal. The patient had no personal or family history of any malignancy or any risk factors for developing a carcinoma. The patient was scheduled for a palliative resection of the umbilical nodule, combined with a laparoscopic inspection in search of the undetected primary tumor. She refused surgery and was lost to follow-up. She died 4 months after the initial diagnosis of umbilical metastasis. CASE 3: A 51-year-old man was aware of a silent mass in his umbilicus for 2 years without seeking medical advice. Following 2 weeks of increasing pain in this area, he was referred to the emergency room for a suspected incarcerated umbilical hernia. Surgery revealed a mass attached to the fascia and peritoneal fat. The mass was removed and diagnosed as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, staining positively for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negatively for CK20, CK7, prostate-specific antigen, and prostatic acid phosphatase. Both gastroscopy and colonoscopy failed to detect the primary tumor. An abdominopelvic CT scan was normal, but a CT scan of the chest disclosed a nodule measuring 2.5 x 1.5 cm in the lower lobe of the right lung. On bronchoscopy, it was found to be an invasive adenocarcinoma, consistent with a primary tumor of the lung. The patient was a heavy smoker (45 pack-years). The patient received 4 cycles of combined chemotherapy with carboplatine and gemcitabine, with no improvement. A month later, the patient complained of abdominal pain. Following demonstration of intra-abdominal spread of disease by CT scan, a second line chemotherapy was instituted with paclitaxel. A month later the patient's condition deteriorated and he complained of cough, sweating, and pain along the right leg. A bone scan revealed bone metastases in the right femur and left tibia. Two weeks later he was admitted to the hospital with intestinal obstruction and underwent laparotomy. He had massive intra-abdominal spread of cancer and ascites. Only a palliative colostomy was performed. The patient died 3 weeks later, 9 months after the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the lung. The clinical data on the three patients are summarized in Table I." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0603_6433", "title": "Emergency laparoscopic surgery for complicated diverticular disease.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The aim of this study was to analyse the outcome of emergency laparoscopic surgical management of complicated diverticular disease. A prospectively collected electronic database of all colorectal laparoscopic procedures between April 2001 and September 2007 has been used to identify outcomes in patients presenting with complicated diverticular disease. Sixty-six patients (28 men), median age 69 years (23-95), ASA grade II (12), III (38), IV (16) have undergone emergency surgery for complicated diverticulitis--Hinchey grades I (27), II (29), III (7) and diverticular bleeding (3) over a 6(1/2)-year period: 43 high anterior resections, 17 Hartmann's resections and seven low anterior resections. Diverticular fistulas were seen in 16 patients: colovaginal (7), colovesical (2), colo-fallopian (4), entero-colic (3). The median operation time was 110 min (45-195 min). There was one conversion to open surgery. Postoperative analgesia was provided by intravenous Paracetamol in 33 patients (50%), patient-controlled analgesia in 24 (36%), oral Paracetamol and Oramorph (12%) and epidural opioid infusion (1.5%). The median time to normal diet was 24 h (4 h-6 days) and median hospital stay 5 days (2-30). There were two deaths (3.3%); anastomotic leak, ventricular fibrillation (VF) cardiac arrest. Other complications included: wound infection eight (12%), anastomotic leak four (8%), port-site hernia one and one case of Clostridium difficile colitis requiring colectomy. There were five (7.5%) returns to theatre and two readmissions (3%). Laparoscopic resectional surgery in complicated diverticular disease is a feasible, safe and a largely predictable operation that allows for early hospital discharge and, in our opinion, improved patient care. We are encouraged to continue to offer our patients the option of an emergency laparoscopic resection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0592_21971", "title": "[Management of complications of sigmoid diverticulosis].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Computed tomography (CT) with contrast enhancement for vascular and bowel opacification is the reference examination for suspected sigmoid diverticulitis because it makes it possible to confirm the diagnosis and look for signs of severity (pericolic abscess, or presence of air or extraintestinal contrast product). Therapeutic management depends on the patient's general condition and on the severity of the intraperitoneal infection, assessed according to Hinchey's 4-stage classification. For Hinchey stages I and II (pericolic or pelvic abscess), radiologically guided puncture-drainage is an effective treatment, combined with antibiotic therapy. Emergency surgery is only indicated if this drainage fails. Two to three months later, elective prophylactic sigmoidectomy, by laparoscopy, is indicated. In stage III or IV diverticulitis (generalized purulent or fecal peritonitis), the surgical treatment of reference is a Hartmann procedure (sigmoidectomy and left iliac colostomy with closure of the rectal stump). But because of burden of the procedure and the risk of failing to re-establish gastrointestinal continuity, it is preferable, if local conditions allow, to propose resection-anastomosis with a temporary protective stoma. Prophylactic sigmoidectomy is controversial. It is indicated regardless of the number of episodes and regardless of age in patients at high risk of recurrence, that is, those with a complicated clinical form or radiologic signs of severity. There is no consensus for patients aged younger than 75 years with a first uncomplicated episode, for whom the risk of recurrence is also elevated. Finally, for patients older than 50 years with an uncomplicated episode on CT, the role of prophylactic surgery, even after 2 or 3 episodes, has not been demonstrated, because of the very low risk (&lt;5%) of subsequent complications. More than 80% of diverticular hemorrhages stop spontaneously but their rate of recurrence is high (25% of cases) and they sometimes require emergency colectomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_16371", "title": "Hot Topics in Surgical Management of Acute Diverticulitiss.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In this session different issues for the surgical management of diverticular disease DD) were considered. The first session debated about the antibiotic treatment for acute uncomplicated diverticulitis (AUD), and supports their use selectively rather than routinely in patients with AUD. The second session discussed the best surgical treatment for those patients. Open approach is a valid choice especially in acute setting, while the laparoscopic approach should be individualised according to the level of skills of the surgeon and the risk factors of the patient (such as obesity and state of health at the time of the operation). The third session debated about the peritoneal lavage and drainage, which is still a safe surgical procedure. However, it requires longer follow-up and results of other trials to draw an adequate conclusion. The last session covers the current surgical certainties in managing complicated DD: 1. urgent colectomy has higher mortality in immune-compromised patients, while in elective surgery is comparable with other populations; 2. laparoscopic peritoneal lavage (LPL) should be the choice in young/fit patients; 3. elective resection is safer in an inflammation free interval; 4. laparoscopic resection shows advantages in several outcomes (such as post-operative morbidity and lower stoma and re-operation rate); 5. in Hinchey III/fecal peritonitis, primary sigmoid resection and anastomosis (open or laparoscopic) could be proposed in young/ fit patient; 6. in case of emergency surgery, Hartmann procedure (open or laparoscopic) must be considered in critically ill/unstable patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_21937", "title": "Percutaneous postoperative intra-abdominal abscess drainage after elective colorectal surgery.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Intra-abdominal abscesses are a frequent source of morbidity and mortality following both elective and emergent surgery of the alimentary tract. CT-guided percutaneous drainage of intra-abdominal abscess is an alternative to immediate surgical intervention. We studied the clinical characteristics and outcomes of patients undergoing percutaneous drainage of intra-abdominal abscesses arising after elective colorectal procedures. We retrospectively identified 40 patients with postoperative intraabdominal abscess following elective colorectal surgery who underwent CT-guided percutaneous drainage with a Von Sonnenberg sump drain between 1990 and 1998. The most common presenting symptoms were pyrexia in 39 (97%), abdominal tenderness in 32 (80%), guarding in 1 (2.5%) and abdominal mass in 3 (7.5%); no patient had generalized peritonitis. The most common index procedure was proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis and ileal Jpouch in 12 (30%) patients. Drainage was performed using an anterior approach in 32 (80%) and a transgluteal window in 8 (20%) patients. Thirty-five (87.5%) patients had a single collection, while 2 (5.0%) patients had 2 collections and 3 (7.5%) patients had 3 collections. Thirteen (32.5%) patients had perioperative steroids, 30 (75%) had preoperative antibiotics, and 40 (100%) had postoperative antibiotics. Follow-up at a mean of 35.8 days revealed complete resolution of abscess in 26 (65%) patients; 14 (35%) patients had residual or recurrent abscess successfully treated by repeat drainage in 8 patients and requiring laparotomy in 6. Percutaneous CT-guided abscess drainage is an effective method for treating intra-abdominal abscess following elective colorectal surgery. The primary success was 65% after the first and 85% after a second drainage. In conclusion, this technique should be considered as the treatment of choice in patients with localized intra-abdominal abscess without signs of generalized peritonitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0090_14341", "title": "[Surgical tactics in complicated sigmoid diverticulitis].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Between January 1972 and February 1988 139 admissions (136 patients) for diverticulitis were registered. Treatment remained conservative in 47 cases. 23 cases underwent elective surgery. In 69 patients emergency-laparotomy had to be done. In 41 cases (3 deaths) the abdomen was washed out and drained, followed by a proximal colostomy. In 23 of these patients a free perforation had to be oversewn. 6 patients were treated by Hartmann resection (1 death). Primary resection, anastomosis and proximal colostomy were performed in 15 cases. 3 patients underwent exterritorization and resection. 4 patients with colonic ileus were initially treated by colostomy alone. There were 2 late deaths both from pulmonary embolism. Of the 63 patients who had a colostomy constructed 4 (6.3%) never had the stoma closed. There were 2 persistent stomas in the 41 patients who had a preliminary colostomy alone (4.9%) and the incidence of persistent stoma in 5 patients who had a Hartmann resection was 40% (2 cases). -The three-stage resection makes good results, provided that a free perforation is solidly oversewn to prevent further fecal contamination. Primary resection with anastomosis and proximal colostomy, which is more and more used in suitable cases, considerably shortens duration of treatment. Hartmann resection remains second choice because of the known high incidence of persistent stoma. It is submitted to surgeon's experience to choose at any situation the best procedure regarding age and general state, local findings and extent of peritonitis. With this tactic hospital lethality of emergency operation was 4 of 69 patients (5.8%), overall lethality 6 (8.7%). Intestinal continuity was restored in 94% of surviving patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0791_17413", "title": "[Two cases of curative resection by laparoscopic surgery following preoperative chemotherapy with bevacizumab for locally advanced colon cancer].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Here we report 2 cases of curative resection following preoperative chemotherapy with bevacizumab for locally advanced colon cancer. Case 1 was a 62-year-old man admitted with constipation, abdominal distention, and abdominal pain. An abdominal computed tomography(CT)scan revealed an obstructive tumor of the sigmoid colon with invasion into the bladder. A diverting colostomy was performed, and chemotherapy with mFOLFOX6(infusional 5-fluorouracil/Leucovorin+ oxaliplatin) plus bevacizumab was initiated. The tumor shrunk markedly after 6 courses of this treatment. Thereafter, laparoscopy- assisted sigmoidectomy was successfully performed. Case 2 was a 61-year-old woman admitted with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. An abdominal CT scan revealed an obstructive tumor of the sigmoid colon with invasion into the ileum, uterus and retroperitoneum. A diverting colostomy was performed, and chemotherapy with XELOX(capecitabine+ oxaliplatin)plus bevacizumab was initiated. The tumor shrunk markedly after 6 courses of this treatment. Thereafter, laparoscopy- assisted sigmoidectomy was successfully performed. Both cases demonstrated partial clinical responses to chemotherapy; thus, curative resection surgeries were performed. There were no perioperative complications. Therefore, we conclude that oxaliplatin-based chemotherapy plus bevacizumab and laparoscopic resection could be very effective for locally advanced colon cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0106_16251", "title": "Surgical options in acute diverticulitis: value of sigmoid resection in dealing with the septic focus.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The outcome of 78 patients hospitalized with acute diverticulitis was analysed to determine the indications for emergency operation and to examine the safety of sigmoid resection. Forty patients improved on medical therapy, but four relapsed soon after discharge. Forty-two (55%) patients had emergency operations for non-resolution of clinical sepsis (25), persistent symptoms or mass (14) and fistula (three). Operations performed were: sigmoid resection and primary anastomosis (23) with covering colostomy (six). Hartmann's operation (10), drainage with/without colostomy (seven) and right hemicolectomy (two). Findings at operation were: abscess (19), phlegmon (14), generalized peritonitis (six), colovesical fistula (three) and chronic diverticulitis (three). Complications included wound infections (six), respiratory complications (five) and one death. Six patients having drainage of the sigmoid inflammation alone as the first operation required subsequent resection, with prolonged and often complicated hospitalization. Minimal morbidity and shorter hospitalization were achieved when sigmoid resection was performed at the initial procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1140_11183", "title": "Pancreatic Leak After a Laparoscopic Sleeve Gastrectomy.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Severe adhesions in patients with previous abdominal operations may lead to a more challenging subsequent bariatric surgery [1, 2]. In this context, sleeve gastrectomy (SG) is the preferred weight loss surgery since it solely involves stomach resection (without bowel involvement) in one abdominal compartment. Additionally, SG has lower complication rates and a shorter operative time than other bariatric procedures [3, 4]. In this paper, we present a multimedia video of the management of a pancreatic leak after SG in a patient with multiple previous abdominal surgeries. A 40-year-old female with a BMI of 36 kg/m<sup2</sup and obesity-related comorbidities presented to our clinic for bariatric surgery evaluation. The patient had a history of a motor vehicle accident requiring a splenectomy, a liver laceration requiring packing and reoperation with an open abdomen for more than a month. This was followed by a hernia repair with component separation. Preoperative workup was completed, including an upper endoscopy (EGD) that was negative for esophagitis. The computed tomography (CT) scan showed an area in the left upper quadrant with no bowel loops adherent to the abdominal wall, thus a safer area for accessing the abdominal cavity (Fig. 1). The SG itself was challenging due to severe adhesions. These adhesions were between the bowel and abdominal wall, bowel and bowel, stomach and liver, and posterior stomach and pancreas (video). Once adhesiolysis was completed, the stomach was tailored successfully without intraoperative complications. The patient was discharged on postoperative day 1 with stable vitals and laboratory exams while tolerating a liquid diet. On postoperative day 2, the patient returned to the emergency department with abdominal pain, increased heart rate (120 per minute), and a white blood cell count (WBC) of 20,000 th/µL. The CT scan showed a left upper quadrant collection with no evidence of air or contrast extravasation from the sleeve, as shown in Fig. 2. The patient became unstable and did not respond adequately to resuscitation efforts. Due to the extensive dissection in the primary operation, we elected to perform a laparoscopic exploration on an urgent basis. A collection (dark fluid) was noted in the left upper quadrant, but no sleeve staple line leak was found even with the air leak test (Fig. 2). Drainage and wash out were completed, and 2 abdominal drains were placed. Although the patient had symptomatic improvement postoperatively, an EGD with fluoroscopy was repeated, and no leak was noted (Fig. 3). The fluid evaluation showed increased lipase suggesting the diagnosis of a pancreatic leak. A liquid diet was initiated, and the initial drain in the left upper quadrant was exchanged to a higher caliber one (16F 40 cm locking loop drain). The patient was stable and eventually discharged home on postoperative day 6. Eventually, the drains were draining less than 10 mL and then downsized and removed. The patient's weight loss journey continued afterward with no other complications at 10-month follow-up. Pancreatic leak is a rare but potentially severe complication after SG, especially in the difficult abdomen." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0776_12137", "title": "Minimally invasive and surgical management strategies tailored to the severity of acute diverticulitis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The severity of acute diverticulitis ranges from mild, simple inflammation to pericolic abscesses, or perforation with faeculent peritonitis. Treatment of diverticulitis has evolved towards more conservative and minimally invasive strategies. The aim of this review is to highlight recent concepts and advances in management. A literature review was performed on the electronic databases MEDLINE from PubMed, Embase and the Cochrane Library for publications in English. The keywords 'diverticulitis', 'diverticular' were searched for the past decade (to September 2013). Diverticulitis occurs frequently in the Western world, but only one in five patients develops complications (such as abscess and perforation) during the first acute presentation. The reported perforation rate is 3.5 per 100,000 population. Based on recent data, including the AVOD and DIVER trials, antibiotic therapy for mild episodes may be unnecessary and outpatient management reasonable in most patients. Antibiotics and admission to hospital is required for complicated diverticulitis confirmed on imaging and for patients with sepsis. Diverticular abscesses (about 5 per cent of patients) may require percutaneous drainage if antibiotics alone fail. Laparoscopic management of non-faecal perforated diverticulitis is feasible in selected patients, and peritoneal lavage in combination with antibiotic therapy may avoid colonic resection and a stoma. However, the collective, published worldwide experience is limited to fewer than 800 patients, and results from ongoing randomized trials (LapLAND, SCANDIV, DILALA and LADIES trials) are needed to inform better decision-making. The treatment of diverticulitis continues to evolve with a trend towards a more conservative and minimally invasive management approach. Judicious use of antibiotics in uncomplicated cases, greater application of laparoscopic techniques, and primary resection and anastomosis are of benefit in selected patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1003_17066", "title": "Hybrid transvaginal natural orifice transluminal endoscopic surgery of radical sigmoidectomy for sigmoid colon cancer.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Transvaginal natural orifice transluminal endoscopic surgery (NOTES) is a surgical technique - \"scarless\" abdominal operations performed with a multi-channel endoscope passed through a natural orifice (mouth, urethra, anus, vagina etc.) and offers less invasive and more excellent cosmetic results [1]. It is regarded as safe and feasible in patients with benign disease [2,3]. The first case of pure NOTES for sigmoid colon cancer was reported in 2012 [4]. We describe here a case of curatively intended resection for early-stage sigmoid colon cancer using the hybrid transvaginal NOTES approach. This video demonstrates the case of a 52-year-old woman with sigmoid colon cancer treated by hybrid transvaginal NOTES. Her body mass index was 20.4 kg/m<sup2</sup. A laparoscope was inserted above the umbilicus and tumor's position was located. Two 5 mm trocars inserted in the right lower abdominal quadrant were mainly used for the assistant's instruments to provide traction and exposure. A single-port was inserted into the abdominal cavity transvaginally through the colpotomy. Then all the procedures were performed transvaginally with conventional rigid laparoscopic instruments. The sigmoid colon was mobilized using a lateral to medial approach. Then the root of the inferior mesenteric artery and the inferior mesenteric vein were divided with absorbable clips. After complete isolation of the proximal rectum, the rectum was transected 5 cm distal to the lesion with a linear stapler inserted through the single port. The proximal resection margin of descending colon was identified and the transection of the colon was performed. The specimen was removed transvaginally. The colon was then exteriorized and the anvil was fixed in the colon. An end-to-end anastomosis was performed using a circular stapler, and a leak test was done. The operative time and estimated blood loss were 182 min and 50 mL. A 20 cm long segment of sigmoid colon was resected with negative tumor margins, and 16 lymph nodes were harvested. There was no intraoperative or postoperative morbidity. The patient was with out-of-bed activity on day 1, fluid diet on day 2, bowel movement on day3, and the drainage tube and catheter removing on day 4. On day 5, she was discharged. Pathological examination revealed a moderately-differentiated adenocarcinoma: 50 × 45 × 10 mm, with growing into subserosa, without vascular or nervous invasion, pT3N0M0 and pStage IIA. There were two scars less than 5 mm and one scar less than 10 mm visible on the abdominal wall at one month. The patient was alive without recurrence after one year's follow-up. Hybrid transvaginal NOTES of radical sigmoidectomy may be safe and feasible for selected patients with sigmoid colon cancer and give less pain, potentially low rates of complication, faster recovery, and better cosmesis. A future large study is warranted to better evaluate this procedure. Although there are many reasons for skepticism, there is undoubted interest in this field from both surgeon and patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_2333", "title": "Outpatient treatment in uncomplicated acute diverticulitis: 5-year experience.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Most cases of diverticular inflammation are mild and require only medical treatment with liquid diet and antibiotics. Until recently, this treatment required admission to hospitals, which consequently entailed costs. In most cases, treatment was conservative, and less than a quarter of patients admitted actually underwent surgery. In the last year, the outpatient treatment of these patients with uncomplicated diverticulitis has proven effective and safe. The aim of the present study was to describe our experience after 5 years of outpatient treatment with oral antibiotics. We conducted a retrospective revision study between January 2010 and December 2014. We included all patients admitted to the Emergency Department of the University General Hospital of Elche with a diagnosis of uncomplicated acute diverticulitis based on medical history, physical examination and abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) scanning. Outpatient treatment consisted of oral antibiotics for 10 days (metronidazole 500 mg/8 h and ciprofloxacin 500 mg/12 h), a liquid diet and oral analgesics (acetaminophen 1 g/6 h). During the period from January 2010 to December 2014, 224 patients were treated on an outpatient basis at a success rate of over 92%. Only 18 patients (8%) required admission after outpatient treatment. Outpatient treatment of uncomplicated acute diverticulitis was demonstrated to be safe and effective." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0980_23771", "title": "Crohn's Disease Complicated With Extensive Thrombosis of Limbs and Mesenteric Arteries: A Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Crohn's disease (CD) is a lifelong disease characterized by purulent inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract from any part of the mouth to the anus. Various studies have reported complications of the CD. However, arterial thrombosis is an extremely rare complication of CD. We report a patient with CD with extensive thrombosis of the extremities and mesenteric arteries. A 41-year-old man came to our hospital for 2 months of discomfort in the right upper abdomen and had previous left lower extremity arterial occlusive disease and left upper limb ischemic contraction for more than 2 months. The patient developed fever and abdominal pain repeatedly after admission; because of the increased abdominal pain, we urgently performed a laparotomy for him. And according to the findings in the surgery, we decided to perform partial small intestine resection, cholecystectomy, common bile duct exploration, and T-tube drainage. Pathological findings of postoperative specimens showed Crohn's disease and mesenteric atherosclerosis with mesenteric artery thrombosis. We performed a series of treatments such as 5-aminosalicylic acid, intravenous infusion, broad-spectrum antibiotic infection treatment, nutritional support, and low molecular weight heparin. The patient was successfully discharged from the hospital. The occurrence of IBD with arterial thromboembolism is extremely rare but can lead to serious consequences. During IBD treatment, we should be aware of the possibility of TEs (especially arterial TEs) and should be alert to the possibility of arterial TEs in young patients with IBD with active and extensive disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_5185", "title": "Urgent surgery for sigmoid diverticulitis. Retrospective study of 118 patients.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Aim of our study was to identij5 the risk factors for operative morbility and mortality after urgent surgery for complicated sigmoid diverticulitis. A further end point was define the adequate surgical approach in these patients. Data fJom 118 patients who were admitted for emergency surgery between 2000 and 2009 for non-haemorrhagic complicated diverticulitis of the sigmoid colon were retrospectively evaluated and analysed. Operative options included resection with primary anastomoses (PA), Hartmann's procedure (HP) and colostomy. All operative complications were noted and potential risk factors listed. One hundred eighteen patients were enrolled in this study. Surgery for peritonitis was indicated for 102 patients and for intestinal obstruction in the remainder. Overall morbidity and mortality rates were 37.3% and 9.3%, respectively. Primary resection was performed on 113 patients (95.8%). Age greater than 70 years, diffuse peritonitis, Mannheim Peritonitis Index (MPI) above 18, and symptoms lasting longer than 24 hours are considered as independent risk factors for operative morbidity and mortality. Our results confirmed that while age older than 70 years and delaying treatment (&gt;24h) are independent risk factors for operative morbidity and mortality, comorbidity is not. According to general guidelines, first target of surgery was to attempt a primary resection of the diseased colon (95.8% of our patients). In our series an high rate of Hartmann procedure (HP) in Hinchey's class 2 patients was observed. This unusually high number is explained by the rate (68.4%) of pelviperitonitis diagnosed in these patients. Extended pelvic peritonitis is generally defined as a local peritonitis (class 2 Hinchey), which is not accurate. Colonic resection in these cases would not completely remove peritoneal contamination and renders the indication for PA questionable. Emergency surgery for complicated diverticulitis is characterised by high rates of morbidity and mortality. Age greater than 70 years, symptoms lasting longer than 24 hours, MPI above 18, and diffuse peritonitis were significant predictors. Early eradication of septic focus is the main goal of surgery. Primary anastomosis is recommended only if sepsis is completely removed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1138_25791", "title": "Post-colostomy internal hernia of the stomach treated with laparoscopic gastropexy: a case report.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Internal hernias are formed by the protrusion of internal organs through an aperture formed congenitally or postoperatively. Internal hernias are most commonly associated with the small intestine. Only two cases of a post-sigmoid colostomy internal hernia of the stomach have been reported. This hernia arises from the space between the lifted sigmoid colon and the left abdominal wall. In the two aforementioned cases, treatment comprised suturing of the sigmoid colon to the lateral abdominal wall and changing of the intraperitoneal route to an extraperitoneal one. Herein, we present a very rare case who underwent laparoscopic gastropexy for a post-sigmoid colostomy internal hernia of the stomach. Our patient, a 67-year-old woman, was undergoing chemoradiation for rectal cancer and planned to undergo abdominoperineal resection. However, tumor perforation resulted in a high fever and a right gluteal abscess; therefore, a sigmoid colostomy was performed through the intraperitoneal route in the left lower abdomen. One month after the surgery, the patient presented to our emergency room with vomiting, abdominal pain, and abdominal distension. Computed tomography revealed a markedly distended stomach caused by the obstruction of the pylorus secondary to the colostomy; laparoscopic gastropexy was performed subsequently and the postoperative course was uneventful. This is the first report on the laparoscopic gastropexy treatment of a post-sigmoid colostomy internal hernia of the stomach; our findings may help physicians manage such hernias." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0380_13865", "title": "Surgery for Crohn's disease in Greece: a follow-up study of 79 cases.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The aim of this prospective study was to elucidate the clinical features, indications for surgery and long-term outcome of a series of 79 Greek patients operated on for Crohn's disease. The clinical features and follow-up of 79 out of 155 patients with definite diagnosis of Crohn's disease (51%), who were operated on at least once during the course of their disease, are analyzed. Three main locations of the disease were identified (small bowel, large bowel and small and large bowel). The need for surgery, indications for surgery and outcome of patients were analyzed and compared separately for these three main locations. The mean follow-up period after the first operation was 8.8 +/- 6.5 years. The proportion of men to women was 1.55:1 (P = 0.068). The main indication for surgery was poor response to conservative treatment, followed by obstructive ileus, erroneous diagnosis of acute appendicitis and development of fistulae or abscesses. Statistically significant differences between the three main locations of the disease were found for obstructive ileus (P &lt; 0.01), and bowel perforation (P &lt; 0.0297). Enterectomy and end-to-end anastomosis was the most frequently performed operation. Minor surgical procedures were performed mainly for drainage of perianal abscess. Differences in the number of operations required (one, two and three or more) according to the three main locations of the disease were statistically significant (P &lt; 0.044). Emergency operation was required in 17.3%. Most of the urgently operated patients had only small bowel involvement. Twenty-six percent of patients required a surgical procedure for perianal disease. One or more, major or minor, perioperative complications occurred in 13 out of 79 operated patients (16.4%). No perioperative deaths were noticed. Evolution to cancer was observed in 2% (3 patients). The outcome of patients after the operation was characterized by exacerbations and remissions. A mortality rate of 11.6% was noticed in the follow-up period. However, most deaths were unrelated to the underlying Crohn's disease. The clinicoepidemiological characteristics of patients with Crohn's disease of Greek origin operated-on for their disease do not differ significantly from those reported from other Western or neighboring Mediterranean countries. However, other parameters such as the relatively low incidence of overall surgical need, the low incidence of colorectal cancer and the low incidence of surgery for perianal disease, all underline the importance of various genetic and environmental factors on the evolution and behavior of the disease in different parts of the world." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0803_16339", "title": "Sterile abdominal abscess resulting from remnant laparoscopic clips after sigmoidectomy: a case report and literature review.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The occurrence of intra-abdominal sterile abscesses due to remnant clips after laparoscopic sigmoidectomy is rare. Here, we report one such case in a 74-year-old woman. Two years after laparoscopic sigmoidectomy, abdominal CT indicated an area of fluid accumulation approximately 5 cm in diameter and located in the middle of the abdominal cavity that contained a cluster of clips. Fine-needle aspiration of the fluid was performed through the wall of the sigmoid colon. The luminal fluid was found not to contain cancer cells on histological examination. After 1 year, abdominal surgery was performed. The abscess was located in the mesorectum at the anastomosis site; it was incised and a significant quantity of ivory-white viscous solution containing a cluster of clips was extracted. This case emphasizes the importance of reducing the number of clips used in laparoscopic surgery. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_10347", "title": "[Summary of the practice guideline on diverticulitis in the colon: diagnostics and treatment in specialty care].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The natural course of diverticulitis is usually mild and often requires only conservative treatment. The combination of pain in the lower left abdomen on physical examination, the absence of vomiting and a CRP &gt; 50 mg/l is highly predictive of diverticulitis; further investigation by means of imaging may then be omitted. An initial ultrasound - and CT scanning only if this investigation proves negative or inconclusive - provides the best results in terms of imaging. There is no evidence substantiating the efficacy of routine antibiotic administration to patients with clinically mild and uncomplicated diverticulitis. Pericolic or pelvic abscesses can initially be treated with antibiotics, possibly in combination with percutaneous drainage; surgical intervention is only necessary if this treatment regimen fails. A patient with perforated diverticulitis resulting in peritonitis should undergo an operation; the optimal surgical strategy is currently under debate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0828_23796", "title": "Laparoscopic Double Discoid Resection With a Circular Stapler for Bowel Endometriosis.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "To demonstrate the technique of laparoscopic double discoid resection with a circular stapler for bowel endometriosis. Case report (Canadian Task Force classification III). Private hospital in Curitiba, Paraná, Brazil. A 33-year-old woman was referred to our service complaining about cyclic dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, chronic pelvic pain, and cyclic dyschezia. Transvaginal ultrasound with bowel preparation showed a 6-cm endometriotic nodule at the retrocervical area, uterosacral ligaments, posterior vaginal fornix, and anterior rectal wall, infiltrating up to the submucosa, 5 cm far from the anal verge. Under general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the dorsal decubitus position with her arms alongside her body and her lower limbs in abduction. Pneumoperitoneum was achieved using a Veres needle placed at the umbilicus. Four trocars were placed: a 10-mm trocar at the umbilicus for the zero-degree laparoscope; a 5-mm trocar at the right anterosuperior iliac spine; a 5-mm trocar in the midline between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis, approximately 8 to 10 cm inferior to the umbilical trocar; and a 5-mm trocar at the left anterosuperior iliac spine. The entire pelvis was inspected for endometriotic lesions, and all implants in the anterior compartment of the pelvis were resected. The lesions located at the ovarian fossae were completely removed. The ureters were identified bilaterally, and both para-rectal fossae were dissected. The right hypogastric nerve was released from the disease laterally. The lesion was separated from the retrocervical area, and the posterior vaginal fornix was resected (reverse technique), leaving the disease attached to the anterior surface of the rectum. The lesion was shaved off the anterior rectal wall using a harmonic scalpel. A x-shaped stitch was placed at the anterior rectal wall using 2-0 mononylon suture. A 33-mm circular stapler was placed transanally under laparoscopic control, and once it reached the area to be resected, it was opened. A gap was created between the envil and the stapler. The anterior rectal wall was placed inside this gap with the aid of the stitch at the anterior rectal wall. The stapler was fired, and a piece of the anterior rectal wall was resected. The same procedure was performed using a 29-mm circular stapler, which allowed for the complete removal of the lesion. We usually perform the second discoid resection using a 29-mm circular stapler to allow an easy progression of the stapler through the rectum beyond the first stapler line, so not to put too much pressure on it. In our experience, the first discoid resection removes most of the disease, and the second discoid resection is only needed to remove a small amount of residual disease, along with the first staple line. The procedure took 177 min, and the estimated blood loss was 100 mL. The patient started clear liquids 6 hours after the procedure, and was discharged 19 hours after that [1]. Pathological examination of the 2 strips of the anterior rectal wall revealed infiltration of the bowel wall by endometriotic tissue. She had an uneventful postoperative course, and was able to re-start sexual intercourse 50 days after surgery. Between January 2010 and January 2015, 315 women underwent laparoscopic surgery for the treatment of bowel endometriosis in our service. Among them, 16 (5.1%) were operated on by using the double discoid resection technique. Median age of the patients was 34 years, and median body mass index was 25.9 kg/m(2). Median preoperative cancer antigen-125 level was 26.5 U/mL (normal value is &lt;35 U/mL). Median size of the rectosigmoid nodule was 35 mm (range: 30-60), and median distance from the anal verge was 10.5 cm (range: 5-15 cm). Median surgical time was 160 min (range: 54-210 min). Concomitant procedures included hysterectyomy (n = 5), partial cystectomy (n = 3), resection of the posterior vaginal fornix (n = 4), and appendectomy (n = 1). Median estimated intraoperative bleeding was 32.5 mL (range: 30-100), and median time of hospitalization was 19 hours (range: 10-41). Median American Fertility Society score was 46 (10-102). Two minor complications (12.5%) occurred in this initial series: 1 patient required bladder catheterization for urinary retention; and 1 patient developed a urinary tract infection that required oral antibiotic treatment. One major complication (6.2%) was observed; the patient developed fever and abdominal pain on the fourth postoperative day. She was re-operated, and the intraoperative diagnosis was pelviperitonitis. The abdominal cavity was inspected for any dehiscence of the bowel and then washed. She was discharged on the second day after re-operation with oral antibiotic therapy. In our daily practice, we are used to discharging our patients soon in the postoperative setting (19 hours for rectal shaving or discoid resection and 28 hours for segmental bowel resection) [1] because the rate of postoperative fistula seems to be low [2]. Because we still have not seen any fistulas after conservative surgery (rectal shaving, discoid resection, and double discoid resection), we usually prefer to perform this type of surgery compared with segmental bowel resection, when possible. Laparoscopic double discoid resection with circular stapler may be an alternative to segmental bowel resection in selected patients with bowel endometriosis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 133, 268 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 42 ] ], "text": "An iron profile, thyroid hormone and vitamin determinations should be performed to rule out other diseases with similar symptomatology." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 269, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 70 ] ], "text": "Treatment is symptomatic and is instituted when it interferes with sleep or quality of life, and the first choice treatment is dopamine agonists such as pramipexole and ropirinol." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 132 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "The diagnosis is based on clinical criteria, so muscle biopsy is only performed to rule out other diseases, not to confirm this one." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 269, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 70 ] ], "text": "Treatment is symptomatic and is instituted when it interferes with sleep or quality of life, and the first choice treatment is dopamine agonists such as pramipexole and ropirinol." } }

{ "1": "The diagnosis of this affectation is based on clinical criteria.", "2": "A basic blood test including iron profile, thyroid hormones and B 12 and folic acid should be performed.", "3": "The treatment would be indicated in patients who present alteration of sleep or quality of life but does not alter the course of the disease.", "4": "The diagnosis is confirmed by muscle biopsy.", "5": "Pramipexole and ropirinol are used in the treatment." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en012_17921", "title": "Restless legs syndrome", "score": 0.018779756656674307, "content": "Diagnosis There are no specific tests for RLS, but non-specific laboratory tests are used to rule out other causes such as vitamin deficiencies. Five symptoms are used to confirm the diagnosis: A strong urge to move the limbs, usually associated with unpleasant or uncomfortable sensations. It starts or worsens during inactivity or rest. It improves or disappears (at least temporarily) with activity. It worsens in the evening or night. These symptoms are not caused by any medical or behavioral condition. These symptoms are not essential, like the ones above, but occur commonly in RLS patients: genetic component or family history with RLS good response to dopaminergic therapy periodic leg movements during day or sleep most strongly affected are people who are middle-aged or older other sleep disturbances are experienced decreased iron stores can be a risk factor and should be assessed" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0631_3862", "title": "[Diagnosis and symptom rating scale of restless legs syndrome].", "score": 0.018187830687830687, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a sensorimotor disorder, characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs and usually accompanied or caused by uncomfortable and unpleasant sensations. It begins or worsens during periods of rest or inactivity, is partially or totally relieved by movement and is exacerbated or occurs mainly in the evening or night. People suffering from RLS are estimated to represent 2-3% of the general Japanese population, which is relatively lower than the estimated prevalence in western countries. Supportive diagnostic critevia include family history, the presence of periodic-leg movements (PLM) when awake or asleep, and a positive response to dopaminergic treatment. RLS phenotypes include an early onset form that is usually idiopathic with frequent familial history and a late onset form that is usually secondary to other somatic conditions that are causative factors in RLS occurrence. In all patients presenting with complaints of insomnia or discomfort in the lower limbs, diagnosis of RLS should be considered. RLS should be differentiated from akathisia, which is an urge to move the whole body in the absence of uncomfortable sensations. Polysomnographic studies and the suggested immobilization test (SIT) can detect PLM in patients that are asleep or awake. RLS may cause severe sleep disturbances, poor quality of life, depressive and anxious symptoms, and may be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Secondary RLS may occur due to iron deficiency, end-stage renal disease, pregnancy, peripheral neuropathy and drug use including antipsychotics and antidepressants. Small fiber neuropathy can trigger RLS or mimic its symptoms. RLS is associated with many neurological disorders, including Parkinson disease and multiple system atrophy; althoughit does not predispose to these diseases. A symptom rating scale for RLS authorized by the International RLS Study Group (IRLS) would facilitate accurate diagnosis of this condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0600_19594", "title": "Restless legs syndrome in women: a review.", "score": 0.015396323615501698, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder with significant negative impact on sleep and quality of life, yet data suggest that it is frequently underdiagnosed. The clinical features, diagnosis, epidemiology, pathophysiology, and treatment options for RLS are reviewed and discussed, with particular emphasis on RLS in women. RLS is characterized by unpleasant sensations causing an urge to move the legs. RLS symptoms are exacerbated by rest, relieved by movement, and worse at night than during the day. The motor and sensory symptoms of RLS can have a negative impact on patients' sleep, resulting in a reduction in daytime functioning and overall quality of life. The prevalence of RLS is reported to increase with age and to be up to almost twice as high in women as in men. The explanation for this is unknown, although there is evidence that parity may be a factor. Diagnosis of RLS is made using four essential criteria based on the patient's report of sensorimotor symptoms. Several large, double-blind, placebo-controlled studies have demonstrated that dopamine agonists, such as ropinirole and pramipexole, are an efficacious first-line therapy for the treatment of RLS symptoms. As RLS is more prevalent in women, professionals working in the field of women's health need to be aware of this condition, its differential diagnosis, and the treatment options available. Accurate diagnosis is essential to facilitate appropriate management and treatment. Dopamine agonists have been shown to be an effective therapy for patients with moderate to severe symptoms of RLS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_3132", "title": "Restless legs syndrome and periodic limb movements during sleep: diagnosis and treatment.", "score": 0.01427569625325586, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) and periodic limb movements during sleep (PLMS) have been known for over 300 years, and they may be present in as many as 25% of patients who have sleep disorders. These patients generally present with insomnia. These disorders often remain undiagnosed for an average of 16 years and patients have seen an average of 13 physicians for their symptoms. Therefore, these disorders merit the attention and interest of the practitioner, so that such patients can be evaluated and treated without delay. The important features of these disorders are the following: (1) their recognition since 1685, (2) they may comprise up to 25% of all sleep disorders, (3) they require differentiation from many other disorders, and (4) effective treatment is available. Although it is believed that RLS and PLMS are 2 clinical manifestations of the same central nervous system dysfunction, they are generally discussed separately, as different nosological entities. RLS and PLMS are common neurologic disorders and increase in prevalence with aging. These disorders can be disabling conditions, causing sleep disturbance at night and excessive sleepiness during the day. Polysomnography and the suggested immobilization test are used to support the clinical diagnosis of RLS and PLMS. Although levodopa alleviates symptoms, rebound and augmentation occur frequently, limiting the long-term usefulness of this agent. The direct dopamine receptor agonists such as pergolide, pramipexole, ropinirole, and cabergoline have largely replaced levodopa as the most effective treatment for RLS and PLMS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0638_6956", "title": "Restless legs syndrome: differential diagnosis and management with pramipexole.", "score": 0.013624586795318503, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by discomfort at rest and urge to move focused on the legs. RLS may occur as an idiopathic, often hereditary condition (primary RLS), or in association with medical conditions (secondary RLS) including iron deficiency, uremia, and polyneuropathy. Current understanding of the pathophysiology of RLS points to the involvement of three interrelated components: dopaminergic dysfunction, impaired iron homeostasis, and genetic mechanisms. The diagnosis of RLS is made according to the consensus criteria by a National Institutes of Health panel: 1) an urge to move the legs, usually accompanied by uncomfortable sensations; 2) beginning or worsening during rest; 3) relieved by movement; and 4) worse, or only occurring, in the evening or at night. The differential diagnosis of RLS aims to: 1) distinguish RLS from other disorders with RLS-like symptoms and 2) identify secondary forms, with investigation of underlying diseases. The treatment of RLS demands a clinical evaluation to rule out and cure causes of secondary RLS, including iron supplementation when deficient, and to eliminate the triggering factors. The presence of neuropathy should be especially investigated in nonhereditary, late-onset RLS, in view of a possible treatment of the underlying disease. The first line treatment for idiopathic RLS is represented by dopamine agonists, in particular nonergot-derived ropinirole and pramipexole, whereas ergot dopamine agonists (cabergoline and pergolide) are no longer in first-line use given the risks of cardiac valvulopathy. Although no comparative trials have been published, a meta-analysis of pramipexole versus ropinirole suggests differences in efficacy and tolerability favoring pramipexole." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_17907", "title": "Restless legs syndrome", "score": 0.01312828207051763, "content": "Restless legs syndrome may resolve if the underlying problem is addressed. Otherwise treatment includes lifestyle changes and medication. Lifestyle changes that may help include stopping alcohol and tobacco use, and sleep hygiene. Medications used include levodopa or a dopamine agonist such as pramipexole. RLS affects an estimated 2.5–15% of the American population. Females are more commonly affected than males, and it becomes increasingly common with age. Signs and symptoms RLS sensations range from pain or an aching in the muscles, to \"an itch you can't scratch\", a \"buzzing sensation\", an unpleasant \"tickle that won't stop\", a \"crawling\" feeling, or limbs jerking while awake. The sensations typically begin or intensify during quiet wakefulness, such as when relaxing, reading, studying, or trying to sleep. It is a \"spectrum\" disease with some people experiencing only a minor annoyance and others having major disruption of sleep and impairments in quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0601_15992", "title": "[Restless legs syndrome].", "score": 0.01286918988050038, "content": "The restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common neurological disorder to take possession of increasing attention. RLS is characterized by an urge to move the legs, usually accompanied by uncomfortable or unpleasant sensations, that occurs or worsen at rest and is relieved by activity. The symptoms of RLS have a major impact on nocturnal sleep and daytime functions. The clinical diagnostic criteria were established and published in 2003 by International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group (IRLSSG). All four essential criteria must be met for a positive diagnosis. However, RLS encompassed an idiopathic form of genetic or unknown origin and secondary forms associated with many causes. Special awareness should be kept for differential diagnosis such as uremia, iron deficiency anemia, polyneuropathy, rheumatoid arthritis, and other neurodegenerative diseases. Polysomnography, actinography, L-dopa loading test, and suggested immobilization test (SIT) are helpful tools to reduce the diagnostic puzzle of false positive and false negative. Pathophysiological concepts of RLS are essentially based on the neuroimaging and neurophysiological data to assume a dysfunction of the dopaminergic system, possibly on the All neuron group localized in the hypothalamus. These neurons modulate spinal excitability and alter the sensory processing predominantly of leg afferents. Treatment may be closely linked to the dopaminergic system and iron metabolism. Dopaminergic stimulation with levodopa or dopamine agonists is the first choice in idiopathic restless legs syndrome, but the long-term adverse effect of augmentation should be carefully monitored." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0997_9831", "title": "Restless arms syndrome: prevalence, impact, and management strategies.", "score": 0.012251262251262253, "content": "This literature review focuses on restless arms syndrome (RAS), an upper limb variant of restless legs syndrome (RLS). RLS, also known as Willis-Ekbom disease, is a frequently occurring neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the lower limbs often accompanied by unpleasant sensations in the legs, worsened at rest and in the evening, improved by movement. Extension of leg restlessness to the upper limbs is frequently reported in typical patients who had RLS only in the legs and usually occurs later in the course of RLS, restlessness remaining most invalidating in the lower limbs. In RAS, the arms are predominantly affected with little or no involvement of the legs. Cases of restless shoulders syndrome or periodic arm movements without arm restlessness were not considered. A total of 9 articles with 10 cases were included and analyzed for the adherence to the five essential diagnostic criteria of the International RLS Study Group (IRLSSG) classification, as well as for the additional supportive features. All of the reported cases were classified as having definite RAS. The clinical history and disease evolution of two previously reported patients were completed and updated. Overall, the clinical picture of RAS does not differ from that of RLS, except for the symptoms localization on the upper limbs. Underlying mechanisms of the spread of RLS to upper limb restlessness and of RAS remain unknown. Whether RAS is a phenotypic variant of RLS or a separate entity needs further investigations. RAS likely remains underdiagnosed and according to IRLSSG diagnostic criteria RAS should be considered when RLS-like symptoms are present in one or both arms, especially when they have a circadian pattern and are improved by movement and dopaminergic therapy. Clinicians should be aware of this rare condition, especially as treatment using dopaminergic agonists proves to be very efficient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0626_1102", "title": "[Epidemiology of restless legs syndrome].", "score": 0.012150314671323074, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a chronic sensorimotor disorder where patients complain of an almost irresistible urge to move their legs. This urge can often be accompanied by pain or other unpleasant sensations, it either occurs or worsens with rest particularly at night, and improves with activity. The International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group has established four essential criteria for clinical diagnosis of RLS. Affecting an estimated 7.2 to 11.5% of the adult population, the symptoms of RLS may be associated with significant sleep disturbance and may have a negative impact on quality of life. The prevalence of RLS increases with age, and women are more frequently affected than men. In France, the estimated prevalence is 8.5%. Among sufferers, 4.4% complain of very severe symptoms. Although RLS is mainly idiopathic, several clinical conditions have been associated with it, especially iron deficiency with or without anemia, end-stage renal disease and pregnancy. These conditions may share a common pathophysiological mechanism involving a disorder of iron metabolism. By contrast, controversy persists as to whether polyneuropathy, particularly when associated with diabetes, is to be considered as an important cause of secondary RLS. This association is difficult to demonstrate as conventional electromyography is not adequate to detect small fiber neuropathy often associated with diabetes. RLS is often underdiagnosed and few subjects receive recommended RLS drug treatment. There is a clear need for complementary education to improve the accurate diagnosis of RLS. Indeed, better knowledge of this syndrome is a prerequisite to prompt an appropriate therapeutic management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_48513", "title": "Rhythmic movement disorder", "score": 0.01148989898989899, "content": "Diagnosis of rhythmic movement disorder is done on an exclusionary basis in which other closely related movement disorders are systematically ruled out. Because of this, a thorough clinical evaluation is necessary. Often, impairments are not severe enough to warrant this process and so RMD is not often diagnosed unless there are extremely interfering or disabling symptoms. Many patients do not seek treatment for RMD directly and most seek professional help to alleviate sleep-affecting symptoms. To compound the issue, many sufferers are often misdiagnosed as having Restless Legs Syndrome or sleep apnea or some combination of the two. Rhythmic movement disorder differs from Restless Legs Syndrome in that RMD involves involuntary contractions of muscles with no urge or uncomfortable sensation to provoke such movement. Additionally, 80-90% of Restless Legs Syndrome sufferers show periodic limb movements as observed on a polysomnogram, which are not common in RMD patients. Rhythmic" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0649_21331", "title": "Treatment of restless legs syndrome.", "score": 0.011471467567918888, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition characterized by an urge to move the legs, accompanied by uncomfortable or unpleasant sensations. Symptoms predominantly occur at rest in the evening or at night, and they are alleviated by moving the affected extremity or by walking. Recent European epidemiological studies reported an overall prevalence of RLS up to 10%, with a female preponderance. The prevalence rates reported in south-eastern Europe are lower, as are those in Asiatic populations. Although the aetiopathogenesis of RLS is still unknown, the rapid and dramatic improvement of RLS with dopaminergic compounds suggests a dopaminergic system dysfunction as the basic mechanism. Extensive data are available for l-dopa and dopamine receptor agonists, especially for pramipexole and ropinirole. Pharmacological treatment should be limited to those patients who suffer from clinically relevant RLS with impaired sleep quality or quality of life. Treatment on demand is a clinical need in RLS cases that present intermittent symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en315_5965", "title": "Differential diagnoses of depression", "score": 0.011385199240986717, "content": "Sleep disorders Insomnia: While the inability to fall asleep is often a symptom of depression, it can also in some instances serve as the trigger for developing a depressive disorder. It can be transient, acute or chronic. It can be a primary disorder or a co-morbid one. Restless legs syndrome (RLS), also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom's syndrome, is characterized by an irresistible urge to move one's body to stop uncomfortable or odd sensations. It most commonly affects the legs, but can also affect the arms or torso, and even phantom limbs. Restless Leg syndrome has been associated with Major depressive disorder. \"Adjusted odds ratio for diagnosis of major depressive disorder... suggested a strong association between restless legs syndrome and major depressive disorder and/or panic disorder.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0941_15774", "title": "Management of restless legs syndrome in chronic liver disease: A challenge for the correct diagnosis and therapy.", "score": 0.011366865586814436, "content": "To investigate the association between restless legs syndrome (RLS) and well-defined chronic liver disease, and the possible therapeutic options. Two hundred and eleven patients with chronic liver disease, complaining of sleep disturbances, painful leg sensation and daily sleepiness, were included. Patients with persistent alcohol intake, recent worsening of clinical conditions, or hepatitis C virus were excluded. Diagnosis of RLS was suggested by the Johns Hopkins questionnaire and verified by fulfilling the diagnostic criteria by Allen. All patients were tested, both at baseline and during follow-up, with the Hamilton rating scale for depression, sleep quality assessment (PSQI), Epworth sleepiness scale (ESS), International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group evaluation, and international RLS severity (IRLS) scoring system. Iron-free level, ferritin, folate, vitamin B12 and D-OH25 were detected. Neurological examinations and blood test occurred at the beginning of the therapy, after 2 wk, and at the 28<supth</sup, 75<supth</sup, 105<supth</sup, 135<supth</sup, 165<supth</sup and 205<supth</sup day. Regarding therapy, pramipexole or gabapentin were used. Patients were moderately depressed, with evident nocturnal sleep problems and concomitant daily sleepiness. Sleep problems and involuntary leg movements had been underestimated, and RLS syndrome had not been considered before the neurological visit. All (211/211) patients fulfilled the RLS diagnostic criteria. Twenty-two patients considered their symptoms as mild, according to IRSL, but 189 found them moderate to very severe. No correlation was found between ammonium level and ESS or PSQI. Augmentation was rather precocious in our patients (135<supth</sup day), and more frequent (35%) than previous data (8.3%-9.1%). The dosage of dopamine agonists was found to be associated with augmentation and appears in range with the literature. Previous intake of alcohol and lower levels of vitamins have been related to the phenomenon in our study. RLS is a common disorder, requiring rapid diagnosis and treatment. Further research is therefore fundamental." }, { "id": "article-25384_20", "title": "Muscle Cramps -- History and Physical -- Nocturnal Leg Cramps", "score": 0.011322566785452523, "content": "Nocturnal leg cramps (NLCs) affect approximately 37% of the population in America over 60 years of age. The syndrome is also known as sleep-related leg cramps. The most affected muscle area is the calf. Night cramps reduce sleep quality and quality of life in patients. The diagnosis is relatively simple: cramps and nighttime leg pains, which can disappear with stretching of the muscles involved. Despite the diagnostic simplicity during the anamnesis, the exact etiology of such events is unknown. Some causes could be activities where the person stands a lot at work or performs great physical effort during the day. Predisposing factors could include electrolyte disturbances or neurological disorders, hormonal and metabolic disorders, and compressions of nerve roots or compressed arterial vessels. Other predisposing factors could be related to the constant consumption of drugs, such as diuretics, beta-blockers, and statins. From an electrophysiological point of view, muscles with cramps have a lower activation threshold. The fact that NLCs mostly affect people over age 60 may indicate that cramps result from neurological causes. With age a person tends to lose medullary neurons, creating neuromuscular incoordination more in the lower limbs than in the upper limbs. This disorder would appear to be related to the presence of other diseases, such as heart failure, nocturnal apnea, and depressive syndrome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_17922", "title": "Restless legs syndrome", "score": 0.010725117176730081, "content": "According to the International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ICSD-3), the main symptoms have to be associated with a sleep disturbance or impairment in order to support RLS diagnosis. As stated by this classification, RLS symptoms should begin or worsen when being inactive, be relieved when moving, should happen exclusively or mostly in the evening and at night, not be triggered by other medical or behavioral conditions, and should impair one's quality of life. Generally, both legs are affected, but in some cases there is an asymmetry. Differential diagnosis The most common conditions that should be differentiated with RLS include leg cramps, positional discomfort, local leg injury, arthritis, leg edema, venous stasis, peripheral neuropathy, radiculopathy, habitual foot tapping/leg rocking, anxiety, myalgia, and drug-induced akathisia. Peripheral artery disease and arthritis can also cause leg pain but this usually gets worse with movement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en083_46953", "title": "Actigraphy", "score": 0.010565035816024559, "content": "However, actigraphy cannot be considered as a substitute to polysomnography. A full night sleep measured with polysomnography may be required for some sleep disorders. Indeed, actigraphy may be efficient in measuring sleep parameters and sleep quality, however it is not provided with measures for brain activity (EEG), eye movements (EOG), muscle activity (EMG) or heart rhythm (ECG). Actigraphy is useful for assessing daytime sleepiness in place of a laboratory sleep latency test. It is used to clinically evaluate insomnia, circadian rhythm sleep disorders, excessive sleepiness. It is not recommended for the diagnosis of restless legs syndrome. It is also used in assessing the effectiveness of pharmacologic, behavioural, phototherapeutic or chronotherapeutic treatments for such disorders. The data, recorded over time, is in some cases more relevant than the result of polysomnography, particularly in assessing circadian rhythms and disorders thereof as well as insomnia." }, { "id": "article-28429_30", "title": "Restless Legs Syndrome -- Prognosis", "score": 0.010144097111691178, "content": "In about 70% of patients, the symptoms progress and become moderate to severe. In addition to the legs, some patients may start to experience the same symptoms in the arms. Overall, the symptoms are less severe in the morning and get worse during the evening and night. In some patients, the symptoms are so severe that they are disabling, interrupting sleep, and causing daytime fatigue. Studies show that restless leg patients are prone to hypertension, headaches, and sleep difficulties. The quality of life for most patients is poor. By age 50 years, RLS usually worsens and causes daily disruption of sleep, resulting in decreased daytime alertness. RLS is associated with poor quality of life. [24] [25]" }, { "id": "article-28429_3", "title": "Restless Legs Syndrome -- Introduction", "score": 0.00995475113122172, "content": "Restless leg syndrome is underdiagnosed, and there is a significant delay in diagnosis. The disorder may start in childhood, but the diagnosis is often not made until the 3rd decade of life. Restless leg syndrome symptoms are worse at rest and sleep. Today, the condition can be treated with medications." }, { "id": "article-28429_14", "title": "Restless Legs Syndrome -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009930849020361121, "content": "An uncontrollable urge to move the lower extremities and unpleasant and uncomfortable sensations may accompany it. The urge to move the extremities is less during the day but gets progressively worse in the evenings and at night. The symptoms also appear at rest or during periods of sleep and inactivity. The urge to move the lower extremities may partially or completely be relieved by ambulation or stretching the legs. As long as the activity is continued, the symptoms are mild or absent. The urge to move the lower extremities ae worse during the evenings and make it impossible to sleep. Thus, the patient is often fatigued during the day. The presence of these symptoms must not be attributed to other behavior conditions, such as tardive dyskinesia, leg cramps, muscle spasms, or discomfort from the position." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0996_10945", "title": "A 15-Year-Old Girl With Sleep-Onset Insomnia and Poor Sleep Quality.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 15-year-old girl was referred to us for sleep difficulties and restless sleep. The parent stated that she was always a poor sleeper, having difficulty falling asleep and frequent nocturnal awakenings since she was a very young child, but in the past 6 months the symptoms had worsened. She slept in her own room and in her own bed. Her bedtime was 10:30 pm, staying in bed anywhere from 2 to 5 h before she could fall asleep. During this time, she felt discomfort in her legs with the urge to move her legs and relief after movement. This sensation was worse at night or when sitting for prolonged periods of time. Once she fell asleep, she woke up 2 to 3 times a night. She started her day at 7 am but felt very sleepy and often would fall asleep again until 10 am. During the day she was exhausted and often took a nap from 3 to 5 pm. There was soft snoring and no parasomnias. Her medical history was significant for beta-thalassemia trait. She was not on any medications. Social history included no dietary restrictions and no caffeine use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0235_6690", "title": "[Restless legs and nocturnal leg spasms--forgotten facts in diagnosis--new facts for therapy].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "An angiologist's experience with the symptom of restless legs is reported. The condition was diagnosed in 103 patients presenting with pain in their legs occurring predominantly at rest and vanishing with walking. Organic lesions could not be identified (in 76%) or were not responsible for the discomfort (in 24%). A depressive state, most often masked, was recognized in 67%. In 42% anxiety was present alone, and in 49% frank depression was diagnosed. In 9% psychiatric treatment was mandatory. Patients with no depression were either not treated (33%) or were given type I-antiarrhythmic drugs (mostly disopyramide) with good results. These drugs were only transiently effective in depressed patients since anxiety was often intensified when the symptom of restless legs disappeared. Antidepressant agents, though ineffective when given alone, were most helpful when administered together with disopyramide." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_12606", "title": "Restless Genital Syndrome: Differential Diagnosis and Treatment With Pramipexole.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Restless genital syndrome refers to excessive and persistent sensations of genital and clitoral arousal with the absence of conscious feeling of sexual desire. These sensations have been linked to symptoms of restless legs syndrome (RLS) or an overactive bladder. Restless genital syndrome may be related to small fiber sensory neuropathy of the dorsal nerve of the clitoris, so it more frequently occurs in women. The association with RLS suggests a possible dopaminergic mechanism. We report a case of a 74-year-old woman who presented restless genital symptoms every night in association with RLS symptoms. During polysomnography she reported 3 awakenings from rapid eye movement sleep with associated genital symptoms followed by a period of insomnia with RLS symptoms and sexual activity. The frequency and the intensity of the symptoms were responsive to treatment by pramipexole after 1 week of treatment and the efficacy was maintained at follow-up." }, { "id": "article-28429_13", "title": "Restless Legs Syndrome -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Periodic leg movements of sleep are characterized by involuntary, forceful dorsiflexion of the foot lasting 0.5 to five seconds and occurring every 20 to 40 seconds throughout sleep. There may be limb twitching during sleep. These occur in 80% of patients with restless legs syndrome. The physical examination is usually normal in patients with restless legs syndrome. It is performed to identify secondary causes. Essential diagnostic criteria (all must be met): [16]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_6842", "title": "Anesthetic Management of a Patient With Restless Legs Syndrome: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological sensory disorder associated with sensory and motor symptoms that most commonly occur at night and during periods of rest. It is characterized by altered or abnormal sensations primarily in the legs and the urge to move the associated limbs. Perioperative procedures, including general anesthesia, can cause exacerbations of RLS. This is a case report of a suspected RLS exacerbation in a 22-year-old woman who had no formal diagnosis of RLS despite reporting symptoms that met all essential diagnostic criteria by the International RLS Study Group. Despite her previous diagnoses of dehydration induced-muscle pain or nocturnal cramps, we suspected her to have RLS. The patient underwent general anesthesia for a bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy using a combined inhalational and intravenous anesthetic technique with sevoflurane, propofol, remifentanil, and dexmedetomidine. After successful completion of the surgery and returning to the ward, she began moving her lower extremities and complaining of unpleasant sensations in both ankles. Bed rest exacerbated the suspected RLS symptoms despite a continuous infusion of dexmedetomidine. The RLS symptoms continued to worsen and spread to her upper extremities. After increasing the dexmedetomidine infusion from 0.2 to 0.4 μg/kg/h, almost all symptoms improved, and she slept for 3 hours. Upon awakening, the unpleasant sensations were completely relieved by walking and stretching. The patient was formally diagnosed with RLS by a neurologist after discharge. In this case, an infusion of dexmedetomidine was helpful in successfully managing a suspected exacerbation of RLS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0338_6701", "title": "[Restless legs. A much neglected syndrome].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Ekbom's syndrome, or 'restless legs syndrome' (RLS), not only causes symptoms in the extremities during waking hours, but also sleep disturbance and daytime fatigue. Although the prevalence of RLS has been estimated to be 1-5%, the condition is probably underdiagnosed and undertreated. Its onset may occur at any age, and there may be long periods of remission, but the condition is generally chronic. In its primary form, there is often a family history of the disorder suggestive of an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, where the results of EMG (electromyography) and nerve conduction studies are normal. In secondary forms, clinical signs and laboratory evidence of an associated abnormality are present. The most characteristic symptom of RLS is the spontaneous occurrence of paraesthesia or dysaesthesia during waking hours. The symptoms of RLS are worse or exclusively present during rest, and are partially or temporarily relieved by activity. About 80 per cent of RLS patients also suffer from 'periodic limb movements during sleep' (PLMS), which may cause microarousals during sleep. The diagnosis of RLS is based on characteristic clinical criteria, and the sleep disturbance is diagnosed polysomnographically. L-dopa and clonazepam have been found successful in the treatment of primary RLS, though lifelong treatment is often necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0604_12995", "title": "[Restless-legs syndrome].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Restless-legs syndrome (RLS) is a sensorimotor disorder, characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs usually accompanied or caused by uncomfortable and unpleasant sensations. It begins or worsens during periods of rest or inactivity, is partially or totally relieved by movements and is exacerbated or occurs at night and in the evening. RLS sufferers represent 2 to 3% of the general population in Western countries. Supportive criteria include a family history, the presence of periodic-leg movements (PLM) when awake or asleep and a positive response to dopaminergic treatment. The RLS phenotypes include an early onset form, usually idiopathic with a familial history and a late onset form, usually secondary to peripheral neuropathy. Recently, an atypical RLS phenotype without PLM and l-DOPA resistant has been characterized. RLS can occur in childhood and should be distinguished from attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, growing pains and sleep complaints in childhood. RLS should be included in the diagnosis of all patients consulting for sleep complaints or discomfort in the lower limbs. It should be differentiated from akathisia, that is, an urge to move the whole body without uncomfortable sensations. Polysomnographic studies and the suggested immobilization test can detect PLM. Furthermore, an l-DOPA challenge has recently been validated to support the diagnosis of RLS. RLS may cause severe-sleep disturbances, poor quality of life, depressive and anxious symptoms and may be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. In most cases, RLS is idiopathic. It may also be secondary to iron deficiency, end-stage renal disease, pregnancy, peripheral neuropathy and drugs, such as antipsychotics and antidepressants. The small-fiber neuropathy can mimic RLS or even trigger it. RLS is associated with many neurological and sleep disorders including Parkinson's disease, but does not predispose to these diseases. The pathophysiology of RLS includes an altered brain-iron metabolism, a dopaminergic dysfunction, a probable role of pain control systems and a genetic susceptibility with nine loci and three polymorphisms in genes serving developmental functions. RLS treatment begins with the elimination of triggering factors and iron supplementation when deficient. Mild or intermittent RLS is usually treated with low doses of l-DOPA or codeine; the first-line treatment for moderate to severe RLS is dopaminergic agonists (pramipexole, ropinirole, rotigotine). In severe, refractory or neuropathy-associated RLS, antiepileptic (gabapentin, pregabalin) or opioid (oxycodone, tramadol) drugs can be used." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_5691", "title": "[Restless legs syndrome].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is characterised by daily dynamic sensorial and motor syndromes. It is a relatively little known syndrome among neurologists as well as psychiatrists. In spite of a growing number of researches on this issue, the problem seems to be underdiagnosed. Because of a subjective character of the symptoms and also their appearance in the evening hours, they are difficult to observe among outpatients. In the case of diagnosing the restless legs syndrome, therapists pay attention to sleep disorders, which usually remain as the only one being treated and others are omitted. Some are convinced of little harmfulness of this syndrome, however sleep disorders themselves worsen social functioning and those disorders lasting longer, increase the probability of other, not only psychiatric disorders appearing. A separate issue is the not yet established pathogenesis of the restlessness legs syndrome, especially its genetic background. It is important because of the possible ways of treatment. Undoubtedly RLS needs more research and promoting knowledge on this issue not only among doctors but also in the whole society." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_17924", "title": "Restless legs syndrome", "score": 0.009608325776223173, "content": "Treatment of RLS should not be considered until possible medical causes are ruled out. Secondary RLS may be cured if precipitating medical conditions (anemia) are managed effectively. Physical measures Stretching the leg muscles can bring temporary relief. Walking and moving the legs, as the name \"restless legs\" implies, brings temporary relief. In fact, those with RLS often have an almost uncontrollable need to walk and therefore relieve the symptoms while they are moving. Unfortunately, the symptoms usually return immediately after the moving and walking ceases. A vibratory counter-stimulation device has been found to help some people with primary RLS to improve their sleep. Iron There is some evidence that intravenous iron supplementation moderately improves restlessness for people with RLS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0722_22029", "title": "Successful treatment with clonazepam and pramipexole of a patient with sleep-related eating disorder associated with restless legs syndrome: a case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Sleep-related eating disorder (SRED) is characterized by recurrent episodes of involuntary eating during sleep period and is often associated with restless legs syndrome (RLS). Although pharmacotherapy is recommended for SRED patients, no drug have shown promising effects so far. The patient, a 48-year-old Japanese housewife, first visited our clinic and complained about nighttime eating. She had a history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, sleep apnea syndrome, and depression. Insomnia appeared 10 years before the first visit and she often received hypnosedatives; at the same time, she developed nocturnal eating episodes. She had amnesia for these episodes, and she felt urge to move her legs while sleeping. The patient was diagnosed with SRED and RLS. Reduction in the doses of triazolam decreased her nighttime eating frequency, and her complete amnesia changed to vague recall of eating during night. Clonazepam 1.0 mg at bedtime decreased nocturnal eating frequency from 1 to 2 times per month, though sleepwalking remained. Administration of pramipexole 0.125 mg relieved all symptoms including SRED, RLS, and sleepwalking. This is the first paper to report that the combination of clonazepam and pramipexole therapy-reduced SRED episodes and RLS symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_17840", "title": "[Restless legs syndrome and periodic limb movements in sleep].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Restless legs syndrome is one of the most common neurological disorders, with a prevalence of 2% to 9% in the elderly population. Sensory and motor symptoms of the legs and an urge to move that occur at rest may lead to severe sleep disturbances and are part of the syndrome. Typical history and normal neurological examination lead to the clinical diagnosis. Additional laboratory and neurophysiological investigations are necessary to rule out associated diseases. The indication for polysomnography to record periodic limb movements in sleep must be discussed in individual cases. Treatment strategies will be recommended individually according to the disease severity. In this article we present an overview of the clinical symptomatology and include recommendations on diagnosis and treatment of RLS and differentiation of RLS from periodic limb movement disorder. To this purpose, the Motor System and Sleep Work Group of the German Society of Sleep Medicine presents modified guidelines for diagnosis and treatment of RLS according to recent recommendations of the American Sleep Disorder Association." }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_2022", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.009522438402369297, "content": "E. The symptoms are not attributable to the physiological effects of a drug of abuse or medication (e.g., akathisia). Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a sensorimotor, neurological sleep disorder characterized by a desire to move the legs or arms, usually associated with uncomfortable sensations typically described as creeping, crawling, tingling, burning, or itching (Criterion A). The diagnosis of RLS is based primarily on patient self—report and history. Symptoms are worse when the individual is at rest, and frequent movements of the legs occur in an effort to relieve the uncomfortable sensations. Symptoms are worse in the evening or night, and in some individuals they occur only in the evening or night. Evening worsening occurs in— dependently of any differences in activity. It is important to differentiate RLS from other conditions such as positional discomfort and leg cramps (Criterion D)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0711_13584", "title": "[Restlessness instead of sleep. Restless legs syndrome].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a sleep disorder that affects 3-4% of the population in its moderate to severe form and up to 10% in its milder form. The diagnosis is made based on clinical criteria, but a sleep laboratory study may be necessary when other sleep disorders have to be excluded. Mild and sporadic RLS can be treated by behavior measures; in more severe cases, drug therapy leads to a successful reduction of symptoms." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 982, 1328 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 158, 217 ] ], "text": "This is why the ideal time to intervene in these patients is after achieving stabilization of their medical pathologies, taking care that this takes place before 48 h have elapsed.\" There is no data to suggest that he has any unstable comorbidity at the present time, so surgery in less than 48 hours and orthogeriatric management is of interest." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Admission for transthoracic ultrasound, assessment by Cardiology and then closed reduction and fixation with plate screw.", "2": "Admission for evaluation by Nephrology and Cardiology, and then Traumatology will decide whether to use an arthroplasty or a trochanteric nail.", "3": "Admission to Internal Medicine / Geriatrics, progressive stabilization of comorbidities, conservative orthopedic treatment.", "4": "Closed reduction and fixation of the fracture within 48 hours, very early sedation, orthogeriatric management.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0351_10159", "title": "[Late onset of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia with recurrent arterial thromboses and amputation].", "score": 0.015455864300859278, "content": "An 80-year-old woman had been hospitalized in a psychiatric clinic where, on the 22nd day, she sustained a fracture of the neck of the left femur, which was treated by internal screw fixation. The postoperative course was at first without complication. But 9 days postoperatively her platelet count had fallen to 59,000/microliter. As heparin induced type II thrombocytopenia (HIT II) was suspected, the thrombosis prophylaxis with low-molecular heparin was replaced by sodium danaparoid (twice 750 units subcutaneously). Despite this, ischaemia of the right lower leg developed and required amputation. On the following day the left lower leg and foot also became ischemic, where upon she was admitted to the author's hospital (37 days after her admission to the psychiatric clinic). The patient was in a reduced general condition (body-mass index 19.5 kg/m2). She was disoriented as to place and time. Her blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg, her pulse irregular with a ventricular rate of 100/min. The skin below the middle of the left lower leg was cold and livid and the pedal pulses were not palpable. Haemoglobin content was 9.7 g/dl, the white cell count 9,200/microliter, and platelet count 54,000/microliter. Electrolytes and creatinine were within normal limits. Thrombendarterectomy was performed once via the left groin under danaparoid anticoagulation. There was no re-occlusion and the patient was able to walk again.--It was ascertained subsequently, she had already been given ordinary heparin in the psychiatric clinic for 20 days. Her platelet count of around 70,000/microliter returned to normal even though heparin administration was continued. A reduction in platelet count by more than half during heparin treatment suggests heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, in which case heparin should be discontinued at once. In high-risk patients adequate treatment should be initiated with other anticoagulants even before the occurrence of thromboembolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1084_2592", "title": "Acute Tachycardia-Induced Cardiomyopathy: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "BACKGROUND Tachycardia from atrial fibrillation or flutter can lead to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Some patients deteriorate quickly, and there is an acute drop in their left ventricular systolic function; however, they tend to normalize rapidly after treatment of the underlying arrhythmia. The aim of publishing the present case is to maintain awareness that tachycardia is one of the etiologies of acute systolic heart failure, which is potentially reversible by treatment when recognized. CASE REPORT An 88-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presented to the emergency department with shortness of breath and new-onset atrial fibrillation. The physical examination revealed jugular vein distention, an irregular heart rate of approximately 140 beats/min, bilateral basal lung crackles, and no murmurs. One week before this presentation, she underwent electrocardiography, which showed she was in sinus rhythm, and transthoracic echocardiography, which indicated an ejection fraction of 65%. After hospital admission, she was started on beta-blockers for heart rate control and diuretics for heart failure management. As her symptoms persisted, she underwent a transesophageal echocardiography-guided cardioversion, where her ejection fraction was 30%. A repeat transthoracic echocardiography 3 days after the cardioversion indicated the ejection fraction had normalized to 60%. She was followed up every month in the Outpatient Cardiology Clinic and has remained asymptomatic for 1 year to date. CONCLUSIONS Although most literature describes tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy as a chronic process, it can be acute. Patients benefit from rhythm control, and with early diagnosis and appropriate management, the prognosis is good." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_615", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Age, weight, height 2. Are you: Female and 55 years of age or older or male and 45 years of age of older? If yes, are you 70 years of age or older? 3. Do you take anticoagulant medications (“blood thinners”)? 4. Do you have or have you had any of the following heart-related conditions? Heart disease Heart attack within the last 6 months Angina (chest pain) 5. Do you have or have you ever had any of the following? Rheumatoid arthritis Kidney disease Liver disease Diabetes 6. Do you get short of breath when you lie flat? 7. Are you currently on oxygen treatment? 8. Do you have a chronic cough that produces any discharge or fluid? 9. Do you have lung problems or diseases? 10. Have you or any blood member of your family ever had a problem other than nausea with any anesthesia? If yes, describe: 11." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1064_26213", "title": "Anterior hip dislocation with simultaneous anterior column and anterior wall acetabular fracture: A case report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Isolated anterior column and anterior wall fractures are a relatively rare subgroup of acetabular fractures. They represent 6,3% of all acetabular fractures. Surgical treatment is indicated for fractures with displacement more than 5 mm and when incongruence of the articular surface and/or instability of the joint is evident, in order to allow early mobilization and prevent further complications, such as posttraumatic hip arthritis. Open reduction and internal fixation is the usual standard of care. Closed reduction and percutaneous fixation can be performed in minimally displaced fractures. In the herein article, we describe the unique combination of anterior hip dislocation along with anterior column and anterior wall fractures in a middle-aged patient, after a fall from small height. A 56-year-old female patient was brought to the emergency department after an accidental fall from height less than 2 m. Upon arrival her right hip was abducted, shortened and externally rotated. CT scan of the pelvis revealed anterior dislocation of the right hip, an impaction injury of the femoral head, and fractures of anterior column and anterior wall of the acetabulum. Closed reduction of the hip was performed. Open reduction and internal fixation of the fractures was carried out utilizing the extended Smith-Petersen approach in a scheduled manner 5 days after admission. At one-year follow-up after the injury the patient had returned to all of her pre-injury activities and she was able to walk exercising full weight bearing without residual pain. Anterior hip dislocation with simultaneous isolated anterior column and anterior wall fracture is an injury of rare incidence. Orthopaedic surgeons treating fractures should be aware of this entity and the herein article can serve as a reference regarding the management of such an uncommon injury." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_18487", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Because many patients with calcific AS are elderly, particular attention must be directed to the adequacy of hepatic, renal, and pulmonary function before AVR is recommended. Age alone is not a contraindication to AVR for AS. The perioperative mortality rate depends to a substantial extent on the patient’s preoperative clinical and hemodynamic state. Treatment decisions for AS patients who are not at low operative risk should be made by a multidisciplinary heart team with representation from general cardiology, interventional cardiology, imaging, cardiac surgery, and other allied specialties as needed, including geriatrics. The 10-year survival rate of older adult patients with AVR is approximately 60%. Approximately 30% of bioprosthetic valves evidence primary valve failure in 10 years, requiring re-replacement, and an approximately equal percentage of patients with mechanical prostheses develop significant hemorrhagic complications as a consequence of treatment with vitamin K" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1062_2089", "title": "Effect of pharmacological treatment prior to admission on the outcome of older hip fracture patients.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We aim to relate the pharmacological treatment at admission of hip fracture patients with their prognosis. We designed a prospective study including 436 hip fracture patients. We classified all the pharmacological treatment prior to admission of each patient into 25 groups according to their active agent and indications. We followed-up patients for one year for survival, emergency department visits (EDV), and in-hospital re-admissions (RAD). Differential analysis was performed by chi-square test, U-Mann Whitney test, and logistic regression. In all cases, p ≤ 0.05 was considered statistically significant. At 30-day follow-up, 14.9% patients noted EDV, 9.2% RAD, and 3.2% dead. Patients taking beta-blockers (p = 0.046), loop diuretics (p = 0.018) or antiparkinsonian (p = 0.009) showed an increased 30-day EDV; patients taking benzodiazepines (p = 0.014), loop diuretics (p = 0.009) or antiparkinsonian (p = 0.009), an increased 30-day RAD. At one-year follow-up, 50.7% patients noted EDV, 30.7% RAD, and 22.7% dead. Patients taking oral antidiabetics (p = 0.006) noted a greater one-year EDV; patients taking major opioids (p = 0.001), benzodiazepines (p = 0.016), cardiac agents (p = 0.046), loop diuretics (p = 0.042), beta-blockers (p = 0.018), oral anticoagulants (p = 0.013) or gastric prophylaxis (p = 0.020), greater RAD; patients taking cardiac agents (p = 0.024), loop diuretics (p = 0.006) or oral anticoagulants (p = 0.015), increased 1-year mortality rate. The pharmacological treatment noted at admission for hip fracture patients is related to the outcome, in a dose-independent way. The pharmacological treatment could be an additional parameter that could help us to improve the decision-making process and the resource assignation of hip fracture patients. A proper medication review upon admission because of a hip fracture is warranted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0736_20592", "title": "Retroperitoneal hematoma with bone resorption around the acetabular component after total hip arthroplasty: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Vascular complications related to cup-fixating screws penetrating the medial acetabular wall during total hip arthroplasty are not uncommon but rarely are associated with serious adverse events in the late post-operative period. We present the case of a 77-year-old Japanese woman who developed progressive extensive bone resorption and large hematoma in the acetabulum 13 years after total hip arthroplasty. On admission to our hospital, she was on oral warfarin (1.5mg/day) for atrial fibrillation. About 5 months after the initiation of anticoagulant therapy, she suffered a major fall followed by massive subcutaneous and pelvic girdle bleeding, predominantly on the medial side of the right thigh, but a fracture or damage of total hip arthroplasty was not evident on an emergency orthopedic evaluation. One year after the accident, a routine follow-up examination showed an asymptomatic osteolytic lesion in the acetabulum on the right pelvis, and 2 years later our patient noticed progressive pain in her right hip during walking. A large osteolytic lesion was noted in the right acetabulum on a plain radiograph. On high-resolution computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging, a huge granulomatous lesion in the acetabulum was suggestive of chronic hematoma in intrapelvic and extrapelvic gluteal regions. A closer computed tomography examination showed that one of the screws used for fixation of the acetabular component in the total hip arthroplasty had penetrated the acetabular bone and had reached the pelvic cavity. Surgery was performed in a single session by means of two approaches: anterior midline transperitoneal address to resect the low-density mass lesion followed by posterolateral acetabular implant re-settlement. Though rare, total hip arthroplasty-related late vascular complications could be serious and potentially affect the limb and quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_2540", "title": "Evaluation of 238 consecutive patients with the extended data set of the Standardised Audit for Hip Fractures in Europe (SAHFE).", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The aim of this paper is to introduce the extended data set inquiries of the Standardised Audit of Hip Fractures in Europe (SAHFE) and to report our experiences of its use. The extended SAHFE data set was applied to 238 consecutive patients (mean age 78.4 (50 - 102) years, 52 males, 186 females) aged over 50 years with non-pathological fractures of the hip. The extended data set contains 95 questions concerning the patient's abilities prior fall and at follow-up, detailed background factors, concomitant diseases, additional details of the injury, treatment, fracture type and reduction and complications. Thirty-nine percent of the fractures occurred at home and 38% in a hospital. Thirteen percent of the cervical fractures were non-displaced (Garden 1 &amp; 2) and half of the trochanteric fractures intertrochanteric two-part fractures (A11 - A13). The mean Garden alignment index evaluated from antero-posterior roentgenograms changed from the preoperative 144 degrees to the postoperative 168 degrees and that from lateral projections from 144 degrees to 171 degrees , respectively. Most of the patients (89%) had associated diseases, especially cardiovascular conditions. The patients' functioning was significantly impaired at four months compared with the preoperative situation according to the ADL score. The need for social support and assistance had increased, respectively. A total of 63% of the surgeries were delayed for more than 24 hours. Low molecular weight heparin was given to every patient for thromboembolic prophylaxis and 92% received antibiotic prophylaxis. Urinary tract (21%) and chest infections (7%) were the most common complications. The deep infection rate was 2.5%. The extended SAHFE data set is useful and makes it possible to study in more detail the background and outcome factors of hip fractures in a standardized manner." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0967_2311", "title": "[Successful Resuscitation Using Percutaneous Cardiopulmonary Support in a Woman with Acute Heart Failure during a Thyroid Storm].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Thyroid storm is a rare, life-threatening condition characterized by severe manifestations of thyrotoxico- sis. Acute heart failure is one of the well-known com- plications of thyrotoxicosis. Thyrotoxicosis-induced heart failure sometimes causes circulatory collapse with high mortality. A 43-year-old woman had palpitations and exertional dyspnea without medical history. She developed con- gestive heart failure, due to tachycardiac atrial fibrilla- tion with no acute ischemic changes. High serum level of FT3 and FT4, and low level of TSH were shown in thyroid function tests, and thyromegaly in carotid ultrasound test She was admitted to the intensive care unit for acute heart failure caused by thyroid storm. Two days after admission, cardiopulmonary resuscitation and endotracheal intubation were necessary due to sudden cardiac arrest Transthoracic echocardiogram showed normal cardiac function after successful resuscitation. Five days after admission, her condition deteriorated with severe cardiac dysfunction, and she received PCPS (percutaneous cardiopulmonary support) for cardiovascular collapse resulting in persistent tachy- cardiac atrial fibrillation. Ten days after initiation of PCPS, the patient's cardiovascular function improved with estimated left ventricular ejection fraction of 50 percent and she was weaned off PCPS. In the case of acute heart failure with untreated hyperthyroid and refractory atrial fibrillation, careful hemodynamic management is required to avoid cardio- vascular collapse." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0947_14847", "title": "Thromboembolism prophylaxis in orthopaedics: an update.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious complication during and after hospitalization, yet is a preventable cause of in-hospital death.Without VTE prophylaxis, the overall VTE incidence in medical and general surgery hospitalized patients is in the range of 10% to 40%, while it ranges up to 40% to 60% in major orthopaedic surgery. With routine VTE prophylaxis, fatal pulmonary embolism is uncommon in orthopaedic patients and the rates of symptomatic VTE within three months are in the range of 1.3% to 10%.VTE prophylaxis methods are divided into mechanical and pharmacological. The former include mobilization, graduated compression stockings, intermittent pneumatic compression device and venous foot pumps; the latter include aspirin, unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), adjusted dose vitamin K antagonists, synthetic pentasaccharid factor Xa inhibitor (fondaparinux) and newer oral anticoagulants. LMWH seems to be more efficient overall compared with the other available agents. We remain sceptical about the use of aspirin as a sole method of prophylaxis in total hip and knee replacement and hip fracture surgery, while controversy still exists regarding the use of VTE prophylaxis in knee arthroscopy, lower leg injuries and upper extremity surgery. Cite this article: <iEFORT Open Rev</i 2018;3:136-148. DOI: 10.1302/2058-5241.3.170018." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_15383", "title": "Fractures of the femoral neck: a review and personal statement.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The number of hip fractures will increase enormously in the decades to come as will the cost of treatment of these patients do. In the USA the annual cost has estimated to be nearly $10 billion. Hip fractures, therefore, represent an enormous socio-economic and medical problem and challenge (orthopaedic) surgeons an anaesthetists to find the cheapest and most effective way to treat them. At the same time the search for preventive measures should be continued. Biphosphonates and hip protectors seem to be able to decrease the risk of suffering a hip fracture with 50%. The first classification of femoral neck fractures, proposed by Abraham Colles, in displaced and non-displaced (impacted) fractures appears to be still the most useful one. The Pauwels classification cannot be applied to the preoperative x-ray, because the fractured leg is always in external rotation. The Garden classification is not reproducible and does not lead us to the right treatment. Stability and healing chances of impacted fractures depend especially on age and general condition. In patients under 70 years of age without co-morbidity, the secondary instability rate after non-operative treatment is very low: 5%. In elderly people with multiple co-morbidity secondary instability can go up to 80%. These patients are better served with primary operative treatment. Although the majority of surgeons feel good with a strategy of prophylactic internal fixation in all patients, this author pleads for non-operative (early mobilization) treatment of all patients, who are healthy or have only one serious comorbidity. There is consensus about the treatment of displaced fractures in patients under 65 years of age: closed reduction and internal fixation. The best treatment for patients over 80 years of age is prosthetic replacement. In the (large) group of patients between 65 and 80 years of age calendar age is not a reliable guide to the right treatment. There is a growing conviction that the choice between internal fixation and prosthetic replacement in these patients should be made on the basis of the biological age (ASA-score, habitat, the activity level, the need for walking aids and cognitive function). Bone density does not seem to play an important role. If internal fixation is the preferred treatment, the choice of implant is controversial. It is the author's experience that fractures with a steep fracture line (Pauwels 3) should be anatomically reduced and stabilized with a sliding hip screw. The less steep fractures (Pauwels 1 and 2) can be slightly over-reduced in valgus and anteversion, which provides a bony support against shearing forces, and fixed with parallel screws according to the 3-point-fixation principle. The timing of surgery continues to be a controversial subject. From a recent study in our own institution we concluded that no significant association could be found between delay to surgery and the clinical outcomes.However, considering the trends towards less complications and shorter length of hospital stay, early surgery (within 1 day from admission) is likely to be beneficial for hip fracture patients who are able to undergo operation. There is agreement about the use of the cemented arthroplasty. If a hemiarthroplasty is chosen, the bipolar type is to be preferred to the unipolar type. The difference in price between both prostheses is negligible because the overall cost of the treatment have gone up so immensely. Furthermore, a basic advantage of the bipolar system is the relatively small operation, needed for conversion to a total hip replacement, because the stem can stay in place. As to the question hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, the discussion has not yet been closed. We studied the natural history of the cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty by evaluating 307 patients, operated between 1975 and 1989 in our institution. Only 3 patients, who not have been revised, were alive at the end of the observation period (2004). A striking difference was found in the occurrence of late mechanical complications (aseptic loosening and acetabular wear) between patients under 75 years of age (22%) and the older group of patients (6%). As to the patient's overall satisfaction 56% suffered no impairment from their sustained fracture, 36% were slightly impaired. We concluded that the use of the cemented bipolar prosthesis is justified in patients over 75 years of age. Patients between 65 and 75 years of age should either be treated with internal fixation or with a total hip replacement. NONUNION OF THE FEMORAL NECK: Nowadays in cases of nonunions of the femoral neck the surgeon is tempted to perform prosthetic replacement of the hip, the more so if there is also evidence of a disturbed vascularisation of the head. This will provide rapid pain relief and mobilization. However, long-term results of hip arthroplasties, especially in younger people and in presence of bone atrophy, are not always as expected and a less radical approach is worth considering. The intertrochanteric valgization osteotomy, described by Pauwels is an excellent alternative for patients up to 65 years of age with a non-union of the femoral neck. A union rate of 80-90% is described by most authors. Leg length, rotational and angular deformities can be corrected at the same time. Between 65 and 80 years a total hip replacement is probably the best option for fit patients. For elderly patients a cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty is an adequate treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en046_24231", "title": "I Care 4 U", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "\"I Care 4 U\", which was originally included on Aaliyah (2001), was released as the third single on April 8, 2003. The song had already peaked at number 16 on the Billboard Hot 100 and number three on the US Hot R&B/Hip-Hop Songs in 2002 as an \"album cut\" from Aaliyah despite not being released as a single. \"Come Over\" was released as the fourth and final single on May 27, 2003. It peaked at number 32 on the Billboard Hot 100 and at number nine on the Hot R&B/Hip-Hop Songs. Critical reception" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0877_3559", "title": "Fatal cobalt toxicity after total hip arthroplasty revision for fractured ceramic components.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Post-arthroplasty metallosis, which refers to metallic corrosion and deposition of metallic debris in the periprosthetic soft tissues of the body, is an uncommon complication. Systemic cobalt toxicity post-arthroplasty is extremely rare. The few known fatal cases of cobalt toxicity appear to be a result of replacing shattered ceramic heads with metal-on-metal or metal-on-polyethylene implants. Friction between residual shards of ceramic and cobalt-chromium implants allows release of cobalt into the synovial fluid and bloodstream, resulting in elevated whole blood cobalt levels and potential toxicity. This is a single patient chart review of a 60-year-old woman with prior ceramic-on-ceramic right total hip arthroplasty complicated by fractured ceramic components and metallosis of the joint. She underwent synovectomy and revision to a metal-on-polyethylene articulation. Ten months post-revision, she presented to the emergency department (ED) with right hip pain, dyspnea, worsening hearing loss, metallic dysgeusia, and weight loss. Chest CTA revealed bilateral pulmonary emboli (PE), and echocardiogram revealed new cardiomyopathy with global left ventricular hypokinesis with an ejection fraction (EF) of 35-40% inconsistent with heart strain from PE. Whole blood cobalt level obtained two days into her admission was 424.3 mcg/L and 24-h urine cobalt level was 4830.5 mcg/L. Although the patient initially clinically improved with regard to her PE and was discharged to home on hospital day 5, she returned 10 days later with a right hip dislocation and underwent closed reduction of the hip. The patient subsequently decompensated, developing cardiogenic shock, and respiratory failure. She went into pulseless electrical activity (PEA) and expired. Autopsy revealed an extensive metallic effusion surrounding the right hip prosthesis that tested positive for cobalt (41,000 mcg/L). There was also cobalt in the heart muscle tissue (2.5 mcg/g). A whole blood cobalt level obtained two days before she expired was 641.6 mcg/L. This is a case of fatal cobalt-induced cardiomyopathy in a patient whose ceramic components of a total hip arthroplasty fractured causing metallosis with worsening cobalt toxicity. We recommend that when a fractured device is revised with a prosthesis with cobalt-chromium components, whole blood and urine cobalt measurements should be obtained and periodically monitored to evaluate for rising concentrations. Providers should be aware of clinical signs and symptoms of cobalt toxicity in patients who have prostheses with cobalt-chromium components. If suspected, toxicology and orthopedics should be involved for possible chelation and removal of the prosthesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_20128", "title": "[Late results of conservative treatment of perthes disease.].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The objective of the submitted work was to assess the long-term prognosis of Perthes disease. From the originally invited 142 patients 72 attended the check-up examination, complete X-ray documentation was assembled only in 32 patients with 38 affected hip joints. The time interval which had elapsed since the onset of the disease was on average 17 years. The authors evaluated the clinical and X-ray picture of the hip joints and assessed retrospectively the affection of the head according to Catterall's method, incl. signs of a head associated with risk. Treatment provided during the sixties and beginning of the seventies did not meet the principles of modern \"containment\" therapy. It comprised bed rest, application of a plaster spike and aftertreatment with a Thomas splint. During late check-up examinations Wiberg's angle, the epiphyseal index, the index of overlapping of the head, the distance of the head from the floor of the acetabulum and the height of the peak of the greater trochanter above the centre of the head of the femur were assessed. In addition to assessment of these partial X-ray parameters the authors evaluated the spherical properties of the head by Mose's method and subjectively the X-ray picture, using a three grade scale (satisfactory, feasible, poor). In the majority of assessed parameters the authors found a statistically significant correlation with the retrospective classification of the original X-ray pictures classified according to Catterall. The clinical picture was satisfactory in the majority, the authors did not find painful restriction of movement, while almost half the patients reported occasional subjective complaints as regards the hip joint. On the X-ray changes in the overgrowth of the greater trochanter were more marked than changes of the spherical character of the head and the extent of decentering. The follow-up of the group will continue to obtain a longer time interval from the onset of the disease. Key words: Perthes disease, late results, Catterall's classification." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1119_2022", "title": "Bilateral atypical femoral fractures treated with compression hip screw and intramedullary nail fixation.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Atypical femoral fractures (AFF) are more difficult to treat than typical femoral fractures; they require strong fixation and good reduction. Intramedullary (IM) nailing is the first option for the treatment of complete AFF; however, there are few reports comparing IM nailing and extramedullary fixation. Moreover, there are no reports on the outcomes of bilateral atypical subtrochanteric femoral fractures treated with an IM nail on one side and a compression hip screw (CHS) on the other. We report the case of a 69-year-old woman who had been on risedronate sodium once a month since she was 58 years old. She reportedly felt pain in both her thighs due to an undiagnosed cause. Six months later, she fell and was diagnosed with bilateral complete atypical femoral subtrochanteric fractures (right side: Seinsheimer type IIC; left side: Seinsheimer type IIA). Four days later, she underwent CHS on the right side and IM nailing after open reduction surgery on the left. The reduction was successful. The left side healed 6 months after surgery, but the right side healed only after 14 months, despite assistance with low-intensity pulsed ultrasound. In atypical femoral subtrochanteric fractures, good reduction is important for healing, but, in this case, the CHS side healed slowly despite achievement of good reduction because of the difference in the fixation force between IM nailing and CHS, in addition to a probable occurrence of severely suppressed bone turnover (SSBT). Furthermore, reaming was not done on the CHS side, which may have contributed to the delay in bony union. IM nailing is the first option for atypical femoral subtrochanteric fractures because of faster union and lower reoperation rate than extramedullary fixation. Based on our findings, we recommend IM nailing as the first option for atypical femoral subtrochanteric fractures when good reduction can be achieved." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19769", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "or prior lower extremity revascularization. Dual antiplatelet therapy with both aspirin and clopidogrel is not more effective than aspirin alone in reducing cardiovascular morbidity and mortality rates in patients with PAD. The anticoagulant warfarin is as effective as antiplatelet therapy in preventing adverse cardiovascular events but causes more major bleeding; therefore, it is not indicated to improve outcomes in patients with chronic PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0843_15496", "title": "Case 222: Pericardioesophageal Fistula after Cardiac Radiofrequency Ablation.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "History A 56-year-old woman presented to the emergency department after a cross-country flight. While in flight, she experienced sudden onset of epigastric and midsternal chest pain with shortness of breath. Her symptoms improved markedly after she received oxygen on board, and she finished the flight without further incident. Once home later that night, the pain recurred, and she was taken to the hospital. Her history included chronic pain syndrome, hypertension, and refractory paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, for which she had undergone radiofrequency ablation on two occasions. Her most recent ablation was 1 month prior. Upon arrival in the emergency department, her vital signs were within normal limits, and an electrocardiogram was unchanged from baseline. A chest radiograph obtained at the time of physical examination was unchanged from baseline. Given her recent travel history, there was suspicion for a pulmonary embolism. Ventilation-perfusion imaging and lower extremity Doppler ultrasonography were performed (images not shown) and revealed no evidence of pulmonary embolism or lower extremity thrombus. Because of the patient's clinical stability and because her symptoms had improved, she declined admission for observation and returned home against medical advice. The patient returned to the emergency department 2 days later in severe distress, with unstable vital signs, a jaundiced appearance, and substantial pain in her chest and abdomen. Her creatinine level was 4.4 mg/dL (388.9 μmol/L) (increased from 0.9 mg/dL [79.6 μmol/L] 2 days prior). Frontal and lateral radiographs of the chest were obtained and indicated increasing pericardial effusion. Bedside echocardiography enabled confirmation of these radiographic findings, and pericardiocentesis was performed. The patient's condition immediately improved, and she was admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit. Her symptoms recurred 3 days later, and a pericardial drain was placed. Fluid cultures were preliminarily positive for enterococcus and gram-negative rods. After drain placement, she was scheduled for definitive treatment of recurrent symptomatic effusion. The preoperative work-up included a water-soluble contrast material-enhanced (iodixanol, 320 mg of iodine per milliliter) esophagram with computed tomography (CT) of the chest performed immediately thereafter. " }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_9388", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "dosing The doses of LMWH recommended for prophylaxis or treatment vary depending on the LMWH preparation. For prophylaxis, once-daily SC doses of 4000–5000 units are often used, whereas doses of 2500–3000 units are given when the drug is administered twice daily. For treatment of venous thromboembolism, a dose of 150–200 units/kg is given if the drug is administered once daily. If a twice-daily regimen is used, a dose of 100 units/kg is given. In patients with unstable angina, LMWH is given SC on a twice-daily basis at a dose of 100–120 units/kg. side effects The major complication of LMWH is bleeding. Meta-analyses suggest that the risk of major bleeding is lower with LMWH than with unfractionated heparin. HIT and osteoporosis are less common with LMWH than with unfractionated heparin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0894_7462", "title": "Failure of Polyethelene Insert Locking Mechanism after a Posterior Stabilised Total Knee Arthroplasty- A Case Report.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Disengagement of polyethylene insert used in total knee arthroplasty is a rare but serious complication. Still rarer is disengagement because of failure of tibial insert locking mechanism. We report a previously unpublished complication of polyethylene insert locking mechanism failure in a 10-months-old posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty in a 70-year-old woman with osteoarthritis for whom Attune (Depuy) knee implant was used. A 70-year-old female underwent (Attune, Depuy) primary bilateral posterior stabilised total knee arthroplasty in a private hospital. The patient did not have any complaints and had had been functioning well post her arthroplasty. After five months of surgery she had a fall and sustained injury over right hip which was treated with Cemented Bipolar Hemiarthroplasty. Ten months after index surgery, she sustained trivial fall and presented to the same hospital with knee pain and swelling, where the right knee prosthesis was found to be dislocated. An attempted closed reduction under anaesthesia failed, after which she was referred to our centre with an unstable, painful, swollen right knee in a long knee brace. The physical examination at the time of admission showed posterior sag of the tibia, fullness in the postero-lateral corner, quadriceps muscle atrophy without any neurovascular deficit oflower leg. Postero-lateral dislocation was confirmed with radiographs. Surgical error as a possible causative factor was excluded because patient had been functioning well after surgery. Her comorbidities included hypertension and hyponatremia. ESR and CRP were within normal limits. An open reduction surgery was planned. On exposure, polyethylene was found in the postero-lateral corner of the knee. We were not sure that revising the polyethylene alone would suffice as the poly and locking mechanism was of a relatively new design and hence it was decided to proceed with revision of the components. Revision was done with stemmed components, distal femoral augments and a constrained prosthesis (Total Condylar 3, Depuy). Intraoperative cultures were negative. The patient had an uncomplicated post-operative course. Disengagement of polyethylene should be considered as a differential diagnosis in patients who present with acute swelling and instability of the knee. Though it's a rare complication, there is a possibility that design of the implant or its locking mechanism could contribute to dislocations in future." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_281", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "5-year mortality, the 33% relative treatment benefit would reduce absolute mortality by 2% (from 6% to 4%), and the NNT for the same therapy in this lower-risk group of patients would be 50. Although not always made explicit, comparisons of NNT estimates from different studies should account for the duration of follow-up used to create each estimate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0887_18066", "title": "Repeated posterior dislocation of total hip arthroplasty after spinal corrective long fusion with pelvic fixation.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Several reports have indicated that anterior dislocation of total hip arthroplasty (THA) can be caused by spinal degenerative changes with excessive pelvic retroversion. However, no reports have indicated that posterior dislocation can be caused by fixed pelvic anteversion after corrective spine surgery. We describe a rare case experiencing repeated posterior THA dislocation that occurred at 5 months after corrective spinal long fusion with pelvic fixation. A 64-year-old woman had undergone bilateral THA at 13 years before presenting to our institution. She had been diagnosed with kyphoscoliosis and underwent three subsequent spinal surgeries after the THA. We finally performed spinal corrective long fusion from T5 to ilium with pelvic fixation (with iliac screws). Five months later, she experienced severe hip pain when she tried to stand up from the toilet, and was unable to move, due to posterior THA dislocation. Therefore, we performed closed reduction under sedation, and her left hip was easily reduced. After the reduction, she started to walk with a hip abduction brace. However, she had experienced 5 subsequent dislocations. Based on our findings and previous reports, we have hypothesized that posterior dislocation could be occurred after spinal corrective long fusion with pelvic fixation due to three mechanisms: (1) a change in the THA cup alignment before and after spinal corrective long fusion surgery, (2) decreased and fixed pelvic posterior tilt in the sitting position, or (3) the trunk's forward tilting during standing-up motion after spinopelvic fixation. Spinal long fusion with pelvic fixation could be a risk factor for posterior THA dislocation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_10947", "title": "[Unilateral spinal anaesthesia in elderly patient for hip trauma: a pilot study].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Fractured neck of femur is encountered more frequently as life expectancy increases. All anaesthetic techniques aim to avoid deleterious fall in arterial blood pressure. The haemodynamic effects of hypobaric unilateral spinal anaesthesia have been rarely assessed in patients over 80 year's old. This study aims to do that in a prospective manner. Twenty-five patients were enrolled. Following a preload with HES 240/0.576 % (Hesteril) (5 ml/kg) and the administration of an iliofascial block, patients were placed in the lateral decubitus position, operative side uppermost. 3.5 ml of 0.12% hypobaric bupivacaine was administered intrathecally at a rate of 0.25 ml/second. Patients were kept in position for 15 minutes. Systolic, mean and diastolic arterial pressures, heart rate, SaO2 % and ephedrine consumption were recorded at five minutes intervals as was the rate of onset, height and duration of sensory and motor block and extent of bilateralization. Patient and surgeon satisfaction scores were also recorded. No significant changes in systolic, mean and diastolic pressures, or SaO2 % occurred. Median onset times of sensory and motor block were 8+/-5 and 16+/-7 minutes on the operative side and 30+/-15 and 36+/-15 minutes on the contralateral side in those with bilateralization, respectively. The maximum height of sensory block was T6 for sept patients, T8 for huit patients and T8-T10 for the remainder. Mean duration of sensory and motor block was 134+/-26 and 119+/-24 minutes on the operative side and 100+/-26 and 98+/-25 minutes on the contralateral side, respectively. In 12 patients (48%) bilateralization of their block occurred. Patients and surgeons rated the technique highly. Hypobaric unilateral spinal anaesthesia is a simple technique, produces satisfactory operative conditions and induces very little haemodynamic change in the elderly population." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0992_702", "title": "Anterior Release and Anterior Reconstruction for a Neglected Osteoporotic Odontoid Fracture.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 70 years old lady presented to us with history of a fall 3 months prior. She had suffered a type 2 odontoid fracture with atlantoaxial dislocation, that was not reducible by traction. She had symptoms of neck pain with inability to hold the neck upright. The patient was subsequently planned for anterior release and reduction of odontoid fracture dislocation with posterior stabilization in the same sitting. The patient was treated with cervical skeletal traction and immobilized. However, she developed occipital sore during the period and was mobilized with brace after which she developed myelopathic symptoms and gait disturbance due to the collapse of fracture segment. The patient was planned for anterior release and fixation with contoured reconstruction plate fixing C1 lateral mass to the lateral mass on the right side and C1 lateral mass to C2 body on the left side primarily with distraction of the C1-C2 joint by autologous tricortical iliac bone graft. The posterior stabilization was planned after healing of the sore, and the patient was counseled for the same. However, the patient was lost on follow-up and returned at 3-month postoperative period with collapse of the graft, resubluxation of C1-C2 segment, and failure of anterior fixation. The standard modality of treatment for such cases includes an anterior release of contracted soft tissues and ligaments and posterior stabilization with fusion in a single setting. However, it is the posterior fixation that stabilizes the fracture and prevents it from redislocation. Anterior fixation as a stand-alone treatment in osteoporotic bone has high risks of failure due to severe posterior tensile stresses. This article describes the importance of posterior fixation in osteoporotic bone based on our experience." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_18286", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "HFrEF is accompanied by a hypercoagulable state and therefore a high risk of thromboembolic events, including stroke, pulmonary embolism, and peripheral arterial embolism. Although long-term oral anticoagulation is established in certain groups, including patients with atrial fibrillation, the data are insufficient to support the use of warfarin in patients in normal sinus rhythm without a history of thromboembolic events or echocardiographic evidence of left ventricular thrombus. In the large Warfarin versus Aspirin in Reduced Cardiac Ejection Fraction (WARCEF) trial, 2305 patients with HFrEF were randomly allocated to either full-dose aspirin or international normalized ratio– controlled warfarin with follow-up for 6 years. Among patients with reduced LVEF who were in sinus rhythm, there was no significant overall difference in the primary outcome between treatment with warfarin and treatment with aspirin. A reduced risk of ischemic stroke with warfarin was offset by an increased" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1094_2769", "title": "The Young Heart Tears Easily Apart: A Case Report of Spontaneous Coronary Artery Dissection.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Spontaneous coronary artery dissection (SCAD) is a rare cause of acute coronary syndrome (ACS), seen mostly in young females. The rarity and limited knowledge of the disease make its management challenging. Prompt diagnosis of the condition is extremely important to decrease both long- and short-term complications. Treatment options depend on hemodynamic stability and the location of the dissection- with more distal lesions treated more conservatively as opposed to proximal lesions which are treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The following are the two cases with different presentation, management and outcomes. Our first patient was a 35-year-old woman with no medical history who presented with acute, anginal pain, diaphoresis and palpitations. She was hemodynamically stable on presentation, with work-up significant for electrocardiogram (ECG) with sinus bradycardia, ST elevation in leads V1-V6, and elevated troponin level of 4 ng/ml. There was no evidence of a pulmonary embolism on computed tomography (CT) of the chest. A coronary angiogram showed 100% dissection of the proximal to mid-left anterior descending (LAD) artery. Attempts to place a stent in the proximal to mid LAD were unsuccessful as the true lumen of the LAD was not accessible. The patient became hemodynamically unstable, and an emergent CABG was done, restoring blood flow. The patient recovered during her hospital stay and was discharged with dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), beta-blockers, and atorvastatin. The second patient was a 28-year-old woman, with a history of hypertension who presented with anginal chest pain. Workup showed ECG with minimal ST elevations in anteroseptal leads, with elevated troponin level to 0.71 ng/ml. Coronary angiogram showed 40-50% stenosis of the mid LAD with an aneurysmal segment. An echocardiogram showed no evidence of wall motion abnormalities, and she had a normal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF). She was discharged home the next day, on medical management. After two days, she returned to the hospital with similar complaints, with work-up significant for ECG with non-specific ST-T abnormality, and troponin level which peaked at 2.22 ng/ml. She was started on a heparin drip, and a repeat left heart catheterization revealed type 2 dissection of the mid to distal LAD, with intravascular ultrasound showing a fractional flow reserve of 0.76. She was discharged home on DAPT, beta-blocker, calcium channel blocker (CCB), and atorvastatin, with close cardiology follow up. These two cases highlight the importance of keeping in mind the possibility of SCAD, especially when relatively healthy young women present with anginal symptoms. Early diagnosis of the condition and prompt management are extremely important to ensure favourable outcomes. The two cases also describe the coronary angiogram findings in SCAD, and the different strategies employed in the management of this condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0373_5786", "title": "[The best in 2000 on thrombosis].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "It is nearly impossible to follow and integrate all the new information in each subspeciality of cardiology. In the last months, important data has been published which may change clinical practice. In this domain, over half the cases of suspected coronary chest pain would only require a very short stay in a chest pain unit. The history, an accurate evaluation of symptoms, the application of Bayesian analysis, ECG interpretation and serum troponine measurement, associated with a degree of clinical experience, will allow orientation of the patient to a coronary care unit or hospital discharge (with possible out-patient referral). Patients with true unstable angina will no longer be treated by continuous intravenous injection of non-fractionated heparin because, in theory and in practice, this has been replaced with subcutaneous LMW heparin.... On the other hand, the electric syringe will continue to be required for the integration of the anti-GPIIB-IIIA for the treatment of unstable angina after the recommendations published concomitantly in the United States and Europe. This type of patient, especially with a \"positive\" troponine, will probably not be kept waiting long before referral to the catheter laboratory for coronary angiography and revascularisation. The long-term results of the FRISC II trial are confirmed by an even earlier invasive approach (Tactics-Timi 18) using anti-GPIIb-IIIa. In the first hours, and independently of other older prognostic factors, it will be possible to \"predict or compare\" the risk of coronary recurrence based on the results of certain biological \"markers\". In many centres, cases with ST elevation on the ECG could well be included in a phase III \"medical protocol\", associating a half-dose thrombolytic and an anti-GPIIb-IIIa. Finally, patients who will have been admitted to the chest pain unit with a suspected pulmonary embolism, for example because they had not been treated prophylactically with aspirin before hip surgery, will probably have the choice, after d-dimer measurement, between pulmonary scintigraphy and helicoidal CT scan. If the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is confirmed, a single subcutaneous injection of LMW heparin could replace the conventional continuous intravenous injection of heparin. The earliest possible oral anticancer ... pardon me I anticoagulant treatment should be prescribed and explained." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0782_4511", "title": "Pain after hip arthroplasty managed by Brennan Healing Science.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A case is presented illustrating the potential effect of Brennan Healing Science on pain following hip arthroplasty for avascular necrosis. A 54-year-old woman experienced anterior groin pain, numbness at the bottom of her foot, and occasional grinding at her hip 22 years after right total hip arthroplasty secondary to avascular necrosis. X-ray films showed signs of osteolysis behind the acetabular cup and asymmetric decreased polyethylene thickness of the acetabular prosthetic. Her orthopedic surgeon advised the patient to follow up every 6-9 months to avoid catastrophic failure of the implant, with plans for surgical revision to be scheduled at the next appointment. The patient sought alternative treatment to avoid an invasive procedure. On presentation, the patient had difficulty walking up the stairs into the treatment room due to pain which she rated a 9/10. She found it painful to rotate, flex, extend her hip, or to sit. Hands-on healing techniques based on the Brennan Healing Science method were initiated, starting at the feet, balancing the energy, and working the way up the joints. Once the work at the hip was completed, the hands-on techniques continued up the centerline of the body and the healing was brought to a close. On completion of a 60-minute healing, the patient was able to stand freely and rated her pain as a 4/10. Flexion, extension, and rotation at the hip were no longer distressing. She was able to walk up and down stairs without distress and denied instability, bursitis, or trochanteric or iliopsoas pain or swelling. Repeat X-rays showed decrease in bone spurs and no hardware problem, and her orthopedic surgeon recommended follow-up after 2 years. It is suggested that Brennan Healing Science techniques could play an effective and cost-efficient role in the treatment of pain following hip arthroplasty. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1143_6898", "title": "Clinical implications of anticoagulant oral therapy in elderly patients with hip fracture.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Proximal femur fractures (PFFs) are among the most common fractures, especially in the elderly population. A PFF often represents a life-changing event. Their dramatic effects are attributable not only to the massive hemorrhages caused by the fracture, but also to the high risk of dramatic complications. These risks are supposed to be even higher for patients under oral anticoagulant treatment. In this study we evaluated how oral anticoagulant therapy effected patient's prognosis.   Methods:Ours was a case-control review of over-65 patients treated surgically for proximal femur fractures between 2013 and 2019. Cases were divided in 2 groups depending if they were (Group A) or were not (Group B) under oral anticoagulant therapy at the moment of hospitalization.   Results:200 cases were included in our study: 100 in Group A and 100 in Group B. Surgical delay was significantly higher for cases under oral anticoagulant treatment compared to the other cases. Group A cases were transfused with a significantly higher frequency and with more blood units compared to Group B (p=0.0300; p=0.013). Combined cardiological and vascular complications occurred in 21 cases (10.5%), being significantly more common in Group A (16) than Group B (5), as testified by a chi-square test (P=0.011).   Conclusions:Cases under oral anticoagulant therapy are frail patients with a higher risk to develop massive hemorrhages after an hip fracture. For this reason, it is mandatory to achieve an early stabilization of patient's clinical conditions and then perform surgery as soon as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1102_22675", "title": "Case 294: Catastrophic Antiphospholipid Syndrome.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "History A 50-year-old woman presented to the emergency department of our hospital with a 2-day history of lower limb pain associated with unusual asthenia and diffuse arthralgia over the past 3 weeks. She was a native of Guinea and had lived in France for most of her life, working as a personal care assistant. Her only medical history of note was an occurrence of fetal death at 12 weeks gestation when she was 35 years old. She had bilateral lower limb swelling, without changes in skin temperature or color. All proximal and distal arterial pulses were felt. General physical examination findings were otherwise unremarkable. Her laboratory tests showed a decreased hemoglobin concentration of 8.9 g/dL (normal range, 12-16 g/dL), a decreased platelet count of 45 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal range, [150-400] × 10<sup9</sup/L), a C-reactive protein level of 158 mg/L (normal range, &lt;5 mg/L), and a d-dimer level of 2000 mg/L (normal range, &lt;500 mg/L]). Compression US of the lower limbs revealed bilateral calf vein thrombosis involving the fibular and posterior tibial veins. Curative anticoagulation using low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin, subcutaneous injection of 100 units per kilogram of body weight twice a day) was started. The day after the start of anticoagulation therapy, the patient reported dyspnea and acute chest and abdominal pain. Her vital signs were assessed, and she had elevated blood pressure and increased heart rate and respiratory rate, but she remained afebrile. Her cardiac auscultation was unremarkable, besides tachycardia. Skin examination revealed small areas of necrosis on the fingertips of her right hand. Laboratory studies were repeated and showed an increase in serum creatinine level from a baseline value of 0.49 mg/dL to a new value of 1.01 mg/dL (normal range, 0.6-1.1 mg/dL), an apparition of low-grade proteinuria of 0.43 g per day (normal range, &lt;0.3 g/ day), and a high serum troponin level of 1066 ng/L (normal range, &lt;14 ng/L), whereas electrocardiography showed no ST segment modification and echocardiography revealed a moderately altered left ventricular ejection fraction (45%). There was no coronary occlusion seen at emergency coronarography. Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis was performed (Figs 1, 2) together with cardiac MRI (Figs 3, 4)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1024_11555", "title": "[Initiation of pharmacotherapy as a risk factor for older patients.]", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The article presents the literature and original data on the problems of falls in elderly patients. The connection of the fact of falling with initiation of therapy by a number of drugs known to have a negative impact on the risk of falling is considered. The article presents data on the frequency and structure of falls on the example of patients with cardiovascular diseases older than 75 years, treated in a multidisciplinary hospital. The analysis of the data showed a tendency of prevalence of the fact of falling in 1/3 patients (33,8%) in the first 5 days of hospital stay, which may be associated with high drug burden and the appointment of «new» drugs for the patient. The study noted that it was on the first day that the selection of therapy took place and additional drugs were often prescribed, leading to a state of polypragmasia. Analysis of individual groups of drugs was able to reliably confirm the relationship between the appointment of drugs that increase." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1085_24991", "title": "Case 294.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "History A 50-year-old woman presented to the emergency department of our hospital with a 2-day history of lower limb pain associated with unusual asthenia and diffuse arthralgia over the past 3 weeks. She was a native of Guinea and had lived in France for most of her life, working as a personal care assistant. Her only medical history of note was an occurrence of fetal death at 12 weeks gestation when she was 35 years old. She had bilateral lower limb swelling, without changes in skin temperature or color. All proximal and distal arterial pulses were felt. General physical examination findings were otherwise unremarkable. Her laboratory tests showed a decreased hemoglobin concentration of 8.9 g/dL (normal range, 12-16 g/dL), a decreased platelet count of 45 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal range, 150-400 × 10<sup9</sup/L), a C-reactive protein level of 158 mg/L (normal range, &lt;5 mg/L) and a d-dimer level of 2000 mg/L (normal range, &lt;500 mg/L). Compression US of the lower limbs revealed bilateral calf vein thrombosis involving the fibular and posterior tibial veins. Curative anticoagulation using low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin, subcutaneous injection of 100 units per kilogram of body weight twice a day) was started. The day after the start of anticoagulation therapy, the patient reported dyspnea and acute chest and abdominal pain. Her vital signs were assessed, and she had elevated blood pressure and increased heart rate and respiratory rate, but she remained afebrile. Her cardiac auscultation was unremarkable, besides tachycardia. Skin examination revealed small areas of necrosis on the fingertips of her right hand. Laboratory studies were repeated and showed an increase in serum creatinine level from a baseline value of 0.49 mg/dL to a new value of 1.01 mg/dL (normal range, 0.6-1.1 mg/dL), an apparition of low-grade proteinuria of 0.43 g per day (normal range, &lt;0.3 g/day), and a high serum troponin level of 1066 ng/L (normal range, &lt;14 ng/L), whereas electrocardiography showed no ST segment modification and echocardiography revealed a moderately altered left ventricular ejection fraction (45%). There was no coronary occlusion seen at emergency coronarography. Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis was performed (Figs 1, 2) together with cardiac MRI (Figs 3, 4)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_3365", "title": "Analysis of Factors Affecting the Third- and Twelfth-Month Mortality in Patients with Hip Fractures Aged 80 Years and Older.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "The purpose of this study was to evaluate the possible risk factors that are related with mortality at third and twelfth months after hip fractures in a large population of patients aged 80 years and older. 605 patients were evaluated in terms of the localization of the fracture, gender, age, side of the fracture, the type of applied procedure, anesthesia type, hospitalization time, time to operation, comorbidities, ASA score, the values of preoperative hemoglobin, lymphocyte and neutrophil percentage, white blood cell, albumin, sodium levels. The state mortality system was used to investigate whether patients are alive or died. Statistical analysis was performed to evaluate the important factors on third- and twelfth-month mortality. Male gender, neurologic-cardiac-chronic obstructive pulmonary (COP) diseases, preoperative hemoglobin level &lt; 10 g/dL, arthroplasty and external fixator groups, ASA grade ≥ 3, delaying the surgery more than 4 days, longer hospitalization time, lower albumin levels and advanced age were found to be statistically significant factors for 3-month mortality (<ip</i values were; 0.01, 0.02, 0.01, 0.01, 0.047, 0.01, 0.02, 0.002, &lt; 0.001, 0.002 and 0.01, respectively). Male gender, hypertension-neurologic-cardiac diseases, preoperative hemoglobin level &lt; 10 g/dL, delaying the surgery more than 4 days, longer hospitalization time, lower lymphocyte percentage, lower albumin levels and advanced age were found to be statistically significant factors for 12-month mortality (<ip</i values were; &lt; 0.001, 0.01, 0.01, 0.01, 0.03, 0.01, &lt; 0.001, 0.01, 0.004 and &lt; 0.001, respectively). COP, advanced age, and heart disease were the most important factors in 3-month mortality. Long hospitalization time, male gender and advanced age were the most important factors affecting the 12-month mortality.<iLevel of Evidence</i Prognostic level IV." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 275 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 45 ] ], "text": "The characterization of cognitive deterioration processes is still clinical, with imaging tests (MRI or PET) being a support tool in some occasions. The first option would be the correct one because it allows us to measure in a standardized way each of the cognitive domains," }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 275 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 45 ] ], "text": "The characterization of cognitive deterioration processes is still clinical, with imaging tests (MRI or PET) being a support tool in some occasions. The first option would be the correct one because it allows us to measure in a standardized way each of the cognitive domains," }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Neuropsychological evaluation.", "2": "Brain magnetic resonance imaging.", "3": "Positron Emission Tomography.", "4": "Electroencephalogram.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1048_10214", "title": "Progressive amnestic cognitive impairment in a middle-aged patient with developmental language disorder: a case report.", "score": 0.014085205574567276, "content": "Developmental disorder and dementia in older adults have been considered unrelated clinical entities because their timing of diagnosis differs greatly; however, recent studies have suggested an association between them. This case describes a middle-aged patient with language disorder exhibiting progressive amnestic cognitive impairment. A 44-year-old Japanese man with long-term language dysfunction presented for his first-ever medical evaluation at age 36 years. Although his conversational ability had been impaired since childhood, he was able to graduate from secondary school and gain unskilled employment. At age 36 years, however, his workplace environment became more stressful, which led to behavioral problems that necessitated medical consultation. He consulted two psychiatrists in vain. At age 44 years, the third attending psychiatrist examined him in detail. The major component of his language disorder was amnestic cognitive impairment in the language domain as shown by logical memory subtests of the Wechsler Memory Scale-Revised. Magnetic resonance imaging showed normal findings for his age and no small vessel disease. Global cerebral hypoperfusion versus cerebellar blood flow was shown on (<sup123</supI) iodoamphetamine single-photon emission computed tomography, and amyloid-β deposition was negative on positron emission tomography with <sup11</supC-Pittsburgh compound B. Pathologic tau accumulation was negative on <sup18</supF-THK5351 positron emission tomography imaging. Laboratory tests show no infections, no vitamin deficiencies, and no other diseases that may cause dementia. Clinical features, results of neurocognitive tests and neuroimaging studies showed no well-known neurodegenerative diseases. Collectively, he was diagnosed with language disorder based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition criteria. Over a 2-year follow-up period, amnestic cognitive impairment in visual and language domains progressed in parallel with global cerebral hypoperfusion. This case suggests a possible link between language disorder as defined by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition criteria and progressive amnestic cognitive impairment in middle age, which may ultimately lead to dementia, derived from a neurodegenerative disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en190_15193", "title": "Pseudodementia", "score": 0.013646308451069827, "content": "A significant overlap in cognitive and neuropsychological dysfunction in Dementia and pseudodementia patients increases the difficulty in diagnosis. Differences in the severity of impairment and quality of patients' responses can be observed, and a test of antisaccadic movements may be used to differentiate the two, as pseudodementia patients have poorer performance on this test. Individuals with pseudodementia present considerable cognitive deficits, including disorders in learning, memory and psychomotor performance. Substantial evidences from brain imaging such as CT scanning and positron emission tomography (PET) have also revealed abnormalities in brain structure and function. A comparison between dementia and pseudodementia is shown below." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0707_11991", "title": "[A clinicopathological study of young-onset dementia: report of 2 autopsied cases].", "score": 0.01356795378534509, "content": "We retrospectively examined the clinical features and the neuroradiological findings on autopsy of 2 cases of young-onset dementia. The patient in case 1 was a 43-year-old woman who was unable to determine the time on the clock and who made frivolous remarks. Neuropsychological test batteries demonstrated memory impairment and frontal lobe dysfunction. T2-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head revealed abnormal high-intensity signals around the lateral ventricles and thinning of the corpus callosum. Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) revealed patchy reduction in the accumulation of tracers in both the frontal lobes. Her neurological condition gradually deteriorated, and she died 13 years after the onset of the disease. She was clinically diagnosed with atypical Alzheimer's disease on the basis of visual cognitive impairment and memory impairment observed in the initial phase. However, the neuropathological diagnosis was adult-onset leukodystrophy with axonal spheroids. The patient in case 2 was a 43-year-old man who had gradually started behaving selfishly and had become ill-tempered and apathetic. He was admitted to a hospital. He was anosognosic and showed frontal lobe dysfunction. T2-weighted MRI scan of the brain showed abnormal high-intensity signals around the lateral ventricles; atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, hippocampus, and brainstem; and thinning of the corpus callosum. SPECT revealed patchy reduction in the accumulation of tracers in both the frontal lobes and the cerebellum. His neurological condition gradually deteriorated, and he died after being clinically ill for 7 years. The patient was clinically diagnosed with frontotemporal dementia on the basis of the clinical features and MRI findings. However, the neuropathological diagnosis was chronic meningoencephalitis. The frequency of neurological metabolic and inflammatory diseases is significantly high although it is not as high as that of degenerative diseases in young-onset dementia. Since such diseases may respond to therapy, they should be considered in the differential diagnosis of young-onset dementia, especially in patients presenting with atypical clinical features. Neuroradiological examination may contribute to the differential diagnosis of atypical dementia at young age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0399_4134", "title": "[Dementia with frontal lobe atrophy: clinical study from 18 patients with cognitive impairment and frontal lobe involvement detected by structural and functional neuroimaging].", "score": 0.013311688311688313, "content": "To characterize clinically patients with cognitive impairment and frontal lobe degeneration at neuroimaging. Patients diagnosed of dementia or mild neurocognitive impairment by DSM IV criteria and neuropsychological tests with frontal lobe atrophy and hipoperfusion detected by computed tomography and single photon emission computed tomography. 18 patients, 5:1 on behalf of women; mean age at onset, 74 years; hereditary for dementia, 38%; mean duration of illness at first testing, 2 years; the most common initial symptoms, memory loss. At initial examination, psychotic or behavioral impairment was found in 61% and parkinsonism in 38%, the commonest cognitive troubles at this moment was the executive function, language and anterograde memory dysfunctions at the same rate. Frontal lobe atrophy and hypoperfusion was found in 100%, temporal in 88% and parietal in 38%. Electroencephalogram was pathological in 33%. The course of the disease was progressive but with fluctuation in 27%. Frontotemporal dementia clinical criteria in 13 patients, 4 of them clinical criteria of dementia with Lewy bodies too, and clinical criteria of Alzheimer s disease in 5." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_6388", "title": "Brain metabolism as measured with positron emission tomography: serial assessment in a patient with familial Alzheimer's disease.", "score": 0.012903225806451613, "content": "This paper presents, for the first time, repeated assessments of cerebral metabolism and neuropsychological competence in early Alzheimer's disease. Regional cerebral metabolic rates for glucose were measured with positron emission tomography and 18F-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose on three occasions at 8-month intervals, in a 57-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease of 2 1/2 years' duration and with a family history of neuropathologically confirmed Alzheimer's disease. Data were compared with mean cerebral metabolic rates from 12 healthy men. No differences in regional cerebral metabolic rates for glucose were found on the initial patient scan, whereas metabolism on the second and third scans was reduced significantly in the parietal lobes and bilaterally in some parietal lobe regions. Memory loss was demonstrable at the first scan, but then and at later scans, other aspects of cognitive performance remained within normal limits (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, Boston Naming Test, Two-dimensional Block Construction). The results show that memory loss can precede a measurable reduction of cerebral metabolism in early Alzheimer's disease, but that later reductions in parietal lobe metabolism may not be accompanied by additional measurable neuropsychological deficits." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1030_10486", "title": "Report of a Case of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease With an Unusual Clinical Presentation.", "score": 0.012824675324675325, "content": "We describe the clinical features, neuropsychological tests, laboratory, electroencephalography (EEG), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and positron emission tomography (PET) findings of a 59-year-old woman who presented to our Centre for cognitive impairment since few months, with language disturbances, particularly anomia, dyscalculia, and memory loss. The clinical and neuropsychological features were non-specific and overlapping with those of other rapidly progressing neurodegenerative disorders. However, brain MRI played a pivotal role in the diagnosis, showing cortical diffusion restriction, particularly in the parietal lobes and posterior cingulum, with sparing of the perirolandic cortex, typical of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Brain MRI abnormalities were visible since the first evaluation and remained stable at 2 and 6 weeks follow up. Basal ganglia and thalami were never involved. PET showed left lateralized reduced glucose metabolism, with partial overlap with MRI signal abnormalities. Despite MRI were strongly indicative of CJD, clinical, laboratory and EEG findings did not fulfill the diagnostic criteria for CJD which applied at the time of clinical assessment. Indeed, neither myoclonus, visual or cerebellar signs or akinetic mutism were present. Also, the characteristic periodic sharp wave complexes were absent at baseline EEG, and the CSF assay for 14-3-3 was negative. We, therefore, performed a real-time quaking-induced conversion (RT-QuIC) assay on a frozen sample of corticospinal fluid (CSF), which showed a positive result. RT-QuIC is a prion protein conversion assay that has shown high diagnostic sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of CJD. RT-QuIC has been recently incorporated in the National CJD Research and Surveillance Unit and Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) diagnostic criteria for CJD. The fatal evolution of the disease brought the patient to death 13 months after symptoms onset. Pathology proved the diagnosis of sporadic CJD, subtype MM/MV 2C." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0765_1783", "title": "Difficulty with learning of exercise instructions associated with 'working memory' dysfunction and frontal glucose hypometabolism in a patient with very mild subcortical vascular dementia with knee osteoarthritis.", "score": 0.010006131207847945, "content": "We present a patient with no dementia, depression or apathy, who had difficulty in learning self-exercise instructions. The patient was an 80-year-old right-handed woman who was admitted to a rehabilitation unit to receive postoperative rehabilitation after a femoral neck fracture. She was instructed quadriceps isometric exercises to perform 10 repetitions and to hold each stretch for 10 s. She performed the exercise correctly with motivation, but she had difficulty in learning the number of repetitions and the duration of each stretch. She had no history of cerebrovascular accident and the neurological examination was normal. Neuropsychological testing, MRI and (18)F-fluoro- D-glucose-positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) were performed to examine the neural mechanisms associated with this difficulty in learning instructions. Neuropsychological tests revealed dysfunction of working memory while other cognitive domains were relatively preserved. Her neuropsychological tests scores were (1) Mini-Mental State Examination: 24 (mild cognitive impairment), (2) Geriatric Depression Scale-15: 2 (no depression), (3) Apathy Scale: 2 (no apathy), (4) digit span forward: 5 (normal), (5) digit span backward: 2 (impaired), (6) visuospatial span forward: 4 (normal), (7) visuospatial span backward: 2 (impaired), (8) frontal assessment battery: 11 (normal), (9) Weigl test: 0 (impaired), (10) trail making test A: 52 s (normal), (11) train making test B: failed (impaired). T2-weighted and fluid-attenuated inversion recovery MRI showed high signal-intensity lesions in the cerebral deep white matter. FDG-PET revealed hypometabolic areas in the bilateral frontal lobes, particularly in the bilateral dorsolateral frontal area, anterior cingulate cortex and orbitofrontal cortex. One of the possible neural mechanisms underlying the learning difficulties in this patient may have been partial blockage of the cingulofrontal network by deep white matter lesions. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0255_13299", "title": "[Slowly progressive memory impairment without generalized dementia--a clinical and radiological study].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We report a patient with a ten-year history of slowly progressive recent memory decline without additional cognitive impairment in presenility. A right-handed Japanese barber first experienced forgetfulness at the age of 59. Neurological examination at age 64 revealed no abnormality except for severe impairment in memorizing. Brain CT-scans were normal. In spite of gradually deteriorating memory, he was capable of organizing his work until the age of 67 years. At age 69, he showed intense recent memory defect and disorientation in time, but immediate memory span and remote memory beyond the retrograde gap were better preserved. Intelligence quotient (IQ) on the Wechsler adult intelligence scale-R remained 85 (verbal IQ, 88: performance IQ, 83). Neurological examination was negative. He showed no signs of aphasia, agnosia, or apraxia. Minimal organic personality changes were noticed. Brain CT-scans and MRI revealed mild atrophy of the temporal lobes and hippocampal formation on both sides. I123-IMP single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) disclosed a decrease of cerebral blood flow in both the inferior temporal and superior frontal regions. SPECT after acetazolamide administration showed augmented accumulation in areas with decreased accumulation at baseline. Despite progressive memory impairment, the absence of aphasia, agnosia, or apraxia differentiates our case from more common Alzheimer's disease. A degenerative disorder of focal cerebral atrophy or \"simple senile dementia\" of presenile onset was suspected of causing the underlying pathophysiological changes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_25684", "title": "Semantic memory", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Present and future research Semantic memory has had a comeback in interest in the past 15 years, due in part to the development of functional neuroimaging methods such as positron emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which have been used to address some of the central questions about our understanding of semantic memory. Positron emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance (fMRI) allow cognitive neuroscientists to explore different hypotheses concerning the neural network organization of semantic memory. By using these neuroimaging techniques researchers can observe the brain activity of participants while they perform cognitive tasks. These tasks can include, but are not limited to, naming objects, deciding if two stimuli belong in the same object category, or matching pictures to their written or spoken names." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0520_15384", "title": "[A case of primary progressive multiple sclerosis with onset of memory impairment].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report a 52-year-old woman with primary progressive multiple sclerosis (PPMS) presenting with chronic progressive memory impairment. From a couple of years prior to admission, she had developed impairment of her short-term memory. For example, she forgot her nephew's name, and spoke the same phrases again and again. She also sometimes forgot to turn off her gas stove and forgot things she bought in shops. Moreover, her mental activity gradually decreased and she became apathetic. However, she did not note her memory impairment, and had no hallucinations. She was admitted to our hospital on 20 May, 2003 because donepezil had been ineffective for treating her memory impairment. Neurologically, she showed bilateral horizontal gaze nystagmus, mild limb ataxia on the left and mildly ataxic gait. Neuropsychological examinations showed mildly impaired cognitive function, e.g., MMSE 25/30, WAIS-R full IQ 69 and especially in verbal short memory, which may represent temporal lobe dysfunction. Moreover, Benton's visual memory test revealed marked visual short-term memory impairment, while impaired performance on a Kana picking up test suggested mild to moderate attention impairment, which could have represented frontal lobe dysfunction. Brain MRI showed multiple T2-high plaque lesions close to the bilateral lateral ventricles, and bilateral optic nerve lesions enhanced by gadolinium. Also, spinal cord MRI showed a gadolinium enhanced lesion at Th5 on the left. Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) examination showed normal cell count and protein level, and undetectable oligoclonal bands (OCB), but an elevated IgG index (1.1, normal &lt; 0.85). Visual evoked potentials (VEPs) showed prolonged P100 latency bilaterally, indicating subclinical optic nerve lesions. She was thus diagnosed as having PPMS according to McDonald's diagnostic criteria for MS. 99mTc Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) showed a decreased cerebral blood flow (CBF) in the bilateral frontal and temporal lobes, which was consistent with her clinical features. PPMS patients generally present with chronic progressive spastic paraparesis and/or cerebellar ataxia. Cognitive impairments observed in PPMS are generally thought to be due to white matter lesions, i.e., subcortical dementia. However, some recent reports have shown MS patients with short-term memory impairment (antegrade amnesia) similar to cortical dementias such as Alzheimer's disease (AD). In such MS cases, visual short-term memory impairment seems characteristic of their cognitive impairment compared to AD cases. As well, the present case showed visual memory impairment as evaluated by Benton's memory test. Parietal and frontal lobes are reported to be important for verbal and visual working memory, respectively. Thus, in the present case, decreased CBF in the frontal and temporal lobes, which could have been due to a disconnection between cortices and subcortices caused by the white matter lesions, is consistent with the type of her cognitive dysfunction, i.e., notable visual memory impairment. PPMS may thus be an important disease as a differential diagnosis for chronic progressive dementia. Further neuropsychological and functional imaging studies will be necessary to achieve a better understanding of the mechanisms of cognitive impairment in PPMS." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en303_23976", "title": "Sleep and memory", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Neural imaging measures Neuroimaging can be classified into two categories, both used in varying situations depending on what type of information is needed. Structural imaging deals predominately with the structure of the brain (computed tomography) while functional imaging deals more heavily with metabolic processes in regards to anatomical functioning (positron emission tomography, functional magnetic resonance imaging). In recent years, the relationship between sleep and memory processes had been aided by the development of such neuroimaging techniques. Positron emission tomography (PET) is used in viewing a functional processes of the brain (or other body parts). A Positron-emitting radionuclide is injected into the bloodstream and emits gamma rays which are detected by an imaging scanner. Computer analysis then allows for a 3-dimensional reconstruction of the brain region or body part of interest." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0271_4082", "title": "[Presenile dementia with marked recent memory disturbance--in relation to hippocampal dementia].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Two cases of presenile dementia with marked recent memory disturbance were reported. Patient 1 is a 54-year-old woman. She noticed forgetfulness at the age of 51 years. Neurological examination at aged 52 revealed marked recent memory disturbance, but examination by WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) showed good results (verbal IQ 106, performance IQ 104, total IQ 106). There was neither disorientation in place nor character change. Cranial CT scan and MRI revealed the absence of brain atrophy. About 3 years after the onset of the disease, the degree of dementia is slight and disorientation in place does not appear. Patient 2 is a 67-year-old man. He noticed forgetfulness at the age of 63 years. Neurological examination at aged 66 revealed marked recent memory disturbance, but examination by WAIS-R showed moderate results (verbal IQ 89, performance IQ 87, total IQ 88). There was neither disorientation in place nor character change. Cranial CT scan and MRI revealed slight dilatation of the inferior horns of the lateral ventricle and slight cortical atrophy. About 4 years after the onset of the disease, the degree of dementia was slight and disorientation in place did not appear. We can not rule out the possibility that our cases belong to Alzheimer's disease, but the clinical course of our cases is peculiar. In the relation of responsible lesion in pure amnestic syndrome, hippocampal dementia, and simple senile dementia, our cases are interesting and important." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en016_90053", "title": "Cognitive neuropsychology", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "With improved neuroimaging techniques, it has been possible to correlate patterns of impairment with a knowledge of exactly which parts of the nervous system are damaged, allowing previously undiscovered functional relationships to be explored (the lesion method). Contemporary cognitive neuropsychology uses many of the same techniques and technologies from the wider science of neuropsychology and fields such as cognitive neuroscience. These may include neuroimaging, electrophysiology and neuropsychological tests to measure either brain function or psychological performance. Useful technology in cognitive neuropsychology includes positron-emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). These techniques make it possible to identify the areas of the brain responsible for performing certain cognitive tasks by measuring blood flow in the brain. PET scans sense the low-level radiation in the brain and produce 3-D images, whereas an fMRI works on a magnetic signal" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_17784", "title": "CDC classification system for HIV infection", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Cryptosporidiosis or isosporiasis with diarrhea persisting more than 1 month Cytomegalovirus disease with onset of symptoms at age over 1 month (at a site other than liver, spleen, or lymph nodes) Encephalopathy (at least one of the following progressive findings present for at least 2 months in the absence of a concurrent illness other than HIV infection that could explain the findings): a) failure to attain or loss of developmental milestones or loss of intellectual ability, verified by standard developmental scale or neuropsychological tests; b) impaired brain growth or acquired microcephaly demonstrated by head circumference measurements or brain atrophy demonstrated by computerized tomography or magnetic resonance imaging (serial imaging is required for children under 2 years of age); c) acquired symmetric motor deficit manifested by two or more of the following: paresis, pathologic reflexes, ataxia, or gait disturbance" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en271_2220", "title": "Hanna Damasio", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Hanna Damasio utilizes brain imaging methods, such as computerized tomography and nuclear magnetic resonance, to enhance the diagnoses protocols for diseases that affect the brain. Her current projects include: developing new techniques to investigate brain structure in vivo using magnetic resonance, developing new techniques to evaluate experimental results in positron emission tomography (PET), and investigating the neuroanatomical substrates of language, memory, emotion, and decision-making using the lesion method. Her work has resulted in numerous scientific articles which appeared in leading journals. In 1989, she published \"Lesion Analysis in Neuropsychology\" (Oxford University Press), a classic textbook for which she received the Prize for Outstanding Book of the Year in Bio and Medical Sciences from the Association of American Publishers. Her continued interest in human neuroanatomy led her to develop the first atlas of the human brain based on computer tomography images:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0669_3348", "title": "Detection of early amnestic mild cognitive impairment without significantly objective memory impairment: a case-controlled study.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We encountered eight early amnestic mild cognitive impairment (aMCI) patients (early MCI group) who did not fulfill the diagnostic criteria for aMCI. We compared the scores of neuropsychological examinations as well as the cerebral metabolic rate for glucose consumption (CMRglc) decrease on (18)F-FDG PET examination between the early MCI group and 10 aMCI patients (MCI group) or six normal elderly subjects (normal group), to examine whether the current diagnostic criteria can detect early-stage aMCI. The three groups underwent Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE), Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale - Third Edition (WAIS-III), Wechsler Memory Scale Revised (WMS-R), magnetic resonance imaging and 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography ((18)F-FDG PET) examinations. The early MCI group did not show significant memory impairment of 1.0 SD or other cognitive dysfunctions on neuropsychological examinations, and did not fulfill the diagnostic criteria of aMCI. With one-way anova and Tukey's HSD post-hoc test, the early MCI group showed the highest scores for WAIS-III, whereas the MCI group showed the lowest scores for WMS-R, although there were no significant differences between the early MCI and normal groups. In order to show a discrepancy in scores between WAIS-III and WMS-R, we subtracted the scores of WMS-R from WAIS-III. Consequently, the normal group showed significantly smaller differences in scores than the other groups, although there were no significant differences between the early MCI and MCI groups. (18)F-FDG PET recognized a CMRglc decrease in the posterior cingulate gyrus and/or part of the parietotemporal area in both the MCI and early MCI groups, of which the extent and magnitude were weaker in the early MCI group. The normal group did not show a significant CMRglc. The early MCI group should be included in aMCI not only based on the discrepancy between intelligence and memory scores, but also based on the (18)F-FDG PET findings. The combination of these examinations would make it possible to diagnose early-stage aMCI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_24776", "title": "A case of atypical progressive supranuclear palsy.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) is a neurodegenerative extrapyramidal syndrome. Studies have demonstrated that PSP can present clinically as an atypical dementing syndrome dominated by a progressive apraxia of speech (AOS) and aphasia. We aimed to investigate the clinical presentation of PSP, using a comprehensive multidimensional evaluation, and the disease response to various pharmacological treatments. A 72-year-old right-handed male, with 17 years education, who first presented with aphasia, AOS, depression, apathy, and postural instability at 69 years; a complete neuropsychological evaluation, tapping the different cognitive domains, was performed. Testing revealed a moderate global cognitive deficit (Mini-Mental State Examination test score =20), low memory test scores (story recall, Rey's 15-word Immediate and Delayed Recall), and poor phonemic and semantic fluency. The patient's language was characterized by AOS, with slow speech rate, prolonged intervals between syllables and words, decreased articulatory accuracy, sound distortions, and anomia. Behavioral changes, such as depression, anxiety, apathy, and irritability, were reported. The neurological examination revealed supranuclear vertical gaze palsy, poor face miming, and a mild balance deficit. Magnetic resonance imaging showed only widespread cortical atrophy. Single photon emission computed tomography demonstrated left &gt; right frontotemporal cortical abnormalities. After 6 months, a further neuropsychological assessment showed a progression in cognitive deficits, with additional attention deficits. The patient reported frequent falls, but the neurological deficits remained unchanged. Neuroimaging tests showed the same brain involvement. Our case highlights the heterogeneity of the clinical features in this syndrome, demonstrating that atypical PSP can present as AOS and aphasia, without the classical features or involvement of the subcortical gray and brainstem region, commonly affected in typical PSP." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_2470", "title": "Epilepsy surgery in the elderly: an unusual case of a 75-year-old man with recurrent status epilepticus.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Epilepsy surgery is increasingly well-supported as an effective treatment for patients with intractable epilepsy. It is most often performed on younger patients and the safety and efficacy of epilepsy surgery in elderly patients are not frequently described. We report a case of a 75-year-old right-handed man who underwent a left fronto-temporal craniotomy for resection of a suprasellar meningioma in 2002. Immediately following hospital discharge, he began to experience complex partial seizures. He continued to have frequent seizures despite treatment with multiple combinations of antiepileptic medications. He presented with status epilepticus every two or three months, and required long periods of hospitalization on each occasion for post-ictal confusion and aphasia. Scalp EEG showed continuous spikes and polyspikes and persistent slowing in the left temporal area, as well as spikes in the left frontal area. EEG telemetry recorded multiple seizures, all with a clear focus in the left temporal area. MRI scan showed an area of encephalomalacia in the left temporal lobe, as well as post-surgical changes in the left frontal area. Neuropsychological testing showed bilateral memory impairment with no significant cognitive decline expected after unilateral temporal lobe resection. A left anteromesial temporal lobectomy was performed with intraoperative electrocorticography. Since surgery, the patient was not seizure-free (Engel class II-b), but had no further episodes of status epilepticus in one year and two months of follow-up. This is one of the oldest patients reported in the literature with epilepsy surgery and supports the possibility of epilepsy surgery in elderly patients for particular cases. In addition, few cases with such a malignant evolution of temporal lobe epilepsy have been described in this age group." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en568_14381", "title": "List of medical tests", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Neurological electroencephalogram electromyography (EMG) lumbar puncture neuropsychological tests Obstetric / Gynaecological amniocentesis colposcopy mammography hysteroscopy laparoscopy Smear tests such as Pap smears Ocular dilated fundus examination multifocal electroretinography (mfERG) optical coherence tomography (OCT) visual field test Pulmonary polysomnography pulmonary pletysmography thoracentesis Radiology CT scan (B*2****) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (B*3****) nuclear medicine (C******) positron-emission tomography (PET) projectional radiography (B*0****) ultrasonography (B*4****) Rheumatologic arthroscopy Urologic cystoscopy urodynamic testing References Tests Tests" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0632_20918", "title": "A case series of epilepsy-derived memory impairment resembling Alzheimer disease.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We report 4 cases of epilepsy-derived progressive memory disturbances that clinically resembled Alzheimer disease. The patients were 3 women and 1 man, aged 56 to 79 years. The greatest disturbance was in recent memory. The patients' remote memory and orientation were relatively intact. Mental dullness and a decline in daily activities were also observed. No overt seizures were observed in any of the patients. Electroencephalography (EEG) revealed spikes in the left temporal region in 3 patients and in the left central region in the other patient. Single photon emission computed tomography or positron emission tomography revealed focal areas of hypofunction in the frontal, parietal, and parietotemporal regions. Performance of activities and memory improved rapidly in all patients after treatment with carbamazepine; the improvement was maintained after more than a year. It might be speculated that epileptic discharges caused dysfunction in the temporal lobe and the remote cortex through the neocortical and mesiotemporal network. EEG would be useful to rule out the possibility of a reversible condition in patients with cognitive disturbance. Moreover, investigation of this epilepsy-related condition with the combination of EEG and neurofunctional imaging might provide clues to clarify the pathophysiology of Alzheimer disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0742_21035", "title": "Neurosyphilis presenting with unusual hippocampal abnormalities on magnetic resonance imaging and positron emission tomography scans: a case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The incidence of neurosyphilis has declined markedly since the introduction of penicillin therapy. While there are a number of case reports in the literature of neurosyphilis causing focal decreased 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose uptake on positron emission tomography/computed tomography scans, to the best of our knowledge this is the first published report of neurosyphilis presenting with intensely increased 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose uptake in the hippocampus. A 55-year-old Caucasian man presented to our facility with acute collapse against a background of memory difficulties over the previous six months. The results of his initial physical examination were normal. He scored 24 out of 30 on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment test. A magnetic resonance imaging scan of his brain revealed high T2 signal intensity and atrophy within the right frontal area in addition to high T2 signal intensity in the bilateral mesial temporal areas. Blood and cerebrospinal fluid analysis revealed an active syphilis infection. An 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography brain scan showed intensely increased 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose uptake limited to the head of the right hippocampus. He responded to penicillin treatment with an improvement in his cognition, which was further reflected in a complete resolution of the findings previously seen on magnetic resonance imaging and 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography scans. Diagnosis of neurosyphilis can be difficult, as many patients are either asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as memory disturbance or seizures. This report highlights the importance of considering neurosyphilis in the differential diagnosis when mesiotemporal changes are seen on magnetic resonance imaging or 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography scans." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_12344", "title": "A follow-up study of the family with the Swedish APP 670/671 Alzheimer's disease mutation.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To study the progression of Alzheimer's disease (AD) at a very early stage and to evaluate clinical markers of presymptomatic AD. Longitudinal study at a university hospital. A Swedish family harboring a double mutation at codons 670/671 of the APP gene on chromosome 21 was followed longitudinally for 3 years. Both mutation carriers and noncarriers participated. Results from clinical investigations, electroencephalography, neuropsychological and neuroradiological examinations including magnetic resonance imaging, single-photon emission computed tomography and positron emission tomography were assessed and compared on two or more occasions. During follow-up, 1 initially asymptomatic mutation carrier who was near the expected age of onset for this family, developed cognitive symptoms, and at the end of the follow-up fulfilled the diagnostic criteria for AD. One mutation carrier with cognitive symptoms at the first examination showed clinical deterioration and was diagnosed with AD. One demented mutation carrier died and was shown to have typical AD neuropathology at autopsy. The two remaining asymptomatic mutation carriers, as well as all the noncarriers were asymptomatic. These mutation carriers who were near the expected age of onset of AD but without clinical signs of the disease, did not show changes in either electrophysiological parameters or volumes of the temporal lobes. However, in these 2 individuals the blood flow in the temporal lobe showed intermediate values between the symptomatic mutation carriers and healthy noncarriers. Two neuropsychological tests showed a deterioration that paralleled clinical symptoms in 1 of the mutation carriers who was close to the expected age of onset and who at the end of the follow-up had clinical signs of AD. In the same subject, brain glucose metabolism was pathologically reduced in the temporal lobes before other clinical symptoms were obvious. In this familial form of AD a reduced temporal lobe glucose metabolism was indicative of AD before the expected clinical onset. Reduced glucose metabolism even preceded the development of subjective or objective cognitive dysfunction and might therefore serve as a clinical marker for AD before the onset of clinical symptoms. Reduced cerebral blood flow in the temporal lobes and cognitive deterioration paralleled the clinical decline in the early stage of the disease. Copyrightz1999S.KargerAG,Basel" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0295_2474", "title": "Alzheimer disease and nonfluent progressive aphasia.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To describe a patient with pathologically proven Alzheimer disease (AD) who presented with a non-fluent progressive aphasic syndrome. Longitudinal neuropsychological assessment, structural (magnetic resonance imaging) and functional (single photon emission computed tomography) imaging, and postmortem brain examination. Memory and cognitive disorders clinic in a tertiary referral hospital. A 66-year-old man presented with a 5-year history of progressive nonfluent aphasia characterized by marked deficits in phonology and syntax with preservation of everyday abilities. His condition deteriorated rapidly and he died suddenly of a myocardial infarction 12 months later. Neuropsychological testing revealed mild global intellectual impairment with marked impairment of auditory verbal short-term memory, syntactic, and phonological abilities. His naming errors were predominantly phonological paraphasias. Magnetic resonance imaging scans showed left perisylvian atrophy and results of a Tc 99m hexamethyl-propyleneamine-oxime single photon emission computed tomographic scan were normal. Postmortem pathological examination revealed typical AD pathological features with atypical distribution, involving predominantly perisylvian language areas, but sparing the medial temporal lobe. The language deficits in AD, which have received considerable attention, are thought to involve predominantly lexicosemantic processes. When AD presents as a relatively isolated language disturbance, the aphasia is usually of the fluent anomic type. To our knowledge, our patient represents the first fully documented case of progressive nonfluent aphasia with pathologically verified AD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0272_4891", "title": "[A case of atypical presenile dementia].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Kosaka (1993) reviewed 16 cases of slowly progressive presenile cortical dementia thought to be a clinicopathological entity with pathological features characterized by circumscribed lobar atrophy, diffuse neurofibrillary tangles, and calcification of the Fahr type, however, the clilical features of this new entity are not known in the description of detail. We report a patient with atypical presenile dementia which appeared to be consistant with that entity, together with the results of a comprehensive neuropsychological and neuroradiological examination. The patient was a 65-year-old right-handed housewife. At about 58 years of age, she started to lose spontaneity and develop a mild memory disturbance. At age 61 she transiently, experienced hallucinations and delusions. During the subsequent 8 years there was a very slight decline in global intellectual efficiency. In addition, she showed slow but definite progression of language disturbances characterized by anomia and loss of ability to grasp the meaning of words, particularly abstract nouns. She performed poorly on tasks with good sensitivity for detecting frontal lobe dysfunction, such as the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test and the hand sequence test. All other cognitive functions appeared to be relatively well preserved, however moderate dyscalculia was present. There was no socially inappropriate or stereotyped behavior, but the patient lost insight into her disease. The patient's activities of daily living on the ward were self-maintained. An EEG was normal. CT and MRI scans showed circumscribed bilateral fronto-temporal atrophy and bilateral mineralization in the basal ganglia and cerebellar white matter.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_76895", "title": "Neuropsychology", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Brain scans The use of brain scans to investigate the structure or function of the brain is common, either as simply a way of better assessing brain injury with high resolution pictures, or by examining the relative activations of different brain areas. Such technologies may include fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) and positron emission tomography (PET), which yields data related to functioning, as well as MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) and computed axial tomography (CAT or CT), which yields structural data. Global Brain Project Brain models based on mouse and monkey have been developed based on theoretical neuroscience involving working memory and attention, while mapping brain activity based on time constants validated by measurements of neuronal activity in various layers of the brain. These methods also map to decision states of behavior in simple tasks that involve binary outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0309_5111", "title": "Cognitive function in non-demented individuals complaining of short-term memory disturbances: a study with event-related potentials (P 300) and brain CT scan.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Event-related potentials (ERPs) were elicited in 30, non-consecutive, non-demented individuals, complaining of short-term memory disturbances. Fifteen of them had a moderate diffuse cerebral atrophy on their brain CT and the other 15 had a negative brain CT. ERPs were also elicited in 15 age-matched controls with no reported memory disturbances and negative brain CTs. The statistical analysis showed that the group of individuals with cerebral atrophy had a significantly prolonged P300 (P3) latency and a decreased P3 amplitude compared to controls. It is concluded that among persons complaining of short-term memory disturbances, the individuals who show cerebral atrophy, taken as a group, have a P3 latency prolongation and/or low P3 amplitude a finding which reflects an impaired information processing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_133307", "title": "Rehabilitation (neuropsychology)", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Brain scans The use of brain scans to investigate the structure or function of the brain is common, either as simply a way of better assessing brain injury with high resolution pictures, or by examining the relative activations of different brain areas. Such technologies may include fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) and positron emission tomography (PET), which yields data related to functioning, as well as MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) and computed axial tomography (CAT or CT), which yields structural data. Global Brain Project Brain models based on mouse and monkey have been developed based on theoretical neuroscience involving working memory and attention, while mapping brain activity based on time constants validated by measurements of neuronal activity in various layers of the brain. These methods also map to decision states of behavior in simple tasks that involve binary outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0617_11191", "title": "[Devastating epileptic encephalopathy-pseudoencephalitis: the new type of catastrophe epilepsy in our department].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Analysis of history of our five patients with intractable epilepsy whose illness have begun with prolonged status epilepticus (SE) and high-grade fever of unknown cause. Retrospective study analysis of selected five intractable epileptic patients at a median age of 11.5 (8-14) years. All children had normal development before epilepsy begun. Intractable SE lasted 3-10 (median seven) days by four patients and three months by one patient. The cause of illness was unknown at the beginning and the MRI were normal. Intractable epilepsy followed the SE in all cases without any latent period. Follow-up of the children was 3-15 (median 9.5) years. The seizures came continually with few-day-long breaks, antiepileptic drugs were ineffective. Semiology of seizures, EEG, and functional imaging examinations (PET, SPECT) referred to temporal and frontal lobe damages. Later on, the MR images showed hippocampal sclerosis in one patient and mild generalized brain atrophy in the others. During the years, cognitive deterioration and behavioral problems have been realized. The most severe patient developed tetraparesis, fell in vigil coma and died after five years. The symptoms of our patients fulfilled the criteria of devastating epileptic encephalopathy in school-aged children." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en252_36523", "title": "Implicit memory", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Neuropsychology has used imaging techniques such as PET (positron emission tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) to study brain-injured patients, and has shown that explicit memory relies on the integrity of the medial temporal lobe (rhinal, perirhinal and parahippocampal cortex), the frontal–basal areas and the bilateral functionality of the hippocampus. The amygdala is mainly responsible for the emotional component in the process of information storage (see Gazzaniga, 1999; Mancia, 2000b, 2004, in press), and can modulate both the encoding and the storage of hippocampal-dependent memories (Phelps, 2004). Implicit memory, by contrast, is not conscious and concerns data that can be neither remembered nor verbalized. It presides over the learning of various skills: a) priming, which is the ability of an individual to choose an object to which he has previously been exposed subliminally; b) procedural memory, which concerns cognitive and sensorimotor experiences such as motor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_3709", "title": "[A 83 year-old woman with dementia, gait disturbance, and convulsion].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We report a 83 year-old woman with dementia. She was apparently well until December of 1993 when she was 81-year-old. At that time, she was operated or her cataract. Her post operative course was uneventful, however, shortly after her operation, she had an onset of memory loss and abnormal behavior. She showed a fluctuating course in her mental disturbance. In 1995, her dementia worsened with nocturnal agitation. She was admitted to our service on June 12, 1995. She was alert and her blood pressure was 140/100 mmHg. She showed recent memory loss and disorientation to time. Motor wise, she was unable to stand unsupported. Her gait with support showed small steps and a wide base. She was bradykinetic and ataxic in her finger-to-nose and heel-to-knee test, however, no rigidity or tremor was noted. Her MRI showed T2-high signal lesions in both medial thalamic areas, in the right occipital lobe, and in the bilateral cerebral white matters as well as in the basal ganglia. She was discharged for out-patient follow up on July 3, 1995. Four days after the discharge, she showed declining responses to stimuli and she developed dyspnea on July 14, 1995. She was admitted again on the same day. Her body temperature was 38.5 degrees C and moist rales were heard in the left lung field. She appeared drowsy and no verbal response was obtained; no apparent motor palsy was noted. Blood count showed leukocytosis (14,300/ml). Blood gas analysis under 61 of oxygen inhalation through a mask was as follows: pH 7.460, PCO2 39.6 mmHg, PO2 67 mmHg, and HCO3-28.5 mEq/l. Two days after admission, she developed a convulsion in her left arm and she became unconscious. Her EEG showed periodically recurring lateralized epileptic discharges on the right fronto-central areas. Her subsequent course was complicated by status epilepticus and respiratory distress. She died on July 26, 1995. She was discussed in a neurological CPC. The chief discussant arrived at a conclusion that she suffered from multi-infarct dementia. Bilateral thalamic infarctions were considered to have played a significant role in her dementia. Post-mortem examination revealed subcortical leukoencephalopathy of Binswanger's type and cerebral infarctions in the thalamic and basal ganglia regions and in the right occipital lobe. In addition, she showed isolated angitis of the central nervous system involving mainly in the small arteries located in the superficial areas of the brain and the spinal cord. This patient was interesting in that despite relatively mild leukoaraiosis in MRI, post-mortem examination revealed profound pathologic changes in the subcortical white matters. In addition, she showed the isolated angitis of the CNS. The cause and the clinical correlates of her angitis were unclear." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_87321", "title": "Functional neuroimaging", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Functional neuroimaging is the use of neuroimaging technology to measure an aspect of brain function, often with a view to understanding the relationship between activity in certain brain areas and specific mental functions. It is primarily used as a research tool in cognitive neuroscience, cognitive psychology, neuropsychology, and social neuroscience. Overview Common methods of functional neuroimaging include Positron emission tomography (PET) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) Electroencephalography (EEG) Magnetoencephalography (MEG) Functional near-infrared spectroscopy (fNIRS) Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) Functional ultrasound imaging (fUS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0295_7776", "title": "Isolated amnesia with slow onset and stable course, without ensuing dementia: MRI and PET data and a six-year neuropsychological follow-up.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Patient EDS presented with an amnesic disorder of insidious onset (4 years) that remained stable and restricted to memory functions over a 10-year course. Repeated neuropsychological evaluations over 6 years showed a moderate-to-severe, stable impairment of long-term memory and of memory for public events, and a milder, stable impairment of autobiographic memory and of short-term memory. Language, perception, praxis and 'frontal' functions were fully preserved. MRI showed atrophy of the right hippocampus, of the right mammillary body and of the sylvian fissure (bilaterally, but more marked on the left). On PET scan, metabolic activity in the mesial temporal structures was significantly reduced on the right and was at lower normal levels on the left. The disorder observed in EDS is similar to that recently reported in other patients. Possible etiologies of the selective amnesia observed in EDS are considered and their implications discussed." } ] } } }